ENGLISH TEST

Genenal Guidelines
The English Test will test your ability in understanding English structures and reading texts.
lt employs a multiple choice format, and it takes 90 minutes to do the test.
The test comprises two following parts:
1. Part 1: 40 numbers of Structure and Written Expression
2. Part 2: 60 numbers of Vocabulary and Reading Comprehension
You may choose to begin work on ANY part.
For each number, you may only choose ONE answer. Giving more than one answer will not
give you any point for that number.
For each number, you will see four possible answers, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose
one option, and then on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so that
the letter inside the circle cannot be seen.

The questions are given !n a variety of difficulty levels. You should try to answer all of them,
as there is NO PENALTY for incorrect answers.
Directions for each part of the test will be given at the beginning of each part.
lf you find an error in any printed itern of the test, just guess the answer as best as you can
and continue.
 SECTION 1
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for
standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special
directions for each type.
Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four
words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or phrase that best
completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill
in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen. Fill in the space so
that the letter inside the oval cannot be seen.

Example I
.......are found in virtually every country in the world.
A. Swamps and marshes which
B. When swamps and marshes
C. Swamps and marshes
D. Now that swamps and marshes
The sentence should read, “Swamps and marshes are found in virtually every country in the
world.” Therefore, you should choose answer (C).

Example II
Milk is pasteurized by heating it for thirty minutes at about 63° Centigrade, rapidly
cooling it, and then ......it at a temperature below 10° Centigrade.
A. To store
B. Store
C. Be stored
D. Storing

The sentence should read, “Milk is pasteurized by heating it for thirty minutes at about 63°
Centigrade, rapidly cooling it, and then storing it at a temperature below 10° Centigrade.”
Therefore, you should choose answer (D).

Now begin work on the questions.

1. Around four million years ago, a large cloud of dust enveloped the area in space … the
current solar system is positioned.
A. There
B. Wherever
C. Where
D. Whereby

2. According to the report, livestock feed in Canada … approximately 80% of the annual
unexported corn and soybean harvests.
A. Is included
B. Includes
C. It include
D. Including

3. Winter wildlife animals … the red fox and snowshoe hare have adopted strategies to help
them endure winter weather.
A. In that
B. Alike
C. As if
D. Like

4. … sound health practices and good social relationships has a beneficial effect on
longevity.
A. Maintenance
B. If we maintain
C. Maintaining
D. As to maintenance

5. Regular exercise boosts cardiovascular health … the risk of breast and colon cancer.
A. It lowers
B. While lowering
C. What lowers
D. Because of lowering
6. Cosmetic products are part and parcel of skincare specifically for women ... Men are also
purchasing some of the products to give their skin a healthy glow.
A. Nonetheless
B. Consequently
C. Whereas
D. Therefore

7. The world’s oil reserves ... By modern nations, are dwindling at a fast rate.
A. Utilization of the major energy source
B. To utilize the major source of energy
C. The major source of energy utilized
D. Utilization as a major source of energy

8. Goats … as an effective bio-control agent to keep down the growth of weed without using
herbicides
A. Whose use
B. Their being used
C. Are used
D. Used

9. … papyrus was the chief writing material in ancient time.

A. First used about 3000 years ago
B. Using it as early as early as 3000 B.C
C. That the use of it 3000 years ago
D. Its first use was around 3000 B.C

10. Through group discussion, studentscan explore a subject by sharing ideas and …
satisfaction through the excitement of interaction and achievement.
A. Derive
B. Deriving
C. Is derived
D. In deriving
11. Not until alexander Fleming discovered penicilline, … with success.
A. Bacterial diseases were treated
B. The treatment of bacterial diseases done
C. Doctors treated bacterial diseases
D. Were bacterial diseases treated

12. Before … any organ transplantation, a patient must undergo a series of medical
examination such blood-matching and tissue matching tests.
A. Undergo
B. To undergo
C. Undergoing
D. Can undergo

13. In an X-ray, bones appear white … soft tissue shows up in shades of grey.
A. Because
B. Inspite of
C. So that
D. Whereas

14. Scientists are still debating whether ... Global temperature is not just a part of the global
natural cycle of climate change.
A. Increasing the
B. The increase in
C. In the increase of
D. As to increase

15. There may be circumstances … layoffs are necessary for firms in order to survive.
A. That
B. Which
C. Whose
D. In which
Directions: In questions 16-40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one
underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be grammatically
correct. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Example I
Meadowlarks are about the same size than robins but they have heavier bodies, shorter
tails, A B C

and longer bills.

D

The sentence should read. “Meadowlarks are about the same size as robins, but they have
heavier bodies, shorter tails, and longer bills.” Therefore, you should choose answer (B).

Example II
When overall exports exceed imports, a country said to have a trade surplus.
A B C D
The sentence should read, “When overall exports exceed imports, a country is said to have a
trade surplus.” Therefore, you should choose answer (C).

