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CAT 2022 Slot 02 With Answers by Exam4mba

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CAT 2022 Slot 02 With Answers by Exam4mba

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CAT

QUESTION 2022
PAPER

Your one-stop solution for all MBA entrance exams


Actual CAT – 2022
Slot – 2 Question Paper

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CAT - 2022 Slot – 2 VARC Section
The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
Humans today make music. Think beyond all the qualifications that might trail after this bald statement:
that only certain humans make music, that extensive training is involved, that many societies
distinguish musical specialists from non-musicians, that in today’s societies most listen to music rather
than making it, and so forth. These qualifications, whatever their local merit, are moot in the face of
the overarching truth that making music, considered from a cognitive and psychological vantage, is the
province of all those who perceive and experience what is made. We are, almost all of us, musicians —
everyone who can entrain (not necessarily dance) to a beat, who can recognize a repeated tune (not
necessarily sing it), who can distinguish one instrument or one singing voice from another. I will often
use an antique word, recently revived, to name this broader musical experience. Humans are musicking
creatures. . ..
The set of capacities that enables music king is a principal marker of modern humanity. There is nothing
polemical in this assertion except a certain insistence, which will figure often in what follows, that
musicking be included in our thinking about fundamental human commonalities. Capacities involved in
musicking are many and take shape in complicated ways, arising from innate dispositions . . . Most of
these capacities overlap with nonmusical ones, though a few may be distinct and dedicated to musical
perception and production. In the area of overlap, linguistic capacities seem to be particularly
important, and humans are (in principle) language-makers in addition to music-makers — speaking
creatures as well as musicking ones.
Humans are symbol-makers too, a feature tightly bound up with language, not so tightly with music.
The species Cassirer dubbed Homo symbolic us cannot help but tangle music king in webs of symbolic
thought and expression, habitually making it a component of behavioral complexes that form such
expression. But in fundamental features music king is neither language-like nor symbol-like, and from
these differences come many clues to its ancient emergence.
If musicking is a primary, shared trait of modern humans, then to describe its emergence must be to
detail the coalescing of that modernity. This took place, archaeologists are clear, over a very long durée:
at least 50,000 years or so, more likely something closer to 200,000, depending in part on what that
coalescence is taken to comprise. If we look back 20,000 years, a small portion of this long period, we
reach the lives of humans whose musical capacities were probably little different from our own. As we
look farther back we reach horizons where this similarity can no longer hold — perhaps 40,000 years
ago, perhaps 70,000, perhaps 100,000. But we never cross a line before which all the cognitive

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capacities recruited in modern music king abruptly disappear. Unless we embrace the incredible notion
that music sprang forth in full-blown glory, its emergence will have to be tracked in gradualist terms
across a long period.
This is one general feature of a history of music’s emergence . . . The history was at once sociocultural
and biological . . . The capacities recruited in music king are many, so describing its emergence involves
following several or many separate strands.
Q.1)
Which one of the following statements, if true, would weaken the author’s claim that humans are
musicking creatures?
[1] As musicking is neither language-like nor symbol-like, it is a much older form of expression.
[2] Nonmusical capacities are of far greater consequence to human survival than the capacity for music.
[3] Musical capacities are primarily socio-cultural, which explains the wide diversity of musical forms.
[4] From a cognitive and psychological vantage, musicking arises from unconscious dispositions, not
conscious ones.
Ans : 3

Q.2)
Which one of the following sets of terms best serves as keywords to the passage?
[1] Humans; Psychological vantage; Musicking; Cassirer; Emergence of music.
[2] Musicking; Cognitive psychology; Antique; Symbol-makers; Modernity.
[3] Humans; Capacities; Language; Symbols; Modernity.
[4] Humans; Musicking; Linguistic capacities; Symbol-making; Modern humanity.
Ans : 4

Q.3)
Based on the passage, which one of the following statements is a valid argument about the emergence
of music/musicking?
[1] Although musicking is not language-like, it shares the quality of being a form of expression.
[2] All musical work is located in the overlap between linguistic capacity and music production.
[3] Anyone who can perceive and experience music must be considered capable of musicking.
[4] 20,000 years ago, human musical capacities were not very different from what they are today.
Ans : 4

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Q.4)
“Think beyond all the qualifications that might trail after this bald statement . . .” In the context of the
passage, what is the author trying to communicate in this quoted extract?
[1] Thinking beyond qualifications allows us to give free reign to musical expressions.
[2] A bald statement is one that is trailed by a series of qualifying clarifications and caveats.
[3] Although there may be many caveats and other considerations, the statement is essentially true.
[4] A bald statement is one that requires no qualifications to infer its meaning.
Ans : 3

