1 S 441/2018

First published in the Government Gazette, Electronic Edition, on 30 June 2018 at 9 am.

No. S 441
AIR NAVIGATION ACT
(CHAPTER 6)

AIR NAVIGATION
(91 — GENERAL OPERATING RULES)
REGULATIONS 2018

ARRANGEMENT OF REGULATIONS

PART 1
PRELIMINARY
Regulation
1. Citation and commencement
2. Definitions
3. Application of these Regulations
4. Owner deemed to be operator of general aviation aircraft

PART 2
Division 1 — General
5. Aircraft airworthiness
6. Adherence to operating limitations of aircraft
7. Documents to be carried on board aircraft
8. Flight manual to be carried on board
9. Operational information and forms to be carried on board
10. Operation of radio in aircraft
11. Ground operation of aircraft
12. Method of carriage of persons
13. Flight instruction and testing
14. Common language
15. Information on emergency and survival equipment carried
16. Storage of baggage and cargo
17. Portable electronic devices
18. Responsibility of pilot-in-command
19. Prohibition of use of psychoactive substances
20. Passenger briefing

Informal Consolidation – version in force from 3/11/2022

S 441/2018 2

Regulation
20A. Duty to comply with COVID-19 directives
21. Use and preservation of flight recorders and records
21A. Disclosure and use of shielded information
Division 2 — Operational procedures
22. Operational control
23. Flight planning
24. Flight Preparation
25. ATS flight plans
26. Operating in icing conditions — ground procedures
27. Operating in icing conditions — flight procedures
28. Operating facilities
29. Use of aerodromes and landing sites
30. Requirement to use certified aerodromes
31. General aerodrome operating minima
32. Aerodrome operating minima — general requirements
33. Aerodrome operating minima — commercial air transport
operations by foreign operator in Singapore
34. Noise abatement procedures
35. Alternate aerodromes — general requirements
36. Destination alternate
37. Fuel and oil requirements — aeroplanes
38. Fuel and oil requirements — helicopters
39. In-flight fuel management
40. Checklists
41. Use of Airborne Collision Avoidance System II (ACAS II)
42. Crew members at station
43. Use of oxygen
44. Flight crew communication
45. Fuelling operations
46. Fuel spillage
47. Journey log
48. Reporting of weather and hazardous conditions
48A. Reporting of unsatisfactory runway braking action
49. Reporting of accidents, incidents and occurrences
50. Obligation to report reportable safety matters
51. Occupation of seats and wearing of restraints
52. Familiarity with operating limitations and emergency equipment
53. Towing of gliders
54. Towing, picking up and raising of persons and articles

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 3 S 441/2018

Regulation
55. Dropping of persons and articles
Division 3 — Operating limitations
56. Meteorological conditions — VFR flight
57. Meteorological conditions — IFR flight
58. Departure limitations — IFR flight
59. Requirements for take-off — helicopters
60. Approach and landing conditions
61. Commencement and continuation of approach
62. Instrument approach procedures
63. Prohibition against smoking during take-off and landing
Division 4 — Mass and balance
64. Aircraft load limitation
Division 5 — Performance
65. Performance — General
Division 6 — Instrument and equipment requirements
66. Application and interpretation
67. General requirements for instrument and equipment on aircraft
68. Inoperative instruments or equipment
69. Minimum equipment list
70. Marking of break-in points
71. Location of instruments and equipment
72. Markings and placards
73. Seating and restraints
74. Aircraft operating under VFR
75. Equipment for flight in icing conditions
76. Aircraft operating under IFR or at night
77. Spare fuses
78. Communication equipment
79. Navigation equipment
80. Surveillance Equipment
81. Installation of communication, navigation, surveillance
equipment
82. Landing in instrument meteorological conditions
83. Category II or III precision approach equipment
84. Medical and emergency equipment
85. Emergency locator transmitter
86. Survival equipment

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S 441/2018 4

Regulation
87. Flights over water
88. Flights over water — aeroplanes
89. Flights over water — helicopters
90. Pressure-altitude reporting transponder
91. Oxygen indicators
92. Oxygen equipment and supplies for non-pressurised aircraft
93. Oxygen equipment and supplies for pressurised aircraft
94. Device to warn flight crew of loss of pressurisation
95. Flight recorders — construction, installation and continued
serviceability
96. Flight recorders — flight data recorder (FDR)
97. Flight recorders — cockpit voice recorder (CVR)
98. Flight recorders — data link recorders
99. Combination recorders
Division 7 — Maintenance
100. Continuing airworthiness management
101. Technical log
102. Maintenance release
103. Continuous airworthiness information
Division 8 — Crew requirements
104. Composition of crew
105. Flight crew requirements
106. Flight crew recency
Division 9 — Fatigue of the crew
107. Fatigue — Crew member responsibilities
Division 10 — Manuals, logs and records
108. Journey log book or equivalent record
109. Document retention period
110. Aircraft’s flight manual

PART 3
MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
111. Fees
112. Financial penalties
113. Grant of approvals or acceptance

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 5 S 441/2018

PART 4
SAVING AND TRANSITIONAL PROVISIONS
Regulation
114. Saving and transitional provisions
The Schedules

In exercise of the powers conferred by section 3A of the Air

Navigation Act, the Civil Aviation Authority of Singapore, with the
approval of the Minister for Transport, makes the following
Regulations:

PART 1
PRELIMINARY
Citation and commencement
1. These Regulations are the Air Navigation (91 — General
Operating Rules) Regulations 2018 and come into operation on
1 October 2018.

Definitions
2.—(1) In these Regulations, unless the context otherwise requires,
any term defined in the First Schedule has the meaning given to that
term in that Schedule.
(2) In these Regulations, “aircraft” does not include —
(a) a balloon or free flight aerial object which, at any stage of
its flight, is not more than 2 m in any linear dimension
(after including any object attached to the balloon or free
flight aerial object);
(b) a kite not exceeding 2 kg in weight;
(c) a parasail; or
(d) an unmanned aircraft and unmanned aircraft system.

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S 441/2018 6

(3) In these Regulations —

“relevant aircraft” means —
(a) any aircraft operated by a Singapore operator;
(b) any Singapore registered aircraft operated by a
person other than a Singapore operator; or
(c) any foreign registered aircraft in Singapore that is
operated by a person other than a Singapore operator;
“relevant operator” means —
(a) any Singapore operator; or
(b) any person other than a Singapore operator who is
operating —
(i) a Singapore registered aircraft, whether in or
outside Singapore; or
(ii) a foreign registered aircraft in Singapore.
(4) Every standard in these Regulations for which a value is
prescribed in the International System of Units (SI) and an alternative
value is prescribed in a non-SI alternative unit of measurement in
parentheses, the relevant standard is to be regarded as reached when
either value is obtained.

Application of these Regulations

3.—(1) Unless otherwise specified, these Regulations apply to —
(a) every flight carried out by a Singapore operator involving
any aircraft;
(b) every flight involving a Singapore registered aircraft that is
carried out by a person other than a Singapore operator;
and
(c) every flight involving a foreign registered aircraft in
Singapore that is carried out by a person other than a
Singapore operator.

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 7 S 441/2018

(2) A person whose principal place of business or, if the person has
no such place of business, whose permanent residence is Singapore
and —
(a) who engages in any commercial air transport operations
involving an aeroplane with an MAPSC exceeding 19 or an
MCTOM exceeding 27,000 kg, must also comply with the
requirements in —
(i) the Air Navigation (119 — Air Operator
Certification) Regulations 2018 (G.N. No.
S 443/2018); and
(ii) the Air Navigation (121 — Commercial Air
Transport by Large Aeroplanes) Regulations 2018
(G.N. No. S 444/2018);
(b) who engages in any commercial air transport operations
involving a helicopter or an aeroplane with an MAPSC not
exceeding 19 and an MCTOM not exceeding 27,000 kg,
must also comply with the requirements in —
(i) the Air Navigation (119 — Air Operator
Certification) Regulations 2018; and
(ii) the Air Navigation (135 — Commercial Air
Transport by Helicopters and Small Aeroplanes)
Regulations 2018 (G.N. No. S 445/2018); or
[S 677/2018 wef 09/10/2018]

(c) who engages in any aerial work operations, must also

comply with the requirements in the Air Navigation
(137 — Aerial Work) Regulations 2018
(G.N. No. S 502/2018).
[S 677/2018 wef 09/10/2018]

(3) A person who engages in any complex general aviation

operations using a Singapore registered aircraft must also comply
with the requirements in the Air Navigation (125 — Complex
General Aviation) Regulations 2018 (G.N. No. S 501/2018).
[S 677/2018 wef 09/10/2018]

Informal Consolidation – version in force from 3/11/2022

S 441/2018 8

Owner deemed to be operator of general aviation aircraft

4. For the purpose of these Regulations, the owner of a Singapore
registered aircraft used for general aviation is deemed to be the
operator of that aircraft unless the owner has informed the
Director-General of Civil Aviation in writing otherwise.

PART 2
Division 1 — General
Aircraft airworthiness
5.—(1) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not
operate the aircraft unless —
(a) there is in force in respect of the aircraft a Certificate of
Airworthiness duly issued or rendered valid under the law
of the State of Registry or the law of the State of the
Operator; and
(b) the conditions subject to which the Certificate of
Airworthiness was issued or rendered valid are complied
with.
(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to —
(a) any flight of a Singapore registered aircraft that —
(i) begins and ends in Singapore without passing over
any other country; and
(ii) is flying in accordance with the “A Conditions” or
“B Conditions” set out in the Second Schedule to the
Air Navigation Order (O 2);
(b) any flight of an aircraft flying in Singapore in accordance
with the conditions of a permit to fly issued by the
Authority in respect of that aircraft; or
(c) any aircraft that is a kite or a captive balloon.
(3) Any person who fails to comply with paragraph (1) shall be
guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction —

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 9 S 441/2018

(a) for a first offence, to a fine not exceeding $50,000 or to

imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both;
and
(b) for a second or subsequent offence, to a fine not exceeding
$100,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding
5 years or to both.
(4) A person applying for a permit to fly —
(a) must make the application to the Authority in such form
and manner, and provide such information, as the
Authority may require; and
(b) must pay to the Authority the application fee, if specified in
the Second Schedule.
(5) The Authority may issue a permit to fly that —
(a) is valid for every flight specified in the permit; and
(b) is subject to such conditions as the Authority considers fit.

Adherence to operating limitations of aircraft

6. When operating a relevant aircraft, the pilot-in-command must
comply with —
(a) the operating limitations of the aircraft specified in the
aircraft’s flight manual, markings or placards; and
(b) such other requirements as may be prescribed by the State
of Registry.

Documents to be carried on board aircraft

7.—(1) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not
commence any flight unless —
(a) the aircraft carries the documents which it is required to
carry under the law of its State of Registry; and
(b) the pilot-in-command has ascertained that the documents
are in force and remain in force for the duration of the
flight.

Informal Consolidation – version in force from 3/11/2022

S 441/2018 10

(2) For the purpose of paragraph (1)(a), a Singapore registered

aircraft is required to carry the following documents on board every
flight:
(a) its Certificate of Registration;
(b) its Certificate of Airworthiness;
(c) the appropriate licence for each flight crew member;
(d) the aircraft radio station licence;
(e) the journey log book or equivalent record;
(f) a noise certificate, if applicable;
(g) a copy of the approvals, permissions, authorisations or
exemptions relevant to the flight;
(h) a certified true copy of any 83 bis agreement, or the
agreement summary of such an 83 bis agreement, if
applicable;
[S 937/2020 wef 05/11/2020]

(i) a certified true copy of the agreement for the lease, charter,
interchange or other similar arrangement for the aircraft, if
applicable;
(j) the English translation of any document required in
sub-paragraph (a), (b), (f) or (h) that is written in a
language other than English;
[S 937/2020 wef 05/11/2020]

(k) a copy of each certificate of maintenance review in force in

respect of the aircraft, if applicable.
(3) The operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must provide the
English translation mentioned in paragraph (2)(j), if required.
(4) Despite paragraph (2), the documents listed in that paragraph
may be kept at the aerodrome of departure if it is a flight —
(a) that is intended to begin and end at the same aerodrome
located in Singapore; and
(b) that does not include passage over territory of any other
State in its planned flight path.

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 11 S 441/2018

Flight manual to be carried on board

8. The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not commence
any flight unless the aircraft’s flight manual, or equivalent document,
is carried on board the aircraft.

Operational information and forms to be carried on board

9. The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not commence
any flight unless the following documents are carried on board the
aircraft:
(a) documentation for the pilot-in-command to record
operational information;
(b) current and suitable charts to cover the route of the
proposed flight and any route along which it is reasonable
to expect that the flight may be diverted;
(c) if the flight involves passage over territory of more than
one State —
(i) the passenger and cargo manifests;
(ii) a copy of the procedures to be followed by the
pilot-in-command of an intercepted aircraft, as
published in an official publication by the AIS
provider (such as an AIC, AIP or NOTAM);
(iii) a copy of the visual signals for use by intercepting
and intercepted aircraft, as published in an official
publication by the AIS provider (such as an AIC, AIP
or NOTAM).

Operation of radio in aircraft

10.—(1) A person must not operate a radio station in a relevant
aircraft, whether or not the aircraft is in flight, unless —
(a) the person is duly licensed or otherwise permitted to
operate the radio station under the law of the State of
Registry or the State of the Operator; and
(b) the radio station is operated in accordance with the
conditions of the radio station licence issued under the

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S 441/2018 12

law of the State of Registry or the State of the Operator, as

applicable.
(2) When any relevant aircraft is in flight in circumstances that
require the aircraft to be equipped with radio communication
equipment, a person assigned duty as a flight crew member for the
flight must keep a continuous radio watch by listening to the signals
transmitted upon the frequency designated by a message received
from the appropriate aeronautical radio station for use by that station.
(3) Despite paragraph (2) —
(a) the radio watch may be discontinued, or continued on
another frequency, for reasons of safety or to the extent that
a message received from the appropriate aeronautical
station permits; and
(b) the radio watch may be kept by a device installed in the
aircraft if —
(i) the appropriate aeronautical radio station has been
informed to that effect and has raised no objection;
and
(ii) the aeronautical radio station is designated as being
capable of transmitting a signal suitable for that
purpose.
(4) A person must not operate a radio station in any relevant aircraft
in a way that causes interference which would impair the efficiency of
aeronautical telecommunications or navigational services.
(5) A person operating a radio station in a relevant aircraft may not
make any emissions from the radio station unless —
(a) in accordance with general international aeronautical
practice —
(i) the emissions are of the class and frequency in use in
the airspace in which the aircraft is flying at the time
of flight;
(ii) the emissions are messages and signals of distress,
urgency or safety; or

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 13 S 441/2018

(iii) the emissions are messages and signals relating to the

flight of the aircraft; or
(b) the emissions are such public correspondence messages as
may be permitted by or under the aircraft radio station
licence mentioned in paragraph (1).

Ground operation of aircraft

11.—(1) A relevant operator must ensure that an aeroplane is not
taxied on the movement area of any aerodrome unless the person at
the controls of the aeroplane —
(a) is an appropriately qualified pilot; or
(b) is duly authorised by the operator, or the operator’s
designated agent, upon the operator or designated agent
being satisfied that —
(i) the person is fully competent to taxi the aeroplane;
(ii) the person is qualified to use the aeroplane’s radio
communication equipment if radio communications
are required;
(iii) the person has received instruction from a competent
person on —
(A) the current layout of the aerodrome; and
(B) where appropriate, information on the routes,
signs, markings, lights, signals and instructions
sent by the appropriate air traffic control unit,
phraseology and procedures involved; and
(iv) the person is able to conform to the operational
standards required for safe movement of the
aeroplane at the aerodrome.
(2) A relevant operator must ensure that —
(a) a helicopter rotor is not turned under power for the purpose
of flight except by an appropriately qualified pilot; and
(b) a helicopter rotor is not turned under power for any
purpose other than flight except by a person who —

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S 441/2018 14

(i) is duly authorised by the operator or the operator’s

designated agent; and
(ii) has been provided with training, and has been
briefed, on the procedures to be followed.

Method of carriage of persons

12.—(1) A relevant operator must ensure that, when a relevant
aircraft is in flight, no person is carried in or on any part of the aircraft
which was not designed for the accommodation of persons.
(2) A relevant operator must not carry any person in or on any
object, other than a glider or flying machine, towed by or attached to a
relevant aircraft that is in flight.
(3) Despite paragraphs (1) and (2), a relevant operator may allow a
person to have temporary access to any part of a relevant aircraft
when the aircraft is in flight —
(a) to take any action necessary for the safety of the aircraft, or
the safety of any person or cargo in the aircraft; or
(b) if the part of the aircraft where cargo or stores are carried is
designed to enable a person to have access while the
aircraft is in flight, to access the cargo or stores carried.

Flight instruction and testing

13. An operator of a relevant aircraft in Singapore (that is not a
balloon) must not use the aircraft for the purpose of flight instruction
in Singapore unless that aircraft is equipped with fully functioning
dual controls.

Common language
14. The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must ensure that
every person assigned duty as a flight crew member for the flight is
able to speak and understand the level of English used for
aeronautical radiotelephony communications.

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 15 S 441/2018

Information on emergency and survival equipment carried

15.—(1) The operator of a flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or
(b) must have available, for immediate communication to rescue
coordination centres when necessary, information on the emergency
and survival equipment carried on board each of the operator’s
aircraft.
(2) The information required under paragraph (1) on the emergency
and survival equipment carried on such an aircraft includes —
(a) the number, colour and type of the life rafts;
(b) the type of pyrotechnics;
(c) details of emergency medical supplies and water supplies;
and
(d) the type and operating frequencies of any emergency
portable radio equipment, if such equipment is carried.

Storage of baggage and cargo

16.—(1) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not
commence a flight if any item carried on board the aircraft, including
any item of baggage and cargo —
(a) is not stowed and restrained in accordance with the
instructions in the aircraft’s flight manual; and
(b) is not packaged to avoid injury to any person on board the
aircraft.
(2) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not permit any
item of baggage or cargo carried on board the aircraft —
(a) to exceed the load limitation for the seats, berths, or floor
structure as specified by the flight manual or by placards;
(b) to be located in a position that restricts the access to or use
of any required emergency exit; or
(c) to be located in a position where the item of baggage or
cargo may —
(i) restrict access to any flight control equipment or part
of the aircraft cockpit; or

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S 441/2018 16

(ii) restrict visibility of any flight instrument.

Portable electronic devices

17. The operator of a flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b),
must ensure that a person does not operate any portable electronic
device on the aircraft except with the permission of the
pilot-in-command of the aircraft.

Responsibility of pilot-in-command
18.—(1) The pilot-in-command for a flight mentioned in
regulation 3(1)(a) or (b) is responsible for —
(a) the safety and security of all persons on board the aircraft;
(b) the operation and safety of the aircraft from the moment
the aircraft starts an engine for the purpose of take-off
until —
(i) the aircraft comes to a complete rest at the end of the
flight; and
(ii) all of the engines used as primary propulsion units
are shut down and, if applicable, all of the rotor
blades are stopped; and
(c) the security of the aircraft when the aircraft is being
operated.
(2) A pilot-in-command’s responsibilities under paragraph (1)
include —
(a) ensuring that the flight does not commence if any person
assigned duty as a flight crew member for that flight is or is
likely to be unable to perform the person’s duties as a result
of incapacitation by any cause such as injury, sickness,
fatigue, or the effects of psychoactive substances;
(b) ensuring that the flight does not continue beyond the
nearest suitable aerodrome when the capacity of a person,
assigned duty as a required flight crew member for the
flight, to perform the person’s assigned duties is

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 17 S 441/2018

significantly reduced by impairment of faculties from

causes such as fatigue, sickness or lack of oxygen;
(c) reporting all known or suspected defects in the aircraft at
the termination of the flight;
(d) preserving the flight recorder records if the aircraft is
involved in an accident or serious incident;
(e) notifying the appropriate local authority, in the event of an
emergency situation that necessitates action in violation of
local regulations or procedures; and
(f) reporting any act of unlawful interference to the Authority
and to the designated local authority.

