N10-009

Exam Name: CompTIA Network+ Certification

Full version: 141 Q&As

Full version of N10-009 Dumps

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1. A customer recently moved into a new office and notices that some wall plates are not
working and are not properly labeled.
Which of the following tools would be best to identify the proper wiring in the IDF?
A. Toner and probe
B. Cable tester
C. Visual fault locator
D. Network tap
Answer: A
Explanation:
A toner and probe tool, also known as a tone generator and probe, is used to trace and identify
individual cables within a bundle or to locate the termination points of cables in wiring closets
and patch panels. It generates a tone that can be picked up by the probe, helping technicians
quickly and accurately identify and label wall plates and wiring. This is the best tool for
identifying proper wiring in the Intermediate Distribution Frame (IDF).
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and
official study guides.

2. An administrator is configuring a switch that will be placed in an area of the office that is
accessible to customers.
Which of the following is the best way for the administrator to mitigate unknown devices from
connecting to the network?
A. SSE
B. ACL
C. Perimeter network
D. 802.1x
Answer: D
Explanation:
3. Which of the following disaster recovery concepts is calculated by dividing the total hours of
operation by the total number of units?
A. MTTR
B. MTBF
C. RPO
D. RTO
Answer: B
Explanation:
Introduction to Disaster Recovery Concepts:
Disaster recovery involves strategies and measures to ensure business continuity and data
recovery in the event of a disaster.
Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF):
MTBF is a reliability metric used to predict the time between failures of a system during
operation. It is calculated by dividing the total operational time by the number of failures.
Formula: MTBF=Total Operational TimeNumber of Failures\text{MTBF} = \frac{\text{Total
Operational Time}}{\text{Number of Failures}}MTBF=Number of FailuresTotal Operational Time
This metric helps in understanding the reliability and expected lifespan of systems and
components.
Example Calculation:
If a server operates for 1000 hours and experiences 2 failures, the MTBF is: MTBF=1000
hours2=500 hours\text{MTBF} = \frac{1000 \text{ hours}}{2} = 500 \text{ hours}MTBF=21000
hours =500 hours
Explanation of the Options:
A. MTTR (Mean Time to Repair): The average time required to repair a system after a failure.
B. MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures): The correct answer, representing the average time
between failures.
C. RPO (Recovery Point Objective): The maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in
time.
D. RTO (Recovery Time Objective): The target time set for the recovery of IT and business
activities after a disaster.
Conclusion:
MTBF is a crucial metric in disaster recovery and system reliability, helping organizations plan
maintenance and predict system performance.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ guide explaining MTBF, MTTR, RPO, and RTO concepts and
their calculations (see page Ref 10†How to Use Cisco Packet Tracer).

4. Which of the following technologies are X.509 certificates most commonly associated with?
A. PKI
B. VLAN tagging
C. LDAP
D. MFA
Answer: A
Explanation:
X.509 certificates are most commonly associated with Public Key Infrastructure (PKI). These
certificates are used for a variety of security functions, including digital signatures, encryption,
and authentication.
PKI: X.509 certificates are a fundamental component of PKI, used to manage encryption keys
and authenticate users and devices.
Digital Certificates: They are used to establish secure communications over networks, such as
SSL/TLS for websites and secure email communication.
Authentication and Encryption: X.509 certificates provide the means to securely exchange keys
and verify identities in various applications, ensuring data integrity and confidentiality. Network
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers PKI and the role of
X.509 certificates in network security.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on PKI, certificates, and secure communications.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains PKI, X.509 certificates, and their
applications in securing network communications.

5. 0.0/24: Reserved for future use, not suitable for multicast.

Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on IP address ranges and multicast.

6. The high bandwidth of WAN 1 may be more suitable for other types of traffic that are less
sensitive to latency and jitter, such as bulk data transfers.