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The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
[Octopuses are] misfits in their own extended families . . . They belong to the Mollusca class
Cephalopoda. But they don’t look like their cousins at all. Other molluscs include sea snails, sea slugs,
bivalves – most are shelled invertebrates with a dorsal foot. Cephalopods are all arms, and can be as
tiny as 1 centimetre and as large at 30 feet. Some of them have brains the size of a walnut, which is
large for an invertebrate. . . .
It makes sense for these molluscs to have added protection in the form of a higher cognition; they don’t
have a shell covering them, and pretty much everything feeds on cephalopods, including humans. But
how did cephalopods manage to secure their own invisibility cloak? Cephalopods fire from multiple
cylinders to achieve this in varying degrees from species to species. There are four main catalysts –
chromatophores, iridophores, papillae and leucophores. . . .
[Chromatophores] are organs on their bodies that contain pigment sacs, which have red, yellow and
brown pigment granules. These sacs have a network of radial muscles, meaning muscles arranged in a
circle radiating outwards. These are connected to the brain by a nerve. When the cephalopod wants to
change colour, the brain carries an electrical impulse through the nerve to the muscles that expand
outwards, pulling open the sacs to display the colours on the skin. Why these three colours? Because
these are the colours the light reflects at the depths they live in (the rest is absorbed before it reaches
those depths). . . .
Well, what about other colours? Cue the iridophores. Think of a second level of skin that has thin stacks
of cells. These can reflect light back at different wavelengths. . . . It’s using the same properties that
we’ve seen in hologram stickers, or rainbows on puddles of oil. You move your head and you see a
different colour. The sticker isn’t doing anything but reflecting light – it’s your movement that’s
changing the appearance of the colour. This property of holograms, oil and other such surfaces is called
“iridescence”. . . .
Papillae are sections of the skin that can be deformed to make a texture bumpy. Even humans possess
them (goosebumps) but cannot use them in the manner that cephalopods can. For instance, the use of
these cells is how an octopus can wrap itself over a rock and appear jagged or how a squid or cuttlefish
can imitate the look of a coral reef by growing miniature towers on its skin. It actually matches the
texture of the substrate it chooses.
Finally, the leucophores: According to a paper, published in Nature, cuttlefish and octopuses possess
an additional type of reflector cell called a leucophore. They are cells that scatter full spectrum light so
that they appear white in a similar way that a polar bear’s fur appears white. Leucophores will also

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reflect any filtered light shown on them . . . If the water appears blue at a certain depth, the octopuses
and cuttlefish can appear blue; if the water appears green, they appear green, and so on and so forth.
Q.5)
All of the following are reasons for octopuses being “misfits” EXCEPT that they:
[1] exhibit higher intelligence than other molluscs.
[2] do not possess an outer protective shell.
[3] are consumed by humans and other animals.
[4] have several arms.
Ans : 3

Q.6)
Based on the passage, it can be inferred that camouflaging techniques in an octopus are most dissimilar
to those in:
[1] polar bears
[2] cuttlefish
[3] squids
[4] sea snails
Ans :4

Q.7)
Based on the passage, we can infer that all of the following statements, if true, would weaken the
camouflaging adeptness of Cephalopods EXCEPT:
[1] the hydrostatic pressure at the depths at which Cephalopods reside renders radial muscle
movements difficult.
[2] the number of chromatophores in Cephalopods is half the number of iridophores and leucophores.
[3] light reflects the colours red, green, and yellow at the depths at which Cephalopods reside.
[4] the temperature of water at the depths at which Cephalopods reside renders the transmission of
neural signals difficult.
Ans :2

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Q.8)
Which one of the following statements is not true about the camouflaging ability of Cephalopods?
[1] Cephalopods can change their colour.
[2] Cephalopods can change their texture.
[3] Cephalopods can blend into the colour of their surroundings.
[4] Cephalopods can take on the colour of their predator.
Ans :4