Now begin work on the questions.

16. Warmer seawater temperatures are causing coral bleaching, which make coral reefs more
A B
susceptible to disease and permanent loss.
C D
17. Bacteria grow in colonies and can be reproduced quite rapid by a process called fission.
A B C D
18. The arguments for deep-sea exploration are similar with the reasons for sending man to
the A B C D

moon.
19. The latest clean-diesel automobile, introduced at the 2010 Paris Motor Show, is expected
A B C

doing quite well in European markets.

D
20. One of the significant social phenomena of our time being the increased interest and
A B
participation of adults in educational pursuits.
C D
21. The largest contributed factor to the increase of greenhouse gasses is the burning of fossil
A B C D
fuels.

22. Ashmont Primary School in London is the first school which decided to outsourcing
A B
part of the teaching of mathematics to India via the internet.
C D
23. In March 2010, ten energy companies have been given the green light to set up wave and
A
tidal farms off the coast of Scotland in line with the plan to provide energy to 750,000
B C D
homes by 2015

24. For primary school children e-learning is a novelty that catches theirs attention for longer
A B C
periods and engages them in a different way.
D
25. Most of experts believe that there is a causal link between the economic prosperity of a
A B C
nation and the health of its people.
D
26. An educational psychologist shaking public opinion in 1967 by claiming that genetic
A B
components had a far more decisive influence on IQ levels than environmental factors.
C D
27. Valium, a drug prescribed as a safe and fast-acting tranquilizer, was found years later to
be A B

C addiction.
highly D

B
28. Short-wave radiation in theAform of visible ultra-violet light from the sun penetrates

C
atmosphere D
thereby warming the earth’s surface.

29. The government of Uganda has pursuit

A a comprehensive poverty reduction strategy which

addresses
B the issues of access
C to appropriate and adequate
D health care.

A
30. Encountering B to
a sharp decrease in crocodile population, Australia took swift steps
protect
C D

and expand existence crocodile habitats.

A B C
31. Historians combine social, economical, and political events of a country into a general
D
story, and explain how they have shaped the course of the nation.
A B
32. In the early 17th century, Korea, which it had seen the undesirable effects of colonization,
C D
protected itself from outside influences, and became a ’closed’ country.
A B C
33. Doctors are saying that brain exercises may delay the onset of Alzheimer's disease, so
they
do not address the root cause of the disease.

D
34. Dormant for 400 years, Mount Sinabung unexpectedly erupted in August 2010, sending
A B

huge clouds of gaseous smoke and ash into the sky and to cause thousands of people to
flee C D

their homes.

A
35. A new study comparing B
organic strawberries with conventionally D
C reveal
grown ones

thatorganic strawberries taste much better and are more nutritious.

36. Crocodiles do not chew A

their food, but they swallow
B it in large chunksCwhich is then
broken
D
down in the stomach.
A B C
37. A student majoring in accounting must to earn an average of C for all courses, including
D
not only accounting courses but also history.
A B C
38. Found in Tanzania, the three-millions-year-old fossils were estimated to be the oldest
D
human remains to be discovered.
A B C

39. Translations should be done careful so that the accuracy of the original manuscript is
D
preserved.
A B
40. The computer company Dell, known for it’s environmental policies such as banning the
C D
export of e-waste to developing countries, ranks No 1 in Newsweek’s 2010 Green

Rankings.
 SECTION 2
VOCABULARY AND READING COMPREHENSION
Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each passage is followed by
questions about it. Choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), for each question. Then,
on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the oval that corresponds to
the letter of your answer choice. Answer all questions based on what is stated or implied in
the passage.
Read the following passage:
A new hearing device is now available for some hearing-impaired people. This device
uses a magnet to hold the detachable sound-processing portion in place. Like other aids,
it converts sound into vibrations. But it is unique in that it can transmit the vibrations
directly to the magnet, and then Une to the inner ear. This produces a clearer sound. The
new device will not help all
5 hearing-impaired people, only those with a hearing loss caused by infection or some
other problem in the middle ear. It will probably help no more than 20 percent of all
people with hearing problems. Those people, however, who have persistent ear
infections should find relief and restored hearing with the new device.
Example I:
What is the author’s main purpose?
A. To describe a new cure for ear infections
B. To inform the reader of a new device
C. To urge doctors to use a new device
D. To explain the use of a magnet
The author’s main purpose is to inform the reader of a new device for hearing-impaired
people. Therefore, you should choose answer (B).
Example II:
The word “relief’ in line 7 means
A. Less distress
B. Assistance
C. Distraction
D. Relaxation
The phrase “less distress” is similar in meaning to “relief in this sentence. Therefore, you
should choose answer (A).
 Now begin with the questions.
Questions 41 – 50
Children's multicultural literature plays an increasingly significant role in early
childhood classrooms. Multicultural literature - literature that focuses on people of color,
religious minorities, regional cultures, the disabled, and the aged - plays a significant role in
the development of children’s cross-cultural understanding. As societies become an
increasingly complex blend of ethnicity, family structure, shared values, spiritual beliefs, and

