MODULE 6: CRIMINOLOGISTS LICENSURE EXAMINATION

CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

FINAL COACHING NA MAY PAGMAMAHAL

Instruction: Encircle the Correct answer. Avoid ERASURES

1. It is the branch of criminology which deals with the management

and administration of inmates:
a.Criminal justice – study of different government agencies 8. What governing law of Aklan and Panay (1433) based on the
b.Penology beliefs, customs and practices, it is also reflects the level of
c.Victimology – study of the role of victim uprightness and morality of the people?
d.Jail Management – manner or practice of managing jails or A. Commonwealth Act No. 3203
prison B. Law of the Talion
C. Kalantiaw Code
3 BRANCHES OF CRIM (SEP) D. Penitentiary Act of 1779 – john howard (father of prison
S – SOCIOLOGY OF LAWS reform)
E – ETIOLOGY OF CRIMES A – abolish fee system
P – PENOLOGY S – single cell
S – sanitation
2. A Latin word which means punishment: S – segregation
a. Penology
b. Poena – pain and suffering 9. Existed 350 years before Hammurabi or 2100 years before
c. Poenalis Christ was born, the king ruled the City of Ur in ancient Sumeria:
d. All of the abovementioned a. king Ur Nammu – “sumerian law” – myth
b. king Herodes
c. Emperor Justinian
3. It is a means correcting an offender by placing him to an d. None of the above
institution (BJMP, BUCOR, PROV JAIL) where he can be treated
well until he becomes fully recovered and accepted by the
community. 10. The most popular workhouse in London which was built for the
A. Institutional Corrections – rehab thru jail or prison (inside) employment and housing of English prisoners.(England)
B. Non Institutional Correction – community based correction, A. Bridewell – 1st english prision
CBRP (probation, parole, pardon) B. Hospicio de San Michelle – juvenile reformatory (Pope
C. BJMP – bureau jail management and penology Clement XI)
D. Parole – conditional release granted by BPP to a prisoner C. Saint Bridget Well
after serving minimum sentence D. Walnut Street Jail – 1st American penitentiary
(Philadelphia, USA)
4. It is the suffering inflicted by the state against an offending
member of the society for the transgression of the law 11. It was opened in 1876, was the first penal institution to remodel
a. Penalty b. Punishment – “redress” its philosophy away from punitive and retributive practices and veered
c. incarceration d. ordeal towards reformation and treatment educational and vocational are
imprisonment, incapacitation, isolation, confinement, imparted to the prisoner as a way to treat his lack of life skills to survive
commitment according to the rules of the outside society:
a. Elmira reformatory – “the hill”; 1876; Zebulon Brockway;
5. It is one of the earliest devices for softening brutal severity of forerunner of modern penology
punishment through a compromise with the church b. Sing-sing prisons – cold shower bath – hypothermia; 1st
A. Benefit of Clergy B. None electrocution
C. Rehabilitation D. Retribution c. Alcatraz – “the rock”; hardest prison
*securing sanctuary – a prisoner can escape penalty by means of d. Walnut street jail – 1st american penitentiary
being a servant of the church for 40 days (13th c)
*benefit of clergy – ecclesiastical court (trial & judgment); priest has 12. The early Roman place of confinement which was built under
immunity from suit the main sewer of Rome in 64 BC refers to
a. Town Gates
6. This were the former warships used to house prisoners in the b. Walnut Street Jail → Philadelphia, USA
18th century and 19th century as means of relieving congestion of c. Bridewell Workhouse → England
prisoners refers to d. Mamertine Prison → carcere mamertino
a. Galleys b. Hulks
c. Gaols d. Warships 13. He introduced the progressive stage system. It was also
*galleys – single deck ships used to transfer inmates to penal referred to as the Irish System (Ireland):
colonies (England ➔ Australia) a. Evelyn Ruggles Brise → “borstal” (boys 16 – 21)
*gaols – “French” ➔ “jail” b. Manuel Montesinos → Valencia, spain → “prison
7. According to this ancient law that was practice in the areas of companies” with petty officer
Babylon, The killer is answerable not to the family but to the c. Sir Walter Crofton
king: d. Alexander Maconochie → “marks system” (father of parole)
a. Code of Hammurabi – 1st codified law; lex talionis; tit for
tat
b. Roman twelve tables – Rome – Lex decemviri tabulae
c. Pharaoh’s law – Egypt
d. Burgundian code – “France” – penalty according to social
class”

1
14. He was the superintendent of the Elmira Reformatory in New
York. He introduced a system of grades for prisoners: 6 JUSTIFICATIONS OF PENALTY (RADIRR)
a. Zebulon Brockway R – Retribution – vengeance
b. Alexander Maconochie – Norfolk island prison, A – atonement – group vengeance
Australia D – deterrence – fear of punishment
c. Manuel Montesinos – Valencia, spain I – incapacitation – removal of ability to commit crime
d. Domets of France – “agricultural colonies” R – rehabilitation – reformation
Palawan – iwahig → rice and corn R – reintegration – return
Mindoro – sablayan → rice and corn, livestock
Davao – dapecol → banana
Zamboanga – san ramon → copra (virgin coconut oil) 22. It is then known as Carcel y Presidio.
A. Old Bilibid Prison – 1847 – 1865
15. He is the first leader to prescribe imprisonment as B. Manila City Jail – current name
correctional treatment for major offenders also responsible for C. NBP – 1936 – 1941 (Muntinlupa, 552 hectares)
the abolition of death penalty and torture as a form of D. May Halique Estate
punishment. - 1st Philippine prison
A. John Howard → father of prison reform (ASSS) - oroquieta, azcaraga (cm recto)
B. Charles Montesquieu → “harsh punishment will weaken - carcel – 600
morality” - presidio – 527
C. William Penn - total cap: 1,127
D. Jeremy Bentham → PHUF (panopticon, hedonism,
utilitarianism, felicific calculus) 23. The so-called “prisons without bars” are referred to as the ____.
A. Provincial jails C. Penal colonies
16. An agricultural colony for male juveniles was established by B. New Bilibid Prison D. Probation
Domets of France. The boys were confined in cottages with an *specific answer: IWAHIG
appointed ___ to supervise them:
a. Penal guards 24. This penal establishment is formerly known as the Luhit Penal
b. Immediate supervisors Settlement.
c. House fathers A. Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm
d. Big brothers B. San Ramon Prison
C. Sablayan Prison
17. The first juvenile reformatory which was opened in January D. New Bilibid Prison
1825 and located in New York City.
A. Borstal Institution - London, England
B. Elmira Reformatory – forerunner of modern penology 25. Which of the following is an open correctional institution known to
C. New York House of Refuge be the best and prison without walls?
D. Panoptican Prison – design made JB a. Davao penal farm
b. Sablayan penal colony
18. It refers to a Prison System whereby prisoners are confined in c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
their own cells during the night and congregate work in shops d. Iwahig penal colony
during the day also known as “Congregate System”.
A. Auburn Prison System → singsing prison
B. Custody Oriented Prison 26. It is an institution intended to detain or house political offenders.
C. Pennsylvania Prison System a. Iwahig Penal farm
D. Treatment Oriented Prison b. Davao Penal Farm
*Pennsylvania system (SSS) c. San Ramon Prison and Penal farm
- solitary system (day and night = own cell) d. Sablayan Prison Farm
- separate system
- silent system 27. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in
the Philippines under the BUCOR is located in ____.
19. This prison is known as the “ROCK” built in San Francisco Bay. A. Palawan B. Zamboanga
A. New York Prison C. San Francisco Prison C. Oriental Mindoro D. Occidental Mindoro
B. Alcatraz Prison D. New Gate Prison
*hardest prison 28. Filipino female national prisoners are confined at the
*built by JOHN EDGAR HOOVER A. Mental hospital B. CIW
*super maximum prison C. Manila City Jail D. Iwahig Penal Colony
*closed by JAMES BENNET
29. In 1936, the City of Manila exchanges its Muntinlupa property
20. Who are the three (3) famous escapees of Alcatraz Prison? with the Bureau of Prisons originally intended as a site for boys’
I. Al Capone – origin of organized crime; bootlegging training school. Today, the old Bilibid Prison is now being used
II. John Anglin as the Manila City Jail, famous as the :
III. Clarence Anglin A. “May Halique Estate” / OBP / CARCEL Y PRESIDIO
IV. Frank Morris – highest IQ – 133 – very superior B. “Tandang Sora State”
C. New Bilibid Jail
a. 123 c. 2 3 4 D. Muntinlupa Jail
b. 431 d. 1 2 4

21. Which of the following are the major goals of correction?

a. Punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment
b. Retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
c. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment
d. Deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment

2
30. The following are the sub colonies of Sablayan Prison and Penal 38. Which of the following is a minor offense in jail?
Farm. a. Rendering personal services to fellow inmate
I. Central III. Pusog b. Loitering or being in an unauthorized place (less grave)
II. Pasugui IV. Yapang – SABLAYAN c. Keeping or concealing keys or locks of places in the jail
V. Panabo VI. Kapalong – DAVAO where it is off- limits to inmates (grave)
VII. Sta. Lucia VIII. Inagawan d. Making untruthful statements or lies in official
IX. Montible X. Central – IWAHIG communication, transaction or investigation (grave)

A. I, II, III, IV B. V and VI 39. How many hours should the jail disciplinary board hear and
C. VII, VIII, IX & X D. Either of these decide the case brought before it?
a. 24 hours b. 12 hours
31. It is considered as the highest income earner among the c. 48 hours d. 72 hours → bucor
Philippine Correctional Institution.
A. Iwahig Penal Colony 40. What is the lowest authorized disciplinary punishment imposable
B. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm to inmates?
C. Davao Penal Colony A. Close Confinement – isolation cell, disciplinary cell
D. Sablayan Prison and Farm B. Extra-Fatigue Duty
C. Reprimand – verbal warning
32. A penalty having its minimum and maximum duration is referred D. Temporary cancellation of recreational privileges
to as
a. Determinate sentence → fixed (fine, death, life, reclusion 41. Close confinement in a cell in BJMP shall be between ___ in any
perpetua) calendar month provided that this punishment shall be imposed
b. Capital punishment – death penalty (RA 9346 anti DP Law) only in the case of an incorrigible prisoner when other disciplinary
c. Corporal punishment – torture / 3rd degree measured had been proven ineffective.
d. Indeterminate sentence – act 4103 A. 30-60 days → bucor C. 1-7 Days
effect: serve the minimum sentence = parole B. 1 day D. NONE
sentence: 6 yrs and 1 day up to 8 years
42. Head count of inmates shall be conducted _ times a day or as
33. This refers to the act of prisoner trying to convert or induce often as necessary to ensure that all inmates are duly accounted for:
another to change his religious beliefs sect or the like to another a. Two
while under confinement is referred to as b. Four
A. Proselytizing B. Proselyte – newly converted c. Three
C. Fraternization D. Inducement d. Five
*BJMP ➔ 5x – 6x headcount
34. A married prisoner is visited by his wife and they were granted *bucor ➔ 4x
the time for their marital sexual obligation. What do you call this
affair? 43. It is regarded as the most important program that aids in the
a. Sexual relation rehabilitation of prisoners and known to be the “cornerstone of
b. Conjugal partnership rehabilitation”
c. Conjugal privilege a. Recreational program
d. Conjugal visitation b. Religious program
*purpose: maintain normal sex c. Educational program ➔ ELMIRA → z. Brockway
d. Employment of prisoners
35. What institution conducts the training program for uniformed
personnel of the BJMP? 44. Person who are deemed instrumental on the reformation of
a. Jail National Training Center prisoners due to their daily contact with inmates?
b. Philippine National Jail Academy a. Chaplain b. Warden
c. BJMP Training Center c. Psychologist d. Jail / Correction Officers
d. National Jail Training Institute BJMP – J.O. ➔ 21-30
*PPSC ➔ NPTI, NFTI, NJTI, NFSTI BUCOR – C.O. ➔ 21-40
45. It is a deduction given to prisoners who have returned to their
36. Robin Pinadilla was convicted and ready to serve his sentence places of confinement within 48 hours after a calamity.
inside the prison. Why was he photographed at the Directorate a. Good conduct time allowance
for Reception and Diagnostics? b. Special time allowance for loyalty
a. He is an actor and photogenic c. Commutation of Sentence
b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph d. Special Time Allotment for loyalty
c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor
d. Photographing the inmate is part of the reception summary of STAL
procedure – booking rule 1 – return within 48 hrs = - 1/5 (art 98, rpc)
purpose: gain identity rule 2 – failed to return within 48 hrs = + 1/5 + evasion (art. 158, rpc)
rule 3 – stayed in prison (RA 10592) = - 2/5
37. Ronald “Graba” Dela Rosa was arrested by the police for theft in rule 4 – returned after 48 hrs = art 158 ,rpc (evasion) + mitigating
the amount of P5,000.00. He was brought to the police station and rule 5 – heinous crimes, habitual delinquent, escapee, recidivist = NO
an administrative record of the arrest was prepared. He was STAL = disqualified
fingerprinted, photographed, interrogated and placed in a line-up
for identification by witnesses. What process did he undergo? 46. An offender who surrenders from escaping because of calamity
a. Preliminary hearing 72 hours after the pronouncement of the passing away of
b. Booking calamity shall be granted
c. Trial A. 1/5 reduction of sentence – within 48hrs
d. Indictment B. 2/5 reduction of sentence – stayed
C. 1/3 reduction of sentence
D. none

