Second Edition

FOREWORD

Purpose The Basic Examination covers:

This Study Guide is intended to aid individuals preparing 1. the administration of personnel qualification and
to take the Basic Examination as part of the process of certification programs based on the most recent editions
becoming certified as an ASNT NDT Level III in one or of SNT-TC-I4 and ANSI/ASNT CP-189,
more NDT methods. It is equally useful for persons prepar¬ 2. materials fabrication and product technology, and
ing to take a Basic Level III Examination under an employer's 3. general principles and applications of common NDT
personnel qualification and certification program per methods.
SNT-TC-1A.
The material in this Study Guide addresses the body of Each Method Examination covers:
knowledge included in the Basic Examination administered 1. fundamentals and principles of the method,
under the ASNT NDT Level III certification program. The 2. applications and establishment of techniques and
ASNT NDT Level III certification program is a service, procedures, and
offered by the American Society for Nondestructive Testing, 3. interpretation of codes, standards, and specifications
Inc., that gives NDT personnel an opportunity to have their relating to the method.
familiarity with the principles and practices of NDT assessed
by an independent body The program uses an independent
body to review credentials and uses comprehensive written
How to Use the Study Guide
examinations to identify those persons who meet the criteria Each section of this Study Guide begins with a discussion
for becoming an ASNT NDT Level III for each NDT method. of the topical material, followed by a list of technical litera¬
Method examinations are offered in: ture references and a set of representative multiple-choice
questions covering both the material in the study guide and
Acoustic Emission Testing information taken from the cited references.
Electromagnetic Testing The user should read through the text of the Study Guide
Leak Testing and if the discussion covers unfamiliar material, the refer¬
Liquid Penetrant Testing enced selections should also be reviewed and studied. Finally,
Magnetic Flux Leakage the questions at the end of each section should be answered.
Magnetic Particle Testing Success in answering the questions will help the user to
Neutron Radiographic Testing determine if more concentrated study in particular areas is
Radiological Testing needed. Persons who are familiar with some of the topics
Thermal/Infrared Testing may wish to go directly to the questions. If they can answer
Ultrasonic Testing the questions confidently and correctly, additional study may
Visual Testing be optional.
This Study Guide is designed to assist individuals in their
NOTE: Four additional methods are listed in SNT-TC-1A preparation fbr the ASNT NDT Level III Basic Examination.
and CP- 105 but do not have ASNT examinations: ground It is not intended to be their only source of preparation. The
penetrating radar, guided wave, laser methods and vibration Study Guide provides a general overview of subject matter
analysis. covered by the examination so that students can identify
The ASNT NDT Level III certification program requires those areas of the body of knowledge in which they need fur¬
satisfactory completion of a 4-hour Basic Examination. ther study.
Eleven different NDT methods examinations are given with Note that references to persons who have met the criteria
durations of 2-4 hours, depending upon each method's com¬ for the Level III certifications issued by ASNT are called
plexity Tb be eligible to take the ASNT NDT Level III exami¬ ASNT NDT Level III. This is in contrast to the person who
nations, persons must qualify by virtue of their documented has met the criteria of an employer and who is identified as
education and experience. the employer's Level III or just Level III.
Changes in This Edition Section I has been updated to reflect the latest, 2011,
The second edition of the ASNT Level III Study Guide: editions of two key ASNT documents: ANSI/ASNT CP-189:
Basic builds on the first edition written by Matthew J. Golis. ASNT Standard for Qualification and Certification of
As with the previous version, this study guide also divides the Nondestructive Testing Personnel and Recommended Practice
subject matter into three main sections corresponding with No. SNT-TC-1A: Personnel Qualification and Certification 加
the three sections of the Basic Examination: Nondestructive Testing. Likewise, the topical outlines of
the NDT methods presented in Section II have been drawn
Section I: certification and qualification of NDT from the 2011 edition of ANSI/ASNT CP- 105: ASNT
personnel as outlined in SNT-TC-1A and CP-189. Standard Topical Outlines for Qualification of Nondestructive
Testing Personnel, lb facilitate the study of these documents,
Section II: an overview of commonly used NDT in Sections I and II, word-fbr-word excerpts are highlighted
methods. in blue.
Questions in all three sections have been modified, as
Section III: materials and processes in manufacturing needed, to reflect the current ASNT exam practice of offering
and industry in relation to NDT technology. four unique answers per question. Also, in Section II, ques¬
tions have been added for the magnetic flux leakage testing
The only difference in organization is in the numbering method.
of chapters. What was Chapter 1 in the first edition is now
the Introduction to Section I.

v
CONTENTS

Acknowledgments iii

Foreword iv
Purpose iv

How to Use the Study Guide iv

Changes in This Edition v

SECTION I: Administration of a Personnel Qualification and Certification Program 1

Introduction 3
References 3

Chapter 1: Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A 5

History of SNT-TC-1A 5
Contents and Intended Uses of SNT-TC-1A 5
Overview of SNT-TC-1A (2011) 6
Foreword 6
Sections 1, 2 and 3: Scope, Definitions and Nondestructive Testing Methods 6
General Comments on Section 1 8
Inquiries for Section 1 8
General Comments on Sections 2 and 3 9
Section 4: Levels of Qualification 10
Inquiries for Section 4 10
General Comments on Section 4 ? 11
Section 5: Written Practice 11
General Comments on Section 5 12
Section 6: Education, Training, and Experience Requirements for Initial Qualification 12
Inquiries for Section 6 12
General Comments on Section 6 16
Section 7: Training Programs 17
Inquiries for Section 7 17
General Comments on Section 7 17
Section 8: Examinations 18
General Comments on Section 8 22
Inquiries for Section 8 22
Section 9: Certification 24
Inquiries for Section 9 24
General Comments on Section 9 26
Section 10: Technical Performance Evaluation 26
Inquiries for Section 10 26
General Comments on Section 10 26

vii
 Section 1 1: Interrupted Service 27
General Comments on Section 11 27
Section 12: Recertification 27
General Comments on Section 12 27
Inquiries for Section 12 27
Section 13: Termination 28
Inquiries for Section 13 28
Section 14: Reinstatement 28
Inquiries for Section 14 28
General Comments on Section 14 28
Review Questions 29
Answers 35
Chapter 2: The ASNT NDT Level III Certification Program 37
ASNT NDT Level III 37
What Is an ASNT NDT Level III? 37
ASNT Predictive Maintenance Level III 37
Eligibility for ASNT Level III Examinations 38
NDT/PdM or PdM/NDT Conversion 38
Recertification 38
SNT-TC-JA Certification Options 38
Use of the ASNT NDT Level III Certification
39
ACCP Professional Level III 39
ASNT Examination Schedule 39
Review Questions 40
Answers 40
Chapter 3: ANSI /ASNT CP- 189 (2011) 41
Overview 4]
Section 1: Scope 4]
Section 2: Definitions 41
Section 3: Levels of Qualification 42
Section 4: Qualification Requirements 42
Section 5: Qualification and Certification 43
Section 6: Examinations 43
Section 7: Expiration, Suspension, Revocation, and Reinstatement of Employer Certification 44
Section 8: Employer Recertification 44
Section 9: Records 44
Section 10: Referenced Publications 44
Review Questions
45
Answers
45

Section II: Overview of NDT Methods

47
Chapter 4: General Applications of Various NDT Methods 49
Overview of the ASNT Basic Examination
49
Topical Outlines, Reference Resources and Review Questions
49

viii
 Acoustic Emission Testing (AE) 49
Topical Outline 49
References 49
Acoustic Emission Testing Review Questions 50
Electromagnetic Testing (ET) 51
Topical Outline 51
References 51
Electromagnetic Testing Review Questions 51
Leak Testing (LT) 54
Topical Outline 54
References 54
Leak Testing Review Questions 54
Liquid Penetrant Testing (PT) 55
Topical Outline 55
References 55
Liquid Penetrant Testing Review Questions 55
Magnetic Flux Leakage Testing (MFL) 58
Topical Outline 58
References 58
Magnetic Flux Leakage Testing Review Questions 58
Magnetic Particle Testing (MT) 59
Topical Outline 59
References 59
Magnetic Particle Testing Review Questions 59
Neutron Radiographic Testing (NR) 62
Topical Outline 62
Reference 62
Neutron Radiographic Testing Review Questions 62
Radiographic Testing 65
Topical Outline * 65
References 65
Radiographic Testing Review Questions 65
Thermal/lnfrared Testing (IR) 68
Topical Outline 68
References 68
Thermal/lnfrared Testing Review Questions 68
Ultrasonic Testing (UT) 7°
Topical Outline 7°
References 7°
Ultrasonic Testing Review Questions 7°
Visual Testing (VT) 74
Topical Outline 74
References 74
Visual Testing Review Questions 74
Answers to Review Questions 76

ix
Section III: Materials, Fabrication and Product Technology 77
Chapter 5: Materials and Processes for NDT Technology 79
Overview 79
Review Questions 80
Chapter 1: "Relation of NDT to Manufacturing,* 80
Chapter 2: "Introduction to Manufacturing Technology" 81
Chapter 3: "Properties of Materials^^ 81
Chapter 4: “The Nature of Materials and Solid State Changes in Metals" 83
Chapter 5: uFerrous Metals** 84
Chapter 6: “Nonferrous Metals and Plastics'* 85
Chapter 7: “The Nature of Manufacturingn 86
Chapter 8: “The Casting Process” 87
Chapter 9: “The Welding Process** 88
Chapter 10: "Welding Processes and Design” 90
Chapter 1 1: “Plastic Flow" 92
Chapter 12: “Millwork, Forging, and Powder Metallurgyn 93
Chapter 13: "Pressworking of Sheet Metol” 95
Chapter 1 4: "Machining Fundamentals*1 95
Chapter 15: uMiscellaneous Processes” 96
Chapter 1 6: “Surface Finishing” 97
Chapter 17: '*lnspectionM 98
Answers to Review Questions 100

Appendix 103
Code of Ethics for Level III NDT Personnel Certified by ASNT 105

x
 SECTION
ADMINISTRATION OF A
PERSONNEL QUALIFICATION
AND CERTIFICATION PROGRAM
CHAPTER 1
Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A

History of SNT-TC-1A Contents and Intended Uses of

SNT-TC-1A
The reasons for which Recommended Practice No.
SNT-TC-1A was created and the manner in which it evolved The following information has been excerpted from
were described in an article published in Materials the same article cited above. The text of this article has been
Evaluation, October 1968,Vbl. 26, No. 10, pp. 12A-14A, by modified to include changes made in subsequent editions of
Harold Hovland and Carl B. Shaw, titledJHow to Qualify SNT-TC-IA.
and Certify NDT Personnel." The following excerpts outline
how this important recommended practice came into It is intended that SNT-TC- 1A serve as a guide for each
existence: employer user in preparing their specific personnel qualification
and certification document (procedure or written practice).
With the increasing complexity and number of SNT-TC- 1 A sets forth a scope and definitions, it lists the test
nondestructive test methods in use and with greater reliance methods, and it explains the various levels of qualifications. The
upon nondestructive testing, industry has not been able to primary document also details the manner in which personnel
recruit and train personnel in large enough numbers and in are examined and certified. The question arises, Whow do I
a timely fashion to fill the need. Many customers found that document certification in my particular procedure?" The point to
they were not receiving the nondestructive test examinations remember here is that the procedure as written by any user of
they felt they had paid to receive. this document must satisfy the requirements of their company
Large segments of the economy, such as the Government and must be acceptable to the company's customers. Within this
and prime contractors, found it expedient to put the context, certification may take any one of several forms. It may
responsibility for the training and qualification, and verification consist merely of the records of the training programs, the
of the qualifications of nondestructive test personnel upon the examinations and the grades of the examinations. It may require
manufacturer. This resulted in the generation of a number of a certificate that states explicitly that a particular person is
documents dealing with the question of the training, qualified to a given level for a specific method. It may take the
qualification, and certification of nondestructive test personnel. form of a card upon which an employer certifies the level of
Although these documents all pertain to the same subject and training and qualification of its personnel.
have the same objective, in their details they were often The employer has the same responsibility for the
conflicting, thereby causing undue cost to American industry. qualification and certification of its NDT personnel as it has for
Beginning about 1959, a few corporations, government the product. For example, even though an employer may
agencies, and other technical societies inquired of ASNT as to purchase a complete product and sell this product under the
whether the training and qualification of nondestructive test company's own name, the employer still bears full responsibility
personnel was properly the domain of the Society. to the customer for the quality of that product and for the
In 1961, the Society, through its Technical Council, assigned product being what the company purports it to be. The
a Task Group to study the feasibility of preparing a document employer may elect to purchase components and assemble
that would deal with the training requirements and the them and sell the result as a complete product; then again, the
documentation thereof for the qualification of nondestructive employer may manufacture all components of the product. In
test personnel ... the Task Group endeavored to prepare a any of these cases, the employer bears a certain responsibility.
recommended practice which could contain the consensus of The employer is responsible that what is being sold is indeed
expert opinion regarding the training of personnel and an what it is claimed to be, that it will meet certain requirements of
average of requirements for formal education, time for on-the- quality, that it will not harm the user, and that it will not destroy
job training, and documentation. the user's property.
The resulting SNT-TC-1A is a recommended practice for the The employer may choose to exercise any of these
qualification and certification of nondestructive test personnel. prerogatives in the training, qualification, and certification of its
It provides a format which industry can follow in writing an personnel. The company may employ persons previously trained
individualized procedure for the qualification and certification of and certify these people; however, the responsibility would be
personnel which meets the needs and requirements unique to the same as if they had been trained and qualified by the
each segment of industry. employer. The employer may conduct a training program as
 Basic SECTION I

recommended in the documents, examine these individuals, Overview of SNT-TC-1A (2011)

and certify them as to their qualification to do the work. The
This section provides a paragraph-by-paragraph
employer will exercise this responsibility through a person in the
overview of SNT-TC-1A including excerpts from the docu¬
organization who is qualified as a Level III, and who is qualified
ment, popular inquiries and official responses provided by
to train or provide the training of the personnel under them and
the ASNT SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel along with more
to exercise judgment as to the qualification of these personnel.
general comments.
The employer may elect to utilize the Level III services of an
outside agency to provide the training, develop, administer and
grade the examinations for certification. Regardless of the Foreword
method used for training and examination of their personnel, The Foreword (p. iii) of SNT-TC-1A (2011) states in part:
the responsibility for ensuring that the program utilized
complies with their written practice lies with the employer. This Recommended Practice establishes the general
Sample questions for general examinations are available framework for a qualification and certification program. In
from ASNT Headquarters. Each question cites the reference used addition, the document provides recommended educational,
to identify the correct answer. It is intended that the Level III experience and training requirements for the different test
consider these questions as examples only and should not use methods. Supplementary documents include question and
them verbatim for qualification examinations. In addition to the answer lists, which may be used in composing examinations for
general examination, a specific written examination is required. nondestructive testing personnel.
It is intended that the specific examination reflect the This Recommended Practice is not intended to be used as a
equipment that is used by the employee being examined, that it strict specification. It is recognized, however, that contracts
reflect the requirements of the procedures normally used by the require programs which meet the intent of this document. For
employer, and that it satisfy the specific requirements of any such contracts, purchaser and supplier must agree upon
customer of the employer. acceptability of an employer's program.
A Practical Examination is also necessary. The Practical The verb "should" has been used throughout this document
Examination is primarily a hands-on test and an examination to to emphasize the recommendation presented herein. It is the
determine that the examinee understands and knows how to employer's responsibility to address specific needs and to
use the written procedures and the equipment. Test objects modify these guidelines as appropriate in a written practice. In
should be representative of those that the inspector will most the employer's written practice, the verb "shall" is to be used in
likely encounter. Critical points of reference should be place of "should" to emphasize the employer's needs.
predetermined for which the examinee will be graded in the
Practical Examination. This may include such things as close Sections 1, 2 and 3: Scope, Definitions
adherence to the procedure, action taken when the procedure
and Nondestructive Testing Methods
cannot be followed, handling of the parts being tested,
interpretation of test results, disposition and the manner in Sections 1, 2 and 3 (Scope, Definitions and Nondestruc¬
which a report is written. tive Testing Methods) on pp. 1-2 of SNT-TC-1A (2011) are
reprinted below in full:
Note the emphasis in the foregoing text on the intent that
SNT-TC-1A should be used as a guideline, not a fixed 1.0 Scope
requirement. This is reaffirmed in 1.2 of the Scope section 1.1 It is recognized that the effectiveness of
(p. 1) of SNT-TC-1A (2011) as follows: “This document pro¬ nondestructive testing (NDT) applications depends
vides guidelines for the establishment of a qualification and upon the capabilities of the personnel who are
certification system." Likewise, in the Foreword, it states, responsible for and perform NDT. This Recommended
“This recommended practice is not intended to be used as a Practice has been prepared to establish guidelines for
strict specification." the qualification and certification of NDT personnel
From a factual point of view, very few employers will whose specific jobs require appropriate knowledge of
conform exactly to all the specific recommendations of the technical principles underlying the nondestructive
SNT-TC-1A. Deviation from the recommendations of tests they perform, witness, monitor, or evaluate.
SNT-TC-1A should be documented in the employer's 1.2 This document provides guidelines for the establishment
written practice. of a qualification and certification program.
13 These guidelines have been developed by the
American Society for Nondestructive Testing, Inc., to
aid employers in recognizing the essential factors to
be considered in qualifying personnel engaged in any
of the NDT methods listed in Section 3.

6
 CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC- ? A

1.4 It is recognized that these guidelines may not be 2.1.1 1 Nondestructive Testing: a process that
appropriate for certain employers' circumstances involves the inspection, testing, or evaluation
and/or applications. In developing a written practice of materials, components and assemblies for
as required in Section 5, the employer should review materials' discontinuities, properties and
the detailed recommendations presented herein and machine problems without further impairing
modify them, as necessary, to meet particular needs. or destroying the part's serviceability.
Such modification may alter but shall not eliminate Throughout this document the term NDT
basic provisions of the program such as training, applies equally to the NDT methods used for
experience, testing and recertification. Supporting material inspection, flaw detection or
technical rationale for modification of detailed predictive maintenance (PdM) applications.
recommendations should be provided in an Annex to 2.1.12 Outside Agency: a company or individual
the written practice. who provides NDT Level III services and whose
qualifications to provide these services have
2.0 Definitions been reviewed and approved by the employer
2.1 Terms included in this document are defined as engaging the company or individual.
follows: 2.1.13 Qualification: demonstrated skill,
2.1.1 Certification: written testimony of demonstrated knowledge, documented
qualification. training and documented experience required
2.1.2 Certifying Authority: the person or persons for personnel to properly perform the duties
properly designated in the written practice to of a specific job.
sign certifications on behalf of the employer. 2.1.14 Recommended Practice: a set of guidelines
2.1.3 Certifying Agency: the employer of the to assist the employer in developing uniform
personnel being certified. procedures for the qualification and
2.1.4 Closed Book Examination: an examination certification of NDT personnel to satisfy the
administered without access to reference employer's specific requirements.
material except for materials supplied with or 2.1.15 Technique: a category within an NDT method;
in the examination. (See 8.7.) for example, ultrasonic thickness testing.
2.1.5 Comparable: being at an equivalent or similar 2.1.16 Training: an organized program developed to
level of NDT responsibility and difficulty as impart the knowledge and skills necessary for
determined by the employer's NDT Level III. qualification.
2.1.6 Documented: the condition of being in 2.1.1 7 Written Practice: a written procedure
written form. developed by the employer that details the
2.1.7 Employer: the corporate, private, or public requirements for qualification and certification
entity, which employs personnel for wages, of thqir employees.
salary, fees, or other considerations.
2.1.8 Experience: work activities accomplished in a 3.0 Nondestructive Testing Methods
specific NDT method under the direction of 3.1 Qualification and certification of NDT personnel in
qualified supervision including the accordance with this Recommended Practice is
performance of the NDT method and related applicable to each of the following methods:
activities but not including time spent in
organized training programs. Acoustic Emission Testing
2.1.9 Grading Unit: A Qualification Specimen can Electromagnetic Testing
be divided into sections called grading units, Ground Penetrating Radar
which do not have to be equal length or be Guided Wave Testing
equally spaced. Grading units are unflawed or Laser Testing Methods
flawed and the percentage of flawed/unflawed Leak Testing
grading units required should be approved by Liquid Penetrant Testing
the NDT Level III. Magnetic Flux Leakage
2.1.10 Limited Certification: nondestructive test Magnetic Particle Testing
methods may be further subdivided into Neutron Radiographic Testing
limited disciplines or techniques to meet Radiological Testing
specific employer's needs; these are NDT Thermal/lnfrared Testing
Level II certifications, but to a limited scope. Ultrasonic Testing
Vibration Analysis
Visual Testing

7
 Basic I SECTION I

General Comments on Section 1 Inquiry 80-8

Paragraph 1.4 was modified in the 2011 edition to pro¬ Paragraph 1.4 very clearly states the intent that the
vide users with additional guidance to ensure that when detailed recommendations of SNT-TC-IA should be
users develop a written practice, the fundamental require¬ reviewed and modified by the user to satisfy unique needs.
ments of SNT-TC-1A are maintained and that any modifica¬ This allowance was originally incorporated in recognition of
tions are documented with a rationale for the deviations. the fact that each manufacturer or each service organization
has a different clientele. Customer or clientele requirements
Inquiries for Section 1 ultimately determine what is acceptable between buyer and
NOTE: The responses of the SNT-TC-1A Interpretation seller, even to the details of qualifying NDT personnel.
Panel are clarifications of intent and are subject to the state¬
ment of the Scope in each edition of SNT-TC-1A, paragraph Inquiry:
1.4Jit is recognized that these guidelines may not be appro¬ L May an employer deviate from the guidelines to meet his
priate for certain employers' circumstances and/or applica¬ specific needs?
tions. In developing a written practice as required in Section 2. Is our company's specific written practice acceptable?
5, the employer should review the detailed recommendations
presented herein and modify them, as necessary to meet par¬ Response:
ticular needs." The inquiries must be stated in general terms 1.yes, in accordance with Paragraph 1.4 of SNT-TC-1A, the
onl% because the Interpretation Panel cannot serve as a refer¬ employer should modify the guidelines to meet his needs.
ee between a buyer and seller or otherwise become involved 2. It is against ASNT policy to judge the applicability of
in any specific case. Inquiries are numbered to include the company documents. As a general comment, it is the
year of the inquiry and refer to the edition of SNT-TC-1A in employer's prerogative to establish his criteria for
effect in that year, unless otherwise stated in the question. certification. It is then the customer's prerogative to
New editions of SNT-TC-1A were published in these years: accept or reject those criteria.
1968, 1975, 1980, 1984, 1988,1992,1996,2001,2007 (2006
edition) and 2011. All inquiries reprinted below are taken Inquiry 04-1
from the ninth edition of Interpreting SNT-TC-1A, published
byASNT in 2012. Inquiry:
1. Is it the intent of Paragraph 1.4 that an employer can
Inquiry 76-4 modify the “Guidelines" of SNT-TC-1A to the extent that
In Paragraph 1.1, note the statement regarding "personnel Level II and Level III NDT personnel can be "certified"
whose specific jobs require appropriate knowledge of ... the without any examinations if written this way in the
nondestructive tests they perform, witness, monitor, or eval- written practice?
uate.M The SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel acted on the fol¬ 2. What are the limits that are intended regarding how much
lowing inquiry about this section. the employer can deviate from SNT-TC-1A as written? If
no limits are given, the employer can change the entire
Inquiry: context of SNT-TC-1A to eliminate all certification
Paragraph 1.1 of SNT-TC-I4 refers to individuals who exams. Is that the intent?
^perform, witness, monitor or evaluate" nondestructive tests.
Is it intended that individuals whose principal functions are Response:
to witness, monitor or evaluate nondestructive tests be quali¬ 1. No. The provisions of Paragraph 1.4 allow modification of
fied in the same manner as those whose principal function is the detailed recommendations; it is not intended to allow
to perform nondestructive tests? elimination of the basic provisions of the document.
2・ No. Paragraph 9.2 requires certification in accordance
Response: with "Section 8, Examinations" as described in the
It is intended that the employer designate through the employer's written practice.
written practice as recommended in Paragraph 5 specific
jobs that require knowledge of the technical principles of General Comments:
nondestructive testing. The employer should test the state¬ SNT-TC-1A allows fbr modification of detailed recom¬
ment of Paragraph 1.1,"... personnel whose specific jobs mendations as necessary to meet particular needs. The intent
require appropriate knowledge of the technical principles is that there be a technical rationale to support such modifi¬
underlying the nondestructive tests they perform, witness, cation. Elimination of requirements, such as training, experi¬
monitor or evaluate；'against the specific job elements of the ence and examination, goes beyond modification of detailed
personnel in question in order to establish whether or not the requirements.
specific job requires knowledge of nondestructive testing.

8
 CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A

Inquiry 78-7 Response:

ASNT has received frequent inquiries from a variety of ... It is the intent that SNF TC-IA is a recommended
sources regarding mandatory imposition of the recommen¬ practice and that it is a guideline which should be modified
dations of SNT-TC-1A into firm and inflexible requirements. by the employer as necessary to meet his particular needs.
By design, this document lists recommendations which are The employer should determine his needs, determine the
intended to be used selectively in support of the individual necessary qualifications of his examiners to meet those needs
needs of each employer. However, due in part to such and describe those in his written practice.
requests for some type of mandatory requirements docu¬
ment, ANSI/ASNT CP-189 was developed as a standard that General Comments on Sections 2 and 3
establishes the minimum requirements for the qualification In Section 2, Definitions, each of these terms should be
and certification of NDT personnel. ASNT always intended carefully studied. For example, some NDT practitioners may
that the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A be applied with not clearly understand the difference between qualification
flexibility and reason, recognizing that business enterprises and certification. Considering each term as representing a
often may need to satisfy differing customer requirements. process, the process of qualifying personnel involves assess¬
ment of the adequacy of the skills, training and experience of
Inquiry: personnel being considered for certain tasks. The process of
1. Should personnel who operate (ultrasonic) digital thickness qualifying may require that education and training be
measurement equipment be qualified and certified? imparted on such personnel. Assessment of qualifications
2. To what Level should such personnel be certified? often requires that the personnel be examined. Following the
3. Does ASNT anticipate a change in SNT-TC-1A that would process of qualification, individuals meeting or exceeding the
provide specific recommendations for qualifying and minimum qualification requirements of the employer can be
certifying such personnel? certified. That is, the employer provides evidence that a qual¬
ifying process was followed. Such evidence backs up the
Response: employer's assertion that certain individuals are qualified to
1. Whether any NDT personnel should be certified depends perform certain critical functions and is the employer's "cer・
solely upon the needs of the employer and the tificationw that the evidence of qualification exists.
requirements of the employer's customers or clientele. Limited certifications fbr Ultrasonic Thickness,
2. Likewise, the level to which personnel should be certified Radiographic Film Interpreter and Digital Radioscopy have
depends upon the same factors as in [1.] above. Note that been added to this edition. These certifications are intended
paragraph 4.1 of SNT-TC-1A provides for subdivision to be limited in the scope of qualification, but not the respon¬
within the levels as needed. sibilities of the Level II individual as defined in Section 4.
3. Paragraph 1.4 and paragraph 4.1 of SNT-TC-1A are There is no Level I limited certification.
intended to provide the employer with adequate flexibility Fundamental in free enterprise is the tenet that producers
to accommodate a variety of special needs as documented of goods and suppliers of services are ultimately responsible
in the written practice. While the recommended training for the quality and effectiveness of such goods and services
course outline of SNT-TC-1A does not specifically address as well as bearing responsibility for shortcomings and fail¬
digital thickness measurement, the principles of pulse-echo ures. Therefore, regardless of the details of the processes by
techniques are those involved. The training course outline which individuals became qualified, the direct employer of
does provide fbr instruction in the employer's specific the personnel being certified must bear the end responsibili¬
equipment uses and, as with the remainder of SNT-TC-1A, ty for conferring a certification and, thereby can be the only
the training course outline should be modified, if necessary; “certifying agency" Such absolute responsibility does not
to meet employers' specific needs. preclude the use of outside services by employers to assist in
imparting and/or assessing qualifications of individuals
Inquiry 80-4 being certified. The use of outside services does not relieve
Two other inquiries pertain to this concept. Both the employer from responsibility, nor can the employer abro¬
inquiries have the same response. gate or delegate this responsibility to an outside agency.
SNT-TC-1A has been referenced by certain codes and
Inquiry: specifications to be used, in effect, as a model fbr employers
NDT examiners in our employ who perform examina¬ to develop a written practice concerning some method of
tions using liquid penetrant use only the visible dye, solvent NDT not currently covered in SNT-TC-1A.
removable, penetrant technique. Since our examiners do
not have need to be qualified in the other liquid penetrant Review Questions for Sections 1, 2 and 3
techniques, is it permissible to modify the number of general Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions
and specific questions as well as the hours of training and on pp. 29-30 relating to SNT-TC-1A and the administration
work experience to satisfy requirements of SNT-TC-1A fbr of a qualification and certification program in NDT.
Level I and Level II examiners?
9
 Basic I SECTION I

Section 4: Levels of Qualification Level III Basic examination or other means. The
Section 4 (p. 2) of SNT-TC-1A (2011) is reprinted below NDT Level 川, in the methods in which certified,
in full: should be capable of training and examining
NDT Level I and II personnel for certification in
4.0 Levels of Qualification those methods.
4.1 There are three basic levels of qualification. The
employer may subdivide these levels for situations Inquiries for Section 4
where additional levels are deemed necessary for
specific skills and responsibilities. Inquiry 76-3
4.2 While in the process of being initially trained,
qualified and certified, an individual should be Inquiry:
considered a trainee. A trainee should work with a Is it the intent of SNT-TC-1A that the Level I NDT per¬
certified individual. The trainee should not sons described in Paragraph 4.3(a) of the 1975 edition of this
independently conduct, interpret, evaluate, or report document be the same as the Level I individual described in
the results of any NDT test. the SNT-TC-1A (1968 edition) Paragraph 4.1(a) with both
4.3 The three basic levels of qualification are as follows: having the same capabilities?
4.3.1 NDT Level I. An NDT Level I individual should
be qualified to properly perform specific Response:
calibrations, specific NDT, and specific Rs. The changes in wording between the 1975 and the
evaluations for acceptance or rejection 1968 versions of SNT-TC-1A, insofar as the duties and capa¬
determinations according to written instructions bilities of Level I personnel are concerned, were intended
and to record results. The NDT Level I should only to clarify the intent of the document. None of these
receive the necessary instruction or supervision changes in wording were intended as substantive changes.
from a certified NDT Level II or III individual.
4.3.2 NDT Level II. An NDT Level II individual should NOTE: As versions of SNT-TC-1A change, the older is
be qualified to set up and calibrate equipment replaced by the newer version with corrections to be
and to interpret and evaluate results with respect addressed at recertification time. See Inquiries 78-2, 80-14
to applicable codes, standards, and specifications. and 85-2.
The NDT Level II should be thoroughly familiar
with the scope and limitations of the methods for Inquiry 76-5
which qualified and should exercise assigned
responsibility for on-the-job training and Inquiry:
guidance of trainees and NDT Level I personnel. In accordance with SNT-TC-1A (1975 edition), may a
The NDT Level II should be able to organize and Level I NDT person who has been trained, qualified and cer¬
report the results of NDT tests. tified in accordance with SNT-TC-1A (1975 edition) be the
4.3.3 NDT Level III. An NDT Level III individual sole person to perform, evaluate and sign for final acceptance
should be capable of developing, qualifying, of NDT examinations in accordance with written procedures
and approving procedures, establishing and and acceptance standards with occasional surveillance and
approving techniques, interpreting codes, guidance from a Level II or III?
standards, specifications, and procedures; and
designating the particular NDT methods, Response:
techniques, and procedures to be used. The Yes. The intent in SNT-TC-1A is that the Level I person
NDT Level III should be responsible for the NDT may perform the above functions provided they are in accor¬
operations for which qualified and assigned dance with written procedures and so documented in the
and should be capable of interpreting and employer's written practice.
evaluating results in terms of existing codes,
standards, and specifications. The NDT Level III Inquiry 78-9
should have sufficient practical background in
applicable materials, fabrication, and product Inquiry:
technology to establish techniques and to assist Is it intended that personnel currently certified as NDT
in establishing acceptance criteria when none Level III within the guidelines of SNT-TC-IA who also regu¬
are otherwise available. The NDT Level III should larly perform Level II functions be qualified as recommend¬
have general familiarity with other appropriate ed in Paragraphs 8.2, 8.5.2, 8.6 and 9.7?
NDT methods, as demonstrated by an ASNT

10
 CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A

Response: Inquiry 09-2

It is the opinion of the Interpretation Panel that person¬
nel currently certified as Level III may regularly perform Inquiry:
Level II functions without specifically being qualified as Should NDT Level I technicians be allowed to make the
Level II as recommended in Paragraph 8.2, 8.5.2 and 8.6 of final determination as to whether a production part is accepted
SNT-TC-1A. However, as recommended in Paragraph 9.7, all or rejected and then sign off on the production order paper¬
levels should be periodically recertified. work if they follow a step-by-step procedure developed by a
Level III?
Inquiry 03-2
Response:
Inquiry: Level I personnel may accept or reject parts according to
May an NDT Level III develop, qualify and approve NDT written instructions and record results. Reporting the final
procedures, and establish and approve techniques in the results requires a Level II or III.
methods in which not certified?
General Comments on Section 4
Response: Implicit in the definitions of Level I, Level II and Level III
No, see the response to Inquiry 90-1, Part 2 and as outlined in paragraphs 4.3.1, 4.3.2, and 4.3.3 is the concept
Inquiry 10-5. that the qualifications for Level III equal and exceed those of
Level IL The employer must be satisfied with the proficiency
Inquiry 09-1 of any individual at any level to handle work tasks.
SNT-TC-1A is not intended for use to determine an individ¬
Inquiry: ual^ proficiency; It is intended as a guideline to establish
1. With regard to NDT Level Ills signing off on certification qualifications.
after successful completion of trainees' examinations, is it
the intention that the NDT Level III must be certified in Review Questions for Section 4
the method for which he or she is signing off as per Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions
SNT-TC-1A Paragraph 433? on pp. 30-31.
2・ Is it commonly accepted in the industry that an NDT
Level III can sign off on certifications for methods other
than those in which he or she is certified? Section 5: Written Practice
Section 5 (pp. 2-3) of SNT-TC-1A (2011) is reprinted
Response: below in full:
1. This question refers to two separate issues.
a. Can an NDT Level III sign off on certifications in 5.0 Written Practice
methods for which he is not qualified? Ies. Signing 5.1 The employer shall establish a written practice for the
off on certification is covered by Section 9.0, control and administration of NDT personnel training,
Certification Record, and Paragraph 9.4.9 states that examination, and certification.
a person's certification record must have the signa¬ 5.2 The employer's written practice should describe the
ture of the Level III who verified the qualifications of responsibility of each level of certification for
a candidate fbr certification. It does not require that determining the acceptability of materials or
this Level III be certified in the applicable test meth¬ components in accordance with the applicable codes,
ods. See Inquiry 90-1 Part 1. standards, specifications, and procedures.
b. Can an NDT Level III develop and approve the train¬ 5.3 The employer's written practice should describe the
ing and examination program for NDT methods he training, experience, and examination requirements
is not qualified in? No. Paragraph 4.3.3 states that the for each level of certification by method and
NDT Level III should be capable of training and technique, as applicable.
examining NDT Level I and II personnel fbr certifi¬ 5.4 The employer's written practice should identify the
cation in those methods fbr which the Level III holds test techniques within each test method applicable to
certification. See Inquiry 90-1 Part 2. its scope of operations.
2. Determining industry practice is not within the scope of 5.5 The employer's written practice shall be maintained
SNT-TC-1A. on file.

