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SCHOOL OF MEDICINE AND CLINICAL SCIENCES

CVS 301 FINAL EXAMINATION

14TH December, 2020.

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and computer number on this cover page in the space provided.
2. Do not turn over this cover page until you are told to do so.
3. All cell phones and computers should be off or put on silent and submitted to the invigilator.
4. This examination paper is comprised of two (2) sections (A and B). Section A has 80 multiple
choice questions and you are required to clearly mark X for your answer in the provided
answer sheet. Section B has 15 short answer questions, write your answers in the answer
booklet provided.
5. You can attempt all the questions.
6. Negative marking may apply for each wrong answer in section A.
7. Time allowed is three (3) hours.

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SECTION A

You can attempt all the questions by providing the single best answer on the provided answer
sheet.

1. Concerning cardiac lesions, small lesions:

a) Usually have significant effect on the function of the heart
b) Are usually quieter than large lesions
c) Are only seen in atrial septal defects
d) Are usually unrestrictive lesions
e) May close on their own

2. Concerning development of the heart;

a) Secondary Heart field develops partly from the endoderm
b) Progenitor cells are pre-specified molecularly to form different parts of the heart
c) The atria are cranial structures
d) Endocardial cushions form the papillary muscles
e) The sinoatrial node is formed from cells of the bulbus cordis

3. Concerning Fetal Circulation:

a) The ductus venosus drains into the portal vein
b) The left and Right ventricle both contribute to the systemic circulation
c) Is a series type of circulation
d) There is high systemic vascular resistance (SVR) with high systemic blood flow
e) There is no difference in saturation between the lower body and upper body

4. Concerning Transition from Fetal circulation

a) The ductus venosus closes before the ductus arteriosus
b) The umbilical arteries constrict before the umbilical veins
c) There is increased vascular resistance in the pulmonary circulation
d) Increased pressure in the right atrium causes closure of the foramen ovale
e) Ductus arteriosus closes by muscular contraction and influenced by prostaglandins

5. Concerning Persistent Pulmonary Hypertension

a) May be caused by cyanotic congenital heart lesions
b) Results in reduced oxygenation of blood
c) Closure of the ductus arteriosus improves the condition
d) Can be treated with indomethacin
e) Nitric Oxide (NO) is the first line of treatment

6. Concerning Left to right shunts

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a) A physiological left to right shunt is when oxygenated blood returns back to the
lungs to get re-oxygenated
b) Causes reduced load on the left ventricle
c) There is increased system cardiac output
d) May result in system hypertension
e) In the foetal stage a large defect has major physiological effect as the PVR is high,
which increases the blood flow to the lungs

7. A two day old cyanotic infant with a grade 3/6 ejection systolic murmur is noted to have
decreased pulmonary vascular markings on chest x-ray and left axis deviation on ECG.
The MOST LIKELY diagnosis is:
a) Tetralogy of Fallot
b) Transposition of Great Vessels
c) Truncus Arteriosus
d) Tricuspid Atresia
e) Ventricular septal defect

8. Cyanosis is produced by the presence of deoxygenated hemoglobin of AT LEAST …

a) 1-2 gm/dL
b) 3-5 gm/dL
c) 6-8 gm/dL
d) 9-10 gm/dL
e) 11-12gm/dl

9. In a developing embryo, the vascular system appears in the

a) First week
b) Second week
c) Third week
d) Fourth week
e) Fifth week

10. During cardiac embryologic development, abnormalities in the endocardial cushion

formation contribute to the following malformations except
a) Atrial septal defect
b) Ventricular septal defect
c) Truncus arteriosus
d) Tetralogy of Fallot
e) Atrial ventricular septal defect

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11. Teratogenic agents identified as causing cardiac malformations include the following
except
a) Rubella virus
b) Thalidomide
c) Maternal alcohol consumption
d) Maternal cigarette smoking
e) Maternal diabetes

12. Which of the following statements concerning cardiac malformations is false

a) Muscular ventricular septal defects (VSD) are more common than membranous ones
b) Heart and vascular abnormalities make up the largest category of human birth
defects
c) Tetralogy of Fallot is the most frequently occurring abnormality of the conotruncal
region
d) A patent ductus arteriosus is one of the most common abnormality of the great
vessels
e) Teratogenic agents can caus cardiac malformations

