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12. Among the following structure I to III CONFORMATIONAL ISOMERISM
EXERCISE-I (Conceptual Questions) Build Up Your Understanding
C2H5–CH–C3H7, CH3–C–CH–C2H5, C2H5–CH–C2H5 15. Which conformation of butane will have the
STRUCTURAL ISOMERISM HC≡C–CH2–CH–CH3 & CH3–C≡C–CH–CH3 minimum energy :-
7. CH3 O CH3 CH3
(1) Gauche
1. CH3CHOHCH2CHO and CH3CH2CH2COOH CH3 CH3
(I) (II) (III) (2) Anti/staggered
constitute a pair of :- are (3) Eclipsed
(1) Position isomers (2) Metamers It is true that :- (4) None
(1) Chain isomer (2) Homologous (1) All three are chiral compounds SE0035
(3) Optical isomers (4) Functional isomers
(3) Position isomer (4) None (2) Only I and II are chiral compounds 16. Which of the following are true statements.
SR0001 (3) Only II is chiral compound
SR0093 (a) Alkanes have infinite no. of conformation
(4) Only I and III are chiral compounds
2. The minimum number of carbon atoms present SE0026 (b) The rotation is hindered due to repulsive
8. How many structural isomer are possible for interaction between electron clouds, called
in an organic compound to show chain torsional strain
C5H8 having one triple bond ? 13. Which one of the following is a meso–compound.
isomerism is CH3 (c) The barrier is about 50 kJ/mole
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 1 COOH
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 4 (d) The barrier is about 1-20 kJ/mole
SR0094 H OH H OH

®
SR0002 (1) a, b, d (2) a, b, c
GEOMETRICAL AND OPTICAL ISOMERISM (1) H OH (2) HO H
(3) only b (4) only a, d
3. CH3–NH–C2H5 and (CH3)3N show which type of CH3 SE0095
H3C H CH2OH
isomerism :- 9. C C H Exhibits :-
H3C C COOH CH2OH 17. Which of the following has minimum steric
(1) Position (2) Functional H3C COOH strain?
HO H H Cl
(1) Tautomerism H CH3
(3) Chain (4) None (3) HO H (4) H Cl H H H H
(2) Optical isomerism
SR0005
(3) Geometrical isomerism CH3 CH2OH (1) (2)
H CH3 H H
4. CH3–CH–CH2–C=O and CH3–CH2–CH2–C–Cl (4) Geometrical and optical isomerism SE0028
CH3 CH3
SE0011
Cl H O 14. Which compound is optical active – H H
H OH
are constitute a pair of :- COOH H H H H
(1) Position isomers H OH (1) CH3 C COOH (2) CH3 C COOH
10. Meso–tartaric acid H is optically (3) (4)
OH H H H H
(2) Metamers H H
COOH CH3 CH3 CH3 H
(3) Optical isomers
inactive due to the presence of :- SE0096
(4) Functional group isomers (3) CH3 C COOH (4) CH3 C COOH
(1) Molecular symmetry
SR0006 OH Cl
(2) Molecular asymmetry
SE0032
5. Which are metamers :- (3) External compensation

(1)CH3–O–CH2CH2CH3, CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3 (4) Two asymmetric carbon atoms

SE0019
(2) C2H5–O–C2H5, CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(3) CH3–O–C2H5, CH3–CH2–O–CH3 11. Identify R configuration :
COOH CN
(4) CH3–C–CH3, CH3–CH2–C–H
O O (1) H (2) CH3 C≡CH
SR0008 CH3 CH2OH

6. Which similarity is necessary for isomerism– CHO COOH

EXERCISE-I (Conceptual Questions) ANSWER KEY
(1) Molecular formula
(3) H OH (4) H2N H
(2) Structure formula Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(3) Physical formula CH2OH CH3
Ans. 4 4 2 4 1 1 3 2 2 1 3 2 4 2 2
(4) Chemical formula Que. 16 17
SE0023
SR0009 Ans. 1 4

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10. The number of structural isomers possible from NEET-II 2016
EXERCISE-II (Previous Year Questions) AIPMT/NEET
the molecular formula C3H9N is : 13. The correct corresponding order names of four
AIPMT-2006 6. Which of the following conformers for ethylene (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 aldoses with configuration given below
1. Which of the following is not chiral :- glycol is most stable :- NC0049 CHO CHO
(1) 2–Butanol OH OH NEET-I 2016 H OH HO H
(2) 2,3–Dibromo pentane OH H
11. Which of the following biphenyls is optically H OH H OH
(3) 3–Bromo pentane (1) H (2) HO CH2OH CH2OH
(4) 2–Hydroxy propanoic acid H H H H active?
H H
SE0036 O2N CHO CHO
OH OH
AIPMT-2007 HO H H OH
H OH H H (1)
HO H HO H
2. CH3—CHCl—CH2—CH3 has a chiral centre
(3) H H (4) H H I CH2OH CH2OH
which one of the following represents its R
configuration H OH Br Br
respectively, is :-
C2H5 C2H5 SE0043

®
(2) (1) L-erythrose, L-threose, D-erythrose, D-threose
(1) H CH3 (2) Cl CH3
AIPMT Pre.-2012 (2) D-erythrose, D-threose, L-erythrose, L-threose
Cl H I I
7. Which of the following acids does not exhibit (3) L-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose, D-threose
CH3 C2H5 I
optical isomerism? (4) D-threose, D-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose
(3) H Cl (4) H3C Cl
(1) Lactic acid (3)
SE0052
C2H5 H
(2) Tartaric acid I NEET(UG) 2017
SE0039
(3) Maleic acid CH3 14. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which
AIPMT-2008
(4) α-amino acids of the following statements is true ?
3. How many stereoisomer does this molecule have (4)
CH3CH=CHCH2CHBrCH3 SE0046 (1) Bond angle changes but bond length remains
(1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6 CH3
AIPMT Mains-2011 same
SE0040 SE0050
8. The IUPAC name of the following compound (2) Both bond angle and bond length change
AIPMT-2009 12. The correct statement regarding the
CH2CH3 (3) Both bond angles and bond length remains
Cl
4. Which of the following compounds will exhibit comparison of staggered and eclipsed
same
cis-trans (geometrical) isomerism ? is :- conformation of ethane, is :-
(1) 1-Butanol (2) 2-Butene CH3 I (4) Bond angle remains same but bond length
(1) The staggered conformation of ethane is less
(3) 2-Butanol (4) 2-Butyne changes
(1) cis-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene stable than eclipsed conformation, because
SE0041 SE0056
(2) trans-2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene staggered conformation has torsional strain
AIPMT-2010
(3) cis-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene (2) The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more NEET(UG) 2021
5. In the following the most stable conformation of (4) trans-3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene stable than staggered conformation, because 15. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of
n–butane is :- SE0047 eclipsed conformation has no torsional strain ethane is :
CH3 CH3
H H CH3 Re-AIPMT-2015 (3) The eclipsed conformation of ethane is more (1) 120° (2) 180°
stable than staggered conformation even (3) 60° (4) 0°
(1) (2) 9. Two possible stereo-structures of
H H H through the eclipsed conformation has SE0109
H H3C H CH3CHOH.COOH, which are optically active,
H torsional strain
CH3 are called :-
CH3 (4) The staggered conformation of ethane is 16. The compound which shows metamerism is:
H H CH3 (1) Enantiomers
more stable than eclipsed conformation, (1) C5H12 (2) C3H8O
(2) Mesomers
(3) (4) because staggered conformation has no (3) C3H6O (4) C4H10O
H H H (3) Diastereomers
H H H torsional strain.
CH3 (4) Atropisomers SR0110
SE0042 SE0048 SE0051

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NEET(UG) 2021 (Paper-2) NEET(UG) 2022 (OVERSEAS) EXERCISE-III (Analytical Questions) Master Your Understanding
17. The correct configuration assigned for 18. Which one is not a D-sugar ?
1. Which of the following does not contain any 5. How many isomers of C5H11OH will be primary
compounds (I) and (II) respectively is CHO asymmetric carbon but can show alcohols (exclude stereoisomers) :–
H OH enantiomerism:- (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6
COOH
(1) Lactic acid (2) 1, 3-pentadiene NC0069
Cl CH3 (1)
H OH C OH H (3) Tartaric acid (4) 2, 3-pentadiene 6. The minimum number of carbon atoms in ketone
Br CH2CH3 SE0063 to show metamerism :–
CH2OH
CH3 2. Which of the following represents the structure (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
I II CHO having cis arrangement around each double SR0070
H OH bond :-
(1) R, R (2) S, S 7. The total number of configurational isomers of
H
(2)
H OH the given compound are :-
(3) R, S (4) S, R (1)
CH2OH CH3–CH=CHCHOHCHOHCH3
SE0115 H
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
CH2OH (2)
SE0073

®
(3)
COOH COOH
(3) C=O
H OH H3C OH
H OH
8. HO CH3 and HO H are :-
(4)
COOH COOH
CH2OH H H
(1) Enantiomers (2) Position isomers
SE0064
CHO (3) Geometrical isomers (4) Homomers
3. The complete IUPAC name of the compound :- SE0075
HO H CH3 H
(4) 9. Which of the following is not a metamer of
H OH Br C4H10O
CH2OH (1) Diethyl ether
(1) (R)-1-Bromo-1-phenyl ethane (2) Methyl n-propyl ether
SE0116
(2) (S)-1-Bromo-1-phenyl ethane (3) 2–Methoxy propane
(3) (E)-1-Bromo-1-phenyl ethane (4) Isobutyl alcohol
(4) (Z)-1-Bromo-1-phenyl ethane SE0076
SE0066
10. How many compounds among the following are
4. Which one of the following is the most stable chiral ?
conformation of 2, 3–butanediol :- H HO H
H3C H3C
OH OH
H OH H CH3 OH Br
Br Br
(1) (2)
H CH3 H CH3
CH3 OH Br
H OH Br
OH OH
HO CH3 HO CH3 (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) (4) (3) 3 (4) 4
CH3 H H CH3 SE0097
H H
SE0067

EXERCISE-II (Previous Year Questions) ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 EXERCISE-III (Analytical Questions) ANSWER KEY
Ans. 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 2 1 3 2 4 2 3 4
Que. 16 17 18 Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 4 1 1 Ans. 4 2 1 3 3 3 4 4 4 3

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15. Acidic nature of amino group is shown by the 21. Blue litmus can be turned to red by the
EXERCISE-I (Conceptual Questions) Build Up Your Understanding compound :-
reaction :-
AMINE (1) R–NH2 + NOCl → RCl + N2 + H2O (1) ROH (2) RNH2
⊕  ⊕ 
8. Gabriel phthalimide reaction is used in the (2) 2RNH2 + 2Na → 2RNH.Na + H2 (3) R N H3 OH (4) R N H3 Cl
1. Among the following which one is not formed in synthesis of (3) R.CH2NH2 + HNO2 → R.CH2OH + N2+ H2O
Hoffmann degradation AM0024
(1) Primary aromatic amines ⊕ Θ
 (2) Secondary amines (4) R.NH2 + HCl → RNH3 C l 22. Which one of the following amine compound
(1) RNCO (2) R − NH2
(3) Primary aliphatic amines AM0017 gives alcohol with HNO2 ?

(4) Tertiary amines
(3) RCO NH Br (4) RNC 16. The reagent used in the conversion of C2H5NH2 (1) N,N–Dimethylaniline (2) Benzylamine
AM0010
AM0001 to C2H5Cl would be :- (3) N–methylaniline (4) Aniline
9. The reaction : [C2H5Br + NH3] is in fact an (1) SO2Cl2 (2) SOCl2 AM0026
2. CH3CH2CONH2 
→ A, NaOH
Br2 example of (3) NOCl (4) All
ANILINE
Aqueous solution of A (1) Ammonolysis only AM0018
(1) Turns blue litmus to red (2) Nucleophilic substitution only 23. C6H5NH2  Br2 /CCl4
→ ? The product is :-
(3) Ammonolysis as well as nucleophilic substitution 17. Hydrogen attached to nitrogen is released in the
(2) Turns red litmus to blue
reaction :- (1) Only o– bromoaniline

®
(3) Does not affect the litmus (4) None
(4) Decolourise the litmus HD0011 (1) RCONH2 + NaNH2 (2) 2, 4, 6–triboromoaniline
AM0002 10. Melting points are normally the highest for (2) RNH2 + Na (3) o–and p–bromoaniline
3. Ethanamine can be obtained if the following (1) Tertiary amides (2) Secondary amides (3) Both the above (4) Only p–bromoaniline
(3) Primary amides (4) Amines (4) None of the abvoe
compound is heated with [KOH + Br2] AM0028
GC0012
(1) Ethanamide (2) Methanamide GC0019
(3) Propionamide (4) All the above 11. Solubility of ethylamine in water is due to 24. Reaction C6H5NH2 + HAuCl4 →
18. If primary amines are treated with ketones the
AM0003 ⊕ 
(1) Low molecular weight product is :- [C6H5NH3]AuCl4 shows ... behaviour of aniline :-
(2) Ethyl group is present in ethyl alcohol
4. CH3CONH2 →
2 5 PO
A 
Na/EtOH
→ B (1) Urea (2) Guanidine (1) Acidic (2) Neutral
I II (3) Formation of H–bonding with water
(4) Being a derivative of ammonia (3) Amide (4) Schiff's base (3) Basic (4) Amphoteric
Reaction II is called
(1) Clemmensen GC0013 CC0020 GC0031
(2) Stephen 19. Reactants of reaction – I are :-
12. Which of the following compound liberates CO2 25. Aniline on treatment with bromine water yields
(3) Mendius
when treated with NaHCO3 CH3CONH2, KOH, Br2
(4) Bouveault–Blanc reduction white precipitate of :-
CA0004 (1) CH3COCH2NH2 (2) CH3NH2 Reactants of reaction–II are
⊕  ⊕  (1) o–Bromoaniline
(3) (CH3 )4NOH (4) CH3NH3Cl CH3NH2, CHCl3, KOH
5. Tertiary amine is obtained in the reaction :- (2) p–Bromonailine
CH3 I CH3 I PO0014 The intermediate species of reaction–I and
(1) Aniline → → (3) 2, 4, 6–Tribromoaniline
reaction–II are respectively
CH3 I
(2) Aniline → 13. The product obtained by the alkaline hydrolysis (1) Carbonium ion, carbene (4) m–Bromoaniline
(3) Nitrobenzene →
Sn/HCl of C2H5—NCO when treated with t–butyl
(2) Nitrene, carbene AH0032
(4) None of the above magnesiumbromide, the compound obtained will
be (3) Carbene, nitrene
AM0007 26. Which compound does not show diazo coupling
(1) t–butylamine (2) n–butylamine (4) Carbocation, carbanion
reaction ?
6. C2H5NH2 cannot be prepared by the reduction of (3) Isobutane (4) n–butane AM0021
(1) C2H5NO2 (2) CH3CH=NOH 20. This compound does not respond to carbylamine (1) NH2
AM0015
(3) C2H5NC (4) CH3CN HNO2 reaction :-
a
AM0008 (1) CH3–CH–NH2 (2) C2H5–NH–C2H5 (2) H3C NH2
C6H5CHO
b
7. Gabriel reaction for the synthesis of amines, 14. C2H5NH2 NOCl CH3
c (3) O2N NH2
involves the use of C6H5SO2Cl CH3
(1) 1° amide (2) 2° amide d
(3) Imides (4) Aliphatic amide Which product is a Schiff's base :- (3) CH3–C–NH2 (4) CH3–CH–CH2–CH3 (4) CH2–NH2
AM0009 (1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d CH3 NH2
AM0016 AM0033
AM0023

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27. Which of the following amines give N–nitroso 33. Chloroform and ethanolic KOH is used as a 38. Which of the following compound gives an 41. Reaction of RCN with sodium and alcohol leads
derivative with NaNO2 and HCl ? reagent in the following reaction :- explosive on decarboxylation ? to the formation of :-
(1) 2,4, 6–Trinitrobenzoicacid
(1) C2H5NH2 (2) NH2 (a) Hoffmann carbylamine reaction (1) RCONH2 (2) RCOO–NH4+
(2) 2, 4–Dinitrobenzoicacid
(b) Hoffmann degradation reaction (3) o–Aminobenzoicacid (3) RCH2NH2 (4) R(CH2)3NH2
R (4) o–Hydroxybenzoicacid
AM0050
(3) N—H (4) NH2 (c) Reimer–Tiemann reaction AM0047
39. The gas leaked from a storage tank of the Union SnCl2 /HCl
(d) Hoffmann mustard oil reaction 42. C6H5NO2  → A 
NaNO2 / HCl
0°C → B;
AM0034 Carbide plant in Bhopal gas tragedy was:-
Code is :- (1) Methylisocyanate Benzene from B, is suitably obtained by using :-
28. Which of the following does not reduce Tollen's (2) Methylamine (1) Ethanol (2) H3PO2
(1) Only for a (2) Only for a and b (3) Ammonia
reagent ? (3) Both the above (4) Methanol
(3) Only for b and d (4) Only for a and c (4) Phosgene
(1) CH3CHO (2) HCOOH AM0051
AM0041 AM0048
(3) C6H5NHOH (4) C6H5NH2 CH3 43. Which reagent is used to get iodo benzene from
reduction
34. Acetanilide when treated with bromine in acetic 40. CH3–C–NC  → ? benzene diazonium hydrogen sulphate
PO0036
acid mainly gives :- CH3 [C6H5N2HSO4] :

®
29. Aniline can be obtained by :- (1) o–Bromoacetanilide CH3 (1) CuBr, ∆ (2) Cu powder + HI
(2) N–Bromoacetanilide (1) CH3–C–NH2 (3) KI, ∆ (4) None
(1) Benzoyl chloride and ammonia
(3) p–Bromoacetanilide CH3 AM0052
(2) Reduction of benzamide (4) m–Bromoacetanilide
CH3
(3) Phenol and ammonia in presence of ZnCl2 AH0042 44. Which of the following is used as a solvent in the
(2) CH3–C–NH–CH3 Friedel–Crafts reaction ?
(4) Benzoic anhydride and ammonia 35. Aromatic nitriles (ArCN) are not prepared by CH3 (1) Toluene (2) Nitrobenzene
AM0037 reaction CH3 (3) Benzene (4) Aniline
30. Aniline on direct nitration produces :- (1) ArX + KCN
(3) CH3–C–NH–CH2CH3 AH0053
(1) o–Nitroaniline (2) ArN2+ + CuCN CH3
45. In the Sandmeyer's reaction, —N=N—X group
(2) m–Nitroaniline (3) ArCONH2 + P2O5 (4) None of diazonium salt is replaced by :-
(3) p–Nitroaniline (4) ArCONH2 + SOCl2 AM0049
(4) All (1) Halide group (2) Nitro group
AM0043
AH0038 (3) —OH group (4) —NHNH2 group
NITRO GROUP, CYANIDE & ISOCYANIDE AM0055
31. Nitration of acetanilide followed by hydrolysis
36. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded end product D
gives
(1) o–Nitroaniline only NH2
NaNO2 + HCl
→ A 
CuCN
→B
(2) p–Nitroaniline only 0–5ºC

(3) o– & p–Nitroaniline


H2
Ni
→ C 
HNO2
→ D
(4) o–Nitroanilinium ion
AH0039 The structure of the product D would be
(1) C6H5CH2OH (2) C6H5CH2NH2
NaNO2 /HCl
32. C6H5NH2 
0 −5°C
→ A, Which is the
(3) C6H5NHOH (4) C6H5NHCH2CH3
incorrect structure of the product 'A' ?
AM0044
⊕ 
(1) [C6H5–N=N]Cl
37. NaNO2 / HCl
φ—X → ∆ → φ—Y,
C6H5N2Cl 
Water

⊕  EXERCISE-I (Conceptual Questions) ANSWER KEY

(2) [C6H5N2]Cl In the above sequence X and Y are :-
⊕  (1) o–, p– and m–directing Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(3) [C6H5–N≡N]Cl Ans. 4 2 3 3 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 3 2 2
(2) o–, p– and o–, p–directing
⊕  Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(4) [C6H5–N≡N]Cl (3) m and m directing
Ans. 3 3 4 2 2 4 2 2 3 3 4 3 4 3 4
(4) m and o, p directing
AM0040 Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
AM0046
Ans. 3 4 4 3 1 1 2 1 1 2 3 3 3 2 1

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AIPMT Pre. 2011 AIPMT 2014
EXERCISE-II (Previous Year Questions) AIPMT/NEET 7. What is the product obtained in the following 11. In the following reaction, the product
AIPMT 2006 AIPMT 2009 NO2 +
Zn
reaction :  → ....... ? N≡NCl¯ NH2
1. In a set of reactions propionic acid yielded a 4. Predict the product : NH4 Cl

compound (D) ; NHCH3 NHOH H +

+ NaNO2 + HCl → Product (1) (A) + → (A) is :-

SOCl2 NH3 Yellow dye
→ (B) 
CH3CH2COOH (A)  ∆
→ (C)
OH N
N (1) N=N–NH
→
KOH
(D), What is the structure of (D) (2)
Br 2
N–CH3
(1) O¯
(1) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (2) CH3CH2CONH2 NH2
CH3 N=N
+
(2) N=N
(3) CH3CH2NHCH3 (4) CH3CH2NH2 (3)
N–N=O
CA0056 NH2
(2) NH2
(4) (3) N=N