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The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each CAT 2023
question.
We begin with the emergence of the philosophy of the social sciences as an arena of thought and as a
set of social institutions. The two characterisations overlap but are not congruent. Academic disciplines
are social institutions. . . . My view is that institutions are all those social entities that organise action:
they link acting individuals into social structures. There are various kinds of institutions. Hegelians and
Marxists emphasise universal institutions such as the family, rituals, governance, economy and the
military. These are mostly institutions that just grew. Perhaps in some imaginary beginning of time they
spontaneously appeared. In their present incarnations, however, they are very much the product of
conscious attempts to mould and plan them. We have family law, established and disestablished
churches, constitutions and laws, including those governing the economy and the military. Institutions
deriving from statute, like joint-stock companies are formal by contrast with informal ones such as
friendships. There are some institutions that come in both informal and formal variants, as well as in
mixed ones. Consider the fact that the stock exchange and the black market are both market
institutions, one formal one not. Consider further that there are many features of the work of the stock
exchange that rely on informal, noncodifiable agreements, not least the language used for
communication. To be precise, mixtures are the norm . . . From constitutions at the top to by-laws near
the bottom we are always adding to, or tinkering with, earlier institutions, the grown and the designed
are intertwined.
It is usual in social thought to treat culture and tradition as different from, although alongside,
institutions. The view taken here is different. Culture and tradition are sub-sets of institutions
analytically isolated for explanatory or expository purposes. Some social scientists have taken all
institutions, even purely local ones, to be entities that satisfy basic human needs – under local
conditions . . . Others differed and declared any structure of reciprocal roles and norms an institution.
Most of these differences are differences of emphasis rather than disagreements. Let us straddle all
these versions and present institutions very generally . . . as structures that serve to coordinate the
actions of individuals. . . . Institutions themselves then have no aims or purpose other than those given
to them by actors or used by actors to explain them . . .
Language is the formative institution for social life and for science . . . Both formal and informal
language is involved, naturally grown or designed. (Language is all of these to varying degrees.)
Languages are paradigms of institutions or, from another perspective, nested sets of institutions.
Syntax, semantics, lexicon and alphabet/character-set are all institutions within the larger institutional
framework of a written language. Natural languages are typical examples of what Ferguson called ‘the

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result of human action, but not the execution of any human design’[;] reformed natural languages and
artificial languages introduce design into their modifications or refinements of natural language. Above
all, languages are paradigms of institutional tools that function to coordinate.
Q.9)
“Consider the fact that the stock exchange and the black market are both market institutions, one
formal one not.” Which one of the following statements best explains this quote, in the context of the
passage?
[1] Market instruments can be formally traded in the stock exchange and informally traded in the black
market.
[2] The stock exchange and the black market are both organised to function by rules.
[3] The stock exchange and the black market are both dependent on the market to survive.
[4] The stock exchange and the black market are examples of how, even within the same domain,
different kinds of institutions can co-exist.
Ans :4

Q.10)
All of the following inferences from the passage are false, EXCEPT:
[1] institutions like the family, rituals, governance, economy, and the military are natural and cannot
be consciously modified.
[2] as concepts, “culture” and “tradition” have no analytical, explanatory or expository power,
especially when they are treated in isolation.
[3] the institution of friendship cannot be found in the institution of joint-stock companies because the
first is an informal institution, while the second is a formal one.
[4] “natural language” refers to that stage of language development where no conscious human intent
is evident in the formation of language.
Ans :4

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Q.11)
In the first paragraph of the passage, what are the two “characterisations” that are seen as overlapping
but not congruent?
[1] “an arena of thought” and “academic disciplines”.
[2] “individuals” and “social structures”.
[3] “academic disciplines” and “institutions”.
[4] “the philosophy of the social sciences” and “a set of social institutions”.
Ans :3

Q.12)
Which of the following statements best represents the essence of the passage?
[1] It is usual in social thought to treat culture and tradition as different from institutions.
[2] Language is the fundamental formal institution for social life and for science.
[3] The stock exchange and the black market are both market institutions.
[4] Institutions are structures that serve to coordinate the actions of individuals.
Ans :4

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The passage below is accompanied by a set of questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
When we teach engineering problems now, we ask students to come to a single “best” solution defined
by technical ideals like low cost, speed to build, and ability to scale. This way of teaching primes
students to believe that their decision-making is purely objective, as it is grounded in math and science.
This is known as technical-social dualism, the idea that the technical and social dimensions of
engineering problems are readily separable and remain distinct throughout the problem-definition and
solution process.
Nontechnical parameters such as access to a technology, cultural relevancy or potential harms are
deemed political and invalid in this way of learning. But those technical ideals are at their core social
and political choices determined by a dominant culture focused on economic growth for the most
privileged segments of society. By choosing to downplay public welfare as a critical parameter for
engineering design, we risk creating a culture of disengagement from societal concerns amongst
engineers that is antithetical to the ethical code of engineering.
In my field of medical devices, ignoring social dimensions has real consequences. . . . Most FDA-
approved drugs are incorrectly dosed for people assigned female at birth, leading to unexpected
adverse reactions. This is because they have been inadequately represented in clinical trials.
Beyond physical failings, subjective beliefs treated as facts by those in decision-making roles can
encode social inequities. For example, spirometers, routinely used devices that measure lung capacity,
still have correction factors that automatically assume smaller lung capacity in Black and Asian
individuals. These racially based adjustments are derived from research done by eugenicists who
thought these racial differences were biologically determined and who considered nonwhite people as
inferior. These machines ignore the influence of social and environmental factors on lung capacity.
Many technologies for systemically marginalized people have not been built because they were not
deemed important such as better early diagnostics and treatment for diseases like endometriosis, a
disease that afflicts 10 percent of people with uteruses. And we hardly question whether devices are
built sustainably, which has led to a crisis of medical waste and health care accounting for 10 percent
of U.S. greenhouse gas emissions.
Social justice must be made core to the way engineers are trained. Some universities are working on
this. . . . Engineers taught this way will be prepared to think critically about what problems we choose
to solve, how we do so responsibly and how we build teams that challenge our ways of thinking.
Individual engineering professors are also working to embed societal needs in their pedagogy. Darshan
Karwat at the University of Arizona developed activist engineering to challenge engineers to
acknowledge their full moral and social responsibility through practical self-reflection. Khalid Kadir at