3
 54. Baby Ama was sentenced to serve Prision Correccional. What is
47. Jose Sotto was convicted by final judgment to serve the term of the duration of his penalty?
imprisonment for 20 years. While serving his sixth year of A. 12 Y&1D to 20 Y - RT C. 6Y&1D to 12 Y = PM
imprisonment, an earthquake rocked the prison and several B. 6M1D to 6 Y D. 1M&1D – 6 M - AMAYOR
inmates escaped. Jose returned the following day, how many
years would be deducted from his sentence? 55. Mr. Bill Ibid a person convicted to serve 6 years imprisonment
a. 4 years b. 8 years would be classified as what kind of prisoner?
c. 9 years d. 11 years a. Municipal prisoner – 1 day – 6 months
*20 – 1/5 b. Insular prisoner / national prisoner
c. Provincial prisoner – 6 month and 1 day – 3 years
48. A powerful earthquake destroyed a prison where W,X,Y & Z are d. Detention prisoner – trial and waiting final judgment (CO)
inmates. All, except Z, escaped. W surrendered after 24 hours, X
surrendered after 2 days and Y surrendered after 3 days. Who 56. Ms. Ly B. Agin has duration of penalty of 6 years and one day to
among them are not entitled to Special Time Allowance for Loyalty 12 years. What correctional facility she should be incarcerated?
under Art. 98. A. Bureau of Correction B. Lock-up Jail
A. X C. W C. CIW D. BJMP
B. Y D. X AND Y
57. Where Roberto B. Hamog shall be confined if his sentence is 0-
49. Prisoners are awarded ________ off from their minimum or 6-0?
maximum term for maintaining good behavior or participating in a. National prison b. Municipal jail
various types of vocational, educational and treatment programs. c. City jail d. Provincial jail
a. Good time 1st – year
b. Credits 2nd – month
c. Days off 3rd – day
d. Vacation
*GCTA 58. Nard A. Kasala is an offender who was committed to the jail or
prison in order to serve his sentence after final conviction of a
50. Mario is in prison for the past 48 months (4 years) and has never competent court is known as _________
been involved in any trouble, no matter how minor. If you were the a. Detention prisoner – trial / waiting FJ
prison director, how many days for each month would you approve b. Sentenced prisoner (mittimus)
as Mario’s good conduct time allowance? c. Safekeeping – care and protection
A. 5 days B. 8 days d. National prisoner
C. 20 days D. 23 days
59. Which of the following are classified as detention prisoner?
Old GCTA LAW (art 97, rpc) 1932 1. Accused person who is confined in jail while undergoing
1st – 2nd year = -5 days per month criminal probe (yes)
3rd – 5th year = -8days per month 2. Accused person who is confined in jail while undergoing trial
6th – 10th year = -10 days per month (yes)
11th year – up = - 15 days per month 3. Accused person who is confined in jail while awaiting final
judgment (yes)
New GCTA law (RA 10592) 2013 4. Accused person who is confined in jail and already convicted
1st – 2nd year = -20 days per month to serve a prison term
3rd – 5th year = -23 days per month a. 3, 4 and 1
6th – 10th year = -25 days per month b. 2, 3 and 4
11th year – up = -30 days per month c. 4, 1 and 2
- 15 days = study or mentoring d. 1, 2 and 3

60. What law was passed during the Aquino administration that
51. All except one may grant GCTA under RA 10592 to an inmate for renamed the Bureau of Prisons to Bureau of Corrections?
good behavior with no record of disciplinary infraction or violation a. E.O. 292 b. E.O. 929
of prison rules and regulation. c. A.O 229 d. E.O. 229
A. Director of BJMP B. Warden of provincial jail *revised administrative code of 1989 ➔ Pres. Corazon
C. President D. Director of Corrections Aquino
Executive clemencies (PARC)
61. J/Supt. Armando Rukot a warden is responsible in seeing to it
52. It shall exercise supervision and control over all district, city and that he continually motivates his staff and personnel to perform at
municipal jails to ensure “a secured, clean and sanitary and their best. This function is known as ____
adequately equipped jail for the custody and safekeeping of city, a. Decision making → problem-solving
municipal prisoners, any fugitive from justice or persons detained b. Control of prison operation and activities → supervision
awaiting for investigation or trial and/or transfer to the National c. Personnel program → salary, benefits, training, promotion
Penitentiary: d. Executive leadership
a. Bureau of Corrections ➔ DOJ
b. DILG 62. Its task is to conduct a more effective rehabilitation of prisoners
c. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology through a more scientific study and diagnoses of each and
d. Provincial Jails ➔ prov. Gov. every prisoner committed to the Bureau of Corrections. It was
53. Mark Naculong was sentenced to serve with a penalty of established by virtue of Administrative Order No. 11 issued by the
Reclusion Temporal (12-1-20) who has the jurisdiction to detain Secretary of Justice as amended by RA 10575
him? A. Camp Bukang Liwayway
A. BuCor - insular prisoner (morethan 3 yrs) B. Directorate for Reception and Diagnostics
C. BJMP - 3 years and below C. Reception and Diagnostic Center → old name
B. PNP - lock up cell D. Camp Bagong Diwa
D. AFP *for newly arrived = study, diagnose = 60 days

4
63. Place wherein a newly convicted prisoner is housed for the 71. The Panopticon is a type of prison building designed by English
conduct of medical examination, vaccination, x-rays to prevent philosopher Jeremy Bentham in 1785. The concept of the design
physical contamination was derived from the word meaning of “pan” - all and “opticon”.
a. Reception diagnostic center “Opticon’ means:
b. Medical center A. to allow an observer to observe
c. Quarantine unit – 5 days B. without the prisoner
d. None of the above C. avoid watching
D. To walk in military manner
64. Alvin Tangero is a newly arrived inmate in the BuCor. What is the
ideal number of days for an inmate to be placed in the quarantine
unit at the Reception and Diagnostic Center. 72. Operation conducted by the BJMP where a prisoner maybe
A. 55 days → treatment planning B. 5 days checked at any time and also known to as a surprise invasion of
C. 60 days D. 15 days a cell for possession of contrabands.
5 + 55 = 60 total days a. Search and seizure
b. Prison Raid
65. What satellite of NBP does RDC/DRD is situated? c. Inspection
A. Camp Bukang Liwayway – minimum security - brown d. Operation greyhound
B. Camp Sampaguita
C. Main building – maximum security – tangerine *shakedown – regular search before admission
D. Medium Security Compound – blue 4 TYPES OF SHAKEDOWN
a. Pat search – external garments
66. Involves the formulation of a tentative treatment program best b. Rub search – private part
suited to the needs of the individual prisoner, based on the c. Strip search – naked search (contrabands / body marks)
findings of RDC. d. Cavity search - hole
A. treatment planning - 55 days
C. Diagnostics 73. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission it
B. Execution of treatment Plan meant
D. Quarantine – 5 days a. Process of Identification, Record, Fingerprint and
Photograph – booking
8 COMPOSITITIONS OF DRD b. Examination for Contraband
1.Sociologist – social case c. His Commitment Paper are Delivered to Record Clerk –
2.Psychologist – personality and behavior carpeta
3.Psychiatrist – mental and emotional make up d. All of These
4.Chaplain – spiritual aspect
5.Educational counsellor – educational level 74. Strip search should be conducted:
6.Vocational officer – skills a. In the presence of other inmates so that there are witnesses
7.Medical officer – health check b. At the warden’s office
8.Custodial officer – classification of inmates c. At the admission office in the presence of other jail personnel
d. Private room where it will be out of the view of the others
67. Peter is a prisoner confined in RDC, which one of the components to avoid further embarrassment
of RDC/DRD which is responsible in the examination of the
prisoner’s mental and emotional make-up. 75. What is the standard ratio in escorting a non- bailable inmate?
A. Medical Center a. One is to one security officer
B. Sociologist b. One is to three security officers
C. Psychologist c. One is to two plus one security officers
D. Psychiatrist d. One is to one plus one security officer
+1 = high risk
68. A writ ordering the temporary confinement of a person in penal BJMP MANNING LEVEL
institution while undergoing trial. a. Custodial ratio = 1 : 7
a. Detention order b. Court room ratio = 1 : 2
b. Commitment order c. Transit ratio = 1 : 1 + 1
c. Mittimus Order – convicted by final judgment d. Reform ratio = 1 : 24
d. None of the above e. Capacity ratio = 1 : 4.7 sqm.

69. It is the national record of a prisoner at New Bilibid Prison which Caloocan city jail = 4,823 sqm
contains his commitment order or mittimus, information and Capacity = 1,026
decision of a trial court.
A. Mittimus B. Carpeta 76. When the offender is in transit, in case of ___ that demands extra
C. Commitment Order D. Prison Record precaution additional guards shall be employed
*inmate jacket A. High Profile offender - well known
*prison record ➔ record of previous conviction B. Female Offender
C. High-risk offender – OCG, terrorist, heinous crimes
70. It is known as the “Age of Reason or Age of Enlightment” D. Either of these
A. 1870 – 1880 – golden age of penology
B. 18th century 77. If escorting an inmate a guard shall keep distance of not less
C. 19th century than ____ paces from his charge.
D. 21st century – current era A. 10 B. 30
C. 15 D. 45

5
78. The ideal ratio or escort is____ prison guard for
every____number of inmates. 87. The establishment of the usefulness and responsibility of the
a. 1:2 → court room offender as a productive individual is a punishment justified by
b. 1:4 a. Expiation b. Rehabilitation
c. 1:12 c. Atonement – group vengeance d. Retribution - vengeance
d. 1:7
88. Which branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu,
79. The ideal ratio of educational program (teachers) is _____ prepares and cooks food and serve to inmates?
officers for every _____ inmates. a. General Service Branch – cleanliness / maintenance
b. Mess Service Branch
a. 1:180 c. Budget and Finance Brach – comptrollership
b. 1:120 d. Property and Supply Branch – logistics
c. 1:225
d. 1:1 89. In mess hall and dining area for purposes of precaution, the
*health = 1 : 80 prescribe utensil for inmates shall be made of:
*religious = 1 : 220 A. Wood B. Paper
*behavioral = 1 : 150 C. Plastic D. Carton

80. To compute for the ideal capacity of a certain jail for every 90. Who provides the security system of sound custody, security
inmate, you must divide the measurement of the cells floor area and control of inmates and their movements and also
by: responsible to enforce jail or prison discipline
A. 2.5 sq. meters C. 3.5 sq. meters a. Administrative Group – planning, budget, training,
B. 4.7 sq. meters D. 4.5 sq. meters communication, records.
b. Custodial Group ➔ 1 : 7
81. The U.N. Standard Minimum Rules for the treatment of offenders c. Rehabilitation Group – reformation
prescribes that penal facilities should not exceed _____ d. Medical Group – inmate’s health
inmates.
A. 1000 B. 1500 91. Refers to the head of Bureau of Correction.
C. 1200 D. 2000 a. C, BuCor
b. Director
82. In line with the formula stated above, what is the maximum c. Director General → USEC. → 6 years
capacity of Valenzuela City Jail if the total cell floor is 2,300 sqm. d. Commander
a. 591
b. 489 92. Who appoints the Director General of BuCor who shall be the
c. 498 Head of the Bureau?
d. 476 a. Chief BJMP b. Sec. of DILG
c. Chief Executive d. Sec. of DOJ
83. When different crimes should be punished with different (president)
penalties, punishment should therefore be
a. Correctional 93. BUCOR has three (3) Assistant Directors, one for Administration
b. Legal (2nd) , one for Rehabilitation (4th) and one for:
c. Productive of suffering a. Health and Care services
d. Commensurate with the offense b. Prisons Operation and Security – 3rd
c. Correction and Rehabilitation
7 juridical conditions of penalty (CCCLEPP) d. Custody and Security
C – certainty = applied to law 1st – dir. Gen of bucor (usec)
C – correctional = reformative 2nd – asst. dir for admin (asec)
C – commensurate = balanced 3rd – asst. di. For opt. (asec)
L – legal – due process 4th – asst. dir for rehab (asec)
E – equal = same crime – same penalty
P – personal = no proxy 94. Early forms of Prison Discipline by means of uttering insulting
P – productive = humane words or languages on the part of prison staff to the prisoners
to degrade or break the confidence of prisoners.
84. One of the juridical conditions of Penalty, The consequence must A. Social Degradation
be in accordance with the law it is a result of a judgment B. Corporal Punishment – torture
rendered by a court of justice. C. Monotony – giving the same food
A. Equal D. Mass Movement – mass eating, mass bathing
B. Legal
C. Commensurate w/ the offense 95. Maiming; Physical Torture; Electrocution; _(1926)___
D. Personal A. Social degradation B. Exile
C. Physical torture D. Death Penalty
85. A justification of penalty which states that nobody can assume
the suffering for a crime committed by others. 96. When the death penalty was still enforced by means of lethal
A. Justice injection, four guards keep a death watch, the convict is confined
B. Personal in an individual cell ___ hours prior to the scheduled time of
C. Legal execution which is usually 3:00 in the afternoon.
D. Certain A. 6 B. 24
C. 12 D. 36
86. An institution for the imprisonment of persons convicted of
major offenses refers to
a. Jail b. Prison
c. Penitentiary d. All of the above