Prohibition of use of psychoactive substances

19.—(1) A person must not perform any duty or function in the
capacity of a flight dispatcher, or any personnel involved in
preparation or conduct of a flight involving a relevant aircraft if
the person is under the influence of any psychoactive substance
which may render the person unable to perform such duty or function
in a safe and proper manner.
[S 179/2019 wef 31/03/2019]

(2) A person must not perform any duty or function in the capacity
of a pilot if —
(a) at any time during the person’s flight duty period —
(i) there is more than 0.02 grams of ethanol in 210 litres
of the person’s breath; or
(ii) the person is under the influence of any psychoactive
substance to such extent as to be incapable of
performing that duty or function in a safe and
proper manner; or
(b) the person has, at any time in the period of 8 hours before
the start of the person’s flight duty period, consumed —
(i) any food or drink or other substance that contains
any form of ethanol; or

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S 441/2018 18

(ii) any psychoactive substance.

[S 179/2019 wef 31/03/2019]

(3) A person who fails to comply with paragraph (1) or (2) shall be
guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction —
(a) for a first offence, to a fine not exceeding $50,000 or to
imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or to both;
and
(b) for a second or subsequent offence, to a fine not exceeding
$100,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding
5 years or to both.
[S 179/2019 wef 31/03/2019]

Passenger briefing
20. The pilot-in-command for a flight mentioned in
regulation 3(1)(a) or (b) must take all reasonable steps to ensure
that —
(a) before commencing the flight —
(i) all passengers are made familiar with the location
and use of —
(A) safety belts or any other restraints;
(B) the aircraft’s emergency exits;
(C) the life jackets provided, if required to be
carried;
(D) other emergency equipment provided for
individual use, including passenger safety
cards;
(E) flotation equipment, if required to be carried;
(F) any oxygen dispensing equipment provided for
the use of passengers, if required to be carried;
(G) the emergency proximity escape path marking
system, if required to be installed; and

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(H) all other devices intended for individual use by

the passengers in the case of an emergency, as
required to be carried; and
(ii) all passengers are made aware of the restrictions on
smoking in the aircraft;
(b) during take-off, landing and such other times as necessary,
all persons on board the aircraft are instructed to be secured
in their seats by means of the safety belts or other restraints
provided; and
(c) in the event of an emergency occurring during flight, all
persons on board the aircraft are instructed in such
emergency action as may be appropriate to the
circumstances.

Duty to comply with COVID-19 directives

20A. An operator whose principal place of business is not in
Singapore and who is granted an operations permit under paragraph
87A(5) of the Air Navigation Order (O 2) must, in respect of the
conduct of its commercial air transport operations involving —
(a) a Singapore registered aircraft, whether in or outside
Singapore; or
(b) a foreign registered aircraft flying into or from Singapore,
comply with every directive given to it by the Authority under
section 4H(1) of the Act in the interests of promoting or protecting the
safety and public health of passengers and participants in the civil
aviation system because of the COVID-19 pandemic.
[S 390/2020 wef 22/05/2020]

Use and preservation of flight recorders and records

21.—(1) For every flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b)
where the aircraft is required to carry a flight recorder, the
pilot-in-command must ensure that —
(a) each installed flight recorder is operated from the time any
engine is first started for the purpose of taking off until the

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S 441/2018 20

termination of the flight when the aircraft is no longer

capable of moving under its own power;
(b) depending on the availability of electrical power, each
installed airborne image recorder or airborne image
recording system, or cockpit voice recorder or cockpit
audio recording system, is operated from a time as early as
possible during the cockpit check before any engine is first
started at the beginning of the flight until the cockpit
checks immediately after engine shutdown at the end of the
flight; and
(c) each installed flight recorder is not to be switched off at
any time during the flight.
(2) Where a Singapore registered aircraft, or any aircraft operated
by a Singapore operator, is to be flown for more than one flight in a
day, the pilot-in-command of the aircraft must, before the first flight
of the day, monitor the built-in test for the flight recorders (including
any associated flight data acquisition unit when installed) by manual
or automatic checks.
(3) The operator of a flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b)
must retain, for a period in accordance with the Sixth Schedule, a
record of the flight data (including a means of identifying the flight to
which the record relates) of at least one representative flight —
(a) that was made in the 12 months immediately preceding the
flight; and
(b) that includes a take-off, climb, cruise, descent, approach to
landing and landing.
(4) In the event of an accident or serious incident involving a
relevant aircraft —
(a) the pilot-in-command must ensure that all installed flight
recorders are de-activated upon completion of the flight to
preserve flight recorder records; and
(b) the operator must retain the flight recorder records, and the
associated flight recorders where possible, in safe custody
for a period of 90 days (or such longer period as

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determined by the Director-General of Civil Aviation) after

the accident or serious incident.
(5) The operator of a flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b)
must ensure that the documentation, concerning flight data recorder
and airborne data recording system parameters, that is provided to an
accident investigating authority is in electronic format and in line
with industry specifications.

Disclosure and use of shielded information

21A.—(1) Subject to paragraph (2), a person commits an offence
if —
(a) the person is, or has been —
(i) an operator of a flight mentioned in
regulation 3(1)(a) or (b); or
(ii) an associate of an operator mentioned in
sub-paragraph (i);
(b) the person uses information, or discloses information to
another person or to a court;
(c) the person when using or disclosing information knew, or
was reckless as to whether, the information is shielded
information; and
(d) the information is shielded information.
(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to any of the following:
(a) disclosure to a court in criminal proceedings for an offence
under paragraph (1);
(b) disclosure or use for the purposes of an investigation under
Part IIA of the Act or the Transport Safety Investigations
Act 2018 (Act 36 of 2018) or reporting a known or
suspected act of unlawful interference required by that Act;
(c) disclosure to the Authority for the purposes of maintaining
or improving aviation safety;
(d) disclosure or use of Category 1 shielded information in
accordance with paragraph (3);

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S 441/2018 22

(e) disclosure or use of Category 2 shielded information in

accordance with paragraph (4).
(3) Category 1 shielded information may be disclosed or used for
any of the following purposes:
(a) disclosure or use to enable inspection of the installed
cockpit voice recorder, cockpit audio recording system,
Class A airborne image recorder or Class A airborne image
recording system (as the case may be) that recorded the
Category 1 shielded information or from which that
Category 1 shielded information is obtained;
(b) disclosure or use in order, and to the extent necessary, to
maintain or improve aviation safety and in a form that does
not identify any individual;
(c) disclosure or use in criminal proceedings unrelated to an
applicable aviation occurrence to the extent authorised by
the Director-General of Civil Aviation under paragraph (5).
(4) Category 2 shielded information may be disclosed or used for
any of the following purposes:
(a) disclosure or use for purposes relating to the airworthiness
or maintenance of the aircraft;
(b) disclosure or use in order, and to the extent necessary, to
maintain or improve aviation safety and in a form that does
not identify any individual;
(c) disclosure or use in any civil proceedings, criminal
proceedings or other proceedings unrelated to an
applicable aviation occurrence to the extent authorised
by the Director-General of Civil Aviation under
paragraph (5).
(5) The Director-General of Civil Aviation may, after having regard
to the likely effect that the disclosure or use might have on any current
or future collection and availability of aviation safety related
information, authorise (with or without conditions) —

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 23 S 441/2018

(a) the disclosure or use of Category 1 shielded information in

any criminal proceedings unrelated to an applicable
aviation occurrence; or
(b) the disclosure or use of Category 2 shielded information in
any civil proceedings, criminal proceedings or other
proceedings unrelated to an applicable aviation
occurrence.
(6) An operator or an associate of an operator (as the case may be)
must, in respect of any shielded information that the operator or the
associate discloses to another person or to a court, protect the shielded
information by making reasonable security arrangements to prevent
unauthorised access, collection, use, disclosure, copying,
modification, disposal or similar risks.
(7) A person who contravenes paragraph (6) shall be guilty of an
offence.
(8) A person who is guilty of an offence under paragraph (1) or (7)
shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to
imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.
(9) In this regulation —
“applicable aviation occurrence” means an aviation occurrence
to which the Transport Safety Investigations Act 2018
applies;
“associate”, in relation to an operator, means —
(a) an employee of that operator;
(b) a contractor or sub-contractor of that operator; or
(c) an employee of a contractor or sub-contractor
mentioned in paragraph (b);
“aviation occurrence”, “civil proceedings”, “criminal
proceedings”, “investigation” and “other proceedings” have
the meanings given by section 2 of the Transport Safety
Investigations Act 2018;
“Category 1 shielded information” means any information
recorded by or obtained from an installed cockpit voice

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S 441/2018 24

recorder, cockpit audio recording system, Class A airborne

image recorder or Class A airborne image recording system;
“Category 2 shielded information” means any information
recorded by or obtained from an installed flight data
recorder, airborne data recording system, Class B airborne
image recorder, Class C airborne image recorder, Class B
airborne image recording system or Class C airborne image
recording system;
“shielded information” means any Category 1 shielded
information and any Category 2 shielded information.
[S 209/2020 wef 01/04/2020]

Division 2 — Operational procedures

Operational control
22. The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft is responsible for
the operational control of the aircraft.

Flight planning
23.—(1) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not
commence a flight unless the pilot-in-command has obtained,
become familiar with, and acted on all the relevant information
concerning the flight.
(2) The information that a pilot-in-command is required to obtain,
become familiar with, and act on, under paragraph (1) includes —
(a) the current and forecast meteorological information;
(b) the fuel and oil requirements for the flight;
(c) all relevant details of the planned load;
(d) the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed
as planned;
(e) any known or likely traffic delays as informed by the
appropriate air traffic services unit in an official
publication issued by the appropriate air traffic services
unit (such as an AIC, AIP or NOTAM);

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(f) the status of the communication and navigation facilities to

be used for the flight;
(g) for the aerodrome of intended use, the current conditions,
restrictions and runway lengths;
(h) all airspace restrictions that may apply on or adjacent to the
planned route and alternatives available; and
(i) any volcanic activity within the vicinity of the planned
route.

Flight Preparation
24. The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not
commence a flight unless the pilot-in-command is satisfied that —
(a) the aircraft is airworthy and in a condition for safe flight;
(b) the documents and manuals required to be carried on the
aircraft are on board;
(c) the instruments and equipment installed on the aircraft are
appropriate, and in accordance with Division 6, taking into
account the expected flight conditions;
(d) the installed instruments and equipment are in operable
condition except for any instrument or item of equipment
which the minimum equipment list states may be
inoperable or not installed;
(e) any necessary maintenance has been carried out in
accordance with Division 7;
(f) the correct quantity and type of fuel and oil, and engine
coolant if required, are carried for the intended flight and
that a safe margin has been allowed for contingencies;
(g) the aircraft is capable of safely completing the intended
flight, having regard to the performance of the aircraft in
the expected flight conditions and to any obstructions on
the intended route;

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S 441/2018 26

(h) the mass of the aircraft and centre of gravity are such that
the flight can be conducted safely, taking into account the
expected flight conditions;
(i) any load carried on board is properly distributed and safely
secured; and
(j) the aircraft operating limitations contained in the aircraft’s
flight manual will not be exceeded.

ATS flight plans

25. Before the commencement of a flight of a relevant aircraft, the
pilot-in-command must ensure that the ATS flight plan for the flight
is submitted to all appropriate air traffic services units, in accordance
with the Rules of the Air.

Operating in icing conditions — ground procedures

26.—(1) For every flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), the
pilot-in-command must not operate the aircraft in conditions where
ground icing is known or suspected to be present, unless the
aircraft —
(a) is inspected for icing; and
(b) is given such de-icing and anti-icing treatment as may be
required upon inspection.
(2) For every flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), the
pilot-in-command must not perform a take-off in the aircraft if —
(a) the aircraft has snow, ice or frost adhering to any wing,
rotor, stabiliser or control surface of the aircraft; or
(b) the aircraft has frost adhering to any propeller, windscreen
or engine installation,
unless such action is specifically permitted by the aircraft’s flight
manual and the take-off is performed in accordance with the
procedures in the aircraft’s flight manual.

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 27 S 441/2018

Operating in icing conditions — flight procedures

27. For any flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), the
pilot-in-command must not commence the flight or intentionally fly
the aircraft into expected or actual icing conditions unless the aircraft
is certificated and equipped to cope with such conditions.

Operating facilities
28.—(1) For any flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), the
pilot-in-command must not commence the flight from any aerodrome
unless the pilot-in-command has ascertained, by every reasonable
means available, that —
(a) the ground facilities at the aerodrome (including
communication facilities and navigation aids) that are
required for the safe operation of the aircraft are adequate
for the type of operation to be conducted; and
(b) the airspace containing the intended route from the
aerodrome of departure to the aerodrome of arrival
(including any intended take-off alternate aerodrome,
destination alternate aerodrome and en-route alternate
aerodrome) can be safely used for the type of operation
to be conducted.
(2) A pilot-in-command mentioned in paragraph (1) must —
(a) if the pilot-in-command ascertains or observes in the
course of conducting the operation that the ground
facilities mentioned in paragraph (1)(a) are not adequate
for the type of operation conducted — report, without
undue delay, the inadequacy of the ground facilities to the
authority responsible for the ground facilities; and
(b) if the pilot-in-command ascertains or observes in the
course of conducting the operation that the airspace
mentioned in paragraph (1)(b) is not safe for the type of
operation conducted — report, without undue delay, the
unsafe condition of the airspace to all appropriate air traffic

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S 441/2018 28

services units and the person who prepared the flight plan
for the operation.
[S 937/2020 wef 05/11/2020]

Use of aerodromes and landing sites

29.—(1) For any flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), the
pilot-in-command must not operate the aircraft at any aerodrome or
landing site unless —
(a) the aerodrome or landing site is adequate, taking into
account the performance of the aircraft and the
characteristics of the runway; and
(b) at the expected time of use, the aerodrome or landing site is
available and equipped with the necessary ancillary
services and facilities (including air traffic services,
lighting, communications, weather reporting, navigation
aids and emergency services).
(2) For any flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b) involving a
helicopter, the pilot-in-command must not operate the helicopter
unless the pilot-in-command is satisfied that —
(a) any place to be used as a heliport, or landing site, within a
congested area of a city, town or settlement has physical
characteristics, obstacle limitation surfaces and visual aids
commensurate with the characteristics of the helicopter
being operated and the ambient light conditions;
(b) any place to be used as a heliport, or as a place to hover,
that is outside a congested area of a city, town or
settlement —
(i) is suitable for the helicopter to hover clear of
obstructions; and
(ii) if it is to be used as a heliport, has a surface area
suitable for touchdown and lift-off; and
(c) any place to be used as a heliport, or as a place to hover, has
approach and take-off paths such that, if the helicopter is
not operating in Performance Class 1, an emergency

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 29 S 441/2018

landing can be conducted without causing undue risk to

any person or property on the ground.
(3) A person must not operate —
(a) any helicopter from an elevated heliport in a congested
area within Singapore; or
(b) any Singapore registered helicopter from an elevated
heliport in a congested area outside Singapore,
unless the helicopter is being operated in Performance Class 1.
(4) A Singapore operator must not operate any helicopter from an
elevated heliport in a congested area outside Singapore unless the
helicopter is being operated in Performance Class 1.

Requirement to use certified aerodromes

30.—(1) The pilot-in-command of any aircraft within Singapore
that is being operated for commercial air transport must not take off
or land at any place in Singapore other than —
(a) an aerodrome certified in accordance with paragraph 67 of
the Air Navigation Order; or
(b) a government aerodrome listed in an official publication
issued by the AIS provider (such as an AIP or a NOTAM).
(2) The pilot-in-command of an aircraft within Singapore that is
being operated for a purpose other than commercial air transport must
not take off or land at any place in Singapore other than an aerodrome
described in paragraph (1)(a) or (b) unless otherwise approved by the
Director-General of Civil Aviation.
(3) Despite paragraphs (1) and (2), the pilot-in-command of an
aircraft in Singapore may select any suitable site in Singapore to land
the aircraft during an emergency if —
(a) there is no alternative landing site; and
(b) the risks to other parties have been minimised.

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S 441/2018 30

General aerodrome operating minima

31.—(1) The pilot-in-command for a flight mentioned in
regulation 3(1)(a) or (b) must not use an aerodrome as a departure,
destination or alternate aerodrome if the aerodrome operating minima
established by the State of the Aerodrome cannot be complied with.
(2) The pilot-in-command of a helicopter for a flight mentioned in
regulation 3(1)(a) or (b) must not conduct any night operation
without ground lighting to illuminate the final approach and take-off
area, the runway and any obstacle within the aerodrome unless,
before the commencement of the operation, the Director-General of
Civil Aviation granted the pilot-in-command permission to conduct
the operation without the requisite ground lighting.
(3) The Director-General of Civil Aviation may grant the
permission mentioned in paragraph (2) subject to such conditions
as the Director-General of Civil Aviation considers necessary or
expedient to impose.

Aerodrome operating minima — general requirements

32.—(1) The pilot-in-command of a Singapore registered aircraft
must, for every aerodrome that may be used in an aircraft operation,
establish aerodrome operating minima —
(a) that takes into account the factors listed in paragraph (2);
and
(b) that must not be lower than the aerodrome operating
minima established or otherwise approved for that
aerodrome by the State of the Aerodrome established or
otherwise.
(2) The pilot-in-command of a Singapore registered aircraft must
take into account the following factors when establishing the
aerodrome operating minima:
(a) the type, performance and handling characteristics of the
aircraft;
(b) the pilot-in-command’s competence and experience;

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 31 S 441/2018

(c) the dimensions and characteristics of the runways and final

approach and take-off areas that may be selected for use;
(d) the adequacy and performance of the available visual and
non-visual ground aids;
(e) the equipment available on the aircraft for the purpose of
navigation and control of the flight path, during take-off,
approach, flare, landing, rollout and any missed approach;
(f) the obstacles in the approach, the missed approach and the
climb-out areas necessary for the execution of contingency
procedures;
(g) the obstacle clearance altitude for the instrument approach
procedures;
(h) the means to determine and report meteorological
conditions;
(i) the flight technique to be used during the final approach.
(3) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not use any
head-up display or enhanced vision system, where equipped, to gain
operational credit in operations with lower visibility than that allowed
under the aerodrome operating minima except under and in
accordance with an approval granted to the operator —
(a) in the case of an aircraft operated for general aviation, by
the State of Registry; or
(b) in the case of an aircraft operated for commercial air
transport or aerial work, by the State of the Operator.
(4) For the purposes of paragraph (3) —
(a) where the aircraft is a Singapore registered aircraft
operated for general aviation; or
(b) where the aircraft is operated by a Singapore operator,
the relevant approval is an approval granted by the Director-General
of Civil Aviation under the Air Navigation (98 — Special Operations)
Regulations 2018 (G.N. No. S 442/2018) for that purpose.

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S 441/2018 32

(5) The operator of a flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b)

must not use aerodrome operating minima lower than Category I for
any flight except under and in accordance with an approval granted to
the operator by the Director-General of Civil Aviation under the Air
Navigation (98 — Special Operations) Regulations 2018 for that
purpose.

Aerodrome operating minima — commercial air transport

operations by foreign operator in Singapore
33.—(1) A foreign operator conducting commercial air transport
operations must not operate an aircraft in or over Singapore unless the
foreign operator —
(a) has provided the Director-General of Civil Aviation with
such particulars of the foreign operator’s aerodrome
operating minima for aerodromes in Singapore that the
foreign operator has specified for the purpose of limiting
the use of aerodromes in Singapore for take-off or landing
by the foreign operator’s aircraft; and
(b) has complied with the instruction, if any, given by the
Director-General of Civil Aviation to make an amendment
or an addition to the aerodrome operating minima
mentioned in sub-paragraph (a) for the purpose of
ensuring the safety of the aircraft or the safety, efficiency
or regularity of air navigation in Singapore.
(2) The Director-General of Civil Aviation may, from time to time,
require the foreign operator to provide the particulars mentioned in
paragraph (1)(a).