13. All of the following are primary immunodeficiency diseases EXCEPT

a) SCID
b) Grave’s disease
c) DiGeorge’s syndrome
d) Hyper IgM syndrome
e) Chediak Higashi Syndrome

14. The Innate Immunity include the following EXCEPT

a) Neutrophils
b) Complement
c) T & B lymphocytes
d) Antigen presenting cells (Dendritic cells, Macrophages & Monocytes)
e) Acute phase proteins, cytokines and chemokine
15. In Severe Combined Immune Deficiency (SCID), the patients are deficient in
a) B cells
b) T cells
c) IgA
d) IgE
e) Both a and b

16. Predominately B-cell primary immunodefiencies disoders includes following EXCEPT

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a) Bruton agammaglobulinaemia
b) Common variable immunodeficiency
c) Selective IgA deficiency
d) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
e) Transient hypogammaglobulinaemia of infancy

17. A 56-year-old Caucasian male with hypertension (blood pressure 155/95 mm Hg)
smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day and has an HDL cholesterol that is greater than
normal. Which of the following factors in his case is NOT associated with an increased
risk for his developing atherosclerosis:
a) Hypertension
b) Smoking
c) Increased HDL cholesterol levels
d) Male sex
e) Age

18. The first visible gross evidence for the formation of an atheroma in an artery such as the
aorta is:
a) Thrombosis
b) Hemorrhage
c) Fatty streak
d) Calcification
e) Arterial narrowing

19. A 75-year-old female is noted to have calcification of hypogastric arteries on an

abdominal radiograph performed following abdominal trauma. What is the probable
lesion which accounts for this calcification:
a) Ulcerative artherosclerosis
b) Monkebergs sclerosis
c) Metatstatic calcification
d) Arteriolosclerosis
e) Dystrophic calcification

20. Which of the following complications is LEAST likely to occur in a 49-year-old female
who has atherosclerosis who has severe generalized atherosclerosis:
a) Sudden death
b) Gangrene of the right big toe

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c) Old myocardial infarction

d) Artherosclerosis of the pulmonary artery
e) Retinopathy with blindness

21. An aorta that demonstrated a mild degree of atherosclerosis with only lipid streaks and
just a few atheromatous plaques would be most consistent with which of the following
histories from patients:
a) A 62 year old male with familial hypercholesteremia
b) A 48 year old male who exercises regularly
c) A 45 year old woman with nodular glomerular sclerosis
d) A 10 year old child killed in a motor vehicle accident
e) A 56 year old male with angina

22. Hypertensive Heart disease

a) Only systolic dysfunction occurs
b) Only diastolic dysfunction occurs
c) Both diastolic and systolic dysfunction occurs
d) All the above can occur
e) a,b,c cannot occur

23. In cardiac cycle

a) Duration cardiac cycle is 0.8 seconds
b) Duration of diastolic is longer than systolic
c) Duration of systolic is longer than diastolic
d) Only (a) and (b) are correct
e) Only (b) and (c) are correct

24. In vasculitic diseases

a) ANCA is helpful in narrowing the differential
b) ESR is not useful
c) Cavitation in the lungs is a pathology in Wegener's syndrome
d) Eosinophilic granulomas only affects large blood vessels
e) Eosinophilic granulomatous disease does not affect kidney

25. In Primary hypertension pathological changes include:

a) Inflammation
b) Thrombosis
c) Vascular proliferation

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d) Vasoconstriction
e) All of the above

26. Causes of secondary pulmonary hypertension includes

a) Sickle cell disease
b) Chronic thromboembolic disease
c) Sarcoidosis
d) Only (a) and (b) are correct
e) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

27. All of the following are correct concerning surface anatomy of the heart EXCEPT
a) The superior border corresponds to a line connecting the inferior border of the 2nd left
costal cartilage to the superior border of the 3rd right costal cartilage.
b) The right border corresponds to a line drawn from the 3rd right costal cartilage to the
5th right costal cartilage; this border is slightly convex to the right.
c) The inferior border corresponds to a line drawn from the inferior end of the right border
to a point in the 5th intercostal space close to the left MCL; the left end of this line
corresponds to the location of the apex of the heart and the apex beat.
d) The left border corresponds to a line connecting the left ends of the lines representing
the superior and inferior borders.
e) The valves are located posterior to the sternum; however, the sounds produced by
them are projected to the pulmonary, aortic, mitral, and tricuspid areas where the
stethoscope may be placed to avoid intervening bone.