11
Basic I SECTION I

General Comments on Section 5 6.3.2 NDT Level III

Implicit in the use of SNATC-IA is the requirement that 6.3.2.1 Have graduated from a minimum
the employer shall develop a written practice. SNT-TC-1A four-year college or university
provides the guidelines; the written practice sets forth the curriculum with a degree in
details. When departures from SNT-TC-1A guidelines are engineering or science, plus one
made, the written practice should record the departure. It is additional year of experience
good practice to record all departures, even when they repre¬ beyond the NDT Level II
sent situations in excess and/or with greater strength than the requirements in NDT in an
recommendations of SNFTC-1A. assignment at least comparable to
that of an NDT Level II in the
Review Questions for Section 5 applicable NDT method(s), or:
Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions 6.322 Have completed with passing grades
on p. 32. at least two years of engineering or
science study at a university, college,
Section 6: Education, Training, and or technical school, plus two
Experience Requirements for Initial additional years of experience
Qualification beyond the NDT Level II
requirements in NDT in an
Section 6 (p. 3) of SNT-TC-1A (2011) is reprinted below assignment at least comparable to
in full: that of NDT Level II in the 叩plicable
NDT method(s), or:
6.0 Education, Training, and Experience Requirements for 6.323 Have four years of experience
Initial Qualification beyond the NDT Level II
6.1 Candidates for certification in NDT should have requirements in NDT in an
sufficient education, training, and experience to assignment at least comparable to
ensure qualification in those NDT methods in which that of an NDT Level II in the
they are being considered for certification. applicable NDT method(s).
Documentation of prior certification may be used The above NDT Level III requirements may be
by an employer as evidence of qualification for partially replaced by experience as a certified
comparable levels of certification. NDT Level II or by assignments at least
6.2 Documented training and/or experience gained in comparable to NDT Level II as defined in the
positions and activities comparable to those of employer's written practice.
Levels I, II, and/or III prior to establishment of the
employer's written practice may be considered in Inquiries for Section 6
satisfying the criteria of Section 6.3.
6.3 To be considered for certification, a candidate should Inquiry 77-4
satisfy one of the following criteria for the applicable
NDT level: Inquiry:
6.3.1 NDT Levels I and II May the experience requirements expressed as “certified
Table 6.3.1 A lists the recommended training NDT Level II" in Paragraph 6.3.1(b), (c) and (d) of the 1975
and experience hours to be considered by the edition of SNT-TC-1A be considered to include experience
employer in establishing written practices for gained in “an assignment comparable to that of an NDT
initial qualification of NDT Level I and Level II Level IIn [as stated in paragraph 6.3.2(a)] in determining the
individuals. prerequisite requirements of a candidate for certification as a
Table 6.3.1 B lists initial training and Level III? If so, may this acceptance of experience in “an
experience hours which may be considered by assignment comparable to” be extended to include similar
the employer for specific limited applications subparagraphs under Paragraph 6.2.5 of the earlier editions
as defined in the employer's written practice. of SNT-TC-1 A?
Limited certifications should apply to
individuals who do not meet the full training Response:
and experience ofTable 6.3.1 A. Limited Paragraph 6.2 of the 1975 edition of SNT-TC-1A states,
certifications issued in any method should be “Documented training and/or experience gained in positions
approved by the NDT Level III and and activities equivalent to those of Level II or Level III
documented in the certification records. prior to establishment of the employer's written practice and
12
 CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A

Table 6.3.1 A: Recommended Initial Training and Experience Levels

Experience
Examination Method NDT Level Technique Training
Hours Minimum Hours in
Method Total Hours in NDT
I 40 210 400
Acoustic Emission
II 40 630 1200
I 40 210 400
AC Field Measurement
II 40 630 1200
1 40 210 400
日ectromcignetic Eddy Current
II 40 630 1200
1 40 210 400
Remote Field
II 40 630 1200
Ground Penetrating 1 8 60 120
Radar II 20 420 800
1 40 240 460
Guided Wave
II 40 240 460
1 8 70 130
Profilometry
II 24 140 260
Laser Methods
I Holography/ 40 210 400
II Shearography 40 630 1200
1 2 3 4
Bubble Testing
II 4 35 65
1 24 105 200
Pressure Change
II 16 280 520
Leak Testing
1 12 105 200
Halogen Diode
II 8 280 520
1 40 280 520
Mass Spectrometer
II 24 420 800
1 4 70 130
Liquid Penetrant
II 8 140 270
Magnetic Flux 1 16 70 130
Leakage II 12 210 400
I 12 70 130
Magnetic Particle
II 8 电 210 400
1 28 420 800
Neutron Radiography
II 40 1680 2400
1 40 210 400
Radiographic
II 40 630 1200
1 40 210 400
Computed Radiography
II 40 630 1200
Radiological
1 40 210 400
Computed Tomography
II 40 630 1200
1 40 210 400
Digital Radiography
II 40 630 1200
1 32 210 400
Thermal/lnfrared II 34 1260 1800
1 40 210 400
II 40 630 1200
Ultrasonics
1 Time of Flight Diffraction 40 160 N/A
II Phased Array 80 160 N/A
1 24 420 800
Vibration Analysis
II 72 1680 2400
I 8 70 130
Visual
II 16 140 270

13
Basic I SECTION I

Notes:

1.0 For NDT Level II certification, the experience should consist of time at NDT Level I or equivalent. If a person is being qualified
directly to NDT Level II with no time at NDT Level I, the experience (both Method and Total NDT) should consist of the sum of
the hours for NDT Level I and Level II and the training should consist of the sum of the hours for NDT Level I and Level II.

2.0 For NDT Level III certification, the experience should consist of the sum of the hours for NDT Level I and Level II, plus the
additional time in 6.3.2 as applicable. The formal training should consist of the NDT Level I and Level II training, plus any
additional formal training as defined in the employer's written practice.

3.0 Listed training hours may be adjusted as described in the employer's written practice depending on the candidate's actual
education level, e.g. grammar school, college graduate in engineering, etc.

4.0 Training should be outlined in the employer's written practice. Magnetic Particle training hours may be counted toward
Magnetic Flux Leakage training hours as defined in employer's written practice.

5.0 If an individual is currently certified in an ET technique and a full course format was used to meet the initial qualifications in
that technique, the minimum training hours to qualify in another ET technique at the same NDT Level may be reduced up to
40 percent if so defined in the employer's written practice. If an individual is certified in an ET technique, the minimum
experience to qualify for another ET technique at the same level or to the next level may be reduced by up to 50 percent if so
defined in the employer's written practice.

6.0 While fulfilling total NDT experience requirement, experience may be gained in more than one (1) method; however, the
minimum hours must be met for each method.

7.0 If an individual is currently certified in a Radiological technique and a full course format was used to meet the initial
qualifications in that technique, the minimum additional training hours to qualify in another technique at the same level
should be 24 hours (of which at least 16 hours should be equipment familiarization). The training outline should be as defined
in the employer's written practice. If an individual is certified in a technique, the minimum additional experience required to
qualify for another technique at the same level should be 24 hours, as defined in the employer's written practice.

8.0 Time of Flight Diffraction and Phased Array require completion of Level I and II Ultrasonic Testing training and experience as
prerequisites.

Table 6.3.1 B: initial Training and Experience Levels for NDT Level II Limited Certifications

Technician's Starting Formal Minimum Work Experience

Examination Method Limited Certification Point in Method (Hours)
Training

Film Interpretation Non-Radiographer 40 2201

Radiographic
Film Interpretation RT Level 1 24 2201

Digital Thickness
Measurement (numeric out¬ Trainee 8 40
put only)
Ultrasonics
A-scan Thickness
Trainee 24 175
Measurement

1 — Requires practical review of 1000 radiographs.

14
 CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A

a certification program in accordance with this document 2. Because of the 25 percent used in the note to Table 6.2.1A,
shall be considered as satisfying the criteria of Paragraph it has been implied that an individual at maximum could
6.2.1 and 6.3."If documentation was not produced during be qualified in only four methods and this would be true
such prior experience, an affidavit or other suitable testimony only if he could show that exactly 25 percent of his work
regarding such experience may be evaluated by the employer time was spent in each of four methods. this the
to aid in determining equivalence. This response applies to intent of SNT-TC-1A?
the 1975 edition and all prior editions of SNT-TC-1A.
Response:
Inquiry 76-1 1. No. Table 6.2.1A applies only to initial experience
required for qualification; it is not applicable to
Inquiry: requalification.
Table 6.2.1A contains the statement "Credit fbr experi¬ 2. No. The candidate may be qualified in as many methods
ence may be gained simultaneously in two or more disci¬ as desired. The 25 percent work time experience only
plines. The candidate must spend at least 25 percent of his applies to the work time experience required for initial
work time on each discipline for which experience is being qualification in each level for each method. The 25
claimed." Our question is this: Over what time period does percent is not applicable and is not required for the
the term "simultaneously" apply? individual to remain qualified in a particular method at a
specific qualification level.
Response:
The employers written practice should specify the time Inquiry 80-3
period over which simultaneous experience shall be credited.
Inquiry:
NOTE: Table 6.2.1 A from the 1975 edition of SNT-TC-1A A candidate spends 50 percent of his time performing
corresponds with Table 6.3.1 A in the 2011 edition. radiography, 25 percent performing magnetic particle exami¬
nations, and the remaining 25 percent performing liquid
Inquiry 78-3 penetrant examinations. At the end of a one-month period,
assuming a 144-hour month, is Method A or Method B a cor¬
Inquiry: rect computation of working time experience for. certification
With reference to the note in Table 6.2.1A,<<Credit for to a Level I rating?
experience may be gained simultaneously in two or more dis¬ Method A: The candidate claims work time experience of
ciplines. The candidate must spend at least 25 percent of his 144 hours fbr each of the three methods.
work time on each discipline for which certification is being Method B: The candidate claims work time experience of
claimed；'is it intended that an individual being qualified in 72, 36 and 36 hours fbr radiograph% magnetic particle and
only one method could obtain the work time experience in liquid penetrant, respectfVely
25 percent of the times tabulated in Table 6.2.1A?
Response:
Response: ... the method described in Method A is that intended by
No, an individual being qualified in only one method the document [SNT-TC-1A]. In other words, the examiner
should spend at least 25 percent of his work time in that may claim full-time fbr all the NDT methods in which he
method and should obtain the total work time experience as works simultaneously. It is not intended that he claim time
recommended in consecutive months as though the remain¬ fbr work hours spent in work other than nondestructive
der of his work time was spent in qualifying for other NDT testing.
methods simultaneously;
Inquiry 80-6
Inquiry 76-2
Inquiry:
Inquiry: Table 6.2.1A for SNT-TC-1A provides: "credit fbr experi¬
1. For requalification of Level I and II NDT personnel, does ence may be gained simultaneously in two or more disci¬
Paragraph 6.2.1 imply that you must keep continuous plines. The candidate must spend at least 25 percent of this
records by the hour showing that the individual has work time on each discipline fbr which experience is being
continuously spent at least 25 percent of his work time claimed." Does this statement mean (as it regards Level I PT)
working in each method to which qualified? that if the candidate is already a qualified Level I or Level II
radiographer, the one month work experience can be
reduced to 44 hours?

15
Basic I SECTION I

Response: Inquiry 83-8

It is the intent of this statement that a candidate may take
credit for work performed in two methods simultaneously Inquiry:
because of the knowledge interchange factor believed to be We desire to have a member of management for our NDT
present in such activities. It is not intended that an examiner Level III who, by virtue of his or her job duties, will not have
certified in one method could at some later time reduce the worked as a Level II. Clarification is needed relative to
requirements for certification in another method except as SNT-TC-LA (1980 edition), Paragraph 6.3.2.1,6.3.2.2 or
defined in the employer's written practice. 6.3.2.3. The employee may also not have any previous experi¬
ence in the particular discipline. The questions are:
NOTE: Only the second part of this inquiry and response
has been presented here. 1. How can a person become a Level III if they have not had
a Level II assignment?
Inquiry 79-1 2. What types of other experiences could be counted for the
Level II requirements?
Inquiry:
In maintaining records, if an individual is working simul¬ Response:
taneously in more than one method, should the records 1. An individual may be given credit for work assignments
reflect the total time spent for each method or should the comparable to that of an NDT Level II in the applicable
time be divided proportionately for each of the methods? For test method.
example, if an individual spent 50 percent of his time on 2. The types of work assignments comparable to the Level II
ultrasonic testing and 50 percent of his time on radiographic assignments should be defined by the employer in his
testing for a period of nine months, would the record show written practice.
experience in UT of four and one-half months or nine
months? Inquiry 94-1

Response: Inquiry:
It is intended that the employer's written practice should Please clarify ASNT's intent regarding the phrase, c<assign-
include details of maintaining records. It is intended that ment comparable to that of an NDT Level H" as it related to
records should reflect the facts of each individual's work time SNT-TC-1A, 1984 edition, Paragraph 6.3.2.1. 1 interpret this
with regard to the amount of time spent on each method and statement to mean: even though an individual has a fbur-year
the periods of time during which the work was performed. degree in science or engineering, he/she should also have the
“documented" NDT training and experience commensurate
Inquiries 79-14 and 79-15 with that of a Level II. This documented training should fol¬
low the guidelines established in Table 6.3.1 of SNT-TC-IA
Inquiry: (1984 edition). It also requires (in my opinion) this individ¬
Is it intended per SNT-TC-1A (19乃 edition) that the ual practice as a Level II for at least one year before being eli¬
time spent in a laboratory exercise during a long term NDT gible for Level III certification.
course be considered the only qualifying work time
experience? Response:
May the laboratory time be given any credit at all as Please reference Inquiry 83-8.
"work time experience" to satisfy all the requirements in
Table 6.2.1A? General Comments on Section 6
Paragraph 6.3.1, like the rest of SNFTC-IA, is only a
Response: guide. The employer's written practice should detail all such
It is not intended that laboratory experience in an educa¬ requirements, which may differ from the recommendations
tional program be directly applied to the work time experi¬ of Paragraph 6.3.1.
ence. Laboratory experience is not necessarily applicable to For the 2006 edition of SNT-TC-1A, because of signifi¬
the employer's product or to the specific codes, standards or cant differences in the electromagnetic techniques for
specifications in use. However, in recognition of the benefits Levels I and II, they were separated in Tables 6.3.1 A and B to
accruing from laboratory experience, the employer may allow individuals to be qualified and certified in the tech¬
include such consideration for adjustment to the work expe¬ niques as needed rather than the entire scope of
rience in his written practice. Should the employer decide to Electromagnetic Testing. The table note 5.0 provides for
do so, he should thoroughly evaluate the curriculum to reductions in training hours and experience based on addi¬
determine its applicability; tional ET certifications. Similarly, in Table 6.3.1 A of the 2011

16
 CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A

edition of SNFTC-1A, this same approach was used to 7.2 The training program should include sufficient
divide Radiological Testing into four techniques. The table examinations to ensure understanding of the
note 7.0 provides fbr reductions in training hours and expe¬ necessary information.
rience based on additional RT certifications. 7.3 Recommended training course outlines and
Magnetic Flux Leakage is shown as a separate method. references for NDT Levels I, II, and III personnel, which
Inquiry 77-4 points to consideration given in SNT-TC-1A may be used as technical source material, are
to the initial establishment of a formal qualification and cer¬ contained in ANSI/ASNT CP- 1 05: Topical Outlines
tification program. Paragraph 6.2 recognizes that prior to for Qualification of Nondestructive Testing
establishing a program and a written practice, the employer Personnel.
may have provided training as well as other essentials of 7.4 The employer who purchases outside training
qualifying NDT personnel without formal procedures. services is responsible for ensuring that such services
Hence, documentation of such activities could provide evi¬ meet the requirements of the employer's written
dence of the equivalence of prior activities with those recom¬ practice.
mended in SNT-TC-1A. Paragraphs 6.3.2.1, 6.3.2.2 and
6.3.2.3 use the phrase “in an assignment at least comparable Inquiries for Section 7
to that of an NDT Level IL" In other words, the experience
can be “comparable to that of an NDT Level Hn if documen¬ Inquiry 07-1
tation can be produced that evidences the comparability
Inquiries 76-1 through 79-14 and 79-15, as presented in Inquiry:
order above, all question in one way or another the intent Per the 2001 edition of SNT-TC-IA, Paragraphs 7.1, 7.2,
underlying the note in Table 6.3.1 A,"Initial experience may and 9.4.4, and Tables 6.3.1A and 6.3. IB:
be gained simultaneously in two or more methods if the can¬
didate spends a minimum of 25 percent of his work time on 1. Can computer or Web-based NDT training with associated
each method fbr which certification is sought." electronic quizzes be used to satisfy the training
In the 2011 edition of SNT-TC-lAt Table 6.3.1 B was requirements described in Paragraphs 7.1 and 7.2?
removed, thus eliminating the“25% rule." Table 6.3.1 A 2. If so, how should an employer document that training
requires that experience be accumulated by hours rather than hours meet the recommended hours listed in Tables
months and both minimum and total experience hours must 6.3.1A and 6.3.1B so they can comply with theasatisfectory
be satisfied. See note 6.0. completion" requirements required by Paragraph 9.4.4?

Review Questions for Section 6 Response:

Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions 1. See Inquiry 84-4, response 1. Inquiry 84-4 addresses
on pp. 32-33. home-study (correspondence) courses, but the response
is appropriate for both computer and Wieb-based training.
2. See Inquiry 84-4, response 2.
Section 7: Training Programs
Section 7 (p. 3) of SNT-TC-1A (2011) is reprinted below General Comments on Section 7
in full: In the 2006 edition of SNT-TC-1A, the course outlines
have been moved to another publication, ANSI/ASNT
7.0 Training Programs CP-105: Topical Outlines for Qualification of Nondestructive
7.1 Personnel being considered for initial certification Testing Personnel. Traditionally, both SNT-TC-1A and CP- 189
should complete sufficient organized training. The have published the training course outlines as part of the
organized training may include instructor led training, respective documents. By moving the outlines from
self-study, virtual instructor led training, computer SNT-TC-1A and CP- 189 and publishing them in CP-105, the
based training or web based training. Computer problem of having two sets of outlines out of sync due to dif¬
based training and web based training should track ferent publication dates is eliminated and provides a com¬
hours and content of training with student mon set of outlines fbr both SNT-TC-1A and CP-189.
examinations in accordance with 7.2. The sufficiently In the 2011 edition of SNT-TC-1A, paragraph 7.1 was
organized training shall be such as to ensure the modified to clarify the use of alternative means for training
student is thoroughly familiar with the principles and such as computer and/or Web-based training. Guidance was
practices of the specified NDT method related to the also included to ensure that such training provides the user
level of certification desired and applicable to the with contact hours, correlation to the applicable training out¬
processes to be used and the products to be tested. line and appropriate examinations.
All training programs should be approved by the
responsible NDT Level III.

17
Basic I SECTION I

Review Questions for Section 7 or fail only, on a certified report, then the
Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions employer may accept the pass grade as
on p. 33. 80 percent for that particular examination.
8.1.5 The employer who purchases outside services
is responsible for ensuring that the examination
Section 8: Examinations services meet the requirements of the
Section 8 (pp. 3-6) of SNT-TC-1A (2011) is reprinted employer's written practice.
below in full: 8.1.6 In no case should an examination be
administered by one's self or by a subordinate.
8.0 Examinations 8.2 Vision Examinations
8.1 Administration and Grading 8.2.1 Near-Vision Acuity: The examination should
8.1.1 An NDT Level III should be responsible for the ensure natural or corrected near-distance
administration and grading of examinations acuity in at least one eye such that the
specified in Section 8.3 through 8.8 for NDT applicant is capable of reading a minimum of
Level I, II, or other Level III personnel. The Jaeger Number 2 or equivalent type and size
administration and grading of examinations letter at the distance designated on the chart
may be delegated to a qualified representative but not less than 12 inches (30.5 cm) on a
of the NDT Level III and so recorded. A standard Jaeger test chart. The ability to
qualified representative of the employer may perceive an Ortho-Rater minimum of 8 or
perform the actual administration and grading similar test pattern is also acceptable. This
of NDT Level 川 examinations specified in 8.8. should be administered annually.
8.1.1.1 To be designated as a qualified 8.2.2 Color Contrast Differentiation: The examination
representative of the NDT Level III should demonstrate the capability of
for the administration and grading distinguishing and differentiating contrast
of NDT Level I and Level II personnel among colors or shades of gray used in the
qualification examinations, the method as determined by the employer. This
designee should have documented, should be conducted upon initial certification
appropriate instruction by the and at five-year intervals thereafter.
responsible NDT Level III in the proper 8.2.3 Vision examinations expire on the last day of
administration and grading of the month of expiration.
qualification examinations prior to 8.3 General (Written - for NDT Levels I and II)
conducting and grading independent 8.3.1 The general examinations should address the
qualification examinations for NDT basic principles of the applicable method.
personnel. Additionally, the Practical 8.3.2 In preparing the examinations, the NDT
exam should be administered by a Level III should select or devise appropriate
person certified in the applicable NDT questions covering the applicable method to
method as NDT Level II or III. the degree required by the employer's written
8.1.2 For NDT Level I and II personnel, a composite practice.
grade should determined by simple
be 8.3.3 See the Appendix for example questions.
averaging of the results of the general, specific, 8.3.4 The minimum number of questions that
and practical examinations described below. For should be given is shown in Table 8.3.4.
NDT Level III personnel, the composite grade 8.4 Specific (Written - for NDT Levels I and II)
should be determined by simple averaging of 8.4.1 The specific examination should address the
the results of the basic, method, and specific equipment, operating procedures, and NDT
examinations described below. techniques that the individual may encounter
8.1.3 Examinations administered by the employer during specific assignments to the degree
for qualification should result in a passing required by the employer's written practice.
composite grade of at least 80 percent, with 8.4.2 The specific examination should also cover the
no individual examination having a passing specifications or codes and acceptance criteria
grade less than 70 percent. used in the employer's NDT procedures.
8.1.4 When an examination is administered and 8.4.3 The minimum number of questions that
graded for the employer by an outside agency should be given is shown in Table 8.3.4.
and the outside agency issues grades of pass

18
 CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-JA

Table 8.3.4: Minimum Number of Examination Questions

General Specific
Method
Level 1 Level II Level 1 Level II
Acoustic Emission Testing 40 40 20 20
Electromagnetic Testing
Alternating Current Field Measurement 40 40 20 20
Eddy Current 40 40 20 20
Remote Field 30 30 20 20
Ground Penetrating Radar 30 40 20 20
Guided Wave 40 40 20 20
Laser Methods

Profilometry 30 30 20 20
Holography/Shearography 30 30 20 20
Leak Testing
Bubble Test 20 20 15 15
Absolute Pressure Leak Test (Pressure Change) 20 20 15 15
Halogen Diode Leak Test 20 20 15 15
Mass Spectrometer Leak Test 20 20 20 40
Magnetic Flux Leakage 20 20 20 15
Magnetic Particle Testing 40 40 20 20
Neutron Radiography Testing 40 40 20 20
Penetrant Testing 40 40 20 20
Radiological Testing
Radiography Testing 40 40 20 20

Radiographic Film Interpretation -

Non-Radiographer 40 20
e

Radiographic Film Interpretation -

Radiographer (Certified RT NDT Level I) 20 15

Computed Radiography Testing 40 40 20 20

Computed Tomography Testing 40 40 20 20
Digital Radiography Testing 40 40 20 20
Thermal/lnfrared Testing 40 40 20 20
Ultrasonic Testing 40 40 20 20
Time of Flight Diffraction 30
Phased Array 30

Digital Thickness Measurement

(numeric output only) 20 10

A-scan Thickness Measurement 30 15

Vibration Analysis 40 40 20 60
Visual Testing 40 40 20 20

19
Basic I SECTION I

8.5 Practical (for NDT Level I and II) Question

8.5.1 The candidate should demonstrate familiarity Test Method Booklet
with and ability to operate the necessary NDT
Acoustic Emission Testing G
equipment, record, and analyze the resultant
Electromagnetic Testing E
information to the degree required. 1. Alternating Current Field Measurement EA
8.5.2 At least one flawed specimen or component 2. Eddy Current EE
should be tested and the results of the NDT 3. Remote Field Testing ER
test analyzed by the candidate. Ground Penetrating Radar GP*
8.5.3 The description of the specimen, the NDT Guided Wave Testing GW*
procedure, including check points, and the Laser Testing
results of the examination should be 1. Profilometry LP*
documented. 2. Holography/Shearography LH*
8.5.4 NDT Level I Practical Examination. Proficiency Leak Testing
1. Bubble Test HB
should be demonstrated in performing the
2. Pressure Change Measurement HP
applicable NDT on one or more specimens or
3. Halogen Diode Leak Test HH
machine problems approved by the NDT 4. Mass Spectrometer Test HM
Level III and in evaluating the results to the Liquid Penetrant Test D
degree of responsibility as described in the Magnetic Flux Leakage Testing MF*
employer's written practice. At least ten (10) Magnetic Particle Testing B
different checkpoints requiring an Neutron Radiographic Testing F
understanding of test variables and the Radiological Testing
employer's procedural requirements should be 1. Radiographic Testing A
included in this practical examination. The 2. Computed Radiography Testing AA*
candidate should detect all discontinuities and 3. Computed Tomography Testing AB*
4. Digital Radiography Testing AC*
conditions specified by the NDT Level III.
Thermal/lnfrared Testing J*
Note: While it is normal to score the practical
Ultrasonic Testing C
on a percentile basis, practical examinations K*
Vibration Analysis
should contain check points that failure to Visual Testing 1
successfully complete will result in failure of
the examination. *ln course of preparation.
8.5.5 NDT Level II Practical Examination. Proficiency
should be demonstrated in selecting and
performing the applicable NDT technique
within the method and interpreting and
evaluating the results on one or more 8.7 Additional Written, Specific and Practical Examination
specimens or machine problems approved by Criteria
the NDT Level III. At least ten (10) different 8.7.1 NDT Level I, II and III Written Examinations
checkpoints requiring an understanding of 8.7.1.1 All NDT Level I, II, and 川 written
NDT variables and the employer's procedural examinations should be closed book
requirements should be included in this except that necessary data, such as
practical examination. The candidate should graphs, tables, specifications,
detect all discontinuities and conditions procedures, codes, etc., may be
specified by the NDT Level III. provided with or in the examination.
Note: While it is normal to score the practical Questions utilizing such reference
on a percentile basis, practical examinations materials should require an
should contain check points that failure to understanding of the information
successfully complete will result in failure of rather than merely locating the
the examination. appropriate answer. All questions
8.6 Sample questions for general examinations are used for NDT Level I and NDT Level II
presented in the separate question booklets that can examinations should be approved
be obtained from ASNT headquarters. These by the responsible NDT Level III.
questions are intended as examples only and should 8.7.1.2 A valid endorsement on an ACCP
not be used verbatim for qualification examinations. Level II certificate fulfills the
The following is a list of the booklets: corresponding examination criteria

20
 CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A

described in paragraphs 8.3 and 8.5 8.8.1.1.3 Twenty (20) questions that
for each applicable NDT method. are similar to published
8.7.1.3 A valid ASNT NDT Level II certificate Level II questions for other
may be accepted by the employer's appropriate NDT methods.
written practice as fulfilling the 8.8.1.2 PdM Basic Examination (required
General examination criteria only once when more than one
described in paragraph 8.3 for each method examination is taken). The
applicable method. minimum number of questions that
8.7.2 NDT Level I and II Specific Examinations should be given is as follows:
87.2.1 The employer may delete the 8.8.1.2.1 Fifteen (1 5) questions
specific examination if the candidate relating to understanding
has a valid ACCP or ASNT NDT the SNT-TC- 1 A document
Level II certificate in the 8.8.1.2.2 Twenty (20) questions
method/industrial sector and if relating to applicable
documented experience exists to machinery technology.
permit such. 8.8.1.2.3 Thirty (30) questions that
8.7.3 Practical Examinations are similar to published
8.7.3.1 Successful completion of an ACCP NDT Level II questions for
Level II general hands-on practical other appropriate PdM
examination may be considered as methods.
fulfilling the requirements of 8.8.2Method Examination (for each method).
paragraph 8.5. 8.8.2.1 Thirty (30) questions relating to
8.73.2 For the Film Interpretation Limited fundamentals and principles that are
Certification, the Practical similar to published ASNT NDT
Examination should consist of review Level III questions for each method,
and grading of at least 20 images. and
8.7.33 Phased Array and Time of Flight 8.822 Fifteen (15) questions relating to
Diffraction Practical Examination. application and establishment of
Flawed samples used for practical techniques and procedures that are
examinations should be similar to the published ASNT NDT
representative of the components Level III questions for each method,
and/or configurations that the and
candidates would be testing under 8.823 Twenty (20) questions relating to
this endorsement and approved by capability for interpreting codes,
the NDT Level III. a standards, and specifications
8.7.4 The NDT Level ill is responsible to ensure that if relating to the method.
the ACCP and ASNT NDT Level II specific and 8.8.3 Specific Examination (for each method).
practical examinations are used by the employer, 8.8.3.1 Twenty (20) questions relating to
as stated in 8.7.2 and 8.7.3.1, the requirements of specifications, equipment,
8.4.1, 8.4.2 and 8.5.5 are satisfied. techniques, and procedures
8.8 NDT/PdM Level III Examinations applicable to the employer's
8.8.1 Basic Examinations product(s) and methods employed
8.8.1.1 NDT Basic Examination (required and to the administration of the
only once when more than one employer's written practice.
method examination is taken). The 8.83.2 The employer may delete the
minimum number of questions that specific examination if the candidate
should be given is as follows: has a valid ASNT NDT Level III or
8.8.1.1.1 Fifteen (15) questions ACCP Professional Level III certificate
relating to understanding in the method and if documented
the SNT-TC- 1A document. evidence of experience exists,
8.8.1.1.2 Twenty (20) questions including the preparation of NDT
relating to applicable procedures to codes, standards, or
materials, fabrication, and specifications and the evaluation of
product technology. test results.