®
AIPMT 2007 CH3
AM0063
N–NO2 (4) N=N NH2
2. Which one of the following on reduction with AIPMT Mains 2012
(3)
LiAlH4 yields a secondary amine ? 8. An organic compound C3H9N (A), when treated AM0069
NHCH3 NHCH3 with nitrous acid, gave an alcohol and N2 gas was
(1) Methyl isocyanide (2) Acetamide evolved. (A) on warming with CHCl3 and caustic
NO 12. Which of the following will be most stable
(3) Methyl cyanide (4) Nitro ethane (4) + potash gave (C) which on reduction gave
isopropylmethylamine. Predict the structure of diazonium salt RN+2 X − ?
AM0057 (A):
NO (1) CH3 N+2 X − (2) C6H5 N+2 X −
(1) CH3–N–CH3
AIPMT 2008 AM0059 −
AIPMT 2010
CH3 (3) CH3CH2 N X +
2 (4) C6H5CH2 N+2 X −
3. In a reaction of aniline a coloured product C was (2) CH3CH2CH2–NH2
5. Which of the following statements about primary CH3 AM0070
(3) CH–NH2
obtained. AIPMT 2015
amines is 'False' ? CH3
CH3 (1) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than (4) CH3CH2–NH–CH3 13. The electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in
NH2 NaNO2/HCl N ammonia AM0064
CH3 strongly acidic medium produces :-
B C (2) Alkyl amines are stronger bases than aryl
0° to 5°C NEET UG 2013
(1) Azoxybenzene (2) Azobenzene
amines
The structure C would be : NO2 NO2 (3) Aniline (4) p-Aminophenol
(3) Alkyl amines react with nitrous acid to
CH3 produce alcohols A AM0071
9. In the reaction A is
NH–NH N
CH3 (4) Aryl amines react with nitrous acid to produce Br Br RE-AIPMT 2015
(1)
phenols ⊕N2Cl 14. The following reaction
+
CH3 AM0060 (1) H /H2O H
N=N (2) HgSO4/H2SO4 NH2 N
(2) N NaOH
CH3 6. Acetamide is treated with the following reagents (3) Cu2Cl2 + Cl
O
separately. Which one of these would yield (4) H3PO2 and H2O O
N=N–CH2–N methyl amine ? AM0065
(3) is known by the name :
10. Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc.
CH3 (1) PCl5
HNO3/H2SO4 at 80-100°C forms which one of (1) Acetylation reaction
CH3 CH3 (2) NaOH/Br2 the following products ? (2) Schotten-Baumann reaction
N=N (3) Sodalime (1) 1, 2, 4-Trinitrobenzene
(3) Friedel–Craft's reaction
(4) (2) 1, 2-Dinitrobenzene
(4) Hot conc. H2SO4 (3) 1, 3-Dinitrobenzene (4) Perkin's reaction
AM0061 (4) 1, 4-Dinitrobenzene
AM0058 AH0066 AM0072

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15. Method by which Aniline cannot be prepared is:- NEET(UG) 2017 NEET(UG) 2020 NEET (UG) 2021(Paper-2)
25. A mixture of organic compound A and B when
(1) reduction of nitrobenzene with H2/Pd in 18. Which of the following reactions is appropriate 21. Which of the following amine will give the
carbylamine test? dissolve in NaOH, A is soluble and its residue B
ethanol for converting acetamide to methanamine ?
NHC2H5 NH2 gives positive test with Zn/NH4Cl followed by
(2) potassium salt of phthalimide treated with (1) Hoffmarnn hypobromamide reaction
chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with AgNO3 + NH4OH, (Mulliken's-Barker test).
(2) Stephens reaction (1) (2)
aqueous NaOH solution Identify A and B
(3) Gabriels phthalimide synthesis NHCH3 N(CH3)2
(3) hydrolysis of phenylisocyanide with acidic OH NO2 OH NH2
solution (4) Carbylamine reaction
(3) (4)
(4) degradation of benzamide with bromine in AM0078 (1) , (2) ,
alkaline solution AM0130
NEET(UG) 2019 NEET(UG) 2020 (COVID-19)
AM0073 NH2 COOH COOH OH
22. Reaction of propanamide with ethanolic sodium
19. The major product of the following reaction is :
NEET-II 2016 hydroxide and bromine will give

®
16. Which one of the following nitro-compounds (3) , (4) ,
COOH strong heating (1) Ethylamine (2) Methylamine
does not react with nitrous acid ? + NH3 (3) Propylamine (4) Aniline
H3C COOH AM0131 AM0134
(1) H C–C–NO
3 2 NEET(UG) 2021 NEET(UG) 2022
H3C O
COOH 26. Given below are two statements :
23. Identify the compound that will react with
CH3 (1) (2) NH Statement I :
Hinsberg's reagent to give a solid which dissolves
CONH2
C in alkali :
(2) H3C H NO2 O Primary aliphatic amines react with HNO2 to give

O CH2 unstable diazonium salts.

(1)
COOH NH2 CH3
H2 NO2 Statement II :
C (3) (4)
(3) H3C NO2 NH2 NH2 Primary aromatic amines react with HNO2 to
C (2) CH2 CH3
H2 form diazonium salts which are stable even above
CH3 NH
AM0107
H2 300 K.
C CH2
(4) H3C NO2 (3) In the light of the above statements, choose the
CH NEET(UG) 2019 (ODISHA)
H3C CH3 NH2
most appropriate answer from the options
20. The amine that reacts with Hinsberg's reagent to
AM0075 CH2 CH2 given below :
give an alkali insoluble product is :-
17. A given nitrogen-containing aromatic compound (4) CH3 N CH3 (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(A) reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO2 to (1) CH3–CH–NH–CH–CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3 incorrect.
give an unstable compound (B). (B), on treatment
AM0132
with phenol, forms a beatiful coloured compound CH2CH3 (2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
24. The reagent ‘R’ in the given sequence of
(C) with the molecular formula C12H10N2O. The (2) CH3–CH2–N–CH2CH3 chemical reaction is : incorrect.
+ –
structure of compound (A) is :- NH2 N2 Cl
NH2
Br Br Br Br Br Br (3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
CN CONH2 (3) CH3–C–CH2CH2CH3 NaNO2,HCl R
O–5°C
(1) (2) CH3 correct.
Br Br Br
NH2 NO2 CH3 (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(1) H2O (2) CH3CH2OH
(3) (4) (4) CH3–C—–CH–NH2 correct.
(3) HI (4) CuCN/KCN
CH3 CH3
AM0076 AM0133 AM0135
AM0108
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27. The product formed from the following reaction 29. The major product (P) formed in the following 31. The product formed from the following reaction
sequence is
sequence is reaction sequence is NH2
(i) (CH3CO)2O, pyridine
(i) LiAlH4, H2O NO2
CN (i) Sn, HCl, ∆ (ii) LiAlH4
(ii) NaNO2+ HCl (iii) H2O
(ii) (CH3CO)2O, Pyridine (P)
(iii) H2O
(iii) Br2, CH3COOH Major Product
–
⊕  (iv) OH H
N2Cl N CH3
(1)
(1)
NH2 NH2
Br Br
Cl (1) (2)
(2)
Br NH2
(2)
Br

®
OH NH2 HNCOCH3
(3)
OH
(3) (4)
O NH2
NH2 Br Br (3)
(4)
AM0138
Re-NEET(UG) 2022
AM0136 OH
30. Match List - I with List - II :
NEET(UG) 2022 (Overseas)
28. Match List-I with List-II : NH2
List - I List - II
(4)
List-I List-II
(Reaction) (Product fromed) OH
(Amines) (pKb values)
(a) Gabriel synthesis (i) Benzaldehyde OH
(a) N-methylmethanamine (i) 9.30
AM0140
(b) Ammonia (ii) 9.38 (b) Kolbe synthesis (ii) Ethers

(c) N-methylaniline (iii) 4.75 (c) Williamson synthesis (iii) Primary amines

(d) Benzenamine (iv) 3.27 (d) Etard reaction (iv) Salicylic acid

Choose the correct answer from the options Choose the correct answer from the options

given below : given below :

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)

(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
EXERCISE-II (Previous Year Questions) ANSWER KEY
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i) Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 1 2 2 4 2 1 3 4 3 4 2 4 2 2
AM0137 AM0139
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 4 1 2 1 2 1 3 2 1 2 3 1 3 4
Que. 31
Ans. 1

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8. A compound of mol. wt. 180 gm is acetylated to 13. Using Fe/HCl, which one of the following
EXERCISE-III (Analytical Questions) Master Your Understanding reaction is possible [Here φ = C6H5]
give a compound of mol. wt. 390. The number
∆ Br2 + KOH + (1) φ–NO2→ φ−NH–NH–φ
1. A 
NH3
→ B  → C → CH3 CH2 NH2 4. AgCN
C2H5Br  H3 O
→ A  → HCOOH + B;
of amino groups in the compound are :-
(2) φ–NO2 → φ–NH2
A is :- CHCl3 (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) φ–NO2 → φ–NHOH
B 
KOH
→ A 
→ C
Re duction

(1) CH3COOH (3) 5 (4) 6 (4) φ–NO2 → φ–N=N–φ

A, B, C respectively in the above sequence are AM0090 AM0096
(2) CH3CH2CH2COOH
14. Total structural isomeric amines possible for
(1) Ethane amine, methane nitrile and diethyl 9. In the reaction sequence A, B and C are :- molecular formula C4H11N
(3) CH3–CH–COOH
amine (1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 6
Sn NaNO2 /HCl H2 O/ ∆
CH3 
A →B

0° C →C
 → C6H5OH NC0109
(2) Carbyl amino ethane, ethane amine and HCl

(4) CH3CH2COOH primary amine (1) Benzene, nitrobenzene, aniline 15. C2 H5 NH2 
NOCl
→ A →
NaCN
B 
H2 / Ni
→C

AM0083 (3) Ethyl isocyanide, ethyl amine and methyl (2) Nitrobenzene, aniline and azo–compound what will be "C"
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2
2. The correct set of the products obtained in the isocyanate (3) Nitrobenzene, benzene, aniline
CH3
following reactions (4) Carbylamino ethane, ethanamine and ethyl (4) Benzene, amino compound, aniline

®
CH3 – CH – NH2
( i ) CH MgBr methyl amine AM0091 (2)
RCN 
reduction
→ (A) , RCN  3

( ii ) H2O

→ (B), (3) CH3 CH2 – CH = NH
AM0086
10. Which one of the following tests can be used to (4) H5C2–N–N=O
hydrolysis HNO2
RNC  → (C), RNH2  → (D) CO identify primary amino group in a given organic
(i) KOH H3O⊕ CH2–NH2
The answer is 5. NH A B+C compound
(ii) C2H5Br AM0110
A B C D CO
(1) Iodoform test
16. Which of following will not gives only primary
(1) 2°Amine Methyl ketone 1° Amine Alcohol B and C in the above sequence are (2) Victor Meyer's test amine
(1) Benzoic acid + aniline (3) Carbylamine reaction 3( )
(1) C2 H5 X →
NH Alc
(2) 1°Amine Methyl ketone 1° Amine Alcohol
(2) Phthalic acid + ethylamine (4) Libermann's reaction ( )
(2) CH3 − CN  →
Na Hg
(3) 2°Amine Methyl ketone 2° Amine Acid C2 H5 OH
(3) Phthalic acid + aniline PO0092
(4) 1°Amine Methyl ketone 2° Amine Aldehyde O
(4) Benzoic acid + ethylamine ( i ) LiAlH
AM0084 11. →
CH3Cl KCN +4H
 NaNO2 /HCl
→ A → Ethanol+ ? (3) CH3 – C – NH2 
( ii ) H2 O →
4

AM0087
3. The final product C, obtained in this reaction Apart from ethanol as the main product, the O
would be 6. The end–product in the reaction sequence would other products would be ⊕  (i) R-X
(4) NK
NH2 be : (1) H2C=CH2 (2) CH3CH2–ONO (ii) NaOH (aq)
HNO2 PCl5 NH3
H2O Ethyl amine → A → B →C (3) CH3CH2–Cl (4) All the above O
Ac2O Br2
A B C AM0094 AM0111
CH3COOH H+ (1) Ethyl cyanide
17. Basic nature of amine in aqueous medium can be
CH3 (2) Ethyl amine 12. Identify B, X and R respectively in the following
explained by :-
COCH3 (3) Methyl amine sequence of reactions
NH2 (1) Inductive effect (2) Solvation effect
COCH3 +
Br (4) Acetamide C2H5MgBr 
ClCN H3 O
→ A  → B, (3) Steric hinderance (4) All of these
AM0088 AM0112
CH3COCH3 →
I
Ag
(1) (2)
2
X  → CH≡CH 18. Which of following is correct regarding basic
NaOH
CH3 CH3 H2 NOH
7. → 
A B → C
→ CH3CH2Cl,
reduction NOCl
nature ?
NaNO2 / HCl
NH2 NHCOCH3 C6H5NH→
0–5°C 
P CuCN
→ Q
Na
→ R
A and C in the above sequence respectively are:- 2 EtOH (1) R – NH2 > R2NH > R3N (Gaseous phase)
Br Br (2) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N (Aqueous
(1) Methanal, Methylamine (1) C2H5COOH, CHI3, C6H5CH2NH2
solutions)
(2) Acetone, ethanamine (2) C2H5COOH, CH3I, C6H5COOH
(3) (4) (3) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5–NH2 > NH3
CH3 CH3
(3) Ethanal, dimethylamine (Aqueous solutions)
(3) C2H5CH2NH2, CH3I, C6H5COOH
AH0085 (4) Acetaldehyde, ethylamine (4) (C2H5)2NH > PhNH2 > Ph – NH – CH3
(4) C2H5COOH, C2H5I, C6H5CONH2 (Aqueous solution)
CC0089
AM0095 GC0113

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19. What is decreasing order of H-bonding in water 23. Which of following can be use to distinguish 27. Total number of isomers of molecular formula Room NaNO2
for alkyl substituted ammonium cation ? primary, secondary and tertiary amine? 32. A + HBF4 B C
C3H9N which will liberate N2 gas on treatment Temprature Cu,∆
⊕ ⊕ ⊕
Fe/HCl
(1) Carbyl amine reaction with nitrous acid?
(1) R NH3 > R 2 NH2 > R 3 NH A
(2) Reaction with Nitrous acid (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1 E H⊕
D
⊕ ⊕ ⊕
(2) R 3 NH > R 2 NH2 > R NH3 (3) Reaction with Hinsberg's reagent followed by AM0122 What is "E"
⊕ ⊕ ⊕ NaOH 28. Which of following is water insoluble and stable
(3) R 2 NH2 > R 3 NH > R NH3 (1) N = N – Ph
(4) Both 2 & 3 at room temperature ?
⊕ ⊕ ⊕
(4) R 2 NH2 > R NH3 > R 3 NH PO0118 (1) C6H5N2⊕Cl (2) C6H5N2⊕BF4
(2) NH – N = N – Ph
AM0114 24. Which of following is insoluble in alkali? (3) C6H5N2⊕HSO4 (4) All
20. Which of following reaction is not acylation ? O O AM0123
(3) Ph–N=N NH2
O (1) H5C6–S–N–C2H5 (2) H5C6–S–N–CH3 29. Which of following reaction do not displace N2
from benzenediazonium salt? NH2
(1) C2H5NH2 + CH3–C–Cl → O C2H5 OH
(1) ArN2⊕ Cl − 
Cu2 Cl2 / HCl
→
O O O
(2) ArN2⊕ Cl − 
Cu / HCl
→ (4)
(3) H5C6–S–N–C2H5 (4) All of these
(2) C2H5NH2 + CH3–C–O–C–CH3 → (3) ArN2⊕ Cl − + KI →

®
OH Ph
O (4) ArN2⊕ Cl − + HBF4 
Room
→
AM0119 temperature
AM0127
(3) C2H5NH2 + CH3C–OCH3 → AM0124 33. Diazo coupling reaction can be use to distinguish
25. These days benzene sulphonyl chloride replaced
O by which compound in Hinsberg test :- 30. Which of following group can not be introduced (1) Aniline and Benzyl amine
O in the benzene ring by sandmeyer reaction? (2) Ethylamine and N-methyl aniline
(4) C2H5NH2 + CH3–C–OH →
(1) –Cl (2) –Br (3) –CN (4) –I (3) Aniline and Phenol
AM0115 (1) CH2–S–Cl (4) All of these
AM0125
21. Which of following will not give acylation 31. ⊕
Formation of benzene from C6H5N2 Cl by use of
– AM0128
reaction? O
SO2Cl C2H5OH is example of :- 34. What is correct sequence of reagent to form
(1) H5C2 – NH2 (2) H5C2 – NH – C2H5
CH3 (1) Redox reaction 2,4,6-tibromofluorobenzene from Aniline?
C2H5 (2) Electrophilic substitution reaction
(2) (1) NaNO2/HCl (0-5°C), HBF4/∆, Br2/H2O
(3) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(3) C2H5–N (4) H5C6 – NH2 (2) Br2/H2O, NaNO2/HCl (0-5°C), HBF4/∆
SO2Cl (4) Elimination reaction
AM0126 (3) NaNO2/HCl (25°C), HBF4/∆, Br2/H2O
C2H5
AM0116 (4) Br2/H2O, NaNO2/HCl (0-5°C), HBF4 (Room
(3)
22. Which of following is not correct match?
temperature)
O AM0129
CH3
(1) H5C2NH2 + CH3–C–Cl →
(4) SO3H
O
AM0120
H5C2–NH–C–CH3+HCl
(Acylation)
NH2

O CH3I (excess)
26. A
aq. Na2CO3
(2) H5C2NH2 + H5C6–C–Cl →
What will be "A"
O
NH2 NH2
H5C2–NH–C–C6H5+HCl H3C CH3 CH3
(Benzoylation)
(1) (2) EXERCISE-III (Analytical Questions) ANSWER KEY
(3) (H5C2)2 NH + CHCl3 + 3KOH →
H5C2 – NC + 3KCl + 3H2O CH2 CH3
(Carbyl amine reaction) Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
NH2 Ans. 4 2 3 4 2 2 4 3 2 3 4 1 2 2 1
(4) H5C2 – NH2 + CH3COOH →
⊕ Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
H5 C2 NH3 CH3 COO – ⊕ 
Ans. 1 4 3 1 4 3 3 4 1 3 4 1 2 4 4
(Salt formation or
(3) CH3 (4) Ph − N(CH3 )3 I
Neutralisation) Que. 31 32 33 34
CH3 Ans. 1 3 4 2
AM0117
AM0121
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20. The oxidation state of + 1 for phosphorous is 28. Oxidation state of cobalt in [Co(NH3)4 (H2O)Cl]SO4
EXERCISE-I (Conceptual Questions) Build Up Your Understanding found in:- is
10. Oxidation number of sodium in sodium (1) Phosphorous acid (H3PO3) (1) 0 (2) +4 (3) –2 (4) +3
OXIDATION NUMBER
(2) Orthophosphoric acid (H3PO4)
1. In [Ni(CO)4], the oxidation state of Ni is : amalgam(Na-Hg) is : (3) Hypo phosphorous acid (H3PO2) RR0032
(1) 4 (2) 0 (3) 2 (4) 8 (1) +2 (2) +1 (3) –3 (4) Zero (4) Hypo phosphoric acid (H4P2O6) 29. Oxidation number of carbon in graphite is :-
RR0011 RR0024 (1) Zero (2) +1 (3) +4 (4) +2
RR0001
11. Oxidation number of C in HNC is : 21. In which of the following compounds iron has RR0033
2. The oxidation number of nitrogen in NH2OH is : lowest oxidation state:-
(1) +2 (2) –3 (3) +3 (4) Zero 30. Oxidation number of 'N' in N3H (hydrazoic acid) is :-
(1) 0 (2) +1 (3) –1 (4) –2 (1) FeSO4(NH4)2SO4.6H2O
RR0013 (2) K4[Fe(CN)6] 1 2
RR0002 (1) – (2) –3 (3) +3 (4) +
12. Oxidation number of Fe in Fe0.94 O is : (3) [Fe(CO)5] 3 3
3. Of the following elements, which one has the (4) Fe0.94O
(1) 200 (2) 200/94 RR0034
same oxidation state in all of its compounds ? (3) 94/200 (4) None RR0025
31. Which of the following doesn't have +5 oxidation
(1) Hydrogen (2) Fluorine 22. Select the compound in which the oxidation
RR0014 state of phosphorus ?
number of oxygen is –1:-
(3) Carbon (4) Oxygen 13. Oxidation number of carbon in carbon suboxide (1) H2O (2) O2F2 (1) Phosphorus acid (H3PO3)