6
97. A chemical that is injected to a Death Convict that puts him into 105. The Bureau of Jail Management and Penology was created
deep sleep in lethal injection. thru ____ as one of the Tri Bureau under the Department of the
A. Potassium Chloride → stop the heart beat Interior and Local Government.
B. Pancuronium Bromide → muscle paralysis A. Section 13, RA 6975 - NAPOLCOM
C. Sodium Thiopenthotal B. Section 53, RA 6975 – BFP
D. Sodium chloride → sawsawan ng mangga – salt C. Section 23 of RA 6975 – PNP
(COD = cardiac arrest) D. Section 60 of RA 6975
*RA 8177 – lethal injection law
*intra venous poison 106. All except one is included in the command group of BJMP
*LEO ECHEGARAY A. Chief of Staff – head of the AFP
B. Deputy C/BJMP – admin (2nd) & operation (3rd)
98. Execution by electrocution (referred to as the Electric Chair) is an C. Chief of BJMP – 1st
execution method originating in the United States in which the D. Chief of Directorial staff – 4th
person being put to death is strapped to a specially built wooden
chair and electrocuted through electrodes placed on the body. In 107. The Jail Bureau shall be headed by a chief with a rank of
the Philippines, its first use was in: Director (TRUE). and assisted by Deputy Chief with the rank of
A. 1926 B. 1976 Senior Superintendent (FALSE). This sentence is
C. 1972 D. 1918 A. partially true C. true
B. partially false D. false
99. Commission of Art. 247 of RPC has a penalty of banishing a
person from the place where he committed a crime refers to what 108. What is the minimum rank required to be appointed as Chief
contemporary forms of punishment Bureau of Jail Management and Penology?
a. Atonement b. Destierro A. Superintendent
c. Exile d. Incapacitation B. C/Superintendent
C. Senior Superintendent
100. It is the conversion of fines (multa) into imprisonment D. Director
a. Straight penalty
b. Maximum penalty 109. Under RA 9263, who is 2nd in command in BJMP?
c. Subsidiary imprisonment A. Deputy for Administration
d. Preventive imprisonment B. Chief, Directorial Staff – 4TH
1 day = 570 pesos C. Deputy for Operation – 3RD
Ex. Fine = 50,000 / 570 = 88 days D. Any of these

1 day = 8 pesos (1932) 110. Who appoints jail Sr. Superintend?

50,000 / 8 = 6,250 days = 17 years a. Chief Executive b. DILG Secretary
c. Chief BJMP d. Chief of BUCOR
101. Manny N. Bago was placed where in the public will be
protected if he is being held in conditions where he cannot harm
others. He was punished by placing offenders in prison so that RANK RECOMMENDED APPOINTED BY:
society will be ensured from further criminal depredations. This is BY:
called as _____ JO1, JO2, JO3, IMMEDIATE REGIONAL
A. Deterrence - fear SJO1, SJO2, SJO3, SUPERIOR DIRECTOR
B. Incapacitation & Protection SJO4
C. Retribution – vengeance INSP, SINSP, IMMEDIATE C, BJMP
D. Atonement – group vengeance CINSP, SUPT SUPERIOR
SR.SUPT C, BJMP DILG SEC.
CSUPT / DIR. DILG SEC PRESIDENT
102. Vina Barurot was placed in a separate cell or a special building
on the same site with the men prison. This is called as 111. Juan Tausan is a newly arrived inmate committed for the first
A. Diversification by Sex time. He classified as ____ among the classification of inmates
B. Segregation according to privileges.
C. Diversification by Age – CICL and adults A. 1st class inmate B. 3rd class inmate
D. Diversification by Degree of Custody – max, med & min C. 2 class inmate
nd D. Colonist
*co-ed institution *3rd class – 3x or more imprisoned
*JEAN JACQUES VILLIAN – father of penitentiary science *2nd class – newly arrived / 1st time
*ELIZABETH FRY – angel of prison *1st class – promoted from 2nd class and with GCTA
*COLONIST – 1st class for 7 years.
103. Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of
offenders according to their sentence, gender, age, nationality, Privileges of a Colonist
health, criminal record, etc.? 1. Max 40 years ➔ reduced to 30 years
A. None of these – classification / diversification 2. + GCTA of 5 days per month
B. Custody 3. Civilian clothes
C. Security 4. Bring family
D. Safe-keeping 5. Subsidy
6. 6 hectares of homeland
104. The B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:
a. Department of the Interior and Local Government 112. Bong Rebudot is colonist, when classified by the director of the
b. Department of Interior and Local Government Bureau of Corrections who is punished with reclusion perpetua will
c. Department of the Interior and the Local Government have benefit from an automatic reduction from maximum term of
d. Department of Interior and the Local Government forty years to ___.
A. 20 Years B. 25 Years
C. 30 Years D. 35 Years

7
 122. Inmates ____ may be excused from mandatory prison labor.
113. Freddy is a prisoner confined in a level of security facility A. 60 years old B. 56 years old
which is usually enclosed by a thick wall about 18-25 feet high, C. 50 years old D. 21 years old
on top are catwalks in every corner, a tower post is manned by *Cleanliness
heavily armed guards:
a. Maximum security facility 123. Inmates’ earnings that may be used to buy his needs.
b. Medium security facility A. ½ of his earnings
c. Super maximum security facility B. ¼ if his earnings
d. Minimum security facility C. ¾ of his earnings
Max – 20 yrs above, heinous crimes, life, death, hab.del. D. Discretion of Warden
Med – below 20 yrs, 1st time offender , newly arrived *1/2 = SAVINGS / TRUST FUND
Min – 6 months left, 65 y/o above, handicapped
- Half way house = pre release adjustment facility 124. Antonio is a member of Magdaldal group and was convicted of
- 30 days before release rebellion, unfortunately her mother died and requested an
authorization to be released to visit the corpse of his mother this
114. This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not is known as __
as dangerous as the super security prisoners (max). They A. Furlough B. Prisonization
are not allowed to work outside the institution. C. Diversification D. Counseling
A. maximum security prisoners RULES ON FURLOUGH
B. super security prisoners 1. Request →court → 3 days before
C. minimum security prisoners 2. Distance → 30 km
D. medium security prisoners 3. Time → 3 hrs
Super max ➔ incorrigible 4. Daytime only
5. No – funeral procession
115. The institution for dangerous but not incorrigible 6. No – election period (60-30)
prisoners in the Philippines is the 7. No – maximum sec.
A. NBP
B. Medium Security Institution 125. Within the ________ radius by road from the confinement
C. Maximum Security Institution facility and the actual stay of the inmates to view the remains.
D. Minimum Security Institution A. 20 kilometers B. 40 Kilometers
C. 30 Kilometers D. 50 Kilometers
116. The minimum security prisons provides a model for those
inmates who are: 126. Duration of viewing of privilege of a deceased relative is limited
A. First-time offenders - medium to ___ hours.
B. In the death row - max A. 3 B. 9
C. Serving life sentences - max C. 6 D. 12
D. Near the ends of their sentences
127. How many days before election does inmate are prohibited
117. What is the prescribed color of uniform for Minimum Security from going out?
Prisoners? A. 30 days B. 90 Days
A. Blue - medium B. Brown C. 60 Days D. 120 Days
C. Tangerine – max D. Gray – former color for detainees
128. Telephone calls are permitted for inmates for a period not
118. Mario is soon to be released from camp Bukang Liwayway. exceeding 5 minutes every ___ days.
He is sent to a pre-release facility called _______________ for A. 30 B. 90
counseling and therapy. C. 60 D. 120
a. Recreation Center
b. Congregate Group 129. The most common problem for national penitentiaries.
c. Half-way House A. Excessive number of inmates
d. Diagnostic Center B. Lack of funds
C. Sex problems
119. An inmate shall be transferred to a separation center for D. Discipline
adjustment process from life in prison to life in free community
within – Food allowance = 50 pesos ➔ 70 pesos
A. 60 days prior to release Salary ➔ 22k ➔ 37k
B. 30 days prior to release
C. 90 days before release 130. Under RA 9344, what happens to the sentence of a Child in
D. 15 days prior to release Conflict with the law after conviction of a trial Court?
A. His sentence will be served
120. Which of the following organizations donated the Half-way B. His sentence is suspended ➔ 18 ➔ 21 “bahay
House inside the compound of the Bureau of Corrections? Pagasa”
A. Office of the President C. His sentence is suspended and is sent back to his family
B. Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office D. His sentence is NOT suspended
C. United Nations Security Council
D. Asia Crime Prevention Foundation – Nagoya, Japan 131. It is a kind of court to settle tribunal and even individuals
people conflicts:
121. Huawei De Guzman while being transported to the BJMP, he A. Bodong - kangaroo court C. Capic – product of prison
was handcuffed to control his movements. This tool is known to B. Korte Supremo D. Hito – letters/mail
be a ______________ Mail censorship ➔ mail examination
A. Instrument of Restraint B. Instrument of Control
C. Leg iron D. Restraining Tools
Leg iron

8
132. Nestro Guevarra is an indigent. He is an accused which is
released from imprisonment on his or her promise to return to SOP FOR JAILBREAK
court as required, or upon the undertaking of a suitable person S – sound the alarm
that he will guarantee the accused’ appearance in court, there is A – ask for police and medical assistance
what is called: L – lock all cell
a. Promise V – visitor out
b. Acknowledgment A – all members of the custodial force will be issued FA
c. Surety R – ready plug off escape routes
d. Recognizance – free bail I – issue anti riot equipment
RA 6036 – RECOGNIZANCE LAW V – visit and engage
- Case is punishable by 6 months or less I – initiate dispersal
- Indigent T – tactical team is the last resort
- Guarantor A – accounting
S – save the injured
133. Which of these is known as the Release on Recognizance Law
providers for the release of offender charged with an offense 141. If the Warden is taken as the hostage, for all intents and
whose penalty is not more than six (6) months and /or a fine of purposes, he ceases to exercise authority and the next in
P2,000.00 or both, to the custody of a responsible person in the command or the ___ officer present shall assume the command.
community, instead of a bail bond- A. Veteran B. most senior
A. RA 6036 B. PD 603 – the child and youth welfare code C. assistant D. custodian
C. Act 2489 D. RA 9262 – anti VAWC
142. These are visitors of the inmate such as family members like
134. What guarantees the appearance in court of a defendant mother, father and other close relatives.
granted release on recognizance? A. Special Visitor B. Strange Visitor
a. His/her promise to live a new life C. Regular Visitor D. Unusual visitor
b. His/her fear of being sent back to prison *special visitor ➔ doctors and lawyer
c. His/her ties with family, friends, employment, etc.
d. His/her capacity to raise bail 143. ____responsible for handling the keys in Women’s quarter and
the keys shall be available all the time.
135. The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison, A. Key Matron B. Resident Matron
except: C. Matron D. Any of these
A. Censor offender’s mail – yes *key logs = list of person who barrows the key
B. Escort inmates – yes
C. Inspect security devices – yes 144. Before the actual date of interview, the media shall file request
D. Conduct disciplinary hearing within ____ and the duration of interview must be _____ minutes.
*asst. warden A. 1 day – 10 minutes B. 3 days – 20 minutes
C. 2 days – 20 minutes D. 8 days – 15 minutes
136. It refers to the entrusting for confinement of an inmate to a jail
by competent court or authority for investigation, trial and/or 145. It should be executed by the interviewer, which will exempt
service of sentence prison authorities from any liability arising from death or injury
A. Commitment B. Safekeeping sustained while in prison:
C. Entrustment D. Imprisonment A. Waiver of Liability
Detention ➔ commitment order B. Waiver of Responsibility
Sentenced ➔ mittimus order C. Waiver of Acceptance
D. Waiver of Agreement
137. All letters for the inmates before distribution shall pass
through ______ for inspection and examination of contents 146. The head of prison may establish _______ whenever the
frequency of requests for interviews reach a volume that warrants
a. Mail examination limitations:
b. Letter checking a. Media group c. Press pool
c. Letter sorting b. news team d. public affairs
d. Mail Censorship

138. If the inmate fails to claim his letter within ____ after it has 147. Garry Alejandro is a newly arrived inmate in the BJMP, he was
been posted, the mail should be delivered to him. placed in shakedown procedure. Who among the following
A. 48 hours B. 24 hours shall be responsible in the custody of all the properties seized
C. 30 days D. 60 days from the detainee prior to his detention?
A. Custodial Officer
139. All letters passed by censors should bear the censor’s stamp B. Chief of Detention Center
at the ____ of each page and on the envelope. The letter should C. Property Custodian Officer
be placed back in the same envelope and resealed. D. Evidence Custodian / Officer
A. Back B. Conspicuous Area
C. Side D. Top 148. Female detainees shall not be transported in handcuffs but
only with necessary restraint and proper escort preferably aided
140. Valenzuela City Jail experience a sudden jailbreak, as part of by a police woman. The statement is
the SOP, who will immediately sound the alarm? A. Yes B. Wholly True
A. Desk Officer B. Armorer C. Partially False D. Wholly False
C. Control Center D. Officer-in-Charge
*jailbreak = mass escape (at least 3), riot