21
Basic I SECTION I

8.8.4 A valid endorsement on an ASNT NDT Level 川 Inquiry 79-13

certificate fulfills the examination criteria
described in 8.8.1 and 8.8.2 for each applicable Inquiry:
NDT method. If an employee performs NDT to multiple codes, specifi¬
8.8.5 A valid endorsement of an ACCP Professional cations and acceptance standards, is it necessary to include
Level III certificate fulfills the examination questions relating to each code, specification or acceptance
criteria described in 8.8.1 and 8.8.2 for each standard in this Specific examination?
applicable NDT method. Paragraph 9.6.1(c) requires records of educational back¬
8.9 Reexamination ground to be included in personnel records. Is information
Those failing to attain the required grades should wait supplied by the employee (i.e., such as a resume or employ¬
at least thirty (30) days or receive suitable additional ment application) satisfactory evidence of educational
training as determined by the NDT Level III before accomplishments or is conclusive evidence (i.e., such as a
reexamination. copy of a diploma or transcript) required for verification?

General Comments on Section 8 Response:

In the 2011 edition of SNT-TC-lAy provisions were It is the intent of Paragraph 8.2(c2) that the Specific
included to designate qualified individuals to administer and examination cover all codes, specifications and acceptance
grade examinations. Such designations must be documented. standards applicable to the employee's activities.
Also in the 2011 edition, employers are provided the
option of using an ASNT NDT Level II certificate to satisfy Inquiry 79-2
the General Examination requirement. This is an additional
option to the ACCP Level II certificate used to satisfy this Inquiry:
same requirement that was added in the 1996 edition of Since NDT Level III general examination questions in
SNT-TC-1A in a 1998 addenda. some methods are available from ASNT (Questions and
Answers for Qualifying NDT Level III Personnel, October
Inquiries for Section 8 1977), is it intended that the Level III questions referred to in
paragraphs 8.4 and 8.5.3(a) be selected from those published
Inquiry 78-1 by ASNT?

Inquiry: Response:
If a Level II examination is administered to a Level I indi¬ It is intended that the recommended 30 questions devised
vidual, is there a need, when that individual is eligible for by the examiner for the appropriate method [Paragraph
Level II certification, to readminister the same Level II exam¬ 8.5.3(a)] be devised or selected as appropriate to the degree
ination provided that all other criteria, for example, educa¬ required by the employer's written practice. As with all ques¬
tion, training and experience, have been satisfied? tions and answers provided by ASNT, those mentioned are
suggested as guidelines and supplied as an aid to employers
Response: in preparing examinations. It is intended that the provisions
It is not intended that the individual should be reexam¬ of Paragraph 8.4 be superseded when questions of a charac¬
ined, provided that the original Level II examination was ter unique to Level III qualifications as delineated in
passed and all applicable requirements of the employer's Paragraph 4.3(c) are devised or selected by the employer for
written practice have been met per Paragraph 8.1 of use in the Level III general examination. The additional 30
SNT-TC-1A. questions from Level II questions fbr other applicable NDT
methods as recommended in Paragraph 8.5.3(a) are intended
to be selected from methods other than that fbr which the
candidate is being examined. It is intended that the employer
use such questions to determine that the candidate has suffi¬
cient knowledge of other NDT methods that might be
applicable to the employers particular circumstances. For
example, it could be appropriate that a candidate being
examined for Level III qualification in a particular method
be required to demonstrate basic knowledge in one or more
other methods in order to “designate the particular test
method and technique to be used." See Paragraph 4.3(c).

22
 Inquiry 80-2 Response:
Yes. See Inquiry 01-11. Paragraph 8.2.2 allows the
Inquiry: employer to determine the method of testing for color differ¬
In reference to the practical examination, there are several entiation or gray shade differentiation. Whether to test fbr
approaches that may be taken. For example, grades on check color differentiation or gray shade differentiation is deter¬
points could be given as 1 (correct) or 0 (incorrect) or could mined by which is appropriate for the method the individual
be given in a graduated fashion, say from 0 to 5, depending is being certified in.
on the correctness and efficiency of the application. Which
approach is correct? Could a questionnaire for which written Inquiry 08-3
answers would be prepared as an alternative method of grad¬
ing be used? Inquiry:
Per the 2001 edition of SNT-TC-1A, an MT examiner has
Response: been approved in the capability of distinguishing and differ¬
Please refer to Paragraphs 8.5.1(c) and 9.6.1(f). Either of entiating contrast among colors according to Ishihara stan¬
the proposed grading methods is permissible depending on dard plates. Does this person need to be tested in shades of
the needs of the employer. Other approaches may also be gray acuity if the MT procedure uses gray magnetic parti¬
taken. The approach which meets the needs of the employer cles, to meet the requirements of Paragraph 8.2.2?
should be described in the written practice and followed for
the practical examination. The last technique proposing a Response:
questionnaire for which written answers would be prepared No. See Inquiry 08-2.
would fall more appropriately under the Specific examination
category; Inquiry 10-4

Inquiry 05-1 Inquiry:

May an employer appoint directly an “EN 473 Level HI"
Inquiry: as employer's NDT Level III after defined in employers writ¬
Paragraph 8.1.3 states, '"Examinations administered fbr ten practice to sign the certificates according to SNT-TC-1A
qualification should result in a passing grade of at least in order to verify qualification of candidate for certification?
80 percent；'but if the employer's written practice states that
each examination must achieve 70 percent or more, and does Response:
not require an 80 percent composite, is this acceptable? The employer may use the examination results that
he/she has determined meet the requirement of the written
Response: practice. As stated in SNT-TC-1A, Paragraph 8.1.5, the
No. See Inquiry 99-3. employer is responsible 玲r ensuring the examination servic¬
es meet the requirements of the employers written practice.
Note to the Inquirer: Certification can only be issued when it has been determined
The SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel reviewed this ques¬ that all the requirements of the employer's written practice
tion and agreed with the original response. have been met.

Inquiry 08-2 Review Questions for Section 8

Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions
Inquiry: on pp. 33-34.
Per the 2001 edition of SNT-TC-1A, a Level II examiner is
certified in PT, MT and VT and has been approved as capable
of distinguishing and differentiating contrast among colors
according to Ishihara standard plates, as determined by the
written practice. Does this person also require approval by a
shades of gray acuity examination to be qualified in RT to
meet the requirements of Paragraph 8.2.2?

23
Basic I SECTION I

Section 9: Certification 2. Is it intended in Paragraph 9.5 that an employer may

Section 9 (p. 7) of SNT-TC-1A (2011) is reprinted below subcontract training, examination and certification for all
in full: levels, provided the employer's audit results are found to
be satisfactory?
9.0 Certification 3. Paragraph 9.1 states that the certification of all levels is
9.1 Certification of all NDT Levels of NDT personnel is the the responsibility of the employer. Paragraph 9.5
responsibility of the employer. recognizes the use of outside certification services. May
9.2 Certification of NDT personnel should be based on an employer subcontract nondestructive testing to an
demonstration of satisfactory qualification in outside organization utilizing that organization's
accordance with Sections 6, 7, and 8, as described in certifications for Levels I, II and III, provided the results
the employer's written practice. of the employer's audit of that organization are
9.3 At the option of the employer, an outside agency may satisfactory? Must the employer certify NDT personnel or
be engaged to provide NDT Level III services. In such may he accept the outside organizations certification?
instances, the responsibility of certification of the
employees should be retained by the employer. Response:
9.4 Personnel certification records should be maintained 1. It is intended that Level III services may be obtained from
on file by the employer for the duration specified in an outside agency for the purpose of training and
the employer's written practice and should include examining NDT personnel. It is beyond the scope of
the following: SNT-TC-1A to recommend whether or not outside
9.4.1 Name of certified individual. inspection services should be obtained. It is definitely not
9.4.2 Level of certification and NDT method. intended that the employer be restricted from utilizing
9.4.3 Educational background and experience of any outside NDT services.
certified individuals. 2. The intent of Paragraph 9.5 is to emphasize the
9.4.4 Statement indicating satisfactory completion responsibility of the employer to assure by audit that any
of training in accordance with the employer's and all parts of purchased services attendant to
written practice. qualification and certification of NDT personnel are
9.4.5 Results of the vision examinations prescribed within the same guidelines that the employer would
in 8.2 for the current certification period. follow in accordance with his written practice.
9.4.6 Current examination copy(ies) or evidence of 3. The intent underlying Paragraph 9.1 is fundamental.
successful completion of examinations. When outside Level III services are used for the purpose
9.4.7 Other suitable evidence of satisfactory of qualifying and certifying personnel, it is intended that
qualifications when such qualifications are the employer utilizing such services be responsible for
used in lieu of the specific examination assuring that those services are properly performed and
prescribed in 8.83.2 or as prescribed in the audited. Whether or not the employer uses outside
employer's written practice. Level III services for training and examining his NDT
9.4.8 Composite grade(s) or suitable evidence of personnel, the total responsibility for certification of all
grades. levels rests with the employer of the individuals.
9.4.9 Signature of the NDT Level III that verified
qualifications of candidate for certification. SNT-TC-1A only provides guidelines fbr qualification
9.4.10 Dates of certification and/or recertification and and certification of NDT personnel. Outside services referred
the dates of assignments to NDT. to in Paragraph 9 are those intended to be used by an
9.4.1 1 Certification expiration date. employer only fbr the purposes of training, examining or
9.4.12 Signature of employer's certifying authority. otherwise qualifying individuals directly employed by the
employer.
Inquiries for Section 9 When the performance of NDT is subcontracted to an
outside organization and the outside organization is the
Inquiry 77-3 direct employer of the individual performing NDT, the out¬
side organization is the "employer” in terms of
Inquiry: SNT-TC-1A. Whether the outside organization is properly
With respect to Paragraphs 9.4 and 9.5 of SNT-TC-lAy qualifying and certifying its NDT personnel can only be
determined by the purchaser of such outside services and
1. Is it the intent to restrict an employer to engage only how such determination is made is a contractual matter
Level III services from an outside agency or may Level I between the purchaser and the outside organization.
and Level II services also be utilized?

24
 CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A

Inquiry 77-10 There is no such provision in the 1988 edition. However,

it is implied by the statement in Paragraph 6.3.2: “When the
Inquiry: individual (Level III) is qualified by examination ..."
What is the intent regarding employers' attempts to verify May the employer waive examination for the Level III and
an individual's experience and performance with past be in compliance with the intent of SNT-TC-1A (1988 edi¬
employers in order to maintain the documentation recom¬ tion)?
mended in Paragraph 9.6.1?
Response:
Response: It is intended by the 1988 edition of SNT-TC-1A that all
The specific documentation to be furnished by new Level Ills initially certified after issuance of the 1988 edition
employees and past employers and the means for obtaining of SNT-TC-1A be qualified by examination.
documentation is referenced in Paragraphs 9.6 and 10.2 of Also see Inquiry 90-2 and Inquiry 92-2.
SNT-TC-1A. Details should be included in the employer's
written practice. Inquiry 90-2

General Comments: Inquiry:

As published above and in Materials Evaluation, October 1. Is it the intent of ASNT that all Level III personnel
1977, in response to Inquiry 77-4, "If documentation was not certified to the 1988 edition be examined?
produced during … prior experience, an affidavit or other 2. In accordance with SNT-TC-1A (1988 edition), an
suitable testimony regarding such experience may be evaluat¬ employer certifies his corporate Level III by examination
ed by the employer ..."While Inquiry 77-4 was related to a through an outside service. However, the outside service's
somewhat different matter, the intent behind the response Level III was certified by appointment to SNT-TC-1A
applies equally to this inquiry (77-10). (1984 edition). Is the employer's Level III certification
valid to the 1988 SNT-TC-1A?
Inquiry 77-12
Response:
Inquiry: 1. 生s. As stated in the response to Inquiry 89-4, wIt is
1. Is it intended that an employer may use more than one intended by the 1988 edition of SNT-TC-1A that all Level
outside agency for providing Level III services? Ills initially certified after issuance of the 1988 edition of
2・ Is it intended that an employer may use Level III SNT-TC-1A be qualified by examination." See Inquiry
individuals in his direct employment and also use an 89-4 and Inquiry 92-2.
outside agency fbr Level III services? 2. Rs, provided the employer has assured that the
3. Is it intended that certification examinations may be examination services are in accordance with the
administered without direct supervision and monitoring? employers written practice per Paragraph 9.5 of
SNT-TC-1A (1988 edition).
Response:
1. There is no intent to restrict the number of outside Inquiry 90-4*
agencies from which an employer could use Level III
services. Inquiry:
2・ Yes, both the above and this situation may be used under Is it acceptable for a candidate for Level III certification
circumstances as described in the employer's written under SNT-TC-1A (1988 edition) to be qualified on the basis
practice. of demonstrated ability, achievement, experience and educa¬
3・ It is not intended that unsupervised examinations be tion in lieu of qualification by examination as stated in
administered. Paragraph 9.6(g)?

Inquiry 89-4 Response:

No. Paragraph 8.8 specifically requires that a Level III
Inquiry: candidate be qualified by examination. Paragraph 9.6(g)
In the 1968, 1975, 1980 and 1984 editions of SNT-TC-1A, addresses the content of the qualification records file to be
an employer may waive examinations fbr the Level III and maintained by the employer of certified personnel.
therebyacertifyn the individual by appointment.
★This Response was reconsidered. See Inquiry 92-2. Also
see Inquiry 89-4 and Inquiry 90-2.

25
Basic I SECTION I

Section 10: Technical Performance

Inquiry 96-3 Evaluation
Inquiry: Section 10 (p. 7) of SNT-TC-1A (2011) is reprinted below
When applying SNT-TC-1A 1992 edition in strict accor¬ in full:
dance with the document, is it ASNT's interpretation that a
Level III must be examined? 10.0 Technical Performance Evaluation
10.1 NDT personnel may be reexamined any time at the
Response: discretion of the employer and have their certificates
No. Certification of all levels of NDT personnel is the extended or revoked.
responsibility of the employer. It is the intent of ASNT to cer¬ 10.2 Periodically, as defined in the employers written
tify Level Ills by examination. However, the employer can practice, NDT Level I and II personnel should be
specify the requirements for a certification route without reevaluated by the NDT Level III administering a
examination in the employer's written practice. Please see practical examination. The practical examination
Inquiry 80-9, Inquiry 89-4, Inquiry 90-2, Inquiry 90-4 and should follow the format and guidelines described in
Inquiry 92-2. section 8.5.

NOTE: This is a reconsideration of Inquiry 90-4. Inquiries for Section 10

General Comments on Section 9 Inquiry 02-02

Iwo of these inquiries relate to situations where employ¬
ers, for various reasons, must resort to sources outside the Inquiry:
employer's organization to provide services attendant to Is it the intent of SNT-TC-1A (2001) Paragraph 10.2 to
training, examination and other activities that require quali¬ recommend periodic testing with test props with at least one
fied NDT personnel to conduct. Some companies cannot flawed specimen or are other means of technical perform¬
afford, or may not have time to develop, training sources and ance evaluation acceptable, for example, monitoring an
examinations to qualify their NDT personnel. Others simply inspector performing an official production inspection.
prefer to contract such services as needed. For whatever rea¬
sons outside services may be needed or desired, the respons¬ Response:
es above merely reinforce the basic principles underlying The means for periodic technical performance evaluation
SNT-TC-1A.'Certification of all levels of NDT personnel is should be described in the employer's written practice. Note
the complete responsibility of the employer" and "the that the evaluation of technical performance should consist
employer shall establish written practices covering all phases of not only monitoring the proper application of technique,
of certification including training as specified in Section 5." but also the ability to recognize relevant indications and eval¬
Inquiries 89-4, 90-2, 90-4 and 96-3 address the issue of uate those indications against the employer's acceptance
whether a Level III must take an examination in order to criteria.
become certified. This is of special note in that versions prior
to the 1988 edition clearly permitted examination waivers for General Comments on Section 10
the NDT Level III, leading to the concept of certification by This section was not in editions of SNT-TC-1A before
"appointment." This latter practice has been strongly criti¬ 2001; however, paragraph 10.1 was addressed in paragraph
cized throughout industry since it is perceived as a loophole 9.5(3) of the 1996 edition. Paragraph 10.2 was added to pro¬
for employers to certify underqualified individuals to assume vide a means whereby an employer could ensure that certi¬
the key role of administering the NDT activities within an fied personnel are continuously and satisfactorily performing
organization. In order to restrict this practice, the 1988 edi¬ their responsibilities. It is assumed that, should an individ¬
tion of the recommended practice called for Level Ills to be ual^ performance evaluation indicate substandard perform¬
qualified by examination. But being a recommended practice ance, additional training would be provided and reexamina¬
that encourages employers to adapt their respective require¬ tion would be conducted.
ments based on each set of circumstances, the opportunity
NOTE: There are no review questions for Section 10.
still remains open to employers to “appoint" their Level Ills,
as long as their written practice reflects this strategy as one of
their permitted options.

Review Questions for Section 9

Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions
on p. 35.

26
 CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A

Section 11: Interrupted Service Inquiries for Section 12

Section 11 (p. 7) of SNT-TC-1A (2011) is reprinted below
in full: Inquiry 03-01

1 1.0 Interrupted Service Inquiry:

11.1 The employer's written practice should include rules 1. Regarding SNT-TC-1A (1984) Paragraph 9.7.1, what is
covering the types and duration of interrupted considered proper "evidence of continuing satisfactory
service that requires reexamination and perfbrmance"?
recertification. 2. Does this mean the certified individual shall maintain
1 1.2 The written practice should specify the requirements documentation of satisfactory performance?
for reexamination and/or recertification for the 3・ How often should performance be documented?
interrupted service. 4. CP- 189 (1991) indicates suspension should occur if duties
are not performed during any consecutive 12-month
General Comments on Section 11 period (Sec. 7.2). Is this implied in SNT-TC-1A?
This section was not in editions of SNT-TC-1A before
2001; however, the subject of interrupted services was includ¬ Response:
ed in Paragraph 9.5 (Recertification) of the 1996 edition. 1. Please reference Inquiry 91-4 Question 2.
2. No.
NOTE: There are no review questions for Section 11. 3. SNT-TC-1A (1984) provides the user sufficient latitude
under Paragraph 9.7.1 to identify specifically how they
would evaluate “evidence of continuing satisfactory
Section 12: Recertification performance." The requirements should be documented
Section 12 (p. 7) of SNT-TC-1A (2011) is reprinted below in the employers written practice.
in full: 4. There are no specific provisions in the1984 SNT-TC-1A
regarding interruption of NDT duties while continuing to
12.0 Recertification work fbr the same employer. However, the employer must
12.1 All levels of NDT personnel shall be recertified be satisfied with the proficiency of any individual at any
periodically in accordance with one of the following level to handle work tasks. The employer has direct
criteria: knowledge of the employee's prior performance and can
1 2.1.1 Evidence of continuing satisfactory technical best judge the need fbr reexamination as a function of
performance. duration of interrupted NDT service.
12.1.2 Reexamination in those portions of the
examinations in Section 8 deemed necessary Inquiry 04-2
by the employer's NDT Level III.
12.2 The recommended maximum recertification intervals Inquiry:
are 5 years for all certification levels. Certifications 1. Is it the intent of paragraph 12.1.1 that individuals who
expire on the last day of the month of expiration. are re-certified based on "continuing satisfactory technical
perfbrmance" must pass a new practical examination?
General Comments on Section 12 2. May a Level I or II individual be re-certified, based on
This section was not in editions of SNT-TC-1A before “continuing satisfactory technical performance" without
2001; however, this information was in Paragraph 9.5 taking a new practical examination?
(Recertification) of the 1996 edition. The only change begin¬
ning with the 2006 edition is the change in the recommended Response:
maximum certification interval to five years. 1. No. See Inquiry 91-4 Question 2.
2. Yes. SNT-TC-1A provides the user sufficient latitude
NOTE: There are no review questions for Section 12. under Paragraph 9.7.1 to identify specifically how they
would evaluate "evidence of continuing satisfactory
performance.,> The requirements should be documented
in the employer's written practice.

27
Basic I SECTION I

Section 13: Termination Section 14: Reinstatement

Section 13 (p. 7) of SNT-TC-1A (2011) is reprinted below Section 14 (p. 7) of SNT-TC-1A (2011) is reprinted below
in full: in full:

13.0 Termination 14.0 Reinstatement

13.1 The employer's certification shall be deemed revoked 14.1 An NDT Level I, Level II, or Level III whose certification
when employment is terminated. has been terminated may be reinstated to the former
13.2 An NDT Level I, Level II, or Level III whose certification NDT level, without a new examination, provided all of
has been terminated may be certified to the former the following conditions are met:
NDT level by a new employer based on examination, 14.1.1 The employer has maintained the personnel
as described in Section 8, provided all of the following certification records required in Section 9.4.
conditions are met to the new employer's satisfaction: 14.1.2 The employee's certification did not expire
1 3.2.1 The employee has proof of prior certification. during termination.
1 3.2.2 The employee was working in the capacity to 14.1.3 The employee is being reinstated within six (6)
which certified within six (6) months of months of termination.
termination.
13.2.3 The employee is being recertified within six (6) Inquiries for Section 14
months of termination.
1 3.2.4 Prior to being examined for certification, Inquiry 78-10
employees not meeting the above NOTE: This inquiry relates to paragraph 14.0 beginning
requirements should receive additional with the 2001 edition.
training as deemed appropriate by the Level III.
Inquiry:
Inquiries for Section 13 1. When an employee returns to work for a former employer
where he was certified, may this employee's certifica-
Inquiry 78-4 tion(s) be reinstated without examination if the
NOTE: This inquiry relates to Paragraph 13.2 beginning provisions of Paragraphs 10.2(b) and 10.2(c) are met?
with the 2001 edition. 2. If an employee has been continuously working for
another employer certified in the same capacities, may his
Inquiry: certification (s) be reinstated for the remainder of the
1. Regarding paragraph 10.2 of SNT-TC-1A, does "… based original three-year period of certification in accordance
on examination ...n refer to examinations administered with Paragraph 9.7?
during prior employment or does it refer to new
examinations to be administered by the new employer? Response:
2. An individual can provide evidence of prior certification 1. The provisions of Paragraph 10.2 apply only to a new
per paragraph 10.2(a), but does not meet either employer. For this part of the inquiry the provisions of
Paragraphs 10.2(b) or 10.2(c) which recommend that the Paragraph 9.7.3 would prevail.
individual was working in the capacity to which he had 2. For this part of the inquiry, the receiving employer would
been certified and is being recertified within six months be considered a new employer and the provisions of
of his termination. What should be the basis of Paragraph 10.2 would apply; however, the employee in
qualification for such an individual? question was previously employed by the receiving
employer, Paragraph 9.7.3 would prevail.
Response:
1. It is intended that the examination referred to in General Comments on Section 14
Paragraph 10.2 be administered by the new employer. This section was not in editions of SNT-TC-1A before
2. It is intended that an individual who has neither worked 2001. This section was added to establish the guidelines for
in the capacity to which previously certified in the past six reinstatement of an individual's certification that has been
months nor is being recertified within six months should terminated. This specifically relates to a former employee, not
have additional training and experience prior to a new employee (see 13.2). This would cover those situations
recertification. The employer's written practice should where a certified employee had their certification terminated
detail such provisions. or suspended due to a temporary layoff, or a temporary non-
NDT job assignment.
Review Questions for Section 13
Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions NOTE: There are no review questions for Section 14.
on p. 35.

28
 CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A

Review Questions

Sections 1, 2 and 3 4. With regard to the training of NDT personnel, the

employer:
1. Which of the following statements is true concerning
the usage of SNT-TC-1A? a. must conduct all of the training on the premises.
b. may engage an outside service who must conduct
a. SNT-TC-1A is intended for use by a limited set of the training on the employer's premises.
industrial segments. c. should not conduct the training, being too close to
b. SNT-TC-1A was generated to satisfy the the company's problems.
specification requirements of ASME. d. may engage an outside service but is, nevertheless,
c. SNT-TC-1A was last revised in 1988. responsible fbr the certification of the company's
d. SNT-TC-1A is not intended to be used as a strict NDT personnel.
specification.
5. SNT-TC-1A is intended as a guideline fbr employers:
2. The SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel will respond to
inquiries about SNT-TC-1A. The inquiry must be: a. to establish their own written practice that must be
used as a strict specification.
a. written and stated in general terms. b. to establish their own written practice for the
b. written including specific details of the case, e.g., qualification and certification of their NDT
names, places, dates and other pertinent facts. personnel.
c. considered by the ASNT Board of Directors if it c. to define training course requirements for
involves decisions that would place ASNT in a contractors performing outside training services.
position between buyer and seller. d. who are corporate members of ASNT.
d. ruled upon by the Technical and Education
Council of ASNT before the SNT-TC-1A 6. The following is a statement in SNT-TC-1A: "It is
Interpretation Panel prepares a response. recognized that thgse guidelines may not be
appropriate fbr certain employers; circumstances
3. Which of the following statements is true? and/or applications." What should be done if the
guidelines are not appropriate?
a. ASNT has been providing certification
examinations fbr Level III personnel since the late a. The employer must change its operations to
1960s. conform to the guidelines.
b. SNT-TC-1A was first published in the late 1960s. b. The employer must seek relief from ASNT fbr
c. SNT-TC-1A requires that Level III personnel be inappropriate applications.
qualified and certified by ASNT. c. The employer should review the detailed
d. SNT-TC-1A was developed to satisfy requirements recommendations and modify them, as necessary,
fbr NDT personnel qualification and certification to meet its particular needs.
set forth in parts of the ASME Boiler and Pressure d. The employer shall submit an inquiry in writing
Vessel Code. directed to the SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel.

29
Basic I SECTION I

7. Which of the following statements is not true? 12. Certification is:

a. Certification is written testimony of qualification. a. the skill, training and experience required fbr
b. Qualification is the skill, training and experience personnel to properly perform the duties of a
required for personnel to properly perform the specific job.
duties of a specific job. b. written testimony of qualification.
c. The employer is the corporate or private entity c. intended to be conferred by an organization
that employs personnel for wages or salary; independent from the employer.
d. A certifying agency is any organization used by an d. intended to be conferred by an organization hired
employer in training NDT personnel. by the employer.

8. Who should be responsible to assess whether or not 13. Use of SNT-TC-1A is mandatory when:
an individual should be qualified and certified who
does not perform NDT, but monitors and evaluates a. the material being tested is for a U.S. Air Force
NDT? contract.
b. the material being tested is for a U.S. Navy
a. ASNT. contract.
b. The individual's employer. c. it has been specified by the customer.
c. A government regulatory agency. d. the material being tested is fbr a U.S. Army
d. The customer's auditor. contract which requires certification of NDT
personnel.
9. To which of the following NDT methods is SNT-TC-1A
currently not applicable?
Section 4
a. Visual Testing
b. Thermal/Infrared Testing. 14. The basic levels of qualification recommended by
c. Acoustic Emission Testing. SNT-TC-1A are:
d. Holographic Testing.
a. Trainee, Level I, Level II, Level III.
10. ASNT intended that the recommendations of b. Trainee, Apprentice, Level I, Level II, Level III.
SNT-TC-1A be applied: c. Level I, Level II, Level III.
d. Level I, Level II, Level III, Instructor.
a. with flexibility and reason.
b. precisely as written. 15. Should personnel that operate ultrasonic digital
c. as minimum requirements. thickness measurement equipment be qualified and
d. as maximum requirements. certified?

11. Of the following, which is most appropriate to a. Yes, because SNT-TC-1A requires that all personnel
determine the needs to qualify and certify personnel performing NDT be qualified and certified.
whose only NDT function is to operate digital b. No, because SNT-TC-1A does not cover that specific
thickness equipment? operation.
c. Only if required by industry codes, standards, and
a. ASNT. specifications.
b. ASME. d. Whether any NDT personnel should be qualified
c. the employer. and certified depends solely upon the needs of the
d. the customer. employer and the requirements of the employer's
customers or clientele.

30
 CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-IA

16. According to the recommendations of SNT-TC-IA, 20. Which of the following statements is true concerning
which of the following is true concerning a Trainee's the definitions of Trainee, Level I, II and III in
activities? SNT-TC-IA?

a. The Trainee may not conduct nondestructive tests a. The qualifications for Level III equal and exceed
independently and may not report test results. those of Level IL
b. The Trainee may not conduct nondestructive tests b. SNT-TC-IA was intended for use by employers to
independently, but may interpret test results if determine the proficiency of individuals at each
acting under written instructions. level.
c. The Trainee should work along with a certified c. Except for a provision fbr a Trainee, Levels I, II and
individual and may be considered a Level I, III may not be further subdivided. Level Ills may
provided that the certified individual co-signs any not perform Level II functions unless they pass
test reports. Level II examinations.
d. Once the Trainee has worked along with a certified d・ A Trainee may perform all of the functions of a
individual, the Trainee may then independently Level I if following written instructions.
perform any activities as directed by the certified
individual. 21. Which of the following is not within the scope of
activities of a Level II individual, as recommended in
17. According to SNT-TC-IA, which of the following is not SNT-TC-IA?
true for a Level III?
a. Calibrate equipment.
a. Shall be capable of assisting in establishment of b. Prepare written instructions.
acceptance criteria. c. Establish techniques.
b. Must train and examine the Level I and II d. Provide training.
personnel in his or her organization.
c. Should be familiar with other commonly used 22. As recommended in SNT-TC-IA, a Level II:
NDT methods.
d. Shall be capable of establishing techniques and a. may conduct on-the-job training and guidance of
selecting of test methods. Level I personnel, with the Level I training and
guiding Trainees.
18. According to written instructions, an NDT Level I b. is responsible fbr the training and examination of
may be qualified to perform: Level I personnel for certification.
c. must be capable of and responsible fbr establishing
a. specific calibrations. techniques. «
b. specific nondestructive tests. d. may conduct on-the-job training and guidance of
c. specific evaluations. Level I personnel.
d. all of the above, and write reports of test results.
23. According to SNT-TC-IA, which of the following is true
19. May a Level I independently perform, evaluate and for a Level III?
sign for results of nondestructive tests with
supervision and guidance from a Level II or III? a. A Level III must have successfully completed at
least two years of science or engineering study at a
a. Rs, the intent in SNT-TC-IA is that the Level I may college or university
perform the above functions provided that they b. It is desirable that a Level III be a registered
are in accordance with written instruction of a professional engineer.
Level III or designee. c. The Level III is responsible fbr establishing all
b. No, the Level I may perform the above functions acceptance criteria.
in accordance with written procedures, but must d. The Level III shall be capable of evaluating test
be under constant supervision and guidance of a results in terms of codes, standards and
Level II or Level III. specifications.
c. No, the Level I may not sign for test results.
d. No, the Level I is not allowed to take any
independent action.