®
RR0003 (C3O2) is : (3) Na2O (4) BaO2 (2) Orthophosphoric acid (H3PO4)
4. Oxidation number of fluorine in OF2 is : +2 +4 −4 RR0026 (3) Meta phosphoric acid (HPO3)
(1) (2) (3) +4 (4) 23. Match List - I (compound) with list - II (Oxidation
(1) +1 (2) +2 (3) –1 (4) –2 3 3 3 (4) Pyro phosphoric acid (H4P2O7)
RR0015 state of N) and select the correct answer using
RR0004 the codes given below the list:- RR0035
5. The oxidation number of C in CH4, CH3Cl, 14. Oxidation number of sulphur in Na2S2O3 would List - I List-II 32. The oxidation number of arsenic atom in H3AsO4 is
CH2Cl2, CHCl3 and CCl4 are respectively : be :- (A) KNO3 (a) – 1/3 :-
(1) +2 (2) +4 (3) –2 (4) 0 (B) HNO2 (b) – 3
(1) +4, +2, 0, –2, –4 (2) +2, +4, 0, –4, –2 (1) –1 (2) –3 (3) +3 (4) +5
RR0016 (C) NH4Cl (c) 0
(3) –4, –2, 0, +2, +4 (4) –2, –4, 0, +4, +2 (D) NaN3 (d) + 3 RR0036
15. Two oxidation states for chlorine are found in (e) + 5 33. In substance Mg(HXO3), the oxidation number of
RR0005
the compound : Codes are:- X is :-
6. Phosphorus has the oxidation state of +3 in : A B C D
(1) CaOCl2 (2) KCl (3) KClO3 (4) Cl2O7 (1) 0 (2) +2 (3) +3 (4) +4
(1) Ortho phosphoric acid RR0017 (1) e d b a
(2) e b d a RR0037
(2) Phosphorus acid 16. –1/3 oxidation state of nitrogen will be obtained (3) d e a c 34. The oxidation number of phosphorus in PH4+,
(3) Meta phosphoric acid in case of : (4) b c d e PO23–, PO43– and PO33– are respectively :–
(4) Pyrophosphoric acid (1) Ammonia (NH3) RR0027
(1) –3, +1, +3, +5 (2) –3, +3, +5, +1
RR0006 (2) Hydrazoic acid (N3H) 24. In which of the following pair, oxidation number
of Fe is same :- (3) +3, –3, +5, +1 (4) –3, +1, +5, +3
7. Oxidation state of oxygen in hydrogen peroxide is (3) Nitric oxide (NO)
(1) K3[Fe(CN)6], Fe2O3 RR0040
(1) –1 (2) +1 (3) 0 (4) –2 (4) Nitrous oxide (N2O)
(2) Fe(CO)5, Fe2O3 35. Which of the following compounds are arranged
RR0007 RR0019 (3) Fe2O3, FeO
in increasing oxidation number of S :–
17. Compound YBa2Cu3O7 is a super conductor. The (4)Fe2(SO4)3, K4[Fe(CN)6]
8. Which one of the following statements is not (1) H2SO3, H2S, H2SO4, H2S2O3
O.N. of the copper in the compound will RR0028
correct? (2) H2S2O3, H2SO3, H2S, H2SO4
be:[O.No. of Y= +3] 25. In the conversion of Br2 to BrO3− , the oxidation
(1) Oxidation state of S in (NH4)2S2O8 is +6 (3) H2S, H2SO3, H2SO4, H2S2O3
(1) +7/3 (2) zero (3) +2 (4) +1 state of bromine changes from :-
(2) Oxidation number of Os in OsO4 is +8 (1) 0 to 5 (2) 1 to 5 (4) H2S, H2S2O3, H2SO3, H2SO4
RR0021
(3) Oxidation state of S in H2SO5 is +8 (3) 0 to –3 (4) 2 to 5 RR0041
18. The oxidation state of iodine in H4 IO6− is :- RR0029
1 36. Iodine shows the highest oxidation state in the
(4) Oxidation number of O in KO2 is – (1) +7 (2) –1 (3) +5 (4) +1 26. The sum of oxidation states of sulphur in H2S2O8
2 compound :–
RR0022 is :-
RR0009 (1) +2 (2) +6 (3) +7 (4) +12 (1) KI (2) KI3 (3) IF5 (4) KIO4
19. Amongst the following, identify the species with RR0042
9. Which of the following shows highest oxidation RR0030
an atom in + 6 oxidation state:- 37. The sum of the oxidation states of all the carbon
number in combined state : 27. In which of the following compounds of Cr, the
(1) Os (2) Ru (1) MnO4− (2) Cr(CN)36− oxidation number of Cr is not +6 :- atoms present in the compound C6H5CHO is :
(1) CrO3 (2) CrO2Cl2
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None (3) NiF62− (4) CrO2Cl2 (1) –4 (2) 3 (3) + 5 (4) – 4/7
(3) Cr2O3 (4) K2Cr2O7
RR0010 RR0023 RR0043
RR0031
288 289
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APPLICATIONS OF REDOX REACTIONS 46. In the course of a chemical reaction an oxidant – 54. In the reaction : A–n2 + xe– → A–n1, here x will be 61. Cr2O7 + I + H → Cr + I2 + H2O
–2 – + +3

38. A reducing agent is a substance which can : (1) Loses electron The equivalent weight of the reductant in the
(1) n1 + n2 (2) n2 – n1
(1) Accept electrons (2) Donate electrons (2) Gains electron above equation is :– (At. wt. of Cr=52, I=127)
(3) Accept protons (4) Donate protons (3) Both loses and gain electrons (3) n1 – n2 (4) –n1 – n2
(1) 26 (2) 127 (3) 63.5 (4) 10.4
RR0045 (4) Electron change does not occur RR0065 RR0075
39. The reaction H2S + H2O2 → S + 2H2O RR0056
55. What would be the equivalent weight of the 62. How many moles of KMnO4 are reduced by
manifests : 47. In the reaction:- 1 mole of ferrous oxalate in acidic medium:-
(1) Oxidising action of H2O2 reductant in the reaction :
C + 4HNO3 → CO2 + 2H2O + 4NO2
1 5 1 3
(2) Reducing nature of H2O2 HNO3 acts as :– [Fe(CN)6] + H2O2 + 2OH → 2[Fe(CN)6] + 2H2O + O2
–3 – 4– (1) (2) (3) (4)
5 3 3 5
(3) Acidic nature of H2O2 (1) An oxidising agent (2) An acid [Given : Fe = 56, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, H = 1] RR0076
(4) Alkaline nature of H2O2 (3) A reducing agent (4) A base
RR0046 (1) 17 (2) 212 (3) 34 (4) 32 REDOX REACTIONS
RR0057
40. If an element is in its lowest oxidation state, RR0066 63. Which one of the following is a redox reaction ?
48. A compound contains atoms A, B and C. The
under proper conditions it can act as :
oxidation number of A is +2, of B is +5 and of (1) H2 + Br2 → 2HBr

®
(1) Reducing agent 56. Equivalent weight of FeC2O4 in the change :
C is –2. The possible formula of the compound (2) 2NaCl + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2HCl
(2) An oxidising agent FeC2O4 → Fe3+ + CO2 is :
is :
(3) Oxidising as well as reducing agent (3) HCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + HNO3
(1) ABC2 (2) B2(AC3)2 (1) M/3 (2) M/6
(4) Neither oxidising nor reducing agent (4) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
(3) A3(BC4)2 (4) A3(B4C)2 (3) M/2 (4) M/1
RR0047
RR0058 RR0078
41. In a reaction of RR0068
49. Equivalent weight of N2 in the change N2 → NH3 64. Which of the following is not a redox change ?
H2O (steam) + C (red hot) → CO + H2
is 57. The number of mole of oxalate ions oxidised by (1) 2H2S + SO2 → 2H2O + 3S
(1) H2O is the reducing agent
28 28 28 one mole of MnO4– is : (2) 2BaO + O2 → 2BaO2
(2) H2O is the oxidising agent (1) (2) 28 (3) (4)
(3) carbon is the oxidising agent 6 2 3 (3) BaO2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + H2O2
(1) 1/5 (2) 2/5
(4) oxidation-reduction does not occur RR0059 (4) 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
(3) 5/2 (4) 5
RR0048 50. Equivalent weight of NH3 in the change RR0079
42. The compound that can work both as an N2 → NH3 is : RR0070 65. In the reaction, Cl2 + OH– → Cl– + ClO4– + H2O,
oxidising as well as reducing agent is : 17 17 17 58. In a reaction 4 mole of electrons are transferred chlorine is :
(1) (2) 17 (3) (4)
(1) KMnO4 (2) H2O2 6 2 3 (1) Oxidised
to one mole of HNO3 when it acts as an oxidant.
(3) Fe2(SO4)3 (4) K2Cr2O7 RR0060 (2) Reduced
RR0049 The possible reduction product is :
51. In the reaction, 2S2O32– + I2 → S4O62– + 2I , the
– (3) Oxidised as well as reduced
43. HNO2 acts as an oxidant with which one of the (1) (1/2) mole N2 (2) (1/2) mole N2O (4) Neither oxidised nor reduced
eq. wt. of Na2S2O3 is equal to its :
following reagent:- (3) 1 mole of NO2 (4) 1 mole NH3 RR0081
(1) Mol. wt. (2) Mol. wt./2
(1) KMnO4 (2) H2S (3) K2Cr2O7 (4) Br2 66. Which is a redox reaction :
RR0051 (3) 2 x Mol. wt. (4) Mol. wt./6 RR0072
(1) 2CuI2 → CuI + I2
44. In which of the following reaction H2O2 acts as RR0061 59. The equivalent weight of MnSO4 is half of its
reducing agent :- (2) NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3
52. In the reaction, VO + Fe2O3 → FeO + V2O5 , the molecular weight when it is converted to :-
(1) 2FeCl2 + 2HCl + H2O2 → 2FeCl3 + 2H2O (3) NH4Cl + NaOH → NH3 + NaCl + H2O
eq. wt. of V2O5 is equal to its : (1) Mn2O3 (2) MnO2
(2) Cl2 + H2O2 → 2HCl + O2 (4) Cr2(SO4)3 + 6KOH → 2Cr(OH)3 + 3K2SO4
(1) Mol. wt. (2) Mol. wt./8
(3) 2HI + H2O2 → 2H2O + I2 (3) MnO4 –
(4) MnO4 –2

(3) Mol .wt./6 (4) Mol. wt./2 RR0082

(4) H2SO3 + H2O2 → H2SO4 + H2O
RR0073 67. Which of the following example does not
RR0052 RR0062
45. When H2 reacts with Na, it acts as :- 60. In the following change, 3Fe+4H2O→ Fe3O4+4H2 represent disproportionation -
53. Molecular weight of KBrO3 is M. What is its
(1) Oxidising agent If the atomic weight of iron is 56, then its (1) MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
equivalent weight, if the reaction is :
(2) Reducing agent (2) 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2
equivalent weight will be :-
(3) Both BrO3
–
→ Br– (acidic medium) (3) 4KClO3 → 3KClO4 + KCl
(1) 42 (2) 21 (3) 63 (4) 84
(4) Cannot be predicted (1) M (2) M/4 (3) M/6 (4) 6M (4) 3Cl2 + 6NaOH → 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O
RR0054 RR0074
RR0064 RR0083
290 291
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68. The decomposition of KClO3 to KCl and O2 on 75. Select the example of disproportionation reaction 81. Choose the set of coefficients that correctly 86. For the redox reaction
heating is an example of : (1) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl balances the following equation : Zn + NO3− → Zn
2+ +
+ NH4 in basic medium,
(1) Intermolecular redox change x Cr2O72– + yH+ + z e– → a Cr+3+ + bH2O
(2) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O x y z a b coefficients of Zn, NO3− and OH– in the balanced
(2) Intramolecular redox change
(3) Disproportionation or auto redox change (3) 4H3PO3 → PH3 + 3H3PO4 (1) 2 14 6 2 7 equation respectively are :
(2) 1 14 6 2 7 (1) 4, 1, 7 (2) 7, 4, 1
(4) Comproportionation (4) AgCl + 2NH3 → Ag(NH3)2Cl
(3) 2 7 6 2 7 (3) 4, 1, 10 (4) 1, 4, 10
RR0084 RR0092 RR0105
(4) 2 7 6 1 7
69. Which of the following change represents a 76. Which of the following reaction involves RR0098 87. In the balanced equation-
disproportionation reaction (s) : 82. In the reaction: [Zn + H + NO3 → NH4 + Zn + H2O]
+ – + +2
oxidation & reduction :-
(1) Cl2 + 2OH– → ClO– + Cl– + H2O MnO4 + xH + ne → Mn + yH2O
– + – 2+ +
coefficient of NH4 is:-
(2) Cu2O + 2H+ → Cu + Cu2+ + H2O (1) NaBr + HCl → NaCl + HBr (1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
What is the value of n :
(3) 2HCuCl2 dilution with
 
→
2+
Cu+ Cu + 4Cl + 2H– + (2) HBr + AgNO3 → AgBr + HNO3 (1) 5 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 3 RR0106
Water 88. In the balanced equation
(3) 2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O RR0099
(4) All of the above
(4) H2 + Br2 → 2HBr
83. The number of electrons required to balance MnO4− + H+ + C2O24− → Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O, the
RR0085 charge in the following equation – moles of CO2 formed are :-
70. How many electrons should X2H4 liberate so that RR0093 MnO4– + 2H2O → MnO2 + 4OH– is (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 10

®
in the new compound X shows oxidation number 77. The reaction (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2 RR0107
of -½ (E.N. X > H) RR0100
2K2MnO4 + Cl2 → 2KMnO4 + 2KCl is an 89. In the following reaction the value of 'X' is
2KMnO4+5H2S+6H →2Mn +2K + 5S + 8H2O.
+ 2+ +
(1) 10 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2 84. H2O + SO3 → SO4 + 2H + X
2– 2– +
example of In the above reaction, how many electrons would –
RR0087 (1) 4e (2) 3e– (3) 2e– (4) 1e–
(1) Redox be involved in the oxidation of 1 mole of reductant? RR0108
71. Which one of the following is not a redox
(2) Reduction only (1) Two (2) Five (3) Ten (4) One
reaction :- 90. The number of electrons required to balance the
RR0102
(1) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 (3) Neutralization following equation are:
85. The value of n in :
NO3– + 4H → 2H2O + NO
+
(2) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O (4) Disproportionation
MnO4− + 8 H++ ne– → Mn2+ + 4 H2O is (1) 2 on right side (2) 3 on left side
1 RR0094
(3) Na + H2O → NaOH + H2 (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2 (3) 3 on right side (4) 5 on left side
2 78. Which of the following reaction involves neither RR0103 RR0109
1
(4) MnCl3 → MnCl2 + Cl2 oxidation nor reduction :–
2
(1) CrO42– → Cr2O72– (2) Cr → CrCl3
RR0088
72. In the reaction - (3) Na → Na+ (4) 2S2O32– → S4O62–
− RR0095
MnO + SO3 + H → SO4 + Mn + H2O
4
2– + –2 +2

− + 79. Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2

(1) MnO and H both are reduced
4
Zn undergoes –
(2) MnO4− is reduced and H+ is oxidised
(1) Reduction
(3) MnO4− is reduced and SO32– is oxidised (2) Oxidation
(4) MnO4− is oxidised and SO32– is reduced (3) Both oxidation and reduction
EXERCISE-I (Conceptual Questions) ANSWER KEY
RR0089 (4) Neither oxidation nor reduction
73. I2 + KI → KI3 RR0096 Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
In the above reaction:- Ans. 2 3 2 3 3 2 1 3 3 4 1 2 2 1 1
(1) Only oxidation taken place BALANCING OF REDOX REACTIONS Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
(2) Only reduction takes place Ans. 2 1 1 4 3 3 4 1 1 1 4 3 4 1 1
80. Balance the following given half reaction for the
(3) Both the above
unbalanced whole reaction : Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
(4) Neither oxidation nor reduction
RR0090 CrO42– → CrO2– + OH– is : Ans. 1 4 3 4 4 4 1 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 1
74. Which of the following reaction represents the Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(1) CrO –2
4 + 2H2O + 3e → CrO + 4OH
– –
2
–

oxidising behaviour of H2SO4 :- Ans. 2 1 3 1 4 1 3 3 3 1 1 3 2 2 2

(2) 2CrO4–2 + 8H2O → CrO2– + 4H2O + 8OH
–
(1) 2PCl5 + H2SO4 → 2POCl3 + 2HCl + SO2Cl2 Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
(2) 2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O (3) CrO4 + H2O → CrO2 + H2O + OH
–2 – –
Ans. 2 4 1 3 3 1 1 2 4 3 1 3 3 4 3
(3) NaCl + H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HCl Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
(4) 3CrO4 + 4H2O + 6 e → 2CrO2 + 8OH
–2 – –1 –

(4) 2HI + H2SO4 → I2 + SO2 + 2H2O

RR0097 Ans. 4 1 1 2 1 2 1 3 1 1 3 4 4 3 2
RR0091
292 293
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NEET (UG) 2022 (OVERSEAS) Re-NEET (UG) 2022
EXERCISE-II (Previous Year Questions) AIPMT/NEET
12. Identify the set from the following sets in which 13. Which of the following reactions is a
AIPMT 2009 NEET(UG) 2018 all species can exhibit disproportionation
decomposition redox reaction ?
reactions.
1. Oxidation numbers of P in PO34− , of S in SO24− 7. For the redox reaction
(1) Cl2 ,ClO2− ,ClO3− ,S 8 (1) 2 Pb(NO3)2(s) → 2 PbO(s) + 4 NO2(g) + O2(g)
MnO4 + C2O4 + H → Mn + CO2 + H2O
– 2– + 2+

and that of Cr in Cr2 O72− are respectively :- the correct coefficients of the reactants for the − − − (2) N2(g) + O2(g) → 2 NO(g)
(2) ClO ,ClO ,ClO ,F2
4 2
(1) –3, +6 and +6 (2) +5, +6 and +6 balanced equation are
– 2–
H+ (3) Cl2(g) + 2OH–(aq)→ClO–(aq) + Cl–(aq) + 4H2O()
(3) +3, +6 and +5 (4) +5, +3 and +6 MnO4 C2O4 (3) ClO3− ,ClO4− ,H2 O2 ,ClO –
(1) 16 5 2
RR0111 (2) 2 5 16 (4) ClO2− ,ClO3− ,ClO4– ,Cl2 (4) P4(s)+3OH–(aq)+3H2O()→PH3(g)+3H2PO–2(aq)
AIPMT Pre. 2012 (3) 2 16 5 RR0190
(4) 5 16 2 RR0191
2. When Cl2 gas reacts with hot and concentrated RR0125
sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation number
of chlorine changes from: NEET(UG) 2019
(1) Zero to –1 and zero to +3 8. Which of the following reactions are

®
(2) Zero to +1 and zero to –3 disproportionation reaction ?
(3) Zero to +1 and zero to –5 (a) 2Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu0
(4) Zero to –1 and zero to +5 (b) 3MnO42– + 4H+ → 2MnO4– + MnO2 + 2H2O
∆
RR0114 (c) 2KMnO4 → K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
3. In which of the following compounds, nitrogen (d) 2MnO4– + 3Mn2+ + 2H2O → 5MnO2 + 4H⊕
exhibits highest oxidation state? Select the correct option from the following :-
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(1) N3H (2) NH2OH
(3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) only
(3) N2H4 (4) NH3
RR0167
RR0115
AIPMT 2014 NEET (UG) 2020
4. The reaction of aqueous KMnO4 with H2O2 in 9. What is the change in oxidation number of
acidic conditions gives :- carbon in the following reaction ?
(1) Mn4+ and O2 (2) Mn2+ and O2 CH4(g) + 4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l) + 4HCl(g)
(3) Mn2+ and O3 (4) Mn4+ and MnO2 (1) 0 to –4 (2) +4 to +4
RR0119 (3) 0 to +4 (4) –4 to +4
RR0186
RE-AIPMT 2015 NEET(UG) 2021 (Paper-2)
10. The equivalent weight of the salt
5. Assuming complete ionization, same moles of
which of the following compounds will require KHC2O4.H2C2O4.4H2O
the least amount of acidified KMnO4 for used as reducing agent is
complete oxidation?
(1) FeC2O4 (2) Fe(NO2)2 Mol.wt Mol.wt
(1) (2)
(3) FeSO4 (4) FeSO3 1 2
RR0121 Mol.wt Mol.wt
(3) (4)
NEET-II 2016 3 4
RR0188
6. Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately
NEET (UG) 2022
strong oxidizing agent. Which of the following 11. In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4
reactions does not show oxidizing behaviour ? oxidses iodide into iodate. The change in
(1) C + 2H2SO4 → CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is
(2) CaF2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF from EXERCISE-II (Previous Year Questions) ANSWER KEY
(3) Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O (1) +6 to +4 (2) +7 to +3
(4) 3S + 2H2SO4 → 3SO2 + 2H2O (3) +6 to +5 (4) +7 to +4 Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
RR0124 RR0189 Ans. 2 4 1 2 3 2 2 1 4 4 4 1 1

294 295
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EXERCISE-III (Analytical Questions) Master Your Understanding 12. Which of the following act both as oxidant & 14. Identify the reducing agent in the reaction.

