SLAT MOCK-2024

SLAT - SYMBIOSIS LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024

MOCK-3

Time: 60 Minutes

Total Marks: 60

Total Questions: 60

1. There are 5 Sections (Sections I-V) comprising 60 objective-type (multiple-choice) questions.

Each question carries 1 mark each.
2. Answer all questions
3. THERE IS NO NEGATIVE MARKING
4. Specific instructions are given at the beginning of each Section. Read them carefully before
answering
MARKS SHEET

Section Max Marks

ANALYTICAL REASONING 12
GENERAL REASONING 12
LEGAL REASONING 12
LOGICAL REASONING 12
ENGLISH REASONING 12
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SECTION – A: ANALYTICAL REASONING

1. Raman and Tapan start a business and invested Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 50,000 respectively. After six
months Raman added Rs. 10,000 more and Tapan withdrew Rs. 30,000. At the end of the year if
business profited Rs. 10,000 then find the profit earned by Tapan.

A Rs 7000 B Rs 3000 C Rs 7500 D None of the above

2. Ages of father and son add up to 50. Six years back father's age was 6 more than thrice his son's
age. What will be the father's age 6 years hence?

A 40 years B 42 years C 50 years D 48 years

3. In a class of 53 students, 37 students pass in maths, 40 students pass in science. 41 students pass
in social science. 21 students pass in all three subjects. 10 students pass in only science and social
science. 1 student passes only in science. 5 students pass only in social science. How many students
pass only in maths and social science?

A 10 B5 C 11 D3

4. The average of ten numbers is 34. If the average of the first four numbers is 24 and the average of
the next four numbers is 37.75 and the value of the 10th number is one more than the value of the
9th number, then find the value of the 10th number.
A 47 B 46 C 40 D NONE

5. If the length of the rectangle is increased by 12.5% and breadth is decreased by 14.28%, then find
the percentage increase or decrease in the area of the rectangle.
A 25/7% decrease B 15/7% increase C 25/7% increase D 0%

6. Three numbers A, B and C are in the ratio 4 ∶ 5 ∶ 8, If each number is increased by 15%, 24% and
35%, respectively, then the new ratio of the numbers will be:
A 23 ∶ 31 ∶ 54 B 21 ∶ 31 ∶ 54 C 23 ∶ 31 ∶ 44 D 23 ∶ 33 ∶ 54

7. A bag contains ₹ 90 in coins. If coins of 50p, 25p and 10p are in the ratio 2 ∶ 3 ∶ 5, how many 25p
coins are there in the bag?
A 110 B 135 C 120 D 140

8. A number is increased by 10% and then reduced by 10%. If the resultant number is 99, the original
number was:
A 98 B 99 C 100 D 101

9. Pointing to a lady, Raj said, "She is the only daughter of the brother of my mother's father-in-law".
How is the lady related to Raj?
A Sister B Wife C Sister-in-law D Aunt

10. In a certain code language, GUITAR is written as SEQFYH. How will VIOLEN be written in that
language?
A DQKNLU B DLKQNU C DQKLUN D DQKNUL

11. Find the odd group of numbers from the given alternatives.
A {6, 9, 45} B {9, 23, 104} C {5, 47, 71} D {7, 19, 68}
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12. The price of 6 books and 8 copies is Rs. 36 and the price of 8 books and 6 copies is Rs. 34, then find
sum of the prices of one book and one copy.
A Rs. 5 B Rs. 6 C Rs. 8 D Rs. 7

SECTION – B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

13. Who was the founder of the Delhi Sultanate?

A Akbar B Alauddin Khilji C Qutb-ud-din Aibak D Sher Shah Suri

14. The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in the 14th century by:
A Rana Sanga B Krishnadevaraya C Chandragupta Maurya D Babur

15. Which river is known as the "Ganga of the South"?

A Godavari B Yamuna C Brahmaputra D Kaveri

16. The highest peak in India, Mount Kanchenjunga, is located in which state?
A Himachal Pradesh B Uttarakhand C Sikkim D Jammu and Kashmir

17. Who is the constitutional head of a state in India?

A Chief Minister B President C Governor D Prime Minister

18. The Governor of a state is appointed by:

A The Chief Minister B The President C The Prime Minister D The Chief Justice

19. India gained independence on:

A August 15, 1947 B January 26, 1950 C April 14, 1942 D June 2, 1952

20. Who was the chairman of drafting committee?

A Bhim rao aambedakar B Jawaharlal Nehru C S. Radhakrishnan D Indira Gandhi

21. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?