31
Basic I SECTION I

28. High school education is recommended as a

Section 5 minimum requirement fbr:

24. In accordance with SNT-TC-1A, who is responsible for a. Level III only;
establishing a written practice for the control and b. Level II and Level III only
administration of NDT personnel training, c. none of the levels.
examination and certification? d. all three levels.

a. The NDT Level III. 29. In Leak Testing, recommended work time experience
b. The employer. and training:
c. ASNT.
d. An appropriate regulatory authority; a. differs for each of four major techniques.
b. does not consider different techniques.
25. The responsibility of each level of certification for c. is listed for Levels II and III only:
determining the acceptability of materials or d. is significantly greater than for Ultrasonic Testing.
components:
30. It is recommended that the education and experience
a. need not be described in the employer's written of a Level III candidate include:
practice since those responsibilities are defined
specifically in SNT-TC-1A. a. graduation from a 4-year university or college with
b. should be described in the employer's written a degree in engineering or science college or
practice only if they are different from SNQTC-IA university plus 1 year's experience in NDT
recommendations. comparable to that of a Level II.
c. should be described in the employer's written b. graduation from a 4-year college or university with
practice under all circumstances. a degree in NDT plus 3 months' experience in
d. should be described in the employer's written NDT comparable to that of a Level IL
practice if dictated by customer requirements. c. 2 years' experience in NDT comparable to that of a
Level II if a high school graduate.
d. 6 years' experience in NDT if the candidate did not
Section 6 graduate from high school.

26. What factors are to be considered to ensure that a 31. Records substantiating qualification are
candidate for certification in NDT understands the recommended to be kept on a:
principles and procedures involved?
a. daily or weekly basis.
a. Training, experience and education. b. monthly or hourly basis.
b. Training, experience and prior certifications held. c. fractional yearly basis.
c. Education, experience and percentage of time on d. fractional hourly basis.
the job doing NDT.
d. Training, experience and professional credentials. 32. For a person being qualified directly to Level II with
no time at Level I, the recommended experience
27. As recommended in SNT-TC-1A, which of the following consists of:
is true?
a. the time recommended for Level IL
a. Overtime cannot be considered in meeting the b. the time recommended fbr Level III.
minimum experience. c. the sum of the times recommended for Level I and
b. Overtime can only be considered if the candidate Level II.
is being qualified in more than one method d. not less than 6 months for any method.
simultaneously
c. Overtime can be credited based on total hours.
d. SNT-TC-1A does not currently provide a
recommendation regarding overtime.

32
 a. is available only through ASNT.
a. In preparing for qualification at Level I, the b. is available from a variety of sources.
candidate should always receive more training c. can only include those references listed.
than fbr Level II, regardless of the NDT method. d. must be made available to each trainee.
b. Some numbers in the table are erroneous.
c. Candidates for Level II generally have more formal 39. The recommended training course outline includes:
education than those for Level I.
d. Some methods require more initial training at a. technical principles of the method.
Level I because of differences in complexity and b. review of API 1104 requirements.
manipulative skills. c. review of ASTM guidelines.
d. review of interpretation requirements in
34. The recommended number of training hours in a ASME B31.3.
particular method are:

a. listed as a function of the candidate's education. Section 8

b. the same regardless of the candidate's education.
c. listed as a function of the candidate's experience. 40. In accordance with SNT-TC-1A, the NDT Level III
d. reduced if the candidate is being qualified in more shall be responsible fbr:
than one method simultaneously.
a. ensuring Level II personnel examine Level I
personnel.
Section 7 b. interpretation of all test results obtained by
Level II personnel.
35. It is recommended that a training program for c. all questions to be used on examinations fbr
qualification and certification purposes should Level I and Level IL
include: d. writing all company standard operating procedures.

a. one-on-one practical instruction by the Level III. 41. Which of the following may conduct and grade
b. training applicable to all industries where the examinations for Level I and Level II personnel?
method is used.
c. examinations to verify that the training material a. An NDT Level IL
has been comprehended. b. A selected representative of the NDT Level III.
d. a practical examination to verify that the training c. ASNT personnel because they offer examinations
material has been comprehended. on a regular basis.
d. The company president.
36. Recommended training course outlines:
42. Of the following personnel, who can administer the
a are included in CP- 105 and must not be modified, near-distance, vision acuity examination using the
b. are included in the most recent editions of reading card with Jaeger letters?
SNT-TC-1A.
c. are not available for visual and leak testing. a. An NDT Level IL
d. are included in CP- 105 for the methods listed. b. The plant receptionist.
c. An NDT Level III.
37. For candidates with different educational d. The employee's medical doctor.
backgrounds, recommended instruction periods are:
43. As recommended in SNT-TC-lAy physical examination
a. the same regardless of educational background, requirements are intended to be:
b. the same regardless of educational background,
but different fbr Level I and Level IL a. the same fbr all methods.
c. different based on educational background. b. the same for all employers.
d. different based on educational background, but c. related to each employer's specific needs.
the same for Level I and Level II. d. as specified in applicable sections of the ASME
Boiler and Pressure Vessel Code.

33
Basic I SECTION I

44. The General Examination is intended to cover: 49. For the written examinations, tables, graphs and
charts may be used:
a. basic test principles of the method.
b. only the material included in the training course a. only during Level I examinations.
outlines of SNT-TC-1A. b. only during Level II examinations.
c. the equipment operational capabilities of the c. during all examinations.
candidate. d. only fbr the Level II practical examination.
d. the operating procedures that the candidate may
encounter in his job. 50. For Level I and Level II Practical Examinations, one or
more test specimens are recommended and the
45. Questions and answers available from ASNT are examinee should perform tests and evaluations using
intended fbr use in compiling: the appropriate equipment and test specimens. The
minimum number of different checkpoints
a. the General Examination only recommended is:
b. the Specific, Practical and General examinations.
c. the Basic and Method examinations. a. 5.
d. the General, Basic and Method examinations. b. 10.
c. 15.
46. Which of the following parts of Level I and Level II d. 20.
examinations should be written?
51. In certification of Level III personnel according to the
a. The General and Specific. recommendations of SNT-TC-1A, the employer:
b. The General and Practical.
c. The General, Specific and Practical. a. must give written examinations.
d. Only the General. b. must give General and Specific examinations.
c. may delete the Specific Examination.
47. The Practical Examination is recommended to include d. can waive written examinations if oral
operational familiarity with test equipment and examinations are given in their place.
analysis of test results fbr:
52. For Level I and II examinations, the recommended
a. Levels I, II and III. minimum composite score is:
b. Levels I and IL
c. Levels II and III. a. 60 percent.
d. Trainees, Level I and Level IL b. 90 percent.
c. 70 percent.
48. Which of the following statements is true with regard d. 80 percent.
to the administration of written examinations?
53. For Level III Basic Examinations, it is recommended
a. The examinee should not be permitted access to that Level II questions also be included. These
any reference material. questions should be:
b. Reference data may be supplied for the Practical
Examination only: a. Level II type questions based on other applicable
c. Level III personnel should be required to NDT methods.
memorize everything except codes, specifications b. based on Level II tasks fbr the particular Method
and procedures. Examination.
d. Codes, specifications and procedures may be c. selected at random from questions previously used
provided to examinees fbr reference during on Level II examinations.
examinations provided that they do not contain d. given only if the candidate is being examined in
data that can be used to answer questions in the more than one method.
general examination.

34
 CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A

Section 9 58. The employer can consider an individual to be

qualified to Level III, but only if he or she:
54. If an outside agency is engaged to provide Level III
services, the: a. takes a comprehensive written examination.
b. has in excess of 5 years' experience comparable to
a. written practice of the outside agency pertains, a Level II.
and it is not necessary for the employer that uses c. meets the requirements of the employer's written
the outside services to have a written practice. practice.
b. responsibility of certification must be retained by d. has taken the ASNT NDT Level III Basic and at
the employer utilizing outside services. least one of the Method examinations.
c. employer utilizing outside services must
nonetheless have a Level III in direct employment.
d. outside agency may certify the personnel of the Section 13
employer utilizing outside services.
59. Automatic termination of certification is
55. Which of the following statements is true concerning recommended when the certified individual:
recertification?
a. terminates employment with the employer where
a. Recertification can be accomplished only by certified.
reexamination at least once every three years. b. is temporarily assigned to a different job function,
b. Recertification can be based upon evidence of c. takes a leave of absence greater than 30 days.
continuing satisfactory performance. d. achieves a higher level of certification.
c. Once certified to a particular level, certification
can only be terminated if the certified individual 60. A certified Level III individual terminates his or her
terminates employment with the certifying employment with employer A and is immediately
employer. employed by employer B. Employer B may certify the
d. Reexamination of a certified individual can be individual as Level III based upon which of the
accomplished only after three years at a particular following?
level.
a. The employer must examine the individual.
56. What purpose is best served by maintaining b. The employer must examine the individual if he or
certification records and the written practice? she has not been working as a Level III during the
past six months.
a. For periodic approval by ASNT. c. The employer may recertify the individual to
b. To determine the effectiveness of outside services. Level III, but only after 6 months of satisfactory
c. To provide documentation for review by customer, service.
clients, and regulatory agencies. d. The employer may certify the individual to
d. Ib protect against product liability claims. Level III in accordance with their written practice.

57. The employer is responsible fbr certification of:

a. Level I and Level II NDT personnel.

b. Level III personnel only.
c. outside services.
d. all levels of NDT personnel.

Answers
1d 2a 3b 4d 5b 6c 7d 8b 9d 10a 11c 12b 13c 14c
15d 16a 17b 18d 19a 20a 21c 22d 23d 24b 25c 26a 27d 28c
29a 30a 31b 32c 33d 34a 35c 36d 37c 38b 39a 40c 41b 42c
43c 44a 45d 46a 47b 48d 49c 50b 51c 52d 53a 54b 55b 56c
57d 58c 59a 60a
CHAPTER 2
The AS NT NDT Level III Certification Program

In their Fall 1974 meeting, the ASNT Board of Directors 6. Magnetic Particle Testing (MT)*
authorized implementation of a voluntary program for certi¬ 7. Neutron Radiographic Testing (NR)
fication of NDT Level III personnel. The Board decided that 8. Radiologic Testing (RT)
use of the term acertification, as applied in the ASNT NDT 9. Thermal/Infrared Testing (IR)
Level III program was appropriate, indicating that personnel 10. Ultrasonic Testing (UT)
holding ASNT NDT Level III certificates had met certain 11. Visual Testing (VT)*
education, training, experience and examination require¬
ments. It is important to note that the word “certification” as "These examinations comprise 90 questions; the others
used in the Level III program indicates a record of achieve¬ have 135 questions.
ment and/or qualification. As used in Recommended Practice
No. SNT-TC-1A: Personnel Qualification and Certification in
Nondestructive Testing, c certification>, indicates that employers What Is an ASNT NDT Level III?
have authorized NDT Level III personnel to perform work ASNT NDT Level III personnel are individuals who
on their behalf. The first ASNT NDT Level III examinations demonstrated that they are sufficiently knowledgeable to pass
were given in early 1977. the Basic and Method qualification examinations developed
The following is a description of the ASNT Level III and administered by ASNT. Ib gain initial ASNT NDT Level
Certification Programs. Additional information is available III certification, eligible candidates must pass the Basic
on the ASNT website at www.asnt.org. Examination and at least one Method Examination. Once
certified, additional certifications can be added by passing
ASNT NDT Level III the applicable Method Examination as long as the candidate
holds one valid ASNT Level III certification. If all certifica¬
The ASNT NDT Level III program initially offered certi¬ tions expire, the Basic and Method exams must be passed to
fication in five NDT methods and currently offers certifica¬ regain that certification.
tion examinations in eleven methods. Over 5850 personnel in The Basic Examination is a 135-question test that covers
over 100 countries currently hold more than 16 000 certifica¬ the administration of certification programs developed in
tions in nondestructive test methods, making the ASNT accordance with SNT-TC-1A and ANSI/ASNT CP- 189: ASNT
NDT Level III program the largest NDT certification pro¬ Standard for Qualification and Certification of Nondestructive
gram in the world. ASNT is an independent, third-party cer¬ Testing Personnel; general knowledge of other NDT test
tification body accredited by the American National methods; and knowledge of materials, fabrication and pro¬
Standards Institute (ANSI) in accordance with ISO 17024, duction technology Method examinations maybe 90 or 135
Conformity Assessment — General Requirements for Bodies questions in size and address in-depth knowledge of the the¬
Operating Certification of Persons. All ASNT certification ory and practices of the applicable nondestructive testing
examinations are developed and maintained using psycho¬ method.
metric principles that comply with the ISO 17024
requirements.
The ASNT Method Examinations are given in multiple¬ ASNT Predictive Maintenance Level III
choice format in the following NDT test methods. Where ref¬ ASNT began offering the Predictive Maintenance (PdM)
erence information is needed, it is included in the body of the Level III certification program in 2000 and now offers PdM
examination. Level III certification in the IR method. Together, the ASNT
NDT Level III program and the ASNT PdM Level III pro¬
1. Acoustic Emission Testing (AE) gram are known as the ASNT Level III Certification
2. Electromagnetic Testing (ET) Program.
3. Leak Testing (IT) ASNT PdM certification was developed as a result
4. Liquid Penetrant Testing (PT)* of industry requests for a third-party certification that
5・ Magnetic Flux Leakage (MFL) focused on PdM knowledge and test methods instead of the
37
Basic I SECTION I

traditional NDT methods used for NDT Level III certifica¬ Upon successful completion of the necessary qualifica¬
tion. In response to this request, ASNT developed a tion examinations, ASNT will issue the candidate an ASNT
90-question PdM Basic Examination that covers the same NDT Level III certificate and wallet card that is valid for five
certification requirements as the NDT Basic Examination. years.
However, instead of addressing knowledge of materials, fabri¬
cation, and production technology and other traditional
NDT test methods, it covers the basics of common PdM test NDT/PdM or PdM/NDT Conversion
methods and knowledge of machinery technology. PdM cer¬ 1. Personnel with a currently valid NDT certificate in the IR
tification is currently offered in Thermal/Infrared Testing test method may attain PdM certification in IR by
only and successful completion of the PdM Basic and IR successfully completing the PdM Basic Examination.
Method examinations result in the issuance of an ASNT PdM 2. Personnel with a currently valid PdM certificate in the IR
Level III certificate. test method may attain NDT certification in IR by
successfully completing the NDT Basic Examination.
3. This applies to the IR method only.
Eligibility for ASNT Level III Examinations
Candidates must have met the eligibility requirements
specified in paragraph 632 (p. 3) of SNT-TC-1A (2011): Recertification
All ASNT Level III certificate holders must be recertified
6.3.2 NDT Level III at five-year intervals by one of the following methods:
6.3.2.1 Have graduated from a minimum
four-year college or university 1. By examination, prior to their certification expiration date
curriculum with a degree in in the applicable method. As long as at least one method
engineering or science, plus one remains current, the Basic Examination does not have to
additional year of experience be taken again; or
beyond the NDT Level II 2. By application, using a “points" system. Recertification by
requirements in NDT in an points requires the following three items:
assignment at least comparable to a. reaffirmation of the ASNT Level III Code of Ethics;
that of an NDT Level II in the b. demonstration of continued NDT activity and
applicable NDT method(s), or: Level III employment; and
6.322 Have completed with passing grades c. submittal of documentation showing that 25 recerti¬
at least two years of engineering or fication points have been earned within the appli¬
science study at a university, college, cants current 5-year certification period. Activities
or technical school, plus two that earn recertification points are shown in the
additional years of experience ASNT NDT Program Renewal Requirements docu¬
beyond the NDT Level II ment posted on the ASNT website.
requirements in NDT in an
assignment at least comparable to The same recertification requirements apply to PdM
that of NDT Level II in the applicable Level III certificate holders.
NDT method(s), or:
6.323 Have four years experience beyond
the NDT Level II requirements in NDT SNT-TC- 1A Certification Options
in an assignment at least SNT-TC-1A offers the employer several options for fulfill¬
comparable to that of an NDT ing certification responsibilities:
Level II in the applicable NDT
method(s). 1. incorporate acceptance of ASNT NDT Level III
certification into the employer's written practice; or
The above Level III requirements 2. incorporate acceptance of Level III qualification
may be partially replaced by examinations administered by an outside agency that
experience as a certified NDT Level II meet the requirements of the employer's written practice;
or by assignments at least or
comparable to NDT Level II as 3. incorporate the employer's examinations as defined in
defined in the employer's written employer's written practice.
practice.

38
 CHAPTER 2 The ASNT NDT Level III Certification Program

Use of the ASNT NDT Level III Certification the program was revised to address ISO 9712 requirements
ASNT NDT Level III certification provides an interna¬ and now meets or exceeds the requirements of the U.S. adop¬
tionally recognized way for individuals, companies and tion of ISO 9712, ANSI/ ASNT CP- 106: Nondestructive
industry sectors to take advantage of standardized examina¬
tions developed by qualified subject matter experts and
-
Testing Qualification 〃九d Certification of Personnel.
The ACCP Level III certification requires that candidates
administered by an ISO 17024-accredited third-party certifi¬ pass the same Basic and Method examinations used in the
cation body. Under Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A, ASNT NDT Level III program, the full ACCP Level II hands-
employers may accept valid ASNT NDT Level III certifica¬ on Practical Examination (unless passed as an ACCP
tion as proof that the certificate holder has met the Basic and Level II) and a Procedure Preparation Examination. The
Method examination requirements for the test methods listed Practical Examination requires that candidates demonstrate
on the ASNT certificate. The employer must still determine if their ability to apply the applicable test methods and the
the Specific examination requirements have been met and Procedure Preparation Examination requires that they write
has the sole responsibility for authorizing (certifying) their an NDT procedure for a specific part based on the require¬
Level III NDT personnel to perform NDT tasks on behalf of ments of an NDT specification. For personnel who hold cur¬
their company; rently valid ASNT NDT Level III certification, the Basic and
NOTE: In the case of ANS//ASNT CP-189, an individual applicable Method exams need not be retaken.
must hold an ASNT NDT Level III certificate prior to
becoming an organizations Level III. In the case of
SNT-TC-1A, an individual can use the ASNT NDT Level III
ASNT Examination Schedule
certificate as one of the many optional approaches for ASNT written examinations can be taken at the annual
becoming an organizations Level III. But in both cases, the Spring and Fall ASNT conferences; in Columbus, Ohio, on
ASNT NDT Level III certificate must be augmented with a the Saturdays following each week of Refresher Courses; at
written practice that identifies, in detail, the manner by National Sponsoring Organizations (NSOs) in multiple other
which the organizations Level III is qualified and certified for countries; and at Authorized Examination Centers (AECs) in
the specific purposes of the organization. both the U.S. and overseas. Scheduled written examinations
and NSO and AEC contact information are listed online
ACCP Professional Level III under the Certification link on the ASNT website. ACCP
Practical Examinations must be taken at an AEC.
With the introduction of the ASNT Central Certification
Program (ACCP) in the late 1990s, ASNT began offering a
"central" certification for Level Ils and Ills that aligned with
multiple international NDT certification standards. In 2005,

39
Basic I SECTION I

Review Questions

61. ASNT NDT Level III certification is a requirement of: 65. To recertify by application, an ASNT NDT Level III
must:
a. SNT-TC-1A.
b. CP-189. a. demonstrate continued NDT activity and Level III
c. CP-106. employment.
d. both SNT-TC-1A and CP-189. b. reexamine prior to their current expiration date.
c. participate in the ASNT Central Certification
62. A currently valid ASNT NDT Level III certificate Program.
indicates: d. acquire 25 recertification points since the
beginning of their NDT employment.
a. an ASNT Level III is authorized to supervise but
not perform NDT tasks on behalf of the employer. 66. Ib be eligible to sit fbr the ASNT NDT Level III
b. the employer can accept a currently valid ASNT exams, a candidate with two years of passing grades in
NDT Level III certificate as proof of qualification. engineering or science study at a university or
c. an individual is certified in both NDT and PdM. technical school must have:
d. that the certificate holder has satisfied the Basic
and Method exam requirements as set forth in a. one additional year of experience beyond the
SNT-TC-IA Level II requirements in NDT in an assignment
comparable to that of an NDT Level II in the
63. ASNT NDT Level III certification: applicable NDT method(s).
b. two additional years of experience beyond the
a. immediately qualifies a certificate holder to act as Level II requirements in NDT in an assignment at
the employer's Level III. least comparable to that of NDT Level II in the
b. makes an individual potentially eligible to become applicable NDT method(s).
an employer's Level III. c. four years of experience beyond the Level II
c. permits the individual to function as an requirements in NDT in an assignment at least
independent Level III without further comparable to that of an NDT Level II in the
documentation. applicable NDT method(s).
d. only applies when recognized by some d. one additional year of experience beyond the
requirements document. Level II requirements in NDT in an assignment
comparable to that of an NDT Level II and an
64. The ASNT NDT Level III Basic Examination covers all additional 20 hours of classroom training in the
of the following except: applicable test method(s).

a. general knowledge of other NDT test methods.

b. knowledge of SNT-TC-1A and CP- 189
certification programs.
c. knowledge of materials, fabrication and
production technology
d. knowledge of international certification programs.

Answers
61b 62d 63b 64d 65a 66a

40
CHAPTER 3
ANSI/ASNT CP- 189 (2011)

Overview 1.4 This standard requires that the employer incorporate

The Abstract (p. i) of ANSI/ASNT CP-189 (2011) con- any unique or additional requirements in the
tains the following statements: “This standard applies to per¬ certification procedure.
sonnel whose specific tasks or jobs require appropriate
knowledge of the technical principles underlying nonde¬ It is clear that the tone of this document is distinctly more
structive testing (NDT) methods for which they have respon¬ regimented than the scope of SNT-TC-1A, which states that
sibilities within the scope of their employment. These specific “this document provides guidelines fbr the establishment of a
tasks or jobs include, but are not limited to, performing, qualification and certification program" and “it is recognized
specifying, reviewing, monitoring, supervising, and evaluat¬ that these guidelines may not be appropriate for certain
ing NDT work. employers' circumstances and/or applications." The standard
“Employers or other persons utilizing nondestructive demands that a minimum set of requirements be met by all
testing services are cautioned that they retain full responsi¬ employers who claim to have a program that embraces the
bility fbr ultimate determination of the qualifications of NDT standard.
personnel and for the certification process. The process of The following comments are intended to amplify the
personnel qualification and certification as detailed in the differences and similarities between the standard, CP-189,
standard does not relieve the employer of the ultimate legal and the recommended practice, SNT-TC-1A.
responsibility to ensure that the NDT personnel are fully
qualified fbr the tasks being undertaken."
These statements define who is under the jurisdiction of Section 2: Definitions
the standard and state that the ultimate responsibility of the In Section 2 (pp. 1-2), Definitions, of CP-189 (2011),
qualification and certification process remains with the 20 definitions are listed to remove any ambiguity about terms
employer. The fact that CP-189 is an American National used throughout the body of the standard. The term
Standard signifies that the requirements for due process, con¬ "Practical Examination" is clarified in its use on behalf of the
sensus, and other criteria as defined by the American employer and the fact that observations and results must be
National Standards Institute (ANSI) have been met by the documented. “Grading Unit" a new term added to the defi¬
standard developer, in this case, the American Society for nitions in both SNT-TC-1A and CP- 189 to explain that a
Nondestructive Testing. qualification specimen can be divided into sections that do
not have to be equal length or equal spacing, unflawed or
flawed. aIest Ibchnique" (a category within an NDT method;
Section 1: Scope fbr example, immersion ultrasonic testing) is distinguished
Section 1 (p. 1) of CP-189 (2011) reads as follows: from “Method" (one of the disciplines of NDT, for example,
ultrasonic testing, within which various test techniques may
1.0 Scope exist).
1.1 This standard establishes the minimum requirements In Paragraph 2.2.1, an “NDT Level IHn is identified as “an
for the qualification and certification of individual possessing a currently valid ASNT NDT Level III
nondestructive testing (NDT) and predictive or PdM Level III certificate or ACCP Professional Level III
maintenance (PdM) personnel. certificate and certified in accordance with this standard."
1.2 This standard details the minimum training, Thus, in order to become an employer's NDT Level III,
education, and experience requirements for NDT CP- 189 mandates that the individual hold a currently valid
personnel and provides criteria for documenting ASNT NDT Level III certificate. Other requirements must be
qualifications and certification. customized to the needs of the employer in accordance with
1.3 This standard requires the employer to establish a the employer's written NDT personnel qualification and cer¬
procedure for the certification of NDT personnel. tification procedure.

41
Basic I SECTION I

Section 3: Levels of Qualification Recognizing that NDT is a unique application of the con¬
In Section 3 (pp. 2-3), Levels of Qualification, the six lev¬ cepts of physics, electronics and chemistry, CP- 189 requires
els of qualification are defined in terms of the skills and that all training shall be presented by an NDT Instructor des¬
knowledge required in a given method or methods to per¬ ignated by the NDT Level III individual. The NDT Instructor
form specified NDT activities. These are Level III, Level II, is an individual who not only has the skills and knowledge
Level II Limited, Level I, Trainee and NDT Instructor. for conducting training programs but also is required to
Level III, Level II and Level I are nominally the same as those develop and conduct such courses in accordance with the
identified in SNT-TC-1A. The last two formalize the status of course outlines approved by the NDT Level III. The NDT
the Trainee and create a category of NDT Instructor who can Level III in all cases is responsible for the content of each
function as course organizer and presenter, but under the completed course. In order to qualify, an NDT Instructor
cognizance of the employer's authorized (certified) Level III. must satisfy at least one of the following criteria:

1. possess a current ASNT NDT Level III certificate in the

Section 4: Qualification Requirements method being taught; or
Section 4 (pp. 3-4), Qualification Requirements, address¬ 2. have academic credentials at least equivalent to a B.S. in
es training, experience, instructor criteria and the use of out¬ engineering, physical science or technology and possess
side NDT Level III services. The training is to be done in adequate knowledge in the NDT method to be taught; or
accordance with a course outline approved by an NDT 3. be a graduate of a two-year school of science, engineering
Level III and must include the topics contained in CP-105 for or NDT and have five or more years of experience as an
the appropriate NDT method. The training program may NDT Level II, or equivalent, in the method to be taught; or
include other topics deemed necessary by the NDT Level III. 4・ have 10 or more years of NDT experience as an NDT
“Organized training' is expanded in both SNT-TC-1A and Level II, or equivalent, in the NDT method to be taught.
CP- 189 to include instructor-led training, self study virtual
instructor-led training, computer-based training or Web-based Training and experience qualifications of the NDT
training. Computer-based training and Web-based training Level III are automatically met when an individual holds a
shall track hours and content of training with student examina¬ valid ASNT NDT Level III certificate.
tions. The training programs shall include sufficient examina¬ Both SNT-TC-1A and CP-189 call for a minimum num¬
tions to demonstrate that the necessary information has been ber of hours worked in the specific method as well as a mini¬
comprehended. A satisfactory passing score on a final examina¬ mum total number of hours worked in NDT. (NOTE:
tion covering the topics contained in the training program is SNT-TC-1A Table 6.3.1 B using months of experience has
necessary in order to receive credit for the training hours. been deleted from the 2011 edition.) The total experience

Table 3.1: Comparison of experience requirements for leak testing, SNT-TC-1A versus CP；89.

Experience Required Experience

SNT-TC-1A CPU89
Leak Testing NDT Level
Technique Minimum Hours Total Hours Minimum Hours Total Hours
in Method in NDT in Method in NDT

I 3 4 3 15
Bubble Testing
II 35 65 35 80

1 105 200 105 200

Pressure Change
II 280 520 280 530

1 105 200 105 200

Halogen Diode
II 280 520 280 530

1 280 520 280 530

Mass Spectrometer
II 420 800 280 800

42
 CHAPTER 3 ANSI/ASNT CP- 789 (2011)

requirement can be satisfied by working in two or more samples for each technique to be used in the candidate's job.
methods as well as doing other activities that support the This includes the documentation of the results of the test(s).
NDT program of the employer. (SNT-TC-1A and CP-189 The Level II Practical Examination requires that the can¬
have equivalent training and experience requirements, except didate demonstrate proficiency using the applicable NDT
for Leak Testing, as listed in Table 3.1.) method to examine two or more representative test samples
When using CP-189 Appendix A or SNT-TC-1A Table fbr each method and at least one sample fbr each technique
6.3.1 A, it is important to note that the minimum experience to be used in the candidate's job. This includes the interpreta¬
hours must be documented by method and by hour. A candi- tion, evaluation and documentation of the examination's
date's previous training and experience may be accepted by results.
the employer if verified and documented in writing by the The Level I Practical Examination and the Level II
previous employer (s) or training agencies. Practical Examination are similar to those recommended by
Although employers often have their own NDT Level III SNT-TC-1A, with the exception that the test samples used are
to administer the various aspects of the employer's NDT per¬ to be representative of the products that will be encountered
sonnel qualification and certification program, an outside when performing their job functions. This difference ensures
organization may be engaged to perform the duties of an the CP- 189 examinations must be representative of the prod¬
NDT Level III. In such instances, the employer is responsible uct typical to that which candidates will likely encounter in
fbr verifying that the organization complies with the employ- performing their job function.
er's certification procedure and CP-189. More explicit examination requirements have been placed
on the NDT Level III due to the many variations in back¬
ground and work activities found in the field. As a prerequi¬
Section 5: Qualification and Certification site, a candidate for the position of an employer's Level III
Section 5 (p. 4), Qualification and Certification, addresses must hold an ASNT NDT Level III certificate with a currently
the procedure for qualifying and certifying NDT personnel. valid endorsement for each method fbr which employer cer¬
The employer's certification procedure describes the mini¬ tification is sought, and he or she must also satisfactorily
mum requirements fbr certifying personnel in each NDT complete a Specific Examination comprising thirty (30)
method and is approved by the designated NDT Level III. questions on the employer's specifications and standards fbr
The procedure includes personnel duties and responsibilities, each method. A valid endorsement on an ASNT NDT Level
as well as the required training, experience, examinations, III certificate fulfills the examination criteria for only the
records and recertification processes to be followed. Basic Examination and the Method Examination fbr each
applicable NDT method.
In addition, the candidate may have to show the ability to
Section 6: Examinations prepare an NDT procedure appropriate to the employer's
Section 6 (pp. 4-7), Examinations, addresses vision needs, if he or she does not have documented experience
requirements and the administration of written and practical demonstrating that they had previously prepared similar
examinations fbr the qualification of NDT Level I, II and III procedures in the method using the specifications, codes and
personnel. The near-distance vision examination calls for an standards that are applicable to that employer.
individual to be capable of reading a Jaeger Number 1 test If the NDT Level III will be required to perform tests or
chart at a distance of not less than 30.5 cm (12 in.), rather evaluate test results, the Practical Examination must include
than the Jaeger Number 2 of SNT-TC-1A, and to be adminis¬ the same demonstrations of ability to perform the required
tered in accordance with a procedure, and by personnel, activities as that of the Level II.
approved by the designated NDT Level III. The employer's NDT Level III is responsible fbr the
Level I and Level II personnel are to receive a closed- administration and grading of the examinations, but the
book General Examination approved by the designated NDT grading and administration of multiple-choice objective
Level III over a cross section of the body of knowledge appli¬ questions can be delegated when properly documented. The
cable to each method and NDT level. Level I and Level II Practical Examination is to be administered by an NDT
personnel are to receive a closed-book Specific Examination, Level III in the respective test method. The employer is
supported by NDT Level III approved reference materials, responsible fbr having an ASNT NDT Level III develop,
addressing various examples of equipment, procedures and administer and grade the Level III Specific and Practical
test techniques that the candidate may use in the perform¬ examinations. Employer examinations require a minimum 70
ance of assigned duties. percent on individual tests and a minimum 80 percent on the
The Level I Practical Examination requires that the can¬ overall average grade.
didate demonstrate proficiency in using the applicable NDT For a Level I or Level II candidate to pass the Practical
method to examine at least one or more representative test Examination, discontinuities or conditions previously

43
Basic I SECTION I

specified by the Level III are to be located and evaluated. A Section 8: Employer Recertification
written checklist, addressing equipment and technique profi¬ Section 8 (p. 8), Employer Recertification, has been divid¬
ciency, is to be used following the procedure, test sequence, ed into two parts. For Level I and Level II personnel, every
calibrations, materials, documentation and extent of exami¬ five years, recertification may be based on evidence of expe¬
nation. If the candidate is required to perform interpretation rience in the method over the five-year period of at least two
or evaluation of results, these are to also be part of the check¬ months or 350 hours and successfully passing a Specific
list. In addition, the Level II list includes proper extent of Examination which meets the requirements of 6.2.2. Every
examination, accuracy and completeness of interpretations, ten years, examinations in Section 6 must be repeated. For
evaluations and documentation of the activities and test Level III personnel, recertification relies on verification of the
results. currency of the Level Ill's ASNT certificate every five years.
If an examination is failed, the requirements for reexami¬
nation are similar to SNT-TC-1A (receive additional training
or wait 30 days), except that a candidate is not to be reexam¬ Section 9: Records
ined using the examination and/or specimen previously In Section 9 (pp. 8-9), Records, a minimum set of docu¬
failed. ments that address the qualifications of each NDT individual
The employer's representative who administers the is required. Included are the employer's certification docu¬
Level III examinations must possess a current ASNT NDT mentation, an experience record, a record of previous experi¬
Level III certificate in the method and be familiar with the ence (if applicable), the employee's current examinations and
standards used and the products made by the employer. a vision examination record.
Self-examination and examination by subordinates are The certification record includes level, method and tech-
prohibited. nique(s), results and copies of recent examinations; a copy of
the current ASNT Level III certificate fbr Level III personnel
Section 7: Expiration, Suspension, only; dates of certification, expiration, suspension, revocation
Revocation, and Reinstatement of and reinstatement; and the signature, printed name and title
of the employer's certifying representative.
Employer Certification A training record is required that includes the training
Section 7 (pp. 7-8) addresses Expiration, Suspension, received, the name of the training organization, the date
Revocation, and Reinstatement of Employer Certifications. when training was completed, the hours involved, evidence of
As with SNT-TC-1A, an individual's certification (s) expire satisfactory completion and the instructor's name.
when employment with the employer is terminated or on the A record that identifies the individual's experience per¬
last day of the month at the end of five years for Levels I and forming various nondestructive tests shall be maintained fbr
IL The Level III certification expires when the ASNT NDT the purpose of verifying initial certification experience and
Level III certificate has expired. continuing experience. Previous experience shall also be doc¬
Certifications can be suspended for exceeding the one- umented if it is used to satisfy any part of the qualification
year vision recheck period, for inactivity in a method for requirements.
more than 12 months or fbr deficient performance as deter¬
mined by the Level III. Level Ills are suspended if their ASNT
Level III certificate is not renewed. Section 10: Referenced Publications
Certifications are revoked if inactivity in a method Section 10 (p. 9), References, lists documents relevant to
exceeds 24 months, if the ASNT NDT Level III certificate is the provisions of CP- 189 (2011).
revoked or if there is unethical or incompetent conduct.
Reinstatement fbr Level I and Level II is determined by
the Level III. Reinstatement fbr the Level III is determined by
the employer as long as the Level III holds a valid ASNT
Level III certificate. Expired or revoked certifications may
only be reinstated by complying with Section 6, 7.4.3 and 8.1.