5 socioeconomic class, this cultural and linguistic diversity has heightened awareness of and
sensitivity to the needs of all people.
High-quality multicultural literature has the capacity to foster children’s
understanding of and respect for their own cultures, as well as the cultures of others. In her
poignant book Against Borders, Hazel Rochman (1993) explains the overall purpose of
multicultural literature: A good book can help to break down barriers. Books can make a
10 difference in dispelling prejudice and building community: not with role models and literal
recipes, not with noble messages about the human family, but with enthralling stories that
make us imagine the lives of others. A good story lets you know people as individuals in all
their particularity and conflict: and once you see someone as a person - flawed, complex,
striving - then you’ve reached beyond stereotype. Stories, writing them, telling them, sharing
15 them, transforming them, enrich us and connect us and encourage us to know each other.
Quality multicultural literature defies stereotypes and biases while providing a window into
the lives of diverse people. It has the added benefit of helping children recognize unfairness
and consider multiple perspectives and values, while providing models for challenging
inequity.
20 Selection of quality children’s multicultural literature begins with the sarnie criteria
that apply to selecting quality children’s literature in general: the literary elements of plot,
characterization, setting, theme, and point of view must be interwoven to create a convincing
story in an age-appropriate manner. Caregivers and teachers also would be wise to examine
illustrations and pictures for authenticity and accuracy. It is especially important that real
25 people, real situations, and authentic illustrations be depicted. These realistic elements are
instrumental in children’s ability to comprehend text and make meaningful connections from
the story. Other important characteristics of quality multicultural literature include believable
characters and realistic life styles with which children can identify, authentic language, and
historical accuracy. Ideally, selected children’s books represent a variety of settings and
themes, providing opportunities for children to consider multiple perspectives and values.
These criteria are the hallmark of high-quality multicultural literature
30 As Rochman (1993) eloquently asserts, “The best books break down borders, they
surprise us and change our views of ourselves; they extend that phrase ‘like me’ to include
what we thought was foreign and strange”. This changing view of oneself is especially
important for children to consider at a young age if they are to embrace true multiculturalism.
Additionally, the reader is urged to choose a variety of genres and cultures for read-aloud
35 rather than using a single book to represent a particular culture. Finally, because classrooms
are becoming increasingly diverse, the messages that teachers promote through the books
they select and read should convey respect for diverse cultures.
Aside from providing a greater appreciation and understanding of the self and
others, multicultural literature also boosts crucial literacy skills in the areas of oral language
development, vocabulary growth, comprehension, inference making, analytical skills,
40 imagination, and creativity. In particular, rich language is embedded within multicultural
literature. When children listen to multicultural literature, they are exposed to more
challenging vocabulary and unfamiliar concepts. These often include specialized information
pertaining to geography, ethnicity, customs, and vocabulary associated with traditions of
people across the globe.

41. According to the passage, multicultural literature focuses on all of the following,
EXCEPT
A. Senior and minority citizens
B. People of different political views
C. People with disabilities
D. Cultural tradition

42. The word “foster” in line 7 can be best replaced by which of the following?
A. Encourage
B. Explain
C. Share
D. Reach

43. How does the author view the book Against Borderwntten by Hazel Rochman?
A. Full of prejudice
B. Unrealistic
C. Moving
D. Complex
44. In her book, Hazel Rochman suggests all of the following as the purposes of multicultural
literature EXCEPT
A. To remove racial barriers
B. To humanize people
C. To set prejudice aside
D. To support stereotyping

45. Which of the following words in paragraph 2 CANNOT be used as examples of

“unfairness”?
A. Prejudice
B. Conflict
C. Inequity
D. Bias

46. Which of the following would be most likely the main idea of paragraph 3?
A. Factors to consider when choosing children’s multicultural literature are identical to
those applied when choosing any children’s books.
B. In addition to other common criteria of quality children’s books, multicultural
literature must also regard illustrations, characters and settings.
C. Multicultural literature must ideally be able to represent real people and situations,
realistic lifestyles and depict authentic illustrations.
D. True multicultural literature will provide children a greater appreciation and
understanding of the self and others.

