Table of Contents

S.No. Chapter Name Pg. No.

1. Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 1-8

2. Structure of Atom 9-27

3. Thermodynamics 28-50

4. Chemical Equilibrium 51-68

5. Ionic Equilibrium 69-80

6. Redox Reactions 81-91

7. Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 92-105

8. Chemical Bonding 106-137

9. The p-Block Elements 138-147

10. Classification and Nomenclature 148-159

11. Isomerism 160-169

12. General Organic Chemistry 170-185

13. Hydrocarbons 186-206

14. Purification and Analysis of Organic Compounds 207-210

Answer Key 211-236

NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-1 SOME BASIC CONCEPT OF CHEMISTRY

1. Which is an example of matter according to physical state at room temperature and pressure.
(1) Solid (2) Liquid (3) Gas (4) All of these

2. Which of the following example of a Homogeneous mixture.

(1) Water + Alcohol (2) Water + Sand
(3) Water + Oil (4) None of these

3. Which mixture is called as solution.

(1) Heterogeneous mixture (2) Homogeneous mixture
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

4. Which of the following is a compound.

(1) Graphite (2) Producer gas (3) Cement (4) Marble

5. A pure substance can only be: -

(1) A compound (2) An element
(3) An element or a compound (4) A heterogenous mixture

6. Which one of the following is not a mixture

(1) Tap water (2) Distilled water (3) Salt in water (4) Oil in water

7. Convert 152 cm of Hg into atm.

(1) 1 atm (2) 3 atm (3) 2.5 atm (4) 2 atm

8. Convert 380 torr into atm.

(1) 2 atm (2) 0.5 atm (3) 4 atm (4) 1 atm

9. Convert 10 dm3 into mL.

(1) 10 mL (2) 20 mL (3) 1000 mL (4) 104 mL

10. Covert 250 cm3 into litre.

(1) 0.25 L (2) 0.3 L (3) 1 L (4) 4 L

1
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-2 SOME BASIC CONCEPT OF CHEMISTRY

1. Convert 35°C into kelvin (K).

(1) 300 K (2) 310 K (3) 308 K (4) 350 K

2. Convert 2 atm into torr.

(1) 760 torr (2) 1520 torr (3) 380 torr (4) 200 torr

3. Convert 103 dm3 into Cc.

(1) 103 Cc (2) 104 Cc (3) 105 Cc (4) 106 Cc

4. Convert 8.4 joules into calorie.

(1) 2 calorie (2) 0.5 calorie (3) 0.25 calorie (4) 1 calorie

5. Number of proton, electron & neutron in 20 Ca

40
respectively are.

(1) 20, 40, 20 (2) 20, 20, 20 (3) 20, 10, 20 (4) 20, 40, 40

6. What is the mass number & atomic number respectively for 9F

19
atom?
(1) 9, 19 (2) 19, 9 (3) 9, 9 (4) 19, 19

7. Which of following pairs have same number of neutrons?

(1) 19 K
39
, 20Ca
40
(2) 1H3 , 2He
4
(3) 37
17 Cl ,
38
18 Ar (4) All of the above

8. Sum of neutrons, protons & electrons for 5 B11 is.

(1) 5 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 16

9. Which of the following pairs have same number of protons?

(1) 12
6 C,
13
6 C (2) 16
8O , 8O
17
(3) 11H, 3
1H (4) All of the above

10. Which of the following pairs have same mass number?

(1) 1H3 , 2He
3
(2) 19 K
40
, 20Ca
40
(3) 5 B11 , 6C13 (4) Both (1) & (2)

2
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-3 SOME BASIC CONCEPT OF CHEMISTRY

1. The modern atomic weight scale is based on:

(1) 6C12 (2) 8O16 (3) 1H1 (4) 6C13

2. 1 amu is equal to:

1 1
(1) of C–12 (2) of O–16 (3) 1g of H2 (4) 1.66 x 10–24kg
12 14

3. The actual molecular mass of chlorine is:

(1) 58.93x10–24g (2) 117.86x10–24g

(3) 58.93x10–24kg (4) 117.86x10–24kg

4. Calculate the number of atoms in 11.2 litre of O2 gas at STP:

NA 2NA
(1) (2) (3) 3NA (4) NA
2 2

5. Which of the following has maximum mass:

(1) 0.1 gram atom of carbon (2) 0.1 mol of ammonia

(3) 6.02x1022 molecules of hydrogen (4) 1120 Cc of carbon dioxide at STP

6. The total number of electrons present in 180 mL of water:

(1) 6.02x1022 (2) 6.02x1023 (3) 6.02x1024 (4) 6.02x1025

7. The volume of 16g of oxygen at NTP is:

(1) 11.2L (2) 1.12L (3) 22.4L (4) 12L

3
8. 11 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at STP, the gas is:

(1) No (2) N2O4 (3) CO (4) CO2

9. At NTP, 5.6 litre of a gas weights 4 gram. The vapour density of gas is:

(1) 32 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 4

10. The vapour densities of two gases are in the ratio of 1:5. Their molecular masses will be in the ratio

of:

(1) 1:5 (2) 1:2 (3) 2:3 (4) 3:1

11. If the atomic mass of Sodium is 23, the number of moles in 46 g of sodium is:

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 2.3 (4) 4.6

12. Which of the following contains the greatest number of atoms?

(1) 1.0 g of butane (C4H10) (2) 1.0 g of nitrogen (N2)

(3) 1.0 g of silver (Ag) (4) 1.0 g of water (H2O)

13. A gaseous mixture contains CO2(g) and N2O(g) in 2:5 ratio by mass. The ratio of the number of

molecules of CO2(g) and N2O(g) is:

(1) 5:2 (2) 2:5 (3) 1:2 (4) 5:4

14. The weight of a molecule of the compound C60H22 is:

(1) 1.09 × 10–21 g (2) 1.24 × 10–21 g

(3) 5.025 × 10–23 g (4) 16.023 × 10–23 g

15. Which of the following expressions is correct (n = no. of moles of the gas, NA = Avogadro constant,

m = mass of 1 molecule of the gas, N = no. of molecules of the gas)?

(1) n = m NA (2) m = NA (3) N = nNA (4) m = mn/NA

4
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-4 SOME BASIC CONCEPT OF CHEMISTRY

1. Calculate the mass in gm of 2 g atom of Mg.

(1) 12 gm (2) 24 gm (3) 6 gm (4) 48 gm

2. In 5 g atom of Ag (at. wt. = 108), calculate the number of atoms of Ag.

(1) NA (2) 3NA (3) 5 NA (4) 7 NA

3. Calculate the mass in gm of 2 NA molecules of CO2

(1) 22 gm (2) 44 gm (3) 88 gm (4) 11 gm

4. How many carbon atoms are present in 0.35 mol of C6H12O6

(1) 6.023x1023 carbon atoms (2) 1.26x1023 carbon atoms
(3) 1.26x1024 carbon atoms (4) 6.023x1024 carbon atoms

5. What is the weight of 3.01x1023 molecules of ammonia

(1) 17 gm (2) 8.5 gm (3) 34 gm (4) 68 gm

6. An atom of an element weighs 6.644x10–23g. Calculate g-atoms of element in 40kg.

(1) 10 g atom (2) 100 g atom (3) 1000 g atom (4) 104 g atom

7. The density of O2 at NTP is 1.429 g/litre. Calculate the standard molar volume of gas
(1) 22.4 lit (2) 11.2 lit (3) 33.6 lit (4) 5.6 lit

8. Which of the following will weighs maximum amount

(1) 40g iron (2) 1.2g atom of N
(3) 1x10 23
atom of carbon (4) 1.12 litre of O2 at STP

9. Which of the following contains the least number of molecules

(1) 22 g of CO2 (2) 8 g of O2 (3) 56 g of N2 (4) 6 g of H2

10. Calculate the number of atoms in 1.6 gm of CH4–

(1) 3.011x1023 atoms (2) 6.023x1023 atoms
(3) 12.046x1023 atoms (4) None of these

5
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-5 SOME BASIC CONCEPT OF CHEMISTRY

1. A sample of aluminium has a mass of 54.0 g. What is the mass of the same number of magnesium
atoms? (At. wt. Al = 27, Mg=24)
(1) 12 g (2) 24 g (3) 48 g (4) 96 g

2. Four 1-1 litre flasks are separately filled with the gases H2, He, O2 and O3 at the same temperature and
pressure. The ratio of total number of atoms of these gases present in different flask would be:
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 2 : 3 (3) 2 : 1 : 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2 : 2 : 1

3. Under the same conditions, two gases have the same number of molecules. They must
(1) be noble gases (2) have equal volumes
(3) have a volume of 22.4 dm each3
(4) have an equal number of atoms

4. The charge on 1 gram ions of Al3+ is: (NA = Avogadro number, e = charge on one electron)
1 1
(1) 1 NA e coulomb (2) x NAe coulomb (3) x NAe coulomb (4) 3 x NAe coulomb
27 3 9

5. The atomic weights of two elements A and B are 40 and 80 respectively. If x g of A contains y
atoms, how many atoms are present in 2 x g of B?

(1) y (2) y (3) Y (4) 2y

2 4

6. A virus is found to have 16% oxygen by mass. Calculate the minimum molecule mass.
(1) 100 (2) 200 (3) 50 (4) 150

7. The sodium salt of methyl orange has 7% sodium. What is the minimum molecular weight of the
compound?
(1) 420 (2) 375 (3) 329 (4) 295

8. Which of the following will contain same number of atoms as 20g of calcium?
(1) 24g of magnesium (2) 12g of carbon
(3) 8g of oxygen gas (4) 16g of oxygen atom

9. A certain compound has the molecular formula X4O6. If 10g of X4O6 has 5.72g X, atomic mass of X is:
(1) 32 amu (2) 37 amu (3) 42 amu (4) 98 amu

10. A sample of ammonium phosphate (NH4)3PO4 contains 3.18 mol of H atoms. The number of mol of
O atoms in the sample is:
(1) 0.265 (2) 0.795 (3) 1.06 (4) 3.18

6
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-6 SOME BASIC CONCEPT OF CHEMISTRY

1. The vapour density of a gas A is twice that of a gas B. If the molecular weight of B is M, the molecular
weight of A will be:
M
(1) M (2) 2M (3) 3M (4)
2

2. The empirical formula of a compound of molecular mass 120 is CH2O. The molecular formula of the
compound is:
(1) C2H4O2 (2) C4H8O4 (3) C3H6O3 (4) all of these

3. Calculate the molecular formula of compound which contains 20% Ca and 80% Br (by wt.) if
molecular weight of compound is 200. (Atomic wt. Ca = 40, Br = 80)
(1) Ca1/2Br (2) CaBr2 (3) CaBr (4) Ca2Br

4. The simplest formula of a compound containing 50% of element X (atomic mass = 10) and 50% of
the element Y (atomic mass = 20) by weight is:-
(1) XY (2) X2Y (3) XY2 (4) x2Y3

5. A hydrocarbon contains 80% C. The vapour density of compound is 30. Empirical formula of
compound is:-
(1) CH3 (2) C2H6 (3) C4H12 (4) C4H8

6. Two elements X (Atomic weight = 75) and Y (Atomic weight =16) combine to give a compound having
75.8% of X. The empirical formula of compound is:
(1) XY (2) X2Y (3) X2Y2 (4) X2Y3

7. In a compound element A (Atomic weight = 12.5) is 25% and element B (Atomic weight = 37.5) is
75% by weight. The Empirical formula of the compound is:
(1) AB (2) A2B (3) A2B2 (4) A2B3

8. A gas is found to have the formula (CO)x. It’s VD is 70 the value of x must be:-
(1) 7 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

9. A compound contains 38.8% C, 16.0% H and 45.2% N. The formula of the compound would be:
(1) CH3NH2 (2) CH3CN (3) C2H5CN (4) CH2(NH)2

10. A gas is found to contain 2.34 g of Nitrogen and 5.34 g of oxygen. Simplest formula of the compound
is:-
(1) N2O (2) NO (3) N2O3 (4) NO2

7
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-7 SOME BASIC CONCEPT OF CHEMISTRY

1. According to following reaction; N2 + 3H2 → 2NH 3

If 6 moles of H2 were used, then find the moles of NH3 produced.
(1) 4 mol (2) 2 mol (3) 5 mol (4) 6 mol

2. On heating 200 g of CaCO3 completely. Calculate the volume of CO2 produced at STP
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
(1) 22.4 L (2) 44.8 L (3) 11.2 L (4) 5.6 L

3. For the following reaction if 10 L of H2 is used then calculate volume of HCl produced.
H2 ( g) + Cl2 ( g) → 2HCl ( g)
(1) 10 L (2) 5 L (3) 20 L (4) 40 L

4. How many moles of potassium chlorate (KClO3) need to be heated to produce 22.4 L oxygen at NTP
3
KClO3 → KCl + O
2 2
1 2
(1) mol (2) 3 mol (3) mol (4) 1 mol
3 2 3

5. For the reaction A + 2B → C. The amount of product formed when 5 mole of B is used.
(1) 2.5 mol (2) 5 mol (3) 4 mol (4) 2 mol

6. For the reaction; 2Al + 3 O2 → Al2O3

2
If 16g of oxygen is present then amount of product (Al2O3) formed.
(1) 34g (2) 8g (3) 16g (4) 100g

7. At 100oC for complete combustion of 3g ethane (C2H6) the required volume of O2 at STP will be.
(1) 22.4 L (2) 44.8 L (3) 7.84 L (4) 11.2 L

8. At 25oC for complete combustion of 5 mole propane (C3H8). The required volume of O2 at STP will
be.
(1) 22.4 L (2) 560 L (3) 44.8 L (4) 11.2 L

9. At 100oC for complete combustion of 1.12 litre of butane (C4H10), the produced volume of H2O(g) &
CO2 at STP will be.
(1) VH2O(g) 5.6
= = L ; VCO2 (g) 4.48 L = (2) VH2O(g) 5.6
= L ; VCO2 (g) 2.24 L
(3) VH2O(g) 2.24
= = L ; VCO2 (g) 5.6 L (4) None of these
10. 13 cc of CO2 are passed over red hot coke. The volume of CO evolved is:
(1) 13 cc (2) 10 cc (3) 32 cc (4) 26 cc

8
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-1 STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. Which of the following order of mass is correct for α-particle, proton, neutron and electron.
(1) mα < mp < mn < me (2) me < mp < mn < mα
(3) me = mp = mn = mα (4) me < mα < mn < mp

2. Which of the following is correct sequence for specific charge

(1) n > p > e– > α (2) e– > n > p > α (3) e– > α > p > n (4) e– > p > α > n

3. Mass of proton is
1
(1) times of mass of electron
1837
(2) 1837 times of mass of electron
(3) Equal to the mass of electron
(4) Negligible with respect to mass of electron

4. Which of the following is correct sequence for magnitude of charge

(1) α > e– = p > n (2) α > p > n > e– (3) α > n > p > e– (4) n > p > e– > α

5. The ratio of the "e/m" (specific charge) values of a proton and an α-particle is -
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) None of these

6. Which of the following conclusions could not be derived from Rutherford's α-particle scattering
experiment?
(1) Most of the space in the atom is empty.
(2) The radius of the atom is about 10–10 m while that of nucleus is 10–15 m.
(3) Electrons move in a circular path of fixed energy called orbits
(4) Electrons and the nucleus are held together by electrostatic forces of attraction.

7. Which of the following properties of atom could be explained correctly by Thomson Model of atom?
(1) Overall neutrality of atom.
(2) Spectra of hydrogen atom.
(3) Position of electrons, protons and neutrons in atom.
(4) Stability of atom.