44
 CHAPTER 3 ANS//ASNT CP- J 89 (2011)

Review Questions

67. In accordance with ANSI/ASNT CP-189 (2011), an 70. As required in ANS/ZASNT CP-189, Level I Practical
NDT Level III: examinations are intended to be:

a. shall be responsible for grading all Level I and a. given by the employer's Level III.
Level II certification examinations. b. passed only if all predefined discontinuities are
b. must prepare all training materials for NDT Level I detected and evaluated.
and Level II personnel. c. given using one or more test samples for each
c. must approve all questions to be used on technique.
examinations for Level I and Level IL d. given using one or more test samples for each
d. must administer all Level I and II written method.
examinations.
71. The Practical Examination shall address the technical
68. Which of the following is true regarding NDT and practical competency of the examinee when
Level III Practical Examinations? following prepared NDT procedures for:

a. This examination requirement may be waived if a. Levels I, II and NDT Instructor.

the candidate holds a currently valid ASNT b. Levels I and IL
Level III certificate. c. corporate Level Ills.
b. The exam administrator must hold a valid ASNT d. all levels of qualification.
Level III certification in the applicable test
method. 72. The Practical Examination shall address the technical
c. The use of a written checklist may be used at the and practical competency of the examinee when
discretion of the administrator. following prepared NDT procedures for:
d. Exam administration may be delegated to any-
authorized representative by the employer. a. Levels I, II and III. 9

b. Levels I and IL
69. When the near-distance vision acuity examination is c. Level III.
given using a Jaeger reading card, it must be given: d. Level III and NDT Instructors.

a. in accordance with a procedure.

b. by any company NDT Level III.
c. by medical personnel only.
d. biannually if Jeager J-l letters are used.

Answers
67c 68b 69a 70c 71b 72a

45
CHAPTER 4
General Applications of Various NDT Methods

Overview of the ASNT Basic Topical Outlines, Reference

Examination Resources and Review Questions
The second part of the ASNT Basic examination fbr This section contains topical outlines, reference resources
Level III certification covers the examinee's knowledge and and review questions for selected NDT methods recognized
comprehension of basic and fundamental applications of in SNT-TC-1A. The reader is advised to use the reference
various NDT methods. While an employer's current require¬ resource material if difficulty is encountered in answering the
ments for a Level III may only involve one, or two or a few following questions. Note especially that the questions are
NDT methods, it is not envisioned that a Level III as not difficult fbr those with practical exposure in the use of
described in Paragraph 4.3.3 of SNT-TC-1A can function the method. The questions are devised to cover fundamen¬
adequately without some basic knowledge of the existence tals, basic techniques and applications.
and applications of commonly used NDT methods. Topical outlines for the methods included in this section
In light of rapidly expanding technology, Level III NDT are from "Basics of Common NDT Methods”(pp.143-146)
personnel have an obligation to continually review current in the Basic Examination Level III unit of ANSI/ASNT
practices, recommend and develop new techniques where CP- 105: ASNT Standard Topical Outlines for Qualification of
applicable and seek more effective methods where applicable. Nondestructive Testing Personnel (2011).
Without some basic knowledge of the broad applications
of NDT technology, the NDT Level III could not be consid¬
ered as meeting the Level III qualifications as defined in Acoustic Emission Testing (AE)
Paragraph 4.3.3 (p. 2) of SNT-TC-1A (2011):
Topical Outline
... capable of developing, qualifying, and approving procedures,
establishing and approving techniques, interpreting codes, 1.0 Acoustic Emission Testing
standards, specifications, and procedures; and designating the 1.1 Fundamentals
particular NDT methods, techniques, and procedures to be used. 1.1.1 Principles/theory of acoustic emission testing
The NDT Level III should be responsible for the NDT operations 1.1.2 Sources of acpustic emissions
for which qualified and assigned and should be capable of 1.1.3 Equipment and material
interpreting and evaluating results in terms of existing codes, 1.2 Proper selection of acoustic emission technique
standards, and specifications. The NDT Level III should have 1.2.1 Instrumentation and signal processing
sufficient practical background in applicable materials, 1.2.1.1 Cables (types)
fabrication, and product technology to establish techniques and 1.2.1.2 Signal conditioning
to assist in establishing acceptance criteria where none are 1.2.1.3 Signal detection
otherwise available. The NDT Level III should have general 1.2.1 .4 Noise discrimination
familiarity with other appropriate NDT methods as 1.2.1.5 日ectronic technique
demonstrated by the ASNT Level III Basic Examination or other 1.2.1.6 Attenuation materials
means. The NDT Level III, in the methods in which certified, 1.2.1.7 Data filtering techniques
should be capable of training and examining NDT Level I and 1.3 Interpretation and evaluation of test results
Level II personnel for certification in those methods.
References
Miller, R.K. and E.vK. Hill, technical eds.; P.O. Moore, ed.
Nondestructive Testing Handbook, third edition: Volume 6, Acoustic
Emission Testing. Columbus, OH: The American Society fbr
Nondestructive Testing. 2005.
Workman, G.L., technical ed.; P.O. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing
Handbook, third edition: Volume 10, Nondestructive Testing Overview.
Columbus, OH: The American Society fbr Nondestructive Testing. 2012.

49
 Basic I SECTION II

Acoustic Emission Testing Review Questions 6. The kaiser effect is useful in distinguishing:

1. The most common range of acoustic emission a. electrical noise from mechanical noise.
testing is: b. electrical noise from growing discontinuities.
c. mechanical noise from growing discontinuities.
a. 10-15 kHz. d. electrical noise from continuous emissions.
b. 100-300 kHz.
c. 500-750 kHz. 7. The term “counts" refers to the:
d. 1-5 MHz.
a. number of times a signal crosses a preset
2. Discontinuities that are not readily detectable by threshold.
acoustic emission testing are: b. number of events from a source.
c. number of transducers required to perform a test.
a. leaks. d. duration of hold periods.
b. plastic deformation.
c. growing cracks. 8. The acoustic emission signal amplitude is related to:
d. rounded inclusions.
a. the preset threshold.
3. The total energy loss of a propagating wave is called: b. the intensity of the source.
c. the band pass filters.
a. scatter. d. background noises.
b. dispersion.
c. diffraction. 9. Threshold settings are determined by the:
d. attenuation.
a. graininess of the material.
4. The kaiser effect refers to: b. attenuation of the material.
c. test duration.
a. velocity changes due to temperature changes. d. background noise level.
b. low amplitude emissions from aluminum
structures. 10. Background noise can be reduced by:
c. the behavior where emission from a source will
not occur until the previous load is exceeded. a. electronic filtering.
d. emissions from dissimilar material interfaces. b. using flat response amplifiers.
c. using in-line amplifiers.
5. The felicity effect is useful in evaluating: d. using heavier gage coaxial cable.

a. fiber-reinforced plastic components.

b. high alloy castings.
c. large structural steel members.
d. ceramics.

50
 CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Method

日ectromagnetic Testing (ET) 3. Eddy current testing relies on the principle of:

Topical Outline a. magnetostriction.

b. electromagnetic induction.
1.0 Electromagnetic Testing c. piezoelectric energy conversion.
1.1 Fundamentals d. magnetomotive force.
1.1.1 Electromagnetic field generation
1.1.2 Properties of eddy current 4. When the electrical current in an eddy current coil
1.1.3 Effects of varying frequency reverses direction, the:
1.1.4 Phase discrimination
1.2 Electromagnetic testing a. direction of the eddy currents in the test part
1.2.1 Sensors remains the same.
1.2.2 Basic types of equipment; types of read out b. eddy currents in the test part will change phase by
1.2.3 Reference standards 45 degrees.
1.2.4 Applications and test result interpretation c. direction of the eddy currents in the test part also
1.2.4.1 Flaw detection reverses.
1.2.4.2 Conductivity and permeability d. eddy currents in the test part will change phase by
sorting 90 degrees.
1.2.4.3 Thickness gaging
1.2.4.4 Process control 5. In order to generate measurable eddy currents in a test
specimen, the specimen must be:
References
Udpa, S.S., technical ed.; RO. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing a. an electrical conductor.
Handbook, third edition, Volume 5, Electromagnetic Testing. Columbus, b. an electrical insulator.
OH: The American Society for Nondestructive Testing. 2004. c. a ferromagnetic material.
Workman, G.L., technical ed.; P.O. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing d. a nonmagnetic material.
Handbook, third edition: Volume 10, Nondestructive Testing Overview.
Columbus, OH: The American Society for Nondestructive Testing. 2012.
6. The magnetic field generated by eddy currents induced
in a test specimen:
Electromagnetic Testing Review Questions
a. opposes the magnetic field that induced the eddy
1. Eddy currents are circulating electrical currents currents.
induced in conductive materials by: b. reinforces the magnetic field that induced the eddy
currents.
a. continuous direct current. c. cancels the magnetic field that induced the eddy
b. gamma rays. currents.
c. an alternating magnetic field. d. has no effect on the magnetic field that induced the
d. a piezoelectric force. eddy currents.

2. The method used to generate eddy currents in a test 7. In eddy current testing, IACS is a recognized
specimen by means of a coil can most closely be abbreviation for:
compared with the action of a:
a. Induced Alternating Current System.
a. transformer. b. Inductively Activated Comparison System.
b. capacitor. c. Internal Applied Current System.
c. storage battery; d. International Annealed Copper Standard.
d. generator.
8. In eddy current testing, the specimen is coupled to the
test coil by:

a. core coupling.
b. magnetic saturation.
c. the coils electromagnetic fields.
d. magnetic domains.

51
 Basic I SECTION II

9. The penetration of eddy currents in a conductive 14. A term used to define the timing relationships
material is decreased when the: involved in alternating current signals is:

a. test frequency or conductivity of the specimen is a. magnitude.

decreased. b. phase.
b. test frequency is decreased or conductivity of the c. impedance.
specimen is increased. d. time-gain correction.
c. test frequency, conductivity of the specimen or
permeability of the specimen is increased. 15. The impedance of a test coil can be represented by the
d. permeability of the specimen is decreased. vector sum of:

10. At a fixed test frequency in which of the following a. inductive reactance and resistance.
materials will the eddy current penetration be b. capacitive reactance and resistance.
greatest? c. inductive reactance and capacitive reactance.
d. inductive reactance, capacitive reactance and
a. Aluminum (35% IACS conductivity). resistance.
b. Brass (15% IACS conductivity).
c. Copper (95% IACS conductivity). 16. Disadvantages of using a surface probe coil for the
d. Lead (7% IACS conductivity). eddy current inspection of small-diameter tubing
include:
11. A term used to describe the effect observed due to a
change in the coupling between a test specimen and a a. inability to detect small discontinuities.
flat probe coil when the distance of separation b. liftoff variations effect.
between them is varied is: c. inherent mechanical problems.
d. slow inherent speed.
a. fill factor.
b. edge effect. 17. The term "fill factor" applies to:
c. end effect.
d. liftoff. a. a surface coil.
b. coaxial cable.
12. When testing with eddy currents, discontinuities will c. an encircling coil.
be most easily detected when the eddy currents are: d. the ability to null an eddy current instrument.

a. coplanar with the major dimension of the 18. Which of the following materials would be more likely
discontinuity. used as a mounting material for a probe coil?
b. perpendicular to the major plane of the
discontinuity a. Aluminum.
c. parallel to the major dimension of the b. Plastic.
discontinuity; c. Copper.
d. 90 degrees out of phase with the current in the d. Nonferromagnetic steel.
coil.
19. Which of the following is not a commonly used eddy
13. Which of the following discontinuities is easiest to current testing read-out mechanism?
detect with an eddy current test? (Assume that the area
of the discontinuity is equal in all five choices listed.) a. Signal generator.
b. Meter.
a. A subsurface crack which lies parallel to the c. Cathode ray tube.
direction of the eddy current. d. Strip-chart recorder.
b. A discontinuity located in the center of a 51 mm
(2 in.) diameter bar.
c. A radial crack that extends to the outer surface of
a 51 mm (2 in.) diameter bar.
d. A subsurface radial crack located at a depth of
13 mm (0.5 in.) in a 51 mm (2 in.) diameter bar.

52
20. Reference standards used for eddy current testing: 24. Some of the products commonly tested using
encircling coils are:
a. must contain artificial discontinuities such as
notches and drilled holes. a. rods, tubes and wire.
b. must contain natural discontinuities such as cracks b. interior of hollow tubes.
and inclusions. c. sheets and metal foil.
c. must be free of measurable discontinuities, but d. square billets and plates.
may contain artificial or natural discontinuities or
may be free of discontinuities, depending on the 25. It is often possible to sort various alloys of a
test system and the type of test being conducted. nonmagnetic metal by means of an eddy current test
d. must be constructed from the same material of the when:
object being inspected.
a. there is a unique range of permeability values for
21. Which of the following conditions is not important each alloy;
when selecting specimens to be used as reference b. there is a unique range of conductivity values for
standards? each alloy.
c. the direction of induced eddy currents varies fbr
a. The specimen should be of the same size and each alloy;
shape as the test piece. d. the magnetic domains for each alloy are different.
b. The specimen should be of the same materials and
have the same heat treatment as the piece to be 26. When conducting eddy current testing on tubing with
tested. a system that includes a frequency discriminating
c. The surface finish of the specimen should be the circuit, which of the following variables would be
same as the piece to be tested. classified as a high frequency variable?
d. If the material is aluminum, the surface should be
anodized. a. Small discontinuities.
b. Conductivity changes.
22. Which of the following conditions would be the most c. Diameter changes.
difficult to detect when eddy current testing a rod d. Wall thickness variations.
using an encircling coil?
27. Which of the following is not a candidate fbr testing
a. A short surface crack that has a depth of 10% of by the eddy current method?
the rod diameter.
b. A small inclusion in the center of the rod. a. A 102 mm (4 in.) thick plate to be tested for
c. A 5% change in diameter. discontinuities throughout the plate.
d. A 10% change in conductivity. b. Tubing to be tested for surface cracks.
c. A rod to be tested for laps and seams.
23. The thickness of nonconductive coatings on a d. Tubing to be tested for variation in outside
conductive base can be most simply measured by: diameter.

a. observing the liftoff effect caused by the coating.

b. testing both sides of the specimen.
c. varying the test frequency over a given range
during the test.
d. using a specially shaped encircling coil.
Basic I SECTION II

Leak Testing (LT) 2. A helium mass spectrometer is used in which of the

following NDT techniques or methods?
Topical Outline
a. X-ray spectroscopy.
1.0 Leak Testing b. Optical holography.
1.1 Fundamentals c. Acoustic holography;
1.1.1 Bubble detection d. Leak testing.
1.1.2 Pressure change
1.1.3 Halogen diode detector 3. Which of the following is a technique of leak testing?
1.1.4 Mass spectrometer
1.2 Leak testing a. Static.
1.2.1 Systems factors b. Gaseous diffusion.
1.2.1.1 Relative sensitivity c. Dynamic.
1.2.1.2 Evacuated systems d. Detector probe.
1.2.1.3 Pressurized systems; ambient fluids,
tracer fluids 4. Potentially, the most sensitive leak testing technique is
1.2.1.4 Locating leaks the:
1.2.1.5 Calibration
1.2.2 Test result interpretation a. bubble test.
1.2.3 Essentials of safety b. pressure change test.
1.2.4 Test equipment c. mass spectrometer test.
1.2.5 Applications d. liquid penetrant test.
1.2.5.1 Piping and pressure vessels
1.2.5.2 Evacuated systems 5. Establishing differential pressure between the test
1 .2.5.3 Low pressure fluid containment object and environment is an essential element in
vessels, pipes and tubing which of the following NDT methods?
1.2.5.4 Hermetic seals
1.2.5.5 Electrical and electronic a. X-ray diffraction.
components b. Neutron radiography.
c. Leak testing.
References d. Eddy current testing.
Jackson, C. and C.N. Sherlock, technical eds.; P.O. Moore, ed.
Nondestructive Testing Handbook, third edition: Volume 1, Leak Testing. 6. Which of the following best describes the type of leak
Columbus, OH: The American Society for Nondestructive Testing. 1998. test used when the interior of the test object is
Workman, G.L., technical ed.; P.O. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing evacuated and a tracer gas is applied to the exterior,
Handbook, third edition: Volume 10, Nondestructive Testing Overview. while the leak detector is connected to the evacuating
Columbus, OH: The American Society for Nondestructive Testing. 2012.
system?

Leak Testing Review Questions a. Static leak test.

b. Helium leak test.
1. Which of the following systems or components are c. Dynamic leak test.
not good candidates for leak testing? d. Halogen leak test.

a. Piping and pressure vessels. 7. Assuming no significant leakage, if the temperature

b. Refrigeration piping. increased during a pressure drop leak test, the
c. Vacuum chambers. pressure in the system under test would:
d. Sintered material components.
a. increase.
b. remain the same.
c. decrease.
d. first increase, then decrease to its former level.

54
 CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Method

8. If the sensitivity of the halogen leak detector is References

constant throughout a test, which of the following is Tracy, N., technical ed.; P.O. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing
true upon completion of the test? Handbook, third edition: Volume 2, Liquid Penetrant Testing. Columbus,
OH: The American Society for Nondestructive Testing. 1999.
a. No leaks smaller than a certain size have gone Workman, G.L., technical ed.; 20. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing
undetected. Handbook, third edition: Volume 10, Nondestructive Testing Overview.
Columbus, OH: The American Society for Nondestructive Testing. 2012.
b. The total leak rate of the test object is less than a
certain amount.
c. The instrument and the test procedure were Liquid Penetrant Testing Review Questions
capable of detecting leakage of a certain size
during the test. 1. The tendency of a liquid penetrant to enter a
d. The instrument and test procedure were only- discontinuity is primarily related to:
capable of detecting leakage of a certain size
upstream of the tracer gas during the test. a. the viscosity of the penetrant.
b. capillary forces.
9. All leak detection methods are dependent upon: c. the chemical inertness of the penetrant.
d. the specific gravity of the penetrant.
a. barometric pressure.
b. gas or fluid flow. 2. Liquid penetrant testing is a nondestructive method
c. mass spectrometer analysis. that can be used for:
d. mean free paths of helium flow.
a. locating and evaluating all types of discontinuities
10. In an evacuated system, sensitivity of a pressure in a test specimen.
change leak test is dependent not only on the pressure b. locating and determining the length, width and
change observed, but also on the degree of outgassing. depth of discontinuities in a test specimen.
Outgassing is best defined as: c. determining the tensile strength of a test
specimen.
a. the viscosity of the pressurizing gas. d. locating discontinuities open to the surface.
b. being directly proportional to the temperature of
the gas. 3. Which of the following is not a characteristic that
c, the release of gas from materials in a vacuum. applies to liquid penetrant testing?
d. the drop in test pressure due to leakage from the
vacuum manifold. a. This method can accurately measure the depth of
a crack or discontinuity.
b. This method can be used fbr on-site testing of
Liquid Penetrant Testing (PT) large parts.
c. This method can be used to find shallow surface
Topical Outline discontinuities.
d. This method can be made more or less sensitive by
1.0 Liquid Penetrant Testing using different penetrant materials.
1.1 Fundamentals
1.1.1 Interaction of penetrants and discontinuity 4. The property of a dye used in penetrant materials to
openings emit light in the range of wavelengths different from
1.1.2 Fluorescence and contrast the wavelength of light that excites the emission is
1.2 Liquid penetrant testing called:
1.2.1 Penetrant processes
1,2.2 Test equipment and systems factors a. emissivity,
1.2.3 Test result interpretation; discontinuity b. irradiation.
indications c. spectrum blocking,
1.2.4 Applications d. fluorescence.
1.2.4.1 Castings
1.2.4.2 Welds
1.2.43 Wrought metals
1.2.4.4 Machined parts
1.2.4.5 Leaks
1.2.4.6 Field inspections
55
Basic I SECTION II

5. When using a fluorescent, post-emulsifier penetrant, 10. A problem with retesting a specimen that has been
the length of time the emulsifier is allowed to remain previously tested using liquid penetrant is that the:
on the part is critical for detecting shallow
discontinuities. The optimum length of time should a. penetrant may form beads on the surface.
be: b. penetrant residue left in discontinuities may not
readily dissolve and the retest may be misleading.
a. 10 seconds. c. penetrant will lose a great deal of its color
b. 5 seconds. brilliance.
c. 2-3 minutes. d. added penetrant will intensify the penetrant
d. determined by experimentation. residue, making indications larger than normal.

6. A red penetrant indication against white background 11. A commonly used method of checking the overall
is most likely to be seen when: performance of a penetrant material system is to:

a. dry developers are used. a. determine the viscosity of the penetrant.

b. visible dye penetrants are used. b. measure the wetability of the penetrant.
c. fluorescent post-emulsified penetrants are used. c. compare two sections of artificially cracked
d. ultraviolet light is used with visible dye penetrants. specimens.
d. check the penetrant contaminant levels.
7. The most widely accepted method for removing
excessive water-washable penetrant from the surface 12. The function of emulsifier in the post-emulsified
of a test specimen is by: penetrant process is to:

a. using a wet rag. a. more rapidly drive the penetrant into deep, tight
b. using a water spray rinse. cracks.
c. washing the part directly under water running b. react with the surface penetrant to make the
from a tap. penetrant water-washable.
d. immersing the part in water. c. add fluorescent dye or pigment to the penetrant.
d. emulsify surface oils and greases to facilitate their
8. Which of the following penetrant systems is generally- removal.
considered the least sensitive?
13. Which of the following statements does not apply to
a. Water-washable; visible dye. developers used during penetrant testing?
b. Solvent-removable; visible dye.
c. Water-washable; fluorescent dye. a. Developers are normally highly fluorescent.
d. Post-emulsified; visible dye. b. Some developers furnish a contrasting
background during inspection.
9. When performing a liquid penetrant test using c. Developers absorb or blot the penetrant that
solvent-removable visible dye penetrant, there are remains in discontinuities after the excess
several ways to remove excess penetrant from the penetrant has been removed.
surface of the part. Which of the methods listed below d. Nonaqueous developers are better suited for
is generally regarded as most suitable for giving detecting fine cracks.
accurate test results?
14. The penetrant indication for a cold shut on the surface
a. Squirting solvent over the surface with no more of a casting will normally be:
than 10 psi pressure.
b. Wiping with a solvent-soaked cloth, then wiping a. a dotted line.
with a dry cloth. b. a large bulbous indication.
c. Wiping with a solvent-dampened cloth, then c. a smooth continuous line.
wiping with dry cloths. d. undetectable since cold shuts are closed over on
d. Wiping with dry wipes, then wiping with a the surface.
solvent-dampened cloth and finally wiping with a
dry cloth.

56
 CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Method

15. A crack-type discontinuity will generally appear as: 21. Which of the following statements is true when using
penetrants for leak detection?
a. a rounded indication.
b. a continuous line, either straight or jagged. a. Surfaces do not have to be clean.
c. a broad, fuzzy indication. b. Only one side has to be accessible.
d. random round or elongated holes. c. Penetrant can be diluted in water for hydro testing,
d. Only visible penetrants can be used.
16. In a penetrant test, scattered round indications on the
surface of a part could be indicative of: 22. Which of the following is a discontinuity that might
be found in rolled bar stock?
a. fatigue cracks.
b. porosity. a. Blow holes.
c. weld laps. b. Shrinkage laps.
d. hot tears. c. Cracks or seams.
d. Insufficient penetration.
17. Which of the following are typical nonrelevant
indications found in penetrant testing? 23. Anodized surfaces are usually considered poor
candidates for high sensitivity liquid penetrant
a. Indications due to part geometry or part design examination because the anodizing process produces
configurations. a conversion layer that:
b. Nonmagnetic indications.
c. Nonlinear indications. a. is extremely smooth and slick.
d. Indications on low-stressed areas of the part. b. has a multitude of extremely small pores.
c. may have alkaline residue that "quenches" the
18. Which of the statements below best states the results penetrant.
of sandblasting for cleaning surfaces to be penetrant d. cannot be cleaned by ordinary processes.
tested?
24. Which of the following penetrant methods does not
a. Discontinuities may be closed. normally require a source of electricity to properly
b. Oil contaminants might be sealed in the conduct a test?
discontinuities.
c. The sand used in the sandblasting operation may a. Water-washable fluorescent penetrant method.
be forced into the discontinuity. b. Postemulsified fluorescent penetrant method.
d. The sandblasting operation may introduce c. Visible dye penetrant method.
discontinuities into the part. d. Hydrophylic fluorescent penetrant method.

19. The penetrant indication of a forging lap will 25. Which of the following statements is true concerning
normally be a: penetrant testing of welds with rough surfaces?

a. round or nearly round indication. a. The post-emulsified process offers advantages over
b. cluster of indications. the water-washable process.
c. thin continuous line. b. Welds with rough surfaces may need to be ground
d. dotted line. smooth prior to penetrant testing.
c. If the solvent removal process is used, the best
20. Aluminum alloy test specimens that have been tested developer would be an aqueous suspension.
by the liquid penetrant method should be thoroughly d. Welds with rough surfaces cannot be successfully
cleaned after testing because: tested by any penetrant method.

a. acid in the penetrant may cause severe corrosion.

b. the alkalines in wet developers and most
emulsifiers could cause surface pitting, particularly
in moist atmospheres.
c. the oily residue from the test will severely inhibit
the application of paint on aluminum alloys.
d. a chemical reaction between the penetrant and
aluminum could cause a fire.
57
Basic I SECTION II

Magnetic Flux Leakage Testing (MFL) 3. What particular type of discontinuity would not
typically be indicated by magnetic flux leakage
Topical Outline techniques?

1.0 Magnetic Flux Leakage Testing a. Laps.

1.1 Fundamentals b. Pitting with cracking.
1.1.1 Magnetic field principles c. Surface contamination.
1.1.2 Magnetization by means of electric current d. Longitudinal seams.
1.1.3 Flux leakage
1.2 Flux leakage inspection 4. The strength of the magnetic field in the interior of a
1.2.1 Basic types of equipment and inspection coil is determined by the:
materials
1.2.2 Types of discontinuities found by magnetic a. number of turns in the coil only;
flux leakage inspection b. strength of applied current only.
1.2.3 Sensors used in magnetic flux leakage c. number of turns in the coil and the strength of the
inspection applied current.
1.2.4 Applications d. direction of applied current in the coil.
1.2.4.1 Wire rope inspection
1.2.4.2 Pipe body inspection 5. The current used for magnetization when performing
1.2.4.3 Tank floor/steel plate inspection magnetic flux leakage inspection must be a:

References a. steady nonfluctuating current.

Moore, D.G., technical ed.; RO. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing b. current that reverses direction at a consistent rate.
Handbook, third edition: Volume 8, Magnetic Testing. Columbus, OH; c. current that fluctuates on and off at a consistent
The American Society for Nondestructive Testing. 2008. rate.
Udpa, S.S., technical ed.; RO. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing d. current that varies based on the thickness of the
Handbook, third edition: Volume 5, Electromagnetic Testing. Columbus, material.
OH: The American Society for Nondestructive Testing. 2004.
Workman, G.L., technical ed.; RO. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing 6. As a general rule, hard (high strength) ferromagnetic
Handbook, third edition: Volume 10, Nondestructive Testing Overview.
Columbus, OH: The American Society for Nondestructive Testing. 2012.
materials have:

a. high coercive force and are easily demagnetized.

Magnetic Flux Leakage Testing Review Questions b. high coercive force and are not easily
demagnetized.
1. In magnetic flux leakage inspection for discontinuities c. low coercive force and are easily demagnetized.
using an active field, the part being inspected should d. low coercive force and are not easily
be magnetized: demagnetized.

a. beyond saturation. 7. In magnetic flux leakage testing, the greatest tube wall
b. to saturation or near saturation. thickness for which maximum sensitivity can be
c. well below saturation. maintained is:
d. near the point of maximum permeability
a. 0.08 mm (0.003 in.).
2. An advantage that magnetic flux leakage testing has in b. 0.8 mm (0.03 in.).
comparison with eddy current testing is that magnetic c. 8 mm (0.318 in.).
flux leakage testing is: d. 76 mm (3 in.).

a. less sensitive to interferences caused by surface

roughness.
b. useful on products at temperatures above the curie
point.
c. useful on austenitic steels.
d. easier to use on ferromagnetic materials.

58
MM

8. In the examination of above-ground storage tanks Magnetic Particle Testing (MT)

where the flux sensor is on the top surface:
Topical Outline
a. only top surface discontinuities are detected.
b. only bottom surface discontinuities are detected. 1.0 Magnetic Partide Testing
c. both top and bottom surface discontinuities can be 1.1 Fundamentals
detected but generally cannot be distinguished 1.1.1 Magnetic field principles
from each other. 1.1.2 Magnetization by means of electric current
d. both top and bottom surface discontinuities can 1.1.3 Demagnetization
be detected and can generally be distinguished 1.2 Magnetic particle inspection
from each other. 1.2.1 Basic types of equipment and inspection
materials
9. Materials that are weakly repelled magnetically are 1.2.2 Test results interpretation; discontinuity
called: indications
1.2.3 Applications
a. diamagnetic. 1.2.3.1 Welds
b. nonmagnetic. 1.2.3.2 Castings
c. paramagnetic. 1.2.3.3 Wrought metals
d. ferromagnetic. 1.2.3.4 Machined parts
1.23.5 Field applications
10. A break in the magnetic uniformity of a part that is
called a magnetic discontinuity is related to a sudden References
change in: Moore, D.G., technical ed.; P.O. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing
Handbook, third edition: Volume 8, Magnetic Testing. Columbus, OH;
a. resistivity The American Society for Nondestructive Testing. 2008.
b. inductance. Workman, G.L., technical ed.; RO. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing
c. permeability Handbook, third edition: Volume 10, Nondestructive Testing Overview.
Columbus, OH: The American Society for Nondestructive Testing. 2012.
d. capacitance.