47. According to the writer, realistic imagery is important because it

A. Helps children make meaningful associations from the story
B. Assists teachers to retell the stories in a lively way
C. Gives children role models appropriate for their age
D. Indicates that people are complex and flawed
48. In which of the following paragraphs does the writer highlight the importance of diversity
in classroom reading?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4

49. The word “these” in line 41 refers to

A. Children and multicultural literature
B. Crucial literacy skills of language development
C. Challenging vocabulary and unfamiliar concepts
D. Traditions of people across the globe

50. How does multicultural literature benefit children?

A. By teaching them new concepts and expanding their vocabulary
B. By enabling them to understand people better and improving their literacy skills
C. By enhancing their crreativity and power of analysis
D. By providing role models and rules of proper behavior
 Questions 51 – 60
New University ofArizona (UA) research indicates that leaf vein patterns correlate
with functions such as carbon intake and water use — knowledge that could help scientists
better understand the complex carbon cycle that is at the heart of global climate warming.
Leaves have very different networks of veins. They have different shapes, different sizes, and
5 different thicknesses. The really interesting question is how a leaf with a certain form
produces a certain function.
The researchers developed a mathematical model to predict the functions of leaves
based on three properties of the vein network: density, distance between veins and number of
loops, or enclosed regions of smaller veins much like capillaries in humans. Vein density
reflects how much energy and resources the leaf has invested in the network, while distance
10 between veins shows how well the veins are supplying resources to the leaf. The number of
loops is a measure of the leaf’s resilience and plays a role in determining its lifespan. If the
veins reconnect often and part of the leaf becomes damaged, resources can be circulated
through different pathways.
he vein network inside of a leaf is like most of the important organ systems in a
person. It is like the skeleton because it holds the whole leaf up and lets it capture sunlight
15 and not get blown over in a windstorm. It is like the circulatory system because it is
distributing water from the roots up to all the cells within the leaf, and it is also bringing
resources from the leaf back to the rest of the plant after photosynthesis has happened. It is
also like a nervous system because there are chemical signals that are transmitted to the
leaves from other parts of the plant through the liquid in the veins. This is important for the
40
20 function of the leaf because when this one structure is implicated in so many different
patterns, clearly there are going to be tradeoffs between being able to do all of these different
functions well. For example, a leaf with a very loopy network of veins might live longer, but
it will also cost a lot of carbon, which plants absorb from carbon dioxide in the atmosphere,
to develop that vein network.
25 Carbon can only get into leaves through little pores on the leaf surface, and when
carbon comes in, which is something good for the plant, water also comes out. Plants with
denser vein networks — veins that are closer together — are able to withstand higher levels
of water loss and absorb more carbon. Unfortunately, that doesn’t mean you should plant
trees with dense leaf vein networks if you want to save the planet. It becomes a little bit more
difficult to scale up beyond there because a plant is not only just its leaves: It’s also the trunk
and the roots and so on.
 The important thing to think about is that other parts of the plant are going to be contributing
30 to the carbon cycle also in terms of decomposition or other large-scale environmental effects.
The researchers’ model successfully predicted relationships among photosynthetic
rate, lifespan, carbon cost and nitrogen cost for more than 2,500 species worldwide based on
global data. But that does not mean it will work on a local scale. To find out, the team tested
35 leaves from 25 plant species on the UA campus. While initial results appear to show that the
model will work, the team has not tested enough samples to know if it successfully predicts
relationships in leaf function on a case-specific basis.

51. Which of the following attributes of leaves that is most crucial to scientists in
understanding their work functions?
A. Their variety in shapes
B. Their range of colors
C. Their different life spans
D. Their likeness in size

52. The following questions can be answered by information in Paragraph 2 EXCEPT

A. What are the characteristics of the vein network?
B. What is the function of the leaf stem?
C. Which vein property affects a leaf’s age?
D. How is the blood circulatory system in humans similar to the vein system in leaves?

53. The distance between the leaf veins can determine which of the following?
A. How efficient the veins’ supply system is
B. How much energy is deposited in the vein network
C. What resources are kept in the network
D. How long the leaf will survive

54. Which of the following occurrences may change the route travelled by the resources?
A. When veins are not dense enough
B. When the distance between the veins gets too far
C. When parts of the leaf malfunction
D. When the veins cannot reconnect
55. The word “it” in line 14 refers to
A. The leaf
B. The vein network
C. The skeleton
D. Sunlight

56. Which of the following is TRUE about how the vein network resembles the nervous
system in humans?
A. The vein network enables the whole tree to stand up.
B. The vein network circulates resources after the photosynthesis process is completed.
C. The liquid in the vein helps other parts of the plants that do not function well.
D. The vein network carries out the transmission of signals.