Noise abatement procedures

34.—(1) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must comply
with noise abatement procedures to the extent that the procedures do
not have a detrimental effect on aircraft safety.
(2) The pilot-in-command of a Singapore registered aircraft of a
type specified in paragraph (5) may not land or take off in Singapore
unless —

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 33 S 441/2018

(a) there is in force a noise certificate in respect of that aircraft

that is issued by the Director-General of Civil Aviation in
accordance with the Air Navigation Order; and
(b) all of the conditions subject to which the noise certificate
was issued are complied with.
(3) The pilot-in-command of a foreign registered aircraft of a type
specified in paragraph (5) —
(a) that is in or over Singapore; or
(b) that is operated by a Singapore operator,
may not land or take off in Singapore unless paragraph (4) can be
complied with.
(4) For a foreign registered aircraft of a type specified in
paragraph (5) to land or take-off in Singapore —
(a) there must be in force a noise certificate in respect of that
aircraft —
(i) that is issued, or validated, by the competent
authority of the State of Registry pursuant to
Annex 16 to the Chicago Convention; or
(ii) that is issued, or validated, by the competent
authority of the State of Registry and the
Director-General of Civil Aviation is of the opinion
that the standards applied by that competent
authority are substantially equivalent to Annex 16
to the Chicago Convention; and
(b) all of the conditions subject to which the noise certificate
was issued must be complied with.
(5) For the purposes of paragraphs (2), (3) and (4), the specified
aircraft types are —
(a) any subsonic jet aeroplane;
(b) any supersonic aeroplane;

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S 441/2018 34

(c) any propeller-driven aeroplane, other than —

(i) a propeller-driven aeroplane that is specifically
designed and used for agricultural or firefighting
purposes; and
(ii) a propeller-driven aeroplane with an MCTOM not
exceeding 8,618 kg that is specifically designed and
used for aerobatic purposes; and
(d) any helicopter, other than a helicopter that is specifically
designed and used —
(i) for agricultural or firefighting purposes; or
(ii) for the purpose of carrying an external load.
(6) Paragraphs (2), (3) and (4) do not apply to —
(a) an aircraft to be flown in accordance with “A Conditions”,
“B Conditions” or “D Conditions” set out in the
Second Schedule to the Air Navigation Order; or
[S 209/2020 wef 01/04/2020]

(b) an aircraft in respect of which no noise certification

standards are specified in Annex 16 to the Chicago
Convention.

Alternate aerodromes — general requirements

35. The pilot-in-command of a Singapore registered aircraft must
not nominate an aerodrome as an alternate aerodrome unless —
(a) where the aerodrome has a specified instrument approach
procedure, weather forecasts indicate that, at the estimated
time of use of the alternate aerodrome, the cloud ceiling
and visibility will be at or above the minima specified; or
(b) where the aerodrome has no specified instrument approach
procedure, weather forecasts indicate that the cloud ceiling
and visibility will be at or above the VFR minima specified
in the Rules of the Air.

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 35 S 441/2018

Destination alternate
36.—(1) Subject to paragraph (2), the pilot-in-command of a
Singapore registered aeroplane must nominate at least one destination
alternate aerodrome for any flight of the aeroplane that is to be
conducted in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules.
(2) A destination alternate aerodrome is not required for a flight of a
Singapore registered aeroplane that is conducted in accordance with
the Instrument Flight Rules —
(a) when the duration of the flight from the departure
aerodrome, or from the point of in-flight re-planning, to
the destination aerodrome is such that, taking into account
all meteorological conditions and operational information
relevant to the flight, at the estimated time of use of the
destination aerodrome, a reasonable certainty exists that —
(i) the approach and landing may be made under visual
meteorological conditions; and
(ii) the destination aerodrome has separate runways that
are usable, with at least one runway having an
operational instrument approach procedure; or
(b) when all of the following conditions are met:
(i) the aerodrome of intended landing is an isolated
aerodrome;
(ii) a standard instrument approach procedure is
prescribed for the aerodrome of intended landing;
(iii) a point of no return is determined;
(iv) the flight is continued past the point of no return only
when the current available meteorological
information indicates that both of the following
meteorological conditions will exist at the aerodrome
of intended landing at the estimated time of use:
(A) a cloud base of at least 300 m (1,000 ft) above
the minimum cloud base associated with the
instrument approach procedure;

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S 441/2018 36

(B) visibility of at least 5.5 km (3 NM), or of 4 km

(2 NM) more than the minimum visibility
associated with the procedure.
(3) Subject to paragraph (4), the pilot-in-command of a Singapore
registered helicopter must nominate at least one destination alternate
heliport for any flight of the helicopter that is to be conducted under
the Instrument Flight Rules.
(4) A destination alternate heliport is not required for a flight of a
Singapore registered helicopter that is conducted in accordance with
the Instrument Flight Rules —
(a) when the current available meteorological information
indicates that, at the estimated time of use of the heliport of
intended landing, the following meteorological conditions
will exist:
(i) a cloud base of at least 120 m (400 ft) above the
minimum cloud base associated with the instrument
approach procedure;
(ii) visibility of at least 1.5 km more than the minimum
visibility associated with the procedure; or
(b) when all of the following conditions are met:
(i) the heliport of intended landing is an isolated
heliport;
(ii) no suitable alternate heliport is available;
(iii) an instrument approach procedure is prescribed for
the isolated heliport of intended landing;
(iv) a point of no return is determined, if the heliport of
intended landing is an offshore destination.
(5) The pilot-in-command of a Singapore registered aircraft must
ensure that, for every flight mentioned in paragraph (1) or (3) (as the
case may be), the flight plan specifies the aerodrome or heliport that
was nominated as the destination alternate aerodrome or destination
alternate heliport.

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 37 S 441/2018

Fuel and oil requirements — aeroplanes

37.—(1) The pilot-in-command of a Singapore registered
aeroplane must not commence a flight unless the aeroplane carries
sufficient fuel and oil to complete the flight, taking into account
weather reports, forecasts and weather conditions.
(2) In paragraph (1), “sufficient fuel” means the amount of fuel
required for an aeroplane —
(a) when flying in accordance with the Instrument Flight
Rules —
(i) to complete the flight to the intended destination with
the final reserve fuel remaining if —
(A) a destination alternate aerodrome is not
required in accordance with
regulation 36(2)(a); or
(B) the intended destination is an isolated
aerodrome; or
(ii) to fly to the intended destination, and then to an
alternate, and complete the flight with the final
reserve fuel remaining, if a destination alternate
aerodrome is required in accordance with
regulation 36(1);
(b) when flying in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules by
day, to complete the flight to the intended destination with
the final reserve fuel remaining; or
(c) when flying in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules by
night, to complete the flight to the intended destination
with the final reserve fuel remaining.
(3) When fuel is used after the commencement of the flight for any
purpose other than the originally intended purpose (as determined
during pre-flight planning), the pilot-in-command of the Singapore
registered aeroplane must re-analyse the fuel required and adjust the
planned operation, if applicable.
(4) Nothing in this regulation prohibits the amendment of a flight
plan of an aeroplane in flight in order to change the destination

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S 441/2018 38

aerodrome if the requirements in this regulation can be complied with

from the point where the flight is re-planned.
(5) In this regulation, “final reserve fuel” means —
(a) for the purposes of paragraph (2)(a)(i) and (ii) and (c), the
amount of fuel required for an aeroplane to fly for
45 minutes at the aeroplane’s normal cruising speed; and
(b) for the purpose of paragraph (2)(b), the amount of fuel
required for an aeroplane to fly for 30 minutes at the
aeroplane’s normal cruising speed.

Fuel and oil requirements — helicopters

38.—(1) The pilot-in-command of a Singapore registered
helicopter must not commence a flight unless the helicopter carries
sufficient fuel and oil to complete the flight, taking into account the
following factors:
(a) meteorological conditions forecast;
(b) expected air traffic control routings and traffic delays;
(c) for IFR flights, to allow for one instrument approach at the
destination heliport, including a missed approach;
(d) the procedures for loss of pressurisation, where applicable,
or failure of one engine while en-route;
(e) any other conditions that may delay the landing of the
helicopter, or increase fuel or oil consumption, or both.
(2) In paragraph (1), “sufficient fuel” means the amount of fuel
required for a helicopter —
(a) when flying in accordance with the Instrument Flight
Rules and a destination alternate heliport is not required in
accordance with regulation 36(4)(a) —
(i) to fly to and execute an approach at the intended
destination; and
(ii) to have a final reserve fuel, and an additional amount
of fuel to provide for the increased consumption of

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 39 S 441/2018

fuel on the occurrence of potential contingencies,

remaining thereafter;
(b) when flying in accordance with the Instrument Flight
Rules and a destination alternate heliport is required in
accordance with regulation 36(3) —
(i) to fly to and execute an approach and a missed
approach at the intended destination;
(ii) to fly to and execute an approach at the alternate
heliport specified in the flight plan after the
procedures in sub-paragraph (i); and
(iii) to have a final reserve fuel, and an additional amount
of fuel to provide for the increased consumption of
fuel on the occurrence of potential contingencies,
remaining after the procedures in sub-paragraphs (i)
and (ii);
(c) when flying in accordance with the Instrument Flight
Rules and a destination alternate heliport is not available in
accordance with regulation 36(4)(b), to fly for a period that
will, based on geographic and environment conditions at
the destination heliport, enable a safe landing to be made;
and
(d) when flying in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules —
(i) to fly to the intended destination; and
(ii) to have a final reserve fuel, and an additional amount
of fuel to provide for the increased consumption of
fuel on the occurrence of potential contingencies,
remaining thereafter.
(3) When fuel is used after the commencement of the flight for
purposes other than the originally intended purpose (as determined
during pre-flight planning), the pilot-in-command of the Singapore
registered helicopter must re-analyse the fuel required and adjust the
planned operation, if applicable.

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S 441/2018 40

(4) In this regulation, “final reserve fuel” means —

(a) for the purpose of paragraph (2)(a), the amount of fuel
required for a helicopter to fly for 30 minutes at 450 m
(1,500 ft) above the destination heliport or landing
location, holding at endurance speed, under standard
temperature conditions, with standard approach
procedures and standard landing procedures;
(b) for the purpose of paragraph (2)(b), the amount of fuel
required for a helicopter to fly for 30 minutes at 450 m
(1,500 ft) above the destination alternate heliport or
landing location, holding at endurance speed, under
standard temperature conditions, and with standard
approach procedures and standard landing procedures; and
(c) for the purpose of paragraph (2)(d), the amount of fuel
required for a helicopter to fly for 20 minutes at endurance
speed.

In-flight fuel management

39.—(1) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must monitor
the amount of usable fuel remaining on board to ensure the amount of
usable fuel is not less than the amount of fuel required to proceed to
an aerodrome or landing site (as applicable) where a safe landing can
be made, with the planned final reserve fuel remaining.
(2) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must advise the
appropriate air traffic control unit of a minimum fuel state by
declaring “MINIMUM FUEL” when, after committing to land at a
specific aerodrome or landing site (as applicable), the
pilot-in-command calculates that the aircraft may land with less
than the planned final reserve fuel if there is —
(a) any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome or
landing site; or
(b) any other air traffic delay.
(3) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must declare a
situation of fuel emergency by broadcasting “MAYDAY MAYDAY
MAYDAY FUEL” when the calculated usable fuel estimated to be

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 41 S 441/2018

available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome or landing site (as

applicable) where a safe landing can be made is less than the planned
final reserve fuel.

Checklists
40. The pilot-in-command for a flight mentioned in
regulation 3(1)(a) or (b) must ensure that, where a checklist is
provided to ensure compliance with operating procedures, the
checklist is used by the assigned flight crew.

Use of Airborne Collision Avoidance System II (ACAS II)

41.—(1) When ACAS II is installed in an aircraft mentioned in
regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), the pilot-in-command must ensure that
ACAS II is used during flight in a mode that enables Resolution
Advisories (RAs) to be produced unless the use of ACAS II in that
mode is not appropriate for conditions existing at the time.
(2) When ACAS II produces an RA, the pilot flying the aircraft
mentioned in paragraph (1) must immediately take the corrective
action indicated by the RA, even if the action conflicts with an
instruction from the appropriate air traffic control unit.
(3) The pilot flying an aircraft mentioned in paragraph (1) must use
appropriate procedures to ensure that a rate of climb or descent not
exceeding 8 m/sec (1,500 ft/min) is achieved throughout the last
300 m (1,000 ft) of climb or descent to the assigned altitude or flight
level unless the appropriate air traffic control unit instructs otherwise.
(4) Nothing in this regulation prohibits the pilot-in-command of an
aircraft mentioned in paragraph (1) from exercising the
pilot-in-command’s judgment and full authority in the choice of
action to resolve a traffic conflict or avert a potential collision.

Crew members at station

42.—(1) For every flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), the
pilot-in-command must ensure that —
(a) every person assigned duty on the flight as a crew member
who is on duty during take-off, landing or such other time
as the pilot-in-command directs, is at the crew member’s

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S 441/2018 42

station with the safety belt, or harness where so equipped,

fastened unless the person’s absence is necessary for the
performance of duties in connection with the operation of
the aircraft; or
(b) every person assigned duty on the flight as a flight crew
member who is required to be on flight deck duty remains
at the flight crew member’s station with the safety belt
fastened unless the person’s absence is necessary for the
performance of duties in connection with the operation of
the aircraft or out of physiological need.
(2) A person assigned duty as a crew member for a flight mentioned
in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b) must not perform any activity during a
critical phase of flight unless the activity is required for the safe
operation of the aircraft.

Use of oxygen
43.—(1) The pilot-in-command for an aircraft mentioned in
regulation 3(1)(a) or (b) that has a non-pressurised cabin must
ensure that —
(a) when the aircraft is flying above flight level 100 up to and
including flight level 130, and the duration of the flight at
those altitudes is more than 30 minutes, all the flight crew
members use oxygen;
(b) before the aircraft reaches flight level 130, the method of
use of the oxygen provided in the aircraft is demonstrated
to all passengers; and
(c) when the aircraft is flying above flight level 130 —
(i) all passengers and crew members are instructed to
use oxygen; and
(ii) all the flight crew members continuously use
oxygen.
(2) The pilot-in-command for an aircraft mentioned in
regulation 3(1)(a) or (b) that has a non-pressurised cabin must not
operate the aircraft above flight level 250.

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Flight crew communication

44. A person assigned duty as a flight crew member for any flight
mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), and who is required to be on
flight deck duty for the aircraft, must communicate through a boom or
throat microphone if the aircraft is —
(a) an aeroplane that is operating in accordance with the
Instrument Flight Rules below transition level or altitude;
or
(b) a helicopter.

Fuelling operations
45.—(1) A relevant operator must ensure that the aircraft is not
refuelled or defuelled when any passenger is embarking,
disembarking or on board the aircraft.
(2) A relevant operator must ensure that a helicopter is not refuelled
or defuelled when a helicopter rotor is turning.
(3) Paragraphs (1) and (2) do not apply when —
(a) the aircraft being refuelled or defuelled is properly
attended to by the pilot-in-command or other qualified
personnel, who is ready to initiate and direct an evacuation
of the aircraft in the most practical and expeditious means
available; and
(b) the relevant operator has ensured that two-way
communications is maintained, by the aircraft’s
intercommunications system or other suitable means,
between the ground crew supervising the refuelling or
defueling and the qualified personnel mentioned in
sub-paragraph (a).
(4) A relevant operator must ensure that appropriate precautions are
taken —
(a) when refuelling an aircraft with a fuel other than aviation
kerosene;
(b) when refuelling an aircraft results in a mixture of aviation
kerosene with other aviation turbine fuels; or

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S 441/2018 44

(c) when an open line is used.

Fuel spillage
46. When the refuelling or defuelling of a relevant aircraft results in
spilled fuel that is likely to endanger persons or property, the operator
must ensure that —
(a) the refuelling or defuelling is stopped immediately;
(b) the emergency services, where available, are summoned;
(c) immediate action is taken to reduce the fire hazard; and
(d) the aircraft is moved clear of the contaminated area, with
the agreement of any attending emergency services, before
any of the aircraft’s engine is started.

Journey log
47. On the completion of a flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or
(b), the pilot-in-command must —
(a) record in the journey log book or equivalent record, the
information specified in regulation 108; and
[S 209/2020 wef 01/04/2020]

(b) record in the technical log or other document acceptable to

the Director-General of Civil Aviation, any aircraft defects
that were identified during the flight.
[S 209/2020 wef 01/04/2020]

Reporting of weather and hazardous conditions

48.—(1) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must make a
report to the appropriate aeronautical station as soon as possible when
any of the following conditions are encountered or observed during
flight:
(a) moderate or severe turbulence;
(b) moderate or severe icing;
(c) severe mountain wave;
(d) thunderstorm (with or without hail), that are obscured,
embedded, widespread or in squall lines;

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 45 S 441/2018

(e) heavy duststorm or heavy sandstorm;

(f) volcanic ash cloud;
(g) pre-eruption volcanic activity or a volcanic eruption;
(h) any hazardous conditions other than those associated with
meteorological conditions, that in the pilot-in-command’s
opinion is likely to affect the safety of other aircraft.
(2) The report made under paragraph (1) must provide such details
as may be pertinent to the safety of other aircraft.

Reporting of unsatisfactory runway braking action

48A.—(1) The pilot-in-command of an aeroplane operated by a
holder of an air operator certificate granted under the Air Navigation
(119 — Air Operator Certification) Regulations 2018 must, as soon
as possible after encountering an unsatisfactory runway braking
action while landing the aircraft at an aerodrome, make a report to the
air traffic control unit at that aerodrome.
(2) The report made under paragraph (1) must —
(a) be made in the form and manner that the Director-General
of Civil Aviation requires; and
(b) contain any information regarding the runway surface
conditions encountered at the aerodrome by the pilot-in-
command that the Director-General of Civil Aviation
requires.
(3) In paragraph (1), “unsatisfactory runway braking action” means
a braking action that is worse than anticipated by the pilot-in-
command, based on the information available to the pilot-in-
command regarding the runway surface conditions at the
aerodrome of intended landing.
[S 836/2021 wef 04/11/2021]

Reporting of accidents, incidents and occurrences

49. The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft is responsible for
notifying the nearest appropriate authority by the quickest available
means of —

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S 441/2018 46

(a) any accident involving the aircraft resulting in serious

injury or the death of a person, or substantial damage to the
aircraft or property; or
(b) an emergency landing by the aircraft, as described in
regulation 30(3).

Obligation to report reportable safety matters

50.—(1) A responsible person must make a report to the Authority
in accordance with the notification requirements specified in the
Third Schedule if the responsible person has knowledge of any
reportable safety matter specified in the Third Schedule involving a
flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b).
(2) In paragraph (1), a “responsible person” means —
(a) in the case of an aircraft operated by a Singapore operator,
the Singapore operator; or
(b) in any other case involving a Singapore registered aircraft,
the pilot-in-command.
(3) A responsible person who fails to comply with paragraph (1)
shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction —
(a) for a first offence, to a fine not exceeding $50,000; and
(b) for a second or subsequent offence, to a fine not exceeding
$100,000.
[S 768/2018 wef 24/11/2018]

Occupation of seats and wearing of restraints

51.—(1) For a flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), the
pilot-in-command must require every person in the aircraft to occupy
a seat or berth and to fasten the person’s safety belt or restraining belt,
or shoulder harness or single diagonal shoulder belt if equipped, at the
following times:
(a) during take-off and landing;
(b) when the aircraft is flying at a height of less than 1,000 ft
above the surface, unless operational requirements

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 47 S 441/2018

preclude such restraints and the procedures are approved

by the Director-General of Civil Aviation;
(c) at any time when the pilot-in-command considers it
necessary for the person’s safety;
(d) during aerobatic flight; and
(e) at all times, if the aircraft is an open cockpit aircraft.
(2) For a flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), the
pilot-in-command must require each passenger to place the
passenger’s seat in the take-off and landing configuration during
take-off and landing.
(3) Paragraph (1)(a), (b) and (c) does not apply to a child below
2 years of age if the child —
(a) is held by an adult who is occupying a seat or berth and
who has the child securely restrained; or
(b) is accompanied by a parent, a guardian, or an attendant
designated by the child’s parent or guardian to attend to the
safety of the child during the flight and the child —
(i) is occupying a seat equipped with an approved child
restraint system; and
(ii) does not exceed the specified mass limit for that
system.
(4) Paragraphs (1) and (2) do not apply if the aircraft is a balloon.

Familiarity with operating limitations and emergency

equipment
52. For a flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), the
pilot-in-command must be familiar with the following matters
before commencing the flight:
(a) the aircraft’s flight manual;
(b) any placard, listing, or instrument marking containing an
operating limitation specified for the aircraft by the
manufacturer or the Director-General of Civil Aviation;
(c) the emergency equipment installed on the aircraft;

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S 441/2018 48

(d) the identity of every crew member assigned to operate an

item of emergency equipment;
(e) the procedures to be followed for the use of normal and
emergency equipment in an emergency situation.