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the University of California, Berkeley, created the popular course Engineering, Environment, and
Society that teaches engineers how to engage in place-based knowledge, an understanding of the
people, context and history, to design better technical approaches in collaboration with communities.
When we design and build with equity and justice in mind, we craft better solutions that respond to
the complexities of entrenched systemic problems.
Q.13)
In this passage, the author is making the claim that:
[1] technical-social dualism has emerged as a technique for engineering students to incorporate social
considerations into their technical problem-solving processes.
[2] engineering students today are trained to be non-subjective in their reasoning as this best enables
them to develop much-needed universal solutions.
[3] the objective of best solutions in engineering has shifted the focus of pedagogy from humanism and
social obligations to technological perfection.
[4] engineering students today are taught to focus on objective technical outcomes, independent of
the social dimensions of their work.
Ans :4

Q.14)
We can infer that the author would approve of a more evolved engineering pedagogy that includes all
of the following EXCEPT:
[1] moving towards technical-social dualism where social community needs are incorporated in
problem-definition and solutions.
[2] design that is based on the needs of communities using local knowledge and responding to local
priorities.
[3] making considerations of environmental sustainability intrinsic to the development of technological
solutions.
[4] a more responsible approach to technical design and problem-solving than a focus on speed in
developing and bringing to scale.
Ans :1

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Q.15)
All of the following are examples of the negative outcomes of focusing on technical ideals in the medical
sphere EXCEPT the:
[1] continuing calibration of medical devices based on past racial biases that have remained unadjusted
for changes.
[2] incorrect assignment of people as female at birth which has resulted in faulty drug interventions.
[3] neglect of research and development of medical technologies for the diagnosis and treatment of
diseases that typically afflict marginalised communities.
[4] exclusion of non-privileged groups in clinical trials which leads to incorrect drug dosages.
Ans :2

Q.16)
The author gives all of the following reasons for why marginalised people are systematically
discriminated against in technology-related interventions EXCEPT:
[1] “And we hardly question whether devices are built sustainably, which has led to a crisis of medical
waste and health care accounting for 10 percent of U.S. greenhouse gas emissions.”
[2] “But those technical ideals are at their core social and political choices determined by a dominant
culture focused on economic growth for the most privileged segments of society.”
[3] “These racially based adjustments are derived from research done by eugenicists who thought these
racial differences were biologically determined and who considered nonwhite people as inferior.”
[4] “Beyond physical failings, subjective beliefs treated as facts by those in decision-making roles can
encode social inequities.”
Ans :1

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Q.17)
The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best
captures the essence of the passage.
Today, many of the debates about behavioural control in the age of big data echo Cold War-era
anxieties about brainwashing, insidious manipulation and repression in the ‘technological society’. In
his book Psychopolitics, Han warns of the sophisticated use of targeted online content, enabling
‘influence to take place on a pre-reflexive level’. On our current trajectory, “freedom will prove to have
been merely an interlude.” The fear is that the digital age has not liberated us but exposed us, by
offering up our private lives to machine-learning algorithms that can process masses of personal and
behavioural data. In a world of influencers and digital entrepreneurs, it’s not easy to imagine the
resurgence of a culture engendered through disconnect and disaffiliation, but concerns over the threat
of online targeting, polarisation and big data have inspired recent polemics about the need to
rediscover solitude and disconnect.
[1] The role of technology in influencing public behaviour is reminiscent of the manner in which
behaviour was manipulated during the Cold War.
[2] With big data making personal information freely available, the debate on the nature of freedom
and the need for privacy has resurfaced.
[3] The notion of freedom and privacy is at stake in a world where artificial intelligence is capable of
influencing behaviour through data gathered online.
[4] Rather than freeing us, digital technology is enslaving us by collecting personal information and
influencing our online behaviour.
Ans :2