28. Which one of the following is NOT a pair of common causes of Fibrinous and serofibrinous
pericarditis
a) Acute MI and rheumatic fever
b) Dressler syndrome and uremia
c) Chest radiation and SLE
d) Trauma and viral infections
e) Cardiac surgery and Dressler syndrome

29. All of the following are correct about pericarditis EXCEPT

a) Normally, the pericardial sac contains less than 50 mL of thin, clear, straw-colored fluid.
b) The parietal layer of the serous pericardium is sensitive.
c) Primary pericarditis is very common and almost always of viral origin.
d) Caseous pericarditis can be caused by fungal infections.
e) Until proved otherwise, caseous pericarditis is tuberculous in origin.

30. Regarding atrial pressure changes and the jugular pulse

a) The a wave is due to atrial diastole.

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b) No blood regurgitates into the great veins when the atria contract.
c) The c wave is the transmitted manifestation of the rise in atrial pressure produced by
the bulging of the tricuspid valve into the atria during isovolumetric ventricular
contraction.
d) The v wave mirrors the rise in atrial pressure before the tricuspid valve opens during
systole.
e) Venous pressure rises during inspiration as a result of the increased negative
intrathoracic pressure and falls again during expiration.

31. The following are recognized common causes of secondary Raynaud phenomenon
EXCEPT
a) SLE
b) Scleroderma
c) Henoch-Schonlein purpura
d) Buerger disease
e) Atherosclerosis

32. A 32 year old man is shoot in the chest. The bullet punctured a vessel that courses
across the mediastinum in an almost horizontal fashion. Which of the following vessels
was injured?
a) Left Subclavian artery
b) Left Subclavian vein
c) Left brachiocephalic vain
d) Left internal jugular vein
e) Left common carotid artery

33. Which of the following vertebrae is the lowest –limit of the superior mediastinum?
a) First lumbar
b) Fourth thoracic
c) Second thoracic
d) Seventh cervical
e) Third thoracic

34. A specialist registrar is performing her first ductus arteriosus ligation. The supervising
consultant instructs her to be careful when placing a damp on the ductus to avoid injury to
which imparted structure immediately dorsal to it?
a) Accessory hemiaxygous vein
b) Left internal thoracic artery
c) Left Phrenic nerve
d) Left recurrent laryngeal nerve
e) Thoracic duct

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35. A patient presents with right bundle branch block due to blockage in the AV nodal
artery. Part of the right bundle branch of the AV bundle is carried by which structure?
a) Pectinate muscles
b) Anterior papillary muscle of left ventricle
c) Moderator band (septomarginal trabecula)
d) Crista terminalis
e) Chorda terminate

36. Which of the following statements regarding tenor drainage of the heart is correct?
a) The coronary sinus drains into the left atrium
b) The anterior cardiac veins being over the anterior surface of the left ventricle,
cross over the coronary groove and directly drain into the left atrium.
c) The great cardiac vein is the best tributary of the coronary sinus and the vein
starts and the apex of the heart and ascents with the anterior ventricular branch
of the left coronary artery.
d) The middle and small cardiac veins drain most of the areas supported by the left
coronary artery.
e) The coronary sinus drains directly into the great cardiac vein.

37. A 32 year old woman in her third trimester was severely injured in a road traffic
accident with left side femoral shaft fracture and right sided Tibial shaft fracture. On
arrival in the emergency department, she deteriorated and died suddenly. The most
likely cause of her sudden death was?
a) Aminiotic third embolism
b) Hemorrhagic shock
c) Antepurtum haemorrhage
d) Fat embolism
e) Spinal cord compression

38. A 36 year old man who has been a smoker for the last 20 years develops gangrenous
tuet on his left foot. His blood pressure is 118/76mmHg. His serein cholesterol level is
3.5 mmol/l and his serum glucose is 4.9mmol/L. The left anterior tibial artery is biopsied
which shows luminal thrombus and rasculitis. The most likely cause for this patients
clinical presentation is:
a) Giant cell arteritis
b) Kawasaki disease
c) Monckebergs arteriosderosis
d) Severe artherosderois
e) Thromboungitis obliterans

39. A 52 year old man with long standing hypertension was brought to the emergency
department 30 minutes after the onset of sudden severe chest pain that radiated to his