9
149. The act of getting out unlawfully from confinement or custody by 157. Which of the following statements is not true?
an inmate: a. Provincial Jails in the Philippines are under the
a. Escapium - chance jurisdiction of the DOJ
b. Evasion of Service of Sentence b. Provincial Jails are managed and controlled by the
c. Furlough provincial government
d. Escape c. The jail bureau controls the administration and
supervision of all jails nationwide
d. The BJMP is under the DILG
150. Mr. Peter Jakonini was convicted of the crime rape. After 12
days from the promulgation of the sentence he escaped from his 158. Mr. Puslit was able to commit hustling in the BJMP. What is
place of confinement. He is ______ : referred to as “hustling” inside the prison?
A. liable of evasion of service of sentence A. Reporting illegal activities - squealing
B. not liable for evasion of service of sentence B. Doing prison assignment
C. considered as an escaped prisoner C. Using prohibited drugs
D. Either C or B D. Selling illegal commodities
Art. 157 – evasion is only committed by a convicted person of final
judgment 159. There are various types of prison programs. What type of
When judgment become final? program that secures prisoner from escape or violence?
a. Waive the right to appeal a. Maintenance - cleanliness
b. Lapsed 15 days w/o appeal b. Rehabilitative - reformation
c. SC decided the case c. Industrial – teaches prisoners in producing goods
d. Security
151. Ms. Dina Virgen, a prisoner, learns that she is already
overstaying in jail because her jail guard, Many Nilip, who happens 160. When a jailbreak, escape or riot in progress or has just been
to be a law expert advised her that there is no more legal ground perpetrated in the jail, the officer at the control centers shall
for her continued imprisonment, and Manny told her that she can immediately:
go. Ms. Dina got out of jail and went home. Was there any crime A. sound the alarm
committed? B. notify the nearest police precinct
A. Evasion of Service of sentence C. locked prisoners in their respective cells
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners D. call the warden or the director
C. Evasion through Negligence
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison 161. In case of mass jailbreak, all member of the custodial force
shall be immediately issued firearms and assigned to critical
Crimes related to escape posts to:
a. Convicted = evasion A. plug off the escape routes
b. Detainee = no crime B. protect the other inmates
c. Jail/correction officer C. to shoot the escape
i. DOLO – infidelity D. give warning shots
ii. CULPA – evasion thru negligence
d. private citizen =delivering prisoners from jail. 162. Who should make an immediate preparation for the issuance
of the necessary anti-riot equipment and firearms?
152. As far as Manny, the jail guard who allowed Ms. Malou Wang A. the Warden C. Director for operation
to go, is concerned, the crime committed if the former fallen B. Director D. Desk Officer
asleep during his tour of duty *armorer
A. Evasion of Service
B. Infidelity in the custody of prisoner 163. Who composed of guards trained on proper handling and use
C. Evasion through Negligence of firearms who shall be ready to fire when the lives of the
D. Delay in the Delivery of prison guards are in danger on orders of the Officer in Command?
A. 1st group Anti-Riot → dispersal team
153. This refers to the one-in-charge of a Prison. B. 4th Group Anti-Riot
A. Director C. Warden C. 3rd Group Anti-Riot -firearms groups
B. Superintendent D. Wardress D. 2nd Group Anti-Riot → gas units / tear gases

154. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting 164. Under the plan for riots and violent disturbances, what shall
investigation? be done at the sound of the first pre-arranged alarm?
A. BUCOR B. Jail a. Assault group of jail guards fire at the rioters
C. Penitentiary D. Prison b. Saturate the area with riot gas
c. All inmates must be locked up inside their
155. It was established in 1910 under the American Regime. respective cell
A. Philippine Prison System – act 1407 – nov 1 1905 d. Disperse the rioters and get their leaders
B. Provincial Jail System
C. Probation – PD 968 – July 24, 1976
D. Parole -act 4103 – December 5, 1933 165. How long does an inmate mother who gave birth inside the jail
(bjmp) is allowed to be with his child?
156. Who supervised and control the Provincial Jail? A. 6 months B. 1 year
A. DILG B. Governor C. 2 years D. 7 years
C. DOJ D. LGU BJMP = 1 MONTH
BUCOR = 1 YEAR

10
166. Salvador Puga is prisoner having the natural inclination or 174. Any article, thing, or item prohibited by law/ or forbidden by jail
tendency to evade custody against the will of the custodian or rules is called:
from the place where he is held in lawful custody or confinement. a. Instrument of restraint
A. Escape Prone Prisoner b. contrabands
B. Mental Deranged Prisoner → insane c. Handcuff
C. Sex Deviate Prisoner → abnormal sexuality → masturbation d. leg iron
D. Alien Prisoner → foreigner *illegal contrabands ➔ “law” → inside / outside (illegal drugs, FA,
explosives)
167. Raymod Angasin is a prisoner who is aggressive, violent, *Nuisance contrabands ➔ “jail rules” → inside only
quarrelsome and does not cooperate with other inmates is referred
to as 175. It refers to those items, though authorized, is already in
a. Squealer excessive quantities to become a fire hazard, a threat to security
b. Sucker or has become causative in making the place unsanitary.
c. Hustler – seller of illegal commodities A. Contraband
d. Tough B. Paraphernalia
C. Prohibited items
168. Which of the following unusual offender should be under the D. Nuisance Contraband
close supervision of the jail physician doctor)?
1. Mentally-ill 3. Infirm or sick
2. Sex deviates 4. Escape-prone prisoners 176. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear
of punishment.
A. 1 and 2 B. 3 and 4 a. Retribution
C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3 b. Punishment
*infirmary – prison clinic / hospital c. Deterrence
d. Rehabilitation
169. Bikoy is currently imprisoned for the crime of estafa. While in *specific deterrence – fear inflicted to the doer of the crime
prison a prison guard was able to acquire shabu (RA 9165)➔ SPL *general deterrence – fear inflicted to the general public
= offense; in the pocket of Bikoy. There is ________
A. Quasi-recidivism - felony inside a prison or jail 177. Crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be prosecuted
B. No Quasi Recidivism except upon a complaint filed by whom?
C. Habitual Delinquency – 3x within 10 years a. Parents
D. Recidivism – same title b. Offended Spouse
c. Guardians
170. What is the legal process that results in the removal of d. Godfather
conviction from the official records? A - acts of lsciviousness
A. Mitigation B. Expungement C – concubinage
C. Exoneration D. Restriction A – adultery
*When? CICL, acquitted, dismissed, pardon, amnesty. S – seduction private crimes
Removal from the list of suspects A – abduction
RAP – rape (public crime – ra 8353)
171. All original appointments of officers who are lawyers in the jail
bureau shall commence with the rank of ___ 178. Is a pecuniary (money) punishment imposed by the law
A. JO1 B. Jail Inspector tribunal upon a person convicted of crime or misdemeanor?
C. JO11 D. Jail Senior Inspector a. Remission
*same with doctors and chaplain b. Forfeiture – the government is taking a person’s property
c. Fine
172. If Jail Officer I Masipag was appointed in 2013 at a monthly d. All of the above
salary of 19,000, how much his total salary including his
longevity pay in 2018? 179. Exist as the more common forms of punishment. this was tied to
A. 9000 pesos B. 1900 pesos the crime committed:
C. 9500 pesos D. 20, 900 pesos a. Banishment
+10% for every 5 years b. Death
19,000 x 0.10 = 1,900 + 19,000 = 20,900 c. Torture
*max longevity pay = 50% (25 years) d. Mutilation – clipping or cutting of body parts
2 types of mutilation
5th year = +10% a. Mayhem – cutting of head, arms, tongue, legs
10th = +10 % b. Castration – cutting of sexual organ
15th = +10%
20th = +10% 180. Isolating the offender for the purpose of protecting the public
25th = +10% and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring the latter to
30th = no undergo institutional treatment program.
a. Solitary confinement – isolation cell
173. This is the basic needs of a convicted person under custody. b. Punishment
a. Shelter b. Food e. cigarettes c. Floggings – whipping / flagellation
c. gadgets d. Slippers f. Drinks d. Imprisonment
A. a,b,c,d B. a,c,d,e 181. Today, the stand of the Church has become a complete reversal
C. c,d,e,f D. a,b,d,f of the past. it was the late Pro-Life Pope John Paul II who reversed
this so called:
a. Ecclesiastical court
b. Inquisition
c. Ordeal
d. Culture of death

11
 189. There are two (2) inmates arguing over loss of some items in
182. STATEMENT 1: Provincial Prisons/Jails are administered and their cell. You are the guard on duty. What will you do?
controlled by the Provincial Government (Governor). a. Invite both of them to the office and investigate
STATEMENT 2: The Bureau of Corrections is under the supervision the matter
of the Department of the Interior and Local Government. b. Poke your gun at both of them to stop the heated
a. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false discussion
b. Statement 1 is false, statement 1 is true c. Confine the culprit in a segregated room
c. Both statements are true d. Look for witnesses to testify who is the culprit
d. Both statements are false
190. The ______________ model of correctional institution
183. Type A jail has a population of ___ offenders: focuses in security, discipline and order:
a. 100 or more a. Rehabilitative - reformation
b. 21- 99 – tybe b jail b. Reintegration – return
c. 150 or more c. Medical – health
d. 20 or less – type c jail d. Custodial

184. There is proposal that BJMP, BuCor and Provincial jails should 191. These are studies are conducted to determine the experiences
be combined as one agency. An advantageous result in the of residents with crimes which are not usually reported to the
integration of correctional agencies is: police. What are these studies called?
a. More physical facilities to maintain a. Population surveys
b. More prisoners to supervise b. Police surveys
c. Divided resources such as manpower and c. Victimization surveys
finances d. Information surveys
d. Better coordination of services and increased
cost-efficiency 192. Ms. Yna A. Tucky is a prisoner with heart diseases, she
needs to be treated with a little more care than other inmates.
185. Cardo is a detainee currently confined in the BJMP while Which of the following should NOT be done by a jail officer?
undergoing trial for the alleged theft with a possible maximum a. Ensure that the inmates see the medical staff
penalty of 3 years and in the lapse of 3 years of trial, the judgement regularly
is not yet given to him. Which of these authorizes the release of a b. Ensure that the inmates comply with his
detainee who has undergone preventive imprisonment equivalent prescribed diet
to the maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is charged c. Avoid assigning strenuous jobs to the inmate
with? d. Prescribe the medicine to the heart-patient
A. B.P 85 – credit for preventive imprisonment inmate
B. RA 4200 - wiretapping
C. B.P. 22 – bouncing check 193. Sociologists look at corrections as:
D. PD 968 – probation law a. The intervention which documents the attitudinal
response of offenders and staff to processes of
186. JOI Donald Dick confiscated white crystalline substance rolled punishment
in a transparent sachet and he suspected it to be “shabu”. What b. The medium through which prisoners change
should he do first? their behavior and attitudes
a. Record the incident in the logbook c. The consolidation of interactions between
b. Bring the substance to NBI correctional officers and the prisoners
c. Properly identify the substance d. A total institution in which the basic physiological
d. Properly preserve the evidence needs of prisoners were to be met away from the
outside world
187. Which theory of criminal punishment holds that punishment is
imposed on the offender to allow society to vent its anger toward 194. What is the function responsibility of correction officers?
and exact vengeance upon the criminal? a. Inmates’ health
a. Retribution → classical / Beccaria b. Prison security
b. Restoration c. Prisoner’s interpersonal relations
c. Rehabilitation - reformation d. Prison industry
d. Deterrence – fear
195. Which of the following procedures should be observed in
188. There are various types of prison programs. For what handling drug addicts who are incarcerated?
purpose is a rehabilitative program? 1. They should be segregated especially during the withdrawal
a. It secures prisoners from escape or violence period
(security) 2. They should be closely supervised to prevent attempts to
b. It employs prisoners in various products or good- commit suicide or self-mutilation
producing tasks (industrial) 3. They should not be administered sedatives/stimulants unless
c. It attempts to improve a prisoner’s job skills or prescribed by a physician
educational achievement (educational) 4. They should be transferred to mental institution of proper
d. It assigns prisoners to daily routine work like psychiatric treatment
laundry and janitorial (prison labor) a. 2, 3 and 4
e. Changes behavior of the prisoners towards b. 3, 4 and 1
becoming a productive and law abiding c. 4, 1 and 2
citizens d. 1, 2 and 3