57. Which of the following best expresses the opposite meaning of the term “dense” in line
27?
A. Transparent
B. Crowded
C. Void
D. Sparse

58. According to the passage, denser vein networks are not the definite solution to carbon
reduction because
A. The amount of carbon absorbed by leaves with dense vein networks is very little
B. Leaves with dense vein networks will cause a high level of water loss
C. The carbon cycle in nature will be slowed down by denser vein networks
D. The contribution of other parts of the plants to the carbon cycle should also be
considered

59. It can be inferred from the passage that the researcher team
A. Limited their research to plant species found in the University of Arizona
B. Will conduct more tests to verify their mathematical model
C. Failed to predict the relationship between vein patterns and functions
D. Did not obtain desirable results in their initial experiments
60. In which of the following paragraphs does the writer mention the tradeoffs between
different leaf functions?
A. Paragraphs 1 and 2
B. Paragraphs 2 and 3
C. Paragraphs 3 and 4
D. Paragraphs 4 and 5
 Questions 61 – 70
Natural calamities are inevitable. One of them is earthquake. In simple terms, one
can call earthquake as shaking and vibration of the earth. Frequent volcanic activities and
constant movement of tectonic plates underground are palpable causes of earthquakes.
Basically, the earth crust is constituted of a solid core, molten magma mantle and
5 the tectonic plates. These plates are in constant motion due to the convection currents of the
magma and hence are either sliding against each other or moving away from each other.
Although there is constant motion under the grounds, none of these are felt by us. Due to this
constant motion over the years, mountains and valleys are formed, with the former being
formed when plates converge, causing one plate to go below the other. However if the plates
move in different directions, sliding against each other, due to the friction generated, some
10 sections of them lock together, causing a lot of kinetic energy to build up. The line of
intersection which contains the point of friction between these plates is often known as the
earthquake fault line. These earthquake fault lines are often called fractures in the earth’s
crust. So when the plates start moving, the stored energy is released from the point of
intersection (also known as the hypocenter), in the form of an earthquake.
15 There are four types of earthquake. Tectonic earthquake is triggered when there is a
lot of strain and stress exerted on the tectonic plates. For instance, if you take a twig and try
to bend it, you can feel energy building up through the twig, until it snaps. Once snapped, the
twig vibrates, releasing energy. The same is what happens in a tectonic earthquake. Take an
example from San Andreas Fault in California, where two plates, the Pacific plate and the
20 North American plate were involved. Both these plates were moving in northwesterly
direction, with one moving faster, due to which the tension created due to the friction of the
plates caused an earthquake. Tectonic earthquakes are most common and keep happening all
the time under the earth’s crust, in both land and the ocean.
Volcanic eruptions can also cause earthquakes. Many a time, the acidic lava that is
vented out cools down as soon as it comes in touch with the atmosphere outside. This cooling
25 blocks the volcanic vent and the pressure built inside gets trapped. But the pressure needs to
be released in some way or the other and so chooses the weakest of the volcanic plates to
escape through. This eventually causes massive and powerful earthquakes that can also give
rise to tsunamis, pertaining to the seismic waves, or ripples it has created. A significant
example of this type is the explosion of Krakatoa (of Indonesia), whose repercussion was a
30 massive earthquake that rattled Java and Sumatra islands. However, volcanoes that vent out
basic lava do not cause earthquakes.
 Small ripples that occur in mines and underground caverns are known as collapse
earthquakes. These earthquakes are also factored by massive landslides, or a mine burst
which could happen due to intense stress on the rocks constituting the mines, causing large
masses of rocks to displace. This eventually leads to collapsing of a mine, and hence is
known as a collapse earthquake.
35 Detonation of nuclear devices can also set off earthquakes, more commonly known
as explosion earthquakes. This occurs, when enormous nuclear energy is released during
underground nuclear explosions, which when bottled within, increases a thousand times more
than the atmospheric pressure, in intensity. Surrounding rocks get vaporized, leaving behind a
mammoth cavity which is many meters in diameter.
40 Some of the most earthquake prone regions are Japan, Indonesia, Java and
Sumatra, New Zealand, Hawaiian islands and Andaman & Nicobar islands. One can observe
that islands and high mountain regions are most prone to earthquakes due to the active
tectonic plate movement in such areas.
Effects of an earthquake can be very cataclysmic, depending on the complex
45 combination of earthquake magnitude, the distance from the epicenter, and the local
geological and geomorphological conditions, which may amplify or reduce wave
propagation. Hence, people in earthquake prone regions prefer to build wooden houses and
do not use too many automobiles for commuting. This is one way to cut down on
materialistic and life damage. Also the movements of birds and animals are watched closely,
50 because any deviance observed in their behavior indicates the coming of a natural calamity.

61. What would be the most appropriate title for the text?
A. Earthquake and Other Natural Calamities
B. What Causes An Earthquake
C. Tectonic Earthquakes and Their Prone Regions
D. How to Prevent Earthquake Damage

62. The word “palpable” in line 3 can be best replaced by which of the following?
A. Predictable
B. Constant
C. Indefinite
D. Evident
63. The word “them” in line 10 refers to
A. Frictions
B. Convection currents
C. Tectonic plates
D. Fractures

64. Which of the following can form an earthquake fault line?

A. Plates interlocking, generating frictions
B. Converging of plates, one below the other
C. Stored energy released from hypocenter
D. Cooled acidic lava from volcanic vent

65. According to the passage, which of the following statements about tectonic plates is NOT
correct?
A. They are part of the elements of the earth crust.
B. Plates converge to form mountains and valleys.
C. They caused underground movement that cannot be felt.
D. They constantly move against or away from each other.