9
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-2 STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. The radius of the nucleus 13Al27 will be

(1) 1.2 × 10–15m (2) 2.7 × 10–15m (3) 10.8 × 10–15m (4) 4 × 10–15m

2. Which of the following elements has maximum density of nucleus.

(1) 14Si30 (2) 15P31
(3) 8O16 (4) All have same density

3. Select iso electronic set :-

(a) Na+, H3O+, NH4+ (b) CO–2
3
,NO–3 ,H2CO3 (c) P–3, HCl, C2H–5 (d) F– Ne, Na+

(1) a, b, d (2) b, c, d (3) a, b, c (4) a, b, c, d

4. It is known that atoms contain protons, neutrons and electrons. If the mass of neutron is assumed
to be half of its original value whereas that of electron is assumed to be twice of this original value.
The atomic mass of 6C12 will be:
(1) Twice (2) 75% less
(3) 25% less (4) One-half of its original value

5. The mass number of dispositive Zn ion is 70. The total number of neutrons is–
(1) 34 (2) 40 (3) 36 (4) 38

6. Total number of neutron and proton in all isotopes of hydrogen is

(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3

7. If number of protons in x–2 ion is 16 then number of electrons in x+2 is:

(1) 14 (2) 16 (3) 18 (4) None of these

8. Identify the pairs which are not of isotopes?

(1) 12
6 X, 13
6 Y (2) 35
17 X, 37
17 Y (3) 14
7 X, 15
7 Y (4) 8
4 X, 58 Y

10
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-3 STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. Two atoms are said to be isobars if.

(1) They have same atomic number but different mass number

(2) They have same number of electrons but different number of neutrons.

(3) They have same number of neutrons but different number of electrons.

(4) Sum of the number of protons and neutrons is same but the number of protons is different.

2. Assertion (A) : All isotopes of a given element show the same type of chemical behaviour.

Reason (R) : The chemical properties of an atom are controlled by the number of electrons in the

atom.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are not true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) Both A and R are false

3. Calculate the frequency & energy of a photon of wavelength 4000 Å.

(1) 7.5 × 1014 s–1, 4.96 × 10–19 J (2) 6 × 1010 s–1, 9 × 10–19 J

(3) 3 × 108 s–1, 5 × 10–19 J (4) 5 × 109 s–1, 9 × 10–19 J

4. Which has a higher energy?

(A) A photon of violet light with wavelength 4000 Å

(B) A photon of red light with wavelength 7000 Å

(1) A (2) B

(3) Both A & B have same energy (4) None of the above

5. A 1kw radio transmitter operates at a frequency of 800 Hz. How many photons per second does it

emit.

(1) 1.71 × 1021 (2) 1.88 × 1033 (3) 6.02 × 1023 (4) 2.85 × 1020

11
6. (i) 26 Fe54, 26 Fe56 (a) Isotopes

(ii) 1 H3, 2He3 (b) Isotones

(iii) 32 Ge76, 33 As77 (c) Isodiaphers

(iv) 92 U235, 90
Th231
(d) Isobars

Math the above correct terms

(1) (i) → a; (ii) → d; (iii) → b; (iv) → c

(2) (i) → a; (ii) → d; (iii) → c; (iv) → b

(3) (i) → a; (ii) → c; (iii) → d; (iv) → b

(4) None of them

7. Average atomic weight of an element M is 51.7. If two isotopes of M, M50 and M52 are present then

calculate the percentage of occurrence of M50 in nature.

(1) 85% (2) 75% (3) 15% (4) 90%

8. The Vividh Bharti station of All India Radio broadcast on a frequency of 1368 kHz Calculate the

wavelength of the electromagnetic waves emitted by the transmitter.

(1) 219.3 m (2) 430.5 m (3) 565.8 m (4) 300.5 m

12
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-4 STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. The mass number of an anion, X3–, is 14. If there are ten electrons in the anion, the number of

neutrons in the X2 will be:

(1) 10 (2) 14 (3) 7 (4) 5

2. Wavelengths of different radiations are given below:

λ(A) = 300 nm λ(B) = 300 µm λ(C) = 3 nm λ(D) = 30 A°

Arrange these radiations in the increasing order of their energies.

(1) A > B > C > D (2) A < B < C < D (3) B < A < C = D (4) None of the above

3. Bohr's theory is not applicable to

(1) He (2) Li+2 (3) He+ (4) H atom

4. Correct order of radius of the Ιst orbit of H, He+, Li2+, Be3+ is:

(1) H > He+> Li2+ > Be3+ (2) Be3+ > Li2+> He+ > H

(3) He+ > Be3+ > Li2+ > H (4) He+ > H > Li2+ > Be3+

5. If velocity of an electron in Ist orbit of H atom is V, what will be the velocity of electron in 3rd orbit

of Li+2

(1) V (2) V/3 (3) 3 V (4) 9 V

6. If the velocity of the electron in first orbit of H atom is 2.18 × 10 6 m/s, what is its value

in third orbit ?

(1) 7.27 × 10 5 m/s (2) 2.18 × 10 6 m/s

(3) 7.27 × 10 5 cm/s (4) 2.18 × 10 6 cm/s

13
 1
7. Select the incorrect graph for radius of an orbit (r) vs. Z, and n2
Z

(1) r (2) r

Z 1/Z

(3) r (4) r

n2 n2

8. According to Bohr’s theory, the angular momentum of an electron in 5th orbit is:

(1) 25 h/π (2) 1.0 h/π (3) 10 h/π (4) 2.5 h/π

9. On the basis of Bohr’s model, the radius of the 3rd orbit is -

(1) Equal to the radius of first orbit (2) Three times the radius of first orbit

(3) Five times the radius of first orbit (4) Nine time the radius of first orbit

14
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-5 STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. If first ionization potential of an atom is 16 V, then the first excitation potential will be:
(1) 10.2 V (2) 12 V (3) 14 V (4) 16 V

2. Calculate the frequency of the last line of the Lyman series in hydrogen spectrum.
(1) 5.4 × 1015 Hz (2) 3.3 × 1015 Hz (3) 9.3 × 1015 Hz (4) 7.8 × 1015 Hz

3. Calculate the ratio of maximum λ of Lyman & Balmer series?

3 7 5 9
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 8 27 16

4. In a hydrogen spectrum if electron moves from 6th to 2nd orbit by transition in multi steps find out
the number of lines in spectrum.
(1) 10 (2) 5 (3) 15 (4) 12

5. A certain electronic transition from an excited state to Ground state of the Hydrogen atom in
onssssse or more steps gives rise to 5 lines in the ultra violet region of the spectrum. How many
lines does this transition produce in the Infra-red region of the spectrum?
(1) 10 (2) 6 (3) 12 (4) 9

6. In H atom if the electron moves from nth orbit to 1st orbit by transition in multi steps, then the total
number of lines observed in the spectrum are 10, then find out the value of n.
(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 12

7. The line spectra of two elements are not identical because.

(1) The elements don't have the same number of neutrons
(2) They have different mass numbers
(3) Their outermost electrons are at different energy levels.
(4) They have different valences.

8. In which of the following transition will the wavelength be minimum.

(1) n = 6 to n = 4 (2) n = 4 to n = 2 (3) n = 3 to n = 1 (4) n = 2 to n = 1

9. The wavelength of third line of the Balmer series for a H atom is:
21 100 21R 100R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
100R 21R 100 21

10. When the electron of a hydrogen atom jumps from n = 4 to n = 1 state in multi steps, the number
of spectral lines emitted is (without paschen series):
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 3 (4) 4

15
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-6 STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. Calculate the wavelength of 1st line of Balmer series in Hydrogen spectrum.

(1) 6566 A° (2) 4534 A° (3) 2535 A° (4) 5505 A°

2. At what atomic number would a transition from n = 2 to n = 1 energy level result in emission of
photon of λ = 3 × 10–8 m.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

3. The wave number of electromagnetic radiations emitted during the transition of electron in between
two levels of Li2+ ion having sum of the principal quantum numbers 4 and difference is 2, will be:
(R = Rydberg constant)
8
(1) 3.5 R (2) 4 R (3) 8 R (4) R
9
4. Five lowest energy levels of H-atom are shown in the figure. The number of absorption lines could be
n=5
n=4
n=3
n=2
n=1
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

5. Total no. of lines in Lyman series of H spectrum will be (when n = no. of orbits)
(1) n (2) n – 1 (3) n – 2 (4) n (n + 1)

6. The spectrum of He+ is expected to be similar to that of :

(1) Li2+ (2) He (3) H (4) Both A and C

7. No. of visible lines when an electron returns from 5th orbit to ground state in H spectrum :
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 10

8. The difference between the wave number of 1st line of Balmer series and last line of paschen series
for Li2+ ion is :
R 5R R
(1) (2) (3) 4R (4)
36 36 4

9. If the shortest wave length of Lyman series of H atom is x, then the wave length of the first line of
Balmer series of H atom will be
(1) 9x/5 (2) 36x/5 (3) 5x/9 (4) 5x/36

10. A dye absorbs a photon of wavelength λ and re-emits the same energy into two photons of
wavelength λ1 and λ2 respectively. The wavelength λ is related with λ1 and λ2 as:
λ + λ2 λλ λ2 λ2 λ 1λ 2
(1) λ = 1 (2) λ = 1 2 (3) λ = 1 2 (4) λ =
(λ + λ )
2
λ 1λ 2 λ 1 + λ2 λ 1 + λ2
1 2

16
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-7 STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. If travelling at same speeds, which of the following matter waves have the shortest wavelength?
(1) Electron (2) Alpha particle (He2+)
(3) Neutron (4) Proton

2. Table-tennis ball has a mass 10 g and a speed of 90m/s. If speed can be measured within an
accuracy of 4% . What will be the uncertainty in speed and position respectively ?
(1) 3.6 m/s, 1.46 × 10–33 m (2) 5 m/s, 2.9 × 10–33 m
(3) 6 m/s, 4.66 × 10–33 m (4) 9 m/s, 6.66 × 10–33 m

3. Assertion (A) : It is impossible to determine the exact position and exact momentum of an electron
simultaneously.
Rason (R) : The path of an electron in an atom is clearly defined.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and B are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true and R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

4. The mass of a particle is 1 mg and its velocity is 4.5 × 105 cm per second. What should be the
wavelength of this particle if h = 6.625 × 10–27 erg second.
(1) 1.4722 × 10–24 cm (2) 1.4722 × 10–29 cm
(3) 2.246 × 10–11 cm (4) 1.4722 × 10–34 cm

5. Which of the following should be the wavelength of an electron if its mass is 9.1 × 10–31 kg and its
velocity is 1/10 of that of light and the value of h is 6.6252 × 10–34 joule second?
(1) 2.426 × 10–7 metre (2) 2.426 × 10–9 metre
(3) 2.426 × 10–11 metre (4) 2.426 × 10–13 metre

17
6. Select the incorrect relation among the following.

h h h h
(1) ∆x. ∆p≥ (2) ∆x. ∆p≥ (3) ∆x. ∆V≥ (4) ∆E. ∆t≥
4π 4πm 4πm 4π

7. If the kinetic energy of an electron is increased 4 times, the wavelength of the de-Broglie wave
associated with it would become:-
(1) Four times (2) Two times (3) Half times (4) One fourth times

8. What possibly can be the ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths for two electrons each having zero
initial energy and accelerated through 50 volts and 200 volts?
(1) 3 : 10 (2) 10 : 3 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1

9. In H-atom. If 'x' is the radius of the first Bohr orbit, de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in 3rd orbit
is :

9x x
(1) 3πx (2) 6πx (3) (4)
2 2

10. Uncertainty in position is twice the uncertainty in momentum. Uncertainty in velocity is :

 1  1 
(1) (2) (3)  (4)
π 2m π 2m 4π

11. Uncertainty in position and momentum are equal. Uncertainty in velocity is

h h 1 h
(1) (2) (3) Both 1 and 2 (4)
π 2π 2m π

12. In an atom an electron is moving with a speed of 600 m/s with in accuracy of 0.005% What will be
the uncertainty in position?
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 kg m2s–1, me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg)
(1) 1.52 × 10–4m (2) 5.10 × 10–3m (3) 1.92 × 10–3m (4) 3.84 × 10–3m

18
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-8 STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. Total number of orbitals associated with third shell will be

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 9 (4) 3

2. Orbital angular momentum depends on

(1) l (2) n and l (3) n and m (4) m and s

3. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers are correct?

n l m1
(I) 1 1 +2
(II) 2 1 +1
(III) 3 2 –2
(IV) 3 4 –2
(1) I, II, III, IV (2) II, III (3) I, IV (4) I, III, IV

4. Which of the following statements concerning the quantum numbers are correct?
(1) Angular quantum number determines the three dimensional shape of the orbital
(2) Principal quantum number determines the orientation and energy of the orbital.
(3) Magnetic quantum number determines the size of the orbital.
(4) Spin quantum number of an electron determines the energy of the orbital

5. Match the quantum numbers with the information provided by these.

Quantum number Information provided
(i) Principal quantum number (a) Orientation of the orbital
(ii) Azimuthal quantum number (b) Energy and size of orbital
(iii) Magnetic quantum number (c) Spin of electron
(IV) Spin quantum number (d) Shape of the orbital

(1) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c (2) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
(3) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c (4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

19
6. Which of the following orbitals has the lowest energy?
(1)4d (2) 4f (3) 5s (4) 5p

7. Which of the following orbitals has the highest energy?

(1) 4d (2) 5f (3) 6s (4) 6p

8. The representation of an orbital with n = 4 and  = 1 :-

(1) 4d (2) 4s (3) 4f (4) 4p

9. Maximum number of electrons present in N shell is :

(1) 8 (2) 18 (3) 32 (4) 10

10. Match the columns

Orbital values of n, l, m
(i) 7py (a) 3, 0, 0
(ii) 3s (b) 5, 2, 0
(iii) 5dz2 (c) 7, 1, +1

(iv) 4f (d) 4, 3, –3

(1) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c (2) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
(3) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c (4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d

20
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-9 STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. The number of radial nodes for 3p orbital is

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1

2. Number of angular nodes for 4dxy orbital is

(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

3. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is not possible?

1 1
(1) n = 2,  = 0, m = –1, s = ± (2) n = 3,  = 2, m = 0, s = ±
2 2
1
(3) n = 2,  = 3, m = –2, s = ± (4) 1 and 3 both
2

4. Which of the following subshell can accommodate as many as 10 electrons -

(1) 2d (2) 3d (3) 3dxy (4) 3dz2

5. How many spherical nodes are present in a 4s orbital in hydrogen atom-

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

6. The orbital with zero orbital angular momentum is-

(1) s (2) p (3) d (4) f

7. For an electron, with n = 3 has only one radial node. The orbital angular momentum of the electron
will be:
h h h
(1) 0 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 3
2π 2π 2π

8. How many electrons can be accomodated in g sub-shell?

(1) 9 (2) 18 (3) 7 (4) 14

9. Which orbital is represented by the complete wave function ψ 420 ?

(1) 4dz 2
(2) 3dz 2
(3) 4pz (4) 4s

10. For a d-electron the orbital angular momentum is:

(1) (6)  (2) (2)  (3)  (4) 2 

21
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-10 STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. Which orbital is non-directional

(1) s (2) p (3) d (4) All

2. For which electron finding probability distribution is maximum at an angle of 45° to the axial
direction-
(1) dx 2
–y2
(2) dz2 (3) dxy (4) Px

3. In case of dx 2
–y2
orbital

(1) Probability of finding the electron along x-axis is zero.