12
196. Math Thaleno was placed in a correctional program which 204. Panny Samantala is in a temporary custody of a person or the
enables him to enhance his employability, develop his detention of a person for his own protection or care, to secure
intellectual faculties, and graduate to a free existence in from liability, harm, injury or damage.
community living all at the same time is referred to as A. Safekeeping C. Preventive imprisonment
_______________ B. Custodial investigation D. Voluntary surrender
a. Livelihood program Detention while on trial
b. Guidance counseling
c. Education program – cornerstone of rehab 205. The following are agencies involved in corrections under the
d. Religious program Department of Justice, except:
A. Bureau of Corrections
197. Stores and basketball courts can also be found in Jail. What B. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology - DILG
rehabilitation program that provides a pre-social environment C. Boards of Pardon and Parole
within the prison to help the inmates develop noncriminal ways to D. Probation Administration
coping outside?
a. Psychotherapy 206. Also known as the Bureau of Correction Law of 2013.
b. Behavior therapy A. RA 10175 – cyber crime
c. Occupational therapy B. RA 10575
d. Milieu therapy C. RA 10705
D. RA 10707 – probation law of 2015

198. Time in prison is slow and boring and the soul grows bitter. 207. Articles 1706 - 1727 of the revised Administrative Code (EO
Which of the following mitigate the oppressiveness of time? 292) as amended is known as
a. Administrative program A. Correction Law – RA 10575
b. Security programs B. Jail Management Law – RA 9263
c. Recreational program C. Prison Law
d. Rehabilitation programs D. Parole and Probation Law – act 4103 / pd 968
e. Custodial program
208. He handled and headed the last batch of prisoners of Alcatraz
199. How is an offender released from prison or jail? Prison.
1. After service of sentence - warden a. Warden Fred Wilkinson c. James Bennet
2. Issuance of order of the court – probation or bail b. Warden Elan Lyrd d. Gaylord Hubbell
3. Grant of parole - BPP close Alcatraz
4. Grant of pardon – president
5. Grant of amnesty – president + congress 209. When was the Philippine Prisons placed under the Bureau of
6. Any lawful order of competent authority – Corrections?
deportation a. 1989 c. 1990
a. 1,3,4,5 and 6 b. 1905 – act 1407 d. 1910
b. 1,2,3,4 and 5
c. 2,3,4,5, and 6 PART 2: NON-INSTITUTIONAL CORRECTION
d. All of those listed above
210. A judicial action for legal disposition that allows the offender
200. According to the routine activities’ theory, the volume and to remain in the community subject to conditions imposed by the
distribution of predatory crimes are affected by the following, court?
EXCEPT: a. Reprieve – president
a. Presence of motivated offenders (desire) b. Probation – release with condition & supervision of PO
b. Absence of capable guardians (opportunity) c. Commutation – president
c. Availability of suitable targets (capability) d. Parole - BPP
d. Absence of motivated offenders Judicial clemency
*felson and cohen
211. The concept of probation, from the Latin word “probatio”
201. This place is where inmates are doing labor or anything for which means ___, has historical roots in the practice of judicial
their livelihood? reprieve.
a. Hardwood shops – prison industry A. walk with faith B. live with integrity
b. Soft wood shops C. testing period D. promise / word of honor (parole)
c. Barbershops *probare – test/prove
d. Livelihood shops
212. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of __.
202. The superintendent is the disciplinary authority in prison a. punishment b. treatment
while in jail, is the ___. c. enjoyment d. incarceration
A. Warden C. Assistant warden
B. Chief, Custodial force D. Chief, Escort team 213. In probation system’s philosophy and concept, it is
stated that the individual has the ability to ____ and to modify his
anti-social behavior with the right kind of help.
203. The center (place) of reformation of the probationer is A. challenge
a. the probation administration B. none of these
b. DOJ C. change
c. The community D. aggravate his behavior
d. The people

13
214. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be to a. Presidential Decree No. 448
A. provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent b. Presidential Decree No. 968
offender c. Presidential Decree No. 603 – the child and youth welfare
B. prevent the commission of offenses code; child probation law
C. promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by d. Presidential Decree No. 1184
providing him with individualized treatment
D. All of these 226. Who grants probation?
a. Probation officer
215. A person who is placed under probation. b. Solicitor general
a. Petitioner – applicant for probation c. Court
b. Probationer*client d. All of the above
c. Probationee *same court where the accused was convicted
d. None of the above
227. Where the application for probation should be filed?
216. He is the father of probation in the Philippines a. Board of Pardons and Parole → grants parole
a. Ferdinand Marcos – signed PD 968 b. Office of the Solicitor General
b. Manuel Roxas c. Trial court
c. Teodulo C. Natividad d. Appellate court
d. Ramon Bagatsing Sr.- co-author of Natividad
228. What court will you apply for Probation?
217. Idea of probation first existed early in the 19th century in A. Regional Trial Court for 6 years and above
a. Japan B. MTC or MCTC for 6 years and below
b. U.S.A. – boston, Massachusetts. C. Same court, where you had been convicted
c. England – parole “alexander, maconochie” D. Any of these
d. Ireland – irish system, walter crofton
*How long is given to the petitioner to apply for probation? 15 days
218. When does probation started? Guilty = waive, appeal, apply probation (w/in 15 days)
a. 1938 b. 1841 – JOHN AUGUSTUS PD 1257 = APPEAL WILL REMOVE THE CHANCE FOR
c. 1896 d. 1932 PROBATION (V.V.)
Philippines ➔ 1935 (act 4221) ➔ 1937 = abolished
229. It serves as the basis in granting probation to qualified
219. A shoemaker and became the father of probation in the U.S applicants.
a. Mathew Davenport Hill – father of probation in England a. Post Investigation Report
b. Edward Savage – 1st appointed probation officer b. Pre Sentence Investigation report
c. John Augustus – american pioneer of probation; 1st true probation c. Admission report
officer d. Post Sentence Investigation
d. Teodolo Natividad - Within 60 days ➔ PSIR

220. He is considered as the father of Probation in England. 230. Which of the following is NOT an objective in the conduct of
a. Matthew Davenport Hill interview of probation applicant?
b. Father Cook – fr. Rufus cook – successor of john augustus a. To diagnose the applicant’s problems
c. John Augustus b. To determine how the person shall respond to
d. Edward Savage supervision
John augustus = released 1, 946 inmates = 10 failed c. To gather information about the person
d. To determine his paying capacity
221. It was held as the 1st probation officer employed by the
government: 231. It is a report on the background of the convict, prepared for
a. John Augustus the judge to decide on the approval or denial of application of
b. Teodulo C Natividad probation.
c. Edward N Savage a. Probation Report
d. Mattew Davenport b. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
c. Pre-Sentence Investigation Report
222. Federal Probation act signed by President Calvin Coolidge d. Pre-Trial Report
became a Law on _____.
A. April 26, 1878 B. 1899 232. After receiving the PSIR, within how many days must a judge
C. 1887 D. March 4, 1925 decide whether to grant or deny the application for probation?
PD 968 - signed – July 24, 1976 a. 5 days b. 15 days
o Took effect – January 3, 1978 c. 30 days d. 60 days
223. Probation in Philippines was first introduced by virtue of ___
also known as Philippine Probation Act of 1935 summary of probation application
A. HB 393 – probation bill (Natividad) where to apply? Same court
B. PD 968 – adult probation law of 1976 when to apply? Within 15 days after conviction
C. Act 4221 how to apply? Submit application form
D. RA 4221 what is the basis of the judge in granting probation? PSI
How long is the PSI? within 60 days
224. Celebrated case which paved the way for declaring What shall be submitted bd the ppo after psi? PSIR
unconstitutional of the first probation law of November 16, 1937 Where to submit? Same court
A. People vs. Vera B. People vs. De Vera How long will the judge decide? Within 15 days
C. People vs. De Vega D. People vs. Vega What will the judge issue? Probation order
While undergoing application, the petitioner may released on BAIL
225. What law grants probation to first time offenders who are sent
to prison terms of not more than six (6) years?

14
233. The judge approves or denies the grant of probation based on 242. The probationer and his probation program shall be under the
the report of the control and supervision of ___?
a. Social worker a. Probation officer
b. Probation officer b. Board of pardons and parole
c. Prosecutor c. Court
d. Police office d. All of the above

234. The approval of the application of probation is done by the 243. The one who investigates (PSI) for the court a referral for
Judge thru the issuance of probation or supervises a probationer or both
a. Probation Citation Ticket a. police officer
b. Probation Order b. probation officer
c. Probation Certificate c. intelligence officer
d. Probation Clearance d. law enforcer
*DENIED = Mittimus
244. Juan dela Cruz was sentenced to serve a penalty of Prision
235. What is the effect of the grant of probation? Mayor (6y 1d – 12y). Is he qualified to apply for probation?
a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house A. Yes B. True
b. The execution of sentence is suspended C. No D. False
c. The probationer is sent to prison 14 DQ FOR PROBATION
d. The prison term is doubled 1. Exceeds 6 years
*specific answer: suspension of criminal liability 2. T-R-E-SE-P-M-C
*Q – IS CIVIL LIABILITY AFFECTED BY PROBATION? 3. CICL (PD 603)
A = NO 4. Once on probation law
5. 2nd time offender
236. When shall probation order take effect? 6. Sentence 1 month below
A. Three days after issuance 7. Election code
B. Three days prior to issuance 8. Wage law
C. Upon its issuance 9. Videogram law (G, PG, PG 13, R18
D. Upon reporting to the probation officer 10. RA 9165 (except sec 12, 14, 17, 57, 70)
11. Lapsed 15 days period
237. Waiting for the decision of the court on the application for 12. On going trial
probation, the offender applying for probation – 13. On appeal
A. Must stay in prison as a detainee 14. Convicted before January 3, 1978
B. Maybe set free without bail
C. Maybe released on bail or recognizance 245. Zosimo was convicted to a prison term of prision correccional
D. all of these (6 months and 1 day – 6 years). Will he qualify for probation?
APPLY ➔ BAIL ➔ MISSING ➔ absconding petitioner a. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day
b. No, his sentence is more than six (6) years and
238. Probation shall be denied if the court finds that_. one (1) day
a. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the offense c. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years
committed. (murder) and one (1) day
b. The offender is in need of correctional treatment (life d. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1)
imprisonment) day
c. There is undue risk that during the period of probation
the offender will commit another crime (habitual 246. Violations of the following Special Laws shall disqualify an
delinquent) offender to avail of the benefits of PD 968 except,
d. All of the choices A. Omnibus Election Code
B. Robbery
239. Is the denial of probation appealable? C. Wage Rationalization Act
a. It depends on the violation b. Yes D. Videogram Law
c. No d. Partially No
*probation is not a right ➔ privilege 247. As a general rule Violation of Comprehensive Dangerous Drug
Act of 2002 is qualified to apply for Probation, EXCEPT:
240. Mr. Yao Patalo was convicted of a crime and sentenced to an A. Section 12 B. Section 14
imprisonment term of 8 years, since he is disqualified for C. Section 13 D. Section 17
probation, he decided to appeal his case to a higher court. E. Section 70
The appellate court declared him again guilty but to a lesser
penalty of six (6) years. Can he apply now for probation? 248. This decree mandated the disqualification of the petitioner’s
a. Yes, because his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 application for probation if an appeal is perfected.
day A. PD 1357 B. BP 76
b. No, because he already appealed his case C. PD 968 D.PD 1257
c. No, because he is disqualified
d. Yes, because his 1st sentence is non probationable 249. Which of the following cases is disqualified to apply for
and his 2nd sentence is a probationable offense. probation?
A. Infanticide C. Simple Theft
241. Parole and Probation Administration is under the direction of B. Malicious Mischief D. Unjust Vexation
the
A. Department of Finance
B. Department of Justice
C. Department of Interior and Local Government \
D. BJMP

15
250. Who are disqualified to apply for probation?
a. Those sentences to serve a prison term of more than 6 257. A probationer is allowed to do the following except?
years - dq a. Stay away from bad associates
b. Those who have once been placed on probation under b. Work regularly to support his family
this law – dq c. Make periodic office report
c. Those whose serving sentence when the probation has d. Go and play in a gambling den
taken effect – dq
d. All of the above 258. The following are conditions of probation: EXCEPT:
a. Granted by the court
251. Juanito is 17 years old when he was convicted for the crime of b. He was once on Probation
theft. Can he apply for probation under the adult probation c. Must not have committed any crime against national
system? security
a. no, because he is entitled for parole d. Penalty should not exceed six years imprisonment
b. no, because his crime is theft
c. no, because he is only 17 years old 259. Under rules and methods employed by probation, what is the
d. no, because he is convicted of a crime maximum number of minor violations that would result in the
*PD 603 revocation of the probation order?
A. 5 Violations B. 3 Violations – major
252. How many times an offender be granted probation under PD C. 4 Violations D. 2 Violations
968
a. Never 2 conditions of probation
b. Twice 1. Mandatory (major violation = max 3 ➔ revoke)
c. Only once o Report → po → once a month
d. 3 times o Summon → within 72 hours
2. Discretionary (added condition) (minor = max 5 ➔
Totoy (16) → theft → 3 years → probation = granted – pd603 revoke)
Totoy (26) → theft → 3 years → probation = granted – pd968 o No liquor
o No house of ill repute
253. Those that have been once on probation under the Probation o Travel permit
Law: o Regular job
A. are qualified to apply for probation o Permanent residence
B. are disqualified to apply for probation o Random drug test
C. may be granted for another probation
D. should be confined in prison Process of revocation of probation
Step 1 – fact finding investigation (5w 1h)
OUTSIDE TRAVEL OF PROBATIONERS Step 2 – PPO ➔ violation report ➔ court
1 – 9 days = free to go Step 3 – court ➔ WOA
10 – 30 days = permit from the PPO Step 4 – court ➔ summary hearing
More than 30 days = permit from CPPO Step 5 – court ➔ decision
Change of residence = approval from court (transfer of probation) 1. Dismiss the VR
Travel abroad = no 2. Modification
3. Revocation order ➔ serve the ORIGINAL sentence