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chest and arms. Upon arrival his blood pressure was 180/80mmHg in his right arm with
no pressure reading obtainable from the left arm. Cardiac examination elicited a
murmur of aortic insufficiency. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
a) Acute aortic dissection
b) Acute myocardial infarction
c) Embolus to the right subclavius artery
d) Pulmonary embolism
e) Spontaneous pneumothorax

40. An obese 68 year old man underwent transvesical prostatectomy. While in hospital he
developed pain and swelling of his right leg. The is found to be tender and tense.
Which of the following investigations will be most helpful to confirm diagnosis?
a) Chest computed tomography
b) Duplex scan
c) Pelvic ultrasound
d) Venography
e) Urine test for fibrin products

41. A 48 year old man in the surgical intensive care unit developed a sudden onset of chest
pain, cough, dyspnea, tachypnea, and marked anxiety. Two days ago he underwent a
right hemicolectomy for cancer of the ascending colon. An accentuated pulmonary
sound is heard on auscultation. An ECG shows nonspecific ST segment and T wave
changes. The leukocyte count is 12X109/L. A chest X-Ray shows no pulmonary infiltrates
and no pleural effusion. Arterial blood gases show P (CO2) OF 30mmHg and an arterial
P(02) of 55mmHg. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for
causing the symptoms experienced by this man?
a) Acute pericarditis
b) Pericardial tamponade
c) Pleuritic
d) Pulmonary embolism
e) Spontaneous pneumothorax

42. A 24 year old man arrives in the casualty department at LMUTH with a stab in the right
side of the chest. Chest X-Ray confirms a haemothorax. It was estimated that about 20
% blood volume had been lost due to acute haemorrhage. It is true to say that in this
patient:
a) Coronary arteries are constricted due to catecholamines
b) Plasma adrenaline stimulates hypothalamic thirst center
c) Plasma vasopressin is increased in response to reduce ECF volume
d) Plasma aldosterone increase will lead to retention of potassium
e) The major acid base abnormality is hyperkalemic alkalosis

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43. While investigating a 34 year old man with essential hypertension it was noticed that he
had a blood renin level of 5ng/ml per hour (Normal 1-2.5ng/ml per hour). Which of the
following could be a major stimulus for the release of renin from the juxtaglomerular
apparatus in this patient?
a) Dilatation of renal arteries
b) Hypertension
c) Increased delivery of sodium to the distal tubuler
d) Increased sympathetic activity via the renal nerves
e) Over hydration

44. A 35 year old man is brought to casualty department following a road traffic accident in
which he suffered a pelvic fracture with significant internal blood loss resulting in
heamorrrhagic shock. Which of the following organs vulnerable during the shock phase
in this patient?
a) Brain
b) Heart Muscle
c) Kidneys
d) Skin
e) Skeletal muscle

45. Which of the following peptides can increase blood pressure acutely and cause
hypokalemia chronically?
a) Angiotensin II
b) Atrial natriuretic factor
c) Desmopressin
d) Endorphin
e) Oxytocin

46. The brain is the least tolerant of all body organs to Ischemic. Interruption of cerebral
blood flow far as little as 5s may cause syncope. While even transient decreases in
blood flow results in dizziness. What percentage of cardiac output is received by the
brain
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 35%
d) 50%
e) 75%

47. The following statements are true except

a) Organogenesis occurs by the 8th week of pregnancy
b) CO increases by 40-50% (3.5l/min to 6.0L/min)
c) Bp reaches a nadir at 28 to 32 wks gestation then increases towards term

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d) Fall in the peripheral resistance is one of the preseasons for increased CO

e) Increase in cardiac output increases systolic pressure whereas increase in
peripheral resistance increase the diastolic pressure.

48. Observable Cardiovascular changes during delivery are true except

a) During labour, each contraction squeezes about 300mls of blood from the uterus
into the central circulation and also relieve inferior vena cava compression.
b) Maternal systolic and diastolic blood pressures increases 10-20mmHg during a
contraction.
c) CO, stroke volume and heart rate all decrease immediately after delivery
d) During abdominal delivery, CO, stroke volume and heart rate change less than with
vaginal delivery because of the greater blood loss that occurs.
e) The type of anaesthesia does not influence the cardiac changes associated with C/S

49. Which of the following is not true

a) Cardiac output increases by 50%
b) Intra vascular volume increases by 45%
c) Heart rate increases by 60%
d) Systemic vascular resistance reduces by 20%
e) Central Venous pressure does not change