7. The correct order of acidic strength is – reductant:– 3Fe3O4 + 8Al (s) → 9Fe + 4Al2O3 (s)
1. In the reaction CH3OH → HCOOH, the number
(1) H2S (2) SO3 (1) Fe3O4 (2) Al
(1) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
of electrons that must be added to the right is :- (3) Fe (4) Al2O3
(2) HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO (3) H2O2 (4) F2
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1
RR0168
(3) HClO4 < HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 RR0139
RR0127
(4) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 15. Which of the following is a disproportionation
2. Which statement is wrong :– 13. Oxidation number of chlorine in perchloric acid is:-
reaction:
RR0133
(1) Oxidation number of oxygen is +1 in peroxides (1) +1 (2) +3 (1) 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
8. Consider the following reaction: (3) +5 (4) +7
(2) Oxidation number of oxygen is +2 in oxygen (2) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
difluoride z RR0141 (3) 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2
4 + zH → xMn
xMnO4– + yC2O2– + 2yCO2 + + H2 O
+ 2+

1 2
(4) Fe + MnO4− + 8H → Fe + Mn + 4H2O
+2 + +3 +2
(3) Oxidation number of oxygen is – in
2 The values of x, y and z in the reaction are
superoxides respectively:- RR0169

®
(4) Oxidation number of oxygen is –2 in most of
(1) 5,2 and 16 (2) 2,5 and 8
its compound
(3) 2, 5 and 16 (4) 5,2 and 8
RR0128
RR0134
3. In the reaction 8Al + 3Fe3O4 → 4Al2O3 + 9Fe,
9. In which of the following reaction H2O2 acts as a
the number of electrons transferred from
reducing agent ?
reductant to oxidant is :-
(a) H2O2 + 2H + 2e → 2H2O
+ –

(1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 16 (4) 24

(b) H2O2 – 2e → O2 + 2H
– +

RR0129
(c) H2O2 + 2e → 2OH
– –

4. In which of the following reaction hydrogen is

(d) H2O2 + 2OH – 2e → O2 + 2H2O
– –

acting as an oxidising agent :-

(1) (a), (c) (2) (b), (d) (3) (a), (b) (4) (c), (d)
(1) With iodine to give hydrogen iodide
RR0135
(2) With lithium to give lithium hydride
(3) With nitrogen to give ammonia 10. In the following reaction

(4) With sulphur to give hydrogen sulphide 2FeCl3 + H2S → 2FeCl2 + 2HCl + S

RR0130 (1) FeCl3 is oxidant

− (2) FeCl3 & H2S are oxidised

5. Oxidation number of Xe in XeF is : 5
(3) FeCl3 is oxidised & H2S is reduced
(1) +1 (2) +2 (3) +3 (4) +4
(4) H2S is oxidant
RR0131
RR0137
6. Which is the best description of the behaviour of
11. In oxidation reduction reaction
bromine in the reaction given below :-
Cr2O7–2 + SO3–2 + H+ → Cr+3 + SO4–2 + H2O the
H2O + Br2 → HOBr + HBr –2 –2
balance equation coefficient for Cr2O7 , SO3 ,
(1) Both oxidized and reduced +
H are :–
(2) Oxidized only
(1) 1, 3, 8 (2) 16, 5, 2
(3) Reduced only EXERCISE-III (Analytical Questions) ANSWER KEY
(3) 2, 16, 5 (4) 5, 2, 16
(4) Proton acceptor only
RR0138 Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
RR0132 Ans. 1 1 4 2 4 1 4 3 2 1 1 3 4 2 3

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17. 5.6 L of oxygen at NTP is equivalent to – 25. The number of electron in 3.1 mg NO3¯ is
EXERCISE-I (Conceptual Questions) Build Up Your Understanding
(1) 1 mol (2) 1/2 mol (NA = 6 × 1023)
QUESTIONS BASED ON MOLES 9. Sum of number of protons, electrons and neutrons (3) 1/4 mol (4) 1/8 mol (1) 32 (2) 1.6 × 10–3
12
in 12g of C is :- (3) 9.6 × 1020 (4) 9.6 × 1023
1. The number of atoms present in 16 g of oxygen is 6 MC0018
23
(1) 6.02 × 1011.5 (2) 3.01 × 1023 (1) 1.8 (2) 12.044 × 10 MC0189
11.5 23
(3) 1.084 × 1025 (4) 10.84 × 1023 18. 4.4 g of an unknown gas occupies 2.24 L of
(3) 3.01 × 10 (4) 6.02 × 10
volume at STP. The gas may be :- 26. Given that one mole of N2 at NTP occupies
MC0001 MC0010
(1) N2O (2) CO 22.4 L the density of N2 is -
2. The number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH3 is approx:- 10. The weight of one atom of Uranium is 238 amu. (1) 1.25 g L–1 (2) 0.80 g L–1
(3) CO2 (4) 1 & 3 both
Its actual weight is .... g.
(1) 1 × 1023 (2) 1.5 × 1023 MC0019 (3) 2.5 g L
–1
(4) 1.60 g L–1
(1) 1.43 × 1026 (2) 3.94 × 10
–22

(3) 2 × 1023 (4) 6 × 1023 MC0029

(3) 6.99 × 10–23 (4) 1.53 × 10–22 19. Which contains least number of molecules :–
MC0002 27. The number of carbon atoms present in a
MC0011
(1) 1 g CO2 (2) 1 g N2 signature, if a signature written by carbon pencil,
3. Which of the following contains maximum number
11. The actual weight of a molecule of water is - (3) 1 g O2 (4) 1 g H2 weighing 1.2 × 10–3 g is
of oxygen atoms ?

®
(1) 1 g of O (1) 18 g MC0020
–23
(1) 12.04 × 1020 (2) 6.02 × 1019
(2) 1 g of O2 (2) 2.99 × 10 g
20. If V mL of the vapours of substance at NTP (3) 3.01 × 1019 (4) 6.02 × 1020
(3) 1 g of O3 (3) both (1) & (2) are correct
(4) 1.66 × 10–24 g weight W g. Then molecular weight of substance MC0190
(4) all have the same number of atoms
MC0012 is:-
MC0003 QUESTIONS BASED ON PERCENTAGE,
V
12. What is the mass of a molecule of CH4 :– (1) (W/V) × 22400 (2) × 22.4 EMPIRICAL FORMULA & MOLECULAR FORMULA
4. The number of atoms present in 0.5 g atom of W
nitrogen is same as the atoms in – (2) 26.6 × 1022 g
(1) 16 g W ×1 28. A compound of X and Y has equal mass of them.
(1) 12 g of C (2) 32 g of S (3) (W - V) × 22400 (4)
(3) 2.66 × 10
–23
g (4) 16 NA g V × 22400 If their atomic weights are 30 and 20 respectively.
(3) 8 g of oxygen (4) 24 g of Mg Molecular formula of the compound is :-
MC0013 MC0021
MC0004
(1) X2Y2 (2) X3Y3 (3) X2Y3 (4) X3Y2
5. Which of the following contains maximum number 13. Which of the following has the highest mass ? 21. If 3.01 × 10 molecules are removed from
20
MC0031
of atoms ? (1) 1 g atom of C 98 mg of H2SO4, then the number of moles of
(2) 1/2 mole of CH4 H2SO4 left are :– 29. An oxide of sulphur contains 50% of sulphur in
(1) 4 g of H2 (2) 16 g of O2
(3) 28 g of N2 (4) 18 g of H2O (3) 10 mL of water it. Its empirical formula is -
(1) 0.1 × 10 (2) 0.5 × 10
–3 –3

MC0005 (4)
23
3.011 × 10 atoms of oxygen (1) SO2 (2) SO3
MC0014 (3) 1.66 × 10–3 (4) 9.95 × 10–2 (3) SO (4) S2O
6. Number of neutrons present in 1.7 g of ammonia
is - MC0022 MC0032
14. Which of the following contains the least number
(1) NA (2) (NA/10) × 4 of molecules ? 22. A gas is found to have the formula (CO)x. It's VD 30. A hydrocarbon contains 80% of carbon, then the
(3) (NA/10) × 7 (4) NA × 10 × 7 (1) 4.4 g CO2 (2) 3.4 g NH3 is 70. The value of x must be:- hydrocarbon is -
MC0006 (3) 1.6 g CH4 (4) 3.2 g SO2 (1) 7 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 (1) CH4 (2) C2H4
7. 5.6 L of oxygen at STP contains - MC0015 (3) C2H6 (4) C2H2
MC0023
(1) 6.02 × 1023 atoms 15. The number of molecule in 4.25 g of NH3 is - MC0033
23
(2) 3.01 × 10 atoms 23
23. Vapour density of gas is 11.2. Volume occupied
(1) 1.505 × 10 (2) 3.01 × 1023 31. Empirical formula of glucose is -
23
(3) 1.505 × 10 atoms by 2.4 g of this at STP will be -
(3) 6.02 × 1023 (4) None of these
23
(4) 0.7525 × 10 atoms (1) 11.2 L (2) 2.24 L (3) 22.4 L (4) 2.4 L (1) C6H12O6 (2) C3H6O3
MC0016
MC0007 MC0024 (3) C2H4O2 (4) CH2O
16. Elements A and B form two compounds B2A3 MC0034
8. Number of oxygen atoms in 8 g of ozone is - and B2A. 0.05 moles of B2A3 weight 9.0 g and 24. The volume of a gas in discharge tube is
23 6.02 × 10 23
0.10 mole of B2A weight 10 g. Calculate the –7
1.12 × 10 mL at STP. Then the number of 32. An oxide of metal M has 40% by mass of
(1) 6.02 × 10 (2) atomic weight of A and B :-
2 molecule of gas in the tube is - oxygen. Metal M has atomic mass of 24. The
(1) 20 and 30 (2) 30 and 40 4
(2) 3.01 × 1015 empirical formula of the oxide is :-
6.02 × 1023 6.02 × 1023 (1) 3.01 × 10
(3) (4) (3) 40 and 30 (4) 30 and 20
3 6 (3) 3.01 × 1012 (4) 3.01 × 1016 (1) M2O (2) M2O3 (3) MO (4) M3O4
MC0008 MC0017 MC0035
MC0025

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33. A compound contains 38.8% C, 16.0% H and QUESTIONS BASED ON STOICHIOMETRY 46. The equation : 51. If 8 mL of uncombined O2 remain after exploding
45.2% N. The formula of the compound would 41. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen 3 O2 with 4 mL of hydrogen, the number of mL of
2Al(s) + O2(g) → Al2O3(s) shows that :- O2 originally were -
be 2
and oxygen. Its elemental analysis gives 38.71% of (1) 12 (2) 2
(1) CH3NH2 (2) CH3CN 3
C and 9.67% of H. The empirical formula of the (1) 2 mol of Al reacts with mol of O2 to produce (3) 10 (4) 4
(3) C2H5CN (4) CH2(NH)2 2
compound would be :- 7 MC0055
MC0036 mol of Al2O3
(1) CHO (2) CH4O 2 52. 4 g of hydrogen are ignited with 4 g of oxygen.
34. The simplest formula of a compound containing
(3) CH3O (4) CH2O 3 The weight of water formed is -
50%(w/w) of element X(at wt. = 10) and 50% of (2) 2 g of Al reacts with g of O2 to produce
2 (1) 0.5 g (2) 3.5 g
element Y(at wt. = 20) is:- MC0132
one mol of Al2O3 (3) 4.5 g (4) 2.5 g
(1) XY (2) X2Y (3) XY2 (4) X3Y 42. The amount of water (g) produced by combustion 3 MC0056
MC0037 (3) 2 g of Al reacts with L of O2 to produce
of 286 g of propane is 2
35. Which of the following compound has same
(1) 168 g (2) 200 g 1 mol of Al2O3 53. For the reaction A + 2B → C,
empirical formula as that of glucose:- 3 5 mol of A and 8 mol of B will produce
(3) 468 g (4) 693 g (4) 2 mol of Al reacts with mol of O2 to produce

®
(1) CH3CHO (2) CH3COOH 2 (1) 5 mole of C
MC0191 1 mol of Al2O3
(3) CH3OH (4) C2H6 (2) 4 mole of C
MC0038 43. In a gaseous reaction of the type MC0049 (3) 8 mole of C
36. 2.2 g of a compound of phosphorous and sulphur aA + bB → cC + dD, 47. 1 L of CO2 is passed over hot coke. When the (4) 13 mole of C
has 1.24 g of 'P' in it. Its empirical formula is - which statement is wrong ? volume of reaction mixture becomes 1.4 L, the MC0057
(1) P2S3 (2) P3S2 composition of reaction mixture is–
(1) a litre of A combines with b litre of B to give 54. If 1.6 g of SO2 and 1.5 × 1022 molecules of H2S
(3) P3S4 (4) P4S3 (1) 0.6 L CO
C and D are mixed and allowed to remain in contact in a
MC0040 (2) 0.8 L CO2 closed vessel until the reaction
(2) a mole of A combines with b moles of B to
37. On analysis, a certain compound was found to
give C and D
(3) 0.6 L CO2 and 0.8 L CO 2H2S + SO2 → 3S + 2H2O,
contain iodine and oxygen in the mass ratio of
(4) None proceeds to completion. Which of the following
254:80. The formula of the compound is : (3) a g of A combines with b g of B to give
MC0050 statement is true ?
(At mass I = 127, O = 16) C and D
(1) Only 'S' and 'H2O' remain in the reaction vessel.
(1) IO (2) I2O (4) a molecules of A combines with b molecules 48. 26 cc of CO2 are passed over red hot coke.
(2) 'H2S' will remain in excess
(3) I5O2 (4) I2O5 of B to give C and D The volume of CO evolved is :–
(3) 'SO2' will remain in excess
MC0041 (1) 15 cc (2) 10 cc
MC0046 (4) None
10
38. The number of atoms of Cr and O are 4.8 × 10 (3) 32 cc (4) 52 cc
44. Assuming that petrol is octane (C8H18) and has MC0058
and 9.6 × 1010 respectively. Its empirical formula –1
MC0051
density 0.8 g mL . 1.425 L of petrol on 55. 12 L of H2 and 11.2 L of Cl2 are mixed and
is –
complete combustion will consume. 49. If 1/2 mol of oxygen combine with Aluminium to exploded. The composition by volume of mixture
(1) Cr2O3 (2) CrO2
form Al2O3 then weight of Aluminium metal used is–
(3) Cr2O4 (4) CrO5 (1) 50 mole of O2
in the reaction is (Al= 27) –
(1) 24 L of HCl (g)
MC0042 (2) 100 mole of O2
(1) 27 g (2) 18 g (2) 0.8 L Cl2 and 20.8 L HCl (g)
39. Insulin contains 3.4% sulphur by mass. The (3) 125 mole of O2
(3) 54 g (4) 40.5 g (3) 0.8 L H2 and 22.4 L HCl (g)
minimum molecular weight of insulin is : (4) 200 mole ofO2
MC0052 (4) 22.4 L HCl (g)
(1) 941.176 (2) 944 MC0047
(3) 945.27 (4) None 50. If 0.5 mol of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mol of MC0059
45. In a given reaction, 9 g of Al will react with
MC0043 Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of
56. 10 mL of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion
3 Ba3(PO4)2 that can be formed is -
40. Caffine has a molecular weight of 194. It contains 2Al + O2 → Al2 O3 give 40 mL of CO2(g) and 50 mL of H2O (vap.).
28.9% by mass of nitrogen Number of atoms of
2 3BaCl2 + 2Na3PO4 → Ba3(PO4)2 + 6NaCl The hydrocarbon is -
(1) 6 g O2 (2) 8 g O2 (1) 0.7 (2) 0.5 (1) C4H5 (2) C8H10
nitrogen in one molecule of it is :-
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 9 g O2 (4) 4 g O2 (3) 0.3 (4) 0.1 (3) C4H8 (4) C4H10
MC0045 MC0048 MC0054 MC0060

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QUESTIONS BASED ON EQUIIVALENT WEIGHTS 64. 0.5 g of a base was completely neutralised by 71. When an element forms an oxide in which 78. 1.6 g of Ca and 2.60 g of Zn when treated with
100 mL of 0.2 N acid. Equivalent weight of the oxygen is 20% of the oxide by mass, the an acid in excess separately, produced the same
57. Molecular weight of tribasic acid is W. Its equivalent
base is equivalent mass of the element will be – amount of hydrogen. If the equivalent weight of
weight will be : Zn is 32.6, what is the equivalent weight of Ca:-
(1) 50 (2) 100 (3) 25 (4) 125 (1) 32 (2) 40
W W (1) 10 (2) 20
(1) (2) (3) 60 (4) 128
2 3 MC0070 (3) 40 (4) 5
MC0079
(3) W (4) 3W 65. 0.126 g of an acid requires 20 mL of 0.1 N MC0090
MC0062 72. 2.8 g of iron displaces 3.2 g of copper from a
NaOH for complete neutralisation. Equivalent 79. 74.5 g of a metallic chloride contains 35.5 g of
solution of copper sulphate. If the equivalent
weight of the acid is – mass of iron is 28, then equivalent mass of chlorine. The equivalent mass of the metal is –
58. A, E, M and n are the atomic weight, equivalent
weight, molecular weight and valency of an (1) 45 (2) 53 (3) 40 (4) 63 copper will be – (1) 19.5 (2) 35.5
element. The correct relation is : MC0071 (1) 16 (2) 32 (3) 39.0 (4) 78.0

M (3) 48 (4) 64 MC0091

(1) A = E × n (2) A = 66. 2g of a base whose equivalent weight is 40 reacts
E MC0082 QUESTIONS BASED ON CALCULATION OF
with 3 g of an acid. The equivalent weight of the

®
M ATOMIC WEIGHTS AND MOLECULAR WEIGHTS
(3) A = (4) M = A × n acid is : 73. If m1 g of a metal A displaces m2 g of another
n metal B from its salt solution and if their
(1) 40 (2) 60 80. The equivalent weight of a metal is 4. If metal
MC0063 equivalent weight are E2 and E1 respectively then chloride has a vapour density of 59.25. Then the
(3) 10 (4) 80 the equivalent weight of A can be expressed by:- valency of metal is –
59. Sulphur forms two chlorides S2Cl2 and SCl2. The MC0072 m m (1) 4 (2) 3
equivalent mass of sulphur in SCl2 is 16. The (1) 1 × E2 (2) 2 × E2
m2 m1 (3) 2 (4) 1
equivalent weight of sulphur in S2Cl2 is - 67. Equivalent weight of a divalent metal is 24. The
m m MC0092
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 32 (4) 64 volume of hydrogen liberated at STP by 12 g of (3) 1 × E1 (4) 2 × E1
m2 m1 –1 –1
MC0064 the same metal when added to excess of an acid 81. Specific heat of a solid element is 0.1 Cal g °C
MC0084 and its equivalent weight is 31.8. Its exact atomic
solution is -
60. If equivalent weight of S in SO2 is 8 then weight is -
(1) 2.8 litres (2) 5.6 litres 74. If 2.4 g of a metal displaces 1.12 L hydrogen at
equivalent weight of S in SO3 is - normal temperature and pressure. Equivalent (1) 31.8 (2) 63.6
(3) 11.2 litres (4) 22.4 litres (3) 318 (4) 95.4
8×2 8×3 weight of metal would be:-
(1) (2) MC0073 MC0094
3 2 (1) 12 (2) 24
2×3 68. 0.84 g of a metal carbonate reacts exactly with (3) 1.2 × 11.2 (4) 1.2 ÷ 11.2 82. The specific heat of an element is 0.214 Cal g–1 °C–1.
(3) 8 × 2 × 3 (4)
8 40 mL of N/2 H2SO4. The equivalent weight of MC0086 The approximate atomic weight is -
MC0065 the metal carbonate is - (1) 0.6 (2) 12
75. 45 g of acid of molecular weight 90 neutralised
(1) 84 (2) 64 (3) 30 (4) 65
61. Which property of an element is not variable : by 200 mL of 5 N caustic potash. The basicity of
MC0095
(3) 42 (4) 32 the acid is :-
(1) Valency (2) Atomic weight
MC0074 (1) 1 (2) 2 83. A metal M forms a sulphate which is
(3) Equivalent weight (4) None
(3) 3 (4) None isomorphous with MgSO4.7H2O. If 0.6538 g of
MC0066 69. 1.0 g of a metal combines with 8.89 g of metal M displaced 2.16 g of silver from silver
MC0087
Bromine. Equivalent weight of the metal is nearly : nitrate solution, then the atomic weight of the
62. One g equivalent of a substance is present in - 76. The weights of two elements which combine with metal M is
(at.wt. of Br = 80)
one another are in the ratio of their :– (1) 32.61 (2) 56.82
(1) 0.25 mol of O2 (2) 0.5 mol of O2
(1) 8 (2) 9 (3) 65.38 (4) 74.58
(3) 1.00 mol of O2 (4) 8.00 mol of O2 (1) Atomic weight (2) Molecular weight
(3) 10 (4) 7 MC0096
MC0067 (3) Equivalent weight (4) None
MC0075 MC0088 84. The carbonate of a metal is isomorphous with
63. 0.45 g of acid (molecular wt. = 90) was exactly MgCO3 and contains 6.091% of carbon. Atomic
70. 0.84 g of metal hydride contains 0.04 g of 77. The oxide of a metal has 32% oxygen. Its
neutralised by 20 mL of 0.5 N NaOH. Basicity weight of the metal is nearly -
of the acid is - hydrogen. The equivalent wt. of the metal is ..... equivalent weight would be:- (1) 48 (2) 68.5
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 80 (2) 40 (3) 20 (4) 60 (1) 34 (2) 32 (3) 17 (4) 16 (3) 137 (4) 120
MC0069 MC0077 MC0089 MC0097