Towing of gliders
53.—(1) A relevant operator must not use an aircraft to tow a glider
unless —
(a) the Certificate of Airworthiness issued or rendered valid in
respect of the towing aircraft under the law of its State of
Registry includes an express provision that the aircraft may
be used for that purpose; and
(b) the towing of the glider —
(i) is carried out in accordance with an approval granted
under the Air Navigation (137 — Aerial Work)
Regulations 2018; or
(ii) where sub-paragraph (i) does not apply, is carried out
for such purpose as the Director-General of Civil
Aviation may approve, subject to any condition that
may be imposed on the approval.
[S 677/2018 wef 09/10/2018]

(2) The relevant operator must ensure that the combination of

towing aircraft, tow rope and glider in flight does not exceed 150 m in
length.
(3) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not commence
a flight with a glider in tow unless the pilot-in-command is satisfied
of the following matters:
(a) the tow rope is in good condition and is of adequate
strength to tow the glider;
(b) the combination of the towing aircraft and the glider,
having regard to the performance of the combination in the
conditions to be expected on the intended flight and to any
obstructions at the place of departure and on the intended
route, is capable of safely taking off, reaching and

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 49 S 441/2018

maintaining a safe height at which the towing aircraft may

separate from the glider;
(c) the towing aircraft can make a safe landing at the intended
destination after separating from the glider;
(d) signals have been agreed and communications established
with persons suitably stationed so as to enable the glider to
take off safely;
(e) emergency signals have been agreed between the
pilot-in-command of the towing aircraft and the
pilot-in-command of the glider —
(i) for the pilot-in-command of the towing aircraft to
indicate that the tow should be immediately released
by the glider; and
(ii) for the pilot-in-command of the glider to indicate that
the tow cannot be released.
(4) In this regulation and regulation 54, “towing aircraft” means an
aircraft that is used to tow a glider.

Towing, picking up and raising of persons and articles

54.—(1) Subject to paragraph (2), a relevant operator must not, by
any means external to an aircraft, use the aircraft —
(a) to tow an article other than a glider; or
(b) to pick up or raise any person, animal or article.
(2) A relevant operator may use the aircraft for the purposes in
paragraph (1)(a) or (b) if —
(a) the Certificate of Airworthiness issued or rendered valid in
respect of the aircraft under the laws of its State of Registry
includes an express provision that the aircraft may be used
for that purpose; and
(b) the operation —
(i) is carried out in accordance with an approval granted
under the Air Navigation (137 — Aerial Work)
Regulations 2018; or

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S 441/2018 50

(ii) where sub-paragraph (i) does not apply, is carried out

for such purpose as the Director-General of Civil
Aviation may approve, subject to any condition that
may be imposed on the approval.
[S 677/2018 wef 09/10/2018]

(3) A relevant operator must ensure that an aircraft does not tow any
article other than a glider when in flight at night or when flight
visibility is less than 1.6 km.
(4) A relevant operator must ensure that combination of towing
aircraft, tow rope and article in tow does not exceed —
(a) 150 m in length; or
(b) such other length as the Director-General of Civil Aviation
may authorise upon application by the operator.
(5) A relevant operator must ensure that, when an article, a person
or an animal, is being suspended from a helicopter that it operates —
(a) the helicopter does not fly at any height over a congested
area of a city, town or settlement; and
(b) the helicopter does not carry any passenger other than a
passenger who has duties to perform in connection with the
article, person or animal being suspended.
(6) Nothing in this regulation prohibits an aircraft from picking up
or raising any person, animal or article in an emergency or for the
purpose of saving life.
(7) This regulation does not apply to a relevant aircraft that is being
flown in accordance with the “B Conditions” set out in the
Second Schedule to the Air Navigation Order.

Dropping of persons and articles

55.—(1) A relevant operator must ensure that no article, animal or
person, whether or not attached to a parachute, is dropped or
permitted to drop to the surface from an aircraft flying in Singapore
unless —
(a) the Certificate of Airworthiness issued or rendered valid in
respect of the aircraft under the law of its State of Registry

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 51 S 441/2018

includes an express provision that the aircraft may be used

for that purpose; and
(b) the operation —
(i) is carried out in accordance with an approval granted
under the Air Navigation (137 — Aerial Work)
Regulations 2018; or
(ii) where sub-paragraph (i) does not apply, is carried out
for such purpose as the Director-General of Civil
Aviation may approve, subject to any condition that
may be imposed on the approval.
[S 677/2018 wef 09/10/2018]

(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to —

(a) the descent of persons by parachute from an aircraft in an
emergency; or
(b) the dropping of articles by or with the authority of the
pilot-in-command of the aircraft under the following
circumstances:
(i) the dropping of articles for the purpose of saving life;
(ii) the jettisoning of fuel or other articles in the aircraft,
in the case of an emergency;
(iii) the dropping of ballast in the form of fine sand or
water;
(iv) the dropping of ropes, banners or similar articles
towed by an aircraft at an aerodrome in accordance
with the Rules of the Air.
(3) In this regulation, “dropping” includes projecting and lowering.

Division 3 — Operating limitations

Meteorological conditions — VFR flight
56. The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not
commence a flight in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules
unless current meteorological reports, or a combination of current
reports and forecasts, indicate that the meteorological conditions

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S 441/2018 52

along the route or that part of the route to be flown in accordance with
the Visual Flight Rules will be such as to enable compliance with the
Visual Flight Rules at the appropriate time.

Meteorological conditions — IFR flight

57. Where a relevant aircraft is to be operated in accordance with
the Instrument Flight Rules, the pilot-in-command —
(a) must not take off from the departure aerodrome unless —
(i) the meteorological conditions at the departure
aerodrome are at or above the aerodrome operating
minima for that operation at the time of use; and
(ii) the current meteorological reports, or a combination
of current reports and forecasts, indicate that the
meteorological conditions at the aerodrome of
intended landing, or at every alternate aerodrome
selected in accordance with regulation 35 or 36 (as
the case may be), will be at or above the aerodrome
operating minima for that operation at the estimated
time of use; and
(b) must not continue beyond the point of in-flight re-planning
unless paragraph (a)(ii) can be complied with.

Departure limitations — IFR flight

58.—(1) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not
commence a flight in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules
unless —
(a) the weather conditions at the departure aerodrome are at or
above the weather minima specified for take-off in
accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules, as
determined in accordance with the requirements of the
State of Registry or the State of the Operator (as
applicable); and
(b) the relevant runway visual range at the departure
aerodrome is at least 400 m, except when the flight is

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 53 S 441/2018

conducted in accordance with an approval issued or

granted by the State of Registry.
(2) In the case of a Singapore registered aircraft, the approval
mentioned in paragraph (1)(b) is granted by the Director-General of
Civil Aviation under the Air Navigation (98 — Special Operations)
Regulations 2018.

Requirements for take-off — helicopters

59.—(1) Despite regulations 56 and 57, where a relevant aircraft is
a helicopter, the pilot-in-command may commence a take-off —
(a) when the reported meteorological visibility at the departure
heliport is below that required to take-off and the runway
visual range is not reported; or
(b) when there is no reported meteorological visibility or
runway visual range available for the departure heliport,
if the pilot-in-command can determine that the runway visual range
and visibility along the take-off final approach and take-off area and
runway are equal to or better than the required minima.
(2) Where a relevant aircraft is a helicopter that is operating under
Performance Class 2, the pilot-in-command must remain clear of
cloud during the take-off manoeuvre until the helicopter reaches
Performance Class 1 capabilities.

Approach and landing conditions

60. The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not continue a
flight towards the aerodrome of intended landing unless the latest
available information indicates that, at the expected time of arrival at
the aerodrome of intended landing, a landing can be effected at that
aerodrome or at least one destination alternate aerodrome, in
compliance with the appropriate operating minima.

Commencement and continuation of approach

61.—(1) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not
continue an instrument approach operation —

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S 441/2018 54

(a) at an altitude above the aerodrome of intended landing that

is below 300 m (1,000 ft) or into the final approach
segment, unless the reported visibility or controlling RVR
is at or above the aerodrome operating minima; or
(b) beyond a point at which the limits of the operating minima
specified for that aerodrome would be infringed.
(2) Despite paragraph (1), the pilot-in-command may continue the
approach to decision altitude or height (DA/H) or minimum descent
altitude or height (MDA/H) (as applicable) if —
(a) after entering the final approach segment; or
(b) after descending to an altitude above the aerodrome
elevation that is below 300 m (1,000 ft),
the reported visibility or controlling RVR at the aerodrome of
intended landing falls below the aerodrome operating minima.
(3) Where the relevant aircraft is a helicopter, the pilot-in-command
must not continue an approach below MDA/H unless at least one of
the following visual references of the intended final approach and
take-off area or runway at the heliport of intended landing is distinctly
visible and identifiable to the pilot-in-command:
(a) the elements of approach light system;
(b) the threshold;
(c) the threshold markings;
(d) the threshold lights;
(e) the threshold identification lights;
(f) the visual glide slope indicator;
(g) the touchdown zone;
(h) the touchdown zone markings;
(i) the lights at the final approach and take-off area or edge of
the runway;
(j) any other visual references as the Director-General of Civil
Aviation may approve.

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 55 S 441/2018

(4) The pilot-in-command of —

(a) an aeroplane operated by a holder of an air operator
certificate granted under the Air Navigation (119 — Air
Operator Certification) Regulations 2018; or
(b) a Singapore registered aircraft that —
(i) has an MCTOM exceeding 5,700 kg; or
(ii) is equipped with at least one turbine engine,
must not continue an approach to landing unless the pilot-in-
command is satisfied that the aircraft can make a safe landing,
taking into account —
(c) the performance of the aircraft; and
(d) the information available to the pilot-in-command
regarding the runway surface conditions at the
aerodrome of intended landing.
[S 836/2021 wef 04/11/2021]

Instrument approach procedures

62. The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft that is being
operated in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules must comply
with the instrument approach procedures approved by the State of the
Aerodrome or the State responsible for any aerodrome that is located
outside the territory of any State.

Prohibition against smoking during take-off and landing

63.—(1) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not
smoke during take-off and landing.
(2) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must ensure that no
person smokes in the aircraft during take-off and landing.
(3) Any pilot-in-command who fails to comply with paragraph (1)
shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine
not exceeding $5,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding
12 months or to both.

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S 441/2018 56

Division 4 — Mass and balance

Aircraft load limitation
64. The pilot-in-command for a flight mentioned in
regulation 3(1)(a) or (b) must ensure that the limitations, contained
in the aircraft’s flight manual or other approved document, relating to
mass and balance of the aircraft are complied with.

Division 5 — Performance
Performance — General
65.—(1) The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not
commence a flight unless the pilot-in-command has determined that
the aircraft is capable of —
(a) taking off safely;
(b) reaching and maintaining a safe height thereafter; and
(c) making a safe landing at the place of intended destination,
having regard to the performance of the aircraft in the conditions to be
expected on the intended flight, and to any obstructions at the places
of departure, intended destination and on the intended route.
(2) For every flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), the
operator must ensure that the aircraft meets the aircraft performance
requirements specified by the Director-General of Civil Aviation in
Aviation Specifications 1 — Aircraft Performance Class for the
applicable performance class in respect of during take-off, climb,
en-route and landing.

Division 6 — Instrument and equipment requirements

Application and interpretation
66.—(1) The provisions in this Division do not apply to any aircraft
that is operated by a Singapore operator.
(2) In this Division, “operator” does not include Singapore
operator.

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 57 S 441/2018

General requirements for instrument and equipment on

aircraft
67.—(1) The operator of a foreign registered aircraft in Singapore
must not operate the aircraft unless the aircraft is equipped in
accordance with the laws of its State of Registry.
(2) Except for a prescribed instrument or item of equipment that is
listed in the Fourth Schedule, the operator of a Singapore registered
aircraft must ensure that the prescribed instrument or item of
equipment (and the manner of its installation), is approved or
accepted by the Director-General of Civil Aviation in accordance
with the Air Navigation Order.

Inoperative instruments or equipment

68.—(1) Subject to paragraph (3), an operator of a Singapore
registered aircraft must not commence a flight using the aircraft if any
instrument or item of equipment that the aircraft is required, in the
circumstances of the intended flight, to carry under these Regulations
is not carried or is not in a fit condition for use.
(2) The Director-General of Civil Aviation may, subject to such
conditions as the Director-General of Civil Aviation considers fit,
permit an operator to operate a Singapore registered aircraft in
specified circumstances even if any instrument or item of equipment
that the aircraft is required, in the circumstances of the intended
flight, to carry under these Regulations is not carried or is not in a fit
condition for use.
(3) When a permission is granted under paragraph (2), the operator
may operate the Singapore registered aircraft under the circumstances
specified in the permission if —
(a) the operator has provided the particulars of the permission
to the pilot-in-command of the aircraft;
(b) the pilot-in-command has reviewed the particulars of the
permission and determined that compliance with
regulation 24 is possible; and

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S 441/2018 58

(c) any inoperative instrument or item of equipment is

conspicuously marked “Inoperative” and the required
maintenance is recorded in the technical log.

Minimum equipment list

69. An operator must not use a minimum equipment list for a
Singapore registered aircraft unless the minimum equipment list for
that aircraft —
(a) is based upon, but is no less restrictive than, the relevant
master minimum equipment list; and
(b) has been approved by the Director-General of Civil
Aviation.

Marking of break-in points

70.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft with an
MCTOM exceeding 3,600 kg must ensure that every area of the
aircraft fuselage suitable for break-in by rescue crews in the event of
an emergency (called in this regulation a break-in area) —
(a) is rectangular in shape;
(b) is marked on the exterior surface of the aircraft’s fuselage
by right-angled corner markings, each arm of which is
10 cm in length along its outer edge and 3 cm in width; and
(c) is marked across the centre with the words “CUT HERE IN
EMERGENCY”.
(2) Where a break-in area marked in accordance with paragraph (1)
has corner markings that are more than 2 m apart, the operator
mentioned in paragraph (1) must ensure that intermediate lines 10 cm
in length and 3 cm in width are marked on the break-in area such that
the distance between adjacent markings does not exceed 2 m.
(3) The operator mentioned in paragraph (1) must ensure that every
marking required under this regulation —
(a) is red in colour; and
(b) in any case in which the colour of the adjacent background
renders the red markings not readily visible, is outlined in

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white or some other contrasting colour in such a manner as

to render the marking readily visible.
(4) The operator mentioned in paragraph (1) must ensure that every
marking required under this regulation —
(a) is painted or affixed by other equally permanent means;
and
(b) is kept clean and unobscured at all times.

Location of instruments and equipment

71. An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure
that —
(a) any instrument or item of equipment to be operated or used
by a single pilot is installed in the aircraft so that the
instrument or item of equipment can be readily seen and
operated from that pilot’s normal seating position with
minimum practicable deviation from the pilot’s normal
line of sight when the aircraft is in flight; and
(b) any single instrument or item of equipment to be operated
or used by 2 pilots is installed in the aircraft so that the
instrument or item of equipment can be readily seen and
operated from each pilot’s normal seating position.

Markings and placards

72. An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure that
on the aircraft —
(a) any placard, listing or instrument marking that specifies the
aircraft’s operating limitations is displayed —
(i) in a conspicuous place in the aircraft; and
(ii) in such a manner as to minimise the risk of erasure,
disfigurement, obscuring or removal;
(b) each unit of measure used on a placard, listing or
instrument marking is the same as that on any related
instrument or in the related flight manual;

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(c) each fuel contents gauge is clearly marked to indicate the

units to which the gauge is calibrated;
(d) a placard or marking is displayed in the immediate vicinity
of each fuel and oil filler with the specification or grade, or
both, of fuel or oil, as appropriate; and
(e) any placard or marking required under any certificate
issued in respect of the aircraft is present at the designated
location and is legible.

Seating and restraints

73.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure
that the aircraft is equipped with —
(a) a seat or berth for each person on board; and
(b) a safety belt for each seat and restraining belts for each
berth.
(2) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure that
each flight crew member seat is equipped with —
(a) a safety harness; or
(b) if the aircraft type certificate allows, a seat belt with a
diagonal shoulder strap.
(3) Despite paragraph (1), a child being carried on board in
accordance with regulation 51(3)(a) does not require a seat, berth,
safety belt or restraining belt.

Aircraft operating under VFR

74.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft to be flown
in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules must ensure that the
aircraft is equipped with a means of measuring and displaying —
(a) magnetic heading;
(b) barometric altitude;
[S 209/2020 wef 01/04/2020]

(c) indicated airspeed;

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(d) mach number, if the speed limitation prescribed by the

aircraft flight manual is expressed in terms of mach
number; and
(e) the time in hours, minutes and seconds.
(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to any aircraft that is a non-power
driven aircraft.

Equipment for flight in icing conditions

75. An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft to be operated in
circumstances in which icing conditions are reported to exist or are
expected to be encountered must ensure that the aircraft is certificated
and equipped to operate in icing conditions for flight.

Aircraft operating under IFR or at night

76.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft to be flown
in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules, or when the surface is
not in sight, must ensure that the aircraft is equipped with a means of
measuring and displaying —
(a) magnetic heading (such as a standby compass);
(b) barometric altitude;
(c) indicated airspeed, with a means of preventing
malfunctioning due to condensation or icing;
(d) mach number, if the speed limitation specified in the
aircraft’s flight manual is expressed in terms of mach
number;
(e) stabilised aircraft heading;
(f) the adequacy of the power supply to any gyroscopic
instrument;
(g) the outside air temperature;
(h) the rate of climb and descent;
(i) turn and slip if the aircraft is an aeroplane, or slip if the
aircraft is a helicopter;

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(j) aircraft attitude for each required pilot, except that in an

aeroplane one such indicator may be replaced with a turn
and slip indicator; and
(k) an additional indicator of aircraft attitude, if the aircraft is a
helicopter; and
(l) the time in hours, minutes and seconds.
(2) When an aircraft mentioned in paragraph (1) is to be flown at
night, the operator must ensure that the aircraft is equipped with the
following lights:
(a) any light required by the Rules of the Air;
(b) illumination for all flight instruments and equipment
essential for the safe operation of the aircraft;
(c) lights in all passenger compartments;
(d) an independent portable light for each crew member
station;
(e) a landing light which, if the aircraft is a helicopter, must be
trainable in the vertical plane.
(3) In paragraph (1) and regulation 77, “the surface is not in sight”
means —
(a) the flight crew is not able to see sufficient features of the
surface; or
(b) the surface illumination is insufficient to enable the flight
crew to maintain the aircraft in a desired attitude without
reference to any flight instrument.
[S 209/2020 wef 01/04/2020]

Spare fuses
77. An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft to be flown —
(a) in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules or the
Instrument Flight Rules; or
(b) when the surface is not in sight,

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must ensure that the aircraft is equipped with an appropriate quantity

of spare fuses of relevant ratings for the replacement of those
electrical fuses which are accessible during flight.

Communication equipment
78.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure
that the aircraft is equipped with —
(a) radio communication equipment that is capable of
providing a continuous two-way communication with an
appropriate air traffic services unit or aeronautical
telecommunications facility, and receiving
meteorological information, at any time during the flight;
and
(b) a headset with a boom or throat microphone.
(2) The radio communication equipment required under
paragraph (1)(a) must provide for communication on the
emergency frequency 121.5 MHz.
(3) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must not operate
the aircraft in defined portions of airspace or on a route where the
appropriate air traffic services authority has specified a required
communications performance for performance-based communication
unless —
(a) the aircraft is equipped with the capability of operating in
accordance with the specified required communications
performance; and
(b) the operator has an approval granted by the
Director-General of Civil Aviation under the Air
Navigation (98 — Special Operations) Regulations 2018
for that purpose.

Navigation equipment
79.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure
that the aircraft is equipped with a navigation system that enables the
aircraft to proceed in accordance with the flight plan and the
requirements of the appropriate air traffic services authority, except

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when navigation for a VFR flight is accomplished by visual reference

to landmarks.
(2) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must not operate
an aircraft in an area where the appropriate air traffic services
authority has specified a navigation specification for
performance-based navigation unless —
(a) the aircraft is equipped with the capability of operating in
accordance with the required navigation specifications;
and
(b) the operator has an approval granted by the
Director-General of Civil Aviation under the Air
Navigation (98 — Special Operations) Regulations 2018
for that purpose.
(3) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must not operate
an aircraft in RVSM airspace unless —
(a) the aircraft is equipped with the capability of —
(i) indicating to the flight crew the flight level being
flown;
(ii) automatically maintaining a selected flight level;
(iii) providing an alert to the flight crew when the altitude
of the aircraft deviates from the selected flight level
by more than 300 ft (90 m); and
(iv) automatically reporting pressure altitude; and
(b) the operator has an approval granted by the
Director-General of Civil Aviation under the Air
Navigation (98 — Special Operations) Regulations 2018
for that purpose.