50. These clinically relevant facts are true except

a) A gravida normally loses about 500mls of blood with a vaginal delivery and close to
1000mls with an abdominal delivery
b) In response to the haemorrhage of delivery, blood volume rapidly decreases to
normal and haematocrit changes little.
c) Blood loss at delivery rarely necessitates transfusion due to the rapid decrement in
plasma volume that helps maintain a normal haematocrit.
d) Plasma volume declines over 3-5 days and reaches preconception levels 15 weeks
postpartum
e) 1/3 of total circulating blood is distributed to the lower limbs – increased venous
pressure →varicosties and oedema of the vulva and legs

51. In the heart, the formation of a reentrant circuit generally does not require:
a) Prolonged refractory period

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b) Barrier
c) Unindirectional block
d) Slow conduction
e) Any of the above

52. Which of the following lesions would result in complete heart block?
a) Fibrosis in the sinus node
b) Interruption of the His bundle
c) Interruption of the left bundle branch
d) Necrosis in accessory AV pathway
e) Interruption of the right bundle branch

53. Atherosclerosis is often associated with which of the following?

a) Cigarettes smoking
b) High blood pressure
c) Elevated LDL cholesterol levels
d) Decreased serum HDL levels in comparison to LDL levels
e) All of the above

54. Aortic dissection

a) May occur in men especially between 40 – 60 years of age
b) Young adults with systemic or localized abnormalities of connective tissue the aorta
may be affected
c) Can be iatrogenic following arterial catheritization procedures
d) Rarely affects women
e) All of the above

55. Aneurysm occurring as a consequence of atheroscherosis are common in

a) Abdominal aorta
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b) Branchial arteries
c) Renal arteries
d) Popliteal arteries
e) Non of the above
56. Following are the features of the Iron Deficiency Anaemia EXCEPT:
a) Pallor
b) Weakness
c) Low Blood Pressure
d) Gets easily tired
e) Irritability

57. Respiratory Diverticulum start to form approx. at which of gestation

a) 2 weeks
b) 4 weeks
c) 8 weeks
d) 12 weeks
e) 16 weeks

58. In the treatment of iron deficiency anaemia, usually how long does it take to replenish
the iron stores in body:
a) 2 weeks
b) 1 month
c) 3 months
d) 6 months
e) Variable for different patients.

59. In the treatment of the iron deficiency anaemia, the reticulocytes

a) Reticulocytes start increase after a week
b) Reticulocytes start increasing after 72 hours
c) Reticulocytes start increasing after 1 month
d) Reticulocytes start decreasing after a week
e) Reticulocytes are not affected by the treatment
60. Which of the following immunoglobulin (Ig) is involved in mediating allergic reactions

a) IgG
b) IgM
c) IgE
d) IgA

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e) IgD

61. Which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions is antibody mediated

a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type V
e) All of these

62. SCID can occur due to the absence of an enzyme called

a) Adenosine deaminase
b) Guanosine deaminase
c) Phosphorylase
d) Thymidine deaminase
e) NADPH Oxidase

63. B-cells mature in the..........while T cells mature in the .........

a) Thymus/Bone marrow and gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)
b) Spleen/Bone marrow and GALT
c) Bone marrow and GALT/thymus
d) Liver/Kidneys
e) All of the above

64. B-cells that produce and release large amount of antibody are called:
a) Memory Cells
b) Basophils
c) Plasma cells
d) Killer cells
e) Neutrophils

65. Cell medicated immunity is carried out by ................while humoral immunity is carried
out by...............
a) B cells/T cells
b) Epitopes/Antigens
c) T cells/B cells
d) Antibodies /Antigens
e) Antibodies/phagocytes

66. Di-George Syndrome is associated with the following EXECPT

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a) Truncus arteriousus
b) Thymic Aplasia
c) Hypercalcaemia
d) Micro deletion at chromosome 22
e) Tetralogy of Fallot

67. Which one of the following is true about Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

a) Autosomal Recessive
b) X-linked Recessive
c) Autosomal Dominant
d) Thrombocytosis
e) Low IgE

68. An 8-year of boy presents following a dental visit, which he was told that several of his
permanent teeth are coming in yet he has not lost his primary teeth. On review of his history,
his mother states he has been hospitalized for multiple abscesses and several pneumonias. On
examination he has coarse facies and eczema.
What is the most likely diagnosis in the about vignette?
a) Bruton’s Agammaglubulinemia
b) Hyper IgM syndrome
c) SCID
d) Hyper-IgE syndrome (Jobs syndrome)
e) Ataxia talengiectasia