(2) Probability of finding the electron along y-axis is zero.
(3) Probability of finding the electron is maximum along x and y-axis.
(4) Probability of finding the electron is zero in x-y plane

4. Which one of the following orbital has no nodel plane ?

(1) dz 2
(2) dxy (3) dyz (4) dxz

5. The zero probability of finding electron in the dxy orbital is :

(1) Along the x-axis
(2) Along the y-axis
(3) At an angle of 45º from the x-and y-axis
(4) Along all 3-axis

6. Which of the following orbitals are degenerate?

(1) 3dxy (2) 3dz2

(3) 3dyz (4) All of them are degenerate orbitals

7. Which series of subshells is arranged in the order of increasing energy for multi-electron atoms ?
(1) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p (2) 4f, 6s, 5d, 6p
(3) 5d, 4f, 6s, 6p (4) 4f, 5d, 6s, 6p

22
8. Four electrons in an atom have the sets of quantum numbers as given below. Which electron in at

the highest energy level ?

(1) n = 4,  = 0, m = 0, ms = + 1/2 (2) n = 3,  = 0, m = 0, ms = –1/2

(3) n = 3,  = 2, m = 0, ms = +1/2 (4) n = 4,  = 1, m = –1, ms = –1/2

9. In a 3d subshell, all the five orbitals are degenerate. What does it mean?

(1) All the orbitals have the same orientation.

(2) All the orbitals have the same shape.

(3) All the orbital have the same energy

(4) All the orbitals are unoccupied.

10. Assertion :- p-orbital has dumb-bell shape.

Reason :- Electrons present in p-orbital can have one of three values for 'm' i.e. 0, +1 –1

(1) If both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(2) If both Assertion & Reason True but Reason in not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

11. Assertion :- 2p orbitals do not have spherical nodes.

Reason :- The number of spherical nodes in p-orbitals is given by (n-2).

(1) If both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(2) If both Assertion & Reason True but Reason in not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

12. Assertion :- Nodal plane of px atomic orbital is yz plane.

Reason :- In px atomic orbital, electron density is zero in the yz plane.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(2) If both Assertion & Reason True but Reason in not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

23
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-11 STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. A neutral atom of an element has 2K, 8L, 11 M and 2N electrons. The number of p-electrons in the
atom are:-
(1) 2 (2) 12 (3) 10 (4) 6

2. An atom has 2 electrons in K-shell, 8 electrons in L-shell & 8 electrons in M-shell. The number of
p-electrons presents in the element is :-
(1) 10 (2) 7 (3) 12 (4) 4

3. The maximum number of such electrons in an atom with quantum number n = 3, = 2 is :-

(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 14

4. In potassium the probable order of energy level for 19th electron is :-

(1) 3s > 3d (2) 4s < 3d (3) 4s > 4p (4) 4s = 3d

5. Calculate the number of unpaired electrons in Cr

(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 7

6. The pair of ions having same electronic configuration is

(1) Cr3+, Fe3+ (2) Fe3+, Mn2+ (3) Fe3+, Co3+ (4) Sc3+, Cr3+

7. Out of the following pairs of electrons, identify the pairs of electrons present in degenerate orbitals

1 1
(1) (a) n = 3, l = 2, ml =–2, ms = – (b) n = 3, l = 2, ml =–1, ms = –
2 2
1 1
(2) (a) n = 3, l = 1, ml =1, ms = + (b) n = 3, l = 2, ml =1, ms = +
2 2
1 1
(3) (a) n = 4, l = 1, ml =1, ms = + (b) n = 3, l = 2, ml =1, ms = +
2 2
1 1
(4) (a) n = 3, l = 1, ml =+2, ms = – (b) n = 3, l = 2, ml =+2, ms = +
2 2

24
8. Match the following species with their corresponding ground state electronic configuration.
Atom / Ion Electronic configuration
(i) Cu (a) 1s22s22p63s23p63d10
(ii) Cu2+ (b) 1s22s22p63s23p63d3
(iii) Zn2+ (c) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s1
(iv) Cr3+ (d) 1s22s22p63s23p63d9

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a (4) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

9. Match the following rules with their statements:

Rules Statements
(i) Hund's Rule (a) No two electrons in an atom can have the same
set of four quantum numbers.
(ii) Aufbau principle (b) Pairing of electrons in the orbitals belonging to the
same subshell does not take place until each
orbital is singly occupied
(iii) Pauli Exclusion Principle (c) In an atom, it is impossible to determine the exact
position and exact momentum of an electron
simultaneously.
(iv) Heisenberg's Uncertainty principle (d) In the ground state of an atom, subshells are filled
in the order of their increasing energies.

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (2) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a (4) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b

10. Match species given in Column I with the electronic configuration given in Column II.
Column I Column II
(i) Cr (a) [Ar]3d84s0
(ii) Fe2+ (b) [Ar]3d104s1
(iii) Ni2+ (c) [Ar]3d64s0
(iv) Cu (d) [Ar]3d54s1

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
(3) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a (4) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b

11. Which of the following is electronic configuration of Cu2+ (Z = 29) ?

(1) [Ar]4s1 3d8 (2) [Ar]4s2 3d10 4p1
(3) [Ar]4s1 3d10 (4) [Ar] 3d9

12. An element has the electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p2. Its valency electrons are
(1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
25
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-12 STRUCTURE OF ATOM

1. Which of the following ions has the maximum number of unpaired d-electrons?
(1) Zn2+ (2) Fe2+ (3) Ni+2 (4) Cu+

2. The total spin resulting from a f9 configuration is :

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 5/2 (4) 3/2

3. Consider the ground state of Cr atom (Z = 24). The numbers of electrons with the azimuthal

quantum numbers,  = 1 and 2 are respectively :

(1) 16 and 5 (2) 12 and 5 (3) 16 and 4 (4) 12 and 4

4. The possible value of  and m for the last electron in the Cl– ion are:

(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and + 1 (3) 3 and – 1 (4) 1 and + 1

5. The correct set of quantum no. for the unpaired electron of potassium.

n  m n  m

(1) 2 1 0 (2) 2 1 1
(3) 3 1 1 (4) 4 0 0

6. In hydrogen atom, which energy level order is not correct?

(1) 1s < 2p (2) 2p = 2s (3) 2p > 2s (4) 2p < 3s

7. Assertion :- For hydrogen atom, 2s & 2p have same energy.

Reason :- For an atom of same principal quantum number. s, p, d & f subshells have same energy.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason True but Reason in not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

26
8. Assertion :- No two electrons in an atom can have the same values of four quantum numbers.
Reason :- No two electrons in an atom can be simultaneously in the same shell, same subshell,
same orbitals and have same spin.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason True but Reason in not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

9. Assertion :- In hydrogen atom, energy of 4s in more than 3d.

Reason :- An orbital with lower value of (n+) has smaller energy than the orbital with higher value
of (n+).
(1) If both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason True but Reason in not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

10. Assertion :- The configuration of B atom cannot be 1s2 2s3.

Reason :- Hund's rule demands that the configuration should display maximum multiplicity.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason True but Reason in not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

11. Assertion :- The electronic configuration of nitrogen atom is represented as :

Not as

Reason :- The configuration of ground state of an atom is the one which has the greatest
multiplicity.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason True but Reason in not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

12. Assertion :- The ground state configuration of Cr is 3d5 4s1.

Reason :- A set of exactly half-filled orbitals containing parallel spin arrangement provide extra
stability.
(1) If both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason True but Reason in not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

27
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.- 1 THERMODYNAMICS

1. Thermodynamics is not concerned about ………………

(1) Energy changes involved in a chemical reaction.
(2) The extent to which a chemical reaction proceeds.
(3) The rate at which a reaction proceeds.
(4) The feasibility of a chemical reaction.

2. Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) The presence of reacting species in a covered beaker is an example of open system.
(2) There is an exchange of energy as well as matter between the system and the surroundings in
a closed system.
(3) The presence of reactants in a closed vessel made up of copper is an example of a closed
system.
(4) The presence of reactants in a thermos flask or any other closed insulated vessel is an example
of a closed system.

3. The state of a gas can be described by quoting the relationship between.

(1) Pressure, volume, temperature (2) Temperature, amount, pressure
(3) Amount, volume, temperature (4) Pressure, volume, temperature, amount

4. The volume of gas is reduced to half from its original volume. The specific heat will be ………
(1) Reduce to half (2) Be doubled (3) Remain constant (4) Increase four times

5. Thermodynamics mainly deals with.

(1) Interrelation of various forms of energy and their transformation from one form to another.
(2) Energy changes in the processes which depend only on initial and final states of the microscopic
systems containing a few molecules.
(3) How and at what rate these energy transformations are carried out.
(4) The system in equilibrium state or moving from one equilibrium state to another equilibrium
state.

28
6. Which one is not a state function -

(1) Internal energy (E) (2) Volume

(3) Heat (q) (4) Enthalpy

7. When no heat energy is allowed to enter or leave the system, it is called -

(1) Isothermal process (2) Reversible process

(3) Adiabatic process (4) Irreversible process

8. Which is the intensive property -

(1) Temperature (2) Boling Point (3) Density (4) All

9. A well stoppered thermos flask contains some ice cubes. This is an example of a -

(1) Closed system (2) Open system

(3) Isolated system (4) Non-thermodynamics system

10. Select the correct order in the following:

(1) 1 erg > 1 joule > 1 cal (2) 1 cal > 1 joule > 1 erg

(3) 1 erg > 1 cal > 1 joule (4) 1 joule > 1 cal > 1 erg

29
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.- 2 THERMODYNAMICS

1. Find the work when one mol of ideal gas in 10 litre container at 1 atm is allowed to enter a vacuum
bulb of capacity 100 litre.
(1) -90 L-atm (2) -100 L-atm (3) -30 L-atm (4) Zero

2. Find the work when 1 mol of gas expands from 1 litre to 5 litre against constant atmospheric
pressure.
(1) 5 L-atm (2) -4 L-atm (3) -10 L-atm (4) Zero

3. Which of the following is open system.

(1) Animals and plants (2) A fridge
(3) A solar cooker (4) None of these

4. One mole of gas occupying 3 litre volume is expanded against a constant external pressure of one
atom to a wolume of 15 litre. The work in this process is:
(1) -1.215×103 J (2) +12.15×103 J (3) +121.5×103 J (4) +1.215×103 J

5. The work during the expansion of a gas from a volume of 4 dm3 to 6 dm3 against a constant external
pressure of 3 atm is:
(1) -608 J (2) +304 J (3) -304 J (4) -6 J

6. The work during the expansion of a gas from a volume of 14 dm3 to 16 dm3 against a constant
external pressure of 2 atm is:
(1) -405.2 J (2) +304 J (3) -304 (4) -6 J
Vf

7. The pressure-volume work for an ideal gas can be calculated by using the expression w = − ∫ pexdV.
Vi

The work can also be calculated from the pV-plot by using the area under the curve within the
specified limits. When an ideal gas is compressed (a) reversibly or (b) irreversible from volume Vi to
Vf. Choose the correct option.
(1) w (reversible) = w (irreversible) (2) w (reversible) < w (irreversible)
(3) w (reversible) > w (irreversible) (4) w (reversible) = w (irreversible)+pex.∆V

8. One litre-atmosphere is approximately equal to-.

(1) 19.2 J (2) 101 J (3) 8.3 J (4) 831 J

9. Molar volume is:

(1) Extensive property (2) Intensive property
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

10. Molar enthalpy is:

(1) Extensive property (2) Intensive property
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

30
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.- 3 THERMODYNAMICS

1. 1 g of water changes from liquid to vapour phase at constant pressure of 1 atmosphere, the volume
increases from 1 mL to 1671ml. The heat of vaporization at this pressure is 540 Cal g Find the
increase in internal energy of water. (1 L atm = 101 J)
(1) 2999.33 J (2) 2009.33 J (3) 2099.33 J (4) 2000.33 J

2. A gas occupies 2 L at STP. It is provided 300 J heat so that its volume becomes 2.5 L at 1 atm.
Calculate change in its internal energy.
(1) 229.35 J (2) 249.35 J (3) 294.35 J (4) 260 J

3. A sample of gas present in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston expands against a constant
pressure of 1 atm from a volume of 2L to 12L. During the process, it absorbs 600 J of heat from the
surroundings. Calculate the change in internal energy of the system.
(1) -413 J (2) -213 J (3) -513 J (4) -600 J

4. Two moles of an ideal gas at 2 atm and 27°C is compressed isothermally to one half of its volume by
a constant external pressure of pressure of 4 atm. Calculate q, w & ∆ E. (R=0.082 L atm mol-1 K-1)
(1) -4984 J, +4984 J, 0 (2) +4984 J, -4984 J, 0
(3) -4984 J, +3984 J, 0 (4) -6984 J, +5984 J, 0

5. A system is provided with 100 J of heat. Work done on the system is 20 J. What is the change in
internal energy.
(1) 320 J (2) 220 J (3) 100 J (4) 120 J

6. An insulated container is divided into two equal portions. One portion contains an ideal gas at
pressure P and temperature T, while the other portion is a perfect Vacuum. If a hole is opened
between the two portions, Calculate the-
(i) Change in internal energy of the gas (ii) Change in temperature of the gas
(1) 0, 0 (2) -5 J, 2 K (3) -10 J, 5 K (4) -11 J, 10 K

7. A system absorb 300 cal of heat with the result of that, the volume of the system becomes double
of its initial volume and temperature changes from 273K to 546K. The work done by the system on
the surroundings is 200.0 Cal Calculate ∆E.
(1) 273 Cal (2) 500 Cal (3) 100 Cal (4) -500 Cal

8. One mol of an ideal gas at 300 K is expended isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to 10
litre. The ∆E for the process is: (R=2 Cal K-1 mol-1)
(1) 163.7 Cal (2) 1381.1 Cal (3) 9 L-atm (4) Zero

9. In an adiabatic process which of the following is true:

(1) q = +w (2) -∆E =-w (3) P∆V = 0 (4) q = ∆E

10. In an isochoric process, the increase in internal energy is:

(1) Equal to the heat absorbed (2) Equal to the heat evolved
(3) Equal to the work done (4) Equal to zero

31
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.- 4 THERMODYNAMICS

1. The heat of reaction for C10H8 (s) + 12O2 (g) → 10CO2 (g) + 4H2O () at constant volume is -1228.2 kCal

at 25°C. Calculate the heat of reaction at constant pressure and at 25°C.

(1) -1299.293 kCal (2) -1289.298 kCal (3) -1229.392 kCal (4) -1299.322 kCal

2. For the reaction at 25°C

1 3
NH3(g) → N2(g) + H2(g); ∆H° = 11.04 kCal.
2 2
Calculate ∆E° of the reaction at the given temperature.

(1) 10.44kCal (2) 44.10kCal (3) 1.44kCal (4) 16.44kCal

3. At 27°C the internal energy change of reaction H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) is 2Cal. What is the enthalpy

change of this reaction.

(1) 8Cal (2) 3Cal (3) 6Cal (4) 2Cal

4. The heat of combustion of gaseous methane (CH4) at constant volume is measured in bomb

calorimeter at 298K is found to be -885.4kJ mol–1. Find the value of enthalpy change at the same

temperature.

(1) 980.535 kJ (2) -890.355 kJ (3) 350.855 kJ (4)355.890 kJ

5. The enthalpy change (∆H) for the reaction: N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) is -92.38 kJ at 298 K. What is

∆E at 298 K?

(1) 78.225 kJ. (2) 77.525 kJ. (3) 88.455 kJ. (4) -87.425 kJ.