A Prime Minister B President
C Chief Justice of India D Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

22. What is the central banking institution in India?

A State Bank of India B Reserve Bank of India C Punjab National Bank D ICICI Bank

23. The currency notes in India are printed by:

A Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Limited (SPMCIL)
B Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited (BRBNMPL)
C Reserve Bank of India
D Ministry of Finance

24. Which committee recommended the establishment of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) in India?
A Rangarajan Committee B Malhotra Committee C Narasimham Committee D Khusro Committee

SECTION – C : LEGAL REASONING

25. PRINCIPLE: Damages are the money recompense, as far as money can do, for the legal damage
suffered by a person.
FACTS: A, an Indian citizen, having a right to vote, was not allowed to cast his vote on the
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polling booth, by the returning officer. Name of A was mentioned in the voter ‘s list. A has
also reported at the polling booth in time. However, the candidate in whose favor A would have cast
his vote won the election. A filed a suit claiming damages.

A A will be entitled to damages. B A will not be entitled to damages.

C A will be entitled to only nominal damages D A will be entitled to exemplary damages.

26. PRINCIPLE: Employer is liable for the injury caused to the employee in the course of his
employment.

FACTS: X organized a party and hired a caterer. During the party, generator set went out of order
and he requested one employee of caterer i.e. Y, to bring the mechanic on his vehicle and promised
to pay 1000 for the same to Y. Y met with an accident while going to fetch the
mechanic and he seeks compensation.

A X is liable as Y was working in the course of employment offered by X.

B X is not liable as Y is not his employee
C X is liable because party was organized by him
D Caterer is liable as Y is his employee.

27. PRINCIPLES: I. Private nuisance is a continuous, unlawful and indirect interference with the use
or enjoyment of land, or of some right over or in connection with it.
II. The person who for his own purposes brings on his lands and collects and keeps there
anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must keep it in at his peril, and, if he does not do so, is
prima facie answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape.
III. Generally, nuisances cannot be justified on the ground of necessity, pecuniary interest,
convenience, or economic advantage to a defendant.

FACTS: Dr. Hemant had for 18 years operated a clinic and hospital for the treatment of ENT. Dr. Karan
operated a renal clinic in which patients receive haemo-dialysis on the floor above the Dr. Hemant's
clinic. Karan was found liable for emitting from their clinic obnoxious fumes whichescaped downwards
into Hemant's clinic. Hemant, his staff and patients were found to have suffered substantial damage
ranging from skin diseases, red and swollen eyes, headaches, lethargy and breathing difficulties.
Decide whether Karan is liable?

A Karan is not liable as the work is a public welfare requires, a nuisance may be permitted for special
purposes.
B Hemant cannot claim damages as he is voluntarily operating his clinic since a decade.
C Karan is not liable as he is running the clinic for 18 years and Hemant has not raised any issues earlier.
D Karan is liable for the damages caused to Hemant and his staff and patients.

28. PRINCIPLES: I. An assault is an act which intentionally causes another person to apprehend the
infliction of immediate, unlawful force on a person.
II. A battery consists of an intentional application of force to another person without any lawful
justification.

FACTS: Jagan was in his car when he was approached by a police officer who told him to move the
vehicle. Jagan did so, reversed his car and rolled it on to the foot of the police officer. The officer
forcefully told him to move the car off his foot at which point Jagan swore at him and refused to move
his vehicle and turned the engine off. Jagan was convicted for assaulting a police officer in the
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execution of his duty. Is he liable for battery or assault?

A He is not liable because there cannot be an assault in omitting to act and that driving on to the
officer’s foot was accidental, meaning that he was lacking mens rea when the act causing damage had
occurred.
B He is not liable as the act neither amounts to an attempt nor a threat to commit a battery that
amounts to an actionable tort of assault.
C Jagan’s crime was not the refusal to move the car but that of having driven on to the foot of the
officer and decided not to cease the act, he had established a continual act of battery.
D He is neither liable for assault nor battery as he accidently drove his car on the police officer’s foot.

29. PRINCIPLE: Res ipsa loquitur i.e., the thing speaks for itself.

FACTS: Seema got herself operated for the removal of her uterus in the defendant's hospital, as there
was diagnosed to be a cyst in one of her ovaries. Due to the negligence of the surgeon, who performed
the operation, abdominal pack was left in her abdomen. The same was removed by a second surgery.

A Surgeon cannot be held responsible because it is merely a human error.

B Surgeon can be held responsible but Seema will have to prove in the court of law that the surgeon
was grossly negligent.
C Surgeon will be responsible and Seema need not to prove surgeon's negligence because
presence of abdominal pack in her abdomen is sufficient proof thereof.
D None of the above.

30. PRINCIPLE: Property can be transferred only by a living person to another living person.

FACTS: ‘A’ transfers property of which he is the owner in favor of the unborn child of B.

A Property has been transferred to the unborn child.

B Property has been transferred to B.
C Property has not been transferred to the unborn child.
D Property will be transferred to the unborn child after his birth.

31. PRINCIPLE: Every partner is liable alone and jointly with other partners for the debts of a
partnership firm incurred for the business. Every partner is an agent of every other partner while being
a principal in his own right in the business of the partnership.

