CAT 2022 Slot 02 With Answers by Exam4mba
CAT 2022 Slot 02 With Answers by Exam4mba
QUESTION 2022
PAPER
Q.2)
Which one of the following sets of terms best serves as keywords to the passage?
[1] Humans; Psychological vantage; Musicking; Cassirer; Emergence of music.
[2] Musicking; Cognitive psychology; Antique; Symbol-makers; Modernity.
[3] Humans; Capacities; Language; Symbols; Modernity.
[4] Humans; Musicking; Linguistic capacities; Symbol-making; Modern humanity.
Ans : 4
Q.3)
Based on the passage, which one of the following statements is a valid argument about the emergence
of music/musicking?
[1] Although musicking is not language-like, it shares the quality of being a form of expression.
[2] All musical work is located in the overlap between linguistic capacity and music production.
[3] Anyone who can perceive and experience music must be considered capable of musicking.
[4] 20,000 years ago, human musical capacities were not very different from what they are today.
Ans : 4
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Q.6)
Based on the passage, it can be inferred that camouflaging techniques in an octopus are most dissimilar
to those in:
[1] polar bears
[2] cuttlefish
[3] squids
[4] sea snails
Ans :4
Q.7)
Based on the passage, we can infer that all of the following statements, if true, would weaken the
camouflaging adeptness of Cephalopods EXCEPT:
[1] the hydrostatic pressure at the depths at which Cephalopods reside renders radial muscle
movements difficult.
[2] the number of chromatophores in Cephalopods is half the number of iridophores and leucophores.
[3] light reflects the colours red, green, and yellow at the depths at which Cephalopods reside.
[4] the temperature of water at the depths at which Cephalopods reside renders the transmission of
neural signals difficult.
Ans :2
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Q.10)
All of the following inferences from the passage are false, EXCEPT:
[1] institutions like the family, rituals, governance, economy, and the military are natural and cannot
be consciously modified.
[2] as concepts, “culture” and “tradition” have no analytical, explanatory or expository power,
especially when they are treated in isolation.
[3] the institution of friendship cannot be found in the institution of joint-stock companies because the
first is an informal institution, while the second is a formal one.
[4] “natural language” refers to that stage of language development where no conscious human intent
is evident in the formation of language.
Ans :4
Q.12)
Which of the following statements best represents the essence of the passage?
[1] It is usual in social thought to treat culture and tradition as different from institutions.
[2] Language is the fundamental formal institution for social life and for science.
[3] The stock exchange and the black market are both market institutions.
[4] Institutions are structures that serve to coordinate the actions of individuals.
Ans :4
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Q.14)
We can infer that the author would approve of a more evolved engineering pedagogy that includes all
of the following EXCEPT:
[1] moving towards technical-social dualism where social community needs are incorporated in
problem-definition and solutions.
[2] design that is based on the needs of communities using local knowledge and responding to local
priorities.
[3] making considerations of environmental sustainability intrinsic to the development of technological
solutions.
[4] a more responsible approach to technical design and problem-solving than a focus on speed in
developing and bringing to scale.
Ans :1
Q.16)
The author gives all of the following reasons for why marginalised people are systematically
discriminated against in technology-related interventions EXCEPT:
[1] “And we hardly question whether devices are built sustainably, which has led to a crisis of medical
waste and health care accounting for 10 percent of U.S. greenhouse gas emissions.”
[2] “But those technical ideals are at their core social and political choices determined by a dominant
culture focused on economic growth for the most privileged segments of society.”
[3] “These racially based adjustments are derived from research done by eugenicists who thought these
racial differences were biologically determined and who considered nonwhite people as inferior.”
[4] “Beyond physical failings, subjective beliefs treated as facts by those in decision-making roles can
encode social inequities.”
Ans :1
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Q.21)
The four sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) below, when properly sequenced, would yield a coherent
paragraph. Decide on the proper sequencing of the order of the sentences and key in the sequence
of the four numbers as your answer:
[1] Women may prioritize cooking because they feel they alone are responsible for mediating a toxic
and unhealthy food system.
[2] Food is commonly framed through the lens of individual choice: you can choose to eat healthily.
[3] This is particularly so in a neoliberal context where the state has transferred the responsibility for
food onto individual consumers.