11. A hysteresis curve describes the relation between: Magnetic Particle Testing Review Questions

a. magnetizing force and flux density 1. Which of the following materials cannot be tested by
b. magnetizing force and applied current. magnetic particle techniques?
c. strength of magnetism and alignment of domains
within material. a. High alloy steels.
d. magnetic flux density and the current generated. b. Tool steels.
c. Copper alloys.
12. When inspecting wire rope, a magnetic flux loop is d. Ferritic stainless steels.
used to monitor:
2. Materials that are strongly attracted to a magnet are
a. broken external wires. called:
b. broken internal wires.
c. changes in inspection speed. a. magnetized.
d. reductions in cross-sectional area. b. nonmagnetic.
c. ferromagnetic.
d. magnetic.

59
Basic I SECTION II

3. Magnetic lines of force (magnetic fields) are oriented 8. Which of the following is a major disadvantage of
in what direction in relation to the direction of the using prods?
magnetizing current?
a. The magnetic field may be applied in the wrong
a. Parallel. direction.
b. At right angles. b. The inspection surface may be arc burned.
c. At a 45 degree angle. c. Magnetic saturation may occur.
d. At random angles. d. The operator's eyes may be burned by arc strikes.

4. Magnetizing flux is a term that relates to: 9. Inspecting a part by applying the magnetic particle
suspension while the current is flowing is called the:
a. describing the direction of current flow in an
electromagnet. a. continuous method.
b. the manner by which magnetism flows through b. dry method.
space. c. residual method.
c. the lines of force associated with a magnetic field, d. demagnetization method.
d. permanent magnets only
10. How is the inside diameter of a cylinder best
5. Subjecting a part to a magnetic field that is constantly magnetized?
reversing in polarity and gradually diminishing in
strength accomplishes which of the following? a. By a head shot.
b. By using prods at either end.
a. Magnetization of the part. c. With a central conductor placed between contact
b. Demagnetization of the part. heads.
c. The residual magnetism is increased. d. With the cylinder placed crosswise in a solenoid.
d. Location of deep-lying discontinuities.
11. The amount of amperage used for magnetic particle
6. Circular magnetization is useful in the detection of: inspection using prods is based on the distance
between the prods and the:
a. circumferential cracks.
b. longitudinal cracks. a. thickness of the part.
c. cracks in cylindrical parts at right angles to the b. length of the prods.
long axis of the part. c. diameter of the prods.
d. deep-lying discontinuities. d. total length of the part.

7. In which magnetizing method is the current passed 12. Demagnetization of a part is usually not necessary if
directly through the part, thereby setting up a the part is:
magnetic field at right angles to the current flow?
a. small.
a. Longitudinal magnetization. b. inspected with the continuous method.
b. Coil magnetization. c. to be hardened by heat treatment after inspection,
c. Central conductor magnetization. d. high carbon steel to be welded after inspection.
d. Circular magnetization.

60
13. Which of the following is an advantage of the dry 18. A requirement to use magnetic particle testing on a
technique over the wet technique? part should also include:

a. It is more sensitive for detecting fine surface a. a fabrication and service manual.
cracks. b. a statement on the drawing that requires a
b. It is more capable of providing full surfece magnetic particle test.
coverage on irregularly shaped parts. c. the procedure to be used and acceptance criteria.
c. It is easier to use for field inspection with portable d. the method of test and service conditions.
equipment.
d. It is faster when testing many small parts. 19. The statement that magnetic particle testing can be
applied to plated and painted parts:
14. Fluorescent magnetic particles are used in preference
to visible magnetic particles: a. is true regardless of the thickness of the coating.
b. may be true if flux densities are increased to
a. when parts are big and bulky compensate for the coating thickness.
b. when working in the field. c. is true only for circular magnetism.
c. if parts are for railroad applications. d. is not true under any circumstances.
d. to increase the speed and reliability of detecting
very small discontinuities. 20. The best type of magnetizing current for inspection of
fatigue cracks is:
15. The most versatile type of magnetic particle
equipment is: a. direct current.
b. alternating current.
a. a field kit. c. half-wave direct current.
b. the stationary horizontal machine. d. full-wave rectified direct current.
c. the mobile power unit.
d. the automatic machine. 21. A star-shaped indication is seen on the cover pass of a
weld. What type of discontinuity is indicated?
16. Magnetic particle inspection methods are recognized
as superior to liquid penetrant techniques when the: a. Cooling crack.
b. Crater crack.
a. surfaces of the test object are corroded. c. Slag inclusion.
b. surface is anodized. d. Arc burn.
c. parts are painted.
d. part is made from austenitic steel. 22. For maximum sensitivity in magnetic particle
inspection of rough welds:
17. When using direct current, an indication is detected.
What is the next logical step to determine if the a. the weld should be wire brushed to remove slag
indication results from a surface or subsurface and scale.
condition? b. standard test weldments should be used for
comparison.
a. Reinspect using the surge method. c. the weld bead should be coated with lacquer.
b. Demagnetize and apply powder. d. the weld bead should be ground flush with the
c. Reinspect at higher amperage. plate surfaces.
d. Reinspect using alternating current.

61
Basic I SECTION II

Neutron Radiographic Testing (NR) 3. A radioactive source used for neutron radiography is:

Topical Outline a. Pu-239.

b. Co-60.
1.0 Neutron Radiographic Testing c. Cs-137.
1.1 Fundamentals d. Cf-252.
1.1.1 Sources
1.1.1.1 X-ray 4. The energy of the neutron is expressed in which of the
1.1.1.2 Isotopic following units of measurement?
1.1.1.3 Neutron
1.1.2 Detectors a. Curies (becquerels).
1.1.2.1 Imaging b. Roentgens (coulombs per kilogram).
1.1.2.2 Nonimaging c. Rems (sieverts).
1.1.3 Nature of penetrating radiation and d. Electronvolts.
interactions with matter
1.1.4 Essentials of safety 5. A normally desirable feature of a thermal neutron
1.2 Neutron radiographic testing beam for neutron radiography is:
1.2.1 Basic imaging considerations
1.2.2 Test result interpretation; discontinuity a. background gamma radiation intensity;
indications b. relatively low fast-neutron intensity:
1.2.3 Systems factors (source/test object/detector c. low angular divergence.
interactions) d. relatively high thermal neutron intensity.
1.2.4 Applications
1.2.4.1 Explosives and pyrotechnic devices 6. Material that slows down neutrons is called:
1.2.4.2 Assembled components
1.2.4.3 Bonded components a. a moderator.
1.2.4.4 Corrosion detection b. an accumulator.
1.2.4.5 Nonmetallic materials c. a limitor.
d. a collimator.
Reference
Bossi, R.H., F.A. Iddings and G.C. Wheeler, technical eds.; P.O. Moore, 7. The primary radiation mechanism fbr darkening
ed. Nondestructive Testing Handbook, third edition: Volume 4, X-ray film when the direct neutron radiography
Radiographic Testing. Columbus, OH: The American Society for process is used with gadolinium screens is:
Nondestructive Testing. 2002.
a. alpha particles.
Neutron Radiographic Testing Review Questions b. electrons.
c. gamma rays.
1. The highest intensity sources of thermal neutrons are: d. light emission.

a. Cf-252 isotopes. 8. Neutron radiography using the transfer method

b. accelerators. requires that the imaging screen must:
c. nuclear fission reactors.
d. cosmic radiation. a. be placed behind the film.
b. be placed in front of the film.
2. Neutrons for fast-neutron radiography are not c. be very thin.
obtainable from: d. become radioactive.

a. accelerators.
b. radioactive sources.
c. reactors.
d. X-ray machines.

62
 CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Method

9. Which of the following neutron radiography converter 1 5. The main reason fbr using neutron radiography in
foils cannot be used for transfer or indirect place of X-radiography is:
radiography?
a. a lower cost.
a. Dysprosium. b. higher resolution.
b. Indium. c. the ability to image objects and materials not
c. Gadolinium. possible with X-rays.
d. Gold. d. it is a simpler radiographic procedure when
required than X-radiography.
10. The most suitable films for producing neutron
radiographs are: 16. A photographic record produced by the passage of
neutrons through a specimen onto a film is called:
a. red sensitive films.
b. instant-type films. a. a fluoroscopic image.
c. industrial X-ray films. b. a radiograph.
d. emulsions that contain no silver halides. c. an isotopic reproduction.
d. a track-etch photograph.
11. Materials that are exposed to thermal neutron beams:
17. Many of the absorption differences between neutrons
a. must not be handled fbr at least and X-rays indicate that the two techniques:
3 min after exposure has ceased.
b. must be stored in a lead-lined room. a. cause radiation problems.
c. may be radioactive after exposure to neutrons has b. complement each other.
ceased. c. can be used interchangeably
d. should be monitored by means of a neutron d. can both be used to image hydrogenous materials
counter. equally well.

12. Lead is: 18. The penetrating ability of a thermal neutron beam is
governed by:
a. a good neutron shield.
b. corroded by neutron exposures. a. attenuating characteristics of the material being
c. a relatively poor neutron absorber. penetrated.
d. an efficient conversion screen. b. exposure time.
c. source-to -film distance.
13. If 2 mm (0.08 in.) of plastic attenuates a thermal d. thickness of the converter screen.
neutron beam by a factor of 2, then 20 mm (0.8 in.)
will attenuate it by approximately a factor of: 19. The transfer exposure method is used because:

a. 10. a. it is not influenced by gamma radiation in the

b. 20. primary beam.
c. 200. b. it produces greater radiographic sensitivity than
d. 1000. direct exposure using gadolinium.
c. it is faster than the direct exposure method.
14. Materials in common usage for moderation of d. the screens used in this method emit only internal
fast-neutron sources include: conversion electrons of about 70 keV

a. aluminum, magnesium and tin.

b. water, plastic, paraffin and graphite.
c. neon, argon and xenon.
d. tungsten, cesium, antimony and columbium.

63
Basic I SECTION II

20. Higher resolution can be achieved in direct neutron 24. For inspection of radioactive objects or those that
radiography by: emit gamma radiation when bombarded with
neutrons, a preferable detection technique is the:
a. placing a lead intensifying screen between a
gadolinium screen and film. a. direct exposure technique.
b. increasing the L/D ratio of the collimation system, b. transfer technique.
c. increasing the exposure time. c. isotopic reproduction technique.
d. increasing the distance between the object and the d. electrostatic-belt generator technique.
film cassette.
25. Neutron radiography is an excellent tool for
21. The primary advantage of using a Cf-252 source for determining:
neutron radiography is its:
a. the coating thickness of aluminum oxide on
a. portability. anodized aluminum.
b. low cost per unit neutron flux compared to other b. the size of voids in thick steel castings.
neutron radiographic sources. c. the integrity of thin plastic material within a steel
c. high resolution. housing.
d. long useful life. d. tungsten inclusions in GTAW welds.

22. Quality of the results from a neutron radiographic 26. Neutron radiography extends radiographic capability
exposure is best determined by: for detecting cracks in small cylinders of:

a. reference standards. a. aluminum.

b. image quality indicators. b. iron.
c. neutron flux measurement. c. magnesium.
d. densitometer readings. d. plutonium.

23. The radiographic image of flaws in the imaging 27. Which of the following is not a preferred application
screens can be separated from actual flaws in a part of neutron radiography?
being radiographed by:
a. Detecting the presence or absence of explosive
a. producing a photographic copy of the original material contained within a metal device.
neutron radiograph using X-ray duplicating film. b. Detecting the presence of water in the cells of
b. comparing a neutron radiograph of the parts to a stainless steel honeycomb.
blank neutron radiograph of the same imaging c. Detecting the proper alignment of a rubber seal in
screen with no parts in place. a small steel valve assembly
c. increasing the exposure time of the radiograph. d. Detecting the presence of a lead rupture
d. decreasing the temperature of the developer diaphragm in a small aluminum safety valve
solution. assembly

64
Radiographic Testing 2. Two X-ray machines operating at the same nominal
kilovoltage and milliamperage settings:
Topical Outline
a. will produce the same intensities and energies of
1 .0 Radiographic Testing* radiation.
1.1 Fundamentals b. will produce the same intensities but may produce
1.1.1 Sources different energies of radiation.
1.1.1.1 Castings c. will produce the same energies but may produce
1.1.1.2 Welds different intensities of radiation.
1.1.1.3 Assemblies d. may give not only different intensities but also
1.1.1.4 Electronic components different energies of radiation.
1.1.1.5 Field inspections
1.1.2 Detectors 3. Short wavelength electromagnetic radiation produced
1.1.2.1 Imaging during the disintegration of nuclei of radioactive
1.1.2.2 Nonimaging substances is called:
1.1.3 Nature of penetrating radiation and
interactions with matter a. X-radiation.
1.1.4 Essentials of safety b. gamma radiation.
1.2 Radiographic testing c. scatter radiation.
1.2.1 Basic imaging considerations d. beta radiation.
1.2.2 Test result interpretation; discontinuity
indications 4. Almost all gamma radiography is performed with:
1.2.3 Systems factors (source/test object/detector
interactions) a. natural isotopes.
1.2.4 Applications b. artificially produced isotopes.
1.2.4.1 Castings c. Radium.
1.2.4.2 Welds d. Co-60.
1.2.4.3 Assemblies
1 .2.4.4 Electronic components 5. The energy of gamma rays is expressed by which of
1.2.4.5 Field inspections the following units of measurement?
"The topical outline in the Basic Examination Level III section of
CP-105 (2011) is for radiographic testing. Per SNT-TC-1A (2011), a. Curie (gigabecquerel).
radiographic testing is considered a technique of the radiological b. Roentgen (coulomb per kilogram).
testing (RT) method. c. Half-life.
d. Kiloelectronvolts (keV) or millions of
References electronvolts (MeV).
Bossi, R.H., F.A. Iddings and G.C. Wheeler, technical eds.; P.O. Moore,
ed. Nondestructive Testing Handbook third edition: Volume 4, 6. Of the following, the source providing the most
Radiographic Testing. Columbus, OH: The American Society fbr penetrating radiation is:
Nondestructive Testing. 2002.
W)rkman, G.L., technical ed.; P.O. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing a. Co-60.
Handbook, third edition: Volume 10, Nondestructive Testing Overview.
Columbus, OH: The American Society for Nondestructive Testing. 2012.
b. 220 kVp X-ray tube.
c. 15 MeV betatron.
d. electrons from Ir-192.
Radiographic Testing Review Questions
7. Common sources of neutrons for neutron
1• The penetrating ability of an X-ray beam is governed radiography are:

a. electron linear accelerators.

a. kilovoltage or wavelength, b. isotopes of cobalt (eg, Co-60).
b. time. c. nuclear reactors.
c. milliamperage. d. betatrons.
d. source-to-film distance.

65
Basic I SECTION II

8. The difference between the densities of two areas of a 13. Exposure to small doses of X-rays or gamma rays:
radiograph is called:
a. has a cumulative effect that must be considered
a. radiographic contrast. when monitoring for maximum permissible dose.
b. subject contrast. b. is beneficial because it serves to build an immunity
c. film contrast. in humans to radiation poisoning.
d. definition. c. will have no effect on human beings.
d. will have only a short-term effect on human
9. The fact that gases, when bombarded by radiation, tissues.
ionize and become electrical conductors makes them
useful in: 14. Which of the following technique variables is most
commonly used to adjust subject contrast?
a. X-ray transformers.
b. fluoroscopes. a. Source-to-film distance.
c. masks. b. Milliamperage.
d. radiation detection equipment. c. Kilovoltage.
d. Focal spot size.
10. The reason exposure time must be increased by a
factor of four when the source-to-film distance is 15. A basic difference between a radiograph and a
doubled is that the: fluoroscopic image is that:

a. intensity of radiation decreases at an exponential a. the fluoroscopic image is more sensitive.

rate when the source-to-film distance is increased. b. the fluoroscopic image is positive whereas the
b. energy of radiation is inversely proportional to the radiographic image is negative.
square root of the distance from the source to the c. the fluoroscopic image is brighter.
film. d. there is no basic difference between the two.
c. intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to
the square of the distance from the source to the 16. Thin sheets of lead foil in intimate contact with X-ray
film. film during exposure increase film density because
d. scattered radiation effect is greater as the they:
source-to-film distance increases.
a. fluoresce and emit visible light, which helps expose
11. The most important factor in X-ray absorption of a the film.
specimen is: b. absorb the scattered radiation.
c. prevent backscattered radiation from fogging the
a. the thickness of the specimen. film.
b. the density of the specimen. d. emit electrons when exposed to X- and gamma
c. the atomic number of the material. radiation, which helps to darken the film.
d. Ibung's modulus of the material.
17. When viewing a radiograph, an image of the back of
12. The maximum permissible dose per quarter of a the cassette super-imposed on the image of the
calendar year is 12 mSv (1.25 rem) for: specimen is noted. This is most likely due to:

a. hands, feet, forearms and ankles. a. undercut.

b. skin of the whole body b. overexposure.
c. whole body; head and active blood-forming c. X-ray intensity being too high.
organs; lens of eyes; and gonads. d. backscattered radiation.
d. a fetus from occupational exposure of a declared
pregnant woman.

66
18. An image quality indicator (IQI) is used to measure 23. The fact that each solid crystalline substance produces
the: its own characteristic X-ray pattern is the basis for:

a. size of discontinuities in a part. a. xeroradiography

b. density of the film. b. fluoroscopic testing.
c. amount of radiation that penetrates the test object, c. polymorphic testing.
d. quality of the radiographic technique. d. X-ray diffraction testing.

19. In film radiography, IQIs are usually placed: 24. When inspecting a light metal casting by fluoroscopy,
which of the following discontinuities would most
a. between the intensifying screen and the film. likely be detected?
b. on the source side of the test object.
c. on the film side of the test object. a. Copper shrinkage.
d. between the operator and the radiation source. b. Microshrinkage.
c. Shrinkage.
20. At voltages above 400 kY the use of lead to provide d. Fine cracks.
protection may present serious structural problems. If
this should be a serious problem, which of the 25. For testing a 25 mm (1 in.) steel plate 305 mm (12 in.)
following materials would most likely be used as a square for laminar discontinuities, which of the
substitute? following would be most effective?
a. Aluminum. a. Ir-192,3.7TBq(100 Ci).
b. Concrete. b. Co-60, 925 GBq (25 Ci).
c. Steel. c. 250 kVp X-ray machine.
d. Boron. d. An ultrasonic device.

21. A distinctive characteristic of megavolt radiography is 26. A critical weld was made with a double V-groove.
that it: Among those listed, which radiographic technique
would provide coverage with the greatest probability
a. results in comparatively high subject contrast. for detecting the most serious discontinuities?
b. results in comparatively high radiographic
contrast. a. A single exposure centered on the weld and
c. is applicable to comparatively thick or highly perpendicular to the principal surface of the plate.
absorbing specimens. b. Two exposures aligned with the
d. is utilized fbr stainless steels only V-groove, fbcus ±30° off perpendicular.
c. Iwo exposures, perpendicular to the plate, offset
22. Given the radiographic equivalency factors of 1.4 for by the width of the weld bead.
Inconel™ and 1.0 for 304 stainless steel, what is the d. A single exposure as in a, above, but with two films
approximate equivalent thickness of Inconel™ to aligned ±30° off perpendicular.
produce the same exposure as a 3.8 mm (0.15 in.)
thickness of 304 stainless steel? 27. A fuse assembly is radiographed so that
measurements can be made on the film to determine a
a. 3 mm (0.11 in.). minimum internal clearance dimension. What should
b. 9 mm (0.35 in.). be factored into the dimension taken from the film?
c. 18 mm (0.7 in.).
d. 36 mm (1.4 in.). a. Projection magnification.
b. Film latitude.
c. Slope of the characteristic curve.
d. Image quality indicator (IQI) alignment.

67
Basic I SECTION II

28. Miniature electronic components are to be References

radiographically inspected to reveal broken copper Maidague, X.P.V, technical ed.; P.O. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing
wire leads of 0.2 mm (0.008 in.) diameter. Which of Handbook, third edition: Volume 3, Infrared and Thermal Testing.
Columbus, OH; The American Society for Nondestructive Testing.
the following image quality indicators (IQIs) would be
2001.
most effective to use in establishing a reliable
Wolfe, W.L. and GJ. Ziessis, eds. The Infrared Handbook. The
technique? Environmental Research Institute of Michigan (prepared for the
Department of Navy). 1985.
a. A series of steel plaque-type IQIs ranging in Workman, G.L., technical ed.; RO. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing
thickness from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm Handbook, third edition: Volume 10, Nondestructive Testing Overview.
(0.015 in.), containing 1T,2T and 4T holes. Columbus, OH: The American Society for Nondestructive Testing. 2012.
b. A plastic block with the radiographic thickness
equivalent of the test objects, containing Thermal/lnfrared Testing Review Questions
precision-drilled holes ranging from 0.1 mm
(0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm (0.015 in.) diameter. 1. Thermal resistance is:
c. A plastic block with the radiographic thickness
equivalent of the test objects, containing copper a. analogous to electrical current.
wires ranging from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to b. a material's impedance to heat flow.
0.4 mm (0.015 in.) diameter. c. proportional to the fourth power of emissivity
d. A series of copper shims ranging in thickness from d. proportional to the rate of heat flow.
0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm (0.015 in.),
containing 1/2T and IT holes. 2. Conductive heat transfer cannot take place:

a. across a vacuum.
Thermal/lnfrared Testing (IR) b. within organic materials such as wood.
c. between two solid materials in contact.
Topical Outline d. between dissimilar metals.

1.0 Thermal/lnfrared Testing 3. The infrared/ thermal energy emitted from a target
1.1 Fundamentals surface:
1.1.1 Principles and theory of thermal/infrared
testing a. occurs only in a vacuum.
1.1.2 Temperature measurement principles b. is proportional to the fourth power of the absolute
1.1.3 Proper selection of thermal/infrared technique surface temperature.
1.2 Equipment/materials c. is inversely proportional to surface emissivity.
1.2.1 Temperature measurement equipment d. is totally absorbed by water vapor in the air.
1.2.2 Heat flux indicators
1.23 Noncontact devices 4. Thermal radiation reaching the surface of a thermally
1.3 Applications opaque object will only be:
1.3.1 Contact temperature indicators
1.3.2 Noncontact pyrometers a. absorbed by the surface.
1.3.3 Line-scanners b. absorbed and reflected by the surface.
1.3.4 Thermal imaging c. reflected by the surface.
1.3.5 Heat flux indicators d. transmitted and absorbed by the surface.
1.3.6 Exothermic or endothermic investigations
1.3.7 Friction investigations 5. The following spectral band is included in the infrared
1.3.8 Fluid flow investigations spectrum:
1.3.9 Thermal resistance investigations
1.3.10 Thermal capacitance investigations a. 0.1-5.5 |im.
1.4 Interpretation and evaluation b. 0.3-10.6 pm.
c. 0.4-20 |im.
d. 0.75-100 pm.

68
 CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Method

6. As a surface cools, the peak of its radiated infrared 12. The minimum resolvable temperature difference is a
energy: subjective measurement that depends on:

a. shifts to longer wavelengths. a. the infrared imaging systems spatial resolution

b. shifts to shorter wavelengths. only.
c. remains constant if emissivity remains constant. b. the infrared imaging system's thermal sensitivity
d. remains constant even if emissivity varies. and spatial resolution.
c. the infrared imaging system's measurement
7. A graybody surface with an emissivity of 0.04 would resolution only;
be: d. the infrared imaging system's minimum spot size.

a. transparent to infrared radiation. 13. The spatial resolution of an instrument is related to

b. a fairly good emitter. the:
c. almost a perfect reflector.
d. almost a perfect emitter. a. instantaneous field of view and the working
distance.
8. If a surface has an emissivity of 0.35 and a reflectivity b. thermal resolution.
of 0.45, its transmissivity would be: c. spectral band width.
d. system responsivity.
a. impossible to determine without additional
information. 14. The noise equivalent temperature difference (NETD)
b. 0.80. of an thermal infrared imager tends to:
c. 0.10.
d. 0.20. a. improve as the target temperature increases.
b. degrade as the target temperature increases.
9. The spectral band in which glass transmits infrared c. remain constant regardless of the target
radiation most efficiently is the: temperature.
d. improve with increasing working distance.
a. 3-6 pm region.
b. 2-3 pm region. 15. The 3-5 |im spectral region is well suited for the
c. 6-9 pm region. inspection of materials that exhibit:
d. 9-11 pm region.
a. distinct spectral characteristics limiting inspection
10. Infrared thermal detectors: to 3-5 |im. •
b. measuring targets at extremely long working
a. have a broad, flat spectral response. distances.
b. have much faster response times than photon c. measuring targets warmer than 200 (392 °F).
detectors. d. operating at elevated ambient temperatures.
c. usually require cooling to operate properly;
d. have much greater sensitivity than photon 16. When measuring the temperature of glass while using
detectors. a mid-wave (3-5 pm) infrared imaging system, which
of the following steps is necessary?
11. A diffuse reflecting surface is:
a. Use a 3.2 11m low-pass filter.
a. a polished surface that reflects incoming energy at b. Use a 3.9 11m band-pass filter.
a complementary angle. c. Use a 5 pm high-pass filter.
b. a surface that scatters reflected energy in many d. No filter is necessary if using the same emissivity
directions. setting used with long-wave imaging systems.
c. also called a specular reflecting surface.
d. highly transparent to infrared radiation.

69
Basic I SECTION II

17. A line scanner is best used fbr applications: Ultrasonic Testing (UT)
a. requiring online real-time process monitoring and Topical Outline
control of a linear thermal process.
b. where the material is stationary. 1.0 Ultrasonic Testing
c. where the process speed is no greater than 3 m/s. 1.1 Fundamentals
d. where the maximum temperature of the material is 1.1.1 Ultrasonic sound beams
300 (572 °F). 1.1.1.1 Wave travel modes
1.1.1.2 Refraction, reflection, scattering and
18. Most infrared fbcal plane array imagers: attenuation
Transducers and sound beam coupling
1.1.2
a. use more costly optics than scanning radiometers. 1.2 Ultrasonic testing
b. offer better spatial resolution than scanning 1.2.1 Basic types of equipment
radiometers. 1.2.2 Reference standards
c. offer better thermal resolution than scanning 1.2.3 Test result interpretation; discontinuity
radiometers. indications
d. offer less diagnostics features than scanning 1.2.4 System factors
radiometers. 1.2.5 Applications
1.2.5.1 Flaw detection
19. When measuring the temperature of a nongray target: 1.2.5.2 Thickness measurement
1.2.5.3 Bond evaluation
a. the viewing angle is not critical. 1.2.5.4 Process control
b. always assume a uniform emissivity. 1.2.5.5 Field inspection
c. varying surface temperature differences can be
ignored. References
d. errors may occur when using a variety of Workman, G.L., technical ed.; P.O. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing
instruments. Handbook, third edition: Volume 10, Nondestructive Testing Overview.
Columbus, OH: The American Society fbr Nondestructive Testing. 2012.
20. Thermal diffusivity is: Workman, G.L. and D. Kishoni, technical eds.; P.O. Moore, ed.
Nondestructive Testing Handbook〉third edition: Volume 7, Ultrasonic
Testing. Columbus, OH: The American Society fbr Nondestructive
a. high fbr metals and low fbr porous materials. Testing, Inc. 2007.
b. the same fbr all metals.
c. low for metals and high fbr porous materials.
d. the same fbr all porous materials. Ultrasonic Testing Review Questions

21. The term used to describe a material's surface 1. Ultrasonic waves propagate through test materials in
temperature response to a given energy input is called: the form of:

a. diffuse reflectivity; a. electromagnetic waves.

b. thermal effusivity b. low-voltage electric fields.
c. thermal conductance. c. discontinuous radio waves.
d. spectral transmittance. d. mechanical vibrations.

2. When an ultrasonic beam passes through the interface

of two dissimilar materials at an angle, a new angle of
sound travel takes place in the second material due to:

a. attenuation.
b. rarefaction.
c. compression.
d. refraction.

70
 3. The gradual loss of energy as ultrasonic vibrations 8. The ability of transducers to detect echoes from small
travel through material is referred to as: discontinuities is a definition of:
a. reflection. a. resolution.
b. refraction. b. sensitivity
c. compression. c. definition.
d. attenuation. d. gain.

4. Ultrasonic velocities are different fbr different 9. Which of the following will create a resonance
materials. These differences are primarily caused by condition in a specimen?
differences in the materials':
a. Pulsed longitudinal waves.
a. frequency and wavelength. b. Continuous longitudinal waves.
b. thickness and travel time. c. Pulsed shear waves.
c. elasticity and density. d. Continuous shear waves.
d. chemistry and permeability;
10. The display on most basic pulse-echo ultrasonic
5. Ultrasonic energy fbr immersion testing is transmitted instruments consists of:
to the test object as a compressional wave because:
a. automatic read-out equipment.
a. compressional waves travel faster and will b. an A-scan presentation.
therefore reduce the distance of the interface c. a B-scan presentation.
signal. d. a C-scan presentation.
b. liquids will only sustain compressional waves.
c. compressional waves are used with immersion 11. In a basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instrument, the
testing only; component that produces the voltage that activates the
d. the higher intensity of compressional waves is search unit is called:
necessary to overcome high attenuation in liquids.
a. an amplifier.
6. When inspecting coarse-grained materials, which of b. a receiver.
the following frequencies will generate a sound wave c. a pulser.
that will be most easily scattered by the grain d. a synchronizer.
structure?
12. The primary purpose of reference blocks is to:
a. 1.0 MHz. «
b. 2.25 MHz. a. aid the operator in obtaining maximum back
c. 5 MHz. reflections.
d. 10 MHz. b. obtain the greatest sensitivity possible from an
instrument.
7. In general, shear waves are more sensitive to small c. obtain a common reproducible reference standard.
discontinuities than longitudinal waves for a given d. establish the size and orientation of a
frequency and in a given material because: discontinuity.
a. the wavelength of shear waves is shorter than the 13. The general use of distance-amplitude correction is to
wavelength of longitudinal waves. compensate for:
b. shear waves are not as easily dispersed in the
material. a. amplitude of noise signals.
c. the direction of particle vibration for shear waves b. velocity changes.
is more sensitive to discontinuities. c. vertical nonlinearity in the ultrasonic instrument.
d. the wavelength of shear waves is longer than the d. attenuation, distance and beam spread.
wavelength of longitudinal waves.

71
 Basic I SECTION II

14. In area-amplitude ultrasonic standard test blocks, the 19. In contact testing, shear waves can be induced in the
flat-bottomed holes in the blocks are: test material by:

a. all the same diameter. a. placing an X-cut quartz crystal directly on the
b. different in diameter, increasing in 0.4 mm surface of the material and coupling through a
(0.02 in.) increments from the No. 1 block to the film of oil.
No. 8 block. b. using two transducers on opposite sides of the test
c. largest in the No. 1 block and smallest in the No. 8 specimen.
block. c. placing a spherical acoustic lens on the face of the
d. drilled to different depths from the front surface of transducer.
the test block. d. using an angle-beam transducer with the
transducer mounted on a plastic wedge so that
15. The amount of energy reflected from a discontinuity sound enters the part at an angle.
is dependent on all of the following except the:
20. The most commonly used method of producing shear
a. size of the discontinuity; waves in a test part when inspecting by the immersion
b. orientation of the discontinuity. method is by:
c. type of the discontinuity;
d. test frequency. a. transmitting longitudinal waves into a part in a
direction perpendicular to its front surface.
16. The presence of a discontinuity will not produce a b. using two crystals vibrating at different
specific discontinuity indication on the CRT screen frequencies.
when which of the following techniques is used? c. using a low-frequency transducer.
d. angulating the search tube to the proper angle
a. Straight- beam testing. with respect to the entry surface of the test part.
b. Surface-wave testing.
c. Angle-beam testing. 21. In immersion testing, proof that the search unit is
d. Through-transmission testing. normal to a flat entry surface is indicated by:

17. Lack of parallelism between the entry surface and the a. maximum reflection amplitude from the entry
back surface: surface.
b. elimination of water multiples.
a. may result in a screen pattern that does not c. maximum reflection amplitude from the back
contain back reflection indications. surface.
b. makes it difficult to locate discontinuities that lie d. maximum amplitude of the initial
parallel to the entry surface.
c. usually indicates a porous condition existing in the 22. In immersion testing, the water distance between the
metal. search unit and the test piece:
d. will decrease the penetrating power of the test.
a. should be as small as possible.
18. Significant errors in ultrasonic thickness measurement b. will have no effect on the test.
can occur if: c. should be the same as the water distance used
during calibration.
a. test velocity is varied. d. should be as great as possible.
b. the velocity of propagation deviates substantially
from an assumed constant value for a given
material.
c. water is used as a couplant between the transducer
and the part being measured.
d. longitudinal waves are used.