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85. 71 g of chlorine combines with a metal giving 94. In Victor Mayer's method, 0.2 g of a volatile 103. In the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2 NH3, ratio by 108. The empirical formula of an organic compound
111 g of its chloride. The chloride is isomorphous compound on volatilisation gave 56 mL of vapour containing carbon and hydrogen is CH2. The mass
volume of N2, H2 and NH3 is 1 : 3 : 2. This
with MgCl2.6H2O. The atomic mass of the metal at STP. Its molecular weight is -
illustrates law of - of one litre of this organic gas is exactly equal to
is:-
(1) 40 (2) 60 (3) 80 (4) 120 that of one litre of N2 at same temperature and
(1) 20 (2) 30 (3) 40 (4) 69 (1) Definite proportion
MC0107 pressure. Therefore, the molecular formula of the
MC0098
(2) Multiple proportion organic gas is –
95. 510 mg of a liquid on vapourisation in
86. The atomic weight of a metal (M) is 27 and its (3) Law of conservation of mass
Victor Mayer's apparatus displaces 67.2 cc of dry (1) C2H4 (2) C3H6
equivalent weight is 9, the formula of its chloride
air (at NTP). The molecular weight of liquid is - (4) Gaseous volumes (3) C6H12 (4) C4H8
will be :-
(1) MCl (2) MCl2 (1) 130 (2) 17 (3) 1700 (4) 170 MC0116 MC0121
(3) M3Cl (4) MCl3 MC0108
MC0099 104. Different proportions of oxygen in the various 109. Four one litre flasks are seperately filled with the
96. 5 L of gas at STP weighs 6.25 g. What is its
oxides of nitrogen prove the law of - gases hydrogen, helium, oxygen and ozone at
87. The chloride of a metal contains 71% chlorine by gram molecular weight ?
(1) 1.25 (2) 14 (3) 28 (4) 56 (1) Equivalent proportion same room temperature and pressure. The ratio
weight. If vapour density of metal chloride is 50,

®
the atomic weight of the metal will be :- (2) Multiple proportion of total number of atoms of these gases present
MC0109
(1) 29 (2) 58 (3) 35.5 (4) 71 in the different flasks would be -
(3) Constant proportion
MC0100 97. 0.44 g of a colourless oxide of nitrogen occupies
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 3
224 mL at STP. The compound is - (4) Conservation of matter
–1
88. The specific heat of a metal M is 0.25 Cal g °C .
–1
(1) N2O (2) NO (3) N2O4 (4) NO2 (3) 2 : 1 : 2 : 3 (4) 2 : 1 : 3 : 2
MC0117
Its equivalent weight is 12. What is its correct
atomic weight :– MC0110 MC0122
105. Oxygen combines with two isotopes of carbon
(1) 25.6 (2) 36 (3) 24 (4) 12 98. One litre of a certain gas weighs 1.16 g at STP. 12
C and
14
C to form two sample of carbon 110. A container of volume V, contains 0.28 g of N2
MC0101 The gas may be -
dioxide. The data illustrates - gas. If same volume of an unknown gas under
89.
–1
The density of air at STP is 0.001293 g ml . Its (1) C2H2 (2) CO (3) O2 (4) NH3
(1) Law of conservation of mass similar condition of temperature and pressure
vapour density is – MC0111 weighs 0.44 g, the molecular mass of the gas is
(2) Law of multiple proportions
(1) 143 (2) 14.3 (3) 1.43 (4) 0.143
99. Equivalent weight of bivalent metal is 32.7. (3) Law of gaseous volume (1) 22 (2) 44 (3) 66 (4) 88
MC0102
Molecular weight of its chloride is :–
90. Relative density of a volatile substance with (4) None of these MC0123
(1) 68.2 (2) 103.7 (3) 136.4 (4) 166.3
respect to CH4 is 4. Its molecular weight would MC0118
be – MC0112 111. When 100 g of ethylene polymerizes to
(1) 8 (2) 32 (3) 64 (4) 128 106. The law of conservation of mass holds good for polyethylene according to equation
100. The oxide of an element possess the molecular
MC0103 formula M2O3. If the equivalent mass of the metal all of the following except - nCH2 = CH2 → -(- CH2 - CH2 -)n-. The weight of
is 9, the molecular mass of the oxide will be – (1) All chemical reactions polyethylene produced will be:-
91. Vapour density of a gas is 16. The ratio of
specific heat at constant pressure to specific heat (1) 27 (2) 75 (3) 102 (4) 18 n
(2) Nuclear reactions (1) g (2) 100 g
at constant volume is 1.4, then its atomic weight 2
is - MC0113 (3) Endothermic reactions
QUESTIONS BASED ON LAWS OF 100
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 24 (4) 32 (4) Exothermic reactions (3) g (4) 100n g
CHEMICAL COMBINATION n
MC0104
MC0119
101. The law of multiple proportion was proposed by : MC0125
92. The weight of substance that displaces 22.4 L air
at NTP is : (1) Lavoisier (2) Dalton 107. Number of molecules in 100 mL of each of O2,
(3) Proust (4) Gaylussac 112. A chemical equation is balanced according to the
(1) Mol. wt. (2) At. wt. NH3 and CO2 at STP are –
law of –
(3) Eq. wt. (4) All MC0114 (1) in the order CO2 < O2 < NH3
(1) Multiple proportion
MC0105
102. Which one of the following pairs of compound (2) in the order NH3 < O2 < CO2
(2) Constant composition
93. 0.39 g of a liquid on vapourisation gave 112 mL illustrate the law of multiple proportions ? (3) the same
of vapour at STP. Its molecular weight is - (1) H2O, Na2O (2) MgO, Na2O (3) Gaseous volume
(4) NH3 = CO2 < O2
(1) 39 (2) 18.5 (3) 78 (4) 112 (3) Na2O, BaO (4) SnCl2, SnCl4 (4) Conservation of mass
MC0106 MC0115 MC0120 MC0127
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113. Two flasks A & B of equal capacity of volume
contain NH3 and SO2 gas respectively under EXERCISE-II (Previous Year Questions) AIPMT/NEET
similar conditions. Which flask has more number AIPMT 2009 7. 1.0 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g O2 in a
of moles:-
closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and
(1) A 1. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled by how much ?
(2) B in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water (At. wt. Mg = 24 ; O = 16)
(3) Both have same moles produced in this reaction will be :- (1) Mg, 0.16 g (2) O2, 0.16 g
(4) None (1) 1 mol (2) 2 mol (3) Mg, 0.44 g (4) O2, 0.28 g
MC0128 (3) 3 mol (4) 4 mol MC0139
MC0133 AIPMT 2015
AIPMT 2010 8. A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 gases in
the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the molar ratio
2. The number of atoms in 0.1 mol of a triatomic of the two gases in the mixture ?
gas is :- (NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1) (1) 4 : 1 (2) 16 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
22
(1) 1.800 × 10 (2) 6.026 × 1022

®
MC0140
(3) 1.806 × 1023 (4) 3.600 × 1023 Re-AIPMT 2015
MC0134 9. The number of water molecules is maximum in :-
AIPMT Mains 2011 (1) 18 g of water
(2) 18 mol of water
3. Which has the maximum number of molecules
(3) 18 molecules of water
among the following ? (4) 1.8 g of water
(1) 64 g SO2 (2) 44 g CO2 MC0141
(3) 48 g O3 (4) 8 g H2
10. If avogadro number NA, is changed from
MC0135 6.022 × 1023 mol–1 to 6.022 × 1020 mol–1, this
NEET UG 2013 would change :
(1) the ratio of chemical species to each other in
4. An excess of AgNO3 is added to 100 mL of a 0.01 M
a balanced equation
solution of dichlorotetraaquachromium(III) chloride. (2) the ratio of elements to each other in a
The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would compound
be :- (3) the definition of mass in units of grams
EXERCISE-I (Conceptual Questions) ANSWER KEY (1) 0.01 (2) 0.001 (3) 0.002 (4) 0.003 (4) the mass of one mole of carbon
MC0136 MC0142
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 11. 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample
AIPMT 2014
Ans. 4 4 4 3 1 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 1 4 1 decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 5. Equal masses of H2,O2 and methane have been and 8.0 g magnesium oxide. What will be the
Ans. 3 3 4 1 1 2 3 4 3 3 1 2 3 1 3 taken in a container of volume V at temeprature percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 27°C at identical conditions. The ratio of the sample ?
Ans. 4 3 1 2 2 4 4 2 1 3 3 3 3 3 2 volumes of gases H2 : O2 : CH4 would be : (Atomic weight of Mg = 24)
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 (1) 8 : 16 : 1 (2) 16 : 8 : 1 (1) 60 (2) 84 (3) 75 (4) 96
Ans. 4 3 4 2 4 3 3 2 3 3 4 2 1 3 1 (3) 16 : 1 : 2 (4) 8 : 1 : 2 MC0143
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 MC0137 NEET-II 2016
Ans. 2 1 2 3 4 2 2 3 2 3 1 2 3 2 2 12. Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 6. When 22.4 L of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 L of
two compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 mole
Ans. 3 3 2 3 2 2 3 3 3 3 4 1 3 2 3 Cl2(g) at S.T.P., the moles of HCl(g) formed is
of XY2 weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2
Que. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 equal to:-
weighs 9 g, the atomic weights of X and Y are
Ans. 2 1 3 3 4 3 1 1 3 3 2 4 4 2 4 (1) 1 mol of HCl (g) (2) 2 mol of HCl (g)
(1) 20, 30 (2) 30, 20
Que. 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 (3) 0.5 mol of HCl (g) (4) 1.5 mol of HCl (g)
(3) 40, 30 (4) 60, 40
Ans. 2 3 1 3 2 2 4 3 MC0138 MC0144

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NEET(UG) 2018 NEET (UG) 2021 NEET (UG) 2022 (OVERSEAS) Re-NEET (UG) 2022
–1
25. Match List-I with List-II : 26. The density of the solution is 2.15 g mL , then
13. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic 19. An organic comopound contains 78% (by wt.)
acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved List-I List-II mass of 2.5 mL solution in correct significant
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen.
(a) 4.48 litres of (i) 0.2 moles figures is
Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP The right option for the empirical formula of this
will be O2 at STP (1) 5375 × 10–3 g
compound is [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
HCOOH( ) → H2 SO4
H2 O( ) + CO(g) 22 23
(2) 5.4 g
(b) 12.022 × 10 (ii) 12.044 × 10
H2 C2 O4 () →
H2 SO4
H2 O( ) + CO(g) + CO2 (g) (1) CH (2) CH2
molecules molecules (3) 5.38 g
(1) 1.4 (2) 3.0 (3) 2.8 (4) 4.4 (3) CH3 (4) CH4
(4) 53.75 g
MC0146 MC0226 of H2O
MC0233
14. In which case is the number of molecules of NEET (UG) 2021 (Paper-2) (c) 96 g of O2 (iii) 6.4 g
water maximum? 20. An organic compound on analysis gave C = 54.5%,
(d) 88 g of CO2 (iv) 67.2 litres at STP
(1) 18 mL of water H = 9.1% by mass. Its empirical formula is
(2) 0.18 g of water (Given – Molar volume of a gas at
(3) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and (1) CHO2 (2) CH2O
STP = 22.4 L)
273 K

®
–3
(3) C2H4O (4) C3H4O
(4) 10 mol of water Choose the correct answer from the options
MC0227
MC0147
21. If 1 mL of water contains 20 drops then number given below :
NEET (UG) 2019 (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
of molecules in a drop of water is
15. The number of moles of hydrogen molecules (1) 6.023 × 10 23
(2) 1.673 × 10 21
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
required to produce 20 moles of ammonia
through Haber's process is :- (3) 1.344 × 1018 (4) 4.346 × 1020 (3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(1) 10 (2) 20 MC0228
(3) 30 (4) 40 (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
22. A sample of phosphorous trichloride (PCl3)
MC0192
MC0232
NEET (UG) (Odisha) 2019 contains 1.4 moles of the substance. How many

16. The volume occupied by 1.8 g of water vapour atoms are there in the sample?
at 374 °C and 1 bar pressure will be :-
–1 –1 (1) 4 (2) 5.6
[Use R = 0.083 bar L K mol ]
(1) 96.66 L (2) 55.87 L (3) 8.431 × 1023 (4) 3.372 × 1024
(3) 3.10 L (4) 5.37 L
MC0193 MC0229
NEET (UG) 2020 NEET (UG) 2022
17. Which one of the following has maximum 23. In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a
number of atoms? solute, there is
(1) 500 g of solvent
(1) 1g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
(2) 100 mL of solvent
(2) 1g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108] (3) 1000 g of solvent
(3) 1g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24] (4) 500 mL of solvent
(4) 1g of O2(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16] MC0230
24. What mass of 95% pure CaCO3 will be required
MC0224
NEET (UG) 2020 (COVID-19) to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution
18. One mole of carbon atom weighs 12 g, the according to the following reaction ?
number of atoms in it is equal to,
CaCO3(s)+ 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
(Mass of carbon – 12 is 1.9926 × 10–23 g) EXERCISE-II (Previous Year Questions) ANSWER KEY
[Calculate upto second place of decimal point]
(1) 1.2 × 1023 (2) 6.022 × 1022 Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
(1) 1.32 g (2) 3.65 g
(3) 12 × 10
22
(4) 6.022 × 1023 Ans. 4 3 4 2 3 1 1 1 2 4 2 3 3 1 3
(3) 9.50 g (4) 1.25 g Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
MC0225
MC0231 Ans. 4 1 4 3 3 2 4 1 1 1 2

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16. A gas mixture of 3 L of propane and butane on 23. What volume of oxygen gas (O2) measured at
EXERCISE-III (Analytical Questions) Master Your Understanding
complete combustion at 25°C produces 10 L of 0°C and 1 atm, is needed to burn completely 1L
1. Number of HCl molecules present in 10 mL of 8. 0.01 mol of iodoform (CHI3) reacts with Ag to CO2. Initial composition of the propane & of propane gas (C3H8) measured under the same
0.1 M solution is : produce a gas whose volume at NTP is butane in the gas mixture is – conditions:-
(1) 6.022 × 1023 (2) 6.023 × 1022 2CHI3 + 6Ag → C2H2 + 6AgI(s) (1) 66.67%, 33.33% (2) 33.33%, 66.67% (1) 5 L (2) 10 L
21 20
(3) 6.022 × 10 (4) 6.022 × 10 (1) 224 mL (2) 112 mL (3) 50%, 50% (4) 60%, 40% (3) 7 L (4) 6 L
MC0150 (3) 336 mL (4) None of these
MC0169 MC0129
MC0159
2. The volume of a gas at 0°C and 700 mm 17. The atomic mass of an element is 27. If valency 24. Volume occupied by one molecule of water
9. The minimum quantity in grams of H2S needed
pressure is 760 cc. The no. of molecules present is 3, the vapour density of the volatile chloride (density =1 gcm–3) is :-
to precipitate 63.5 g of Cu2+ will be nearly :
in this volume is will be:- (1) 3.0 × 10
–23
cm3 (2) 5.5 ×10–23 cm3
Cu + H2S → CuS + H2
+2

(1) 1.88 × 10
22
(2) 6.022 × 10
23
(1) 66.75 (2) 6.675 (3) 667.5 (4) 81 (3 9.0 × 10
–23
cm3 (4) 6.023 × 10–23 cm3
(1) 63.5 g (2) 31.75 g
(3) 18.8 × 1023 (4) 18.8 × 1022 MC0170 MC0130
(3) 34 g (4) 20 g
MC0151 MC0160 18. 1 L of a hydrocarbon weighs as much as 1 Lof 25. How many moles of lead (II) chloride will be
CO2 under similar conditions. Then the molecular

®
10. 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly formed from a reaction between 6.5 g of PbO
3. The number of moles of carbon dioxide which
heated yields a residue weighing – formula of the hydrocarbon is - and 3.2 g of HCl ? (Atomic wt. of Pb=207)
contain 8 g of oxygen is –
Ag2CO3 → 2Ag + CO2 + ½ O2 (1) C3H8 (2) C2H6 (1) 0.011 (2) 0.029
(1) 0.5 mole (2) 0.20 mole
(1) 2.16 g (2) 2.48 g (3) 2.32 g (4) 2.64 g (3) C2H4 (4) C3H6 (3) 0.044 (4) 0.333
(3) 0.40 mole (4) 0.25 mole
MC0161 MC0171 MC0131
MC0153
11. The volume of gas at NTP produced by 100 g of 19. There are two oxides of sulphur. They contain 26. The percentage of oxygen in ethanol is
4. If 224 mL of a triatomic gas has a mass of 1g at CaC2 with water is :- 50% and 60% of oxygen respectively by weight. (1) 13.13% (2) 34.73%
273 K and 1 atm pressure, then the mass of one CaC2 + 2H2O → Ca(OH)2 + C2H2 The weight of sulphur which combine with 1 g of (3) 60% (4) 75%
atom is – (1) 70 L (2) 35 L oxygen is in the ratio of -
MC0194
(1) 8.30 × 10–23 g (2) 2.08 × 10–23 g (3) 17.5 L (4) 22.4 L (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
27. Empirical formula of a compound is
(3) 5.53 × 10–23 g (4) 6.24 × 10–23 g MC0162 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
(1) Whole number ratio of various atoms present
12. Element 'A' reacts with oxygen to form a MC0172
MC0154 in compound.
compound A2O3. If 0.359 g of 'A' reacts to give 20. Perecentage composition of an organic compound (2) Contain exact number of different types of
5. The maximum number of molecules are present 0.559 g of the compound, then atomic weight of is as follows : atoms present in a molecule.
in 'A' will be :– C=10.06, H=0.84 , Cl=89.10 (3) Simplest whole number ratio of various
(1) 5 L of N2 gas at STP (1) 51 (2) 43.08 (3) 49.7 (4) 47.9
Which of the following corresponds to its molecular atoms present in a compound.
(2) 0·5 g of H2 gas MC0164 formula if the vapour density is 60.0 (4) None of these
(3) 10 g of O2 gas 13. CaCO3 is 90% pure. Volume of CO2 collected at
(1) CH2Cl2 (2) CHCl3 MC0195
(4) 15 L of H2 gas at STP STP when 10 g of CaCO3 is decomposed is -
(3) CH3Cl (4) None
(1) 2.016 L (2) 1.008 L 28. A compound contains 6.72% hydrogen,
MC0155 MC0175
(3) 10.08 L (4) 20.16 L 40% carbon and 53.28% oxygen, its molecular
MC0166 21. The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a –1
mass is 180.18 g mol then molecular formula
6. How many moles of magnesium phosphate,
particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio of of compound is :-
Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mol of oxygen 14. 50 g CaCO3 will react with ...... g of
number of molecules is : (1) C2H2O4 (2) C2H4O12
atoms? 20% pure HCl by weight .
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 3 : 16 (3) C6H6O12 (4) C6H12O6
(1) 2.5 × 10–2 (2) 0.02 (1) 36.5 g (2) 73 g
(3) 109.5 g (4) 182.5 g (3) 1 : 4 (4) 7 : 32 MC0196
(3) 3.125 × 10–2 (4) 1.25 × 10–2
MC0167 MC0176 29. When gases combine or are produced in a
MC0156
15. Two oxides of a metal contains 50% and 40% of 22. A gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion gives chemical reaction they do so in a simple ratio by
7. 22.4 L of water vapour at NTP, When condensed the metal respectively. The formula of the first 0.72 g of water and 3.08 g of CO2. The volume provided all gases are at same
to water occupies an approximate volume of - oxide is MO. Then the formula of the second empirical formula of the hydrocarbon is temperature and pressure. This law is known as -
(1) 18 L (2) 1 L oxide is (1) C2H4 (2) C3H4 (1) Dalton's Law (2) Gay Lussac's Law
(3) 1 mL (4) 18 mL (1) MO2 (2) M2O3 (3) M2O (4) M2O5 (3) C6H6 (4) C7H8 (3) Avogadro's Law (4) Law of Lavoisier
MC0158 MC0168 MC0177 MC0197