Device Monitoring:
the device that is experiencing connectivity issues is the?APP Server or Router 1, which has a
status of?Down. This means that the server is not responding to network requests or sending
any data. You may want to check the physical connection, power supply, and configuration of
the APP Server to troubleshoot the problem.
7. A network administrator needs to set up a multicast network for audio and video
broadcasting.
Which of the following networks would be the most appropriate for this application?
A. 172.16.0.0/24
B. 192.168.0.0/24
C. 224.0.0.0/24
D. 240.0.0.0/24
Answer: C
Explanation:
The address range 224.0.0.0/24 falls within the Class D IP address range (224.0.0.0 to
239.255.255.255), which is reserved for multicast traffic. Multicast addresses are used for the
delivery of information to multiple destinations simultaneously, making them ideal for
applications like audio and video broadcasting. The other options (172.16.0.0/24,
192.168.0.0/24, and 240.0.0.0/24) are not suitable for multicast as they are within different IP
ranges used for other purposes (private addressing and future use, respectively).
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - IP Addressing section.
8. A network administrator wants to configure a backup route in case the primary route fails. A
dynamic routing protocol is not installed on the router.
Which of the following routing features should the administrator choose to accomplish this task?
A. Neighbor adjacency
B. Link state flooding
C. Administrative distance
D. Hop count
Answer: C
Explanation:
Introduction to Administrative Distance
Administrative distance (AD) is a value used by routers to rank routes from different routing
protocols. AD represents the trustworthiness of the source of the route. Lower AD values are
more preferred. If a router has multiple routes to a destination from different sources, it will
choose the route with the lowest AD.
Static Routes and Backup Routes
When a dynamic routing protocol is not used, static routes can be employed. Static routes are
manually configured routes. To ensure a backup route, multiple static routes to the same
destination can be configured with different AD values.
Configuring Static Routes with Administrative Distance
The primary route is configured with a lower AD value, making it the preferred route. The
backup route is configured with a higher AD value. In the event of the primary route failure, the
router will then use the backup route.
Example Configuration:
plaintext
Copy code
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.1 1
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2 10
In the above example, 192.168.1.0/24 is the destination network.
9. A network administrator is planning to host a company application in the cloud, making the
application available for all internal and third-party users.
Which of the following concepts describes this arrangement?
A. Multitenancy
B. VPC
C. NFV
D. SaaS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Multitenancy is a cloud computing architecture where a single instance of software serves
multiple customers or tenants. Each tenant's data is isolated and remains invisible to other
tenants. Hosting a company application in the cloud to be available for both internal and third-
party users fits this concept, as it allows shared resources and infrastructure while maintaining
data separation and security.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.

10. Which of the following requires network devices to be managed using a different set of IP
addresses?
A. Console
B. Split tunnel
C. Jump box
D. Out of band
Answer: D
Explanation:
Out-of-band (OOB) management refers to using a dedicated management network that is
physically separate from the regular data network. This management network uses a different
set of IP addresses to ensure that management traffic is isolated from user data traffic,
providing a secure way
to manage network devices even if the main network is down or compromised.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

11. A network administrator is planning to implement device monitoring to enhance network

visibility. The security that the solution provies authentication and encryption.
Which of the following meets these requirements?
A. SIEM
B. Syslog
C. NetFlow
D. SNMPv3
Answer: D
Explanation:
SNMPv3 (Simple Network Management Protocol version 3) provides device monitoring with
authentication and encryption. This enhances network visibility and security by ensuring that
monitoring data is securely transmitted and access to network devices is authenticated.
Authentication: SNMPv3 includes robust mechanisms for authenticating users accessing
network devices.
Encryption: It provides encryption to protect the integrity and confidentiality of the data being
transmitted.
Network Management: SNMPv3 allows for detailed monitoring and management of network
devices, ensuring better control and security.
Network
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers SNMP versions,
their features, and security enhancements in SNMPv3.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on implementing and securing SNMP for network
management.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains the benefits and security features of
SNMPv3 for network monitoring.