FACTS: Varun is a partner in a firm with Chinmoy and Jaffar. Jaffar purchases a car for his
personal purpose and obtains credit for the same in the name of the partnership behind the back of
the other partners. He fails to pay the due amount on the expiry of the period of credit. Which of the
following statements is the most appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

A Varun, Chinmoy and Jaffar are liable to pay for the car since they are partners and the credit was
obtained in the name of the firm.
B Varun and Chinmoy are not liable to pay for the car since Jaffar purchased it for his personal purpose.
C Varun, Chinmoy and Jaffar are liable as partners for all credit obtained in the name of the firm even
if it is for the personal purpose of a partner.
D Jaffar can use the credit of the firm to make purchases even for personal purposes since he is a
partner in the partnership.
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32. PRINCIPLE: An essential condition in a contract for sale of goods is that the seller has title over the
goods sold.

FACTS: Ranjan pays rupees two thousand and buys a watch from Mohit who runs a watch showroom
and a repair shop. Jatin sees the watch with Ranjan and tells him that it is his watch and was only
given to Mohit for repairs. If what Jatin says is true, which of the following statements is the most
appropriate in relation to the legal principle stated above?

A Ranjan is now the owner of the watch since he paid rupees two thousand for it.
B Ranjan is not the owner of the watch since Mohit did not have a title to it
C Mohit must pay Jatin rupees two thousand since he sold Jatin’s watch.
D Mohit is the owner of the watch since he sold it to Ranjan.

33. The Law of Contract is based on;

A Right in Rem B Right in Personam C Both D None

34. The tort of Nuisance is committed against;

A A person’s body B A person’s liberty of body
C A person’s use or enjoyment of property D Both B and C

35. Which of the following is not an essential character of defense of Necessity?

A Intention to avoid greater harm. B Less harm caused in order to avert greater harm.
C Good faith. D Reasonable care.

36. Which of the following is not a relevant remedy under law of torts?
A Injunction B Prison C Damages D Solitary confinement

SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING

37. DIRECTIONS FOR QUESTION: Select the set of related letters, to replace the question mark (?),
from the given alternatives:

PRIZES : RPZISE :: CAUGHT : ?

A ACGUTH B ACGTUH C AGCUTH D ACUGTH

38. Find the missing number in the series given below.

20, 30, 47, 74, 114, ?
A 170 B 180 C 210 D 125

39. In a code language, if ‘SMART’ is written as ‘5’, then how will ‘BEAUTIFUL’ be written in that
language?
A7 B9 C8 D5

40. Each of P, Q, R, S, T, U and V works as a field officer and has to travel on a different day of a week
starting from Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. P has to travel on Tuesday. Only one
person has to travel between U and P. T has to travel on the day immediately after U. Only two people
have to travel between R and U. V has to travel on the day immediately before S. On which day does
Q has to travel?
A Thursday B Saturday C Friday D Wednesday

41. When seen through a mirror, the clock shows 9:30 as the time. The actual time is
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A 2:30 B 3:30 C 5:30 D 8:30

42. If 15th September was Tuesday, then how many Tuesdays and Fridays were there in that month?
A 5 Tuesdays and 5 Fridays B 4 Tuesdays and 4 Fridays
C 5 Tuesdays and 4 Fridays D 4 Tuesdays and 5 Fridays

43. In a row of cadets, Pararmveer is eleventh from the left and Deshraj is twenty-third from the right.
When the two cadets interchange their places, Paramveer becomes twenty-sixth from the left. How
many cadets are there in the row?
A 49 B 37 C 48 D 36

44. Directions for the questions: In each question below, a statement is given which is followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then
consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable
doubt from the information given in the statement.

Give answer,

Statements: The use of non-conventional sources of energy will eliminate the energy crisis in the
world.
Conclusions:
I. Non-conventional sources of energy are as efficient as conventional sources of energy.
II. Conventional sources of energy are in short supply.
A If only conclusion I follows B If only conclusion II follows
C If neither I nor II follows and D If both I and II follow.

45. Directions for the questions: In each question below, a statement is given which is followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then
consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable
doubt from the information given in the statement.

Give answer,

Statements: A man must be wise to be a good wrangler. Good wranglers are talkative and boring.
Conclusions:
I. If a person is not talkative and boring, she cannot be a good wrangler.
II. Good wranglers are wise, talkative and boring all at the same time.
A If only conclusion I follows B If only conclusion II follows
C If neither I nor II follows and D If both I and II follow.

46. Directions for the Questions: In each question below, a statement is given followed by two
assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions,
and decide which of the assumptions is/are implicit in the statement.

Statement: Householders ought to evade politely or refuse to answer a stranger’s questions regarding
their neighbors, unless the stranger provides some proof of being a government official pursuing
official inquiries.