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30. Which of the following reactions is not correct 31. What will be molecular mass of glucose molecule?
EXERCISE-I (Conceptual Questions) Build Up Your Understanding
according to the law of conservation of mass? (1) 342 g
(1) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s) ALKANES
(2) 180 amu 7. O can not be converted to by :
(2) CH4(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O(g) 1
1. The order of reactivity of alkyl halides in Wurtz
(3) Mass exactly equal to of mass of one (1) Red P + HI
(3) 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s) 12th reaction is
(2) Wollf Kishner reduction
(4) P4(s) + 5O2(g) → P4O10(s) C-12 atom (1) R–I > R–Br > R–Cl (2) R–I < R–Br < R–Cl (3) Clemmensen reaction
(3) R–Br > R–I < R–Cl (4) R–I > R–Cl > R–Br (4) LiAlH4
MC0198 (4) Both (2) and (3)
HC0001 HC0010
MC0199
8. Which of the following reactions does not involve
2. Kolbe's electrolysis of a mixture of pot. a C–C bond formation
Propanoate and pot. 3-Methylbutanoate gives (1) Hydrolysis of a Grignard reagent
(1) Butane and isobutane (2) Combination of two alkyl free radicals
(2) Butane and 2,5–dimethylhexane (3) Corey-House synthesis of alkanes
(4) RNa + R–Br → R–R + NaBr

®
(3) Butane, 2,5-dimethylhexane and isohexane
(4) Butane and isohexane HC0012
HC0002 9. Which of the following reactions of methane is
incomplete combustion :-
Cu/523K /100atm.
3. The Corey-House alkane synthesis is carried out (1) 2CH4 + O2  → 2CH3OH
Mo2O3
by treating an alkyl halide with (2) CH4 + O2  → HCHO + H2O
(1) Lithium metal (3) CH4 + O2 → C(s) + 2H2O()
(2) Copper metal (4) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2(g) + 2H2O()
(3) Lithium metal followed by reaction with HC0016
cuprous iodide and then treating the product 10. Which is correct about Wurtz reaction ?
with an alkyl halide (a) It can proceed through free radical
(4) Cuprous iodide followed by reaction with alkyl mechanism
halide (b) Alkanes having even no. of C-atom can be
HC0003 prepared
(c) Sodium in Ammonia is used
4. Which of the following compound is not suitable
(d) Sodium in dry ether is used
to obtain from wurtz reaction ? (1) c, d (2) a, b, d
(1) ethane (2) butane (3) b,c (4) a, b, c, d
(3) isobutane (4) hexane HC0072
HC0005 Zn,
11. C2H5–Cl (A)
H2
5. When ethyl chloride and n-propyl chloride
Na H2/Pt
undergoes wurtz reaction which is not obtained (B) (C) or (D)
Dry ether
(1) n-butane (2) n-pentane
(3) n-hexane (4) isobutane The incorrect statement is :
HC0006 (1) (A) is C2H6 (2) (C) can be 1-butene
(3) (A) and (B) are alkane (4) (D) is ethene
EXERCISE-III (Analytical Questions) ANSWER KEY CH3 HC0073
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 6. CH3–CH–MgCl + CH3–C–OH → 'Q'; 12. Arrange the following in their boiling points.
Ans. 4 1 4 3 4 3 4 2 3 1 2 2 1 4 2 CH3 CH3 (i) n-butane (ii) iso-butane
Que. (iii) n-pentane (iv) iso-pentane
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 What is 'Q' ?
(v) neopentane
Ans. 1 1 1 4 2 4 4 1 1 2 2 3 4 2 2 (1) isobutane (2) isopropane
(1) iii > i > ii > iv > v (2) v > iv > ii > i > iii
Que. 31 (3) tert. butyl chloride (4) propane (3) iii > iv > v > i > ii (4) ii > i > v > iv > iii
Ans. 2 HC0009 HC0074
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O 19. Which of the following is not electrophilic 23. For the reaction :
28. →
Na
Liq.NH3 product will be :
addition reaction ? CH3
13. For CH3–C–ONa →
Electrolysis
(A) alkane HBr
CH3–CH–CH=CH2 → (A) (major) CH2 CH3
HO
Which is incorrect ? (1) Addition of H+/H2O on alkene 2 2

CH3 (1) C=C

(1) A is ethane HBr
(B) (major) H H
(2) (A) is formed at anode (2) Addition of dihydrogen on alkenes
(3) CO2 evolves at cathode The incorrect statement is : CH2 H
(3) Addition of halogen on alkenes (2) C=C
(4) pH near cathode increases during the process (1) A and B are chain isomers H CH3
(4) Addition of hydrogen halides on alkenes (2) A and B are position isomers
HC0075 H
HC0077 (3) A is 1-bromo-3-methyl butane
ALKENE (4) B is 2-bromo-2-methyl butane (3)
Br H CH3
14. Ozonolysis of 3–Methyl–1–butene gives a HC0081
20. HBr
CH3–CH=CH2 → CH3–CH–CH3 CH3
mixture of 24. For the reaction
(A) C=C
(1) Propanal and ethanal (4) H
+ H3C H
(2) Propanone and ethanal CH3–CH2–CH2–Br O
(3) 2–Methylpropanal and methanal C=CH–CH3 → (A) + (B)
3
HC0031
(B) Zn/H2O

®
(4) Butanone and methanal H3C
Products
HC0017 (a) The product A is major 29. To distinguish between propene and propyne,
(1) One of the product only show positive tollens
15. Oxidation of isobutylene with acidic potassium (b) Formation of A follows markovnikov rule the reagent would be -
test
permanganate gives (1) Bromine
(1) Acetone + CO2 (2) Acetic acid (c) Carbocation formed in A is less stable than (2) Both product shows positive tollen's test
(2) Alkaline KMnO4
(3) Acetic acid + CO2 (4) Acetic acid + acetone that formed in B (3) Both product shows positive haloform test
HC0019 (3) Ammonical silver nitrate
(d) Formation of B follows markovnikov rule (4) Both 1 & 3 are correct (4) Ozone
→ A → B+C
(i) O
16. CH3CH2CH2Br 
alc. KOH
∆
3
(ii) Zn, H2O HC0082 HC0032
The correct statements are :
In the above reaction A, B and C are given by 30. The most suitable reagent to differentiate ethyne
the set (1) c, d (2) a, b, c, d ALKYNES
and ethene is :
(1) Propylene, acetone, formaldehyde (1) Br2 in CCl4 (2) NaHCO3
(3) a, b (4) a, d 25. Which of the following compound will not give a
(2) Propene, ethanal, methanal
(3) Propyne, acetaldehyde, formaldehyde (3) NaOH (4) NaNH2
HC0078 precipitate with Tollen's reagent
(4) Propylene, propionaldehyde, formaldehyde HC0083
HC0021 21. For the reaction (1) ethyne (2) 1-butyne 31. For the reaction :
CH2=CH2 →
Br 2alc. KOH
(A) → NaNH
(B) → (C) 2 (3) 3-methyl-1-butyne (4) 1-pentene HBr
17. Which of the following alkenes on ozonolysis CCl4 CH3–C≡CH (A)
HC0028
give a mixture of ketones only? 2+ +
Hg /H
(a) CH3–CH=CH–CH3 The product (C) is : (B)
B ←  CH3–C≡CH 
BH /THF HgSO4 /H2SO4
→ A,
3 333 K
26. H2O2 / − OH
(b) CH3–CH–CH=CH2 (1) CH2=CH2 (2) CH2=CH Consider statements :-
CH3 Br A and B are Br
CH3 (1) CH3CH2CHO, CH3COCH3 (a) Product A is CH3–CH2–CH
(c) C (3) H–C≡C–H (4) CH2–CH3
CH3 Br (2) CH3COCH3,CH3 CH2CHO Br
CH3 Br
(d) (CH3)2C=C HC0079 (3) both are CH3COCH3
CH3 (b) Product A is CH3–C–CH3
22. An alkene A on ozonolysis gives a mixture of (4) CH3COCH3 , CH3 CH2 CH2 OH
(1) a and b (2) b and c
HC0029 Br
(3) b and d (4) c and d ethanal and pentan-3-one. The IUPAC name of
HC0025 (c) Product B is CH3–CH2–CH=O
→ A → B,
NH3 /NaNH2 Et Br
A is. 27. MeCH2C≡CH 
18. Which reaction will not happen at room (d) Product B is CH3–C–CH3
(1) 3-ethyl-3-pentene A and B are
temperature:
(1) MeCH2C≡CNa, MeCH2C≡C–Et O
(1) CH2=CH2 
H2 /Pt
→ CH3–CH3 (2) 3-ethylidene pentane
(2) MeCH2CH=CH2, MeCH2–CHEt–CH3 The correct statements are :
(2) CH2=CH2 
H2 /Pd
→ CH3–CH3
(3) 3-ethyl pent-2-ene (1) b, d (2) a, c
(3) CH2=CH2 
H2 /Ni
→ CH3–CH3 (3) MeCH2CH=CHNH2,MeCH2CH=CH–NHBr
(4) 1,1-diethyl prop-1-ene (3) only b (4) only a
(4) CH≡CH 
H2 /Pt
→ CH3–CH3 (4) MeCH2C≡C–NH2, MeC≡C–NH–Br HC0084
HC0076 HC0080 HC0030

169 170
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AROMATIC HYDROCARBONS 34. For the reaction :
EXERCISE-II (Previous Year Questions) AIPMT/NEET
CH=CH2
→
CH CH –CH –Cl
3 2
(A)
2
AIPMT 2007 Re-AIPMT 2015
AlCl3
Br2 KMnO4
32. A ←   → B; A and B Correct statement is :- 1. Reduction of aldehydes and ketones into 5. 2,3–Dimethyl–2–butene can be prepared by
(1) A is n-propyl benzene hydrocarbons using zinc amalgam and conc. HCl heating which of the following compounds with a
respectively are
(1) o-bromo styrene, benzoic acid (2) It is a friedel craft alkylation is called strong acid ?
(2) p-bromostyrene, benzaldehyde (3) A is iso propyl benzene (1) Cope reduction (1) (CH3)2C=CH–CH2–CH3
(3) m-bromostyrene, benzaldehyde (4) Both 2 & 3 (2) Dow reduction
(4) Styrene dibromide, benzoic acid AH0085 (2) (CH3)2CH–CH2–CH=CH2
HC0035 (3) Wollf-kishner reduction
35. For the reaction (3) (CH3)2CH–CH–CH=CH2
(4) Clemmensen reduction
33. The ozonolysis product of 1, 2-dimethyl benzene 6Cl2 CH3
(A) AH0039
AlCl3(excess)
is/are :- (4) (CH3)3C–CH=CH2
(1) Only CH3–C–C–CH3 Cl2(excess) 2. Which of the compounds with molecular formula
hv 500 K
(B) HC0045
C5H10 yields acetone on ozonolysis
O O (1) A is not aromatic

®
(1) 3-Methyl-1-butene 6. The oxidation of benzene by V2O5 in the
(2) CH3–C–C–H + CH3–C–C–CH3 (2) B is aromatic
(2) Cyclopentene presence of air produces :
O O OO (3) A is aromatic
(3) 2-Methyl-1-butene (1) benzoic acid (2) benzaldehyde
(3) H–C–C–H + CH3–C–C–CH3 (4) B is hexachlorobenzene
(3) benzoic anhydride (4) maleic anhydride
AH0086 (4) 2-Methyl-2-butene
O O O O HC0046
HC0040
(4) CH3C–CCH3 + HC–CH + CH3C–C–H
NEET(UG) 2018
AIPMT 2010
O O O O O O 7. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
HC0036 3. Liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to a
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
mixture of gasesous hydrocarbons by :-
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
(1) Hydrolysis
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
(2) Oxidation
atoms. (A) is
(3) Cracking
(1) CH≡CH (2) CH2=CH2
(4) Distillation under reduced pressure
(3) CH3–CH3 (4) CH4
HC0041 HC0049
AIPMT 2015 8. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following
4. A single compound of the structure :- reactions :
3Cl / ∆ Br /Fe Zn/HCl
CH3 CH3 C7H8 
2 → A 
2 → B 
→C
OHC C C The product 'C' is
C H C O (1) m–bromotoluene
H2 H2
(2) o–bromotoluene
is obtainable from ozonolysis of which of the (3) 3–bromo–2,4,6–trichlorotoluene
following cyclic compounds ? (4) p–bromotoluene
H3C CH3 AH0050
H3C
(1) (2) NEET(UG) 2019
EXERCISE-I (Conceptual Questions) ANSWER KEY H3C 9. The most suitable reagent for the following
conversion is :-
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 H3C CH3
CH3 H3C–C≡C–CH3 →
Ans. 1 3 3 3 4 4 4 1 3 2 4 3 3 3 1 H3C H H
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 (3) (4) CH3 cis-2-butene
Ans. 2 4 3 2 3 3 3 1 4 4 2 1 2 3 4 CH3 (1) Na/liquid NH3 (2) H2, Pd/C, quinoline
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 HC0044 (3) Zn/HCl (4) Hg2+/H+, H2O
Ans. 1 4 4 4 3 HC0087

171 172
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10. An alkene "A" on reaction with O3 and Zn–H2O 13. In the following reaction, NEET(UG) 2020 (COVID-19) 21. In the following reaction,
gives propanone and ethanal in equimolar ratio.
H3 C − C ≡ CH 
red hot
→ A,
iron tube 17. CH3CH2CH = CH2 
B2 H6
→ Z O
873 K H O ,OH – 2 2
Addition of HCl to alkene "A" gives "B" as the NO2
What is Z ? N
the number of sigma(σ) bonds present in the 
HNO3
→'x'
major product. The structure of product "B" is :- H2 SO4
H
product A is :- (1) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
CH3
(1) 21 (2) 9 the structure of major product 'X' is
(1) Cl–CH2–CH2–CH (2) CH3CH2CHCH3
(3) 24 (4) 18 O
CH3 OH (1)
AH0091 NO2
N
CH2Cl (3) CH3CH2CH2CHO
H
(2) H3C–CH2–CH–CH3 NEET(UG) 2020
(4) CH3CH2CH2CH3
14. Which of the following alkane cannot be made in O2N
CH3 HC0113 (2) O
good yield by Wurtz reaction ? NO2
(3) H3C–CH2–C–CH3 NEET(UG) 2021 N

®
Cl (1) n-Butane (2) n-Hexane H
18. The major product formed in
(3) 2,3-Dimethylbutane (4) n-Heptane
CH3 dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo O
HC0110 (3)
(4) H3C–CH–CH pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is
N
Cl CH3 15. Identify compound X in the following sequence based on ?
H NO2
HC0088 of reactions : (1) Saytzeff's Rule (2) Hund's Rule
(3) Hoffmann Rule (4) Huckel's Rule O
11. Among the following, the reaction that proceeds CH3 CHO
HC0114 (4) O2N N
through an electrophilic substitution is :
→
Cl /hv
2
X →
HO
2

NaOH, + ? H
⊕
373K
19. CH3CH2COO Na → CH3CH3
– +
Heat
(1) N2Cl →
Cu Cl 2 2
Cl + N2
AH0117
CCl3 Cl +Na2CO3.
22. Which of the following alcohols on dehydration
(2) + Cl2 →
AlCl 3
Cl + HCl Consider the above reaction and identify the
(1) (2) with conc. H2SO4 at 440 K will give propylene?
missing reagent/chemical.
(i) n-propyl alcohol
Cl Cl (1) B2H6 (2) Red Phosphorus
CH2Cl CHCl2 (ii) Isobutyl alcohol
(3) + Cl2 →
UV light
Cl Cl (3) CaO (4) DIBAL-H (iii) Isopropyl alcohol
(3) (4) (iv) n-butyl alcohol
Cl Cl HC0115
(1) (ii), (iii) (2) (i), (iii)
AH0111 NEET(UG) 2021 (Paper-2) (3) (i), (ii), (iii) (4) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) CH2OH + HCl →
heat CH2Cl + H2O
20. Rank the following compounds in decreasing HC0118
16. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal as one
AH0089 order of reactivity towards electrophilic aromatic
Ph Cl2+H2O
of the product. Its structure is : substitution reaction (ESR). C = CH2 ‘A’
23.
O CH3
NEET(UG) 2019 (ODISHA) CH2CH2CH3 CH=CH–CH3
O O Compound (A) is
12. The alkane that gives only one mono-chloro (1) (2)
Ph OH Ph Cl
product on chlorination with Cl2 in presence of N C C
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) CH2Cl (2)
diffused sunlight is :- CH3 CH3 CH2OH
CH2–CH2–CH3 CH2–CH=CH2
H
(1) 2,2-dimethylbutane
(3) (4) Ph CH2–Cl Ph CH2–OH
(2) neopentane (1) (c) > (a) > (b) > (d) C C
(3) Cl (4) H
(2) (c) > (a) > (d) > (b) CH3 CH3
(3) n-pentane
HC0112 (3) (d) > (c) > (b) > (a)
(4) Isopentane HC0119
(4) (a) > (c) > (d) > (b)
HC0090 AH0116

173 174
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24. If the following compound is treated with Pd/C 28. Match List-I with List-II : Re-NEET(UG) 2022 33. The products A and B in the following reaction
sequence are :
in excess of H2 gas, how many stereoisomers of List-I List-II 31. The decreasing order of boiling points of the
(i) HBr (i) SOCl2
the product will be obtained? (Compound) (Boiling Point in K) following alkanes is : Ph A B
(ii) Mg, dry ether (ii) CH3 - NH2
+
(a) (i) 300.9 (a) Heptane (iii) CO2, H3O
(b) butane O
(b)
(ii) 282.5 (c) 2-methylbutane
(1) 1 (2) 2 OH
(d) 2-methylpropane (1) A= ;
(e) hexane
(3) 3 (4) 4 (c) (iii) 309.1 O
Choose the correct answer from the options CH3
HC0120
B= N
given below : H
25. Which of the following gives white precipitate
(d) (iv) 341.9 (1) (a) > (c) > (e) > (d) > (b)
with ammoniacal AgNO3? OH
(2) (c) > (d) > (a) > (e) > (b) ;
(1) C2H6 (2) C3H4 (2) A=
Choose the correct answer from the options

®
(3) (a) > (e) > (b) > (c) > (d) O
(3) C3H8 (4) C4H10 H
given below : (4) (a) > (e) > (c) > (b) > (d) N
HC0121 (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) CH3
HC0127 B=
O
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
NEET(UG) 2022 32. The incorrect method for the synthesis of alkenes
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) OH ;
26. Compound X on reaction with O3 followed by is: (3) A= H
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
Zn/ H2O gives formaldehyde and 2-methyl (1) treatment of alkynes with Na in liquid NH3 N
HC0124 CH3
propanal as products. The compound X is : B=
29. The product formed in the following reaction (2) heating alkyl halides with alcoholic KOH
(1) 2-Methylbut-l-ene (3) treating alkyl halides in aqueous KOH solution
sequence is
(2) 2-Methylbut-2-ene (4) treating vicinal dihalides with Zn metal
CH3–CH2–CH=CH2 
→ (i) HBr,Benzoyl peroxide, heating
OH ;
(ii) Alcoholic KOH (4) A=
(3) Pent-2-ene HC0128
(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3 CH3
(4) 3-Methylbut-l-ene B= N
(2) CH3–CH2–CH=CH2 H
HC0122
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH HC0129
NEET(UG) 2022 (OVERSEAS)
(4) CH3–CH2–CH–CH3
27. The correct reaction among the following is
Br Br OH
(1) + Na
dry ether
→
HC0125
(2) 2CH3CH2Br Mg
→ CH3CH2CH2CH3 30. The compound obtained by addition of water to
dry ether

an alkyne having more than two carbons, in

(3) 2CH3CH2Br 
Na
Ethanol
→ CH3CH2CH2CH3
presence of HgSO4 and dilute H2SO4 at 333 K is
Br (1) an aldehyde
(4) CH3CH2Br + 2 → Na
dry ether
(2) an alcohol
CH2CH2 (3) a ketone EXERCISE-II (Previous Year Questions) ANSWER KEY
(4) a vicinal diol Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 4 3 4 4 4 4 1 2 3 2 2 1 4 4
AH0123 HC0126
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 1 1 3 2 2 2 1 3 2 4 1 2 2 3
Que. 31 32 33
Ans. 4 3 2
175 176
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EXERCISE-III (Analytical Questions) Master Your Understanding EXERCISE-I (Conceptual Questions) Build Up Your Understanding
4. For the reaction given :-
BIOMOLECULES
1. →
Br
2
A →
alc. KOH
B; COOH 6. Which functional group participates in disulphide
NaOH 1. The nitrogenous base having two possible
(A) bond formation in proteins ?
What is the structure of B CaO, ∆ hydrogen bonding sites is –
(1) Thioether (2) Thiol
Br NaOH Electrolysis (1) Thymine (2) Cytosine
(1) (2) (B) (C) (3) Thioester (4) Thiolactone
Which is incorrect ? (3) Guanine (4) None BM0008
Br
(3) (4) (1) A is BM0001
7. The cell membranes are mainly composed of –
HD0057 2. The correct statement in respect of protein
(1) Phospholipids (2) Proteins
(2) C is haemoglobin is that it – (3) Fats (4) Carbohydrates
2. Which of the following is maximum reactive
towards NBS (1) Maintains blood sugar level BM0009
(1) PhCH3 (3) C is (2) Acts as an oxygen carrier in the blood
(2) Ph CH2–CH3 8. Which is simplest amino acid ?
COONa (3) Forms antibodies and offers resistance to
(3) PhCH2–CH=CH2 (1) Alanine (2) Asparagine