6. When a solid melts, there is:

(1) No increase in enthalpy (2) Increase in enthalpy

(3) Decrease in enthalpy (4) Anything can happen

32
7. For the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) which of the following is valid:

(1) ∆H = ∆E (2) ∆H < ∆E (3) ∆H > ∆E (4) None of these

8. Heat exchanged in a chemical reaction at constant pressure is called.

(1) Internal energy (2) Enthalpy (3) Entropy (4) Free energy

9. Latent heat of vaporization of a liquid at 500 K and 1 atm pressure is 10.0 kCal mol–1. What will be

the change in internal energy of 3 mol of liquid at same temperature and pressure.

(1) 13.0 kCal (2) -13.0 kCal (3) 27.0 kCal (4) -27.0 kCal

10. What is the value of ∆ng if we consider the combustion of 1 mol of liquid ethanol if reactants and

products are at 298 K:

(1) -1 (2) -2 (3) +1 (4) +2

11. If a reaction involves only solids and liquids, which of the following is true

(1) ∆H < ∆E (2) ∆H = ∆E (3) ∆H > ∆E (4) ∆H = ∆E +RT∆ng

12. The value of ∆H – ∆E for the following reaction at 27°C will be, 2NH3 (g)→N2(g)+3H2(g):

(1) 8.314 × 273 × (-2) J (2) 8.314 × 300 × (-2) J

(3) 8.314 × 27 (+2) J (4) 8.314 × 300 × (+2) J

13. At constant temperature for the reaction C3H8(g) + 5O2 (g) → 3CO2 (g) + 4H2O (l), ∆E - ∆H is:

(1) +RT (2) -3RT (3) +3RT (4) -RT

33
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.- 5 THERMODYNAMICS

1. 5 moles of oxygen are heated at constant volume from 10°C to 20°C. What will be the change in

the internal energy of gas? The molar heat capacity of oxygen at constant pressure,

Cal
=CP 7.03
= and R 2 Cal mol −1 K −1
molK

(1) 521.55 Cal (2) 251.5 Cal (3) 351.5 Cal (4) 215.05 Cal

2. At 27°C, one mole of an ideal gas compressed isothermally and reversibly from a pressure of 2 atm

to 10 atm. Calculate ∆E and q in calorie.

(1) 0, 956.78 Cal (2) 0, 596.87 Cal (3) 0, 695.78 Cal (4) 0, 965.87 Cal

3. A gas expands from 3dm3 to 5 dm3 against a constant pressure of 3 atm. the work done during

expansion is used to heat 10 mol of water of temperature 290 K. Calculate final temperature of

water (if specific heat of water is 4.184 Jg–1K–1).

(1) 720.81 K (2) 920.18 K (3) 290.81 K (4) 209.18 K

4. A sample of 3 mol of an ideal gas at 200K and 2 atm is compressed reversibly and adiabatically

until the temperature reaches 250K, given that molar heat capacity is 27.5 JK–1 mol–1 at constant

volume, calculate work.

(1) 2514 J (2) 4125 J (3) 2541 J (4) 5412 J

5. 10 moles of an ideal gas at 27°C and 10 atm. pressure occupying a volume of 24.6 L undergoes the

following changes.

(i) Isothermal & reversible expansion to 246 L

(ii) Isothermal and irreversible expansion to 246 L
(iii) Isochoric heating to 177°C.
Calculate the work in each transformation in kJ.
(1) –57.41 kJ, –22.43 kJ, 0 (2) –22.43 kJ, –57.41 kJ, 0
(3) –70.41 kJ, –35.43 kJ, 0 (4) –100 kJ, –200 kJ, 0

34
6. Find the work, when 2 mol of a gas expands isothermally from 5dm3 to 40dm3 against a constant

external pressure of 2 atm at 298K. Also calculate wrev for the change.

(1) –7.09 kJ, –10.3 kJ (2) –10.3 kJ, –7.09 kJ

(3) –20 kJ, –10.3 kJ (4) –10.3 kJ, –20.3 kJ

7. Calculate w for the isothermal reversible expansion of 1mol of an ideal gas from an initial pressure

of 1.0 bar to a final pressure of 0.1 bar at a constant temperature of 273 K:

(1) -5227.2 J (2) +5227.2J (3) -2257 J (4) +2257 J

8. When 229 J of energy is supplied as heat at constant pressure to 3 mol Ar(g), the temperature of

the sample is increased by 2.55K. Calculate the molar heat capacity at constant volume:

(1) 30 kJ K–1 mol–1 (2) 30 J K–1 mol–1

(3) 21.7 J K–1 mol–1 (4) 21.7 kJ K–1 mol–1

9. The enthalpy change for transition of liquid water to steam is 40.8 kJ mol–1 at 373K. Calculate ∆S

for the process.

(1) 106.38 JK–1 mol–1 (2) 183.19 JK–1 mol–1

(3) 109.38 JK–1 mol–1 (4) 138.09 JK–1 mol–1

10. Calculate the change in entropy for the fusion of 1 mol of ice. The melting point of ice is 273K and

molar enthalpy of fusion of ice = 6 kJ mol–1.

(1) 21.97 JK–1 mol–1 (2) 97.12 JK–1 mol–1

(3) 79.12 JK–1 mol–1 (4) 27.19 JK–1 mol–1

35
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.- 6 THERMODYNAMICS

1. The enthalpy of vapourisation of liquid diethyl ether (C2H5)2O, is 26.0 kJ mol–1 at its biling point
(35.0°C). Calculate ∆S for conversion of:
(i) Liquid to vapour and (ii) Vapour to liquid at 35°C
(1) 84.41 JK mol , –84.41 JK mol
–1 –1 –1 –1
(2) 48.14 JK–1 mol–1, –48.14 JK–1 mol–1
(3) 91.48 JK–1 mol–1, –91.48 JK–1 mol–1 (4) 76.78 JK–1 mol–1, –76.78 JK–1 mol–1

2. Which of the following processes are accompanied by increase of entropy:

(i) Dissolution of iodine in a solvent {I2(s)→I2(aq.)}
(ii) HCl is added to AgNO3 and a precipitate of AgCl is obtained.
(iii) A partition is removed to allow tow gases to mix.
(1) (i) & (ii) (2) (i) & (iii) (3) (ii) & (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)

3. In any natural process, occurring in the universe.

(1) Entropy is conserved (2) Entropy increases
(3) Entropy decreases (4) Entropy remains unchanged

4. The most random state of H2O system is:.

(1) Ice (2) H2O(l) at 80°C; 1 atm
(3) Steam (4) H2O(l) at 25°C; 1 atm

5. Change in entropy is negative for:

(1) Br2(l) → Br2(g) (2) C(s)+H2O(g) → CO(g)+H2(g)
(3) M2(g,10atm → M2(g, 1atm) (4) Fe (at 400K) → Fe (at 300K)

6. Total entropy change in spontaneous adiabatic process is:

(1) Zero (2) < 0 (3) > 0 (4) None of these

7. 5 mole of an ideal gas expand reversibly from a volume of 8 dm3 to 80 dm3 at a temperature of
27°C. The change in entropy is:
(1) 41.57 JK–1 (2) -95.73 JK–1 (3) 95.73 JK–1 (4) -41.57 JK–1

8. The latent heat of vapourisation of water at 100°C is 540 Cal g–1. Calculate the entropy increase
when one mole of water at 100°C is evaporated.
(1) 26 Cal K–1 mol–1 (2) 1.45 Cal K–1 mol–1 (3) 367 Cal K–1 mol–1 (4) 1.82 Cal K–1 mol–1

9. Calculate enthalpy of vapourization per mole of ethanol. Given ∆S = 109.8 JK–1 mole–1 and B.P. of
ethanol is 78.5°C:
(1) Zero (2) 38.594 kJ mol–1 (3) 3.85 kJ mol–1 (4) None of these

10. For which reaction from the following, ∆S will be positive ?

(1) Ca(s) + 1/2 O2(g) → CaO(s) (2) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s)+CO2(g)
(3) C(s) + 1/2O2(g) → CO(g) (4) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → 2SO3(g)

36
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.- 7 THERMODYNAMICS

1. In an adiabatic process, no transfer of heat takes place between system and surroundings. Choose
the correct option for the free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition from the
following.
(1) q = 0, ∆T ≠ 0, w = 0 (2) q ≠ 0, ∆ T = 0, w = 0
(3) q = 0, ∆T = 0, w = 0 (4) q = 0, ∆ T < 0, w ≠ 0

2. In an exothermic reaction, heat is evolved, and system loses heat to the surrounding. For such
system.
(1) qp will be negative (2) ∆rH will be negative
(3) qp will be positive (4) ∆rH will be positive

3. For an ideal gas, the work of reversible expansion under isothermal condition can be calculated by
V
using the expression w=-nRT In f
Vi
A sample containing 1.0 mol of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally and reversibly to ten times of
its original volume, in two separate experiments. The expansion is carried out at 300 K and at 600
K respectively. Choose the correct option.
(1) Work done at 600 K is 20 times the work done at 300 K.
(2) Work done at 300 K is twice the work done at 600 K.
(3) Work done at 600 K is twice the work done at 300 K.
(4) ∆U = 0 in both cases.

4. Match the following:

(i) Adiabatic process (a) Heat
(ii) Isolated system (b) At constant volume
(iii) Isothermal change (c) First law of thermodynamics
(iv) Path function (d) No exchange of energy and matter
(v) State function (e) No transfer of heat
(vi) ∆U = q (f) Constant temperature
(vii) Law of conservation of energy (g) Internal energy
(viii) Reversible process (h) Pext=0
(ix) Free expansion (i) At constant pressure
(x) ∆H = q (j) Infinitely slow process which proceeds
through a series of equilibrium states.
(xi) Intensive property (k) Entropy
(xii) Extensive property (l) Pressure
(m) Specific heat capacity

37
 q
5. The entropy change can be calculated by using the expression ∆S =rev .
T
When water freezes in a glass beaker, choose the correct statement amongst the following:
(1) ∆S (system) decreases but ∆S (surroundings) remains the same.
(2) ∆S (system) increases but ∆S (surroundings) decreases.
(3) ∆S (system) decreases but ∆S (surroundings) increases.
(4) ∆S (system) decreases but ∆S (surroundings) also decreases.

6. The spontaneity means, having the potential to proceed without the assistance of external agency.
The processes which occur spontaneously are
(1) Flow of heat from colder to warmer body.
(2) Gas in a container contracting into one corner.
(3) Gas expanding to fill the available volume
(4) Burning carbon in oxygen to give carbon dioxide.

7. Match the following processes with entropy change:

Reaction Total entropy change
(i) A liquid vapourises at temperature (a) ∆ST = 0
more than its boiling point
(ii) Reaction is non-spontaneous (b) ∆ST = positive
at all temperatures and ∆H
is positive
(iii) Reversible expansion of an (c) ∆ST = negative
ideal gas

8. Assertion (A) : Spontaneous process is an irreversible process and may be reversed by some
external agency.
Reason (R) : Decrease in enthalpy is a contributory factor for spontaneity.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason True but Reason in not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

9. Assertion (A) : A liquid crystallises into a solid and is accompanied by decrease in entropy.
Reason (R) : In crystals, molecules organize in an ordered manner.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason True but Reason in not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

10. Match the following:

∆ (Parameters) Description
∆rH Θ
∆rS Θ
∆rG Θ

(i) + – + (a) Non-spontaneous at high temperature.

(ii) – – + (b) Spontaneous at all temperatures
(iii) – + – (c) Non-spontaneous at all temperatures

38
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.- 8 THERMODYNAMICS

1. For a certain reaction the change in enthalpy and change in entropy are 40.63 kJ mol–1 and 100 JK–1.

What is the value of ∆G at 27°C and indicate whether the reaction is possible or not?

(1) Possible (2) Not possible (3) Can't predict (4) None

2. For a reaction at 25°C enthalpy change (∆H) and entropy change (∆S) are -11.7×103 J mol–1 and –105

J mol–1 K–1 respectively. Find out whether this reaction is spontaneous or not.

(1) Spontaneous (2) Non spontaneous

(3) Reaction at equilibrium (4) None

3. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction given below at 400K.

If ∆H° = 77.2kJmol–1 and ∆S° = 122 JK–1 mol–1

PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

(1) 2×10-4 (2) 4×10-2 (3) 20×10-3 (4) 40×10-3

4. For the reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g); ∆H = –95.4 kJ and ∆S = –198.3 Jk-1. Calculate the

temperature at which the reaction will proceed in forward direction.

(1) Above 481 K (2) Below 481 K (3) Can't predict (4) None

5. Enthalpy and entropy change of a reaction are 40.63 kJ mol–1 and 108.8 J K–1 respectively. Analyse

the feasibility of the reaction at 27°C.

(1) Feasible (2) Not feasible (3) At equilibrium (4) None

6. For a certain reaction the change in enthalpy and change in entropy are 40.63 kJ mol–1 and 100 JK–1.

Show that the reaction at 27°C is possible or not.

(1) Possible (2) Not possible (3) Can't predict (4) None

39
7. Zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to given hydrogen at 17°C. The enthalpy of the reaction is

-12.55 kJ mol–1 and entropy change is 5JK–1 mol–1 for the reaction. Calculate the free energy change

and predict whether the reaction is spontaneous or not.

(1) +14 kJ/mol, Non Spontaneous (2) +14 kJ/mol, Spontaneous

(3) -14 kJ/mol, Spontaneous (4) None

8. For a reaction both DH and DS are positive under what condition will the reaction occur

spontaneously.

(1) T∆S = ∆H (2) T∆S < ∆H (3) T∆S > ∆H (4) None

9. Which of the following are state function?

(i) q (ii) Entropy (iii) Gibb's energy (iv) H (v) w

(1) i, ii, iii (2) iii, iv, v (3) iv, v (4) ii, iii, iv

10. If ∆G° > 0 for a reaction then:

(1) Kp > 1 (2) Kp < 1 (3) Kp = 1 (4) None

40
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.- 9 THERMODYNAMICS

1. For an endothermic reaction to be spontaneous:-

(1) ∆G must be + ve (2) ∆S must be > 0
(3) ∆S must be –Ve (4) T∆S must be equal to ∆G

2. The value of ∆G for the process H2O(s) → H2O(l) at 1 atm and 260 K is:-
(1) < 0 (2) = 0 (3) > 0 (4) Unpredictable

3. In a certain chemical reaction ∆H = 150 kJ and ∆S = 10 JK–1 at 300 K. The value of ∆G would be:-
(1) –2850 J (2) Zero (3) +2850 J (4) 147 kJ

4. The standard Gibb's energy change for a gaseous reaction at 27°C is X kCal. If equilibrium constant
for reaction is 100 and R is 2 Cal K–1 mol–1. The X is :-
(1) –2.7636 (2) +2.7636 (3) + 807 (4) –807

5. The favorable conditions for a spontaneous reaction are :-

(1) T∆S > ∆H, ∆H = +ve, ∆S = +ve (2) T∆S > ∆H, ∆H = +ve, ∆S = –ve
(3) T∆S = ∆H, ∆H = –ve, ∆S = –ve (4) T∆S = ∆H, ∆H = +ve, ∆S = +ve

6. If ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0, the reaction proceeds spontaneously when :-

(1) ∆H < 0 (2) ∆H > T∆S (3) ∆H = T∆S (4) None

7. which of the following is true for the reaction H2O(l)  H2O(g) at 100°C and 1 atmosphere
(1) ∆S = 0 (2) ∆H = 0 (3) ∆H = ∆E (4) ∆H = T∆S

8. The process of evaporation of a liquid is accompanied by :

(1) Increase in enthalpy (2) Decrease in free energy
(3) Increase in entropy (4) All

9. Which of the following is not correct?

(1) ∆G is zero for a reversible reaction
(2) ∆G is positive for a spontaneous reaction
(3) ∆G is negative for a spontaneous reaction
(4) ∆G is positive for a non-spontaneous reaction

10. Match the following :

(i) Entropy of vapourisation (a) decreases
(ii) ∆ST for spontaneous process (b) is always positive
(iii) Crystalline solid state (c) lowest entropy
∆Hvap
(iv) ∆U in adiabatic expansion of ideal gas (d)
Tb

41
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.- 10 THERMODYNAMICS

1. An endothermic reaction is one in which:

(1) Heat is converted into electricity (2) Heat is absorbed

(3) Heat is evolved (4) Heat is converted into mechanical work

2. If heat of reaction A + 5B → 2C + 3D, is –50 Kj. What is the heat of the reaction 2A+10B → 4C+6D.

(1) –50 kJ (2) –25 kJ (3) –100 kJ (4) +100 kJ

3. The process CH3COOH → CH3COO– + H+, Should be:

(1) Exothermic

(2) Endothermic

(3) Neither exothermic nor endothermic

(4) Exothermic or endothermic depending upon temperature

4. For the given:

CO2(g) + H2(g) → CO(g) + H2O(g) ; ∆H = 40 kJ

The ∆H is specifically called

(1) Heat of formation of CO (2) Heat of combustion

(3) Heat of reaction (4) Heat of hydrogenation of C = O bond

5. Since enthalpy of elements in their natural state is taken as zero. The value of ∆Hf of compounds:

(1) is always negative (2) is always positive

(3) may be positive or negative (4) is zero

6. The enthalpy of formation of ammonia at 298K is given as ∆H°f = –46.11 kJ per mol of NH3(g). To

which of the following equation does this value apply?