Surveillance Equipment
80.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must equip
the aircraft with surveillance equipment for the aircraft to operate in
accordance with the requirements of the appropriate air traffic
services authority.

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(2) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must not operate

the aircraft in an area where the appropriate air traffic services
authority has specified a required surveillance performance for
performance-based surveillance unless —
(a) the aircraft is equipped with the capability of operating in
accordance with the required surveillance performance
specifications; and
(b) the operator has an approval granted by the
Director-General of Civil Aviation under the Air
Navigation (98 — Special Operations) Regulations 2018
for that purpose.

Installation of communication, navigation, surveillance

equipment
81. An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure that
the installation on the aircraft of any equipment required for
communications, navigation or surveillance purposes is such that
the failure of any single unit of such equipment, or any combination
thereof, will not result in the failure of another unit required for
communications, navigation or surveillance purposes.

Landing in instrument meteorological conditions

82.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure
that the aircraft is provided with radio equipment appropriate to the
navigation aids to be used if the aircraft is expected to land in
instrument meteorological conditions.
(2) The equipment provided in accordance with paragraph (1) must
be capable of receiving signals to provide guidance to a point from
which a visual landing can be made at any aerodrome of intended
landing and any designated alternate aerodrome.

Category II or III precision approach equipment

83. An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must not use the
aircraft to conduct a Category II or III precision approach procedure
unless —

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(a) the aircraft is equipped with the capability to conduct such

operations; and
(b) the operator has an approval granted by the
Director-General of Civil Aviation under the Air
Navigation (98 — Special Operations) Regulations 2018
for that purpose.

Medical and emergency equipment

84.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure
that the aircraft is equipped with at least one first-aid kit.
(2) The operator must ensure that the first-aid kit mentioned in
paragraph (1) —
(a) is stowed in an accessible place; and
(b) contains items appropriate to the nature of the flight and
adequate to treat minor injuries.
(3) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure that
the aircraft is equipped with at least one fire extinguisher at each of
the following locations:
(a) the flight deck;
(b) any compartment that is separate from the flight deck and
that is not readily accessible to the flight crew.
(4) A fire extinguisher required under paragraph (3) —
(a) must be a type that will not cause dangerous contamination
of the air within the aircraft; and
(b) must not use any extinguishing agent listed in Annex A
Group II of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that
Deplete the Ozone Layer (8th Edition, 2009) if the fire
extinguisher is —
(i) a portable fire extinguisher in an aircraft for which
the Certificate of Airworthiness is first issued
(whether in Singapore or elsewhere) on or after
31 December 2018; or

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(ii) a built-in fire extinguisher located in a lavatory

disposal receptacle for towels, paper or waste in an
aircraft for which the Certificate of Airworthiness is
first issued (whether in Singapore or elsewhere) on
or after 31 December 2011.

Emergency locator transmitter

85.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure
that all required emergency locator transmitters —
(a) operate in accordance with the requirements of Volume III
of Annex 10 to the Chicago Convention; and
(b) are capable of transmitting on 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz.
(2) The operator must ensure that every emergency locator
transmitter capable of transmitting on 406 MHz —
(a) is coded in accordance with Volume III of Annex 10 to the
Chicago Convention; and
(b) is registered with the agency responsible for the
maintenance of the aircraft register.
(3) An operator of a Singapore registered aeroplane must ensure
that the aeroplane is equipped with —
(a) in the case of an aeroplane for which the Certificate of
Airworthiness was first issued after 1 July 2008, at least
one automatic emergency locator transmitter; and
(b) in any other case, at least one emergency locator
transmitter of any type.
(4) An operator of a Singapore registered helicopter must ensure
that the helicopter is equipped with —
(a) at least one automatic ELT; and
(b) when flying over water as described in regulation 87, at
least one survival emergency locator transmitter which is
stowed in a raft or with a life jacket.

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Survival equipment
86. An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure
that —
(a) the aircraft carries survival equipment and signalling
devices appropriate to the areas to be overflown; and
(b) the decision on the equipment to be carried must be made
with regard to the circumstances of the flight.

Flights over water

87.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure
that every life jacket provided in accordance with regulations 88 and
89 —
(a) is equipped with a survivor locator light;
(b) is equipped with a whistle, except for a life jacket
constructed and carried on board solely for use by a
child below 4 years of age; and
(c) is stowed in a place which is easily accessible from the seat
or berth of the person for whom the life jacket is provided.
(2) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure that
each life raft, life jacket or signalling device provided in accordance
with regulations 88 and 89 —
(a) is installed in a conspicuously identified location with the
contents clearly indicated; and
(b) is easily accessible in the event of a ditching.

Flights over water — aeroplanes

88.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered single-engine
landplane must ensure that the landplane is equipped with a life
jacket for each person on board if the landplane —
(a) is to be flown en-route over water beyond gliding distance
from the shore; or
(b) is to take off or land at an aerodrome where, in the opinion
of the pilot-in-command, the take-off or approach path is

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so disposed over water that in the event of a mishap there

would be a likelihood of ditching.
(2) Where a Singapore registered aeroplane is to be flown over
water and the operator has completed a survival risk assessment for
the flight, the operator —
(a) must determine that the aeroplane is equipped with life
rafts —
(i) that are of a sufficient number to accommodate all
the persons on board; and
(ii) that are stowed so as to facilitate ready use in the
event of an emergency;
(b) must provide the following equipment on the aeroplane:
(i) such life-saving equipment (including means of
sustaining life) as is appropriate to the flight to be
undertaken;
(ii) equipment for making the distress signals described
in the Rules of the Air;
(iii) any additional equipment decided with reference to
the operator’s survival risk assessment.
(3) Where the Singapore registered aeroplane to be operated over
water is a seaplane or an amphibian aeroplane, the operator must
ensure that the aeroplane is equipped with —
(a) the equipment for making sound signals, as specified in
rule 33 in the Schedule to the Merchant Shipping
(Prevention of Collisions at Sea) Regulations (Cap. 179,
Rg 10);
(b) the equipment necessary for mooring, anchoring or
manoeuvring the aircraft on water, appropriate to the
size, mass and handling characteristics of the aircraft; and
(c) one sea anchor.

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Flights over water — helicopters

89.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered helicopter must
ensure that the helicopter is equipped with a life jacket for each
person on board if the helicopter —
(a) is to be operated in Performance Class 1 or 2 —
(i) when the helicopter is engaged in offshore or other
over water operations;
(ii) when the helicopter is to be flown over water in a
hostile environment; or
(iii) when the helicopter is to be flown over water at a
distance from land that is more than 10 minutes at
normal cruise speed; and
(b) is to be operated in Performance Class 3 when the
helicopter is to be flown at a distance from land that is
beyond the auto-rotational distance.
(2) An operator of a Singapore registered helicopter must ensure
that every occupant of the helicopter wears a life jacket, or an
integrated survival suit that includes the functionality of a life jacket,
during the following times:
(a) when the helicopter is flying over water in a hostile
environment;
(b) when the helicopter is flying over water at a distance from
land that is more than 10 minutes at normal cruise speed;
(c) whenever the pilot-in-command, based on the
pilot-in-command’s determination of the risk to survival
of the occupants in the event of ditching, so decides.
(3) Where a Singapore registered helicopter is to be operated over
water, the operator must ensure that —
(a) if the helicopter is required under this regulation to carry
more than one life raft —
(i) at least 50% of the life rafts are deployable by remote
control; and

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(ii) any life raft that is not deployable by remote control,

and has a mass of more than 40 kg, is equipped with
some means of mechanically assisted deployment;
and
(b) if the helicopter is fitted with only 2 life rafts, each life raft
is able to carry all the occupants of the helicopter when the
life raft is in the overload state.
(4) In paragraph (3)(b), “overload state” means a design safety
margin of 1.5 times the maximum capacity of the life raft.

Pressure-altitude reporting transponder

90. An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure that
the aircraft is equipped with a pressure-altitude reporting transponder
which operates in accordance with the provisions of Volume IV of
Annex 10 to the Chicago Convention.

Oxygen indicators
91. An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft that is to be
operated at any altitude above flight level 130, or for more than
30 minutes at an altitude between flight level 100 up to and including
flight level 130, must ensure the aircraft is equipped with a means of
indicating to the flight crew —
(a) whether the passenger oxygen system is activated;
(b) if the oxygen system is supplied by a gaseous system, the
amount of breathing oxygen available in each source of
supply; and
(c) if the aircraft is a pressurised aircraft, by visual or aural
warning, when the cabin pressure altitude exceeds
10,000 ft.

Oxygen equipment and supplies for non-pressurised aircraft

92.—(1) Subject to paragraph (2), where a Singapore registered
aircraft with a non-pressurised cabin is to be operated at any altitude
above flight level 100, the operator must ensure that the aircraft is
equipped with a supply of oxygen sufficient for the circumstances

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that the aircraft is to be operated in, in accordance with the following

Table 1.
. Table 1: Oxygen supply for an unpressurised aircraft .
Circumstances Supply for Duration
(1) When flying above All flight crew Any period during which the
flight level 100 but members aircraft is flying above flight
not exceeding flight level 100.
level 120
All cabin crew For any continuous period
members and 10% exceeding 30 minutes, the
of passengers duration is the period by which
30 minutes is exceeded.
(2) When flying above All crew members Any period during which the
flight level 120 and passengers aircraft flies above flight
level 120.

(2) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft for which the

Certificate of Airworthiness was first issued before 1 January 1989
(whether in Singapore or elsewhere), may, in lieu of complying with
paragraph (1), ensure that the aircraft is equipped with a supply of
oxygen sufficient for continuous use by —
(a) all flight crew members for any period during which the
aircraft flies above flight level 100; and
(b) all persons on board for the whole time during which the
aircraft flies above flight level 130.
(3) An operator mentioned in paragraph (1) or (2) must ensure that
the Singapore registered aircraft is equipped with suitable and
sufficient apparatus to enable every person on board to use the
oxygen provided.
(4) The quantity of oxygen required to comply with paragraphs (1)
and (2) is to be computed in accordance with the relevant information
and instructions specified in the operator’s Operations Manual or
equivalent document.

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Oxygen equipment and supplies for pressurised aircraft

93.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered pressurised aircraft
must ensure that the aircraft is equipped with suitable and sufficient
apparatus to enable every person on board the aircraft to use the
oxygen provided.
(2) The apparatus required under paragraph (1) includes —
(a) automatically deployable oxygen equipment with a
quantity of oxygen dispensing units that exceeds the
number of seats in the passenger cabin by at least 10%; and
(b) an oxygen mask for each flight crew member that supplies
oxygen on demand and is readily accessible from that
flight crew member’s normal seated position.
(3) Where a Singapore registered pressurised aircraft is to be
operated at any altitude above flight level 250, the operator must
ensure that every oxygen mask provided to fulfil the requirement in
paragraph (2)(b) is a quick donning type.

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(4) Subject to paragraph (6), where a Singapore registered

pressurised aircraft is to be operated at any altitude above flight
level 100, the operator must ensure that the aircraft carries a supply of
oxygen that is the greater of —
(a) the amount of oxygen calculated in accordance with the
operator’s Operations Manual or equivalent document,
taking into consideration —
(i) the possibility of depressurisation when flying above
flight level 100;
(ii) the possibility of failure of one or more of the aircraft
engines;
(iii) any restrictions due to required minimum safe
altitude;
(iv) any fuel requirements; and
(v) the performance of the aircraft; or
(b) the total amount of oxygen prescribed in the following
Table 2 for the circumstances that the aircraft is to be
operated in.
. Table 2: Oxygen supply for pressurised aircraft .
Circumstances Supply for Duration
(1) When flying above (a) every flight crew 30 minutes or whenever
flight level 100 but member the cabin pressure altitude
not exceeding flight exceeds 10,000 ft,
level 250 whichever is the greater.
(b) every cabin crew (i) When the aeroplane
member and 10% of is capable of
the passengers descending and
continuing to its
destination as
specified in
Capability 1 below,
30 minutes or
whenever the cabin
pressure altitude
exceeds 10,000 ft,
whichever is the
greater.

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(ii) When the aeroplane

is not so capable,
whenever the cabin
pressure altitude is
greater than
10,000 ft but does
not exceed
12,000 ft.
(c) every cabin crew When the aeroplane is not
member and all capable of descending and
passengers continuing to its
destination as specified in
Capability 1 below, and
the cabin pressure altitude
exceeds 12,000 ft, the
expected continuous
duration of time when the
cabin pressure altitude
exceeds 12,000 ft or
10 minutes whichever is
the greater.
(2) When flying above (a) every flight crew 2 hours or whenever the
flight level 250 member cabin pressure altitude
exceeds 10,000 ft,
whichever is the greater.
(b) every cabin crew Whenever the cabin
member pressure altitude exceeds
10,000 ft and a portable
supply for 15 minutes.
(c) 10% of the Whenever the cabin
passengers pressure altitude exceeds
10,000 ft, but does not
exceed 12,000 ft.
(d) 30% of the Whenever the cabin
passengers pressure altitude exceeds
12,000 ft, but does not
exceed 15,000 ft.
(e) All passengers If the cabin pressure
altitude exceeds 15,000 ft,
the expected continuous
duration of time when the
cabin pressure altitude
exceeds 15,000 ft or

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10 minutes, whichever is
the greater.
(f) 2% of the After decompression,
passengers or whenever cabin pressure
2 passengers, altitude exceeds 8,000 ft.
whichever is the
greater, being the
supply of first-aid
oxygen which must
be available for
simultaneous
first-aid treatment of
2% of the
passengers or
2 passengers
wherever they are
seated in the
aeroplane.

(5) In Table 2, “Capability 1” means the situation when a failure to

maintain cabin pressurisation occurs and the aircraft is capable of —
(a) descending to flight level 130 within 4 minutes, in
accordance with the emergency descent procedure
specified in the aircraft’s flight manual and without
flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight
specified in the Operations Manual or equivalent
document relating to the aircraft; and
(b) continuing at or below that flight level to its intended
destination or any other place at which a safe landing can
be made.
(6) An operator of a Singapore registered pressurised aircraft may,
in lieu of complying with paragraph (4), ensure that the aircraft is
equipped with a supply of oxygen in accordance with paragraph (7) if
the aircraft —
(a) has a Certificate of Airworthiness that was first issued
before 1 January 1989 (whether in Singapore or
elsewhere); and

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(b) is provided with a means of maintaining the pressure in the

flight crew compartment, and the compartments in which
passengers are carried, at above 700 hPa throughout the
flight.
(7) The supply of oxygen to be provided for the purposes of
paragraph (6) is —
(a) in every case where the aircraft is to be flown at an altitude
above flight level 350, a supply of oxygen in a portable
container sufficient for simultaneous first-aid treatment of
2 passengers; and
(b) in the event of a failure to maintain a pressure greater than
700 hPa in accordance with paragraph (6)(b) in the
circumstances specified in columns 1 and 2 of the
following Table 3, a supply of oxygen sufficient for
continuous use by the persons specified in column 3 for the
period specified in column 4 of the Table.

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. Table 3: Alternative oxygen supply .

Column 1 Column 2 Column 3 Column 4
Altitude at which Capability of Persons for whom Period of supply of
aircraft is aircraft to descend oxygen is to be oxygen
operating (where relevant) provided
(1) Above flight In addition to any 30 minutes or the
level 100 passenger for period specified at
whom oxygen is Condition A,
provided as whichever is the
specified below, greater.
all the crew
members.
(2) Above flight Aircraft is flying at 10% of the 30 minutes or the
level 100 but or below flight passengers. period specified at
not above level 150 Condition A,
flight level 300 whichever is the
Aircraft is capable
greater.
of descending and
continuing to
destination as
specified at
Condition X
Aircraft is flying All passengers. 10 minutes or the
above flight period specified at
level 150 and is Condition B,
not capable of whichever is the
descending and greater.
continuing to
10% of the 30 minutes or the
destination
passengers. period specified at
Condition C,
whichever is the
greater.
(3) Above flight Aircraft is capable 15% of the 30 minutes or the
level 300 but of descending and passengers. period specified at
not above continuing to Condition A,
flight destination as whichever is the
level 350 specified at greater.
Condition Y
Aircraft is not All passengers. 10 minutes or the
capable of period specified at
descending and Condition B,
continuing to whichever is the
greater.

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destination under 15% of the 30 minutes or the

Condition Y passengers. period specified at
Condition C,
whichever is the
greater.
(4) Above flight All passengers. 10 minutes or the
level 350 period specified at
Condition B,
whichever is the
greater.
15% of the 30 minutes or the
passengers. period specified at
Condition C,
whichever is the
greater.

(8) In Table 3 —
“Condition A” means the whole period during which the aircraft
flies above flight level 100, after a failure to maintain a
pressure greater than 700 hPa in the flight crew compartment
and in the compartments in which passengers are carried has
occurred;
“Condition B” means the whole period during which the aircraft
flies above flight level 150, after a failure to maintain a
pressure greater than 700 hPa in the flight crew compartment
and in the compartments in which passengers are carried has
occurred;
“Condition C” means the whole period during which the aircraft
flies between flight level 100 and flight level 150, after a
failure to maintain a pressure greater than 700 hPa in the
flight crew compartment and in the compartments in which
passengers are carried has occurred;
“Condition X” means that, at the time when a failure to maintain
a pressure greater than 700 hPa in the flight crew
compartment and in the compartments in which passengers
are carried occurs, the aircraft is capable of —

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(a) descending to flight level 150 within 6 minutes, in

accordance with the emergency descent procedure
specified in the relevant flight manual and without
flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight
specified in the Operations Manual, or equivalent,
relating to the aircraft; and
(b) continuing at or below that flight level to its place of
intended destination or any other place at which a
safe landing can be made;
“Condition Y” means that, when a failure to maintain a pressure
greater than 700 hPa in the flight crew compartment and in
the compartments in which passengers are carried occurs, the
aircraft is capable of —
(a) descending to flight level 150 within 4 minutes, in
accordance with the emergency descent procedure
specified in the relevant flight manual and without
flying below the minimum altitudes for safe flight
specified in the Operations Manual, or equivalent,
relating to the aircraft; and
(b) continuing at or below that flight level to its place of
intended destination or any other place at which a
safe landing can be made.

Device to warn flight crew of loss of pressurisation

94. Where a Singapore registered pressurised aeroplane is to be
operated at any altitude of 25,000 ft or higher, the operator must equip
the aeroplane with a device to provide positive warning to the flight
crew of any dangerous loss of pressurisation.