254. Who shall have the control over the probationer once the 260. In the hearing for the violation committed by the probationer,
latter is permitted to reside under the jurisdiction of another the latter shall have the right to be informed of the violation
court? charged and to adduce evidence in his favor. This right is in
a. Regional Director pursuant to his right to ___?
b. Executive judge of the municipal court a. Equal protection
c. Executive Judge of the first instance → RTC b. Presumption of innocence
d. Appellate court c. Miranda rights
d. Due process of law
255. Pedro Juana was sentenced to serve an imprisonment of six
months, how many years would be the duration of his probation? 261. What is nature in hearing the violation of a probation?
a. One year A. Formal B. Summary
b. Two years C. Due process D. None of the above
c. Shall not exceed two years
d. Shall not be more than six years 262. What should the court do where the accused violated the
period of probation terms and conditions of his probation?
rule 1: if the sentence of the probationer is not more than 1 year , a. Court releases the probationer to the community
the period of probation is not more than 2 years. b. Revoked and let the probationer served his sentence
Rule 2: sentence more than 1 year = not more than 6 years c. Court order the probationer to apply for parole
d. Court should allow the probationer to continue his
Ex. Theft = 3 years = probation probation
Period = not more than 6 years
263. If the Probationer did not comply with the conditions, if the
reasons for non-compliance is not meritorious the court will issue
256. How long is the period of probation of a defendant sentenced a ____.
to a term of imprisonment of more than one (1) year? A. termination order B. Warrant of Arrest
A. Not to exceed 6 years C. OAR D. Revocation Order
B. Not to exceed 8 years *termination order = final release and discharge of probationer
C. Not to exceed 10 years (freedom)
D. Not to exceed 2 years

16
264. What is the effect of the recommitment of a Probationer? 274. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified
A. Serve the remaining portion of the his sentence petitioners, when does it become a matter of right?
B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence A. After the submission of the PSIR
(parole) B. When the convict files a petition for probation
C. Minimum sentence impose C. When the appeal was undertaken
D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full D. When his probation is approved

275. Who appoints Probation Administrator (head of the PPA),

265. When does probation revocable before the final discharge of Regional Probation Officers and Assistant Probation Officers?
the probationer by the court for the violation of any of the conditions A. DILG Secretary B. President
of probation. C. DOJ Secretary D. Administrator
a. any time during probation
b. 1st 3 months of the probationer 276. Before the probation supervision starts, the Probationer and
c. after 1 year under probation his Probation Officer will prepare a _____.
d. none of the above A. Associate Plan
B. Supervision & Treatment Plan – within 72 hours after the
266. Modifications of conditions for probation is allowed ___. issuance of probation order
A. 15 days after granting it C. Treatment Program
B. At any time during supervision D. Orientation Plan
C. Upon the application of the community
D. Any of these 277. One of the mandatory conditions to a probationer is to present
himself to the probation officer designated to undertake his
267. Who is authorized to modify the condition of probation supervision within ___ from receipt of said order.
a. Judge A. 24 hours B. 72 hours
b. probationer C. 48 hours D. 150 hours
c. probation officer
d. all of the above 278. The following are considered as discretionary conditions of
probation except
268. What is the effect of the termination of probation? a. Drinking intoxicated liquor to excess (discretionary)
a. Erase criminal records b. Abstain from visiting house of all ill repute (discretionary)
b. Operate to restore civil rights lost or suspended as a c. Report at least once a month – mandatory
result of conviction d. Cooperate with the program of probation (discretionary)
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above 279. Probation is a privilege granted to deserving and qualified
petitioners, when does it become a matter of right?
269. Volunteer Probation Aides (assistant) may be appointed from A. After submission of the PSIR
among the citizen’s of ____ B. When the convict files a petition for probation
A. Good religious background C. When the appeal was undertaken
B. High Educational Level D. When the probation is approved
C. Good Repute and Probity
D. High Social Standing 280. Who is the ultimate beneficiary of Probation Law?
*18 y/o, HS graduate, good repute, no salary, 2 years A. Criminal
B. Society
270. Maximum number of probationers under supervision of a C. Family
probation aide D. Governor
A. 3 B. 7
C. 5 D. 9 281. It refers to those that handle the investigation of petitioners
for probation, and the supervision of probationers, parolees
271. Probation aids shall have the term in office for ___? and conditional pardonees.
a. 3 years b. 1 year A. Parole and Probation Administration
c. 2 years d. 4 years B. Board of Pardons and Parole – grants parole; recommends
the grant of executive clemency
272. When does an applicant who was granted probation report to C. Secretary of Justice
the assigned Probation Officer for Interview? D. Department of Justice
a. Within thirty-six (36) hours from receipt of
probation order WHO GRANTS PROBATION? COURT
b. Within fifteen (15) days from receipt of probation WHO RECOM PROBATION? PPO
order WHO GRANTS PAROLE? BPP
c. Within seventy-two (72) hours from his WHO RECOM PAROLE? PPO
receipt of the probation order WHO GRANTS EXEC. CLEMENCY? PRESIDENT
d. Within twenty-four (24) hours from receipt of WHO RECOM EXECUTIVE CLEM? BPP
probation order WHO GRANTS GCTA AND STAL? WARDEN, CBJMP,DIR BUCOR.

273. He is a convicted defendant whose application for probation 282. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which
has been given due course by the court but fails to report to the provides a less costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders who
probation officer or cannot be located within a reasonable period are likely to respond to individualized community based treatment
of time. programs.
A. Absconding Petitioner B. Absconding Probationer a. BJMP
C. Disobedient Petitioner D. Uncooperative Petitioner b. Bureau of Corrections
c. Provincial Government
d. Parole and Probation Administration

17
283. A term means a friend of a court 293. Under the Indeterminate Sentence Law, who acts as the
a. Amicos curae chairman of the Board of Pardons and Parole?
b. Amigos curae a. PNP Chief
c. Amicus curiae b. DILG Secretary
d. None of the above c. DOJ Secretary
d. Chief Executive
284. PPA is headed by:
a. Director → head of bureau 7 COMPOSITIONS OF BPP (enbanc)
b. Administrator
c. Secretary → HEAD OF THE DEPARTMENT 1. Chairman – sec. of DOJ
d. Superior 2. Ex officio member – administrator of PPA
3. Reg. member – sociologist
285. Probation officer may authorize a probationer to travel outside 4. Reg. member – lawyer
his area of operational territorial jurisdiction for a period of 5. Reg. member – psychiatrist
a. 1-5 days 6. Reg member – clergy / educ.
b. 5-10 days 7. Reg member – any professional
c. 10-30 days Note: 5 members, one must be a woman
d. 30 days
294. Maximum term of office for those appointed as members of the
286. When will you close a probation case? Board of Pardon and Parole.
A. When the probationer absconds the place A. 3 years B. 5 years
B. When he incurred violations C. 4 years D. 6 years
C. When there is recommendation for revocation
D. When the termination order is approved 295. It is an executive clemency whereby the convicted person
*dead, pardon, amnesty, deport, complete the period should serve part of his sentence?
a. Pardon b. Parole
287. The Probation Officer and Volunteer Probation Aides c. Probation d. Amnesty
undertake supervision and visitation of the probationer. However, *conditional pardon ➔ serve ½ of minimum
control over the probationer and probation program is exercised
by: 296. It is a conditional release after the prisoner’s conviction is final
a. The Chief of Police of the place where he/she and executory and has already served the minimum period of the
resides sentence imposed to him.
b. The Parole and Probation Administrator A. Parole
c. The Secretary of Justice B. Word of Honor
d. The Court who placed him on probation B. Parole d’ Honeur
D.Probare
288. A drug user who is placed under probation may be made to
serve his sentence by the court if he 297. Parole is a matter of ___.
a. Becomes unruly and undisciplined a. privilege b. right
b. Commits another offense c. grace d. requirement
c. He is 21 years old pardon (mercy)
d. Violates any of the conditions of his
probation 298. Parole is not claimed as a right but the Board of Parole grants
it as a privilege to a qualified prisoner. This is statement is:
289. All data gathered about the probation applicant shall be A. Partially true C. True
treated _________________. B. Partially false D. False
a. Comprehensively *60-70% = true
b. Appropriately *65% = “b”
c. Confidentially A __________ = consonant “bcdfghjklmnp”
d. Judiciously An _________ = vowel “aeiou”

290. Is the court order revoking the grant of probation appealable? 299. Among the following, which has the authority to grant
a. Definitely yes, it is appealable parole?
b. Definitely no, it is not appealable a. President – executive clemency
c. It depends on the outcome of the investigation b. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. It depends on the violations committed c. Director of Prison - GCTA
d. Court - probation
291. Pedro Ayog is a probationer who is ordered by the Court to
pay certain amounts to the victim as part of his civil liability. To 300. He is the Governor/Superintendent in Norfolk Island, a penal
whom shall he pay the amount for remittance of the victim? colony in the East of Australia and initiated the famous “Mark
a. Municipal treasurer System”.
b. Cashier of the trial court A. Alexander Maconochie B. Edward Savage
c. Clerk of Court of the Trial Court C. Walter Crofton D. Edward Savage
d. Cashier of the Probation Office
*personal payment 301. Which is considered the forerunner of parole?
*bank account A. Mark system
B. Solitary system - Pennsylvania
292. A French word meaning “word of honor” C. Benefits of a clergy – church ➔ trial & judgment
a. Pardon – latin “pardoun” to forgive b. Probation – latin “probare” D. Congregate system – auburn
c. Parole d. Amnesty – latin “amnestia” - forget

18
 14 DQ FOR PAROLE

1. Life sentence 5 steps in application for parole

2. Death Step 1 – dir.gen ➔ carpeta ➔ BPP (30 days before minimum)
3. Reclusion perpetua Step 2 – petitioner ➔ formal petition ➔ BPP
4. Habitual del. Step 3 – BPP ➔ PPO → pre parole investigation (30) ➔ PPIR ➔
5. TRESE-PC BPP
6. Sentence 1 year below Step 4 – BPP ➔ enbanc (7) ➔ voting ➔ majority
7. Insane Step 5 – granted ➔ release document ➔ parolee / client
8. Art. 157 – evasion
9. Art 159, violation of conditional pardon 308. It is an investigation conducted by a parole officer made before
10. Election code the grant of Parole
11. Trial
12. Appeal a. Post Sentence Investigation
13. Fine b. Pre Probation and Parole System Investigation
14. Destierro c. Pre parole investigation
d. Pre parole and investigation report.
302. Which of the following requirements shall qualify a prisoner
for parole? 309. The board shall assess and determine whether the petitioner is
1. Confinement in jail or prison to serve an indeterminate qualified for Parole, the decision or action must be suspended by
sentence ____ of the members of the board.
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a A. 4 votes B. Majority
final judgment of conviction C. 5 members of the Board D. at least four (4) votes
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less the
good conduct time allowance earned 310. If petition for Parole was granted, BOARD will issue a ____ or
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence specifically known as discharge on parole.
a. 4, 1 and 2 A. Release Document
b. 2, 3 and 4 B. Final Release & Discharge
c. 3, 4 and 1 C. Discharge on Parole
d. 1, 2 and 3 D. Summary Report

303. All except one are the requisites to be eligible for review of a 311. One of the mandatory conditions attached to the parolee is to
Parole cases. report at least once a month for those residing outside Metro
A. Final conviction Manila/to report at least twice a month for those who are residing
B. maximum period of sentence exceeds one year in Metro Manila.
C. served the minimum period of said sentence A. True
D. None of the above B. Partially True
C. False
304. The following are disqualifications for parole EXCEPT one: D. Partially False
a. those who escape from confinement or evaded sentence
(dq) 312. The Probation and Parole Officer submits ___ if parolee
b. those convicted of offense punished by death penalty, commits any violation of the terms and conditions stated in the
reclusion perpetua or life imprisonment (dq) release document.
c. those who are habitual delinquents (dq) A. Violation Report B. Progress Report
d. none of the above C. Infraction Report D. Summary Report