1 3
(1) N (g) + H2 (g) → NH3 (g) (2) N(g) + 3H(g) → NH3(g)
2 2 2

1 3
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) (4) N (g) + H2 (g) → NH3 ()
2 2 2
42
7. Which of the following equation represents the standard heat of formation:

(1) C(diamond) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g) (2) C(graphite) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g)

(3) C(diamond) + 4H(g) → CH4(g) (4) C(graphite) + 4H2(g) → CH4(g)

8. Which of the following reaction defines ∆H°f

1 1
(1) C(diamond) + O2(g) → CO2(g) (2) H2 (g) + F2 (g) → HF(g)
2 2

1
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) (4) CO(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
2

9. How much heat will be required at constant pressure to form 1.28 kg of CaC2 from CaO(s) & C(s)?

Given : ∆fH°(CaO, s) = – 152 kCal mol–1

∆fH°(CaC2, s) = – 14 kCal mol–1

∆fH°(CO, g) = – 26 kCal mol–1

(1) + 112 kCal (2) 224 kCal (3) 3840 kCal (4) 2240 kCal

10. The ∆fH°(N2O5, g) in kJ mol–1 on the bases of the following data is:

2NO(g) + O2 (g) → 2NO2 (g) ∆fH° = –114 kJ mol–1

4NO2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2N2O5 (g) ∆fH° = – 102.6 kJ mol–1

∆fH° (NO,g) = 90.2 Kj mol–1

(1) 15.1 (2) 30.2 (3) –36.2 (4) None of these

43
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.- 11 THERMODYNAMICS

1. Calculate ∆H° for 2Al(s) + Fe2O3 → 2Fe(S) + Al2O3 given that standard enthalpy of Fe2O3 and Al2O3 are
–196.5 and –399.1 kCal.
(1) –202.6 kCal (2) 180.94 kCal (3) -220.56 kCal (4) -250.54 kCal

2. The heat of formation of the compound in the following reaction is:

H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) + 44 Kcal
(1) –44 kCal mol–1 (2) –22 kCal mol–1 (3) +11 kCal mol–1 (4) –88 kCal mol–1

3. 1 mole of methanol, when burnt in oxygen, gives out –723 kJ mol–1 heat. If 1 mole of oxygen is used
what will be the amount of heat evolved?
(1) 723 kJ (2) 964 kJ (3) 482 kJ (4) 241 KJ

4. Combustion of methane:
(1) Is an exothermic reaction (2) Is an endothermic reaction
(3) Requires a catalyst (4) Gives H2

5. The heat evolved in the combustion of glucose is given by the equation

C6H12O6(s) + 6O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(g), ∆H = –680 kCal
The wt. of CO2(g) Produced when 170 kCal of heat is evolved in the combustion of glucose is
(1) 264 g (2) 66 g (3) 11 g (4) 44 g

6. Find out the calorific value of glucose

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O ; ∆H = – 2900 kJ mol–1
(1) 16.11 KJg–1 (2) 28.32 KJg–1 (3) 25.52 KJg–1 (4) 30.54 KJg–1

7. Enthalpy of combustion of a substance is always :

(1) > 0 (2) ≥ 0 (3) ≤ 0 (4) < 0

1
8. The heat change for a reaction: CO(g) + O2 → CO2(g) refers to
2
(1) Enthalpy of formation of carbon dioxide
(2) Enthalpy of combustion of carbon dioxide
(3) Enthalpy of vaporisation
(4) Enthalpy of combustion of carbon monoxide

9. Heat of neutralisation of an acid by a base is maximum when:

(1) Both the acid and base are weak (2) Both the acid and base are strong
(3) The acid is strong and the base is weak (4) The acid is weak and the base is strong

10. The enthalpy change for the process c(s) → c(g) corresponds to the enthalpy of
(1) Fusion (2) Vaporization (3) Combustion (4) Sublimation

44
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.- 12 THERMODYNAMICS

1. If H+ + OH– → H2O + 13.7 kCal, then heat of complete neutralisation of 1 gm mol of H2SO4 with base
in excess will be :
(1) –13.7 kCal (2) –27.4 kCal (3) –6.85 kCal (4) –3.425 kCal

2. 200 cm3 of 0.1 M H2SO4 is mixed with 150 cm3 of 0.2 M KOH. Find the value of evolved heat.
(1) 2.3 KJ (2) 1.7 KJ (3) 4.5 KJ (4) 3.5 KJ

3. Enthalpy of neutralisation of acetic acid with KOH will be numerically :

(1) = 57.2 kJ (2) > 57.2 kJ (3) < 57.2 kJ (4) Unpredictable

4. The vaporisation process is always :

(1) Exothermic (2) Endothermic
(3) Can be exothermic or endothermic (4) None of these

5. One mole of H2SO4 is completely neutralised with 2 mole of NaOH in dilute solutions. the amount
of heat evolved during the process is:

57.2kJ
(1) 57.2 kJ (2) (3) 13.7 kCal (4) 114.4 kJ
2

6. which of the following data represents the value of heat of neutralisation of strong acid against
strong base?
(1) –13.7 kCal (2) –57.2 kJ (3) –5.72 × 104 J (4) All the above

7. Fusion of ice is :
(1) Exothermic change
(2) Endothermic change
(3) A process that does not involve any heat change
(4) Unpredictable

45
8. During complete combustion of one mole of butane, 2658 kJ of heat is released. The

thermochemical reaction for above change is

(1) 2C4H10(g) + 1302(g) → 8CO2(g) + 10H2O(I) ∆CH = –2658.0 kJ mol–1

13
(2) C4H10(g) + O2 (g) → 4CO2 (g) + 5H2O (g) ∆CH = –1329.0 kJ mol–1
2
13
(3) C4H10(g) + O2 (g) → 4CO2 (g) + 5H2O (l) ∆CH = –2658.0 kJ mol–1
2
13
(4) C4H10(g) + O2 (g) → 4CO2 (g) + 5H2O (l) ∆CH = +2658.0 kJ mol–1
2

9. ∆fU of formation of CH4 (g) At certain temperature is –393 kJ mol–1. The value of ∆fH– is

(1) Zero (2) < ∆fU

(3) > ∆fU (4) Equal to ∆fU

10. The enthalpies of elements in their standard states are taken as zero. The enthalpy of formation of

a compound

(1) is always negative

(2) is always positive

(3) may be positive or negative

(4) is never negative

11. Assertion (A): Combustion of all organic compounds is an exothermic reaction.

Reason (R): The enthalpies of all elements in their standard state are zero.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(3) A is true but R is false.

(4) A is false but R is true.

46
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.- 13 THERMODYNAMICS

1. Given the bond energy of N · N. H–H and N–H bond are 945, 436 and 391 kJ mol–1 respectively, the

enthalpy of the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) is:

(1) –93 kJ (2) 102 kJ (3) 90 kJ (4) 105 kJ

2. The enthalpy changes at 298 K in successive breaking of O–H bonds of H–O–H are

H2O(g) → H(g) + OH(g)’ ∆H = 498 kJ mol–1

OH(g) → H(g) + O(g)’ ∆H = 428 kJ mol–1

The bond enthalpy of the O–H bond is

(1) 498 kJ mol–1 (2) 463 kJ mol–1 (3) 428 kJ mol–1 (4) 70 kJ mol–1

3. The required heat for dissociation of 1 mol H2O into its atoms (H and oxygen) is ∆HDis. Then calculate

the bond energy of O–H bond.

H2O(g) → O(g) + 2H(g); ∆HDissociation

∆HDis ∆HDis
(1) (2) (3) 2∆HDis (4) 2–∆HDis
2 4

4. Calculate the bond energy of C–H bond in methane.

∆HDis ∆HDis
(1) (2) (3) 2∆HDis (4) 2–∆HDis
2 4

5. The energy change of reaction C2H6(g) → 2C(g) + 6H(g) is X kJ. The bond energy of C–H bond is

X X
(1) kJ mol–1 (2) kJ mol–1
6 3

(3) X kJ/mol–1 (4) Unpredictable from data

47
6. CuSO4() + 5H2O(s) → CuSO4. 5H2O(s); ∆H =–x kJ

The value of ∆H represents:

(1) Enthalpy of solution of copper (II) sulphate

(2) Enthalpy of hydration of copper (II) sulphate

(3) Enthalpy of hydrolysis of copper (II) sulphate

(4) Lattice energy of copper (II) sulphate

7. The bond energy of hydrogen is 103 kCal mol–1. This means that:

(1) 103 kCal are required to break 6.023 × 1023 gaseous H2 molecules into gaseous atoms

(2) 103 kCal are required to break the bond in one gram of hydrogen

(3) 103 kCal are required to break one bond to form two atoms of hydrogen

(4) 103 kCal are required to break one mole of gaseous hydrogen molecules into ions.

8. Single step reaction A → B; ∆H = ?

Multi step reaction to produce B from A is given
∆H1 ∆H2 ∆H3 ∆H4
A  → C → D → E → B
(1) ∆H1+∆H2+∆H3+∆H4 (2) ∆H1+∆H2–∆H3+∆H4
(3) ∆H1–∆H2–∆H3–∆H4 (4) ∆H1–∆H2+∆H3–∆H4

9. Calculate the heat of formation of Benzene. The reaction is given below:

6C(s) + 3H2(g) → C6H6(l) and –3268, –393.5 and –285.8 kJ mol–1 are the heats of combustion of
benzene, heat of formation of CO2 and heat of formation of benzene of H2O() respectively?
(1) 35 kJ mol–1 (2) 49.6 kJ mol–1
(3) –35.8 kJ mol–1 (4) –49 kJ mol–1

10. The heats of formation of CO2(g) and H2O(l) are –97 and –68 kCal mol–1. The heat of combustion of
benzene is –783 kCal mol–1. What will be the heat of formation of benzene ?
(1) 2 kCal mol–1 (2) 3 kCal mol–1
(3) –3 kCal mol–1 (4) –2 kCal mol–1

48
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.- 14 THERMODYNAMICS

1. Calculate the enthalpy of combustion of ethylene (gas) to form CO2 (gas) and H2O (gas) at 298 K
and 1 atmospheric pressure. The enthalpies of formation of CO2(g), H2O(g) and C2H4(g) are -393.7,
-241.8, + 52.3 kJ per mol respectively.
(1) -13.28 kJ mol–1 (2) -13233 kJ mol–1 (3) 1540 kJ mol–1 (4) 1323.8 kJ mol–1

2. The heat of solution of anhydrous CuSO4(g) is -15.9 kCal mol-1 and that of CuSO4. 5H2O(g) is 2.8 kCal
mol-1. Calcualte the heat of hydration of CuSO4(g).
(1) -18.7 kCal mol-1 (2) 19.2 kCal mol-1 (3) 20.4 kCal mol-1 (4) 18.7 kCal mol-1

3. A hypothetical reaction, X → 2Y proceeds by the following sequence of steps

1
(i) X→z ; ∆H =q1
2
(ii) Z → 2W ; ∆H =q2

1
(iii) W→ Y ; ∆H =q3
2
The value of ∆H of reaction is:
(1) q1 + q2 + q3 (2) 2(q1 + 2q2 + 3q3)
(3) 2(q1 + q2 + 2q3) (4) 2(q1 + q2 + q3)

4. Consider two paths of a certain reaction.

∆H1 ∆H2
(i) A + B  → AB : AB  → P+Q
∆H3 ∆H4
(ii) A + B  → AB : C  → P + Q then,
(1) (∆H1 + ∆H2) > (∆H3 + ∆H4) (2) (∆H1 + ∆H2) = (∆H3 + ∆H4)
(3) (∆H2 + ∆H3) > (∆H1 + ∆H4) (4) (∆H1 + ∆H2) < (∆H3 + ∆H4)

5. (i) S(s) + 3/2 O2(g) → SO3(g) + 2x kCal.

(ii) SO2(g) + 1/2 O2(g) → SO3(g) + y kCal

Calculate the heat of formation of SO2 :

(1) (2x+y) (2) -(2x-y) (3) x+y (4) 2x/y

49
6. Calculate the enthalpy change accompanying the conversion of 10g of graphite into diamond if the
heats of combustion of C (graphite) and C(diamond) are –94.05 and –94.50 kcal respectively.
(1) 0.45 Kcal (2) 0.54 Kal (3) 0.75 Kcal (4) 0.375 Kcal

7. At 18°C, the heat of solution of anhydrous CuSO4 in a large volume of water is –15.90 kcal per mole
while that of CuSO4.5H2O is 2.75 kcal per mole. What is the heat of hydration of CuSO4?
(1) –13.15Kcal (2) +13.15 Kcal (3) +18.65 Kcal (4) –18.65 Kcal

8. The heat of formation of ethylene is 12.5 kcal. Calculate C = C bond energy in ethylene from the
following data. Heat of atomisation of C = 170.9 kcal /mole, Heat of atomisation of H2 = 104.2
kcal/mole, bond energy of C—H = 99.3 kcal/mole.
(1) –140.5 kJ/mol (2) +140.5 kJ/mol
(3) –241 kJ/mol (4) +241 kJ/mol

9. On the basis of thermochemical equations (a), (b) and (c), find out which of the algebraic
relationships given in options (i) to (iv) is correct.
(a) C (graphite) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) ; ∆rH = x kJ mol–1
1
(b) C (graphite) + O2 (g) → CO (g) ; ∆rH = y kJ mol–1
2
1
(c) CO (g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) ; ∆rH = z KJ mol–1
2
(1) z = x + y (2) x = Y – z (3) x = y + z (4) y = 2z – x

10. Consider the reactions given below. On the basis of these reactions find out which of the algebraic
relations given in options (i) to (iv) is correct?
(a) C (g) + 4 H (g) → CH4 (g) ; ∆rH = x kJ mol–1
(b) C (graphite) + 2H2 (g) → CH4 (g) ; ∆rH = y kJ mol–1
(1) x = y (2) x = 2y (3) x > y (4) x < y

11. Enthalpy of sublimation of a substance is equal to

(1) Enthalpy of fusion + enthalpy of vaporisation
(2) Enthalpy of fusion
(3) Enthalpy of vaporisation
(4) Twice the enthalpy of vaporisation

50
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-1 CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

1. In any chemical reaction, equilibrium is supposed to be established when:

(1) Mutual opposite reaction undergo.