72
 CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Method

23. Generally, the best ultrasonic testing technique for 28. An ultrasonic test using a straight-beam contact
detecting discontinuities oriented along the fusion search unit is being conducted through the thickness
zone in a welded plate is: of a flat part, such as plate. This test should detect:

a. an angle-beam contact method employing surface a. laminar type flaws with major dimensions parallel
waves. to the plane of the rolled surface.
b. an immersion test using surface waves. b. transverse type flaws with major dimensions at
c. a resonance technique. right angles to the plane of the rolled surface.
d. an angle-beam method using shear waves. c. radial flaws with major dimensions along the
length but radially oriented to the rolled surface.
24. Thin sheet may be inspected for laminar d. rounded flaws at the edges of the rolled plate.
discontinuities with the ultrasonic wave directed
normal to the surface by observing: 29. The resonance technique of thickness measurement
has been mostly replaced by:
a. the amplitude of the front surface reflection.
b. the multiple reflection pattern. a. through- transmission longitudinal wave
c. the amplitude of the initial pulse. techniques.
d. signals that "walk" or move along the time base as b. acoustic emission monitoring.
the transducer is scanned over the sheet. c. pitch -and -catch shear-wave techniques.
d. linear time-base pulse-echo techniques.
25. Ultrasonic inspection of castings is occasionally
impractical because of: 30. Ultrasonic testing techniques are useful in testing
laminate and sandwich construction test objects fbr:
a. extremely small grain structure typical in castings,
b. coarse grain structure. a. paint thickness.
c. uniform flow lines. b. bond integrity.
d. random orientation of discontinuities. c. leakage.
d. surface roughness.
26. Angle-beam testing of plate will often miss:
31. Ultrasonic techniques are frequently used in online
a. cracks that are perpendicular to the sound wave. automatic process control applications to measure and
b. inclusions that are randomly oriented. control:
c. laminations that are parallel to the front surface.
d. a series of small discontinuities. a. moisture content in food.
b. surface roughness of turbine blade castings.
27. Reflection indications from a weld area being c. chemical activity in chemical etching processes.
inspected by the angle-beam technique may represent d. the thickness of cold-rolled strips, sheets and
all of the following except: plates.

a. porosity; 32. Which of the following statements about field

b. cracks. inspection applications of ultrasonic testing is true?
c. the weld bead.
d. laminations in the base metal. a. Because the equipment is large and bulky, field
inspections are difficult, at best.
b. Aircraft and other field maintenance inspections
usually require three persons: one to manipulate
the transducer, one to monitor the instrument and
one to record results.
c. Digital displays must be used for outdoor
inspection because of the limited brightness of
CRT displays.
d. Manual and automatic systems can be used for
field inspections.

73
 Basic I SECTION II

Visual Testing (VT) 3. Illumination varies inversely as the square of the

distance between the source and the point on the
Topical Outline surface increases. What is this law called?

1.0 Visual Testing a. Inverse square law.

1.1 Fundamentals b. Cosine law.
1.1.1 Principles and theory of visual testing c. Generation of light law.
1.1.2 Selection of correct visual technique d. Lambert's law.
1.1.3 Equipment and materials
1.2 Specific applications 4. When measuring surface roughness, Ra is defined as
1.2.1 Metal joining processes what?
1.2.2 Pressure vessels
1.23 Pumps a. Average distance between the peak and valley
1.2.4 Valves points.
1.2.5 Bolting b. Average waviness from crest to trough.
1.2.6 Castings c. Average distance of the profile to the mean line.
1.2.7 Forgings d. Parameter of friction between contact surfaces.
1.2.8 Extrusions
1.2.9 Microcircuits 5. What do inspectors need to have in addition to being
1.3 Interpretation and evaluation proficient in the testing process to increase the
1.3.1 Codes and standards probability of finding rejectable discontinuities with
1.3.2 Environmental factors maximum efficiency?

References a. Ironclad specifications.

Allgaier, M.W and R.E. Cameron, technical eds.; P.O. Moore, ed. b. Knowledge of acceptance criteria.
Nondestructive Testing Handbooky third edition: Volume 9, Visual c. Motivation to perform.
Testing. Columbus, OH: The American Society for Nondestructive d. Caring supervision.
Testing, Inc. 2010.
Workman, G.L., technical ed.; P.O. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing 6. What magnifying power is typically available fbr field,
Handbook, third edition: Volume 10, Nondestructive Testing Overview.
Columbus, OH: The American Society for Nondestructive Testing. 2012. pocket, pen or measuring microscopes that are small
and handheld?

Visual Testing Review Questions a. Between 5x and 20x.

b. Between lOx and 50x.
1. What is visual testing? c. Between 5x and 100X.
d. Greater than 50x.
a. Detection of surface anomalies and various color
variations. 7. What is the minimum luminance recommended by
b. Optical detection of surface anomalies and check the Illuminating Engineering Society (IES) for task
conformance to specification. lighting with medium contrast and small size
c. Evaluation of metallurgical conditions via detection desired?
electronic microscope.
d. Examination fbr wide variety of discontinuities a. 100 lx.
open to the surface or just below. b. 200 lx.
c. 500 lx.
2. What element of the eye is analogous to the film of a d. 2000 lx.
camera, receiving and documenting an image of the
world? 8. What is the direction of view called in a borescope or
videoscope when viewing 45 degrees off the
a. Optic nerve. straight-ahead direction of the probe?
b. Iris.
c. Cornea. a. Forward slant.
d. Retina. b. Forward oblique.
c. Forespective.
d. Angulated.
74
 CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Method

9. How many bundles are there in a fiber optic 15. What is pillowing on aircraft lap joints, typically on
borescope and what are they called? aircraft skins, usually attributed to?
a. One; monochromatic bundle. a. Misalignment of fasteners used to attach the skins
b. Two; light guide and image guide. to the airframe.
c. Two; light guide and CCD cable bundle. b. Expansion of corrosion products under the skins.
d. Three; light guide, image guide and fiber sheath. c. Stretching of the skins beyond their yield points
over time.
10. Which remote camera system is singularly best suited d. Twisting of the airframe during tight turns and
to inspect stainless tubing for weld conditions or similar maneuvers.
cleanliness, process piping, drain lines and heat
exchanger tubing? 16. When inspecting welds for discontinuities located by
visual testing of pressure vessels and storage tanks,
a. Crawler mounted camera. which of the following discontinuities is allowed to be
b. Probe camera. present to some degree?
c. Pan, tilt and zoom camera.
d. Push camera. a. Undercut.
b. Cracks.
11. What is a commonly evident surface discontinuity c. Lack of fusion.
visible to the unaided eye following forming? d. Incomplete penetration.
a. Forging bursts at the center of the billet. 17. Which of the following is an example of an
b. Edge breaks in temper rolled sheets of steel. organization that publishes standards for test
c. Laminations at end preparations of plate for techniques?
welding.
d. Segregation between pours. a. ASNT.
b. API.
12. What type of cracking occurs at the last termination c. OSHA.
point of a weld by shielded metal arc welding? d. ASTM.

a. Hot tearing. 18. How can the heat-affected zone (HAZ) of carbon steel
b. Cold cracking. welds be made visible?
c. Hot cracking.
d. Crater crack. a. Etchants enhance the visibility of the
microstructure.
13. Which type of nuclear reactor vessel may have all its b. High-frequen£y ultrasonic microscopic means.
internals removed from the vessel to allow visual c. Color-contrast penetrating liquids.
inspection? d. Arrays of temperature-sensitive markings.
a. Boiling water reactor (BWR). 19. Pixels used in digital photographs or images is a term
b. Pressurized water reactor (PWR). that comes from what combination of words?
c. Light water reactor (EWR).
d. Heavy water reactor (HWR). a. Photography inserts and electric laser.
b. Pie, excel and light.
14. What might be required after visual inspection of steel c. Positional "x" elements.
fasteners in wrought aluminum plate in a lap joint of d. Picture elements.
an aircraft with evidence of exfoliation?

a. Computed radiography exams.

b. Immersion ultrasonic exams.
c. Fluorescent penetrant testing.
d. Ultrasonic C-scan.

75
Basic I SECTION II

Answers to Review Questions

Acoustic Emission Testing

1b 2d 3d 4c 5a 6c 7a 8b 9d 10a

Electromagnetic Testing
1c 2a 3b 4c 5a 6a 7d 8c 9c lOd 11d 12b 13c 14b
15a 16b 17c 18b 19a 20d 21d 22b 23a 24a 25b 26a 27a

Leak Testing
1d 2d 3d 4c 5c 6c 7a 8c 9b 10c

Liquid Penetrant Testing

1b 2d 3a 4d 5d 6b 7b 8a 9d 10b 11c 12b 13a 14c
15b 16b 17a 18a 19c 20b 21c 22c 23b 24c 25b

Magnetic Flux Leakage Testing

1d 2d 3c 4c 5a 6b 7c 8c 9a 10c 11a 12d

Magnetic Particle Testing

1c 2c 3b 4c 5b 6b 7d 8b 9a 10c 11a 12c 13c 14d
15b 16c 17d 18c 19b 20b 21b 22d

Neutron Radiographic Testing

1c 2d 3d 4d 5b 6a 7b 8d 9c 10c 11c 12c 13d 14b
15c 16b 17b 18a 19a 20b 21a 22b 23b 24b 25c 26d 27d

Radiographic Testing
1a 2d 3b 4b 5d 6c 7c 8a 9d 10c 11c 12c 13a 14c
15b 16d 17d 18d 19b 20b 21c 22a 23d 24c 25d 26b 27a 28c

Thermal/lnfrared Testing
1b 2a 3b 4b 5d 6a 7c 8d 9b 10c 11d 12b 13a 14a
15c 16b 17a 18d 19d 20a 21b

Ultrasonic Testing
1d 2d 3d 4c 5b 6d 7a 8b 9b 10b 11c 12c 13d 14b
15d 16d 17a 18b 19d 20d 21a 22c 23d 24b 25b 26c 27d 28a
29d 30b 31d 32d

Visual Testing
1b 2d 3a 4c 5c 6b 7c 8b 9b 10d 11b 12d 13b 14d
15b 16a 17d 18a 19d

76
 SECTION
MATERIALS, FABRICATION AND
PRODUCT TECHNOLOGY
 CHAPTER 5
Materials and Processes for NDT Technology

Overview most industrial and commercial situations does require the

Commensurate with the need for NDT Level III person¬ individual to respond to more complex technical questions,
nel to have basic knowledge of materials and processes, not only about the details of NDT but also about more
books have been written specifically for the purpose of pre¬ details related to causes and effects. Imagine being called
senting the fundamentals of materials and processes from an upon to select NDT methods, develop techniques and proce¬
NDT perspective. Clearly, not all NDT Level III personnel dures, and instruct others in carrying out an inspection of a
need to specialize in depth in more than a few facets of mate¬ critical component without knowing whether the component
rials and processes technology However, the relationships was a casting, forging or weldment. Even with the knowledge
between NDT technology and materials and processing are of the component's processing history if the Level III lacks
pervasive. NDT personnel charged with the responsibilities the knowledge of what could go wrong during that process¬
of selecting appropriate NDT methods, developing tech¬ ing, how can the Level III be expected to render important
niques and procedures, and directing the efforts of others in decisions about what NDT should be used and how NDT
providing meaningful and reliable NDT must have a funda¬ should be used?
mental and broad knowledge of the origins, nature, behavior, So fundamental is this relationship that it is often over¬
and application of materials and the processes by which they looked, but so important is this relationship that the book
are shaped into the products of today's commerce. Materials and Processes for NDT Technology was prepared
The importance of the relationships between NDT and and published in 1981. The questions here follow the chap¬
materials and processing technology is characterized in the ters in this book.
ASNT Level III Basic Examination. Approximately one-third As a suggestion in the use of these questions, try to
of the Basic Examination covers basics and fundamentals of answer the questions about a particular chapter before pro¬
materials and processes technology. Listed on the following ceeding to the next chapter. If the subject matter is unfamil¬
pages are sample questions typical of those that have impor¬ iar, or if the questions are difficult to answer, read the chapter.
tance to NDT personnel. Note that most have an underlying The material in the book is presented specifically with the
basis that ties their content to decision points in NDT. NDT technologist in mind. It is concise and well-illustrated,
Some NDT Level III personnel are not placed by their but it does not require an, engineering or scientific back¬
employers in work assignments that require significant ground to be comprehended. Complex theories and unim¬
knowledge of materials and processing technology; However, portant details are not included.
progression in NDT technology from Level II to Level III in

79
Basic I SECTION III

Review Questions

Chapter 1: “Relation of NDT to Manufacturing** 5. An important basis fbr the success of fracture control
design procedures is:
1. Fracture is a type of material failure. Of the following,
which is another type of material failure? a. that all flaws are detected by NDT or proof testing
before the component enters service.
a. Fracture mechanics. b. in the use of large factors of safety.
b. Low-frequency dynamic loading. c. in the use of a value of strength that the material
c. Permanent deformation. used in the design is presumed to possess.
d. Elongation within the elastic range. d. the need to ensure that unexpected flaws of some
critical size are not present when the component
2. Which of the following statements best differentiates enters service.
between a defect and a discontinuity?
6. If properly used, NDT can assist in fracture control
a. Discontinuities can propagate and become defects. by:
b. All discontinuities are defects.
c. All defects will lead to failure if undetected; a. accurately measuring the tensile strength of design
discontinuities can be harmless. materials.
d. Discontinuities are external natural boundaries b. providing an accurate evaluation of the number
only; defects are internal flaws originating from and type of discontinuities that exist in a material.
errors in processing. c. predicting the time it will take a given size
discontinuity to grow to a critical size.
3. Nondestructive testing (NDT) is often differentiated d. determining the corrosion rate.
from other measurements or inspection techniques in
that: 7. A statement that a particular experiment produced a
0.9 probability of detection with a 95% confidence
a. NDT involves indirect tests related to some other level means that:
quality or characteristic of the material.
b. NDT is a measurement of dimensions, geometry a. there is a 95% probability that the probability of
and appearance. detection is overstated.
c. NDT uses electronic instruments to identify, b. there is a 5% probability that the probability of
evaluate and locate discontinuities. detection is overstated.
d. NDT is an inspection tool used to confirm the c. on the average, 90% of all flaws will be detected.
findings of the many other quality assurance d. on the average, 95 out of 100 flaws will be detected
techniques. 90% of the time.

4. Which of the following is not a function of NDT?

a. Identification and sorting of material.

b. Identification of material properties.
c. Ensuring absence of faults or defects that could
cause a part to fail.
d. Determine the remaining life of a structure.

80

I
 CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology

Chapter 2: “Introduction to Manufacturing 3. Tensile tests are conducted on specimens from a newly
Technology” developed alloy in order to determine the ultimate
tensile strength of the material. Such tests are referred
1. Most solid metals and plastics that have reasonable to as:
strength at room temperature are called:
a. indirect tests.
a. composite materials. b. physical properties tests.
b. manufacturing materials. c. destructive tests.
c. allotropic materials. d. acoustic emission tests.
d. engineering materials.
4. A bar that is 305 mm (12 in.) long, 51 mm (2 in.)
2. Material properties, as used in design, are most wide, and 25 mm (1 in.) thick is subjected to a tensile
frequently determined by: load acting along the length of the bar of 16 329 kg
(36 000 lbs). What is the tensile stress within the bar?
a. theoretical analysis.
b. materials testing. a. 10 335 kPa (1500 psi).
c. the National Institute of Standards and b. 82 680 kPa (12 000 psi).
Technology (NIST). c. 124 020 kPa (18 000 psi).
d. fracture mechanics testing. d. 248 040 kPa (36 000 psi).

3. Even at the early stages of product planning, NDT

should be considered because:

a. codes and specifications are too restrictive.

b. the design of the part should permit easy access to
critical areas for later inspection.
c. the NDT method may damage the product.
d. the NDT processes generally take longer than
other processes.

Chapter 3: “Properties of Materials”

1. Which of the following material properties are of most

concern if corrosion resistance is essential?

a. Processing properties.
b. Mechanical properties.
c. Physical properties.
d. Chemical properties. 5. In Figure 1, point B is called the:

2. Which of the following is true relative to the a. elastic range.

comparison of the properties of aluminum-based b. elastic limit.
alloys and iron-based alloys? c. yield point.
d. modulus of elasticity;
a. Iron has a lower melting point than aluminum.
b. Iron can exist in several different crystalline 6. In Figure 1, which of the following ranges indicates
structures, and its properties can be controlled by the effect of work hardening (to its maximum) caused
heat treatment. by plastic flow of the material during a tensile load?
c. Iron can be alloyed to increase its strength,
whereas aluminum is strongest in its pure state. a. A-B.
d. Iron is preferred in load carrying designs, but it b. B-C.
should not be used for any deformation type of c. C-D.
manufacturing process. d. D-E.

81
Basic I SECTION III

7. In Figure 1, the points represented by E and F would

be closer together if the material being tested were: «
dx

」o)
a. loaded in tension.
b. loaded in lapshear.
c. more ductile.
d. less ductile.

8. The modulus of elasticity, or Ybung's modulus, is

related to the material's relative: sans
w

a. tensile strength. EnE

b. compressive strength.
c. resistance to stress.
d. stiffness and yield strength.

9. Which of the following materials is typically

considered when the application only requires high 12. Figure 2 typifies:
compressive strength?
a. a creep test curve.
a. Low carbon steel. b. an S-N curve.
b. High carbon steel. c. a stress-strain diagram.
c. Cast iron. d. a true stress-strain diagram.
d. Magnesium.
13. Direct hardness tests provide a measure of a material's
10. A fatigue failure can often be prevented by using NDT ability to resist:
to:
a. bending.
a. verify the cyclic loading on a component part. b. surface and near-surface penetration.
b. detect surface discontinuities that could be stress c. tensile stresses.
risers. d. elongation.
c. measure the endurance limit of a part undergoing
cyclic stresses. 14. A particular type of steel has an ultimate strength of
d. determine percent elongation of a material before 551 200 kilopascals (kPa) (80 000 pounds per square
it is placed in service. inch [psi]), an elastic limit of 413 400 kPa (60 000 psi)
and a yield strength of 427 180 kPa (62 000 psi). An
11. Which of the following tests uses a pendulum to break allowable design stress of 137 800 kPa (20 000 psi) is
a specimen that is notched and supported on both used. What is the factor of safety based on the ultimate
ends, with the result of measuring energy absorption? strength?

a. Creep test. a. 0.25

b. Charpy test. b. 0.33
c. Fatigue test. c. 3.0
d. Transverse rupture test. d. 4.1

82
 CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology

Chapter 4: “The Nature of Materials and Solid 5. Many metals exhibit an increase in strength caused by
State Changes in Metals1' plastic flow beyond the elastic limit. This effect is
called:
1. Under ordinary usage, metals exist as:
a. twinning.
a. amorphous solids. b. plastic deformation.
b. mixtures and compounds of iron and carbon. c. work hardening.
c. crystalline solids. d. age hardening.
d. face-centered cubic lattices.
6. When used as in-process treatment, recrystallization
2. The terms body-centered cubic, face- centered cubic and can:
hexagonal close-packed all refer to the:
a. improve ductility.
a. different size grains that can exist at the same time b. enlarge grains.
in a metallic structure. c. increase hardness.
b. sequence of crystalline growth in a typical mild d. passivate the surface.
steel.
c. lattice structures that make up unit cells in a solid 7. Processes called austemtizingy annealing, normalizing
metallic structure. and spheroidizing are:
d. change in a metallic structure as it undergoes
plastic deformation. a. performed only on nonferrous metals.
b. approximate equilibrium heat-treatment
processes.
c. cold-working processes.
d. age-hardening processes.

8. The term "precipitation hardening" is often used

interchangeably with the term:

a. age hardening.
b. recrystallization.
c. annealing.
d. work hardening.

9. An NDT method that has the ability to measure

changes in electrical conductivity caused by the effects
of heat treatment is:

a. magnetic particle testing.

3. In Figure 3, which intersection describes the "triple b. acoustic emission testing.
point" of the material? c. eddy current testing.
d. immersion ultrasonic testing.
a. 巴工).
b. (P2,T2). 10. Spheroidizing and normalizing have the effect of:
c. (Px,Tx).
d・ (PpT) a. increasing ductility;
b. age hardening.
4. The process of returning ductility to a cold-worked c. reducing the grain size.
low-carbon steel is called: d. causing a phase change.

a. precipitation.
b. recrystallization.
c. allotropic change.
d. austenitization.

83
Basic I SECTION III

11. When a steel has been quench-hardened and then Chapter 5: Ferrous Metals”
11

reheated to some point below the lower

transformation temperature for the purpose of 1. The reduction of iron ore, by mixing with coke,
reducing brittleness, this is called: limestone, and oxygen for combustion of the coke, is
accomplished in:
a. austenitization.
b. thermal slip deformation. a. a blast furnace.
c. allotropic change. b. an open-hearth furnace.
d. tempering. c. a bessemer converter.
d. a basic oxygen furnace.
12. Annealing is usually performed to:
2. In the iron- and steel-making process, the term "pig
a. increase hardness. iron" refers to:
b. reduce corrosion.
c. relieve stresses. a. the waste material that contains high
d. increase conductivity concentrations of impurities and slag and is either
discarded or used as a byproduct.
13. Attacks on metals by direct chemical action and/or b. a high-carbon, low-ductility metal produced in the
electrolysis are called: blast furnace that can be used to make subsequent
types of iron and steel.
a. rust. c. the molten metal from the blast furnace that is not
b. corrosion. usable and is poured off into a series of crude
c. austenitic transformations. castings called "pigs."
d. galvanization. d. low-cost metal used in large production factories.

14. Metal corrosion that is accelerated when the metal is 3. Which of the following techniques is often used to
under loads is called: speed up the steel-making process?

a. pitting corrosion. a. Adding large amounts of carbon to the molten

b. galvanic corrosion. metal.
c. electrochemical corrosion. b. Reducing the amount of scrap steel that is often
d. stress corrosion. added to the molten metal.
c. Adding oxygen to the molten metal.
15. Which of the following does not help prevent d. Converting the old open-hearth furnaces into
corrosion? electric furnaces.

a. stress relieving. 4. Typically, the highest quality of steel is produced in:

b. anodizing.
c. insulating. a. an electric furnace.
d. electroplating. b. an open-hearth furnace.
c. a bessemer furnace.
16. Factors of safety are often in the range of 2 to 4. These d. a basic oxygen furnace.
factors:
5. What percentage of carbon is found in steel?
a. are provided for engineering mistakes,
b. are added as a corrosion allowance. a. Between 3% and 4%.
c. could be reduced with the assurance of NDT b. Between 2% and 3%.
techniques that the material was free of c. Less than 0.2%.
discontinuities. d. Less than 2%.
d. provide allowances for poor welding techniques.

84
 CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology

6. By which of the following processes is most of the 12. Which of the following is an advantage of cast steel
world's steel produced? over wrought steels?

a. Bessemer converter. a. Cast steels usually have higher mechanical

b. Electric furnace. properties than wrought steels.
c. Open hearth. b. Cast steels have more isotropic properties than
d. Basic oxygen. wrought steels.
c. Cast steels are more corrosion-resistant than
7. An undesirable byproduct of steel-making processes wrought steels.
is: d. Cast steels cannot be heat-treated, and are thus less
expensive to produce than wrought steels.
a. coke.
b. low-carbon steel. Chapter 6: “Nonferrous Metals and Plastics”
c. low-alloy steel.
d. slag. 1. Which of the following nonferrous metals is the most
important structural material?
8. A steel with 40 points of carbon contains:
a. Copper alloys.
a. 40% carbon. b. Nickel alloys.
b. 4% carbon. c. Zinc alloys.
c. 0.4% carbon. d. Aluminum alloys.
d. 0.04% carbon.
2. Which of the following statements is true regarding
9. Low-carbon steel contains approximately: the electrical conductivity of aluminum alloys?

a. 0.6 to 2.5% carbon. a. Most aluminum alloys are in the range of 70% to
b. 0.06 to 0.25% carbon. 96% IACS.
c. 0.5 to 1.6% carbon. b. Clad aluminum takes on the conductivity of the
d. 5 to 16% carbon. base metal.
c. Each basic wrought aluminum alloy has a
10. Corrosion-resistant steels having relatively high conductivity distinct from any other.
percentages of nickel and chromium are called: d. Conductivity decreases at elevated temperatures.

a. wrought iron. 3. The heat treatment of aluminum for the purpose of

b. low-alloy steels. hardening and strengthening:
c. stainless steels.
d. nonferrous steels. a. is not possible with aluminum alloys because they
contain no carbon and cannot undergo allotropic
11. Austenitic stainless steels are paramagnetic; this changes.
means that: b. can produce tensile strengths equivalent to some
carbon steels.
a. alternating current must be used when using the c. requires the use of special furnaces and is rarely
magnetic particle testing method. done as a practical application.
b. the steel is very dense and, relative to other steels, d. requires that iron and carbon be alloyed for the
difficult to penetrate with X-rays. best results.
c. ultrasonics is the logical NDT method to choose
because of the coarse-grained nature of a
paramagnetic material.
d. the material has a very low permeability;

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 Basic I SECTION III

4. Which of the following metals has low strength, high 10. Which of the following statements is true concerning
corrosion resistance and is used largely in die-casting plastics following their initial polymerization?
operations?
a. Thermoplastics harden when reheated.
a. Aluminum. b. Thermosetting plastics do not soften, but char and
b. Magnesium. deteriorate when reheated.
c. Zinc. c. All plastics are synthetic and contain no natural
d. Manganese. materials.
d. Plastics have a complex molecular structure,
5. Which of the following metal alloys has a density making it expensive to bind with other materials.
approximately two-thirds that of aluminum?
11. Based on the strength-to-weight ratio:
a. Magnesium.
b. Beryllium. a. no plastic materials can compare with metals.
c. Copper. b. some plastics, including nylon, may have strengths
d. Nickel. greater than some steels.
c. plastics, as a group, are superior in strength to
6. Brass and bronze are alloys of zinc, tin and a large most ferrous metals.
percentage of: d. plastics, being chemically inert, retain their
strength longer than carbon steels in corrosive
a. beryllium. environments.
b. copper.
c. lead. Chapter 7: “The Nature of Manufacturing"
d. nickel.
1. Design engineers are responsible for establishing the
7. Monel™ and Inconel™ are: function, appearance, quality and cost of a product.
Regarding the role of NDT in product design, which
a. nickel alloys. of the following is true?
b. steel alloys.
c. magnesium alloys. a. As a group, designers (by their training and
d. aluminum alloys. education) are adequately informed about NDT to
establish NDT procedures and acceptance criteria.
8. Which of the following materials cannot typically be b. When NDT appears necessary in a design, the
used in the as-cast state? designer should properly select the methods and
techniques to be used by reference to NDT
a. Aluminum. handbooks.
b. Zinc. c. Designers should depend solely upon NDT
c. Carbon. personnel to establish acceptance criteria.
d. Iron. d. Designers should seek input from NDT personnel
to ensure all required inspections can be
9. A high-strength, low-density, corrosion-resistant performed.
metal alloy of significance in the aircraft, marine and
chemical processing industries is: 2. "Manufacturing” is a term that refers to processing
that starts with raw material in a bulk form and is
a. tungsten. concerned mainly with processing the raw material in
b. zinc. a manner that changes its:
c. titanium.
d. magnesium. a. shape.
b. chemical form.
c. mechanical properties.
d. physical properties.

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3. Manufacturing processes change raw material by: 5. The design of the casting is important because the
quality of the finished product can be adversely
a. machining. affected by all of the following except:
b. stress relieving.
c. case hardening. a. lack of molten metal to compensate for
d. electroplating. contraction.
b. location of the gate with reference to either
Chapter 8: “The Casting Process” progressive solidification or directional
solidification.
1. Which of the following is true regarding solidification c. the location of "hot spots" in areas of the casting
of molten metal in a casting mold? that are isolated by thin sections.
d・ temperature of the mold immediately prior to
a. The metal cools at a constant rate, thus providing casting.
fine equiaxed grains throughout.
b. Cooling takes place in phases having different rates 6. The term used to describe a discontinuity in a casting
that produce different types of grain structure in that occurs when molten metal interfaces with already
different sections of the casting. solidified metal with failure to fuse at the interface is:
c. Solidification occurs at a constant rate, beginning
at the interior of the casting and progressing a. hot tear.
outward. b. cold shut.
d. Thick sections tend to cool more rapidly than thin c. lack of fusion.
sections because thin sections consist mostly of d. segregation.
fine equiaxed grains.
7. The part of the casting where the gate or riser was
2. In a casting, shrinkage occurs: attached:

a. only after the transformation from liquid to solid. a. should be the area used to establish reference
b. only during the transformation from liquid to standards for future NDT examinations because
solid. this area will contain the best quality cast material.
c. before, during and after the transformation from b. provides the best quality material because of rapid
liquid to solid. cooling in this area.
d. only when the metal is in the liquid state. c. should be the area that "freezes” first, thus
preventing excessive shrinkage cavities.
3. Large voids or porosity in a casting result from: d. may provide a concentration point for
discontinuities.
a. turbulent flow of the molten metal during
pouring. 8. Risers, feeders, or feed heads in castings serve to
b. alloy element segregation. provide sources of molten metal to compensate for:
c. molten metal boiling because of superheat.
d. gas evolution before and during solidification. a. misruns.
b. cold shuts.
4. During the solidification of a casting, the shrinkage c. dendritic grain growth.
that occurs: d. shrinkage.

a. may cause porosity and shrinkage cavities 9. Green sand casting molds include:
primarily in the outer surfaces where the metal
cools first. a. sand, clay and water.
b. requires that the pattern used be slightly smaller b. sand, wax and solvent.
than the desired dimension of the finished casting. c. sand, refractory metals and water.
c. may cause cavities that are enlarged by the d. sand, carbon and green clay;
evolution of gases.
d. may be eliminated by investment casting.

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Basic I SECTION III

10. Mold material in the form of inserts that exclude 16. Another term for precision casting and the lost-wax
metal flow and thus form internal surfaces or passages process is:
in a casting are called:
a. investment casting.
a. chills. b. die casting.
b. chaplets. c. metal mold casting.
c. cores. d. shell mold casting.
d. patterns.
17. A casting process used to produce hollow products
11. Small metal supports used to support and position like large pipes and hollow shafts is:
cores become part of a casting by fusing with the
molten metal. Such devices are called: a. investment casting.
b. blow casting.
a. core hangers. c. core casting.
b. chills. d. centrifugal casting.
c. chaplets.
d. risers. 18. A casting process used to produce elongated shapes by
drawing solidified metal from a water-cooled mold
12. Which of the following may cause a discontinuity backed by molten metal is:
even though its intended purpose is to prevent
shrinkage cavities by absorbing heat from the molten a. centrifugal casting.
metal in the center of the casting? b. continuous casting.
c. draw casting.
a. Riser. d. extrusion.
b. Core.
c. Internal chill. Chapter 9: “The Welding Process”
d. Chaplet.
1. An assembly that has been created by joining two or
13. Which of the following NDT methods can be more parts by one or more welds is called a:
commonly used to inspect castings for core shift and
nonfused chaplets and used to determine that all core a. joint.
materials have been removed? b. bonded structure.
c. weld.
a. Ultrasonic testing. d. weldment.
b. Magnetic particle testing.
c. Radiographic testing. 2. A general definition of welding describes the joining
d. Electromagnetic testing. of two surfaces:

14. Casting molds made by covering a heated metal a. with a filler metal that has a higher melting point
pattern with sand that is mixed with particles of than the base metal.
thermosetting plastic are called: b. with a filler material that is different from the base
material.
a. green sand molds. c. in a permanent union established by
b. shell molds. atom-to-atom bonds.
c. die casting molds. d. where both heat and pressure are necessary for
d. permanent molds. permanent bonding.