Flight recorders — construction, installation and continued

serviceability
95.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must ensure
that every flight recorder required to be installed on the aircraft
pursuant to regulations 96, 97 and 98 is constructed, located and
installed so as to provide maximum practical protection for the

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recordings in order that the recorded information may be preserved,

recovered and transcribed.
(2) The operator mentioned in paragraph (1) must ensure that every
flight recorder required to be installed on a Singapore registered
aircraft pursuant to regulations 96, 97 and 98 meets the requirements
specified by the Director-General of Civil Aviation in Aviation
Specifications 2 — Flight Recorders for the respective type of flight
recorders in respect of —
(a) specified crashworthiness and fire protection
requirements;
(b) performance;
(c) parameters or information to be recorded;
(d) duration of recording; and
(e) continued serviceability.
[S 209/2020 wef 01/04/2020]

Flight recorders — flight data recorder (FDR)

96.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered helicopter must
ensure the helicopter is equipped with —
(a) an FDR that records at least the first 15 parameters
specified in Table 2-1 of the Aviation Specifications 2 —
Flight Recorders issued by the Director-General of Civil
Aviation, if the helicopter —
(i) was first issued a Certificate of Airworthiness on or
after 1 January 1989 but before 1 January 2016; and
(ii) has an MCTOM exceeding 3,175 kg but not
exceeding 7,000 kg;
[S 768/2018 wef 24/11/2018]

(b) an FDR that records at least the first 30 parameters

specified in Table 2-1 of the Aviation Specifications 2 —
Flight Recorders, if the helicopter —
(i) was first issued a Certificate of Airworthiness on or
after 1 January 1989 but before 1 January 2016; and

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S 441/2018 82

(ii) has an MCTOM exceeding 7,000 kg or an MAPSC

exceeding 19; or
[S 768/2018 wef 24/11/2018]

(c) an FDR that records at least the first 48 parameters

specified in Table 2-1 of the Aviation Specifications 2 —
Flight Recorders, if the helicopter —
(i) was first issued a Certificate of Airworthiness on or
after 1 January 2016; and
(ii) has an MCTOM exceeding 3,175 kg.
[S 768/2018 wef 24/11/2018]

(d) [Deleted by S 768/2018 wef 24/11/2018]

(2) Where a Singapore registered helicopter is equipped with a
flight data recorder, the operator must ensure that the flight data
recorder does not use any of the following types of recording
technology:
(a) engraving metal foil;
(b) frequency modulation;
(c) photographic film;
(d) magnetic tape.
[S 768/2018 wef 24/11/2018]

Flight recorders — cockpit voice recorder (CVR)

97.—(1) An operator of a Singapore registered helicopter must
ensure that the helicopter is equipped with a cockpit voice recorder
if —
(a) the helicopter was first issued a Certificate of
Airworthiness on or after 1 January 1987 and has an
MCTOM exceeding 3,175 kg; or
(b) the helicopter has an MCTOM exceeding 7,000 kg.
[S 768/2018 wef 24/11/2018]

(2) Where a Singapore registered helicopter mentioned in

paragraph (1)(a) or (b) is not equipped with a flight data recorder,

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the operator must ensure that the cockpit voice recorder also records
the main rotor speed.
(3) Where a Singapore registered helicopter is equipped with a
cockpit voice recorder, the operator must ensure that the cockpit
voice recorder does not use any of the following types of recording
technology:
(a) magnetic tape;
(b) wire.
[S 768/2018 wef 24/11/2018]

Flight recorders — data link recorders

98.—(1) Where a Singapore registered helicopter is required to
carry a cockpit voice recorder in accordance with regulation 97, the
operator must ensure that the helicopter is equipped with a
crash-protected flight recorder that records data link
communications messages (called in this regulation a data link
recorder) —
(a) for a helicopter with a Certificate of Airworthiness that is
first issued on or after 1 January 2016, if the helicopter
utilises any of the data link communications applications
specified by the Director-General of Civil Aviation; or
(b) for a helicopter —
(i) for which the Certificate of Airworthiness is first
issued before 1 January 2016;
(ii) which is modified on or after 1 January 2016 to
install and utilise any of the data link
communications applications specified by the
Director-General of Civil Aviation; and
(iii) which is not modified on or after 1 January 2016 to
install any data link communications equipment
which complies with —
(A) the type design of the helicopter that is
approved by the State of Design before
1 January 2016; or

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(B) a modification to the helicopter that is

approved by the State of Design or the State
of Registry before 1 January 2016.
[S 937/2020 wef 05/11/2020]
[S 768/2018 wef 24/11/2018]

(2) The operator mentioned in paragraph (1) must ensure that —

(a) the minimum recording duration of the data link recorder is
at least equal to the minimum recording duration of the
cockpit voice recorder; and
(b) the recordings of the data link recorder can be correlated to
the recorded cockpit audio.

Combination recorders
99. Nothing in these Regulations prohibits an operator of a
Singapore registered helicopter from equipping the helicopter with
a combination recorder to meet the requirements of regulations 96
and 97.

Division 7 — Maintenance
Continuing airworthiness management
100.—(1) The operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must
ensure that the aircraft is maintained in accordance with the Air
Navigation Order and the Singapore Airworthiness Requirements.
(2) The operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must appoint a
person who is responsible for ensuring that appropriate arrangements
(commensurate with the number, type and complexity of the aircraft
and the type of operations) are in place for continuing airworthiness
management.
(3) The person appointed under paragraph (2) must be accepted by
the Director-General of Civil Aviation.

Technical log
101.—(1) The operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must have
a technical log for the purposes of paragraph (2).

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(2) Subject to paragraph (4), the pilot-in-command of a Singapore

registered aircraft must enter the following details in a technical log
on the termination of each flight:
(a) the time of the take-off and the time of the landing;
(b) the particulars of any defect known to the
pilot-in-command and which affects the airworthiness or
safe operation of the aircraft;
(c) such other particulars in respect of the airworthiness or
operation of the aircraft that the Authority may specify.
(3) For the purposes of paragraph (2)(b), if no defect of the
Singapore registered aircraft is known to the pilot-in-command at the
termination of a flight, the pilot-in-command must make an entry to
that effect in the technical log.
(4) The pilot-in-command may make the entries mentioned in
paragraph (2) at the end of the last flight of a series of flights unless a
defect of the Singapore registered aircraft becomes known to the
pilot-in-command during an earlier flight.
(5) In this regulation, “series of flights” means consecutive flights
within a period of 24 consecutive hours by a pilot-in-command who
uses the same aircraft for every such flight, and each flight begins and
ends at the same aerodrome.

Maintenance release
102.—(1) The operator of a Singapore registered aircraft must not
operate the aircraft unless the aircraft has been maintained and
released to service with —
(a) a certificate of release to service issued under the Air
Navigation Order; or
(b) an equivalent release document.
(2) The certificate of release to service, or the equivalent release
document, must contain a record of the details of maintenance carried
out on the aircraft.
(3) The details of maintenance mentioned in paragraph (2)
include —

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S 441/2018 86

(a) the basic details of the maintenance performed;

(b) the date on which the maintenance was completed;
(c) the identity of the approved maintenance organisation,
where applicable; and
(d) the identity of the person signing the certificate of release
or equivalent release document, being a person who is
qualified under paragraph 10(4) of the Air Navigation
Order to issue a certificate of release to service.

Continuous airworthiness information

103. The operator of a Singapore registered aeroplane with an
MCTOM exceeding 5,700 kg, or a Singapore registered helicopter
with an MCTOM exceeding 3,175 kg, must ensure that there exists a
system to transmit information on faults, malfunctions, defects and
other occurrences that cause or might cause adverse effects on the
continuing airworthiness of the aircraft to all of the following
persons:
(a) the Director-General of Civil Aviation;
(b) the organisation responsible for the type design of that
aircraft;
(c) if the information relates to an engine or propeller, the
organisation responsible for the type design of that engine
or propeller;
(d) if the information relates to a continuing airworthiness
safety issue that is associated with any modification or
repair, the individual or organisation responsible for the
design of the modification or repair.
[S 821/2022 wef 03/11/2022]

Division 8 — Crew requirements

Composition of crew
104.—(1) A person must not operate an aircraft unless —
(a) in the case of a flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or
(b), the aircraft carries a flight crew of the number and

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 87 S 441/2018

description specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness or

flight manual; or
(b) in the case of a flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(c), the
aircraft carries a flight crew of the number and description
required by the aircraft’s State of Registry.
(2) Subject to paragraph (3), an operator mentioned in
regulation 3(1)(a) or (b) must not operate an aircraft along any
route where the route (including any diversion from the route) —
(a) is intended to pass over any part of an area specified in the
Fifth Schedule; or
(b) includes any point which is more than 500 nautical miles
from the point of take-off as measured along the route to be
flown.
(3) In the circumstances mentioned in paragraph (2), the operator
may operate an aircraft if —
(a) the aircraft includes a flight navigator as an additional
flight crew member; or
(b) the aircraft is fitted with navigational equipment approved
by the Director-General of Civil Aviation and which is to
be used in accordance with the conditions subject to which
that approval was given.

Flight crew requirements

105. The pilot-in-command of a relevant aircraft must not
commence a flight unless the pilot-in-command is satisfied that
every person assigned duty as a flight crew member for that flight —
(a) holds an appropriate licence that —
(i) is current;
(ii) is issued or validated by the State of Registry of the
aircraft; and
(iii) includes the appropriate rating for the flight crew
member’s assigned duty;

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S 441/2018 88

(b) is competent to carry out the flight crew member’s

assigned duty; and
(c) has been appropriately trained to competency in the use of
an airborne collision avoidance system for the avoidance
of collisions where the aircraft is so equipped.

Flight crew recency

106.—(1) A person must not act as a pilot-in-command for a flight
mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b) that involves the carriage of at
least one passenger unless the person —
(a) has, in the 90 days immediately preceding the flight,
completed at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings on an aircraft
of the type that is to be used for the flight;
(b) has demonstrated competence on an approved flight
simulation training device; or
[S 677/2018 wef 09/10/2018]

(c) has satisfactorily demonstrated to the Director-General of

Civil Aviation continued proficiency in an aircraft of the
type that is to be used for the flight.
[S 677/2018 wef 09/10/2018]

(2) In this regulation, “approved flight simulation training device”

means a flight simulation training device that —
(a) is representative of the aircraft type to be used for the
flight; and
(b) is specifically approved, in accordance with
paragraph 23A of the Air Navigation Order, to be used
for this purpose.
[S 677/2018 wef 09/10/2018]

Division 9 — Fatigue of the crew

Fatigue — Crew member responsibilities
107.—(1) A person must not act as a crew member for any flight
mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), if the person knows or
suspects that the person is suffering from or, having regard to the

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 89 S 441/2018

circumstances of the flight to be undertaken, is likely to suffer from

such fatigue as may endanger the safety of the aircraft or its
occupants.
(2) A person must not act as a flight crew member for any flight
mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b) if, at the beginning of the flight
(other than a private flight of an aircraft with an MCTOM not
exceeding 1,600 kg), the aggregate of the person’s previous and
planned flight times as a flight crew member —
(a) exceeds 100 hours during the 28-day period immediately
preceding the day on which the flight begins; or
(b) exceeds 1,000 hours during the 12-month period
immediately preceding the day on which the flight begins.

Division 10 — Manuals, logs and records

Journey log book or equivalent record
108.—(1) For every flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b),
the operator must keep an accurate journey log book or equivalent
record that contains the following information for every flight or
series of flights operated by it:
(a) the aircraft’s nationality and registration;
(b) the date of the flight;
(c) the name of every person acting as a crew member;
(d) the duty assignment to each crew member;
(e) the place of departure;
(f) the place of arrival;
(g) the time of departure;
(h) the time of arrival;
(i) the duration of the flight;
(j) the nature of the flight (private, aerial work, scheduled or
non-scheduled commercial air transport);
(k) any incidents or observations;

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S 441/2018 90

(l) the signature of the pilot-in-command.

(2) An aircraft journey log book, or parts of an aircraft journey log
book, may not be required if the relevant information is available in
other documentation.
(3) All entries in the journey log book or equivalent record are
permanent in nature.
(4) In this regulation, “series of flights” means consecutive flights
within a period of 24 consecutive hours by a pilot-in-command who
uses the same aircraft for every such flight, and each flight begins and
ends at the same aerodrome.

Document retention period

109. For every flight mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), the
operator must ensure that all the information, reports and records
specified in the Sixth Schedule are retained for their respective
retention periods prescribed in that Schedule.

Aircraft’s flight manual

110. For every aircraft mentioned in regulation 3(1)(a) or (b), the
operator must ensure that the aircraft’s flight manual is updated and
amended to implement any change mandated by the State of Design,
State of Manufacture or the Director-General of Civil Aviation.

PART 3
MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS
Fees
111.—(1) The Second Schedule sets out the fees for the following:
(a) the issue, validation, renewal, extension or variation of any
certificate, licence or other document (including an
application for, or the issue of a copy of, any such
document) under these Regulations;
(b) the undergoing of any audit, inspection or investigation
required by these Regulations;

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 91 S 441/2018

(c) the grant of any permission or approval required by, or for

the purpose of, these Regulations.
(2) The Director-General of Civil Aviation may, in any particular
case, waive or refund in whole or in part any fee payable under these
Regulations where the Director-General of Civil Aviation considers
fit.

Financial penalties
112.—(1) Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), where the Authority is
of the opinion that a person (Z) is contravening, or has contravened,
any provision in Part 2 that is not a criminal offence, the Authority
may direct Z to pay financial penalty not exceeding the higher of —
(a) $500,000; or
(b) 5% of Z’s annual revenue derived from the regulated
activity.
(2) Before exercising any power under paragraph (1), the Authority
must give written notice to Z —
(a) stating that the Authority intends to impose on Z a financial
penalty under this regulation;
(b) specifying each instance of non-compliance that is the
subject of the financial penalty; and
(c) specifying the time (being not less than 14 days after the
service of notice on Z) within which written
representations may be made to the Authority with
respect to the non-compliance that is the subject of the
financial penalty.
(3) The Authority may, after considering any written
representations under paragraph (2)(c), decide to impose such
financial penalty under paragraph (1) as the Authority considers
appropriate.
(4) Where the Authority has made any decision under paragraph (3)
against Z, the Authority must serve on Z a notice of its decision.
(5) To avoid doubt, this regulation does not affect the operation of
section 4C, 4D or 4E of the Act.

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S 441/2018 92

(6) In this regulation —

“annual revenue” means the amount of money received by Z in
the calendar year during which Z contravened a provision in
Part 2 that is not a criminal offence;
“regulated activity” means the flights or operations conducted
by Z under these Regulations.

Grant of approvals or acceptance

113.—(1) To avoid doubt, an approval or acceptance granted by the
Director-General of Civil Aviation under any provision of these
Regulations is not an aviation safety instrument.
(2) Where the Director-General of Civil Aviation is required to
grant an approval or acceptance, the application —
(a) must be made by the relevant person in such form and
manner as the Director-General of Civil Aviation may
specify; and
(b) must provide such information as the Director-General of
Civil Aviation may require.
(3) The Director-General of Civil Aviation may grant an approval
or acceptance subject to such conditions as the Director-General of
Civil Aviation considers necessary or expedient.
(4) The Director-General of Civil Aviation may withdraw an
approval or acceptance, or impose, add, delete, substitute or
modify conditions in respect of any such approval or acceptance if —
(a) the Director-General of Civil Aviation considers such
action necessary to ensure compliance with these
Regulations or any other relevant aviation safety
subsidiary legislation; or
(b) the Director-General of Civil Aviation is satisfied that there
is or is likely to be a failure to comply with these
Regulations or any other relevant aviation safety
subsidiary legislation.
(5) In this regulation, “relevant person” means the employee of an
operator who is responsible for applying to the Director-General of

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Civil Aviation for a specific approval or acceptance under these

Regulations.

PART 4
SAVING AND TRANSITIONAL PROVISIONS
Saving and transitional provisions
114.—(1) Subject to paragraph (2), where —
(a) an approval, acceptance or permission is granted by the
Chief Executive under the Air Navigation Order
immediately before 1 October 2018; and
(b) such approval, acceptance or permission may be granted
by the Director-General of Civil Aviation under these
Regulations,
the approval, acceptance or permission granted by the Chief
Executive continues in force as if the Director-General of Civil
Aviation granted that approval, acceptance or permission under these
Regulations until the approval, acceptance or permission is
superseded, revoked or otherwise terminated.
(2) An approval, acceptance or permission mentioned in
paragraph (1)(a) that is expressed to continue in force for a definite
period ceases to be in force after the expiration of that period unless
the approval, acceptance or permission is renewed in accordance with
these Regulations.
(3) An application under any provision of the Air Navigation Order
immediately before 1 October 2018 for an approval, acceptance or
permission that may be granted by the Director-General of Civil
Aviation under these Regulations, which application is still pending
on or after 1 October 2018, is to be treated as if that application was
made under these Regulations.

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S 441/2018 94

FIRST SCHEDULE
Regulation 2

DEFINITIONS
“Accident” means an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft
(which takes place from the time a person first boards the aircraft with the
intention of flight until the time after all persons on board the aircraft have
disembarked) in which —
(a) a person (not being a stowaway hiding outside the areas
normally available to passengers and crew) is fatally or
seriously injured as a result of —
(i) being in the aircraft;
(ii) having direct contact with any part of the aircraft,
including parts which have become detached from the
aircraft; or
(iii) having direct exposure to jet blast,
except where the injuries arise from natural causes, are
self-inflicted or inflicted by another person;
(b) the aircraft sustains damage or structural failure which —
(i) adversely affects the structural strength, performance
or flight characteristics of the aircraft; and
(ii) requires major repair to the aircraft or the replacement
of the affected component,
but excludes —
(iii) engine failure or damage, when the damage is limited
to a single engine (including its cowlings or
accessories) or to propellers, wing tips, antennas,
probes, vanes, tyres, brakes, wheels, fairings, panels,
landing gear, doors, windscreens or the aircraft skin
(such as small dents or puncture holes);
(iv) minor damage to main rotor blades, tail rotor blades or
landing gear; and
(v) minor damage resulting from hail or bird strike
(including holes in the radome); or
(c) the aircraft is missing or completely inaccessible.
“Aerial work”, in relation to an aircraft operation, means the operation of an
aircraft for specialised services such as agriculture, construction,

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 95 S 441/2018

FIRST SCHEDULE — continued

photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and rescue, and
aerial advertisement.
“Aerobatic flight” means that portion of a flight when an aircraft engages
in —
(a) an intentional manoeuvre in which the aircraft is in sustained
inverted flight or is rolled from upright to inverted or from
inverted to upright position; or
(b) manoeuvres such as rolls, loops, spins, upward vertical flight
culminating in a stall turn, hammerhead or whip stall, or a
combination of such manoeuvres.
“Aerodrome”, in relation to the operation of aircraft that is not confined to
aeroplanes, includes heliport.
“Aerodrome operating minima” means the limits of usability of an
aerodrome for —
(a) take-off, expressed in terms of runway visual range or visibility
or both and, if necessary, cloud conditions;
(b) landing in 2D instrument approach operations, expressed in
terms of visibility or RVR, MDA/H and, if necessary, cloud
conditions; and
(c) landing in 3D instrument approach operations, expressed in
terms of visibility or RVR, and DA/H as appropriate to the type
or category of operations.
“Aeronautical Information Circular” or “AIC” means a notice containing
information which relates to flight safety, air navigation, or the technical,
administrative or legislative matters relating to a flight.
“Aeronautical Information Publication” or “AIP” means a publication issued
by and with the authority of the Aeronautical Information Services
provider and containing the aeronautical information of a lasting character
essential to air navigation.
“Aeronautical Information Services” or “AIS” means the services
established within the defined area of coverage for the provision of
aeronautical information and data necessary for the safety, regularity and
efficiency of air navigation and, where appropriate, includes the personnel
and facilities employed to provide information pertaining to the
availability of air navigation services and their associated procedures
necessary for the safety, regularity and efficiency of air navigation.

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S 441/2018 96

FIRST SCHEDULE — continued

“Aeronautical radio station” means a radio station on the surface that
transmits or receives signals for the purpose of assisting aircraft.
[S 209/2020 wef 01/04/2020]

“Aeronautical station” means a land station in the aeronautical mobile

service, which may in certain instances be located on board a ship or on a
platform at sea.
“Aeroplane” means a power-driven, heavier-than-air aircraft, deriving its lift
in flight chiefly from aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain
fixed under given conditions of flight.
“Agreement summary”, in relation to an 83 bis agreement, means a
document —
(a) that clearly and succinctly identifies the functions and duties
that are transferred (under the 83 bis agreement) by the State of
Registry to the State of the Operator; and
(b) that has been transmitted (with the 83 bis agreement) in
accordance with Article 83 bis of the Chicago Convention.
[S 937/2020 wef 05/11/2020]

“Air operator certificate” means a certificate issued by the competent

authority of the State of the Operator for an operator to carry out specified
commercial air transport operations, which, in the case of Singapore, is
the certificate issued by the Authority in accordance with the Air
Navigation (119 — Air Operator Certification) Regulations 2018.
“Air traffic control unit” includes area control centre, approach control unit
and aerodrome control tower.
“Air traffic services unit” includes air traffic control unit, flight information
centre or air traffic services reporting office.
“Airborne collision avoidance system” or “ACAS” means an aircraft system
based on secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponder signals that
operate independently of ground-based equipment to provide advice to the
pilot on potential conflicting aircraft that are equipped with SSR
transponders.
“Airborne collision avoidance system II” or “ACAS II” means an airborne
collision avoidance system which provides vertical resolution advisories
in addition to traffic advisories.
“Aircraft component” means —
(a) an aircraft engine;

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FIRST SCHEDULE — continued

(b) an aircraft propeller; or
(c) any part or equipment of an aircraft, being a part or an
equipment fitted to or provided in an aircraft, and includes an
assembly of aircraft parts or equipment.
“Aircraft type” means all aircraft of the same basic design including all
modifications thereto except those modifications which result in a change
in handling or flight characteristics.
“Airworthy” means the status of an aircraft, engine, propeller or part when
the aircraft, engine, propeller or part conforms to its approved design and
is in a condition for safe operation.
“Alternate aerodrome” means an aerodrome to which an aircraft may
proceed when it becomes either impossible or inadvisable to proceed to or
to land at the aerodrome of intended landing and which meets all of the
following requirements:
(a) the necessary services and facilities are available;
(b) the aircraft performance requirements can be met;
(c) the aerodrome is operational at the expected time of use.
“Altitude” means the vertical distance of a level, a point, or an object
considered as a point, measured from mean sea level.
“Approach ban” means the prohibition, as prescribed in regulation 61,
against commencing or continuing of an instrument approach into the
final approach segment unless certain conditions are met.
“Approach to landing” means that portion of the flight of an aircraft —
(a) when the aircraft is descending to a height or altitude that is
below 300 m (1,000 ft) above the aerodrome elevation; or
(b) when the aircraft is entering the final approach segment.
“Appropriate aeronautical radio station”, in relation to an aircraft, means an
aeronautical radio station serving the area in which the aircraft is in at that
point in time.
“Appropriate air traffic control unit”, in relation to an aircraft, means a unit
that is responsible for providing air traffic control services to the aircraft in
the airspace which the aircraft is in at that point in time.
“Appropriate air traffic services unit”, in relation to an aircraft, means an air
traffic services unit that is responsible for providing air traffic services for
the aircraft in the airspace which the aircraft is in at that point in time.