12. A company is implementing a wireless solution in a high-density environment.

Which of the following 802.11 standards is used when a company is concerned about device
saturation and converage?
A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11ax
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
Answer: B
Explanation:
13. Which of the following IP transmission types encrypts all of the transmitted data?
A. ESP
B. AH
C. GRE
D. UDP
E. TCP
Answer: A
Explanation:
Definition of ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload):
ESP is a part of the IPsec protocol suite used to provide confidentiality, integrity, and
authenticity of data. ESP encrypts the payload and optional ESP trailer, providing data
confidentiality.
ESP Functionality:
ESP can encrypt the entire IP packet, ensuring that the data within the packet is secure from
interception or eavesdropping. It also provides options for data integrity and authentication.
ESP operates in two modes: transport mode (encrypts only the payload of the IP packet) and
tunnel mode (encrypts the entire IP packet).
Comparison with Other Protocols:
AH (Authentication Header): Provides data integrity and authentication but does not encrypt the
payload.
GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation): A tunneling protocol that does not provide encryption.
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) and TCP (Transmission Control Protocol): These are transport
layer protocols that do not inherently provide encryption. Encryption must be provided by
additional protocols like TLS/SSL.
Use Cases:
ESP is widely used in VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) to ensure secure communication over
untrusted networks like the internet.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on IPsec and encryption.

14. Which of the following best describes the transmission format that occurs at the transport
layer over connectionless communication?
A. Datagram
B. Segment
C. Frames
D. Packets
Answer: A
Explanation:
At the transport layer, connectionless communication is typically handled using the User
Datagram Protocol (UDP), which transmits data in units called datagrams. Unlike TCP, UDP
does not establish a connection before sending data and does not guarantee delivery, making
datagrams the correct term for the transmission format in this context.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Exam Objectives and official study guides.

15. 0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks

C 172.16.27.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3
L 172.16.27.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3
Router B:
Routing Table:
Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0
S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
16. Ensure the user subnet cannot use the most commonly used remote access technologies in
the Linux and Windows Server segments.
17. A network architect needs to create a wireless field network to provide reliable service to
public safety vehicles.
Which of the following types of networks is the best solution?
A. Mesh
B. Ad hoc
C. Point-to-point
D. Infrastructure
Answer: A
Explanation:
A mesh network is the best solution for providing reliable wireless service to public safety
vehicles. In a mesh network, each node (vehicle) can connect to multiple other nodes, providing
multiple paths for data to travel. This enhances reliability and redundancy, ensuring continuous
connectivity even if one or more nodes fail. Mesh networks are highly resilient and are well-
suited for dynamic and mobile environments such as public safety operations.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

18. A network technician is examining the configuration on an access port and notices more
than one VLAN has been set.
Which of the following best describes how the port is configured?
A. With a voice VLAN
B. With too many VLANs
C. With a default VLAN
D. With a native VLAN
Answer: A
Explanation:
It is common for an access port to have both a voice VLAN and a data VLAN. A voice VLAN
separates voice traffic from regular data traffic, ensuring better quality and security for voice
communications.

19. An IT manager needs to connect ten sites in a mesh network. Each needs to be secured
with reduced provisioning time.
Which of the following technologies will best meet this requirement?
A. SD-WAN
B. VXLAN
C. VPN
D. NFV
Answer: A
Explanation:
Definition of SD-WAN:
Software-Defined Wide Area Network (SD-WAN) is a technology that simplifies the
management and operation of a WAN by decoupling the networking hardware from its control
mechanism. It allows for centralized management and enhanced security.
Benefits of SD-WAN:
Reduced Provisioning Time: SD-WAN enables quick and easy deployment of new sites with
centralized control and automation.
Security: Incorporates advanced security features such as encryption, secure tunneling, and
integrated firewalls.
Scalability: Easily scales to accommodate additional sites and bandwidth requirements.
Comparison with Other Technologies:
VXLAN (Virtual Extensible LAN): Primarily used for network virtualization within data centers.
VPN (Virtual Private Network): Provides secure connections but does not offer the centralized
management and provisioning efficiency of SD-WAN.
NFV (Network Functions Virtualization): Virtualizes network services but does not specifically
address WAN management and provisioning.
Implementation:
SD-WAN solutions are implemented by deploying edge devices at each site and connecting
them to a central controller. This allows for dynamic routing, traffic management, and security
policy enforcement.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ course materials and networking solution guides.