[4] The individualized framing of choice appeals to a popular desire to experience agency, but draws
away from the structural obstacles that stratify individual food choices.
Ans :2431
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Q.2)
How many cosmetic products did not have FDA approval?
[1] 10
[2] 60
[3] 50
[4] Cannot be determined
Ans :2
Q.3)
Which among the following options best represents the number of domestic cosmetic products that
had both the approvals?
[1] At least 10 and at most 80
[2] At least 20 and at most 70
[3] At least 20 and at most 50
[4] At least 10 and at most 60
Ans :4
Q.5)
If 50 nutrition products did not have EU approval, then how many domestic cosmetic products did not
have EU approval?
Ans :50
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The second plot shows the number of employees employed by the company (employee strength) at
the start of each of these three years, as well as the number of new employees hired each year (new
hires). For example, Company B had 250 employees at the start of 2021, and 30 new employees joined
the company during the year.
Q.7)
Which of the four companies experienced the highest annual loss in any of the years?
[1] Company B
[2] Company C
[3] Company A
[4] Company D
Ans :4
Q.8)
The ratio of a company’s annual profit to its annual costs is a measure of its performance. Which of the
four companies had the lowest value of this ratio in 2019?
[1] Company D
[2] Company C
[3] Company B
[4] Company A
Ans :4
Q.9)
The total number of employees lost in 2019 and 2020 was the least for:
[1] Company D
[2] Company B
[3] Company A
[4] Company C
Ans :2
A few salesmen are employed to sell a product called TRICCEK among households in various housing
complexes. On each day, a salesman is assigned to visit one housing complex. Once a salesman enters
a housing complex, he can meet any number of households in the time available. However, if a
household makes a complaint against the salesman, then he must leave the housing complex
immediately and cannot meet any other household on that day. A household may buy any number of
TRICCEK items or may not buy any item. The salesman needs to record the total number of TRICCEK
items sold as well as the number of households met in each day. The success rate of a salesman for a
day is defined as the ratio of the number of items sold to the number of households met on that day.
Some details about the performances of three salesmen - Tohri, Hokli and Lahur, on two particular days
are given below.
1. Over the two days, all three of them met the same total number of households, and each of them
sold a total of 100 items.
2. On both days, Lahur met the same number of households and sold the same number of items.
3. Hokli could not sell any item on the second day because the first household he met on that day
complained against him.
4. Tohri met 30 more households on the second day than on the first day.
5. Tohri’s success rate was twice that of Lahur’s on the first day, and it was 75% of Lahur’s on the second
day.
Q.11)
What was the total number of households met by Tohri, Hokli and Lahur on the first day?
Ans :84
Q.13)
How many households did Lahur meet on the second day?
[1] more than 35
[2] between 30 and 35
[3] 20 or less
[4] between 21 and 29
Ans :4
Q.14)
How many households did Tohri meet on the first day?
[1] between 21 and 40
[2] more than 40
[3] between 11 and 20
[4] 10 or less
Ans :4
Q.15)
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
[1] Tohri had a higher success rate on the first day compared to the second day.
[2] Among the three, Lahur had the lowest success rate on the first day.
[3] Among the three, Tohri had the highest success rate on the second day.
[4] Among the three, Tohri had the highest success rate on the first day.
Ans :3
Every day the supplier gets the information about the demand values of the four locations and creates
the travel route that starts from the warehouse and ends at a location after visiting all the locations
exactly once. While making the route plan, the supplier goes to the locations in decreasing order of
demand. If there is a tie for the choice of the next location, the supplier will go to the location closest
to the current location. Also, while creating the route, the supplier can either follow the direct path (if
available) from one location to another or can take the path via the warehouse. If both paths are
available (direct and via warehouse), the supplier will choose the path with minimum distance.
Q.16)
If the last location visited is Ahmednagar, then what is the total distance covered in the route (in km)?
Ans :35
Q.17)
If the total number of widgets delivered in a day is 250 units, then what is the total distance covered in
the route (in km)?
Ans :38
Q.19)
If the first location visited from the warehouse is Ahmednagar, then what is the chance that the total
distance covered in the route is 40 km?
[1] 18%
[2] 5.4%
[3] 30%
[4] 3.24%
Ans :1
Q.20)
If Ahmednagar is not the first location to be visited in a route and the total route distance is 29 km,
then which of the following is a possible number of widgets delivered on that day?