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“Appropriate air traffic services authority” means the relevant authority
designated by the State responsible for providing air traffic services in the
particular airspace concerned.
“Apron” means a defined area within a land aerodrome intended to
accommodate aircraft for the purpose of loading or unloading
passengers, mail or cargo, fuelling, parking, or maintenance.
“Area navigation” means a method of navigation which permits aircraft
operation on any desired flight path —
(a) within the coverage of ground or space based navigation aids;
(b) within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids; or
(c) that is a combination of paragraphs (a) and (b).
“ATS” means air traffic services.
“Baggage” means personal property of any passenger or crew member that is
carried on an aircraft by agreement with the operator.
“Balloon” means a non-power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft.
“Cabin crew member” means a member of the crew who performs, in the
interests of safety of passengers, duties assigned by the operator or the
pilot-in-command of the aircraft, but does not include a flight crew
member.
“Cargo”, in relation to freight or air cargo, means any property carried on an
aircraft other than mail, stores and accompanied or mishandled baggage.
“Ceiling” means the height above the ground or water of the base of the
lowest layer of cloud below 20,000 ft covering more than half the sky.
“Certificate of Airworthiness” —
(a) means a certificate issued or rendered valid by the State of
Registry or the relevant State based on an Article 83 bis
agreement that certifies that the aircraft is in compliance with
applicable airworthiness and safety requirements; and
(b) includes any validation by the State of Registry or the relevant
State based on an Article 83 bis agreement, and any flight
manual, performance schedule or other document, whatever its
title, incorporated by reference in that certificate relating to the
Certificate of Airworthiness.
“Certificate of release to service” means a certificate that is issued under
paragraph 10 of the Air Navigation Order.

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“Combined vision system” or “CVS” means a system to display images from
a combination of an enhanced vision system and a synthetic vision
system.
“Commercial air transport”, in relation to an aircraft operation, means an
aircraft operation involving the transport of passengers, cargo or mail for
remuneration or hire, but does not include the carriage of passengers who
are participants of an aerial sports activity as determined by the
Director-General of Civil Aviation.
“Competent authority” means —
(a) in relation to Singapore, the Authority; and
(b) in relation to any other country, the authority responsible under
the law of that country for exercising the safety regulatory
oversight of civil aviation.
“Complex general aviation”, in relation to an aircraft operation, means either
of the following operations:
(a) a general aviation operation using an aeroplane —
(i) with an MCTOM exceeding 5,700 kg;
(ii) with an MAPSC exceeding 9; or
(iii) which is equipped with at least one turbine engine;
(b) a corporate aviation operation that uses 3 or more aircraft, as
long as one of the aircraft is an aeroplane.
[S 677/2018 wef 09/10/2018]

“Configuration”, in relation to an aeroplane, means a particular combination

of the positions of the movable elements, such as wing flaps or landing
gear, which affect the aerodynamic characteristics of the aeroplane.
“Congested area”, in relation to a city, town, or settlement, means any area
which is substantially used for residential, industrial, commercial, or
recreational purposes.
“Continuing airworthiness” means the set of processes by which an operator
of an aircraft complies with the applicable airworthiness requirements for
that aircraft, engine, propeller or part to remain in a condition for safe
operation throughout the operating life of the aircraft, engine, propeller or
part respectively.

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“Controlling RVR” —
(a) means the reported values of one or more RVR reporting
locations (touchdown, mid-point and stop-end) used to
determine whether operating minima are or are not met; and
(b) unless otherwise specified, is the touchdown RVR whenever
RVR is used.
“Corporate aviation”, in relation to an aircraft operation, means the
non-commercial operation or use of an aircraft by a company for the
carriage of passengers or goods as an aid to the conduct of company
business, flown by one or more professional pilots who are employed by
the company to fly the aircraft.
[S 677/2018 wef 09/10/2018]

“Crew member” means a person assigned by an operator of an aircraft to be

involved in the operation of the aircraft during any portion of a flight.
“Critical phase of flight”, in relation to aircraft operations, includes an
operation involving push back, taxi, take-off, approach and landing.
“Dangerous goods” means any article or substance which is capable of
posing a risk to health, safety, property or the environment and which is
set out in the list of dangerous goods in the Technical Instructions or
which is classified as such according to those Instructions.
“Dangerous goods incident” has the meaning given by paragraph 50B of the
Air Navigation Order.
“Decision altitude” or “DA”, “decision height” or “DH”, in relation to the
operation of an aircraft at an aerodrome, means a specified altitude or
height in a three-dimensional (3D) instrument approach operation at
which the pilot-in-command must initiate a missed approach if the visual
reference to continue the approach has not been established.
“Destination alternate” means an alternate aerodrome or heliport at which an
aircraft would be able to land should it become either impossible or
inadvisable to land at the aerodrome or heliport of intended landing.
“Emergency locator transmitter” or “ELT” means any equipment which
broadcasts distinctive signals on designated frequencies and, depending
on application, is automatically activated by impact or manually activated,
and includes the following:
(a) automatic fixed ELT, which is an automatically activated ELT
that is permanently attached to an aircraft;

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(b) automatic portable ELT, which is an automatically activated
ELT that is rigidly attached to an aircraft but may be removed
readily;
(c) automatically deployable ELT, which is an ELT that is rigidly
attached to an aircraft and is capable of both manual
deployment and automatic deployment and activation upon
impact;
(d) survival ELT, which is an ELT which is removable from an
aircraft that is stowed so as to facilitate its ready use in an
emergency and is activated manually.
“Engine” means a unit which is used or intended to be used for aircraft
propulsion and which consists of at least those components and equipment
necessary for functioning and control of the aircraft, but excludes the
propeller or rotors, if applicable.
“Enhanced vision system” or “EVS” means a system to display electronic
real-time images of the external scene achieved through the use of image
sensors but does not include night vision imaging systems (NVIS).
“Equivalent release document” means a document issued in accordance with
the regulations of a foreign civil aviation authority and accepted by the
Director-General of Civil Aviation as equivalent to a certificate of release
to service.
“Estimated time of use”, in relation to a destination alternate aerodrome or
heliport, means the period that commences one hour before the earliest
time of arrival and ends one hour after the latest time of arrival.
“Fatigue” means a physiological state of reduced mental or physical
performance capability resulting from sleep loss or extended
wakefulness, circadian phase, or workload (mental or physical activity,
or both) that can impair a person’s alertness and ability to safely operate an
aircraft or perform safety-related duties.
“Final approach and take-off area” means a defined area —
(a) over which the final phase of the approach procedure to hover or
land is completed and from which the take-off manoeuvre is
commenced; and
(b) that includes the rejected take-off area available, in the case of a
helicopter operating in Performance Class 1.
“Final approach segment” means the segment of an instrument approach
procedure in which alignment and descent for landing are accomplished.

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“Flight” means the period that commences when a powered aircraft first
moves under its own power for the purposes of taking off or in the case of
a glider when it first moves and ends when the aircraft or glider comes to
rest after landing.
“Flight crew member” means a licensed crew member charged with duties
essential to the operation of an aircraft during a flight duty period.
“Flight dispatcher” or “flight operations officer” means a person designated
by the operator of an aircraft —
(a) to engage in the control and supervision of flight operations
while acting as a close link between the aircraft in flight and the
ground services, and between the flight crew and the operator’s
ground staff; and
(b) to provide support, briefing or assistance to the
pilot-in-command in the safe conduct of the flight, including
pre-flight preparation for the despatch release.
“Flight duty period” means a period which commences when a flight or cabin
crew member is required to report for any duty that includes a flight or
series of flights and which finishes when the aircraft finally comes to rest
and the engines are shut down at the end of the last flight on which he or
she is a crew member.
[S 179/2019 wef 31/03/2019]

“Flight level” means a surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is

related to a specific pressure datum (1013.2 hPa or 1013.2 mb) and is
separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals.
“Flight manual” means a manual that is associated with an aircraft’s
Certificate of Airworthiness and contains —
(a) the limitations within which the aircraft may be considered
airworthy; and
(b) the instructions and information necessary for the flight crew to
safely operate the aircraft.
“Flight plan” means specified information provided to air traffic services
units, relative to an intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft.
“Flight recorder” means any type of recorder installed in the aircraft for the
purpose of complementing an investigation into an accident or incident
involving the aircraft, and includes the types of flight recorders specified

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in Aviation Specifications 2 — Flight Recorders issued by the
Director-General of Civil Aviation.
[S 209/2020 wef 01/04/2020]

“Flight simulation training device” or “FSTD” means any one of the

following types of apparatus in which flight conditions are simulated on
the ground:
(a) a flight simulator, which provides an accurate representation of
the flight deck of a particular aircraft type to the extent that the
mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc., aircraft systems control
functions, the normal environment of flight crew members, and
the performance and flight characteristics of that aircraft type
are realistically simulated;
(b) a flight procedure trainer, which provides a realistic flight deck
environment and which simulates instrument responses, simple
control functions of the mechanical, electrical, electronic, etc.,
aircraft systems, and the performance and flight characteristics
of aircraft of a particular class;
(c) a basic instrument flight trainer, which is equipped with
appropriate instruments and which simulates the flight deck
environment of an aircraft in flight in instrument flight
conditions.
“Flight time” means —
(a) in relation to an aeroplane, the total time from the moment an
aeroplane first moves under its own power for the purpose of
taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the
flight;
(b) in relation to a helicopter, the total time from the moment a
helicopter’s rotor blades start turning until the moment the
helicopter comes to rest at the end of the flight, and the rotor
blades are stopped.
“Flying machine” means a heavier-than-air aircraft that is power-driven and
includes —
(a) an aeroplane (such as a landplane, seaplane, amphibian or
self-launching motor glider);
(b) a powered lift (or tilt rotor); and
(c) a rotorcraft (such as a helicopter or gyroplane).

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“Forecast”, in relation to meteorological conditions, means a statement of
expected meteorological conditions for a specified time or period, and for
a specified area or portion of airspace.
“Foreign operator” means an operator whose principal place of business is
not in Singapore.
“General aviation”, in relation to an aircraft operation, means the operation of
one or more aircraft for any purpose other than for commercial air
transport or aerial work.
“Heading” means the direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is
pointed, usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic or
compass).
“Head-up display” or “HUD” means a display system that presents flight
information into the pilot’s forward external field of view.
“Helicopter” means a heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by
the reactions of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on
substantially vertical axes.
“Heliport” means an aerodrome or a defined area on a structure intended to
be used wholly or in part for the arrival, departure and surface movement
of helicopters.
“Hostile environment” means an environment in which —
(a) in all cases —
(i) a safe forced landing cannot be accomplished because
the surface and surrounding environment are
inadequate;
(ii) search and rescue response or capability is not
provided consistent with anticipated exposure; or
(iii) there is an unacceptable risk of endangering persons or
property on the ground; or
(b) in the case where the aircraft is a helicopter, the helicopter
occupants cannot be adequately protected from the elements.
“Human performance” means human capabilities and limitations which have
an impact on the safety and efficiency of aeronautical operations.
“IFR flight” means a flight conducted in accordance with the Instrument
Flight Rules.

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“Instrument approach operation” —
(a) means an approach and landing using instruments for
navigation guidance based on an instrument approach
procedure, executed in the following methods:
(i) a two-dimensional (2D) instrument approach
operation, using lateral navigation guidance only;
(ii) a three-dimensional (3D) instrument approach
operation, using both lateral and vertical navigation
guidance; and
(b) is classified based on the designed lowest operating minima
below which an approach operation must only be continued
with the required visual reference as follows:
(i) Type A: which is an instrument approach operation
that involves a minimum descent height or decision
height at or above 75 m (250 ft); and
(ii) Type B: which is an instrument approach operation that
involves a decision height below 75 m (250 ft) and
which is further categorised as follows:
(A) Category I (CAT I): where the decision height
is not lower than 60 m (200 ft) and with either a
visibility not less than 800 m or a runway visual
range not less than 550 m;
(B) Category II (CAT II): where the decision height
is lower than 60 m (200 ft), but not lower than
30 m (100 ft) and with a runway visual range
not less than 300 m;
(C) Category III (CAT III): where the decision
height is lower than 30 m (100 ft), or there is no
decision height, and with either a runway visual
range less than 300 m or no runway visual
range limitations.
[S 937/2020 wef 05/11/2020]

(D) [Deleted by S 937/2020 wef 05/11/2020]

(E) [Deleted by S 937/2020 wef 05/11/2020]
“Instrument approach procedure” means a series of pre-determined
manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with specified protection
from obstacles from the initial approach fix or from the beginning of a

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defined arrival route where applicable, to a point from which a landing can
be completed and thereafter, if a landing is not completed, to a position at
which holding or en-route obstacle clearance criteria apply.
“Instrument Flight Rules” means the Instrument Flight Rules contained in the
Rules of the Air.
“Instrument meteorological conditions” means meteorological conditions,
expressed in terms of visibility distance from cloud and ceiling, which are
less than the minima specified for visual meteorological conditions.
“Interchange”, in relation to aircraft, means a mutual exchange of aircraft
between 2 operators for an agreed period of time.
“Isolated aerodrome” means a destination aerodrome for which there is no
destination alternate aerodrome suitable for a given aeroplane type.
“Isolated heliport” means a destination heliport for which there is no
destination alternate heliport suitable for a given helicopter type.
“Landplane” means a fixed wing aircraft which is designed for taking off and
landing on land and includes an amphibian aeroplane that is operated as a
landplane.
“Licence” includes any certificate of competency or certificate of validity
issued with the licence or required to be held in connection with the
licence by the law of the country in which the licence is granted.
“Life jacket” means any device designed to support a person individually in
or on water.
“Load sheet” means a document which enables the pilot-in-command to
determine that the aircraft’s load and its distribution throughout the
aircraft are such that the mass and balance limits of the aircraft are not
exceeded.
“Log book”, in the case of an aircraft log book, engine log book or variable
pitch propeller log book, or personal flying log book, includes a record
kept in a book or by any other means approved by the Director-General of
Civil Aviation in the particular case.
“Maintenance programme” means the maintenance schedule and related
procedures necessary for the safe operation of those aircraft to which it
applies.
“Maintenance release” means a document which contains a certification
confirming that the maintenance work to which it relates has been
completed in a satisfactory manner, either in accordance with the

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approved data and the procedures described in the maintenance
organisation’s procedures manual or under an equivalent system.
“Maintenance schedule” means a document which describes the specific
scheduled maintenance tasks and the frequency of completion for each
scheduled task to ensure the safe operation of those aircraft to which the
schedule applies.
“Master minimum equipment list” or “MMEL” means a list that —
(a) is established for a particular aircraft type by the organisation
responsible for the type design with the approval of the State of
Design;
(b) contains the items which are permitted to be unserviceable at
the commencement of the flight; and
(c) may be for general use or associated with special operating
conditions, limitations or procedures.
“Maximum approved passenger seating configuration” or “MAPSC” means
the maximum passenger seating capacity of an individual aircraft that is
specified in the operations manual, used by the operator and approved by
the appropriate authority, and excludes pilot seats or flight deck seats and
cabin crew seats, as applicable.
“Maximum certificated take-off mass” or “MCTOM”, in relation to an
aircraft, means the maximum total mass of the aircraft and its contents at
which the aircraft may take off anywhere in the world, in the most
favourable circumstances in accordance with the Certificate of
Airworthiness in force in respect of the aircraft.
“Meteorological information” means a meteorological report, analysis,
forecast, and any other statement relating to existing or expected
meteorological conditions.
“Minimum descent altitude” or “MDA”, or “minimum descent height” or
“MDH”, means a specified altitude or height in a two-dimensional (2D)
instrument approach operation or circling approach operation below
which the pilot-in-command must not continue the descent without the
required visual reference.
“Minimum equipment list” or “MEL” means a list which states the particular
equipment which may be inoperative during the operation of an aircraft,
subject to specific conditions, and which is prepared by an operator in
conformity with, to be more restrictive than, the MMEL established for
the aircraft type.

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“Modification”, in relation to an aircraft or aircraft component, means the
alteration of the aircraft or aircraft component to conform to the approved
standard for that aircraft or aircraft component.
“Movement area” means that part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off,
landing and taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and an
apron.
“Navigation guidance” means guidance in the lateral or vertical plane that is
provided by —
(a) a ground-based radio navigation aid; or
(b) computer-generated navigation data from ground-based,
space-based or self-contained navigation aids, or a
combination of these aids.
“Navigation specification” means a set of aircraft and flight crew
requirements needed to support performance-based navigation
operations within a defined airspace.
“Night” means the time between 20 minutes after sunset and 20 minutes
before sunrise, the timing of sunset and sunrise being determined at
surface level.
“Noise certificate” means a certificate issued or validated or other document
approved by the competent authority of a State to the effect that the
aircraft to which the certificate or other document relates complies with
the applicable noise certification requirement in force in that State.
“NOTAM” or “notice to airmen” means a notice distributed by means of
telecommunication containing information concerning the establishment,
condition or change in any aeronautical facility, service, procedure or
hazard, the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned
with flight operations.
“Obstacle” means any fixed or mobile object or part thereof —
(a) which is located in an area intended for the surface movement of
aircraft; or
(b) which extends above a defined surface intended to protect
aircraft in flight.
“Obstacle clearance altitude” or “obstacle clearance height” means the
lowest altitude or the lowest height above the elevation of the relevant
runway threshold or the aerodrome elevation as applicable, used to
establish compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria.

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“Operational control” means the exercise of authority over the initiation,
continuation, diversion or termination of a flight in the interest of the
safety of the aircraft, or the regularity or efficiency of the flight.
“Operational credit” means —
(a) a minima below the aerodrome operating minima, in the case of
an approach ban;
(b) reducing or satisfying the visibility requirements; or
(c) requiring fewer ground facilities as compensated for by
airborne capabilities.
“Operational flight plan”, in relation to an aeroplane or helicopter, means an
operator’s plan for the safe conduct of the flight based on considerations
of the aeroplane’s or helicopter’s performance, other operating limitations
and relevant expected conditions on the route to be followed and at the
aerodromes or heliports concerned.
“Operations Manual” means a manual containing procedures, instructions
and guidance for use by operational personnel in the execution of their
duties.
“Operator” means the person who, at the relevant time, is engaged in or
offering to engage in an aircraft operation, except in the following cases:
(a) where there is an agreement for the charter, hire, lease or loan of
an aircraft from one person (called the firstmentioned person) to
another person, other than an air transport undertaking or an
aerial work undertaking for a period not exceeding 14 days, the
firstmentioned person is deemed to be the operator;
(b) where the aircraft is not used in an aircraft operation, the person
who owns or whose management or control the aircraft is in is
deemed to be the operator; or
(c) where regulation 4 applies.
“Performance-based communication” or “PBC” means communication
based on performance specifications applied to the provision of air
traffic services.
“Performance-based navigation” or “PBN” means area navigation based on
performance requirements for aircraft operating along an ATS route, on an
instrument approach procedure or in a designated airspace.
“Performance-based surveillance” or “PBS” means a surveillance based on
performance specifications applied to the provision of air traffic services.