66. The writer mentioned Krakatoa explosion in the text as an example of

A. A powerful volcanic eruption that vented out basic lava
B. A massive volcanic explosion caused by tsunami
C. An explosion that caused a great earthquake and tsunami
D. An eruption caused by intense stress of volcanic rocks

67. In the passage, the author suggests that

A. All natural calamities, including earthquakes, are avoidable.
B. Wooden houses are not recommended for earthquake regions.
C. Regions with islands and high mountains are earthquake-prone.
D. Only naturally occurring earthquakes can cause enormous damage.
68. Seismic waves that occur in an excavation site is an attribute of which of the following
earthquakes?
A. Collapse earthquake
B. Explosion earthquake
C. Tectonic earthquake
D. Volcanic earthquake

69. A type of earthquake that can leave a gigantic hole in the ground is described in which of
the following paragraph?
A. Paragraph 3
B. Paragraph 4
C. Paragraph 5
D. Paragraph 6

70. The effects of an earthquake vary in severity depending on all of the following factors
EXCEPT
A. The movement of animals
B. The amount of energy released
C. The distance to the epicenter
D. Local geographical conditions
 Questions 71 – 80
The physical acts of refloating sunken or stranded vessels together with any
cargoes on board are defined as salvage operations. The towing of disabled vessels to safe
ports is not properly considered to be salvage but service rendered. However, towage service
when performed by salvors after a vessel is refloated may be considered as a part of a salvage
operation.
5 Every case is classified primarily as sinking or stranding. Each presents its
individual problems demanding the use of certain methods or combination of methods. These
are determined by the salvage engineer, whose highly specialized knowledge can be acquired
only by experience over many years plus common sense application of physics. Local
knowledge of existing and potential weather conditions as far as they affect the method and
timing of the operation is of great importance.
10 The cause of the casualty—whether a sinking ora stranding, resulting from
collision with other ships, or damage occasioned by explosion, fire, striking submerged rocks,
reefs, or objects—and the depth of water in which the ship lies determine the physical and
economic feasibility of the undertaking.
In stranding cases, the essential factors in refloating are the nature of the shoreline
15 where the vessel lies, the degree of exposure to the effects of winds and sea, the season of the
year, the range of tidal differences between high and low, and the weights of cargo, fuel, and
water that can be removed to lighten the dead weight of the vessel as it lies on the sea to
increase the buoyancy. Equally important for the economic consideration is the known
existing damage to vessel and cargo, the probable increase in damage to the vessel by
20 pounding on the sea bottom before or during refloating or due to the jettisoning of cargo to
increase buoyancy.
The methods of refloating a sunken ship are determined by the damage that caused
the ship to sink, the depth of water in which it lies, tidal or other currents, probable weather
conditions expected during salvage operations, and availability of necessary equipment and
25 skilled personnel such as divers. Paramount in any operation is the salved value of ship and
cargo balanced against the estimated cost of the refloating and restoration of the vessel to
comply with classification and government requirement.
Salvage operations are usually undertaken by professional salvage companies,
which maintain salvage vessels fully equipped with the anchors, cables, wires, ropes, portable
30 pumps, air compressors, large and small machine tools, drilling and blasting tools, diving
 gear for numbers of divers, and a variety of bolts, nuts, pipe, steel plates, timber planks and
caulking materials, air and water hose, and an infinite number of other items.
Salvage vessels are specifically designed and built for the intended service. They must be fast
35 and powerful, capable of traveling long distances, of towing the salvaged ships to safe ports
of repair, and must be seaworthy to combat the severest gales with their attendant wave
conditions. Modern salvage ships represent the investment of many hundreds of thousands of
dollars.

71. The following are questions that the passage tries to address EXCEPT
A. What is a salvage operation?
B. How can salvage operations be classified?
C. What factors must be considered in salvage operations?
D. Who can own professional salvage companies?

72. With which of the following would the author probably agree?
A. It takes a significant amount of money to buy modern salvage ships.
35 B. Salvage operation is the same as towing service.
C. Salvage cases can hardly be divided into sinking and stranding.
D. Government requirements can be overlooked in any salvage operation.

73. It can be inferred from paragraph 3 that the cause of the casualty
A. Can result from natural disasters.
B. Is not important in either a sinking case or a stranding case.
C. Is a more significant factor than the depth of the water.
D. Plays an important role in deciding whether the operation can be undertaken or not.