305. The following are disqualifications for Parole to be granted. 313. Upon receipt of the Report the BOARD may issue an ____
a. who escaped from confinement or evaded sentence; (dq) against the parolee.
b. those who have pending criminal case; (dq) A. Warrant of Arrest
c. habitual delinquencies; (dq) B. Search Warrant
d. suffering from any mental disorder; and (dq) C. Order of Arrest
e. conviction is on appeal (dq) D. Order of Arrest & Recommitment (OAR)
A. a,b,c, and e B. a,b,c, and d
C. b,c,d, and e D. a,b,c,d, and e 314. What is the effect of the recommitment of a Parolee?
A. Serve the remaining portion of his sentence
306. All except one are objectives of the Parole System. B. Serve the remaining portion of the maximum sentence
A. It standardize the penalty C. Minimum sentence impose
B. Prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of liberty D. Serve the original sentence of imprisonment in full
C. Uplift and redeem valuable Human, material and economic
usefulness 315. As a general rule, a Parolee may not transfer residence stated
D. Individualize the administration of criminal law, without in the release document except if the petition for transfer of
prejudice to the basic needs of maintaining and protecting residence is approved by ____.
social order A. Regional Director
B. Probation & Parole Officer
307. Director of Prisons has the responsibility to forward the C. BOARD
document to the board, ____ before the expiration of prisoner’s D. Administration
minimum sentence.
A. 15 days B. 45 days 316. A Chief Probation and Parole Officer may authorize outside
C. 30 days D. 60 days travel of a parolee his area of jurisdiction for a period of NOT
more than ___.
A. 30 days B. 15 days
C. 20 days D. 10 days

19
317. If a travel of a Parolee is more than 30 days shall be approved 328. Kind of Executive Clemency which exempts an individual
by the ____. within certain limits or conditions from the punishment that the
A. Regional Director B. Probation & Parole Officer law inflicts for the offense he has committed resulting from the
C. BOARD D. Administration partial extinction of his criminal liability.
318. A parolee may work or travel abroad if he has NO pending A. Absolute Pardon
criminal case in any court. Application for travel and work abroad B. Reprieve
shall be approved by the Administration and confirmed by the C. Commutation of Sentence
____. D. Conditional Pardon
A. Regional Director C. BOARD
B. Probation and Parole Officer D. Administration 329. It refers to the total extinction of the criminal liability of the
individual to whom it is granted without any condition.
319. Why is probation service analogous to parole service? a. Special pardon
a. Both have similar investigation and supervision b. Absolute pardon
functions. c. Conditional pardon
b. Both services are performed by the prosecutors. d. General pardon
c. Both services are performed by alcoholics.
d. Both services are under the courts. 330. Pardon can be extended to any of the cases, EXCEPT:
A. Carnapping B. Impeachment
320. It is exercise exclusively within the sound discretion of the B. Estafa D. Parricide
President for the objective of preventing miscarriage of Justice or
correcting manifests injustice. 331. Pardon by the President shall be extended ____.
A. Parole B. Pardon A. Before Prosecution of Criminal Action
C. Executive Clemency D. Reprieve B. After Conviction of Final Judgment
C. After Filling of Complaint/Information
321. Who has the authority to assist the Chief Executive in his D. Upon the discretion of the President
exercise of the power to grant executive clemency?
A. DOJ B. BOARD 332. A pardon violator upon conviction will be liable for
C. Administration D. Administrator imprisonment of “prision correctional”.
A. Article 95 of RPC B. Article 59 of RPC
322. The act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the state C. Article 159 of RPC D. A and C
which exempts an individual from the punishment which the law
imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by the President thru 333. On Executive Clemency petition filed by prisoner should be
the recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon is called: addressed to ____.
a. Amnesty A. Board B. Administrator
b. Parole C. Chairman of BPP D. President
c. Probation
d. Pardon 334. Who shall endorse to the Board the petition for absolute or
conditional pardon if the crime committed is against the national
323. Is a pardon which is conceded to a single individual for an security?
ordinary crime. A. DFA Secretary B. COMELEC
a. General pardon C. DOJ Secretary D. DND Secretary
b. Absolute pardon
c. Conditional pardon 335. Any willful or malicious concealing material information made
d. Special pardon by the client either or after the grant of Conditional Pardon or
Parole is a ground for the BOARD to –
324. It refers to leniency or mercy. A. Extend the period of Supervision
a. Power B. Modify the conditions appeared on released document
b. Clemency C. Cancel the Parole or recommend the revoke of Conditional
c. Grace Pardon
d. Damages D. Suspend the exercise of said privileges until good behavior
has shown by the client
325. A kind of pardon which applies to all persons falling on a certain
category. 336. All except one are the instances wherein supervision of parole
a. Special pardon and conditional pardon case deemed to archive/close.
b. Absolute pardon A. Order o Arrest and recommitment issued by the Board
c. Conditional pardon against the client
d. General pardon B. Certificate of transfer of resident
C. Upon receipt of certificate of final release and discharge of
326. The case where the Supreme Court laid down the doctrine that the client
the absolute pardon removes all that is left of the consequences D. Certified True Copy of the death certificate of the deceased
of conviction, and that it is absolute in so far it restores the client
pardonee to full civil and political rights.
A. Cristobal vs. Labrador 337. The power of the Chief Executive to grant pardon is limited to
B. Fernandez vs. Aquino the following, EXCEPT:
C. People vs. Galit A. Pardon is administered by the court
D. None of these B. Pardon cannot be extended o cases of impeachment.
C. No pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for the
327. What branch of government has the sole authority to exercise violation of any election law may granted without favourable
pardon? recommendation of the Commission of Elections.
a. Executive branch b. Judicial branch D. Pardon is exercised only after conviction
c. Legislative branch d. Nota

20
338. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the 348. Refers to the conditional release of an offender from a
Philippines Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the: correctional institution after he has served the minimum of his prison
a. Department of Justice sentences.
b. Chief Executive a. Parole
c. Judiciary b. Pardon
d. Legislative c. Probation
d. None of the above
339. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to suspend
the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence and extinguish 349. It is a report given to a parolee when he or she has been
criminal liability. subsequently convicted of another crime;
a. Parole c. Pardon a. progress report
b. Executive clemency d. none of the above b. violation report
c. infraction report
340. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a d. arrest report
less serious one or a longer term to a shorter term.
a. Amnesty 350. It refers to the withdrawal or withholding of punishment for a
c. Reprieve time after conviction and sentence.
b. Commutation a. Reprieve
d. none of the foregoing b. Amnesty
c. Probation
341. It is the temporary suspension in the execution of sentence? d. Commutation
a. Pardon b. Appeal
c. Commutation d. Reprieve 351. It is an executive clemency whereby the convicted person
should serve part of his sentence?
342. The temporary stay of execution of sentence is called a. Pardon
a. Reprieve c. Amnesty b. Parole
b. Pardon d. Communication c. Probation
d. Amnesty
Su - suspension
Po - postponement 352. Who among the following may be granted conditional
T – temporary stay pardon?
Ca - cancellation a. A sick prisoner, certified as such by government
W – withholding physician
b. A prisoner who served as “bastonero”
343. Which of the following is an executive clemency that c. A prisoner who is sixty years old and above
requires the concurrence of congress? d. A prisoner with good behavior
a. probation b. Amnesty
c. pardon d. Parole 353. What documents are attached to the Release Document of
the parolee?
344. The following are forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT 1. Prison record
a. Commutation 2. Name of the Parole and Probation Officer
b. Parole 3. Location of the Prison or Confinement
c. Amnesty 4. Order of Court
d. Pardon a. 4 and 1
b. 1 and 2
345. Pardon may be granted upon the recommendation of what c. 3 and 4
government agency d. 2 and 3
a. Parole and Probation Administration
b. Board of Pardons and Parole 354. A petition for the grant of absolute or conditional pardon shall
c. Probation and Parole Administration be favorably endorsed to the Board by the _______ if the crime
d. Board of Parole and Pardons committed by the petitioner is against national security.
a. Secretary of Foreign Affairs
b. Secretary of Justice
346. It refers to reduction or mitigation of the penalty. c. Secretary of National Defense
a. Reprieve d. Secretary of the Interior and Local Government
b. Amnesty
c. Probation 355. The President grants absolute/conditional pardon based on
d. Commutation the recommendation of:
Lo – lowering a. Board of Pardon and Parole
Mi – mitigation b. Bureau of Corrections
Re – reduction c. Parole and Probation Administration
Di – diminution d. Office of the Executive Secretary
Sho – shortening
T – transforming 356. To what agency is an alien parolee turned over for
disposition, documentation and appropriate order?
347. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of a prison a. Bureau of Immigration and Deportation
sentence? b. Bureau of Corrections
a. Commutation of sentence c. Board of Pardons and Parole
b. Parole d. National Bureau of Investigation
c. Absolute pardon
d. Conditional pardon

21
357. To be eligible for the grant of conditional pardon, what portion 364. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of a prison
of the sentence must have been served by a petitioner-prisoner? sentence?
a. At least one half of the minimum of his a. Parole
indeterminate sentence b. Commutation of sentence
b. At least one half of the maximum of his c. Absolute pardon
indeterminate sentence d. Conditional pardon
c. At least one fourth of the maximum of his
indeterminate sentence 365. Reducing the degree of Death penalty inflected upon the
d. At least one third of the minimum of his council.
indeterminate sentence a. amnesty
b. commutation
358. What agency issues the Certificate of Final Release and c. pardon
Discharge of a Parolee? d. commutation of sentence
a. Bureau of Corrections
b. Board of Pardons and Parole 366. There are three (3) casework techniques applied by the
c. Parole and Probation Administration parole officer, which is not included?
d. Department of Justice A. The trick and treat techniques
B. The executive techniques
359. Which of the following guidelines shall be followed when the C. The guidance, counseling and leadership techniques
parolee commits an infraction of the terms and conditions D. The manipulative techniques
appearing in his Release Documents?
1. His Parole and Probation Officer prepares and submits an 367. Which of the following instances Pardon cannot be
Infraction Report to the Board of Pardon and Parole exercised?
2. Upon receipt of Infraction Report, the Board orders the arrest A. before conviction
of the parolee B. before trial
3. The Parolee is recommitted to prison if the Board finds that C. after conviction
the continuation of his parole is incompatible with public D. during service of sentence
welfare E. Both a and b
4. The parolee is made to pay fine for his infraction
a. 2, 3 and 4 368. This is a procedure which permits a jail prisoner to pursue his
b. 4, 1 and 2 normal job during the week and return to the jail to serve his
c. 1, 2 and 3 sentence during the weekend or non-working hours.
d. 3, 4 and 1 S A. Amnesty
B. good conduct time allowance
360. What is the effect of the grant of probation? C. probation
a. The prisoner is sent to half-way house D. delayed sentence → weekend confinement
b. The execution of sentence is suspended (pp vs paco laranaga)
c. The probationer is sent to prison
d. The prison term is doubled 369. Pardon is exercised when the person is __.
A. already convicted
361. When shall the prison record and carpeta of a petitioner for B. not yet convicted
executive clemency be forwarded to the Board of Pardon and C. about to be convicted
Parole (BPP)? D. serve the sentence
a. Within three (3) months from receipt of the
BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP for 370. For amnesty to be granted, there should be __.
prison record and carpeta A. Recommendation from U.N.
b. At least one (1) month before the expiration of B. Recommendation from C.H.R.
the minimum of the prisoner’s indeterminate C. Application from C.H.R
sentence D. Concurrence of the congress - 2/3
c. Within five (5) months from receipt of the BUCOR
Director of the BPP request for prison record and 371. Which program plays a unique role in the moral and
carpeta spiritual regeneration of the prisoner?
d. Within one (1) month from receipt of the BUCOR A. None of these
Director of the request made by the BPP for the B. Work programs
prison record and carpeta C. Education programs
D. Religious programs

362. If probation is granted by a court judge, who grants pardon? 372. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ from civil
a. Secretary of Justice liability imposed upon him by the sentence.
b. President of the Philippines A. partially exempted
c. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court B. exempted
d. Director of Board of Pardon and Parole C. conditionally exempted
D. not exempted
363. Which agency exercises supervision over parolees?
a. Bureau of Pardon and Parole
b. Probation and Parole Administration 373. Amnesty came from the Latin word amnestia which means
c. Bureau of Corrections a. To forgive – pardon
d. Department of Justice b. To forget
c. To test – probare
d. Promise – parole