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“Performance Class 1”, in relation to helicopter operations, means a flight
where, in the event of the failure of an engine —
(a) when the engine failure recognition occurs during take off at or
before the helicopter reaches the take-off decision point, the
helicopter will be able to land safely within the area from which
it had taken off; or
(b) when the engine failure recognition occurs at any other time
during flight, the helicopter will be able to continue the flight
safely and land at an appropriate landing area.
“Performance Class 2”, in relation to helicopter operations, means a flight
where, in the event of the failure of an engine —
(a) where the failure occurs during the take-off manoeuvre or the
landing manoeuvre, and the helicopter is unable to take off or
land, the helicopter will be able to carry out a forced landing; or
(b) where the failure occurs at any other point during the flight, the
helicopter will be able to safely continue the flight to an
appropriate landing area.
“Performance Class 3”, in relation to helicopter operations, means a flight
where, in the event of the failure of an engine at any time during the flight,
the helicopter will be required to carry out a forced landing.
“Permit to fly” means a certificate issued by the Authority to permit an
aircraft, that does not have a valid certificate of airworthiness or is not
constructed to international recognised design standards, to fly in
accordance with conditions specified on the certificate.
“Point of no return” or “PNR” means the last possible geographic point at
which an aeroplane can proceed to the destination aerodrome as well as to
an available en route alternate aerodrome for a given flight.
“Portable electronic device” or “PED” means any electronic device that
transmits electromagnetic signals and is capable of being brought on
board an aeroplane, and which includes both intentionally transmitting
PED and unintentionally transmitting PED, but does not include —
(a) a PED that has very low power consumption (such as a heart
pacemaker, hearing aid or digital watch); or
(b) a medical PED (such as an automated external defibrillator or a
portable oxygen concentrator) that is approved for use in the
aeroplane.

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“Precision approach” means an instrument approach using Instrument
Landing System, Microwave Landing System or Precision Approach
Radar for guidance in both azimuth and elevation.
“Pressure altitude” means an atmospheric pressure, expressed in terms of
altitude, which corresponds to that pressure in the Standard Atmosphere.
“Pressurised aircraft” means an aircraft provided with means of maintaining
in any compartment of the aircraft a pressure greater than that of the
surrounding atmosphere.
“Principal place of business” means the head office or registered office of the
organisation within which the principal financial functions and
operational control of the activities referred to in these Regulations are
exercised.
“Private flight” means a flight, which is neither for the purpose of aerial work
nor commercial air transport.
“Psychoactive substances” includes alcohol, opioids, cannabinoids,
sedatives and hypnotics, cocaine, other psychostimulants,
hallucinogens, and volatile solvents, and excludes coffee and tobacco.
“Quality system” means the organisational structure, procedures, processes
and resources needed to implement quality management.
“Rating” means an authorisation entered on, or associated with, a licence and
forming part of a licence, which states special conditions, privileges, or
limitations pertaining to such licence.
“Record” —
(a) includes —
(i) a record in writing:
(ii) any disc, tape, soundtrack or other device in which
sounds or signals are embodied so as to be capable
(with or without the aid of some other instrument) of
being reproduced therefrom;
(iii) any film, tape or other device in which visual images
are embodied so as to be capable (with or without the
aid of some other instrument) of being reproduced
therefrom; and
(iv) any photograph; and

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(b) any reference to a copy of a record includes —
(i) in the case of a record that falls within paragraph (a)(ii)
only, a transcript of the sounds or signals embodied
therein;
(ii) in the case of a record that falls within
paragraph (a)(iii) only, a still reproduction of the
images embodied therein; and
(iii) in the case of a record falling within both
paragraph (a)(ii) and (iii), such a transcript together
with such a still reproduction.
“Reduced vertical separation minimum airspace” or “RVSM airspace”
means any airspace between flight level 290 and flight level 410 (both
altitudes inclusive) designated by the relevant competent authority as
being airspace within which a vertical separation minimum of 300 metres
(1,000 ft) is to be applied.
“Repair” means the restoration of an aeronautical product to an airworthy
condition to ensure that the aircraft continues to comply with design
aspects of the appropriate airworthiness requirements used for the
issuance of the type certificate of the respective aircraft type, after that
aeronautical product has been damaged or subject to wear.
“Replacement”, in relation to any part of an aircraft or its equipment,
includes the removal and replacement of that part whether or not by the
same part, and whether or not any work is done on it; but does not include
the removal and replacement of a part which is designated to be removable
solely for the purpose of enabling another part to be inspected, repaired,
removed or replaced or cargo to be loaded.
“Rules of the Air” means the rules set out in the Eleventh Schedule to the Air
Navigation Order.
“Runway” means a defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared
for the landing and take-off of aircraft.
“Runway visual range” or “RVR” means the range over which the pilot of an
aircraft on the centre line of a runway can see —
(a) the runway surface markings;
(b) the lights delineating the runway; or
(c) the lights identifying its centre line.

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“Seaplane” means a fixed wing aircraft which is designed for taking off and
landing on water and includes an amphibian aeroplane that is being
operated as a seaplane.
“Search and rescue facility” means any mobile resource used to conduct
search and rescue operations, and includes designated search and rescue
units.
“Singapore operator” means the holder of one of the following aviation
safety instruments:
(a) an air operator certificate issued under the Air Navigation
(119 — Air Operator Certification) Regulations 2018;
(b) an aerial work certificate issued under the Air Navigation
(137 — Aerial Work) Regulations 2018;
(c) a complex general aviation certificate issued under the Air
Navigation (125 — Complex General Aviation) Regulations
2018.
[S 677/2018 wef 09/10/2018]

“State of Design” means the State which has jurisdiction over the
organisation responsible for the type design.
“State of Manufacture” means the State which has jurisdiction over the
organisation responsible for the final assembly of the aircraft, engine or
propeller.
[S 768/2018 wef 24/11/2018]

“State of the Aerodrome” means the State in which the aerodrome is located.
“Suitable alternate aerodrome” means an aerodrome where, at the anticipated
time of use —
(a) the weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of the
reports and forecasts, indicate that the weather conditions will
be at or above the required aerodrome operating minima; and
(b) the runway surface condition reports indicate that a safe landing
will be possible.
“Take-off alternate” means an alternate aerodrome at which an aircraft can
land if it become necessary for the aircraft to land shortly after take-off
and the aerodrome of departure cannot be used.
“Taxi”, in relation to an aircraft, means the movement of an aircraft on the
surface of an aerodrome under its own power, excluding take-off and
landing.

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FIRST SCHEDULE — continued

“Touchdown” means the point at which the nominal glide path of an aircraft
intercepts the runway.
“Transition altitude” or “transition level” means the altitude at or below
which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to
altitudes.
“Type certificate” means a document issued by a State of Design —
(a) to define the design of an aircraft, engine or propeller type; and
(b) to certify that this design complies with the appropriate
airworthiness requirements of the State.
[S 768/2018 wef 24/11/2018]

“VFR flight” means a flight conducted in accordance with the Visual Flight
Rules.
“Visibility”, for aeronautical purposes, means the greater of —
(a) the furthest distance at which a black object of suitable
dimensions, situated near the ground, can be seen and
recognised when observed against a bright background; or
(b) the furthest distance at which lights in the vicinity of
1,000 candelas can be seen and identified against an unlit
background.
“Visual Flight Rules” or “VFR” means the Visual Flight Rules contained in
the Rules of the Air.
“Visual meteorological conditions” or “VMC” means meteorological
conditions expressed in terms of visibility distance from cloud, and
ceiling, which is equal to or better than specified minima.

SECOND SCHEDULE
Regulations 5(4) and 111

FEES
1. Application fee for a permit to . Cost of the assessment, which must not
fly exceed $6 per kg of the MCTOM of the
aircraft involved
2. Grant of a permit to fly $370

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THIRD SCHEDULE
Regulation 50(1) and Sixth Schedule

REPORTABLE SAFETY MATTERS

List of reportable safety matters
1. The responsible person must report to the Authority —
(a) every accident; and
(b) every incident of the following nature:
(1) a near collision;
(2) an incident that occurs during a critical phase of flight that has a high
potential of causing an accident;
(3) a take-off, landing, or attempted take-off or landing, on a closed,
unassigned or engaged runway or helipad;
(4) an incident when Controlled Flight Into Terrain (CFIT) was only
marginally avoided;
(5) any difficulty in controlling the aircraft;
(6) any flight crew incapacitation;
(7) an evacuation of crew, passengers or both;
(8) any use of fire extinguishing agent or fire suppression agent;
(9) a fire or smoke event, including an event where the fire was
extinguished;
(10) an event requiring the emergency use of oxygen;
(11) any gross failures to achieve predicted performance during take-off or
initial climb;
(12) a declaration of emergency;
(13) any failure of, or significant damage to, aircraft structure or
disintegration of any part of the engine or external part of the aircraft, or
uncontained turbine engine failures, that is not classified as an accident;
(14) any failure of more than one system in a multiple-redundancy system
mandatory for flight guidance and navigation, not being circumstances
permitted under the minimum equipment list;
(15) an incident of multiple malfunctions of one or more aircraft systems that
seriously affected the operation of the aircraft;
(16) a dangerous goods incident;

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(17) any carriage of dangerous goods in a manner that does not conform with
the provisions of Annex 18 to the Chicago Convention and its Technical
Instructions;
(18) any violation of local safety legislation or requirements;
(19) an air turn-back;
(20) a diversion;
(21) a rejected take-off;
(22) a significant safety or security-related event;
(23) any circumstances requiring a manoeuvre to avoid collision with another
aircraft other than a near collision;
(24) any activation of ground proximity warning system other than an
incident described in sub-paragraph (4);
(25) any shutdown of an engine in flight;
(26) a hard landing;
(27) any windshear requiring pilot to initiate recovery action;
(28) an activation of stall warning or stick shaker;
(29) an air traffic control-related event;
(29A) a loss of communication with air traffic control;
(30) any unintentional deviation of airspeed, intended track or altitude that
result in the activation of a deviation notification;
(31) a taxi error;
(32) an unstabilised approach;
(33) a lightning strike;
(34) a bird strike;
(35) any incapacitation of a cabin crew member that renders that cabin crew
member unable to perform critical safety duties;
(36) an aircraft abnormality or engine vibration;
(37) a blown tire or wheel failure;
(38) any damage to aircraft by a foreign object;
(39) any use of incorrect or contaminated fuel, oil or other fluid;
(40) any underfuelling;

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THIRD SCHEDULE — continued

(41) a loading or load sheet error;
(42) any significant spillage or leakage of oil, fuel or other fluid;
(43) any other occurrence that endangers or may endanger the operation of an
aircraft, or which causes or may cause a danger to persons or property.

[S 209/2020 wef 01/04/2020]

Notification requirements
2.—(1) The responsible person must notify the Authority immediately through
the most expeditious means available upon becoming aware of —
(a) an accident, or possible accident, involving an aircraft that the
responsible person operates; or
(b) any incident listed in paragraph 1(b)(1) to (22).
(2) The responsible person must submit a formal written notification to the
Authority —
(a) for any matter referred to in paragraph 2(1)(a), within 3 hours after the
initial notification;
(b) for any incident listed in paragraph 1(b)(1) to (18), within 24 hours
after becoming aware of the incident;
(c) for any incident listed in paragraph 1(b)(19) to (22), within 72 hours
after the incident or after the completion of the affected flight, or as
advised otherwise by the Authority; or
(d) for any incident listed in paragraph 1(b)(23) to (43), within 3 working
days after the incident or after the completion of the affected flight.
(3) All formal written notifications must be made in a manner acceptable to the
Authority.

FOURTH SCHEDULE
Regulation 67(2)

EQUIPMENT THAT DO NOT REQUIRE APPROVAL

1. A time piece.
2. A whistle.
3. A sea anchor and any equipment necessary for mooring, anchoring or
manoeuvring an aircraft on water.

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FOURTH SCHEDULE — continued

4. Any equipment required for making distress signals.

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FIFTH SCHEDULE
Regulation 104(2)

AREAS SPECIFIED IN CONNECTION WITH CARRIAGE OF FLIGHT

NAVIGATORS
Areas specified in connection with the carriage of a flight navigator as a flight
crew member, or with the carriage of approved navigational equipment, on public
transport aircraft.
The following areas are specified for the purposes of regulation 104(2):
. Area A — Arctic
All that area north of latitude 68° north but excluding any part within the
area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following points:
68° north latitude 00° east/west longitude
73° north latitude 15° east longitude
73° north latitude 30° east longitude
68° north latitude 45° east longitude
68° north latitude 00° east/west longitude

Area B — Antarctic
All that area south of latitude 55° south.

Area C — Sahara
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
30° north latitude 05° west longitude
24° north latitude 11° west longitude
14° north latitude 11° west longitude
14° north latitude 28° east longitude
24° north latitude 28° east longitude
28° north latitude 23° east longitude
30° north latitude 15° east longitude
30° north latitude 05° west longitude

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FIFTH SCHEDULE — continued

Area D — South America
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
04° north latitude 72° west longitude
04° north latitude 60° west longitude
08° south latitude 42° west longitude
18° south latitude 54° west longitude
18° south latitude 60° west longitude
14° south latitude 72° west longitude
05° south latitude 76° west longitude
04° north latitude 72° west longitude

Area E — Pacific Ocean

All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
60° north latitude 180° east/west longitude
20° north latitude 128° east longitude
04° north latitude 128° east longitude
04° north latitude 180° east/west longitude
55° south latitude 180° east/west longitude
55° south latitude 82° west longitude
25° south latitude 82° west longitude
60° north latitude 155° west longitude
60° north latitude 180° east/west longitude

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FIFTH SCHEDULE — continued

Area F — Australia
All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
18° south latitude 123° east longitude
30° south latitude 118° east longitude
30° south latitude 135° east longitude
18° south latitude 123° east longitude

Area G — Indian Ocean

All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
35° south latitude 110° east longitude
55° south latitude 180° east/west longitude
55° south latitude 10° east longitude
40° south latitude 10° east longitude
25° south latitude 60° east longitude
20° south latitude 60° east longitude
05° south latitude 43° east longitude
10° north latitude 55° east longitude
10° north latitude 73° east longitude
04° north latitude 77° east longitude
04° north latitude 92° east longitude
10° south latitude 100° east longitude
10° south latitude 110° east longitude
35° south latitude 110° east longitude

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FIFTH SCHEDULE — continued

Area H — North Atlantic Ocean

All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
55° north latitude 15° west longitude
68° north latitude 28° west longitude
68° north latitude 60° west longitude
45° north latitude 45° west longitude
40° north latitude 60° west longitude
40° north latitude 19° west longitude
55° north latitude 15° west longitude

Area I — South Atlantic Ocean

All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
40° north latitude 60° west longitude
18° north latitude 60° west longitude
05° south latitude 30° west longitude
55° south latitude 55° west longitude
55° south latitude 10° east longitude
40° south latitude 10° east longitude
02° north latitude 05° east longitude
02° north latitude 10° west longitude
15° north latitude 25° west longitude
40° north latitude 19° west longitude
40° north latitude 60° west longitude

Area J — Northern Canada

All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:

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FIFTH SCHEDULE — continued

68° north latitude 130° west longitude
55° north latitude 115° west longitude
55° north latitude 70° west longitude
68° north latitude 60° west longitude
68° north latitude 130° west longitude

Area K — Northern Asia

All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
68° north latitude 56° east longitude
68° north latitude 160° east longitude
50° north latitude 125° east longitude
50° north latitude 56° east longitude
68° north latitude 56° east longitude

Area L — South Asia

All that area enclosed by rhumb lines joining successively the following
points:
50° north latitude 56° east longitude
50° north latitude 125° east longitude
40° north latitude 110° east longitude
30° north latitude 110° east longitude
30° north latitude 80° east longitude
35° north latitude 80° east longitude
35° north latitude 56° east longitude
50° north latitude 56° east longitude

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SIXTH SCHEDULE
Regulations 21(3) and 109

RETENTION PERIODS
TABLE 1

Information used for the preparation and execution of the flight

1. Operational flight plan 3 months after the date of completion of
the flight.
2. Technical log 24 months after the date of entry.
3. Route specific NOTAM or AIS 3 months after the date of completion of
briefing documentation if — the flight.
(a) the documentation was edited
by the operator; or
(b) the documentation is for
flights on a route not
normally flown
4. Load sheet 3 months after the date of completion of
the flight.
5. Notification of a special load 3 months after the date of completion of
(including written information to the flight.
the pilot-in-command about
dangerous goods)
6. Fuel and oil records 3 months after the date of completion of
the flight.

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SIXTH SCHEDULE — continued

TABLE 2

Reports
1. Journey log 6 months after the date of completion of
the flight.
2. Flight report for recording details 3 months after the date of completion of
of — the flight.
(a) any reportable safety matter
specified in the Third
Schedule; or
(b) any event which the
pilot-in-command considers
necessary to report or record
3. Any report on the exceedance of 6 months after the date of such report.
duty period or the reduction of rest
periods or both

TABLE 3

Flight crew records

1. Record of a flight crew member’s 12 months after the date of the flight,
assigned flight, duty and rest time duty or rest time.
2. Flight Crew Member’s Licence For as long as the flight crew member is
exercising the privileges of the licence
(including information on the
for the operator
ratings, currency, validity and
limitations)
3. Record of any flight used by a 3 years after the date of the flight.
flight crew member to maintain
recency
4. Record of any training course or 3 years after the completion of the
checking that a flight crew member course or checking.
has attended, which includes —
(a) the date and particulars of
each test required and
undergone by the crew
member, including the name
and qualification of the
examiner;

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SIXTH SCHEDULE — continued

(b) the date which that crew

member last practised
carrying out of duties
assigned;
(c) the operator’s conclusion of
that crew member’s
competence to perform his
or her duties, based on the
crew member’s performance
at a test mentioned in
sub-paragraph (a) and a
practice mentioned in
sub-paragraph (b); and
(d) the date and particulars of any
decision taken by the operator
regarding the competence of a
pilot designated as a
pilot-in-command, including
particulars of the evidence
upon which that decision
was based
5. Record of a flight crew member’s For as long as the flight crew member’s
training and qualification for licence is valid.
specific operations (such as
Category II or Category III
operations)
6. Record of a flight crew member’s 3 years after the completion of the
dangerous goods training, where training.
required

[S 768/2018 wef 24/11/2018]

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SIXTH SCHEDULE — continued

TABLE 4

Cabin crew records

1. Record of a cabin crew member’s 12 months after the date of the flight,
assigned flight, duty and rest time duty or rest time.
2. All training courses attended For as long as the cabin crew member is
(except dangerous goods training employed by the operator and, from the
and recurrent training on safety and date the cabin crew member leaves the
emergency procedures) employment, for another 12 months
after that date.
3. Record of a cabin crew member’s 3 years after the completion of that
dangerous goods training, where training.
required
4. Record of a cabin crew member’s 2 years after the completion of the
recurrent training on safety and training
emergency procedures, where
required

[S 209/2020 wef 01/04/2020]

[S 768/2018 wef 24/11/2018]

TABLE 5

Records for other operational personnel

1. Training and qualification records For as long as the record is not
of other operations personnel for superseded by 2 more recent training
whom an approved training or qualification records.
programme is required under the
provisions of the Air Navigation
(121 — Commercial Air Transport
by Large Aeroplanes) Regulations
2018 or the Air Navigation (135 —
Commercial Air Transport by
Helicopters and Small
Aeroplanes) Regulations 2018, as
appropriate

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TABLE 6

Other records
1. Records on cosmic and solar For as long as the crew member is
radiation dosage for each crew employed by the operator and, from the
member date the crew member leaves the
employment, for another 12 months
after that date.
2. Quality system records 3 years after the date of entry.
3. Dangerous goods transport 3 months after the date of the
document document.
4. Dangerous goods acceptance 3 months after the date of the flight
checklist when the checklist was used.
5. Application for approvals under the 12 months after the date of the
Air Navigation (98 — Special application.
Operations) Regulations 2018
6. Record of the flight data from a 12 months after the date of the flight,
representative flight (as described unless superseded by the record from a
in regulation 21(3)) more recent representative flight.

Made on 21 June 2018.

LEE HSIEN YANG

Chairman,
Civil Aviation Authority of
Singapore.
[LE/LGN/A1.8; AG/LLRD/SL/6/2010/9 Vol. 5]
(To be presented to Parliament under section 3A(8) of the Air
Navigation Act).

Informal Consolidation – version in force from 3/11/2022