74. The word “it” in line 17 refers to

A. Weight
B. Vessel
C. Fuel
D. Water
75. The word “jettisoning” in line 20 is closest in meaning to
A. Preserving
B. Storing
C. Discarding
D. Hiding

76. Which of the following best expresses the opposite meaning of the word “paramount” in
line 24?
A. Essential
B. Trivial
C. Gratuitous
D. Moderate

77. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a factor that determines the
refloating salvage operation?
A. Necessary equipment
B. Skillful human resources
C. Weather conditions during the accident
D. The depth of the water

78. In paragraph 6, the author mentions the equipment needed in a vessel to indicate that
A. Professional salvage companies are encumbered by the numerous things they must
provide.
B. It takes a little preparation to sail a salvage vessel.
C. Salvage operations can be carried out by using any vessel.
D. It is the standard that professional salvage companies have to afford.

79. The author would probably use of the following words to describe salvage vessels
EXCEPT
A. Ghastly.
B. Costly.
C. Speedy.
D. Strong.
80. The author’s purpose in writing this passage is to
A. Compare traditional salvage operations with modern salvage operations.
B. Inform that equipment is secondary in salvage operations.
C. Elucidate the meaning, classification, and factors of salvage operations.
D. Convince that only professional salvage engineers can undertake salvage operations.
 Questions 81 – 90
Weaknesses in the architecture behind the Internet mean that surfing can
sometimes lead to slow speeds and a tiresome wait for a video to load. Redeveloping the
whole architecture of the Internet is an option recently discussed even by Internet pioneers.
However, a group of European engineers decided to go the opposite way and to monitor
traffic and tailor services to meet demand.
5 There is no single entity behind the Internet. It is made up of different networks
that are managed by service providers. These service providers — or operators — manage
what data is being sent and monitor the amount of traffic being used in terms of simple web
browsing, multimedia streaming or peer to peer file sharing. When the data traffic on a
network is too dense, what experts call “bottlenecks” can occur, slowing the delivery of
10 information to your computer, which can result in a slower Internet experience.
A EUREKA-backed project entitled TRAMMS, for Traffic Measurements and
Models in Multi-Service networks, incorporating teams from Sweden, Hungary and Spain,
aimed to solve this issue by gaining access to Internet networks run by operators in both
Sweden and Spain and monitoring traffic over a period of three years. This gave them an
15 excellent insight into user behavior, enabling them to accurately measure network traffic so
that in the future, service providers know how much capacity is needed and can avoid
bottlenecks.
The particularity of this research project is that the team of experts taking part in it
was given access to very sensitive data on Internet traffic measurements. Operators normally
tend to guard this information jealously as it constitutes their core business. “Internet traffic
20 measurements are very difficult to find if you are not an operator,” says Mr. Andreas
Aurelius, coordinator of the project and senior scientist at Aereo AB, one of the project
partners. Previous research in this field has normally been limited to campus networks, and
limited to a geographical area. “That is one of the unique things about this project,” he says.
“We were using data in access networks, not campus networks as most researchers do.”
25 Another question that springs to mind is how the team was able to acquire all of
this information without flouting any privacy laws. The answer is that through agreements
with the operators, the partners had access to certain information, but not all of it. “The
information was post-processed, so it only contained data. It wasn’t linked to any customers
or IP addresses. We could see what type of application was being used, for example if it was
30 peer to peer, but we couldn’t see what file was downloaded,” explains Mr. Aurelius.
 Getting access to such delicate information was a great coup for the project, and as a result
the privacy concerns were taken very seriously.
Transnational partnerships and multicultural issues didn’t seem to affect the
TRAMMS project, as some of the partners had already worked together on previous projects,
so they gelled together well. “There was a tighter bond between the national partners,” says
35 Mr. Aurelius, but there were regular international meetings with the partners which helped
foster cooperation. In the end, 11 partners successfully completed the project and the three
countries involved complemented each other’s areas of specialization, making the project a
perfect example of international cooperation.

81. Which of the following would most likely be the main idea of the entire passage?
A. The TRAMMS project was successfully set up to make the Internet faster.
B. Sensitive data are prone to being the source ofjealousy among the Internet operators.
C. Despite multicultural issues, cooperation between TRAMMS partners remain solid.
D. Dense data traffic causes a slow Internet connection.

82. With which of the following statements would the author probably agree?
A. Increasing the Internet speed requires no control of data traffic.
B. One single country can run the TRAMMS project effectively.
C. Privacy laws no longer need to be protected in the TRAMMS project.
D. The Internet is a complex network service.

83. The word “tiresome” in line 2 could best be replaced by

A. Gratifying.
B. Dull.
C. Longed-for.
D. Petty.

84. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE about service providers?
A. They are keen on sharing information with others.
B. They managed data that are being sent on the Internet.
C. They can also be cailed operators.
D. They control the internet traffic.
85. The word “them” in line 14 refers to
A. Networks.
B. Operators.
C. Sweden and Spain.
D. TRAMMS teams.

86. According to the passage, the TRAMMS project is unusual because

A. The team was using data on either campus or access networks.
B. The team could access sensitive information about Internet traffic measurements.
C. A geographical factor impeded their project.
D. Operators had to be paid to share information with the team.