(2) Concentration of reactants and resulting products are equal

(3) Velocity of reactants and resulting products are equal.

(4) The temperature of mutual opposite reactions becomes equal.

2. 8.5 g ammonia is present in a vessel of 0.5 litre capacity then find out the active mass of ammonia?

(1) 0.5 mol L–1 (2) 1 mol L–1 (3) 2 mol L–1 (4) 0.25 mol L–1

3. Which of the following statement is correct regarding with chemical equilibrium:-

(1) Chemical equilibrium can be approached from both sides whether the reaction starts from

forward direction or backward direction with the reactant or with the product.

(2) Equilibrium is not static

(3) Concentration of reactants and products becomes constant at equilibrium

(4) All of these

4. Find out the correct statement:-

(1) Equilibrium condition is a state of reversible reaction

(2) Chemical equilibrium are important in numerous biological process like transport and delivery

of O2

(3) Reversible reactions can be homogeneous and heterogeneous both

(4) All of these

5. Which of the following reaction is endothermic reaction:-

(1) Vaporization of liquid to its vapour.

(2) Combustion reactions

(3) Neutralization reactions

(4) Condensation of vapour to its liquid state

51
6. Active mass of 2 mol of CaCO3 kept in 4 litre vessel at NTP is:-

1
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) (4) Not defined
2

7. 2 gm of hydrogen gas and 8 gm of oxygen gas is present in a container. Total pressure in the

container is P atm then partial pressure (atm) of oxygen gas is,

4 1 5 1
(1) P (2) P (3) P (4) P
5 5 4 4

8. Which of the following is a characteristic of a reversible reaction

(1) Number of moles of reactants and products are equal

(2) It can be influenced by a catalyst

(3) It can never proceed to completion

(4) None of the above

9. Which of the following reactions is reversible

 2HI
(1) H2 + I2  (2) H2SO4 + Ba(OH)2 
→ BaSO4 + 2H2O

(3) NaCl + AgNO3 

→ NaNO3 + AgCl (4) Fe + S 
→ FeS

10. Amongst the following chemical reactions the irreversible reaction is

 2HI
(1) H2 + I2  (2) AgNO3 + NaCl 
→ AgCl + NaNO3

 CaO + CO2

(3) CaCO3   2SO3
(4) O2 + 2SO2 

52
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-2 CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

1. The equilibrium constant for the given reaction is correctly given by expression: 2HI  H2 + I2
[H2 ][I2 ] [H2 ][I2 ]
(1) KC = (2) KC =
[HI] [2HI]

[H2 ][I2 ] [HI]2

(3) KC = (4) KC =
[HI] 2
[H2 ][I2 ]

2. Unit of equilibrium constant for the reversible reaction is : 2SO2 + O2  2SO3

(1) Mol–1 litre (2) Mol–2 litre
(3) Mol litre–1 (4) None of these

3. In chemical reaction A  B, the system will be known in equilibrium when

(1) A completely changes to B
(2) 50% of A changes to B
(3) The rate of change of A to B and B to A on both the sides are same
(4) Only 10% of A changes to B

4. The number of gram molecules of a substance present in unit volume is termed as

(1) Activity (2) Normality
(3) Molality (4) Active mass

5. According to law of mass action rate of a chemical reaction is proportional to

(1) Molality of reactants (2) Molar concentration of reactants
(3) Molality of products (4) Molar concentration of products

6. Equilibrium constant is :-
kb kf 1
(1) (2) (3) kf × kb (4)
kf kb k f kb

53
7. The figure shows the change in concentration of species A and B as a function of time. The
equilibrium constant KC for the reaction A(g)  2B(g) is:

(1) Kc = 1.6 (2) KC = 4 (3) KC = 1 (4) KC = 16

8. Which graph will show equilibrium condition?

(1) (2)

(3) (4) None of these

1
9. For the reaction SO2 (g) + O2 (g)  SO3 (g), if Kp = KC (RT)x where the symbols have usual meaning
2

then the value of x is: (assuming ideality)?

(1) 1/2 (2) 1 (3) –1 (4) – ½

KP (atm)
10. For the equilibrium SO2Cl2(g)  SO2 + Cl2(g), what is the temperature at which =3
KC (M)

(1) 0.027 K (2) 0.36 K (3) 36.54 K (4) 273 K

54
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-3 CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

1 3
1. At 527°C, the reaction NH3(g)  N2(g) + H2(g) has KC = 4 then what is the value of KP for the
2 2
same reaction :-
–2 2
 800R   1 
(1) 16 × (800R) 2
(2)   (3)   (4) 4(800R)
 4   4 × 800R 

2. In which of the following reaction product is more stable:-

(1) N2 + 3H2  2NH3 ; K1 = 2.3 × 10–2
(2) N2 + O2  2NO ; K2 = 2 × 10–5
(3) H2 + I2  2HI ; K3 = 294
1
(4) XeO + O2 + F2  XeO2F2 ; K4 = 1.4 × 10–3
2

3. The partial pressure of CH3OH(g), CO(g) and H2(g) in equilibrium mixture for the reaction,
CO(g) + 2H2(g) 

 CH3OH(g) are 2.0, 1.0 and 0.1 atm respectively at 427°C. The value of Kp for the

decomposition of CH3OH to CO and H2 is :

(1) 102 atm (2) 2 × 102 atm–1 (3) 50 atm2 (4) 5 × 10–3 atm2

4. The following equilibrium constants were determined at 1120 K :

2CO(g)  C(s) + CO2 (g); K p1 = 10–14 atm–1

CO(g) + Cl2 (g)  COCl2 (g); K p = 6 ×10–3 atm–1

2

What is the equilibrium constant KP for the following reaction at 1120 K :

C(s) + CO2 (g) + 2Cl2 (g)  2COCl2 (g)

(1) 36 × 108 atm–1 (2) 6 × 1011 atm–1 (3) 9 × 1010 atm–1 (4) None of these

5. The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2(g) + O2(g)  2NO(g) is 4 × 10–4 at 200 K. In presence of
a catalyst, equilibrium is attained ten times faster. Therefore, the equilibrium constant in presence
of the catalyst at 200 K is:
(1) 40 × 10–4 (2) 4 × 10–4
(3) 4 × 10–3 (4) Difficult to compute without more data

55
6. The equilibrium constant (KC) for the reaction N2(g)+O2 (g)  2NO(g) at temperature T is 4×10–4. The

value of Kc for the reaction, NO(g)  ½ N2 (g) + ½O2 (g) at the same temperature is :
(1) 4 × 10–4 (2) 50.0 (3) 0.02 (4) 2.5 × 102

7. For the following three reactions a, b and c, equilibrium constants are given

(a) CO(g) + H2O(g)  CO2 (g) +H2 (g); K1

(b) CH4 (g) + H2O(g)  CO(g) + 3H2 (g); K2

(c) CH4 (g) + 2H2O(g)  CO2 (g) + 4H2 (g); K3

Which of the following relations is correct

(1) K2 K3 = K1 (2) K3 = K1K2 (3) K3 K23 = K21 (4) K1 K2 = K 3

8. The equilibrium constant for the reaction

1
SO3 (g)  SO2 (g) + O2 (g) is KC = 7. The value of KC for the reaction
2
2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)  2SO3 (g) will be:

(1) 49 (2) 1/49 (3) 7 (4) 1/7

9. For the reaction

2 NO2(g)  2 NO(g) + O2(g),

(KC = 1.8 × 10–6 at 184°C)

(R = 0.0831 kJ/(mol.K))

When KP and KC are compared at 184°C it is found that

(1) KP is less than KC

(2) KP is greater than KC

(3) Whether KP is greater than, less than or equal to KC depends upon the total gas pressure

(4) KP = KC

10. Assertion :- In the presence of catalyst, the value of equilibrium constant K increases.

Reason :- Catalysts increases the rate of forward and backward reaction to same extent.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(2) Both Assertion & Reason True but Reason in not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.

(4) Assertion is false both the reason is true.

56
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-4 CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

1. The equilibrium constant (KC) for the reaction 2HCl (g)  H2(g) + Cl2(g) is 4 × 10–34 at 25°C, What is

the equilibrium constant for the reaction :-

1 1
H2(g)+ Cl2(g)  HCl(g)
2 2
(1) 2 × 10–17 (2) 2.5 × 1033 (3) 5 × 1016 (4) None of these

2. Consider the following gaseous equilibrium given below

I. N2 + 3H2  2NH3 ; eq. constant = K1

II. N2 + O2  2NO ; eq. constant = K2

1
III. H2 + O2  H2O ; eq. constant = K3
2

5
The equilibrium constant for the reaction 2NH3 + O2  2NO + 3H2O in terms of K1, K2 and K3 will
2
be :-

K 1K2 K 1K23 K2K33

(1) K1 K2 K3 (2) (3) (4)
K3 K2 K1

3. Using molar concentration, what is the unit of KC for the reaction CH3OH(g)  CO(g) + 2H2(g) :-

(1) M–2 (2) M2 (3) M–1 (4) M

4. If temperature is increased then equilibrium constant will be :-

(1) Increased

(2) Decreased

(3) Remains constant

(4) May increased or decreased depends on exothermic or endothermic nature

57
5. What will be the equilibrium constant at 127°C. If equilibrium constant at 27°C is 4 for reaction

N2 + 3H2  2NH3 ; ∆H = –46.06 kJ :-

(1) 4 × 10–2 (2) 2 × 10–3 (3) 102 (4) 4 × 102

6. In which of the following equilibrium equation, KP > KC

(1) 2SO3(g)  2SO2(g) + O2(g) (2) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)  PCl5(g)

(3) H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g) (4) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)

7. If CoO(s) + H2(g)  Co(s) + H2O(g), K1 = 60 ; CoO(s) + CO(g)  Co(s) + CO2(g), K2 = 180 Then the

equilibrium constant of the reaction CO2(g) + H2(g)  CO(g) + H2O(g) will be-

(1) 0.44 (2) 0.11 (3) 0.22 (4) 0.33

8. XeF6 + H2O  XeOF4 + 2HF ; eq. constant = K1

XeO4 + XeF6  XeOF4 + XeO3F2 ; eq. constant = K2

Then equilibrium constant for the reaction XeO4 + 2HF  XeO3F2 + H2O Will be-

K1 K2 K1
(1) (2) K1 + K2 (3) (4)
K2 K1 (K2 )2

9. If for H2(g) + S(g)  H2S(g) and H2(g) + Br2(g)  2HBr(g)

The equilibrium constants are K1 and K2 respectively, the reaction Br2(g) + H2S(g)  2HBr(g) + S(g)

would have equilibrium constant

(1) K1 × K2 (2) K1/K2 (3) K2/K1 (4) K22 / K 1

10. For reaction 2NOCl(g)  2NO(g) + Cl2(g), KC at 427°C is 3 × 10–6 L mol–1. The value of KP is nearly

(1) 7.50 × 10–5 (2) 2.50 × 10–5 (3) 2.50 × 10–4 (4) 1.72 × 10–4

58
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-5 CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

1. Initially 1 mole of PCl5 is present. 40% of it is not dissociated at 300°C. The reaction is carried out

in a flask of 1 litre capacity. The value of KC would be :-

(1) 3.2 (2) 1.6 (3) (3.2)–1 (4) 0.9

2. In the beginning of the reaction, A  B + C, 2 Moles of A are taken, out of which 0.5 moles gets

dissociated. What is the amount of dissociation of A ?

(1) 0.5 (2) 1 (3) 0.25 (4) 4.2

3. A + B  C + D If initially A and B both are taken in equal amount but at equilibrium concentration

D will be twice of that of A then what will be the equilibrium constant of reaction :-

4 9 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) 4
9 4 9

4. At a certain temperature, only 50% HI is dissociated at equilibrium in the reaction 2HI(g)  H2(g) + I2(g).

The equilibrium constant for the reaction is :-

(1) 0.25 (2) 1.0 (3) 3.0 (4) 0.5

5. The equilibrium constant KP for the reaction H2(g) + CO2(g)  H2O(g) + CO(g) is 4.0 at 1660°C. Initially

0.80 mole H2 and 0.80 mole CO2 are injected into a 5.0 litre flask. What is the equilibrium

concentration of CO2(g):-

(1) 0.533 M (2) 0.0534 M (3) 5.34 M (4) None of these

6. 4.5 moles each of hydrogen and iodine heated in a sealed ten litre vessel. At equilibrium, 3 moles

of HI were found. The equilibrium constant for H2+I2  2HI is

(1) 1 (2) 10 (3) 5 (4) 0.33

59
7. When 3 mole of A and 1 mole of B are mixed in 1 litre vessel the following reaction takes place

A(g) + B(g)  2C(g). At equilibrium 1.5 moles of C are formed. The equilibrium constant for the

reaction is

(1) 0.12 (2) 0.25 (3) 0.50 (4) 4.0

8. In the reaction, A(g) + B(g)  2C(g) at equilibrium, the concentration of A and B is 0.2 M each and

that of C was found to be 0.6 M. The equilibrium constant of the reaction is

(1) 2.4 (2) 18 (3) 4.8 (4) 9

9. 15 moles of H2 and 5.2 moles of I2 are mixed and allowed to attain equilibrium at 500°C. At

equilibrium, moles of HI is found to be 10 moles. The equilibrium constant for the formation of HI

is:

(1) 50 (2) 15 (3) 100 (4) 25

10. Two moles of NH3 when put into a vessel of one litre partially dissociate into N2 and H2. If at

equilibrium one mole of NH3 is present, the equilibrium constant is

(1) 3/4 mol2 litre–2 (2) 27/64 mol2 litre–2

(3) 27/32 mol2 litre–2 (4) 27/16 mol2 litre–2

11. 2 mol of N2 is mixed with 6 mol of H2 in a closed vessel of one litre capacity. If 50% of N2 is converted

into NH3 at equilibrium, the value of KC for the reaction N2 + 3H2  2NH3 is

(1) 4/27 (2) 27/4 (3) 1/27 (4) 24

12. For a reaction H2 + I2  2HI at 721K, the value of equilibrium constant is 50. If 0.5 mols each of H2

and I2 is added to the system the value of equilibrium constant will be

(1) 40 (2) 60 (3) 50 (4) 30

60
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-6 CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

1. N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g) for the reaction initially the mole ratio was 1 : 3 of N2 : H2. At equilibrium
50% of each has reacted. If the equilibrium pressure is p, the partial pressure of NH3 at equilibrium
is :-

p p p p
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 4 6 8

2. For the reaction H2(g) + CO2(g)  CO(g) + H2O(g), if the initial concentration of [H2] = [CO2] and x
moles/litre of hydrogen is consumed at equilibrium, the correct expression of KP is :-
x2 (1 + x)2 x2 x2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1 – x)2 (1 – x)2 (2 + x)2 1 – x2

2
3.

The gas A2 in the left flask allowed to react with gas B2 present in right flask as
A 2 (g) + B2  2 AB(g); Kc= 4 at 27oC. What is the concentration of AB when equilibrium is established?