69. Which one of the following is true concerning anaemia

a) Most common cause of anemia in Zambian children is the iron deficiency.
b) Pernicious anaemia is caused by Vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency.
c) Sickle Cell Anaemia is caused by the deficiency of Intrinsic Factor.
d) Spherocytosis is a type of Haemolytic Anaemia.
e) None of the above

70. Compared to the resting state, which is true of the cardiac cycle during exercise?
a) Even though heart rate increases, systole and diastole remain the same.
b) Systole remains the same but diastole decreases.
c) Systole increases and diastole remains the same.
d) Both systole and diastole decrease, but there is a greater decrease in diastole.
e) None of the above

71. Which is true of blood flow into the coronary arteries at rest?
a) It is greatest during the systolic phase of the cardiac cycle.
b) It is greatest during the diastolic phase of the cardiac cycle.
c) It is equivalent to approximately 20% of the cardiac output.
d) It is equivalent to approximately 40% of the cardiac output.

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e) It is equivalent to approximately 65% of the cardiac output.

72. In a normal individual at rest, about _____% of the total oxygen that is delivered to the
cells is taken up.
a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 90
e) 100

73. Which is true of arterial blood pressure during progressive dynamic exercise?
a) There is a progressive increase in systolic blood pressure and mean blood pressure
but diastolic pressure changes very little.
b) There is a progressive increase in systolic, diastolic and mean blood pressure.
c) Systolic blood pressure increases but diastolic and mean blood pressures decrease.
d) The decrease in diastolic blood pressure counterbalances the increase in systolic
blood pressure, so that mean pressure stays approximately the same.
e) None of the above

74. Which is true of the pulmonary circuit?

a) Blood oxygen content is higher in the pulmonary vein than in the pulmonary artery.
b) Blood is pumped through it by the left ventricle.
c) Resting blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is normally equal to that in the
aorta.
d) The cardiac output into the pulmonary circuit is approximately 1/6 of that into the
systemic circuit.
e) All of the above

75. Once stimulated, the time course for the formation and maturation of a red blood cell is
approximately:
a) 1-3 days.
b) 5-7 days.
c) 2 weeks.
d) 1 month.
e) 6 weeks

76. Which of the following increases oxygen unloading in the muscle during exercise?
a) An increase in muscle temperature
b) An increase in muscle CO2 production

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c) An increase in H+ concentration
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

77. Blood enters into the heart because of muscles of _______

a) atria relax
b) ventricles contract
c) ventricles relax
d) atria contract
e) both atria and ventricles contract

78. “Bundle of HIS” is made up of _________

a) nervous tissue supplied to ventricles
b) nervous tissue supplied to heart
c) muscular tissue supplied to heart
d) muscular tissue supplied to ventricles
e) nervous tissue supplied to the atria

79. The cardiac reflex control centers are located within the _____.
a) hypothalamus
b) medulla oblongata
c) aorta
d) heart
e) pons

80. In an ECG, where does the depolarization of the atria occur?

a) P wave
b) QRS complex
c) T wave
d) U wave
e) QT interval

SECTION B

You can attempt all the questions. Write your answers in the answer booklets provided.
1. List the features of a Tetralogy of Fallot
2. Explain the pathophysiology of Hypercyanotic spells (TET spells)
3. Explain the principles of treatment of a TET spell

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4. Briefly Explain the hemodynamics and pathophysiology of a patent ductus arteriosus

5. List 5 lesions that are left to right shunts
6. List all the cardiovascular system changes the occur in pregnancy
7. Explain the possible causes of oedema in pregnancy
8. Deep vein thrombosis is known to be common in pregnancy. Explain why mechanism of this
risk
9. Explain the how deep vein thrombosis can be fatal to a pregnant of mother
10. Explain evolution of blood pressure during pregnancy
11. Describe the heart's own blood supply (to and from the heart musculature). Be as specific as
possible.
12. List 5 factors that influence blood pressure
13. Describe briefly the functions of endothelial cells.
14. Briefly describe the blood brain barrier and its functions.
15. What is Raynaud phenomenon? List 4 systemic conditions that are associated with this
phenomenon.

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