®
(4) Ph–CH–CH=CH2 (4) B is diseases
(3) Glycine (4) Tyrosine
(4) acts as a catalyst for biological reactions
CH3 HC0093 BM0010
HC0058 40% H2SO4 X (y) BM0002
5. CH3–C≡C–H [Intermediate] Isomerism
Z 9. Which of the following biomolecules is insoluble
3. Which of the following is not carcinogenic ? 1% HgSO4
3. The hormone that helps in the conversion of in water ?
Identify X, Y and Z
(1) (2) X Y Z glucose to glycogen is – (1) α–Keratin (2) Haemoglobin
(1) Prop-1-en-2-ol Metamerism Acetone (1) Bile acids (2) Adrenaline (3) Ribonuclease (4) Adenine
(2) Prop-1-en-1-ol Tautomerism Propionaldehyde (3) Insulin (4) Cortisone
(3) Prop-2-en-2-ol Geometrical Acetone BM0011
isomerism BM0004
(4) Prop-1-en-2-ol Tautomerism Acetone 10. The presence or absence of hydroxy group on
(3) (4) 4. The helical structure of protein is stabilized by – which carbon atom of sugar differentiates RNA
HC0094
(1) Hydrogen bonds (2) ether bonds and DNA?
rd st nd
(3) peptide bonds (4) dipeptide bonds (1) 3 (2) 4th (3) 1 (4) 2
HC0092
BM0005 BM0013

11. The change in the optical rotation of freshly

5. Which of the following structures represents the
prepared solution of glucose is known as :-
peptide chain ?
(1) tautomerism (2) racemisation
H H (3) specific rotation (4) mutarotation
(1) N C C C C N C C C BM0014
O 12. Which one of the following bases is not present
H H H O in DNA ?
(2) N C C N C C N C C (1) Cytosine (2) Thymine
(3) Quinoline (4) Adenine
O O
BM0016
H O H
13. Lysine; H2N–(CH2)4–CH–COOH is :-
(3) N C C C N C C N C C C
H O NH2
(1) α-Amino acid
H O
(2) γ-amino acid
(4) N C N C NH C NH
EXERCISE-III (Analytical Questions) ANSWER KEY (3) Amino acid synthesised
O H (4) β-Amino acid
Que. 1 2 3 4 5
BM0007 BM0017
Ans. 4 4 4 3 4

177 162
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14. In fibrous protein, polypeptide chains are held 22. Cellulose can not be tested by followings – 30. The example of globular protein is 38. Which of the following carbohydrates are
toegether by :- (1) Fehling's solution (2) Tollen's reagent (1) Silk (2) Collagen branched polymer of glucose ?
(1) H-bond (3) Both of these (4) None of these (3) Haemoglobin (4) All of these (1) Glycogen (2) Amylopectin
(2) Disulphide linkage BM0026 BM0034 (3) Cellulose (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Electrostatic forces attraction 31. If a native protein is subjected to physical or BM0042
23. On hydrolysis of proteins, the product is/are –
(4) 1 and 2 both chemical treatment which may disrupt its various 39. Vitamin K
(1) Amino acids (2) Peptides forms without affecting its primary structure, are
BM0018 (1) Is phylloquinone
(3) Enzymes (4) 1 & 2 both called –
15. Which is correct in following ? (2) Soluble in oils and fats
BM0027 (1) Inactive protein
(1) Monosaccharides also known as sugars (3) Deficiency lenthens the blood clotting
(2) Denatured protein
24. Which of the following do not have hemiacetal (4) All of these
(2) Polysaccharides are non sugars (3) Both of these
group ? BM0043
(3) Maltose and Lactose are reducing sugar (4) None of these
(1) Fructose (2) Maltose 40. Which of the following is not an amino acid ?
(4) All of these BM0035
(3) Sucrose (4) Glucose (1) Histidine (2) Benzidine
BM0019 32. The coagulation of egg protein while boiling of

®
BM0028 (3) Alanine (4) Proline
16. Structure of glycogen is similar to :- egg is called –
(1) Reversible protein denaturation BM0044
25. In amino acids, more number of amino than
(1) Alylose (2) Amylopectin 41. Vitamin C is called :
carboxyl groups makes it – (2) Irreversible protein denaturation
(3) Cellulose (4) Glucose (1) Antisterility (2) Antiscurvy
(1) acidic (2) Basic (3) Renaturation
BM0020 (4) None of these (3) both of these (4) None of these
(3) Neutral (4) None of these
17. Which of the following gives osazone different BM0029 BM0036 BM0045
from the other three ? 33. An enzyme molecule may contain protein and 42. Reducing sugars are one which :
(1) Glucose (2) Mannose 26. Which amino acids are called non essential ? non-protein part. Non-protein part is known as:- (1) reduce fehling's solutions
(3) Galactose (4) Fructose (1) those which can be synthesized in the body. (1) Holoenzyme (2) not reduce tollen's reagent
BM0021 (2) those which have more amino groups as (2) Cofactor (3) Have bonded aldehydic or ketonic groups
compared to carboxyl groups (3) Inverted enzyme
18. Anomers of glucose (α-form & β-form) are differ (4) All of these
(3) those which have equal number of amino acid (4) None of these
in the stereochemistry at which carbon – BM0046
and carboxyl groups BM0037
(1) C-1 (2) C-2 43. Multiple deficiencies caused by lack of more than
(4) None of these 34. Cofactor which gets attached to the enzyme at
(3) C-3 (4) All of these one vitamin are more common in human beings.
BM0030 the time of reaction are known as
BM0022 This condition of vitamin deficiency is known as
(1) Coenzymes (2) Apoenzyme
27. Which of the following is not essential amino (1) avitaminosis
19. Sucrose in presence of invertase on hydrolysis (3) Prothetic group (4) None of these
acid ? (2) xerophthalmia
gave – BM0038
(1) Serine (2) Lysine (3) convulsions
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose 35. Mainly DNA is localized in –
(3) Threonine (4) Tryptophan (4) None of these
(3 Ethyl alcohol (4) 1 & 2 both (1) Cytoplasm (2) Nucleus
BM0031 BM0047
BM0023 (3) Mitochondria (4) Chloroplasts
28. In acidic & alkaline solution amino acids exists as 44. Which vitamin is synthesize in human body from
20. Which of the following B group vitamins can be BM0039
a– carotene ?
stored in our body ? 36. RNA contains following pyrimidine bases –
(1) Positive ion & negative ion respectively (1) Vitamin-A (2) Vitamin-C
(1) Vitamin B1 (2) Vitamin B2 (a) Thymine (b) Uracil
(2) Negative ion & positive ions respectively (3) Vitamin-K (4) All of these
(3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin B12
(3) Neutral in both medium (c) Cytosine (d) Adenine BM0048
BM0024
21. Which of the following are polysaccharides ? (4) None of these (1) b & c (2) a, b, c 45. Which of the following is correct about
(a) Starch (b) cellulose BM0032 (3) a, b, d (4) All of these H–bonding in nucleotide ?
29. In which of following shapes are found in tertiary BM0040 (1) A–T G–C
(c) dextrins (d) glycogen
structure of proteins ? 37. DNA molecules can duplicate themselves-called – (2) A–G T–C
(1) a, b & c (2) a, b, d
(1) Fibrous (2) Globular (1) Replication (2) Translation (3) G–T A–C
(3) a & c (4) a,b, c, d
(3) Both of these (4) None of these (3) Transcription (4) None of these (4) A–A T–T
BM0025
BM0033 BM0041 BM0049
163 164
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POLYMER 54. Monomer unit of Nylon-6,6 is/are - 62. Drugs which interfere with natural action of 71. Which is not Bactericidal antibiotic ?
(1) Adipic acid histamine by competing with histamine are (1) Penicillin (2) Aminoglycosides
46. Which of the following is monomer unit of
(2) 1,4-butamethylene diamine called _________ (3) Ofloxine (4) Erythromycine
polystyrene ?
(1) –CH2–CH– (2) –CF2–CF2– (3) Caprolactum (1) Antidepressant (2) Antihistamine CE0204
(4) All of these (3) Antimicrobial (4) Antipyretic 72. Which is not Bacteriostatic antibiotic ?
CN
PL0191 CE0195
(3) –CH2–CH– (4) –CH–CH2– 55. Which of following polymer is used as glass
(1) Erythromycin (2) Penicillin
C6H5 63. Barbituric acid and its derivative constitutes an (3) Tetracycline (4) Chloromphenicol
Cl reinforcing materials in safety helmets ?
important class of CE0205
PL0050 (1) Terylene (2) Teflon
(3) Terephthalic acid (4) Ethylene glycol (1) Narcotic analgesic (2) Antiallergic 73. Which broad spectrum antibiotic is given orally in
47. Weakest intermolecular forces are present in :-
(1) Neoprene (2) Terylene PL0192 (3) Tranquilizers (4) Antimicrobial case of typhoid and dysentery ?
(3) Polystyrene (4) Bakelite 56. Polymer used in radio and television cabinets- CE0196 (1) Ampicillin (2) Amoxycilline
PL0051 (1) PVC (2) Polystyrene 64. Drugs bind to a site (other than enzyme's active (3) Ofloxacin (4) Chloromphenicol
48. Thermosetting polymer, Bakelite is formed by (3) Polypropene (4) Glyptal site). This site is named is. CE0206
the reaction of phenol with :- PL0193 (1) Competitive site (2) Allosteric site

®
74. Find incorrect match
(1) CH3CH2CHO (2) CH3CHO
CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE (3) Non-active site (4) Super active site Drug Category
(3) HCHO (4) HCOOH
CE0197 (1) Chlordiazepoxide Tranquilizer
PL0052 57. Aspirin is also known as –
49. Which one is classified as a condensation (1) Methyl salicyclic acid (2) acetyl salicylate 65. Name of drug that bind to the receptor site and (2) Chloramphenicol Antibiotic
polymer ? (3) Methyl salicylate (4) Acetyl salicylic acid inhibit its natural function (3) Veronal Antiseptic
(1) Teflon (2) Acrylonitrile CE0056 (1) Antagonist (4) Sulphanilamide Antibiotic
(3) Dacron (4) Neoprene (2) Antireceptor CE0207
58. Paracetamol is :-
PL0053
(1) Analgesic (2) Antipyretic (3) Antacid 75. Find incorrect match
50. Novolac is a :
(1) linear polymer of urea and formaldehyde (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Antiseptic (4) Non-additive analgesic Drug Treatment of
(2) crosslink polymer of urea and formaldehyde CE0057 CE0198 (1) Salvarsan Syphilis
(3) linear polymer of phenol and formaldehyde COOH 66. First popular antacid drug was ________ (2) Chloramphenicol Typhoid
OCOCH3 (3) Morphine Cardiac pain
(4) crosslink polymer of phenol and formaldehyde (1) Cimetidine (2) Ranitidine
59. is used as
PL0054 (3) Zantac (4) Equanil (4) Mixture of Mg(OH)2 Analgesic
51. Which of the following is not a semisynthetic (1) Antiseptic (2) Analgesic CE0199 and Al(OH)3
polymer ? (3) Antibiotic (4) Micro organism CE0208
67. Which chemical is responsible for mood change?
(1) cis-polyisoprene (2) cellulose nitrate 76. Which artificial sweetener is of great value to
CE0058
(3) cellulose acetate (4) valcanised rubber (1) Noradrenaline (2) Dimetapp
60. Which among the following is a tranquilizer ? diabetic person ?
PL0055 (3) Seldane (4) All
(1) Equanil (2) promethazine (1) Aspartame (2) Saccharin
52. Branched chain polymer is- CE0200
(3) Omeprazole (4) Cimetidine (3) Sucrose (4) Alitame
(1) High density polythene 68. Which is not an example of tranquilizer ? CE0209
CC0059
(2) Low density polythene (1) Iproniazid (2) Phenelzine 77. Which is mild tranquilizer used in controlling
(3) Poly vinyl chloride 61. Which is incorrect statement ?
(3) Ofloxacin (4) Barbiturates depression and hypertension ?
(4) Bakelite (1) Drugs are chemicals of low molecular masses (1) Meprobamate (2) Norethindrone
CE0201
PL0189 (100-500 µ) (3) Ethynylestradiol (4) Terpineol
69. Morphine is used in
53. Mechanical properties like tensile strength, (2) When drugs interact with macromolecular CE0210
elasticity, toughness etc, are governed by target and produce a biological responce, (1) Cardiac pain (2) Terminal cancer
78. 0.2% solution of phenol and 0.2-0.4 ppm
intermolecular forces. These intermolecular they are called as potential poisons (3) Child birth (4) All chlorine in aqueous solution respectively behave
forces are - CE0202 as.
(3) Use of chemicals for threrapeutic effect is
(1) Hydrogen bond 70. The first effective antibacterial agent discovered
called chemotherapy (1) Antiseptic, Disinfectant
(2) Vander waals force by Ehrlich
(4) Medicines are used in diagnosis, prevention (2) Disinfectant, Antiseptic
(3) Both of these (1) Prontosil (2) Azo dye
and treatment of diseases (3) Disinfectant, Antacid
(4) None of these (3) Salvarsan (4) Penicillin
CE0194 (4) Antiseptic, Antacid
PL0190
CE0203 CE0211

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79. The first popular artificial sweetening agent is. 85. Which enhance lathering property of soap ? EXERCISE-II (Previous Year Questions) AIPMT/NEET
(1) Saccharin (2) Asparfame (1) Sodium carbonate
(3) Alitame (4) Sucralose (2) Sodium rosinate AIPMT 2006 8. Which of the following statement is not true ?
CE0212 (1) Natural rubber has the trans-configuration at
(3) Sodium stearate 1. Which one of the following is a peptide
80. Which is stable at cooking temperature & doesn’t (4) Trisodium phosphate hormone ? every double bond.
provide calories ? CE0218 (1) Glucagon (2) Testosterone (2) Buna-S is a copolymer of butadiene and
(1) Aspartame (2) Saccharin (3) Thyroxin (4) Adrenaline styrene.
86. To make soft soap, saponification contain.
(3) Sucralose (4) Alitame BM0060 (3) Natural rubber is a 1, 4-polymer of isoprene.
(1) NaOH (2) KOH
CE0213 2. During the process of digestion, the proteins (4) In vulcanization, the formation of sulphur
(3) Glycesol (4) Glycol present in food materials are hydrolysed to
81. Highest sweetness value found in bridges between different chains make rubber
CE0219 amino acids. The two enzymes involved in the
(1) Aspartame (2) Alitame process – harder and stronger.
87. Hair conditioners contain which kind of
(3) Saccharin (4) Sucralose detergent. Enzyme (A) Enzyme (B) PL0071
Proteins→ Polypeptides →
CE0214
(1) Cationic (2) Anionic Amino acids, are respectively –
82. Which sweetening agent is used in soft drinks ? 9. Green chemistry means such reaction which :
(3) Non ionic (4) All (1) Amylase and Maltase
(1) reduce the use and production of hazardous

®
(1) Aspartame (2) Saccharin CE0220 (2) Diastase and Lipase
(3) Sucralose (4) Alitame (3) Pepsin and Trypsin chemicals.
88. Which is used as food preservatives ?
CE0215 (4) Invertase and Zymase (2) are related to the depletion of ozone layer
(1) NaCl (2) Sugar BM0061 (3) study the reaction in plants
83. Which is unstable at cooking temperature ? (3) Vegetable oil (4) All (4) produce colour during reactions
(1) Aspartame (2) Alitame CE0221 AIPMT 2007 CE0072
(3) Saccharin (4) All 89. Which is added to soap to impart antiseptic
CE0216 3. Which one of the following vitamins is water– AIPMT 2009
properties ?
soluble ?
84. Soap are sodium or potassium salt of fatty acid (1) Bithionol (2) Soframycin 10. Which one of the following is employed as a
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B
unlike. (3) Glycol (4) Ethanol tranquilizer ?
(3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin K
(1) Palmitic acid (2) Oleic acid CE0222 BM0066 (1) Chlorpheninamine (2) Equanil
(3) 1 & 2 (4) Maleic acid (3) Naproxen (4) Tetracycline
CE0217 4. RNA and DNA are chiral molecules, their
CE0073
chirality is due to –
(1) D–sugar Component 11. Structures of some common polymers are given.
(2) L–sugar component
Which one is not correctly presented ?
(3) Chiral bases
(4) Chiral phosphate ester units (1) Nylon 66 [ NH(CH2)6NHCO(CH2)4 – CO –]n
BM0067 (2) Teflon ( CF2 – CF2 – )n
5. Which one of the following polymers is prepared
(3) Neoprene –CH2–C=CH–CH2–CH2–
by condensation polymerization ?
(1) Styrene (2) Nylon–66 Cl n
(3) Teflon (4) Rubber
(4) Terylene – OC COOCH2–CH2–O –
PL0068 n
EXERCISE-I (Conceptual Questions) ANSWER KEY
AIPMT 2008 PL0074
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 3 1 2 2 1 3 1 4 4 3 1 4 4 6. In DNA, the complimentary bases are : 12. The segment of DNA which acts as the
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 (1) Adenine and thymine ; guanine and uracil instrumental manual for the synthesis of the
(2) Adenine and guanine ; thymine and cytosine protein is :-
Ans. 2 3 1 4 4 4 3 4 3 2 1 1 1 3 3
(3) Uracil and adenine ; cytosine and guanine (1) Nucleoside (2) Nucleotide
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 (4) Adenine and thymine ; guanine and cytosine (3) Ribose (4) Gene
Ans. 2 2 2 1 2 1 1 4 4 2 2 1 1 1 1
BM0069 BM0075
Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 1 3 3 3 1 2 3 1 1 2 4 3 2 1 7. Which one of the following is an amine 13. Which of the following hormones contains
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 hormone ? iodine ?
Ans. 2 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 4 1 4 2 4 3 4 (1) Oxypurin (2) Insulin
(1) Thyroxine (2) Insulin
(3) Progesterone (4) Thyroxine
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 (3) Testosterone (4) Adrenaline
BM0070
Ans. 2 1 1 1 3 2 1 1 4 2 2 1 4 1 BM0076

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AIPMT 2010 AIPMT 2014
20. Which of the following one is classified as 26. Which of the following statements is false?
14. Which one of the following is employed as a 32. Artificial sweetner which is stable under cold
polyester polymer ? (1) The repeat unit in natural rubber is isoprene
tranquilizer drug ? conditions only is :-
(1) Mifepristone (2) Promethazine (1) Terylene (2) Bakelite (2) Both starch and cellulose are polymers of
(3) Valium (4) Naproxen (1) Saccharine (2) Sucralose
(3) Malamine (4) Nylon-66 glucose (3) Aspartame (4) Alitame
CE0077 PL0085
(3) Artificial silk is derived from cellulose CE0100
15. Which one of the following does not exhibit the AIPMT Mains 2011
(4) Nylon-66 is an example of elastomer 33. D (+) glucose reacts with hydroxylamine and
phenomenon of mutarotation ?
(1) (–) Fructose (2) (+) Sucrose 21. Which of the following is not a fat soluble PL0093 yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime
(3) (+) Lactose (4) (+) Maltose vitamin ? would be :
AIPMT Mains 2012
BM0078 (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B complex CH = NOH CH = NOH
27. Which one of the following sets forms the
(3) Vitamin D (4) Vitamin E biodegradable polymer ? HO – C – H
16. Which of the following structures represents H – C – OH
Neoprene polymer ? BM0086 (1) HO–CH2–CH2–OH & HOOC COOH HO – C – H HO – C – H
–( CH–CH2–)n –( CH2–C=CH–CH2–)n (1) (2)
(1) (2) 22. Which of the following statements about (2) CH=CH2 and CH2=CH–CH=CH2 HO – C – H H – C – OH