20. Which of the following are environmental factors that should be considered when installing
equipment in a building? (Select two).
A. Fire suppression system
B. UPS location
C. Humidity control
D. Power load
E. Floor construction type
F. Proximity to nearest MDF
Answer: A
Explanation:
When installing equipment in a building, environmental factors are critical to ensure the safety
and longevity of the equipment. A fire suppression system is essential to protect the equipment
from fire hazards. Humidity control is crucial to prevent moisture-related damage, such as
corrosion and short circuits, which can adversely affect electronic components. Both factors are
vital for maintaining an optimal environment for networking equipment.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

21. 11g and 802.11n: Older standards that do not offer the same level of efficiency or support
for
high device density as 802.11ax.
Network
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Covers the 802.11
standards and their capabilities.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on Wi-Fi technologies and best practices for high-
density deployments.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Discusses the various 802.11 standards and
their applications in different environments.

22. A network engineer is now in charge of all SNMP management in the organization. The
engineer must use a SNMP version that does not utilize plaintext data.
Which of the following is the minimum version of SNMP that supports this requirement?
A. v1
B. v2c
C. v2u
D. v3
Answer: D
Explanation:
SNMPv3 is the version of the Simple Network Management Protocol that introduces security
enhancements, including message integrity, authentication, and encryption. Unlike previous
versions (v1 and v2c), SNMPv3 supports encrypted communication, ensuring that data is not
transmitted in plaintext. This provides confidentiality and protects against eavesdropping and
unauthorized access.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.

23. 0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks

C 172.16.27.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
L 172.16.27.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2
C 172.16.27.4/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
L 172.16.27.6/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1
Configuration Steps:
Router A:
Install Static Route to 10.0.0.0/22 via 172.16.27.1 (assuming Router C's IP is 172.16.27.1):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.0.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet3
Router B:
Install Static Route to 10.0.4.0/22 via 172.16.27.5 (assuming Router C's IP is 172.16.27.5):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.4.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet1
Router C:
Install Static Route to 10.0.6.0/24 via 172.16.27.2 (assuming Router A's IP is 172.16.27.2):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.6.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.255.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet2
Install Static Route to 10.0.0.0/22 via 172.16.27.1 (assuming Router B's IP is 172.16.27.1):
Destination Prefix: 10.0.0.0
Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0
Interface: GigabitEthernet1
Summary of Static Routes:
Router A:
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet3
Router B:
ip route 10.0.4.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet1
Router C:
ip route 10.0.6.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet2
ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet1
These configurations ensure that each router knows the correct paths to reach Workstation A
and File Server 2, resolving the connectivity issue.

24. 0.1 is the next-hop IP address for the primary route with an AD of 1.
25. Which of the following is used to estimate the average life span of a device?
A. RTO
B. RPO
C. MTBF
D. MTTR
Answer: C
Explanation:
Understanding MTBF:
Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF): A reliability metric that estimates the average time
between successive failures of a device or system.
Calculation and Importance:
Calculation: MTBF is calculated as the total operational time divided by the number of failures
during that period.
Usage: Used by manufacturers and engineers to predict the lifespan and reliability of a device,
helping in maintenance planning and lifecycle management.
Comparison with Other Metrics:
RTO (Recovery Time Objective): The maximum acceptable time to restore a system after a
failure.
RPO (Recovery Point Objective): The maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in
time.
MTTR (Mean Time to Repair): The average time required to repair a device or system and
return it to operational status.
Application:
MTBF is crucial for planning maintenance schedules, spare parts inventory, and improving the
overall reliability of systems.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on reliability and maintenance metrics.

26. A support agent receives a report that a remote user’s wired devices are constantly
disconnecting and have slow speeds. Upon inspection, the support agent sees that the user’s
coaxial modern has a signal power of -97dB.
A. Removing any spliters connecte to the line
B. Switching the devices to wireless
C. Moving the devices closer to the modern
D. Lowering the network speed
Answer: A
Explanation:
A signal power of -97dB indicates a very weak signal, which can cause connectivity issues and
slow speeds. Splitters on a coaxial line can degrade the signal quality further, so removing them
can help improve the signal strength and overall connection quality.
Signal Quality: Splitters can reduce the signal strength by dividing the signal among multiple
lines, which can be detrimental when the signal is already weak.
Direct Connection: Ensuring a direct connection from the modem to the incoming line can
maximize signal quality and reduce potential points of failure. Network
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses troubleshooting
connectivity issues and the impact of signal strength on network performance.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides insights on maintaining optimal signal quality in network
setups.
Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Covers common network issues, including those
related to signal degradation and ways to mitigate them.

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