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Q.18)
The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent
paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence
of the four numbers as your answer:
[1] The trajectory of cheerfulness through the self is linked to the history of the word ‘cheer’ which
comes from an Old French meaning ‘face’.
[2] Translations of the Bible into vernacular languages, expanded the noun ‘cheer’ into the more
abstract ‘cheerful-ness’, something that circulates as an emotional and social quality defining the self
and a moral community.
[3] When you take on a cheerful expression, no matter what the state of your soul, your cheerfulness
moves into the self: the interior of the self is changed by the power of cheer.
[4] People in the medieval ‘Canterbury Tales’ have a ‘piteous’ or a ‘sober’ cheer; ‘cheer’ is an expression
and a body part, lying at the intersection of emotions and physiognomy.
Ans :3142

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Q.19)
The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best
captures the essence of the passage.
There’s a common idea that museum artworks are somehow timeless objects available to admire for
generations to come. But many are objects of decay. Even the most venerable Old Master paintings
don’t escape: pigments discolour, varnishes crack, canvases warp. This challenging fact of art-world life
is down to something that sounds more like a thread from a morality tale: inherent vice. Damien Hirst’s
iconic shark floating in a tank – entitled The Physical Impossibility of Death in the Mind of Someone
Living – is a work that put a spotlight on inherent vice. When he made it in 1991, Hirst got himself in a
pickle by not using the right kind of pickle to preserve the giant fish. The result was that the shark began
to decompose quite quickly – its preserving liquid clouding, the skin wrinkling, and an unpleasant smell
wafting from the tank.
[1] The role of museums has evolved to ensure that the artworks are preserved forever in addition to
guarding and displaying them.
[2] Artworks may not last forever; they may deteriorate with time, and the challenge is to slow down
their degeneration.
[3] Museums are left with the moral responsibility of restoring and preserving the artworks since artists
cannot preserve their works beyond their life.
[4] Museums have to guard timeless art treasures from intrinsic defects such as the deterioration of
paint, polish and canvas.
Ans :2

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Q.20)
The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best
captures the essence of the passage.
Several of the world’s earliest cities were organised along egalitarian lines. In some regions, urban
populations governed themselves for centuries without any indication of the temples and palaces that
would later emerge; in others, temples and palaces never emerged at all, and there is simply no
evidence of a class of administrators or any other sort of ruling stratum. It would seem that the mere
fact of urban life does not, necessarily, imply any particular form of political organization, and never
did. Far from resigning us to inequality, the picture that is now emerging of humanity’s past may open
our eyes to egalitarian possibilities we otherwise would have never considered.
[1] We now have the evidence in support of the existence of an egalitarian urban life in some ancient
cities, where political and civic organisation was far less hierarchical.
[2] Contrary to our assumption that urban settlements have always involved hierarchical political and
administrative structures, ancient cities were not organised in this way.
[3] The emergence of a class of administrators and ruling stratum transformed the egalitarian urban
life of ancient cities to the hierarchical civic organisations of today.
[4] The lack of hierarchical administration in ancient cities can be deduced by the absence of religious
and regal structures such as temples and palaces.
Ans :1

Q.21)
The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent
paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence
of the four numbers as your answer:
[1] Women may prioritize cooking because they feel they alone are responsible for mediating a toxic
and unhealthy food system.
[2] Food is commonly framed through the lens of individual choice: you can choose to eat healthily.
[3] This is particularly so in a neoliberal context where the state has transferred the responsibility for
food onto individual consumers.
[4] The individualized framing of choice appeals to a popular desire to experience agency, but draws
away from the structural obstacles that stratify individual food choices.
Ans :2431

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Q.22)
The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent
paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence
of the four numbers as your answer:
[1] From chemical pollutants in the environment to the damming of rivers to invasive species
transported through global trade and travel, every environmental issue is different and there is no
single tech solution that can solve this crisis.
[2] Discourse on the threat of environmental collapse revolves around cutting down emissions, but
biodiversity loss and ecosystem collapse are caused by myriad and diverse reasons.
[3] This would require legislation that recognises the rights of future generations and other species that
allows the judiciary to uphold a much higher standard of environmental protection than currently
possible.
[4] Clearly, our environmental crisis requires large political solutions, not minor technological ones, so,
instead of focusing on infinite growth, we could consider a path of stable-state economies, while
preserving markets and healthy competition.
Ans :2143

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Q.23)
There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide in which
blank (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.
Sentence: This was years in the making but fast-tracked during the pandemic, when “people started
being more mindful about their food”, he explained.
Paragraph: For millennia, ghee has been a venerated staple of the subcontinental diet, but it fell out of
favour a few decades ago when saturated fats were largely considered to be unhealthy. ____(1)____
But more recently, as the thinking around saturated fats is shifting globally, Indians are finding their
own way back to this ingredient that is so integral to their cuisine. ____(2)____ For Karmakar, a
renewed interest in ghee is emblematic of a return-to-basics movement in India. ____(3)____ This
movement is also part of an overall trend towards “slow food”. In keeping with the movement’s
philosophy, ghee can be produced locally (even at home) and has inextricable cultural ties. ____(4)____
At a basic level, ghee is a type of clarified butter believed to have originated in India as a way to preserve
butter from going rancid in the hot climate.
[1] Option 1
[2] Option 2
[3] Option 3
[4] Option 4
Ans :3