[1] 210
[2] 220
[3] 200
[4] 250
Ans :1
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[2] 2 cos
[3]
(sin + cos
2
[4] 2 sin
Ans :4
Q.2)
Consider the arithmetic progression 3, 7, 11, ... and let An denote the sum of the first n terms of this
1 25
progression. Then the value of An is
25 n =1
[1] 404
[2] 415
[3] 455
[4] 442
Ans :3
Q.3)
In an examination, there were 75 questions. 3 marks were awarded for each correct answer, 1 mark
was deducted for each wrong answer and 1 mark was awarded for each unattempted question. Rayan
scored a total of 97 marks in the examination. If the number of unattempted questions was higher than
the number of attempted questions, then the maximum number of correct answers that Rayan could
have given in the examination is
Ans :24
Ans :4
Q.5)
Suppose for all integers x, there are two functions f and g such that f (x) + f (x – 1) – 1 = 0) and g(x) = x2.
f (x2 – x) = 5, then the value of the sum f (g(5)) + g(f (5)) is
Ans :12
Q.6)
Two ships meet mid-ocean, and then, one ship goes south and the other ship goes west, both travelling
at constant speeds. Two hours later, they are 60 km apart. If the speed of one of the ships is 6 km per
hour more than the other one, then the speed, in km per hour, of the slower ship is
[1] 20
[2] 24
[3] 12
[4] 18
Ans :4
Q.7)
The number of integers greater than 2000 that can be formed with the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, using each
digit at most once, is
[1] 1200
[2] 1440
[3] 1420
[4] 1480
Ans :2
Q.9)
The average of a non-decreasing sequence of N numbers a1, a2, ..., aN is 300. If a1 is replaced by 6a1;
the new average becomes 400. Then, the number of possible values of a1 is
Ans :1
Q.10)
If a and b are non-negative real numbers such that a + 2b = 6, then the average of the maximum and
minimum possible values of (a + b) is
[1] 3.5
[2] 4.5
[3] 4
[4] 3
Ans :2
Q.11)
Working alone, the times taken by Anu, Tanu and Manu to complete any job are in the ratio 5 : 8 : 10.
They accept a job which they can finish in 4 days if they all work together for 8 hours per day. However,
Anu and Tanu work together for the first 6 days, working 6 hours 40 minutes per day. Then, the number
of hours that Manu will take to complete the remaining job working alone is
Ans :6
Q.13)
In an election, there were four candidates and 80% of the registered voters casted their votes. One of
the candidates received 30% of the casted votes while the other three candidates received the
remaining casted votes in the proportion 1 : 2 : 3. If the winner of the election received 2512 votes
more than the candidate with the second highest votes, then the number of registered voters was
[1] 50240
[2] 62800
[3] 60288
[4] 40192
Ans :2
Q.14)
4 − log 2 n
The number of distinct integer values of n satisfying: < 0, is
3 − log 4 n
Ans :47
Q.16)
On day one, there are 100 particles in a laboratory experiment. On day n, where n ≥ 2, one out of every
n particles produces another particle. If the total number of particles in the laboratory experiment
increases to 1000 on day m, then m equals
[1] 16
[2] 19
[3] 17
[4] 18
Ans :2
Q.17)
For some natural number n, assume that (15,000)! is divisible by (n!)!. The largest possible value of n is
[1] 4
[2] 5
[3] 6
[4] 7
Ans :4
Q.19)
The length of each side of an equilateral triangle ABC is 3 cm. Let D be a point on BC such that the area
of triangle ADC is half the area of triangle ABD. Then the length of AD. in cm, is
[1] 7
[2] 8
[3] 6
[4] 5
Ans :1
Q.20)
Five students, including Amit, appear for an examination in which possible marks are integers between
0 and 50, both inclusive. The average marks for all the students is 38 and exactly three students got
more than 32. If no two students got the same marks and Amit got the least marks among the five
students, then the difference between the highest and lowest possible marks of Amit is
[1] 20
[2] 22
[3] 21
[4] 24
Ans :1
Q.22)
Regular polygons A and B have number of sides in the ratio 1 : 2 and interior angles in the ratio 3 : 4.
Then the number of sides of B equals
Ans :10
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