Assumptions:
I. It is not illegal to provide information about neighbours, to a government official pursuing official
inquiries.
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II. It is a duty of householders to provide information about neighbours when government officials
pursue official inquiries.

A If only assumption I is implicit B If only assumption II is implicit

C If neither I nor II is implicit D If both I and II are implicit.

47. Statement: Although some question the accuracy of the estimates of the performance of economy
based on weekly data, we can be confident of the accuracy of estimates because the figures it provides
are remarkably consistent from week to week.

Assumptions
I. Consistency of figures in estimates shows that estimates are accurate.
II. Consistency of figures in estimates is a more important consideration than accuracy of estimates.

A If only assumption I is implicit B If only assumption II is implicit

C If neither I nor II is implicit D If both I and II are implicit.

48. Directions for the question : The argument below is followed by a question and some options. You
are required to answer the question on the basis of preceding arguments and select the option
accordingly.

Only colorless diamonds can command high prices as gemstones. A type of less valuable diamonds
can be treated to remove all color. Only sophisticated tests can distinguish such treated diamonds
from naturally colorless ones. However, only 2 percent of diamonds mined are of the colored type
that can be successfully treated, and many of those are of insufficient quality to make the treatment
worthwhile. Surely, therefore, the vast majority of colorless diamonds sold by jewelers are naturally
colorless.

Which of the following can be inferred from the argument above?

A Value of coloured diamonds depends not only on their quality and utility but also on their
availability.
B Colored diamonds that can be treated to be colorless are the rarest of the diamonds mined.
C Value of colored diamonds that can be treated to be colorless is less than the value of gemstones.
D No colorless diamonds sold by jewelers are those which have been artificially treated to be colorless.

SECTION – E: READING COMPREHENSION

DIRECTIONS FOR QUESTIONS: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Have you ever noticed strange bumps on stems, leaves, flowers, or tree branches? Well, they are part
of the plant and grown by the plant, but they are homes for tiny insects! These bumps are called galls.
Insects form galls. The plant does not decide to grow them. Typically, a female insect lays her eggs on
a plant. After the baby insects hatch, special chemicals are left on the plant. These special chemicals
cause the plant to bubble up and form a gall. Once a gall has grown, the insects have a safe place to
live and eat, or do they? Other animals, besides insects, benefit from galls. Galls are also great places
for birds and small animals to find a meal. Woodpeckers, squirrels, mice, and bats all use galls as a
source for a tasty insect snack. If a gall has a large hole poked into it, a larger creature may have
stopped for a bite.
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Now that you know what a gall is, you will probably begin to notice them everywhere. Look around.
You may even decide to break open a gall and take a peek inside. If the gall has a little hole, the owner
has probably left. Can you believe it? A little house for an insect made by a plant!

49. In the above paragraph what information does the writes wants to give?
A Studies the behaviour, structure and classification of animal
B The relationship between organism with one another and to their physical surroundings
C Behaviour, structure and classification of insects
D Chemical research and experiments.

50. Which statement describe the formation of galls?

A These special chemicals cause the plant to bubble up and form a gall'
B 'Once a gall has grown, the insects have a safe place to live and eat'
C These bumps are called galls
D Typically, a female insect lay her eggs on a plant

51. In the paragraph which word is most similar to 'glance’'?

A Poked B Peek C Bumps D Bubble

52. This passage is mostly meant to be

A entertaining B informative C descriptive D persuasive

53. Choose the most appropriate synonym of the word.

Vocation
A Hobby B Post C Occupation D Employment

54. Choose the most appropriate synonym of the word.

Coy
A Beautiful B Talented C SweetD Shy

55. Choose the most appropriate antonym of the word.

Haughty
A Pitiable B Scared C Humble D Cowardly

56. Choose the most appropriate antonym of the word

Virtue
A Vice B Fraud C Wickedness D Crime

57. Select the option that best fits in the blanks to complete the sentence meaningfully.
In the departmental inquiry, it was denied that the police had committed any ______ on people under
their custody.

A Injuries B Crime C Blunder D Excesses

58. Select the option that best fits in the blanks to complete the sentence meaningfully
How much did it ______ to reach Bombay by car?
A Charge B Price C Cost D Estimate

59. Find which part has a grammatical error

The interviewer asked the candidate /a to what district /b he came from./c No Error /d
AA BB CC DD
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60. Rearrange these jumbled sentences to make a coherent passage

A -The domestic cat is a contradiction in itself.
B - But the adult pet dog also sees its human family as the dominant members of the pack.
C -Nursed in kittenhood it develops extraordinary intimacy with mankind.
D - The dog like the pet cat sees its owners as pseudo-parents
E - At the same however, the cat continues to retain its independence.
F - Hence it has won such a reputation for obedience and loyalty.
A acedbf B aecdb C abcde D adbce