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Q.24)
There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide in which
blank (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.
Sentence: Most were first-time users of a tablet and a digital app.
Paragraph: Aage Badhein’s USP lies in the ethnographic research that constituted the foundation of its
development process. Customizations based on learning directly from potential users were critical to
making this self-paced app suitable for both a literate and non-literate audience. ____(1)____ The user
interface caters to a Hindi-speaking audience who have minimal to no experience with digital services
and devices. ____(2)____ The content and functionality of the app are suitable for a wide audience.
This includes youth preparing for an independent role in life or a student ready to create a strong
foundation of financial management early in her life. ____(3)____ Household members desirous of
improving their family’s financial strength to reach their aspirations can also benefit. We piloted Aage
Badhein in early 2021 with over 400 women from rural areas. ____(4)____ The digital solution
generated a large amount of interest in the communities.
[1] Option 1
[2] Option 2
[3] Option 3
[4] Option 4
Ans : 4

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CAT – 2022 Slot - 2 DILR Section
A speciality supermarket sells 320 products. Each of these products was either a cosmetic product or a
nutrition product. Each of these products was also either a foreign product or a domestic product. Each
of these products had at least one of the two approvals – FDA or EU.
The following facts are also known:
1. There were equal numbers of domestic and foreign products.
2. Half of the domestic products were FDA approved cosmetic products.
3. None of the foreign products had both the approvals, while 60 domestic products had both the
approvals.
4. There were 140 nutrition products, half of them were foreign products.
5. There were 200 FDA approved products. 70 of them were foreign products and 120 of them were
cosmetic products.
Q.1)
How many foreign products were FDA approved cosmetic products?
Ans :40

Q.2)
How many cosmetic products did not have FDA approval?
[1] 10
[2] 60
[3] 50
[4] Cannot be determined
Ans :2

Q.3)
Which among the following options best represents the number of domestic cosmetic products that
had both the approvals?
[1] At least 10 and at most 80
[2] At least 20 and at most 70
[3] At least 20 and at most 50
[4] At least 10 and at most 60
Ans :4

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Q.4)
If 70 cosmetic products did not have EU approval, then how many nutrition products had both the
approvals?
[1] 10
[2] 20
[3] 30
[4] 50
Ans :1

Q.5)
If 50 nutrition products did not have EU approval, then how many domestic cosmetic products did not
have EU approval?
Ans :50

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The two plots below show data for four companies code-named A, B, C, and D over three years - 2019,
2020, and 2021.
The first plot shows the revenues and costs incurred by the companies during these years. For example,
in 2021, company C earned Rs.100 crores in revenue and spent Rs.30 crores. The profit of a company
is defined as its revenue minus its costs.

The second plot shows the number of employees employed by the company (employee strength) at
the start of each of these three years, as well as the number of new employees hired each year (new
hires). For example, Company B had 250 employees at the start of 2021, and 30 new employees joined
the company during the year.

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Q.6)
Considering all three years, which company had the highest annual profit?
[1] Company B
[2] Company C
[3] Company D
[4] Company A
Ans :2

Q.7)
Which of the four companies experienced the highest annual loss in any of the years?
[1] Company B
[2] Company C
[3] Company A
[4] Company D
Ans :4

Q.8)
The ratio of a company’s annual profit to its annual costs is a measure of its performance. Which of the
four companies had the lowest value of this ratio in 2019?
[1] Company D
[2] Company C
[3] Company B
[4] Company A
Ans :4

Q.9)
The total number of employees lost in 2019 and 2020 was the least for:
[1] Company D
[2] Company B
[3] Company A
[4] Company C
Ans :2

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Q.10)
Profit per employee is the ratio of a company’s profit to its employee strength. For this purpose, the
employee strength in a year is the average of the employee strength at the beginning of that year and
the beginning of the next year. In 2020, which of the four companies had the highest profit per
employee?
[1] Company B
[2] Company A
[3] Company C
[4] Company D
Ans :1