87. The author mentions privacy laws in paragraph 5 because ’

A. When confidential information is shared, privacy will be an immediate concern.
B. Every country has different privacy laws.
C. Privacy concerns were taken lightly in the TRAMMS project.
D. The partners had access to all information.

88. Which of the following best expresses the opposite meaning of the word “coup” in line
30?
A. Achievement
B. Upheaval
C. Setback
D. Tumult

89. The author’s tone in this passage could be best described as

A. Dubious.
B. Disapproving.
C. Optimistic.
D. Critical.
90. Which of the following questions about transnational partnerships does the passage
supply enough information to answer?
A. How often were international meetings for the TRAMMS project held?
B. What enabled the partners in the TRAMMS project to work together very well?
C. What made the national partners have a tighter bond?
D. Why did the three countries complement each other’s area of specialization?
 Questions 91 – 100
Scorpions are the most primitive land arachnids and the oldest, being known from
Silurian fossils, and they may have been the first land animals. These flattened, distinctively
segmented animals are characterized by the presence of a poisonous sting on the end of the
abdomen, the five terminal segments of which are sharply narrowed to form a long, ringed,
movable tail. The tail is curled over the back so that the curved, spinelike sting is in position
5 to strike insects, spiders, and other small living animals that the scorpion preys on. The upper
side of the cephalothorax (a combined head and thorax) is a flat carapace bearing a pair of
large median eyes and a group of two to five small eyes on each side margin. The
cephalotorax is broadly joined to the abdomen. The four pairs of walking legs are similar and
10 relatively slender. Held out in front to test the terrain is a pair of long, robust pedipalpi
provided with stout pincers which are used to hold the pray. A small but strong pair ofjawlike
chelicerae in front of the mouth aids in crushing the body of the victim.
The scorpion digests the soft parts of its prey by discharging a digestive fluid over
them. The predigested food is then sucked through the mouth by the pharynx, which serves as
both a pump and a strainer. As in all arachnids, the genital products are voided through a pore
15 that opens on the ventral face of the second abdominal segment. Immediately behind is a pair
of comblike pectines found only in scorpions and thought to have a sensory function.
Scorpions are solitary, nocturnal creatures that attack each other as readily as any
other suitable prey. During mating the male extrudes to the ground a complicated
spermatophore. He then graps the forelegs of the female and dances her into a position to
accept the sperm mass. Whereas most arachnids lay eggs, the scorpions are viviparous,
20 bringing forth living young. The newly born scorpions mount the back of the mother and stay
there until after their first molt, usually for about a week. During this period they consume the
food stored in their bodies. The belief that these weak, tiny babies feed upon the body of the
mother has no basis in fact. No less a fable is the classic story that scorpions commit suicide
25 by stinging themselves when they are helplessly cornered or surrounded by a ring of fire.
During frantic effort to escape, the victim stings at random, sometimes striking its own body
before succumbing.
 Scorpions abound in humid tropical areas and in hot deserts, where they are
represented by many species. The giants are great black creatures from tropical Africa,
frequently 7 inches (180 mm) long, and the average size for the whole order is about half that
30 length. Thirty or more species are found in the United States, chiefly in the South and
Southwest, but some penetrate north to Virginia in the East and even farther north in the
West, where they range into the Canadian provinces of British Columbia, Alberta, and
Saskatchewan.

91. The following are questions that the passage tries to address EXCEPT
A. What do scorpions look like?
B. How do scorpions eat?
C. How venomous are scorpions?
D. Where can scorpions be easily found?

92. The word “carapace” in line 7 is closest in meaning to

A. Body.
B. Covering.
C. Waist.
D. Tusk.

93. The following animals would most likely be a scorpion's prey EXCEPT
A. Beetles.
B. Spiders.
C. Grasshoppers.
D. Birds.

94. According to the passage, the following are parts of a scorpion’s body used to attack its
victim EXCEPT
A. The sting.
B. Legs.
C. Pincers.
D. Chelicerae.
95. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about scorpions?
A. Their natural death is by stinging themselves.
B. The average size is 9 cm.
C. They like damp and cool areas.
D. They lay eggs.

96. The word “they” in line 24 refers to

A. Arachnids.
B. Adult scorpions.
C. Female scorpions.
D. Newly born scorpions.

97. Which of the following best expresses the opposite meaning of the word “frantic” in line
25?
A. Composed
B. Agitated
C. Desperate
D. Tense

98. Which of the following about scorpions is NOT supported by the passage?
A. They are active during the day
B. Their genital products are.similar to other arachnids.
C. There are some false beliefs about scorpions.
D. They attack other scorpions as aggressively as they attack their prey.

99. Scorpions are abundant in the following areas EXCEPT

A. Africa
B. Southern United States
C. Alaska
D. British Columbia
100. The passage would probably be a part of an assigned reading in which of the following
courses?
A. Paleontology
B. Geography
C. Biology
D. Chemistry