22
374. What is the effect of pardon exercise by the offended party? d. All of the above
a. Extinguished both criminal and civil liability
b. Extinguished only criminal liability 385. A system of penalty which limits the culprit penalty up to not
c. Does not extinguish the criminal liability more than the three fold the length of time corresponding to the
d. Does not no extinguish both criminal and civil liability most severe and in no case to exceed 40 years.
a. Absorption system
375. Constructed in a radial spokes of a wheel architectural b. Material accumulation system
designed and established as a major or central confinement facility c. Correctional system
for Filipino prisoners. d. Juridical Accumulation system
a. Davao Penal Colony
b. Iwahig Penal Colony and Farm 386. Which is NOT a theory justifying imposition of penalty?
c. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm A. Incarceration
d. Bilibid Prison B. Expiation
C. Retribution
376. The preventive imprisonment will exist, except… D. Deterrence
a. When the offense charged is non bailable
b. When the accused is acquitted 387. What statement BEST describes punishment in general?
c. When bail required cannot be furnished by the accused A. It is the redress that the state takes against an offending
d. Answer not given member.
B. It is an infliction of pain to a member of the society
C. It is a government remedy to correct a wrong.
377. Pennsylvania Prison became a known correctional D. It is a human suffering inflicted to an individual.
institution because it applied…
a. the concept of congregate system 388. The self-defense theory justifying the imposition of penalty
b. the concept of prisoner’s freedom to socialization implies that offenders to _________.
c. the concept of segregate system A. serve as example to deter other (Exemplary)
d. A & B B. correct and reform them (Reformation)
C. protect the society from danger and evil
D. prevent and suppress crime (Prevention)
378. This involves the application of security measures in
guarding and safekeeping of prisoners to insure their safety and 389. What is the purpose of confining prisoners to cells with a
control inside the correctional institution. radial where a tower is erected at the center?
a. Prison discipline c. Security A. To make the prison sturdy to withstand natural disaster.
b. Control d. Custody B. To easily control prisoners during tumult and disturbances
C. To easily monitor prison guards performing duties
379. At what satellite camp of Bilibid Prison “in houses” D. To make the life of the Officer of the Day easier
minimum security offenders?
a. Camp Sampaguita c. Camp Montible 390. Offenders found guilty and sentenced by the courts for
b. Camp Bukangliwayway d. Minimum Security deprivation of liberty are categorized based on their _________.
A. degree of risk
380. It handed the “Tagumpay Settlement”. A settlement B. degree of security
intended to those released prisoners who have decided to live C. physical condition
along the premises of the penal institution together with their D. length of sentence
respective families.
a. Iwahig Penal Colony and Farm 391. 13. Which is designed to provide jail inspectors with the
b. Leyte Regional Prison basic functions and responsibilities of an officer particularly on Jail
c. Davao Prison and Penal Farm – tanglaw settlement Management, Administration and Operation?
d. San Ramon Prisons and Penal Farm A. Jail Advance Course
B. Jail Officers Orientation Course
381. Which of the following Philippine correctional institution was C. Jail Basic Recruit Course
established on 1931 by virtue of Act no. 3579 on Nov. 27, 1929? D. Jail Officers Basic Course
a. Leyte Regional Prison
b. Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm 392. The Second Officer in command of the Bureau of
c. Davao Prison and Penal Farm Corrections has the rank of
d. Women’s Correctional A. Undersecretary
B. Deputy Director
382. Is the separation of different types of inmates for their sound C. Director
execution of treatment programs and custody. D. Assistant Secretary
a. Security classification c. Classification
b. Isolation d. Diversification 393. 16. Who among the following shall be designated as District
Jail Warden?
383. An Act establishing the “Bureau of Fire and Protection and A. Chief Inspector Kiko, a graduate of Bachelor Laws.
Bureau of Jail Management and Penology Professionalization Act B. Sr. Superintendent Sara, a graduate of Master in Public
of 2004”. Administration
a. R. A. 9262 c. R. A. 9263 C. Superintendent Willie, a Registered Criminologist.
b. R. A. 9346 d. R. A. 9243 D. Chief Inspector Tito, a graduate of M.S. Criminology

384. What is the effect if the accused after conviction filed an 394. 17. One of the powers of the Bureau of Jail Management
appeal to the appellate court? and Penology is to exercise supervision and control over_ jails
a. May apply probation nationwide.
b. Sentence is deem suspended A. city, provincial and regional
c. Waiver of probation B. district, city and municipal

23
C. municipal, city, and provincial 404. Choose the correction model that completely encapsulates
D. district, provincial and national the lives of the people live there.
A. Custodian
395. Select the classification of inmates who have lesser B. Rehabilitation
tendencies to commit offenses and generally pose the least risk to C. Responsibility
public safety. D. Total Institution
A. maximum risk
B. minimum risk 405. As a Jail Warden, you received an information from the
C. low risk Health Services that the inmate, is recently found to be exhibiting
D. medium risk bizarre behaviors. The MOST appropriate and should do is to ___
A. request the Physician to prescribed sedatives as initial
396. The identification as a prisoner is established by one's treatment
A. valid identification card, case number and photograph B. place her in a comfortable quarter separate from other
B. certification of detention and the commitment order of the inmates
court C. prevent male offenders to enter the women's quarter
C. court decision of the case, valid identification card and D. arrange her transfer to the metal institutions for psychiatric
photograph treatment
D. rolled fingerprint card, photograph and prison number
406. Drug user inmate to continue using drugs……………..them
397. What report is prepared by the staff regarding their findings work suitable to their
on the prisoners? A. age and physical conditions
A. Narrative B. body built and appearance
B. Admission Summary C. social status and educational orientation
C. Staff D. gang affiliation and connection
D. Staff Summary
407. Which is frequently conducted by Bureau of Corrections to
398. What is the MAIN purpose of providing correctional search inmates and their quarters for possible of contraband?
treatment program? A. Operation Salikop
A. To give shelter and change the attitude of prisoners. B. Operation Greyhound
B. To punish prisoners and segregate them from the public C. Operation Galugad
C. To segregate prisoners from the community. D. Operation Kontrabando
D. To eliminate pattern of criminal behavior and reform
prisoners. 408. Identify the largest component of the entire prison personnel
that is responsible for the maintenance of discipline and ensure
399. The treatment of prisoners to be effective shall include safety of inmates.
services and programs that will er and enhance their ________. A. Custodial force
A. love of God and their fellowmen B. Brigade force
B. Self-respect, dignity and sense of responsibility C. Recovery team
C. Physical, Moral and spiritual aspect D. Control center
D. Discipline, nationalism and patriotism
409. When escorting a group of inmates, guard will keep a
400. Select the ONLY program that is conducted during free time distance of not less than his charge until they reach their
schedule. destination.
A. Recreational A. 20
B. Education B. 10
C. Religious C. 15
D. Medical D. 5

401. the following core programs of the Bureau of Jail 410. If there is a necessity to evacuate records, supplies and
Management and Penology EXCEPT. equipment, they show safe place according to ___.
A. Cultural and Sports A. Value
B. Welfare and Development B. priority
C. Provision of basic services C. price
D. Health Services D. importance

402. Online or e-marketing of PDL livelihood products is being run 411. What should be done if the Warden is held hostage, for all
by the _______. intents and purposes are trying to escape?
A. Welfare and Development Office A. The Warden ceases to exercise his authority, the next in
B. Alternative Learning System Unit command or the most senior takes charges
C. Office of the Jail Warden B. The Warden may conduct the negotiation to the hostage
D. Business Administration Office – capic taker.
C. The Officer-in-Charge may immediately use maximum force
403. The entire treatment process of an offender requires to rescue
individualized treatment program success will depend upon___.
A. Training programs of personnel 412. According to the United Nations Standard Minimum Rules
B. Fiscal Planning and Allotment – budget for the Treatment of Prisoner a child is born in prison, this fact
C. Workable Classification System shall__
D. Effective Custodial Discipline A. be reflected in the birth certificate
B. be registered in the prison record
C. not be mentioned in the birth certificate
D. not be discussed with anyone

24
413. 4Instruments of restraint shall only be used to prisoner when C. He shall suffer an increase of one-fourth of the time
authorized by law as against escape during a transfer, provided remaining to be served sentence.
that they are removed when the prisoner judicial or administrative D. He shall suffer an increase of two-fifth of the time remaining
authority and to be served
A. upon the evaluation and assessment of escorting guard
B. by order of the prison director if other methods of control 421. The Post Sentence Investigation Report which will serve as
failed guide for the court granting or denying the application is _
C. upon the advice of a physician for medical purposes A. Optional
D. upon the directive of the judge to facilitate the transfer B. jurisdictional
C. mandatory
414. What law that created the Bureau of Jail Management and D. required
Penology as a line Bureau of Department of the Interior and Local
Government? 422. The application for Probation shall be filed with the which
A. RA 10575 has jurisdiction
B. RA 6975 A. Probation Office
C. RA 9263 B. Trial Court
D. RA 8551 C. Warden's Office
D. Prosecution Office
415. What law extended for five (5) years the reglementary period
for complying with educational qualification and appropriate 423. One advantage of probation is that it protects the society by
eligibility in the Bureau of Jail Management placing the probation supervision of the
A. RA 9592 A. Probation Officer
B. RA 9708 B. Trial Court
C. RA 11200 C. Mayor
D. RA 9263 D. Court

416. Good conduct time allowance is intended to 424. Which is NOT an advantage of probation?
A. recognize the difficulty of being a prisoner A. it restores probationer his civil rights
B. reduce the actual time an inmate/prisoner serves his/her B. It conforms to the concept of restorative justice.
sentence C. It makes the probationer a tax eater rather than a taxpayer.
C. increase the chance of early release from prison D. It prevents first time convict to become hardened criminal.
D. decongest prisons and jails
425. What shall be accomplished by the applicant once he reports
417. What is the written declaration of a detained inmate, with the to the Probation OFFICER during initial interview?
assistance of a counsel the same disciplinary rules imposed upon A. Post-Sentence Investigation Work Sheet
a convicted inmate for the purpose of availing the full credit of the B. Interview Work Sheet
period of his pre imprisonment? C. Pre-Sentence Investigation Work Sheet
A. Detainee's Manifestation D. Investigation Work Sheet
B. Carpeta
C. Manifesto 426. The order of the court granting or denying probation shall be
D. Detainee's Waiver ___.
A. temporary
418. During the sixth year until the tenth year of imprisonment, B. appealable
the good conduct of any convicted prisoner qualified for credit for C. academic
preventive imprisonment, shall entitle him for _days for each D. not appealable
month of good behavior during detention.
A. 30 427. The Probation Order may also require the probationer in
B. 15 appropriate cases to The EXCEPT to_
C. 25
D. 23 428. Application for probation shall be filed with the Trial Court
1st – 2nd = 20 ➔ 5 which has _____ over the case
3rd – 5th – 23 ➔ 8 A. authority
6th – 10th – 25 ➔ 10 B. jurisdiction
11th up = 30 ➔ 15 C. responsibility
Study, mentor = 15 D. venue

419. A deduction of _ the period of his sentence shall be granted 429. Probation is but a mere privilege and its grant or denial
in case said prisoner stay in the place of his confinement depend upon the Trial court that grant it becomes a ____. and it
notwithstanding the existence of a calamity or cat enumerated in shall only be cancelled or revoked for cause and a hearing.
Article 158 of this Code. A. statutory right – pd 968
A. two-fourth B. political right
B. two-fifth C. constitutional right
C. two-third D. civil right
D. two-sixth
430. What is the significance of the Post-Sentence Investigation
420. What shall be imposed upon a convict who shall evade the Report to the application
service of his sentence in penal institution during a calamity or A. To determine whether the applicant has immoral conduct.
disorder? B. To determine the past offenses of the applicant.
A. He shall suffer an increase of one-third of the time remaining C. It would serve as a basis to grant or deny the application for
to be served un sentence. probation
B. He shall suffer an increase of one-fifth of the time D. To know the personal affairs of the applicant.
remaining to be served ur sentence.

25
431. The conviction and sentence clause of the statutory B. distinguish between facts and the inferences, opinions or
definition of probation affects conclusion based upon those fact
A. both criminal and civil including subsidiary penalty C. conduct surveillance operations against the applicant or
B. both criminal and civil potential source of information that verify the truth
C. only the civil aspect of the case D. apply the method of crime scene search to cover all the
D. only the criminal aspect of the case details of the case

432. If the applicant for probation failed to appear before the 434. What is the nature of information obtained during the Post-
Probation Office for seventy-two (72) hours, what should be done Sentence Investigation?
by the Probation Officer? A. Useful
A. Write the applicant in his court given address and warn him B. confidential
that his failure constraint the Court not to approve the application. C. important
B. Recommend the immediate disapproval of the application D. overt
for probation be appearance shows that the applicant is not interested.
C. Write the applicant in his court given address or personally 435. When shall the supervision service to a probationer
visit the applicant schedule an interview at the Probation Office, commence?
D. Personally visit the applicant’s place to schedule an A. Upon the issuance of the probation order.
interview at the Probation office to check his actual condition. B. Upon completion of the Post Sentence Investigation.
C. After 72 hours from receipt of the order.
433. The probation officer when conducting investigation, either D. On the day of initial interview or reporting.
interviewing or examining documents must weigh the evidence
based on the best available information in order to provide the 436. Who shall approve the request of a probationer to travel
court accurate basis for sentencing. It is important on the part of outside his area for more than thirty (30) days?
probation officer to A. The Trial Court Judge
A. utilize the instrumentation approach to scientifically obtain B. The Chief Probation Officer
the facts needed by the court C. The Probation and Parole Officer

#RCrimKaNaPre
NOTHING FOLLOWS

Prepared by:
DEAN JOHN MICHAEL D. DIONISIO, RCrim, MSCJ, CSP, Ph.D. (c)
Registered Criminologist
Master of Science in Criminal Justice
Doctor of Philosophy in Criminal Justice (in – progress)
OLFU BS Crim. CL 2014 – Cum Laude
Certified Security Professional – 2nd Placer – 2020 PISM
National Review Speaker
Dean, St. Benilde International School
Review Director / Owner, CREED Review Center

26