A few salesmen are employed to sell a product called TRICCEK among households in various housing
complexes. On each day, a salesman is assigned to visit one housing complex. Once a salesman enters
a housing complex, he can meet any number of households in the time available. However, if a
household makes a complaint against the salesman, then he must leave the housing complex
immediately and cannot meet any other household on that day. A household may buy any number of
TRICCEK items or may not buy any item. The salesman needs to record the total number of TRICCEK
items sold as well as the number of households met in each day. The success rate of a salesman for a
day is defined as the ratio of the number of items sold to the number of households met on that day.
Some details about the performances of three salesmen - Tohri, Hokli and Lahur, on two particular days
are given below.
1. Over the two days, all three of them met the same total number of households, and each of them
sold a total of 100 items.
2. On both days, Lahur met the same number of households and sold the same number of items.
3. Hokli could not sell any item on the second day because the first household he met on that day
complained against him.
4. Tohri met 30 more households on the second day than on the first day.
5. Tohri’s success rate was twice that of Lahur’s on the first day, and it was 75% of Lahur’s on the second
day.
Q.11)
What was the total number of households met by Tohri, Hokli and Lahur on the first day?
Ans :84

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Q.12)
How many TRICCEK items were sold by Tohri on the first day?
Ans :40

Q.13)
How many households did Lahur meet on the second day?
[1] more than 35
[2] between 30 and 35
[3] 20 or less
[4] between 21 and 29
Ans :4

Q.14)
How many households did Tohri meet on the first day?
[1] between 21 and 40
[2] more than 40
[3] between 11 and 20
[4] 10 or less
Ans :4

Q.15)
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
[1] Tohri had a higher success rate on the first day compared to the second day.
[2] Among the three, Lahur had the lowest success rate on the first day.
[3] Among the three, Tohri had the highest success rate on the second day.
[4] Among the three, Tohri had the highest success rate on the first day.
Ans :3

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Every day a widget supplier supplies widgets from the warehouse (W) to four locations – Ahmednagar
(A), Bikrampore (B), Chitrachak (C), and Deccan Park (D). The daily demand for widgets in each location
is uncertain and independent of each other. Demands and corresponding probability values (in
parenthesis) are given against each location (A, B, C, and D) in the figure below. For example, there is
a 40% chance that the demand in Ahmednagar will be 50 units and a 60% chance that the demand will
be 70 units. The lines in the figure connecting the locations and warehouse represent two-way roads
connecting those places with the distances (in km) shown beside the line. The distances in both the
directions along a road are equal. For example, the road from Ahmednagar to Bikrampore and the road
from Bikrampore to Ahmednagar are both 6 km long.

Every day the supplier gets the information about the demand values of the four locations and creates
the travel route that starts from the warehouse and ends at a location after visiting all the locations
exactly once. While making the route plan, the supplier goes to the locations in decreasing order of
demand. If there is a tie for the choice of the next location, the supplier will go to the location closest
to the current location. Also, while creating the route, the supplier can either follow the direct path (if
available) from one location to another or can take the path via the warehouse. If both paths are
available (direct and via warehouse), the supplier will choose the path with minimum distance.
Q.16)
If the last location visited is Ahmednagar, then what is the total distance covered in the route (in km)?
Ans :35

Q.17)
If the total number of widgets delivered in a day is 250 units, then what is the total distance covered in
the route (in km)?
Ans :38

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Q.18)
What is the chance that the total number of widgets delivered in a day is 260 units and the route ends
at Bikrampore?
[1] 7.56%
[2] 17.64%
[3] 10.80%
[4] 33.33%
Ans :1

Q.19)
If the first location visited from the warehouse is Ahmednagar, then what is the chance that the total
distance covered in the route is 40 km?
[1] 18%
[2] 5.4%
[3] 30%
[4] 3.24%
Ans :1

Q.20)
If Ahmednagar is not the first location to be visited in a route and the total route distance is 29 km,
then which of the following is a possible number of widgets delivered on that day?
[1] 210
[2] 220
[3] 200
[4] 250
Ans :1

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CAT 2022 - Slot 02 Quant Section
Q.1)
In triangle ABC, altitudes AD and BE are drawn to the corresponding bases. If BAC = 45° and ABC =
AD
, then equals
BE
[1] 1

[2] 2 cos 

[3]
(sin  + cos
2

[4] 2 sin 
Ans :4

Q.2)
Consider the arithmetic progression 3, 7, 11, ... and let An denote the sum of the first n terms of this
1 25
progression. Then the value of  An is
25 n =1
[1] 404
[2] 415
[3] 455
[4] 442
Ans :3

Q.3)
In an examination, there were 75 questions. 3 marks were awarded for each correct answer, 1 mark
was deducted for each wrong answer and 1 mark was awarded for each unattempted question. Rayan
scored a total of 97 marks in the examination. If the number of unattempted questions was higher than
the number of attempted questions, then the maximum number of correct answers that Rayan could
have given in the examination is
Ans :24

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Q.4)
(x 2 −3 x −10 )
The number of integer solutions of the equation is (x 2 − 10 ) = 1 is

Ans :4

Q.5)
Suppose for all integers x, there are two functions f and g such that f (x) + f (x – 1) – 1 = 0) and g(x) = x2.
f (x2 – x) = 5, then the value of the sum f (g(5)) + g(f (5)) is
Ans :12