®
C6H5 Cl 'Denaturation" given below are correct ? H – C – OH
H – C – OH
CN (3) CH2=CH–CN and CH2=CH–CH=CH2
Cl Statements
(3) (4) CH2OH CH2OH
–( CH2–CH –)n –( CH2–CH –)n (a) Denaturation of proteins causes loss of (4) H2N–CH2–COOH and H2N–(CH2)5–COOH
CH = NOH CH = NOH
PL0079 secondary and tertiary structures of the PL0094
protein HO – C – H H – C – OH
28. Chloroamphenicol is an :-
AIPMT Main 2010
(b) Denaturation leads to the conversion of (1) Antiseptic and disinfectant H – C – OH HO – C – H
(3) (4)
17. Fructose reduces Tollen's reagent due to :- double strand of DNA into single strand. (2) Antibiotic broad spectrum HO – C – H H – C – OH
(1) primary alcoholic group
(c) Denaturation affects primary structure which (3) Antifertility drug H – C – OH
(2) secondary alcoholic group H – C – OH
(3) enolisation of fructose followed by conversion gets distorted (4) Antihistaminic
CH2OH CH2OH
to aldehyde by base. Options : CE0095
(4) asymmetric carbons (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b) and (c) BM0101
NEET UG 2013
BM0080 (3) (a) and (c) (4) (a) and (b) 29. Nylon is an example of :- 34. Which one of the following is an example of a
AIPMT Pre. 2011
BM0087 (1) Polythene (2) Polyester thermosetting polymer?
18. Which one of the following statements is not true (3) Polysaccharide (4) Polyamide –( CH2–C=CH–CH2–)n
AIPMT Pre 2012 (1)
regarding (+) Lactose ? PL0096
(1) On hydrolysis (+) Lactose gives equal amount Cl
23. Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes the disease 30. Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or prevent
of D(+) glucose and D(+) galactose (1) Cheilosis (2) Sterility growth of microganisms. Identify which of the (2) –( CH2–CH –)n
(2) (+) Lactose is a β–glycoside formed by the (3) Convulsions (4) Beri-Beri following statements is not true :- Cl
union of a molecule of D(+) glucose and a BM0090 (1) Disinfectants harm the living tissues H H O O
molecule of D(+) galactose (2) A 0.2% solution of phenol is an antiseptic (3)
–( N–(CH2)6–N–C–(CH2)4–C –)n
(3) (+) Lactose is a reducing sugar and does not 24. Which one of the following sets of while 1% solution acts as a disinfectant
monosaccharides forms sucrose? (3) Chlorine and Iodine are used as strong OH OH
exhibit mutarotation CH2
disinfectants CH2
(4) (+) Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8–OH groups (1) β-D-Glucopyranose and α-D-fructofuranose (4)
(4) Dilute solutions of Boric acid and Hydrogen
BM0083 (2) α-D-Glucopyranose and β-D-fructopyranose n
Peroxide are strong antiseptics
19. Which one of the following is empolyed as (3) α-D-Galactopyranose and α-D-Glucopyranose PL0102
CE0097
Antihistamine ? (4) α-D-Glucopyranose and β-D-fructofuranose
BM0091 31. Which is the monomer of Neoprene in the 35. Which of the following organic compounds
(1) Chloramphenicol
following ? polymerizes to form the polyester Dacron?
(2) Diphenyl hydramine 25. Which one of the following is not a condensation
(1) CH2=CH–C≡CH (2) CH2=CH–CH=CH2 (1) Propylene and para HO – (C6H4) – OH
(3) Norethindrone polymer?
CH2=C–CH=CH2 CH2=C–CH=CH2 (2) Benzoic acid an ethanol
(4) Omeparazole (1) Dacron (2) Neoprene (3) (4) (3) Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol
CE0084 (3) Melamine (4) Glyptal CH3 Cl (4) Benzoic acid and para HO – (C6H4) – OH
PL0092 PL0098 PL0103

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Re-AIPMT 2015 NEET-II 2016 NEET(UG) 2018 56. The polymer that is used as a substitute for wool
36. Caprolactam is used for the manufacture of : 44. The central dogma of molecular genetics states in making commercial fibres is :-
(1) Terylene (2) Nylon - 6, 6 49. The difference between amylose and
that the genetic information flows from :- (1) Melamine (2) nylon-6, 6
(3) Nylon - 6 (4) Teflon amylopectin is
(1) DNA → RNA → Proteins
PL0107 (1) Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1→ 6 (3) polyacrylonitrile (4) Buna-N
(2) DNA → RNA → Carbohydrates
α-linkage
AIPMT 2015 (3) Amino acids → Proteins → DNA PL0227
(2) Amylose have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1→ 6
(4) DNA → Carbohydrates → Proteins 57. The artificial sweetner stable at cooking
37. Bithional is generally added to the soaps as an β-linkage
BM0115
(3) Amylopectin have 1 → 4 α-linkage and 1→ 6 temperature and does not provide calories is :-
additive to function as a/an :- 45. Which one of the following compounds shows
β-linkage (1) Saccharin (2) Aspartame
(1) Dryer (2) Buffering agent the presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond ? (4) Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose
(3) Antiseptic (4) Softner (1) Cellulose BM0127 (3) Sucralose (4) Alitame
CE0108 (2) Concentrated acetic acid CE0228
50. Which of the following compounds can form a
38. Biodegradable polymer which can be produced (3) H2O2
zwitterion ? 58. Match the catalyst with the process :-
(4) HCN
from glycine and aminocaproic acid is :- BM0116 (1) Aniline (2) Acetanilide
Catalyst Process
(1) PHBV (2) Buna - N 46. Which one of the following structures represents (3) Benzoic acid (4) Glycine
(3) Nylon 6, 6 (4) Nylon 2- nylon 6 (i) V2O5 (a) The oxidation of
nylon 6,6 polymer ? BM0128

®
PL0109 51. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, ethyne to ethanal
H2 H2 which of the following statements is incorrect? (ii) TiCl4+Al(CH3)3 (b) Polymerisation
NEET-I 2016 H2 H2 C H C H
39. In a protein molecule various amino acids are C H C C C (1) They contain covalent bonds between various of alkynes
(1) C C6 6
linked together by : CH3 linear polymer chains. (iii) PdCl2 (c) Oxidation of SO2 in
COOH
(1) α-glycosidic bond (2) β-glycosidic bond NH2 Cl (2) They are formed from bi-and tri-functional
the manufacture
monomers.
(3) peptide bond (4) dative bond of H2SO4
BM0110 O (3) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
H2 H (CH2)6–NH (4) They contain strong covalent bonds in their (iv) Nickel (d) Polymerisation of
40. The correct statement regarding RNA and (2) C C N
(C polymer chains. complexes ethylene
DNA, respectively is : )C
2
PL0129
(1) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose H2 n Which of the following is the correct option ?
and the sugar component in DNA is O NEET(UG) 2019 (1) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b (2) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
2'-deoxyribose. (3) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d (4) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
H2 H2
(2) The sugar component in RNA is ribose and (3) C H C H 52. Among the following, the narrow spectrum
PL0229
the sugar component in DNA is C C antibiotic is :-
66
2'-deoxyribose. (1) penicillin G (2) ampicillin NEET(UG) 2020
NH2 CH3
(3) The sugar component in RNA is arabinose (3) amoxycillin (4) chloramphenicol
H2 59. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :
and the sugar component in DNA is ribose. H2 CE0223
(4) C H C H (1) α-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose
(4) The sugar component in RNA is C C 53. The biodegradable polymer is :-
66 (2) β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose
2'-deoxyribose and the sugar component in (1) nylon–6,6 (2) nylon 2–nylon 6
NH2 NH2
(3) nylon–6 (4) Buna–S (3) α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose
DNA is arabinose.
PL0117 PL0224 (4) α-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose
BM0111 NEET(UG) 2017
54. The non-essential amino acid among the BM0240
41. Which one given below is a non-reducing sugar ? 47. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as :
following is: 60. Which of the following is a cationic detergent ?
(1) Maltose (2) Lactose
(1) antiseptic (2) antipyretic (1) valine (2) leucine (1) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(3) Glucose (4) Sucrose
(3) antibiotic (4) analgesic (3) alanine (4) lysine
BM0112 (2) Sodium lauryl sulphate
CE0121 BM0225
42. Natural rubber has (3) Sodium stearate
48. Which of the following statements is not
(1) All cis-configuration NEET(UG) 2019 (ODISHA) (4) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
correct ?
(2) All trans-configuration
(1) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white 55. Which structure(s) of proteins remains(s) intact CE0241
(3) Alternate cis-and trans-configuration
(4) Random cis-and trans-configuration (2) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are during denaturation process ? 61. Which of the following is a natural polymer ?
PL0113 involved in blood clotting (1) Both secondary and tertiary structures (1) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
43. Which of the following is an analgesic ? (3) Denaturation makes the proteins more active (2) Primary structure only (2) cis-1,4-polyisoprene
(1) Novalgin (2) Penicillin (4) Insulin maintanis sugar level in the blood of a (3) Secondary structure only (3) poly (Butadiene-styrene)
(3) Streptomycin (4) Chloromycetin human body (4) Tertiary structure only
(4) polybutadiene
CE0114 CE0122 BM0226 PL0242
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62. Which of the following is a basic amino acid ? 68. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of: NEET (UG) 2022 (Overseas) Re-NEET (UG) 2022
(1) Lysine (2) Serine (1) Vitamin B12 (2) Vitamin B6 74. Match List-I with List-II : 76. Match List - I with List - II
(3) Alanine (4) Tyrosine (3) Vitamin B1 (4) Vitamin B2
List-I List-II List - I List - II
BM0243 BM0249 (a) Sodium (i) Toilet soap
NEET(UG) 2020 (COVID-19) 69. Which one of the following polymers is prepared (Monomers) (Polymers) laurylsulphate
63. Which of the following is not true about by addition polymerisation ? (b) Cetyltrimethyl (ii) Non-ionic
chloramphenicol ? (a) Caprolactam (i) Bakelite
(1) Teflon (2) Nylon-66 ammonium chloride detergent
(1) It inhibits the growth of only grampositive (3) Novolac (4) Dacron (b) Ethylene glycol and (ii) Nylon 6,6 (c) Sodium stearate (iii) Anionic
bacteria. PL0250 detergent
(2) It is a broad spectrum antibiotic. Benzene-1,4-dicarboxylic
NEET (UG) 2021(Paper-2) (d) Polyethyleneglycyl (iv) Cationic
(3) It is not bactericidal. 70. Which of the following polymers can be used for acid stearate detergent
(4) It is bacteriostatic. Choose the correct answer from the options
lubrication and as an insulator? (c) Hexamethylenediamine (iii) Nylon-6
CE0244 (1) SBR (2) PVC given below :
64. Which of the following statement is correct about (3) PTFE (4) PAN and adipic acid (1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
Bakelite ? PL0251 (d) Phenol and (iv) Terylene (2) (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
(1) It is a cross linked polymer. NEET (UG) 2022 (3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(2) It is an addition polymer. Formaldehyde (4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)

®
71. Which statement regarding polymers is not correct ?
(3) It is a branched chain polymer. Choose the correct answer from the options CE0257
(1) Fibers possess high tensile strength.
(4) It is a linear polymer. 77. Which among the following is a thermoplastic
(2) Thermoplastic polymers are capable of given below :
PL0245 polymer ?
repeatedly softening and hardening on (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) (1) Bakelite
65. The reaction of concentrated sulphuric acid with
heating and cooling respectively. (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) Polythene
carbohydrates (C12H22O11) is an example of
(3) Thermosetting polymers are reusable.
(1) Dehydration (2) Oxidation (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (3) Urea-formaldehyde resin
(4) Elastomers have polymer chains held
(3) Reduction (4) Sulphonation (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (4) Melamine polymer
together by weak intermolecular forces.
BM0246 PL0255 PL0258
PL0252
66. Deficiency of which vitamin causes osteomalacia? 72. Match List-I with List-II. 75. The incorrect statement among the following 78. The incorrect statement about denaturation of
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin D regarding food preservatives is proteins is
List-I List-II
(1) antioxidants used in wine are SO2 and (1) It results due to change of temperature
(3) Vitamin K (4) Vitamin E (Drug class) (Drug molecule) and/or pH
BM0247 (a) Antacids (i) Salvarsan sulphites.
(2) antioxidants help in preserving the food (2) It results in loss of biological activity of
NEET(UG) 2021 (b) Antihistamines (ii) Morphine proteins.
longer.
(c) Analgesics (iii) Cimetidine (3) A protein is formed from amino acids linked
67. Given below are two statements: (3) antioxidants react with oxygen with a slower
(d) Antimicrobials (iv) Seldane by peptide bonds.
rate than food.
Statement I : Choose the correct answer from the options (4) Uncoiling of the helical structure takes place.
(4) sorbic acid and propanoic acid are good food
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of preservatives. BM0259
given below:
narcotic analgesics. CE0256
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Statement II :
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)- (iii)
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic
analgesics. In the light of the above statements, (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) EXERCISE-II (Previous Year Questions) ANSWER KEY
choose the correct answer from the options (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
given below. CE0253 Ans. 1 3 2 1 2 4 4 1 1 2 3 4 1 3 2
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are 73. The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is: Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
true. Ans. 2 3 3 2 1 2 4 4 4 2 4 4 2 4 4
(1) Like chemical catalysts enzymes reduce the
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
activation energy of bio processes. Ans. 4 3 4 4 3 3 3 4 3 2 4 1 1 1 1
false.
(2) Enzymes are polysaccharides. Que. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Enzymes are very specific for a particular Ans. 2 1 3 1 4 4 1 2 3 2 3 3 1 4 4
false. Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is reaction and substrate.
Ans. 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 1 3 1 2 2 3
true. (4) Enzymes are biocatalysts. Que. 76 77 78
CE0248 BM0254 Ans. 3 2 3
173 174
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EXERCISE-III (Analytical Questions) Master Your Understanding 11. Protein found in biological system with definite 17. A single stand of DNA can act as a template on
configuration and biological activity is called – which a molecule of RNA is synthesized in a
1. In which of the following properties of an open 6. Which statement is/are incorrect ? (1) Amino acids (2) Native protein specific manner. This process is known as –
chain structure of glucose could not be explained (1) Natural starch has approximately 10-20% of (3) Conformer protein (4) Inactive protein (1) Replication (2) Transcription
by Baeyer ? amylose and 80-90% of amylopectin. (3) Translation (4) None of these
BM0151
(1) Glucose contain aldehyde group, but does not (2) Amylose is water soluble and gives blue colour
give schiff's test with iodine 12. Which of following statement is not true for BM0159
(2) Glucose does not react with sodium hydrogen (3) Amylopectin is a branched chain enzyme ? 18. Which is correct statement ?
sulphite and ammonia polysaccharides insoluble in water and does (1) Some enzymes can be non proteins also (1) Starch is polymer of α–glucose
(3) The pentaacetate of glucose does not react not give blue colour with iodine (2) Prothetic groups which get attached to (2) Amylose is a component of cellulose
with hydroxy amine indicates absence of (4) Starch is not hydrolysed by enzyme amylase enzyme at the time of reaction are known as (3) Protiens are composed of only one type of
–CHO group present in saliva cofactor. amino acid
(4) All of these BM0146 (3) Enzymes provides lower activation pathways (4) In cyclic structure of fructose, there are four
BM0139 there by increasing the rate of reaction carbons and one oxygen atom
7. Which of the following statement is true for BM0162
(4) None of these

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2. When glucose was crystallized from a proteins ?
BM0153 19. Which is incorrect about histamine ?
concentrated solution at 30°C & 98°C. It gave (1) Proteins are high molecular mass complex
α & β form of glucose respectively what are the biopolymers of amino acids present in all 13. Which of following statements is incorrect ? (1) Histamine stimulates the secretion of pepsin
angle of rotation [αD] for both forms ? living cells & HCl in the stomach
(1) Proteins have a polyamide chain while nucleic
(1) (+) 111° & (+)19.2° (2) (+)19.2° & (–) 111° (2) Protein may contains phosphorous & iodine acids contains a poly phosphate ester chain (2) Histamine is a potent vasodilator
(3) (+) 111° & (–)19.2° (4) (–) 111° & (–)19.2° (3) Proteins may contains iron, copper, zinc and (3) Histamine is also responsible for nasal
(2) Nucleic acids are long chain polymers of
BM0140 manganese congestion associated with cold or allergic
nucleotides
(4) All of these response to pollen.
3. Dinucleotide is obtained by joining two (3) RNA is major source of genetic information
BM0147 (4) Histamine doesn't affact muscles of the
which is copied into a DNA molecules
nucleotides together by phosphodiester linkage. bronchi
Between which carbon atoms of pentose sugar of 8. Which of following are essential amino acids ? (4) Proteins are synthesized in a process
BM0230
nucleotides are these linkages presents. (a) Aspartic acid (b) Leucine involving translation of RNA.
(c) Valine (d) Glycine 20. Brompheniramine & Terfenadine drugs belongs
(1) 5' and 3' (2) 1' and 5' BM0154
(3) 5' and 5' (4) 3' and 3' (e) Alanine to which category.
14. Complete hydrolysis of DNA or RNA yields
BM0141 (1) a, b & c (2) a, b, d & e (1) Antacid (2) Antihistamine
following–
(3) b & c (4) a, c, d & e (3) Transquilizer (4) Antiseptic
4. Which statement is incorrect in following ? (1) Ribose in RNA & deoxyribose in DNA
BM0148 CE0231
(1) Sucrose is dextrorotatory (2) Hetrocyclic nitrogenous purines base
21. Find incorrect statement :
(2) After hydrolysis of sucrose, dextrorotatory 9. At a certain hydrogen ion concentration (pH), (3) Hetrocyclic nitrogenous pyrimidines
(1) Tranquilizer & analgesics are neurologically
glucose and laevorotatory fructose will the dipolar ion exists as a neutral ion and does (4) All of these active drugs
obtained not migrate to either electrode. What is the name BM0155 (2) Barbiturates are sleep producing agents
(3) Laevorotation of fructose is more than of pH point for amino acids –
15. Nucleosides are – (3) Tranquilizer are used to reduce stress, mental
dextrorotation of glucose (1) isoelectric point (2) isoprotonic point
(1) Base + sugar = Nucleoside diseases
(4) Cane sugar gives nonequimolar mixture of (3) isotonic point (4) None of these
(2) N–glycosides of purine or pyrimidine bases (4) Analgesis are used to reduce pain with
D-(+)-glucose and D-(–)-fructose BM0149 causing impairement of consciousness
BM0143 with pentose sugar
CE0232
10. Which of the following reactions of glucose can (3) Both of these
22. Find incorrect statement
5. On hydrolysis of one mole of maltose two moles be explained only by its cyclic structure ? (4) None of these (1) Detergent involves soap and synthetic
of D-glucose are obtained. These two glucose (1) Glucose forms penta acetate
BM0157 detergents
units are linked together through a α-glycoside (2) Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form an
(2) Sodium soap and potassium soap are soluble
oxime 16. RNA molecules in turn directs the synthesis of
linkage between – in water
(1) C-2 of one unit and C-4 of another unit (3) Penta acetate of glucose does not react with specific proteins which are characteristic of each
(3) C17H35COONa is sodium stearate and used as
(2) C-1 of one unit and C-2 of another unit hydroxylamine kind of organism. This process is known as – a soap
(3) C-1 of one unit and C-4 of another unit (4) Glucose is oxidised by nitric acid to gluconic (1) Translation (2) Transcription (4) During saponification, soap is obtained in
(4) C-2 of one unit and C-3 of another unit acid (3) Replication (4) None of these solid form
BM0145 BM0150 CE0233
BM0158

175 176
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23. Which of the following is/are condensation 26. Correct statements about vulcanisation of rubber
polymers ? is/are-
(1) Dacron (2) Nylon 6 (1) Rubber gets stiffened
(2) In this process, raw rubber is heated with
(3) Nylon 6,6 (4) All of these
sulphur and appropirate additive at
PL0234
temperature range 373 K to 415 K
24. Free radical generating initiator (catalyst) is/are : (3) By this process physical properties of rubber
(1) Benzoyl peroxide improve
(2) Acetyl peroxide (4) All of these
PL0237
(3) Tert-butyl peroxide
27. Arrange following polymers in increasing order
(4) All of these of their intermolecular force-
PL0235 (i) Nylon-6
25. Novolac on heating with formaldehyde under (ii) Neoprene
goes cross linking to form an infusible solid mass (iii) Poly vinyl chloride
is called as __________. (1) i < ii < iii (2) ii < iii < i
(1) Bakelite (3) iii < i < ii (4) iii < ii < i

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(2) Malamine-formaldehyde PL0238
(3) Terylene 28. Biodegradable polymer is-
(4) Nylon-6 (1) PHBV (2) Nylon 2 - Nylon 6
PL0236 (3) Both of these (4) None of these
PL0239

EXERCISE-III (Analytical Questions) ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 1 1 4 3 4 4 3 1 3 2 2 3 4 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. 1 2 1 4 2 4 4 4 4 1 4 2 3

177