(1) 1.33 M (2) 2.66 M (3) 0.50 M (4) 0.33 M

4. 2 mole of PCl5 were heated in a closed vessel of 2 litre capacity. At equilibrium, 40% of PCl5 is
dissociated into PCl3 and Cl2. The value of equilibrium constant is:
(1) 0.266 (2) 0.53 (3) 2.66 (4) 5.3

5. The equilibrium constant is 36 for the reaction, N2 + O2 

 2NO If the initial concentration of



each nitrogen and oxygen is 0.10 mol/L Then the concentration of nitric oxide at equilibrium is:
(1) 0.15 mol/L (2) 2 mol/L (3) 0.075 mol/L (4) 0.2 mol/L

6. If 50% of CO2 converts to CO at the following equilibrium:

C(s) + CO2 (g)  2CO (g)

And the equilibrium pressure is 12 atm calculate Kp,

(1) 4 atm (2) 8 atm (3) 16 atm (4) 12 atm
61
7. For the dissociation reaction. N2O4 (g)  2 NO2(g), the degree of dissociation (α) in terms of Kp and

total equilibrium pressure P is:

4P+KP KP
(1) α = (2) α =
KP 4P +KP

KP
(3) α = (4) None of these
4P

8. AB3(g) is dissociates as
1
AB3(g)  AB2(g) + B2(g).
2
When the initial pressure of AB2 is 800 torr and the total pressure developed at
equilibrium is 900 torr. What fraction of AB3(g) is dissociated?
(1) 10% (2) 20% (3) 25% (4) 30%

9. A vessel at 1000 K contains CO2 with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of the CO2 is converted into CO
on the addition of graphite. If the total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm, the value of KP is:
(1) 1.8 atm (2) 3 atm (3) 0.3 atm (4) 0.18 atm

10. The equilibrium constants KP and KP for the reactions X  2Y and Z  P + Q, respectively are in the
1 2

ratio of 1 : 9. If the degree of dissociation of X and Z be equal then the ratio of total pressures at
these equilibria is –
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 9 (4) 1 : 36

11. The graph relates log Keq. vs. 1/T for a reaction, the reaction must be:

logK

1/T
(1) Exothermic (2) Endothermic
(3) ∆H is negligible (4) May be endothermic or exothermic

12. One mole of N2(g) is mixed with 2 moles of H2(g) in a 4 litre vessel. If 50% of N2 (g) is converted to
NH3(g) by the following reaction: N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)
What will be the value of Kc for the following equilibrium
1 3


NH3(g)  N2(g) + H2(g)
2 2
(1) 256 (2) 16 (3) 1/16 (4) None of these

62
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-7 CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

1. The degree of dissociation of PCl5(α) obeying the equilibrium; PCl5 

 PCl3 + Cl2 is related to the



pressure at equilibrium by:

1 1 1
(1) α ∝ P (2) α ∝ (3) α ∝ 2
(4) α ∝
P P P4

2. Two sample of HI each of 5 mole were taken separately into vessels of volume 5 and 10 litres

respectively at 27°C. The extent of dissociation of HI will be:-

(1) More in 5 litre vessel (2) More in 10 litre vessel

(3) Equal in both vessel (4) None of these

3. What will be the amount of dissociation, if the volume is increased 16 times of initial volume in the

reaction PCl5  PCl3 + Cl2 ?

1 1
(1) 4 times (2) times (3) 2 times (4) times
4 5

4. Which of the following equilibrium remains unaffected by a change in pressure (or volume)?

(1) 2NOCl(g)  2NO(g) + Cl2(g) (2) H2(g) + CO2(g)  H2O(g) + CO(g)

(3) 3PbS(s) + 3O2(g)  2Pb(s) + 2SO2(g) (4) PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

5. For the equilibrium C(s) + CO2(g)  2CO(g) KP = 63 atm at 1000 K. If at equilibrium PCO = 10PCO then
2

total pressure at equilibrium is:-

(1) 6.30 atm (2) 0.693 atm (3) 6.93 atm (4) 69.3 atm

6. What will be the direction of reaction if concentration of H2, I2 and HI are 2 mol L–1, 2 mol L–1 and 8

mol L–1 respectively KC for reaction H2 + I2  2HI is 4.

(1) Forward direction (2) Backward direction

(3) Equilibrium direction (4) Reaction will be completed

63
7.  PCl3 + Cl2,
For the equilibrium, PCl5 



Kc = α2/(1 – α)V, temperature remaining constant:

(1) Kc will increase with the increase in volume

(2) Kc will increase with the decrease in volume

(3) Kc will not change with the change in volume

(4) Kc may increase or decrease with the change in volume depending upon its numerical value.

8. For the reaction A(g) + 3B(g) 


 2C(g) at 27°C, 2 moles of A, 4 moles of B and 6 moles of C are

present in 2 liters vessel. If Kc for the reaction is 1.2, the reaction will proceed in:

(1) Forward direction (2) Backward direction

(3) Neither direction (4) None of these

9. If the pressure in a reaction vessel for the following is increased by decreasing the volume, what

will happen to the concentrations of CO and CO2?

H2O (g) + CO (g)  H2(g) + CO2 (g) + Heat

(1) Both the [CO] and [CO2] will decrease

(2) Neither the [CO] and [CO2] will change

(3) The [CO] will decrease and the [CO2] will increase

(4) Both the [CO] and [CO2] will increase

10. Consider the following reversible reaction at equilibrium,

2H2O(g)  2H2(g) + O2(g); ∆H = 241.7 kJ

Which one of the following changes in conditions will lead to maximum decomposition of H2O(g)?

(1) Increasing both temperature and pressure

(2) Decreasing temperature and increasing pressure

(3) Increasing temperature and decreasing pressure

(4) Increasing temperature at constant pressure

64
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-8 CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

1. For the dissociation of MgCO3 as MgCO3(s)  MgO(s) + CO2(g) identify the correct option regarding
extent of dissociation of MgCO3
(1) As temperature is increased, extent of dissociation decreases.
(2) Extent of dissociation at equilibrium will increase if equilibrium is attained at the same
temperature in a container of lesser volume.
(3) Extent of dissociation of MgCO3 will increase if taken in a larger container.
(4) Extent of dissociation will remain unchanged on changing volume of the container.

2. For the reaction at equilibrium :

2A(g) + B(g)  C(g) ∆H = – 90 kJ
Which of the following option will increase the concentration of B(g) at equilibrium?
(1) Decrease of temperature (2) Increasing volume of container
(3) Adding catalyst (4) Increasing pressure

3. For the reaction : A(g) + 2B(g)  4C(g) ; ∆H = –ve.

The favourable condition for the greater yield of C(g) is
(1) Increase in pressure of system.
(2) Increase in temperature
(3) Addition of inert gas at constant volume
(4) Addition of inert gas at constant pressure

4. Which of the following is not favourable for SO3 formation

2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g) ; ∆H = – 45.0 kcal
(1) High pressure (2) High temperature
(3) Decreasing SO3 concentration (4) Increasing reactant concentration

5. Which of the following conditions should be more favorable for increasing the rate of forward
reaction in the equilibrium H2(g)  H(g) + H(g) (∆H = +ve) ?
(1) 2000°C temperature and 760 mm of Hg pressure.
(2) 3500°C temperature and 100 cm of Hg pressure.
(3) 3500°C temperature and 1 mm of Hg pressure.
(4) All are wrong.

65
6. The reaction CaCO3(S)  CaO(s) + CO2(g) goes to completion in lime kiln because:
(1) Of the low temperature (2) CaO is more stable than CaCO3
(3) CaO is not dissociated (4) CO2 escapes continuously

7. Which of the following is not true for the equilibrium reaction; N2(g) + O2(g)  2NO(g); ∆H = 180 kJ
mol–1.
(1) The formation of NO is increased at higher temperature.
(2) The volume change at constant pressure does not affect the equilibrium.
(3) The pressure change at constant volume does not affect the equilibrium.
(4) The formation of NO is decreased at higher temperature.

1
8. Consider the following equilibrium system; SO2(g) + O2(g)  SO3(g); set up in a cylinder fitted with
2
a piston. Some inert gas is added and the piston is moved outwards to keep the total gaseous
pressure constant. Predict which of the following is true ?
(1) Addition of inert gas does not affect the equilibrium.
(2) Less SO3(g) is produced.
(3) More SO3(g) is produced.
(4) The system moves to new equilibrium position which cannot be predicted theoretically.

9. For the reaction,

N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g); ∆H = –93.6 kJ mol–1 the number of moles of H2 at equilibrium will increase if
(1) Volume is increased (2) Temperature is decreased
(3) Argon gas is added at constant volume (4) NH3 is removed

10. In a vessel containing N2, H2 and NH3 at equilibrium, some helium gas is introduced so that total
pressure increase while temperature and volume remain constant. According to Le Chatelier's
principle, the dissociation of NH3 :
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Remains unaltered (4) Changes unpredictably

66
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-9 CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

1. On applying pressure to the equilibrium ice  water, which phenomenon will happen:
(1) More ice will be formed (2) More water will be formed
(3) Equilibrium will not be disturbed (4) Water will evaporate

2. Consider the following equilibrium system; 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g); some inert gas is added to
the above system at constant volume, Predict which of the following is true?
(1) More of SO3 is produced.
(2) Less SO2 is produced.
(3) Addition of inert gas does not affect equilibrium.
(4) System moves to new equilibrium position which cannot be predicted theoretically.

3. When a volatile liquid is introduced into an evacuated closed vessel at a particular temperature,
both evaporation and condensation take place simultaneously. The system reaches equilibrium
state when-
(1) The liquid is completely transformed into the corresponding vapour
(2) Equal amounts of liquid and vapour are present in the system
(3) The rate of evaporation becomes equal to the rate of condensation
(4) Liquid cannot be converted into vapour and vice versa.

4. Which of the following equilibrium is dynamic?

(1) Solid  Liquid (2) Liquid  Vapour
(3) Solid  Vapour (4) All of these

5. Which of the following is not true for solid-liquid equilibrium?

(1) It can be established at any given temperature
(2) The mass of solid does not change with time.
(3) The mass of liquid does not change with time.
(4) There is no exchange of heat between the system and its surrounding.

67
6. Which of the following is correct regarding the gas-solution equilibrium?
(1) The solubility of gas increases with the increase of pressure and decreases with the increase of
temperature.
(2) The solubility of gas increases with the increase of pressure as well as temperature.
(3) The solubility of gas decreases with the increase of pressure and increases with the increase of
temperature.
(4) The solubility of gas decreases with the increase of pressure as well as temperature.

7. The vapour density of undecomposed N2O4 is 46. When heated, vapour density decreases to 24.5
due to its dissociation to NO2. The percentage dissociation of N2O4 at the final temperature is –
(1) 87 (2) 60 (3) 40 (4) 70

D
8. A(g) is 90% converted in to B according to the reaction A(g)  3B(g) value of   at this point is:
d
(1) 1.0 (2) 2.0 (3) 2.5 (4) 2.8

9. For the reaction N2O4(g)  2NO2 (g), if percentage dissociation of N2O4 are 20%, 45%, 65% & 80%,

then the sequence of observed vapour densities will be :

(1) d20 > d45 > d65 > d80 (2) d80 > d65 > d45 > d20

(3) d20 = d45 = d65 = d80 (4) (d20 = d45) > ( d65 = d80)

10. If PCl5 is 80% dissociated at 250°C then vapour density of reaction mixture when PCl5 is heated to
250°C
(1) 57.9 (2) 104.25
(3) 101.2 (4) 52.7

68
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-1 IONIC EQUILIBRIUM

1. Select the weak acid among the following.

(1) HNO3 (2) HBr (3) HCl (4) HF

2. Which of following can be termed strong electrolyte.

(1) CH3COOH (2) HCN (3) NH3 (4) NaCl

3. Select the correct statement among the following.

(1) Arrhenius concept can explain Acid base reaction in non aqueous solvent
(2) Bronsted base act as source of OHΘ ion
(3) Arrhenius concept could not explain the basic nature of NH3
(4) Lewis concept is based on electrons.

4. If 5.2 moles of NaCl is Added to water.

(1) NaCl will undergo partial dissociation.
(2) 2.6 mole of Na+ present in solution
(3) 5.2 mole of Cl– ion present in solution
(4) 10 mole total of all ions are at equilibrium

5. In interaction b/w NH3 and BF3

(1) BF3 act as donor of lone pair
(2) BF3 act as lewis acid
(3) Coordinate bond is directed from BF3 to NH3
(4) NH3 is acceptor of lone pair

6. When NH3 is added to water

(1) NH3 will act as Acid
(2) H2O will act as Acid
(3) NH2Θ will be conjugate acid of NH3
(4) OH– will be conjugate acid of H2O

7. If 7.3 g of HCl is added to form 500ml solution. Find molarity of HCl in the solution.
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.8

69
8. H2SO4 being a strong electrolyte undergoes complete dissociation. Find molarity of H⊕ in the solution

formed by adding 19.6g H2SO4 in 2l solution.

(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.3 (4) 0.4

9. What is correct among following concentration in solution if 0.6g of acetic acid is added to prepare

100 ml solution.

(1) [H+] = 0.1M (2) [CH3COOΘ]

(3) [H+] < 0.1 M (4) [H+] > 0.1 M

10. Basicity of HCl, H2SO4, H3PO4, H3PO3 will be respectively.

(1) 1, 2, 3, 4 (2) 1, 2, 2, 1 (3) 1, 2, 3, 2 (4) 1, 2, 3, 3

70
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-2 IONIC EQUILIBRIUM

1. Find normality of 4M H2SO4.

(1) 8 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

2. If aqueous solution of an unknown acid has [H+] = 3 × 10–3 M. Find pH of this solution.
(1) 3.52 (2) 2.52 (3) 3 (4) 4.14

3. A solution having pH = 5. The [H3O+] = ?

(1) 5 (2) 10–5/2 (3) 10–5 (4) 105

4. Find pH of aqueous solution having [H+] = 2.5 × 10–9.

(1) 7.603 (2) 8.603 (3) 9.603 (4) 9

5. If the value of Ionic product of water is 10–16 at given temperature. Find pH of neutral water at this
temperature.
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9

6. What is molarity of water at 25°C and 50°C (Assuming effect of temperature on volume to be
negligible).
(1) 55.55 and 27.775 (2) 27.775 and 27.775
(3) 55.55 and 2.775 (4) 55.55 and 55.55

7. Considering Kw = 10–16 find sum of molar concentration of H+ and OHΘ at given temperature in pure
water.
(1) 10–16 (2) 10–14 (3) 2 × 10–7 (4) 2 × 10–8

8. At 310K pH of pure H2O will be.

(1) < 7 (2) > 7 (3) = 7 (4) =0

9. Select the correct relation among the following (T=25°C).

pH + pOH
(1) pH + pOH = 7 (2) =7 (3) pOH = 14 + pH (4) pH = 14 + pOH
2

10. Select the Incorrect statement among the following.

(1) Addition of HCl to water will cause decrease in pH
(2) Decreasing temperature results in decrease in pH of pure water
(3) If [OHΘ] in Aq solution Increases it causes decrease in [H+]
(4) Due to its charge density H⊕ ion exist as H3O+ ion in water

71
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-3 IONIC EQUILIBRIUM

1. In two separate cases if 1g of KOH is added to water and in other 2g of HCl is added to water on
such additions.
(1) α of H2O increase and remain same respectively
(2) α of H2O remains same
(3) α of H2O increase in both cases
(4) α of H2O decreases in both cases

2. 1 mole of HCN and 1 mole of HI are separately added to water to prepare Aq. solutions of same
volume. These solutions are marked 1 and 2. Select the correct statement.
(1) [OH–]2 > [OH–]1 (2) [OH–]1 > [OH–]2 (3) pH1 < pH2 (4) pOH1 > pOH2

3. Which of the following factors should increase the value of degree of dissociation of HCN.
(1) Dissolving HCN in Benzene in place of water
(2) Adding more water to HCN solution
(3) Adding more HCN to the solution
(4) Decreasing the temperature

4. 0.8 grams of NaOH is added to form 500ml solution, pOH and pH of this solution. (log 4 = 0.6)
(1) 1.4, 12.6 (2) 2.6, 11.4 (3) 11.4, 2.6 (4) 1.7, 12.3

5. At 25°C a substance when dissolved in water results in [OHΘ] = 10–5 find pH and Nature of this
solution.
(1) 8, basic (2) 9, basic (3) 9, acidic (4) 5, acidic

6. pH value of Aq solution containing 0.98g of H2SO4 dissolved in 10 litres of water is-

(1) 1.7 (2) 2.7 (3) 3.7 (4) 4.7

7. If 3 × 10–2 moles of HCl are added to form 15 liters of solution. Find pH of this solution.
(1) 1.7 (2) 1.3 (3) 2.7 (4) 1.84

8. The value of Ionic product of water increases with-

(1) Decrease in temperature (2) Adding acid in water
(3) Adding base in water (4) Increasing temperature

9. Unit of Ionic product of water is-

(1) M–2 (2) M2 (3) M–1 (4) M–3

10. At 95°C the value of pKw is 15. Which of the following pH values of aqueous solution at same
temperature will be basic?
(1) 7.5 (2) 7.63 (3) 7.21 (4) 7

72
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-4 IONIC EQUILIBRIUM

1. Ostwald dilution law is not applicable on strong electrolytes because-

(1) Strong electrolytes are completely ionised
(2) Strong electrolytes are volatile
(3) Strong electrolytes do not conduct electricity
(4) Strong electrolytes are never covalent.