Q.6)
Two ships meet mid-ocean, and then, one ship goes south and the other ship goes west, both travelling
at constant speeds. Two hours later, they are 60 km apart. If the speed of one of the ships is 6 km per
hour more than the other one, then the speed, in km per hour, of the slower ship is
[1] 20
[2] 24
[3] 12
[4] 18
Ans :4

Q.7)
The number of integers greater than 2000 that can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, using each
digit at most once, is
[1] 1200
[2] 1440
[3] 1420
[4] 1480
Ans :2

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Q.8)
Mr. Pinto invests one-fifth of his capital at 6%, one-third at 10% and the remaining at 1%, each rate
being simple interest per annum. Then, the minimum number of years required for the cumulative
interest income from these investments to equal or exceed his initial capital is
Ans :20

Q.9)
The average of a non-decreasing sequence of N numbers a1, a2, ..., aN is 300. If a1 is replaced by 6a1;
the new average becomes 400. Then, the number of possible values of a1 is
Ans :1

Q.10)
If a and b are non-negative real numbers such that a + 2b = 6, then the average of the maximum and
minimum possible values of (a + b) is
[1] 3.5
[2] 4.5
[3] 4
[4] 3
Ans :2

Q.11)
Working alone, the times taken by Anu, Tanu and Manu to complete any job are in the ratio 5 : 8 : 10.
They accept a job which they can finish in 4 days if they all work together for 8 hours per day. However,
Anu and Tanu work together for the first 6 days, working 6 hours 40 minutes per day. Then, the number
of hours that Manu will take to complete the remaining job working alone is
Ans :6

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Q.12)
Let r and c be real numbers. If r and –r are roots of 5x3 + cx2 – 10x + 9 = 0, then c equals
9
[1] −
2
[2] 4
[3] –4
9
[4]
2
Ans :1

Q.13)
In an election, there were four candidates and 80% of the registered voters casted their votes. One of
the candidates received 30% of the casted votes while the other three candidates received the
remaining casted votes in the proportion 1 : 2 : 3. If the winner of the election received 2512 votes
more than the candidate with the second highest votes, then the number of registered voters was
[1] 50240
[2] 62800
[3] 60288
[4] 40192
Ans :2

Q.14)
4 − log 2 n
The number of distinct integer values of n satisfying: < 0, is
3 − log 4 n

Ans :47

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Q.15)
Manu earns ₹4000 per month and wants to save an average of ₹550 per month in a year. In the first
nine months, his monthly expense was ₹3500, and he foresees that, tenth month onward, his monthly
expense will increase to ₹3700. In order to meet his yearly savings target, his monthly earnings, in
rupees, from the tenth month onward should be
[1] 4350
[2] 4400
[3] 4300
[4] 4200
Ans :2

Q.16)
On day one, there are 100 particles in a laboratory experiment. On day n, where n ≥ 2, one out of every
n particles produces another particle. If the total number of particles in the laboratory experiment
increases to 1000 on day m, then m equals
[1] 16
[2] 19
[3] 17
[4] 18
Ans :2

Q.17)
For some natural number n, assume that (15,000)! is divisible by (n!)!. The largest possible value of n is
[1] 4
[2] 5
[3] 6
[4] 7
Ans :4

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Q.18)
There are two containers of the same volume, first container half-filled with sugar syrup and the second
container half-filled with milk. Half the content of the first container is transferred to the second
container, and then the half of this mixture is transferred back to the first container. Next, half the
content of the first container is transferred back to the second container. Then the ratio of sugar syrup
and milk in the second container is
[1] 4 : 5
[2] 6 : 5
[3] 5 : 4
[4] 5 : 6
Ans :4

Q.19)
The length of each side of an equilateral triangle ABC is 3 cm. Let D be a point on BC such that the area
of triangle ADC is half the area of triangle ABD. Then the length of AD. in cm, is

[1] 7

[2] 8

[3] 6

[4] 5
Ans :1

Q.20)
Five students, including Amit, appear for an examination in which possible marks are integers between
0 and 50, both inclusive. The average marks for all the students is 38 and exactly three students got
more than 32. If no two students got the same marks and Amit got the least marks among the five
students, then the difference between the highest and lowest possible marks of Amit is
[1] 20
[2] 22
[3] 21
[4] 24
Ans :1

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Q.21)
Let f (x) be a quadratic polynomial in x such that f (x) ≥ 0 for all real numbers x. If f (2) = 0 and f (4) = 6,
then f (–2) is equal to
[1] 36
[2] 12
[3] 6
[4] 24
Ans :4

Q.22)
Regular polygons A and B have number of sides in the ratio 1 : 2 and interior angles in the ratio 3 : 4.
Then the number of sides of B equals
Ans :10

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