15. Permanent molds are most frequently made of:

a. ceramics.
b. fused sand and plastic.
c. metal.
d. plaster.

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 CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology

3. Of the following, which is not a requirement fbr fusion 8. Due to high temperatures and rapid rate of cooling,
bonding? the filler material used in fusion welds:

a. melting. a. is coated with an oxide to help reduce weld defects.

b. atomic closeness. b. contains alloys that will help compensate for
c. atomic cleanliness. properties lost during the welding process.
d. pressure. c. is alloyed with nickel, copper and carbon to
eliminate cracking.
4. Metallurgical effects in a weld, such as grain size d. should be as close as possible to the same alloy
variation and shrinkage, are similar to those that content as the base material.
occur in:
9. The uneven shrinkage and brittle structures that occur
a. forgings. due to the rapid cooling of a weld can often be
b. castings. reduced by:
c. extrusions.
d. hot-rolled plates. a. preheating the weldment prior to welding.
b. using a filler metal with a higher carbon content
5. Pressure welding can be accomplished with pressure than the base metal.
alone, but what else is usually added? c. clamping the weldment in a rigid fixture.
d. overdesigning the size of the weldment to prevent
a. Heat. shrinkage.
b. Filler material.
c. Oxides. 10. After welding, many steel weldments are heat treated
d. Adhesives. to obtain more uniform properties between the weld
and base metal and to relieve stress. Which
6. Proper brazing depends upon numerous factors being heat-treatment method is often used following
controlled. Of the following, which is not appropriate? welding?

a. Proper joint fit-up and joint preparation. a. Tempering.

b. Adequate heat to melt the braze filler metal. b. Martensitic aging.
c. Selection of proper braze filler metal. c. Normalizing.
d. Complete melting of the step metal and diffusion d. Spheroidizing.
of the braze filler metal into the base metal.
11. Weldments subj孚t to restraint during welding can
7. Soldering, brazing, and braze welding all: develop high residual stresses. Unrestrained
weldments can develop:
a. have the same strength characteristics.
b. use a process where only the filler metal is actually- a. geometric distortion.
melted. b. high residual stresses.
c. are fusion-type weldments. c. cracking after the weld has cooled.
d. use liquid penetrant inspection to reveal porosity d. fatigue cracking.
within the joint.
12. Welds and weldments have been known to develop
cracks long after cooling but prior to being used in
service. What is the principal cause for such cracks?

a. Accelerated corrosion at high temperature.

b. Scattered porosity in the weld.
c. Improper selection of base material.
d. Excessive residual stresses.

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Basic I SECTION III

Chapter 10: “Welding Processes and Design”

1. In arc welding, the electric arc is usually sustained

between an electrode and the:

a. welding machine.
b. coating on the electrode.
c. workpiece.
d. shielding gas.

2. Which of the following gases are most frequently used

as shielding to provide an inert atmosphere in the
vicinity of the weld?

a. Argon, helium and carbon dioxide. a. Electron-beam welding.

b. Neon, tritium and helium. b. Plasma arc welding.
c. Sulphur dioxide, argon and oxygen. c. Resistance spot welding.
d. Argon, nitrogen and hydrogen. d. Friction welding.

3. When molten metal is transferred from the electrode 8. A welding process that is most frequently carried out
to the weld zone, it can be shielded from the in a vacuum chamber is:
atmosphere by all of the following except:
a. plasma arc welding.
a. the burning of coatings on the welding electrode. b. electron-beam welding.
b. maintaining the arc beneath flux powders. c. electroslag welding.
c. the flow of a shielding gas around the arc. d. friction welding.
d. switching to a 2% ceriated tungsten electrode
when performing the GTAW process. 9. The welding process capable of very high intensity
and rate of heat transfer is:
4. The burn-off rate and amount of spattering during the
arc welding process can often be controlled by: a. braze welding.
b. plasma arc welding.
a. proper post-heating of the entire weldment. c. diffusion welding.
b. frequent changing of the tungsten electrode. d. soldering.
c. maintaining the longest arc length possible to
reduce the heat in the weld zone. 10. The welding process in which the arc is extinguished
d. selecting the proper electrode polarity after melting a slag cover and in which the base metal
and copper slides form a sort of moving mold is
5. Which of the following welding processes uses a called:
nonconsumable electrode with the arc maintained in
an atmosphere of inert gas? a. electroslag welding.
b. submerged arc welding.
a. gas tungsten arc welding. c. electron-beam welding.
b. submerged arc welding. d. slag-mold welding.
c. gas metal arc welding.
d. electroslag welding. 11. In the process of diffusion welding, often called
diffusion bonding, the base metal is joined by:
6. Shielding in the submerged arc welding process is
provided by: a. melting the weld joint area with strip heaters.
b. using high- temperature adhesives.
a. gases. c. putting it under pressure at temperatures below
b. granular flux that completely surrounds the arc. the melting point.
c. a flux-coated welding rod. d. the heat of frictional movement between the
d. chopped glass fibers. surfaces to be joined.

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 CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology

15. A slag inclusion can result from which of the

following?

a. Small pieces of tungsten being dislodged from the

electrode in the gas tungsten arc process.
b. Insufficient cleaning of successive passes in a
multipass weldment.
c. Excessive overlap on intermediate passes in a
multipass weldment.
d. Contaminants in the welding flux.

a. Butt joint. 16. Undercut on a weld pass is usually caused by:

b. Tee joint.
c. Corner joint. a. poor operator technique.
d. Edge joint. b. a rate of travel that is too slow, which causes the
base metal to become too hot.
c. the use of an electrode that is too large for the
Figure 6 current capacity of the welding machine.
d. welding in the vertical position.

/■ 1 7. Crater cracks may take the form of a single crack or

star-shaped cracks and will usually be found:

a. by magnetic particle techniques since crater cracks

are always subsurface.
13. What type of weld joint preparation is shown in b. anywhere along a weld where the welding was
Figure 6? stopped and restarted.
c. in the natural crater formed between the two
a. J-groove. plates in a typical fillet weld.
b. Double J-groove. d. in the root area of a multiple pass weld where the
c. V-groove. weld metal failed to flow completely into the root
d. Square groove. opening.

18. The principal purpose of preheat treatment and

post-heat treatment in welds is to:

a. reduce the probability of formation of porosity in

the weld.
b. neutralize residual stresses and geometric
distortion.
c. create grains in the weld that are the same as those
in the base metal.
d. cause the weld ripple and reinforcement to blend
into the base metal.

14. In Figure 7, which sketch contains an incorrect

welding symbol with respect to the weld joint shown?

a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. D.

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 Basic I SECTION III

19. In welding, the most obvious defects are those 22. Thermal conductivity of a metal is an important
associated with structural discontinuities in the weld factor to consider in making quality weldments
itsel£ Conditions not considered welding process because:
defects are:
a. some metals, such as aluminum, have a low
a. improper weld dimensions and profiles. conductivity, which results in weld defects due to
b. base metal irregularities that have been enlarged localized heat buildup.
by welding stresses and distortion. b. some metals, such as stainless steel, have a high
c. structurally sound welds, but those with conductivity, which results in lack of fusion defects
inadequate properties caused by errors in filler as the heat is quickly removed from the weld zone.
metal selection. c. in some metals, such as aluminum, very high
d. corrosion of the structural members. temperature gradients are produced, causing
stresses during cooling.
d. some metals, such as stainless steel, have low
conductivity, which results in weld defects caused
by localized overheating.

Chapter 11: "Plastic Flow”

1. Deformation of metals provides a number of

advantages. Which of the following is not an
advantage?

a. Deformation processes increase the probability of

defect formation.
b. High duplication accuracy results from most
deformation processes.
20. If the V-groove weld shown in Figure 8 was made in c. In general, the properties of wrought metals are
multiple passes and not clamped or restrained, typical improved over their cast counterparts.
warping would take place in which direction? d. Thin sections can be more economically and more
successfully produced than by casting.
a. Edges A and B would be lowered due to the
expansion of the weld metal in the weld zone. 2. Among other things, the advantageous effects of
b. Edges A and B would be raised due to the recrystallization depend upon the:
contraction of the weld metal.
c. In a multipass weld, there would be little if any a. rate of heating.
warpage. b. temperature at which deformation takes place.
d. Expansion and contraction would be equal in a c. presence of carbon in excess of 25% fbr steels.
V-groove weld as shown. d. presence of silicon in excess of 0.1% fbr steels.

21. Cracks in the weld metal are primarily of which three 3. Wrought products invariably exhibit:
types?
a. high susceptibility to corrosion.
a. Shallow, deep and intermittent. b. lower strength than their cast counterparts.
b. Longitudinal, transverse and crater. c. directional properties.
c. Laminar, through and oblique. d. poor weldability
d. Longitudinal, laminar and intermittent.

92
4. During the steel-making process, a large number of 9. Machinability and fatigue resistance are improved in
faults such as slag, porosity and shrinkage cavities most metals that have been:
exist in the top of the ingot. These discontinuities are:
a. hot worked.
a. mostly eliminated in subsequent hot working due b. cold worked.
to the pressure that "welds" the void shut. c. heat treated.
b. located with NDT techniques at later stages of d. cast.
production.
c. almost nonexistent with modern steel-making Chapter 12: “Millwork, Forging, and Powder
processes. Metallurgy"
d. removed by cropping up to one-third off the top of
the ingot. 1. NDT is often used just following hot- and
cold-working operations to:
5. Discontinuities with their origin in the original ingot
can be reduced in severity by the closing and welding a. ensure that further operations are not performed
of voids and the breaking up and elongation of on material that contains defects that could cause
inclusions by which of the following processes? rejection of the manufactured part.
b. determine that defects do not exist in the material
a. Cold working. that could damage the rolling mills and other
b. Hot working. equipment.
c. Heat treatment. c. determine the ductility of the material after the
d. Welding. rolling operation is complete.
d. accurately determine the compressive strength of
6. Which of the following would have the least ductility? the material after it passes through the rolling mill.

a. Cold-rolled steel plate. 2. Slabs, blooms and billets are:

b. Hot-rolled steel plate.
c. Gray cast iron. a. the three consecutive stages that the metal goes
d. Hot-rolled aluminum plate. through during the production of products such
as angle iron and channel iron.
7. An NDT technique best suited to locating b. the shapes that the ingot is rolled into prior to a
discontinuities caused by inclusions rolled into steel variety of secondary operations.
plate is: c. types of defects that occur during the hot rolling
of steel.
a. radiographic testing. d. the three different shapes produced during typical
b. ultrasonic testing. cold-rolling operations.
c. visual testing.
d. magnetic particle testing. 3. Cold rolling sheet steel usually begins with a material
that:
8. Which of the following statements is true concerning
deformation processes? a. has been completely inspected with an automated
radiography system.
a. Hot working usually follows cold working. b. has been previously hot-rolled to dimensions close
b. Hot working must be followed by heat treatment. to the size of the finished product.
c. Cold working renders brittle material more c. has less ductility and greater hardness than typical
ductile. hot-rolled steel.
d. Cold working usually follows hot working. d. will have a lower yield and tensile strength after
cold working.

93
 Basic I SECTION III

4. Before cold-finishing operations can be done on 10. Which of the following product forms is generally
hot- rolled materials, cleaning is often done by selected for high strength and controlled property
immersing the hot- rolled material in acid baths in a directionality?
process called:
a. Castings.
a. degreasing. b. Extrusions.
b. descaling. c. Hot-rolled flat stock.
c. anodizing. d. Forgings.
d. pickling.
11. Powder metallurgy provides two unique advantages
5. The millworking process performed principally on flat in metals processing. One is the capability to produce
products and bars that improves hardness, strength, shapes and objects of refractory metals that are
surface finish and dimensional accuracy is: extremely difficult or impractical to melt; the other is to:
a. cold rolling. a. economically produce metals with extremely low
b. hot rolling. melting temperatures.
c. forging. b. produce metal shapes with controlled porosity
d. sintering. c. produce metals that can be easily machined by
electrochemical processes.
6. Most steel pipe is produced by forming and: d. produce metals that are corrosion resistant.

a. drawing. 12. A major purpose of pressing the metal powders

b. welding. during powder metallurgy processing is to:
c. extrusion.
d. pressing. a. squeeze out excess moisture.
b. further refine the grains.
7. Most seamless tubing made without welds is c. compact the powders into mechanical and atomic
processed by: closeness.
d. provide all of the above.
a. casting.
b. piercing. 13. In the powder metallurgy process, sintering is:
c. cold rolling.
d. brazing. a. in most cases, a fully solid-state process.
b. never a fully solid-state process.
8. A process that requires the use of large, powerful c. principally done at room temperature.
equipment that forms ductile material into a wide d. always done at elevated temperature and high
variety of long-length, uniform, cross-sectional shapes pressure.
best describes:
14. Powdered metallurgy products cannot:
a. forging.
b. powder metallurgy; a. be hot worked after sintering.
c. extrusion. b. be heat treated after sintering.
d. die casting. c. be machined after sintering.
d. attain 100% of theoretical density
9. The millworking process used most to form metals
into three-dimensional shapes is: 15. Which of the following is not an application for
powdered metal products?
a. casting.
b. cold rolling. a. Cemented carbide cutting tools and dies.
c. welding. b. Tungsten rocket nozzles.
d. forging. c. Oil-impregnated bushings.
d. Electric motor housings.

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 CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology

Chapter 13: “Pressworking of Sheet Metal” Chapter 14: “Machining Fundamentals0

1. Which of the following terms does not describe 1. Machines designed to hold a cutting tool and a
operations that bend, stretch and shape sheet metals workpiece and establish a suitable set of motions
into three-dimensional shapes with significant plastic between them to remove material from the workpiece
flow and deformation? are called:
a. Bending. a. mill-working machines.
b. Forming. b. factory machines.
c. Drawing. c. machine tools.
d. Shearing. d. metal-cutting machines.
2. In drawing and deep drawing, the final shape often 2. In describing machinabi出y, three different
can be completed in a series of draws, each measurements are generally considered on a relative,
successively deeper. What process performed between if not quantitative, basis. These are:
draws might effectively reduce the number of draws
required? a. shear, tensile and impact strength of the material
being machined.
a. Recrystallization. b. surface finish of the material achievable, power
b. Pickling. consumption required to remove a given volume
c. Etching. of material and expected tool life.
d. Hardening heat treatment. c. softness of the material, sharpness of the cutting
tool and type of machine used to remove the
3. Spinning can be used to form: material.
d. volume of material before machining, volume of
a. spherical tank halves. material after machining and time required to
b. cemented carbide cutting tools. remove that volume.
c. rectangular sheet metal tanks.
d. solid spheres. 3. When used with respect to machine tools, the
acronym N/C means:
4. Most new developments in sheet metal forming
typically use nonconventional energy sources. What is a. nonmetal cutters.
a common feature of these processes? b. noncorrosive coolant.
c. numerical control.
a. The use of lasers for controlled heat input. d. negative cfearance.
b. The use of cryogenics to super-cool the metal
prior to forming. 4. Which of the following can result in economical setup
c. The use of energy sources that release large and reduced machine time with an increase in
amounts of energy in a very short time. repeatability and accuracy for a variety of machining
d. The use of large autoclaves that contain both the operations?
tooling and the metal being formed.
a. The use of NDT to evaluate the finished product.
b. The use of electrical discharge machining to
replace the conventional lathes and surface
grinders.
c. The use of modern ultrasonic machining
operations.
d. The use of numerical control systems applied to
conventional types of machining operations.

95
Basic I SECTION III

Chapter 15: "Miscellaneous Processes” 5. Which of the following statements is true concerning
honeycomb?
1. Which of the following statements is true regarding
plastics processing? a. Nonmetallic honeycomb derives high strength and
rigidity from a structural combination of relatively
a. Unlike metals, plastics must be processed without weak, thin, lightweight materials.
the addition of heat. b. In honeycomb, the walls of the cellular core
b. Both thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics material are aligned parallel with the plane of the
may be processed by molding, casting and face sheets.
extrusion. c. Honeycomb containing nonmetallic elements can
c. All plastic molding processes use liquid-state be bonded by adhesives, brazing or diffusion
materials introduced into the mold cavity welding.
d. Injection molding can be done only with d. Honeycomb combining metallic and nonmetallic
thermosetting materials. elements cannot be used in cryogenic service due
to the permeability of the nonmetallic elements.
2. Reinforced plastic molding involves use of:
6. The major difference between materials classified as
a. thermosetting plastics and fibrous reinforcement composites and those classified as mixtures is that:
materials.
b. thermosetting plastics and metallic powder a. mixtures are a type of composite with random
reinforcement. orientation and shape of the constituents.
c. thermoplastics and wood fiber reinforcement b. composites contain metallic constituents and
materials. mixtures are nonmetallic.
d. thermoplastics and metallic powder c. mixtures start as liquids blended together and
reinforcement. composites start as solids.
d. mixtures are elastomeric, while composites are
3. The mechanism of adhesion combines mechanical characterized as having at least one plastic
interlocking and: component.

a. stickiness of the adhesive. 7. The acronym EDM refers to:

b. roughness of the adherends.
c. dynamic mechanical forces. a. engineering design materials.
d. interatomic forces. b. energy discharge machines.
c. electro-dynamic machining.
4. Which of the following statements is true concerning d. electrical discharge machining.
composite materials?

a. Composite materials can be wrapped over metallic

materials to increase strength and reduce weight.
b. When composite materials are cured, the
constituents lose their original identity and form
chemical compounds with one another.
c. A unique feature of composite materials is that
their tensile strength frequently exceeds the
strength of the strongest constituent.
d. Composites are usually formed into complex
three-dimensional shapes with each dimension
approximately equal to the other two.
8. Figure 9 illustrates:

a. chemical milling.
b. electrochemical machining.
c. ultrasonic machining.
d. electrolytic grinding.

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 CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology

9. The process used for shaping metals by chemical Chapter 16: **Surface Finishing”
dissolution onl% with selective removal accomplished
by masking areas where metal is not to be removed, is 1. Which of the following statements is not true
called: concerning surface finishing?

a. electrical discharge machining. a. Cleaning operations are considered to be

b. chemical milling. surface-finishing processes.
c. electrochemical machining. b. Surface finishing is often performed fbr corrosion
d. electrofbrming. protection.
c. Surface finishing is not typically followed by
further processes.
d. Surface finishing is sometimes performed to
improve surface and near-surface mechanical
properties.

Carburizing and flame hardening are examples of:

a. annealing processes.
b. case-hardening processes.
c. processes that produce ductile surfaces.
d. electrochemical processes.

Which of the following nondestructive tests would

10. The process illustrated in Figure 10 is called: provide the best results in measuring the case depth
on a case-hardened part?
a. electrical discharge machining.
b. ultrasonic machining. a. Ultrasonic immersion testing using a very
c. electrochemical machining. low-frequency probe.
d. abrasive drilling. b. Radiography
c. Eddy current.
11. A process that is the reverse of electrochemical d. Magnetic particle.
machining and that is the basis fbr electroplating is
called: 4. Coatings are often applied to protect a material; their
thicknesses caq frequently be determined
a. chemical milling. nondestructively by:
b. electrical discharge machining.
c. electroforming. a. acoustic emission.
d. magnetofbrming. b. eddy current.
c. surface-wave ultrasonic techniques.
12. A cutting operation that has the ability to cut through d. optical holography;
thicknesses of over 0.9 m (3 ft) of steel and is
commonly used to remove surface defects on castings 5. The best and most economical cleaners used fbr
and forgings by “scarfing" is called: removal of oils and greases are:

a. friction cutting. a. pickling baths.

b. oxyacetylene cutting. b. deionized water sprays.
c. ultrasonic cutting. c. wire brushes and cloth buffers.
d. plasma arc cutting. d. petroleum solvents.

97
Basic I SECTION III

6. Some materials, such as aluminum, are corrosion 11. The anodized surface on aluminum:
resistant:
a. can produce a high background during a
a. by virtue of the immediate oxidation of newly- penetrant test.
exposed surfaces. b. is very dense and makes X-ray penetration
b. only if anodized. difficult.
c. because the material itself will not readily combine c. can produce cracks that are easily detected by
with oxygen. electromagnetic testing techniques.
d. against all types of corrosive atmospheres. d. must be removed before performing ultrasonic
tests.
7. All of the following statements concerning
electrostatic spraying are true except: Chapter 17: “Inspection”

a. the material being sprayed is directly attracted to 1. A technique for the inspection of manufactured
all of the surfaces to be covered. products that utilizes the selection of a certain
b. there is less waste due to oversprayed material. percentage of parts for inspection is called:
c. there is more uniform coverage of the surfaces.
d. the parts being sprayed require a high current to a. standard deviation.
attract the spray media. b. random sampling.
c. natural selection.
8. A corrosion protection material commonly applied to d. analysis of variance.
steel by hot dipping and galvanizing is:
2. Implied in sampling inspection is:
a. porcelain.
b. paint. a. that the chosen plan will produce precise numbers
c. zinc. of acceptable parts.
d. chromic acid. b. the need for a sample size of 100 units or multiples
thereof.
9. Metals commonly applied to other metals by c. a willingness to sometimes accept defective
electroplating are: products.
d. the need to collect data in the form of variables
a. nickel, chromium and cadmium. instead of attributes.
b. tin, zinc and tungsten.
c. silver, gold and carbon. 3. A process control chart based on the means and
d. copper, aluminum and magnesium. ranges of measurements taken on periodic samples
requires the measurement to be taken of:
10. A process that converts the base metal surface to an
oxidized barrier layer of very small porous cells is a. attributes.
called: b. variables.
c. either attributes or variables.
a. galvanizing. d. neither attributes nor variables.
b. plating.
c. anodizing.
d. metallizing.

98
 CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology

7. A vernier measurement permits:

a. accurate interpolation between major divisions on

a measuring device.
b. measurements to be accurate within 0.03 mm
(0.001 in.).

aouzd
c. extending the length of a measurement scale by
10 times.
Q

eo
o
o d. measurements to be traced to NIST.

8. Indicating gages are usually used in applications that

provide:

a. absolute measurements.
b. comparative measurements.
c. long linear measurements.
d. reflected or projected images of the workpiece.
0.01 0.02 0.03 0.04 0.05 0.06 0.07 0.08 0.09 0.10
Lot Fraction Defective 9. Which of the following measurement tools uses the
principle of light wave interference to check surface
flatness?
4. On the operating characteristic curve shown in
Figure 11: a. Optical comparator.
b. Vernier caliper.
a. the line P2 indicates that in the given sample, four c. Sine bar.
parts were found to be defective. d. Optical profiler.
b. the line P】 indicates that if the lot being inspected
had 1% defectives, there is a 6% probability that 10. Gages such as plug gages, ring gages, go/no-go gages,
this plan would reject the lot. profile gages, thread gages, radius gages, etc., are all
c. the lot fraction defective cannot exceed 6%. types of:
d. there is a 10% probability of accepting a 1%
defective lot. a. variable measurement tools.
b. absolute gages.
5. Frequently dimensions are permitted to vary within c. optical gagts.
specified limits. These variations are called: d. fixed gages.
a. variances. 11. Devices that show magnified reflected or profile
b. fudge factors. images of the workpiece on a frosted glass screen are
c. factors of safety called optical:
d. tolerances.
a. comparators.
6. Measurements are classified as being either: b. flats.
c. projectors.
a. comparative or absolute. d. micrometers.
b. comparative or dimensional.
c. dimensional or angular.
d. microscopic or macroscopic.

99
Basic I SECTION III

Answers to Review Questions

Chapter 1: ''Relation of NDT to Manufacturing"

1c 2a 3a 4d 5d 6b 7b

Chapter 2: "Introduction to Manufacturing Technology"

1d 2b 3b

Chapter 3: "Introduction to Manufacturing Technology"

4c 5b 6d 7d 8d 9c 10b 11b 12b 13b 14d
1d 2b 3c

Chapter 4: "The Nature of Materials and Solid State Changes in Metals"

3c 4a 5c 6a 7b 8a 9c 10a 11d 12c 13b 14d
IC 2c
15c 16c

Chapter 5: "Ferrous Metals"

1a 2b 3c 4a 5d 6d 7d 8c 9b 10c 11d 12b

Chapter 6: "Introduction to Manufacturing Technology"

1d 2d 3b 4c 5a 6b 7a 8c 9c 10b 11b

Chapter 7: "The Nature of Manufacturing"

1d 2a 3a

Chapter 8: “The Casting Process”

3d 4c 5d 6b 7d 8d 9a 10c 11c 12c 13c 14b
1b 2c
15c 16a 17d 18b

100
Chapter 9: “The Welding Process”
Id 2c 3d 4b 5a 6d 7b 8b 9a 10c 11a 12d

Chapter 10: “Welding Processes and Design"

1c 2a 3d 4d 5a 6b 7c 8b 9b 10a 11c 12c 13c 14a
15b 16a 17b 18b 19d 20b 21b 22d

Chapter 11: “Plastic Flow”

la 2b 3c 4d 5b 6c 7b 8d 9b

Chapter 12: “Millwork, Forging and Powder Metallurgy”

1a 2b 3b 4d 5a 6b 7b 8c 9d lOd 11b 12c 13a 14d
15d

Chapter 13: Pressworking of Sheet Metal”

M

1d 2a 3a 4c

Chapter 14: “Machining Fundamentals”

1c 2b 3c 4d

Chapter 15: "Miscellaneous Processes”

1b 2a 3d 4a 5a 6a 7d 8b 9b 10b • 11c 12b

Chapter 16: “Surface Finishing”

1c 2b 3c 4b 5d 6a 7d 8c 9a 10c 11a

Chapter 17: "Inspection"

1b 2c 3b 4b 5d 6a 7a 8b 9d 10d 11a

101
APPENDIX
Code of Ethics for Level III NDT Personnel
Certified by ASNT

The “Code of Ethics for Level III NDT Personnel 2. Integrity

Certified by ASNT" is part of the ASNT Level III 2.1. The Level III is obligated to act with complete
Certification Application fbr the Basic Examination and integrity in professional matters for each client or
all Method examinations, including the PdM Basic and IR employer as a faithful agent or trustee; shall be
Method examinations. By signing the application, the appli¬ honest and impartial; and shall serve the public,
cant agrees to abide by the Code of Ethics for as long as he or clients, and employer with devotion.
she is certified. A link to the ASNT Level III Certification
Application may be found on the ASNT website at 3. Responsibility to the Public
http://asnt.org/certification/leveliii/index.htm. The text of The Level III shall:
the Code of Ethics is reprinted below in full: 3.1. Protect the safety, health, and welfare of the public in
the performance of professional duties. Should the
1. Preamble case arise where the Level III faces a situation where
1.1. In order to safeguard the life, health, property, and the safety, health, and welfare of the public are not
welfare of the public, to maintain integrity and high protected, he/she shall:
standards of skills and practices in the profession of 3.1.1. Apprise the proper authority if it is evident
nondestructive testing, the following rules of that the safety, health, and welfare of the
professional conduct shall be binding upon every public are not being protected; and
person issued a certificate by ASNT as a Level III. 3.1.2. Refuse to accept responsibility for the design,
1.1.1. The Level III who holds a certificate is charged report, or statement involved; and
with having knowledge of the existence of the 3.1.3. If necessary, sever relationship with the
reasonable rules and regulations hereinafter employer or client; and
provided for his/her conduct as ASNT Level III, 3.1.4. Undertake to perform assignments only when
and also shall be familiar with their provisions qualified by training and experience in the
and understand them. Such knowledge shall specific technical fields involved. In the event a
encompass the understanding that the question arises as to the competence of a
practice of nondestructive testing under this Level III to perform an assignment in a field of
certification is a privilege, as opposed to a specific discipline which cannot be otherwise
right, and the Level III shall be forthright and resolved to the Ethics Committee's satisfaction,
candid in statements or written responses to the Ethics Committee, either upon request of
the Ethics Committee of the Certification the Level III, or by its own volition, may require
Management Board. him/her to submit to an appropriate inquiry by
1.1.2. TheMLevel lllwas referred to herein is that or on behalf of the Ethics Committee; and
individual who has been issued a certificate by 3.1.5. Be completely objective in any professional
the American Society for Nondestructive report, statement, or testimony, avoiding any
Testing, Inc. pursuant to its heretofore omission which would, or reasonably could,
published requirements, rules, and procedures lead to fallacious inference, finding, or
for such certification. This Code of Ethics is misrepresentation; and
binding upon all individuals so certified. 3.1.6. Express an opinion as a technical witness
before any court, commission, or other
tribunal, only when such opinion is founded
upon adequate knowledge of the facts in
issue, upon a background of technical
competence in the subject matter, and upon
an honest conviction of the accuracy or
propriety of the testimony.

105
Basic I APPENDIX

4. Public Statements 6.2. The Level III shall seek professional employment on
4.1. The Level III will issue no statements, criticisms, or the basis of qualification and competence for proper
arguments on nondestructive testing matters accomplishment of work.
connected with public policy which are inspired or 6.3. The Level III shall not falsify or permit
paid for by an interested party, or parties, unless misrepresentation of his/her, or his/her associates；
he/she has prefaced the remark(s) by explicitly academic or professional qualification. He/she shall
identifying himself/herself, by disclosing the identities not misrepresent or exaggerate the degree of
of the party, on whose behalf he/she is speaking, and responsibility in or for the subject matter of prior
by revealing the existence of any pecuniary interest assignments.
he/she may have in these matters. 6.4. Brochures or other presentations incident to the
4.2. The Level III will publicly express no opinion on a solicitation of employment shall not misrepresent
nondestructive testing matter unless it is founded pertinent facts concerning employers, employees,
upon adequate knowledge of the facts in issue, upon associates, joint ventures, or past accomplishments
a background of technical competence in the subject with the intent and purpose of enhancing
matter, and upon honest conviction of the accuracy qualifications and work.
and propriety of the testimony.
7. Improper Conduct
5. Conflict of Interest 7.1. The Level III shall not sign documents for work for
5.1. The Level III shall conscientiously avoid conflict of which he/she does not have personal professional
interest with the employer or client, but when knowledge and direct technical supervisory control
unavoidable, shall forthwith disclose the and responsibility.
circumstances to the employer or client. 7.2. The Level III shall not knowingly associate with, or
5.2. The Level III shall promptly inform the client or permit the use of, his/her name or firm name in a
employer of any business associations, interests, or business venture by any person or firm which he/she
circumstances which could influence his/her knows, or has reason to believe is engaging in
judgment or the quality of services to the client or business or professional practices of a fraudulent or
employer. dishonest nature.
5.3. The Level III shall not accept compensation, financial
or otherwise, from more than one party for services 8. Unauthorized Practice
on the same project, or for services pertaining to the 8.1. Any violation of this code shall be deemed to be an
same project, unless the circumstances are fully unauthorized practice and upon proper complaint,
disclosed to, and agreed to, by all interested parties or investigation, due process hearing and ruling of the
their duly authorized agents. Ethics Cogimittee of the ASNT Certification
5.4. The Level III shall not solicit or accept financial or Management Council in accordance with procedures
other valuable consideration from material or heretofore established and published, sanctions may
equipment suppliers for specifying their products. be applied to the individual(s) in violation.
5.5. The Level III shall not solicit or accept gratuities,
directly or indirectly, from contractors, their agents, or 9. Rulings of Other Jurisdictions
other parties dealing with the client or employer in 9.1 Conviction of a felony while ASNT certification is valid
connection with work for which he/she is responsible. or the revocation or suspension of a Professional
5.6. As an elected, retained, or employed public official, Engineer's License by another jurisdiction or similar
the Level III (in the capacity as a public official) shall rulings by other professional associations may be
not review or approve work that was performed by grounds for a charge of violation of this Code.
himself/herself, or under his/her direction, on behalf
of another employer or client.

6. Solicitation of Employment
6.1. The Level III shall not pay, solicit, nor offer, directly or
indirectly, any bribe or commission for professional
employment with the exception of payment of the
usual commission for securing salaried positions
through licensed employment agencies.

106