2. In which of the following reactions NH3 act as acid-

(1) NH3 + HCl → NH4Cl (2) NH3 + H⊕ → NH⊕
4

1
(3) NH3 + Na → NaNH2 + H2 (4) NH3 cannot act as acid
2

3. The conjugate base of bicarbonate ion is-

(1) H2CO3 (2) CO2 (3) HCO3− (4) CO23 −

4. Which of the following is the strong base-

(1) F– (2) NO3− (3) HSO4− (4) ClO4−

5. What will be pOH in Aq. solution with [OHΘ] = 9 × 10–6.

(1) 14 – 6 (2) 6 – log 9 (3) 6 – 9 (4) 14 – (6 + log 9)

6. Find [OHΘ] in 10–2 M H2SO4 Aq. solution.

(1) 10–10 M (2) 10–9 M (3) 5 × 10–13 M (4) 5 × 10–12 M

7. At 90°C if Kw = 10–12, 2 × 10–6 if the correct value for which one of the following-
(1) [H+] (2) [H+]2 – [OH–] (3) [OH–]2 (4) [H+] + [OH–]

8. The value of Kw for 0.001 M NaOH Aq. solution-

(1) 10–15 (2) 10–13 (3) 2 × 10–7 (4) 1 × 10–14

9. 0.001 M KOH solution has pH.

(1) 10–3 (2) 3 (3) 11 (4) 11.3

10. The pH of 2 × 10–7 M H2SO4 solution is-

(1) 6.6 (2) 6.98 (3) 6.05 (4) 7.21

73
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-5 IONIC EQUILIBRIUM

5
1. If [H+] = × 10–4 then find pH?
3
(1) 3.778 (2) 8.972 (3) 6.778 (4) 7.789

2. Assertion : H2SO4 is a strong acid.

Reason : H2SO4 undergoes almost completely ionized in aqueous solution.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

3. pH of 10–6 M NaOH solution is:

(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 5

4. Find out the value of α of 10–2 M HCN solution if [H+] = 10–3.

(1) 20% (2) 30% (3) 10% (4) 15%

5. For 10 M CH3COOH solution if Ka=10–5 then find out α :

(1) 103 (2) 10–5 (3) 10–6 (4) 10–3

6. For 10–3M H2CO3 if α = 10% then find out the value of pH?
(1) 4.9 (2) 3.7 (3) 9.3 (4) 7.3

7. Assertion : NaCl + HCl does not experience common ion effect.

Reason : Both NaCl and HCl are strong electrolytes.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

8. Absolute dissociation constant of water at 25°C is

(1) 10–14 × (55.5)–1 (2) 10–7 × (18)–1 (3) 10–14 × (18)–1 (4) 10–7 × (55.4)–1

9. What should be the number of H+ ions in 1 mL of distilled water?

(1) 6.022 × 1015 (2) 6.022 × 1013 (3) 6.022 × 10–15 (4) 6.022 × 1014

10. The pH of a 0.005M H2SO4 solution is:

(1) 3.3 (2) 5.0 (3) 2.0 (4) 4.0

74
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-6 IONIC EQUILIBRIUM

1. If pure water has pKw = 13.36 at 50°C, the pH of pure water will be–
(1) 6.68 (2) 7.0 (3) 7.13 (4) 6.0

2. How many H+ ions are present in 1 ml of a solution whose pH is 13?

(1) 10–16 (2) 6.022 × 1013 (3) 6.022 × 107 (4) 6.022 × 1023

3. The pH of solutions A, B, C and D are 9.5, 2.5, 3.5 and 5.5 respectively. The most acidic solution is.
(1) D (2) C (3) A (4) B

4. Calculate the concentration of the formate ion present in 0.100 M formic acid (HCOOH) solution at
equilibrium (Ka = 1.7 × 10–4).
(1) 4.1 × 10–3 M (2) 3.1 × 10–3 M (3) 2.1 × 10–3 M (4) 5.1 × 10–3 M

5. Which of the following is the weakest acid?

(1) Phenol (Ka = 1.3 × 10–10) (2) Hydrocyanic acid (Ka = 4.9 × 10–10)
(3) Acetic acid (Ka = 1.8 × 10–5) (4) Benzoic acid (Ka = 6.5 × 10–5)

6. The pH of 0.1 M monobasic acid is 4.50. The acidity constant (Ka) of the monobasic acid is.
(1) 1.0 × 10–7 (2) 1.0 × 10–5 (3) 1.0 × 10–4 (4) 1.0 × 10–8

7. Which of the following is the strongest base?

(1) C6H5NH2 (pKb = 9.42) (2) C6H5NHCH3 (pKb = 9.15)
(3) C6H5N(CH3)2 (pKb = 8.94) (4) C6H5NHC2H5 (pKb = 8.89)

8. Value of dissociation constant of acetic acid is 10–6, where as dissociation constant of formic acid
is 10–5. Which of the following will be the value of pKa (acetic acid) - pKa (formic acid).
(1) 10 (2) +1 (3) 10–1 (4) –1

9. A solution has pOH equal to 13 at 298 K. The solution will be

(1) Highly acidic (2) Highly basic (3) Moderately basic (4) Unpredictable

10. What would be [H+] of 0.006 M benzoic acid (Ka = 6 × 10–5).

(1) 0.6 × 10–4 (2) 6 × 10–4 (3) 6 × 10–3 (4) 3.6 × 10–4

75
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-7 IONIC EQUILIBRIUM

1. 100 ml of 0.01 M NaOH is Added to 200 ml of 0.03 M KOH solution. Find pH of the resultant solution.
(1) 1.63 (2) 2.29 (3) 3.82 (4) 0.72

2. Find pH of solution which is 6×10–2 M H2SO4 and 3×10–2 M CH3COOH given Ka (CH3COOH) = 3×10–6.
(1) 2.22 (2) 1.22 (3) 3.22 (4) 4.22

3. What is the pH of 1 M CH3COONa solution? Ka of acetic acid = 1.8 × 10–5, Kw = 10–14 mol2L–2.
(1) 2.4 (2) 3.6 (3) 4.8 (4) 9.4

4. Calculate the degree of hydrolysis of a mixture containing 0.1N NH4OH and 0.1N HCN If Ka = 10–5 and
Kb = 10–5
(1) 5% (2) 10% (3) 2% (4) 1%

5. Assertion : An aqueous solution of NH4NO3 is acidic in nature

Reason : NH4NO3 in an aqueous solution undergoes anionic hydrolysis.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate (CH3COONa) is______in nature

(1) Acidic (2) Basic (3) Neutral (4) None

7. Which of the following cations is not hydrolyzed in aqueous solution?

(i) Mg2+ (ii) Ca2+ (iii) Na+ (iv) K+
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (iii), (iv) (3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii)

8. Which of the anions is not hydrolyzed in aqueous solution?

(i) Cl– (ii) NO3– (iii) Br– (iv) CIO4–
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (iii), (iv) (3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii)

9. Which of the following salts does not undergo hydrolysis?

(1) KCN (2) KCl (3) NH4NO3 (4) FeCl3.6H2O

10. Which of the following salts undergoes anionic hydrolysis?

(1) AlCl3 (2) CuSO4 (3) Na2CO3 (4) NH4Cl
76
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-8 IONIC EQUILIBRIUM

1. If solubility product of the base M(OH)3 is 2.7 × 10–11, the concentration of OH–1 will be.
(1) 3 × 10–3 (2) 3 × 10–4 (3) 10–3 (4) 10–11

2. Assertion : For a sparingly soluble salt , Ksp is related to maximum dissolved value of solute in a solution
Reason : Ksp Corresponds to the ionic product of the salt in a saturated solution.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

3. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 1.07 × 10–5 mol dm–3 Estimate its solubility product.
(1) 1.145 × 10–10 (2) 3.46 × 10–12
(3) 5.5 × 10–15 (4) 6.6 × 10–15

4. The solubility product of AgBr is 5.2 × 10–13. Calculate its solubility in mol dm–3.
(Molar mass of AgBr. = 187.8 g mol–1)
(1) 1.145 × 10–10 mol mol–3 (2) 7.2 × 10–7 mol mol–3
(3) 5.5 × 10–15 mol mol–3 (4) 6.6 × 10–15 mol mol–3

5. Find out the solubility of AgCl in the presence of C molar NaCl solution?
Ksp Ksp Ksp Ksp
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2C C 2
C 4C

6. Find out the solubility of CaCl2 solution in the presence of C molar NaCl solution?
Ksp Ksp Ksp Ksp
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2C C 2
C 4C

7. Find out the solubility of NaCl in the presence of C molar CaCl2 solution?
Ksp Ksp Ksp Ksp
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2C C 2
C 4C

8. Solubility products of M(OH)3 and M(OH)2 are 10–23 and 10–14 respectively. What will be precipitated
first on adding NH4OH, if M+2 and M+3 both the ions are in solution?
(1) M+2 (2) M+3
(3) Both M+2 and M+3 together (4) Precipitation will not take place.

9. Solubility of CaCl2 is 4 ×10–8, then find out its Ksp and its new solubility in the presence of 10–2 M
Ca(OH)2 respectively.
(1) 256 × 10–24 ; 2 × 10–4 mol L–1 (2) 256 × 10–24 ; 12 × 10–4 mol L–1
(3) 256 × 10 ; 9 × 10 mol L
–24 –13 –1
(4) 256 × 10–24 ; 8 × 10–11 mol L–1

77
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-9 IONIC EQUILIBRIUM

1. For two acids A and B, pKa1 = 1.2, pKa2 = 2.8 respectively in value, then which is true :-
(1) A & B both are equally acidic (2) A is stronger than B
(3) B is stronger than A (4) None of these

2. pH values of two acids A and B are 4 and 5. The strengths of these two acids are related as :-
(1) The strengths of the two acids cannot be compared.
(2) Acid B is 10 times stronger than acid A.
(3) Strength of acid A : Strength of acid B = 4 : 5
(4) Acid A is 10 times stronger than acid B.

3. The unit of solubility product of silver chromate (Ag2CrO4) will be -

(1) mol2L–2 (2) mol3L–3 (3) mol L–1 (4) mol–1L

4. At a certain temperature, the solubility of the salt A xBy is S mole per liter. The general expression
for its solubility product will be -
(1) Ksp = xyyxSx+y (2) Ksp = (xy)x+ySx+y (3) Ksp = xxyySx+y (4) Ksp = xyyxSxy

5. The molar solubility of silver sulphate is 1.5 × 10–2 mol L–1. The solubility product of the salt will be-
(1) 2.25 × 10–4 (2) 1.35 × 10–5 (3) 1.7 × 10–6 (4) 3.0 × 10–3

6. The precipitate of CaF2 (Ksp = 1.7 × 10–10) is obtained when equal volumes of the following are mixed:
(1) 10–3 M Ca2+ + 10–5 MF– (2) 10–5 M Ca2+ + 10–3 MF–
(3) 10 M Ca + 10 MF
–2 2+ –3 –
(4) 10–4 M Ca2+ + 10–4 MF–

7. If S0, S1, S2 and S3 are the solubilities of AgCl in water, 0.01 M CaCl2, 0.001 M NaCl and 0.5 M AgNO3
solutions, respectively, then which of the following is true?
(1) S0 > S2 > S1 > S3 (2) S0 = S2 = S1 > S3 (3) S3 > S1 > S2 > S0 (4) S0 > S2 > S3 > S1

8. Given Ksp (AgI) = 5.8 × 10–17. Then solubility of AgI in 0.1M KI solution is -
(1) 0.1 M (2) 5.8 × 10–16 M (3) 5.8 × 10–17 M (4) 5.8 × 10–18 M

9. A buffer solution is one which has -

(1) reserved acid (2) reserved base (3) constant pH (4) pH equal to 7

10. Which of the following solutions cannot act as a buffer system?

(1) KH2PO4/H3PO4 (2) NaClO4/HClO4 (3) C5H5N/C5H5NH+Cl– (4) Na2CO3/NaHCO3

78
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-10 IONIC EQUILIBRIUM

1. Which of the following solvents will undergo self-ionization?

(1) H2O (2) NH3 (3) HF (4) All of these

2. When 2 moles of HCl is added to 1 L. of an acidic buffer solution, its pH changes from 3.9 to 3.4.
Find its buffer capacity.
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 9

3. A buffer solution can not be prepared by mixing equimolar amount of -

(1) B(OH)3 and Na2B4O7.10H2O (2) NH3 and NH4Cl
(3) HCl and NaCl (4) CH3COOH and CH3COONa

4. Which of the following salt solution will act as a buffer?

(1) CH3COONH4 (aq.) (2) NH4Cl (aq.) (3) CH3COONa (aq.) (4) NaCl (aq.)

5. Which of the following combinations will make a buffer solution?

(i) CH3 COONH4 (2 mol) (ii) CH3COOH (2 mol) + NaOH (1 mol)
(iii) CH3 COOH (1 mol) + CH3COONa (1 mol)
(1) (iii) (2) (i), (ii) (3) (ii), (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iii)

6. The pH of blood circulating in a human body is maintained around 7.4 by the action of the buffer
system-
(1) CH3COOH/CH3COONa (2) NH4Cl/NH3
(3) H2PO 2−
4
(4) H2CO3/ HCO3−

7. Gaseous hydrogen chloride is a very poor conductor of electricity but a solution of hydrogen chloride
in water is a good conductor. The is due to the fact that :-
(1) Water is a good conductor of electricity
(2) Hydrogen chloride ionises in water
(3) A gas cannot conduct electricity but a liquid can
(4) HCl does not obey Ohm’s law where as the solution does

79
8. Which is acid in the following pairs according to Arrhenius concept?
(A) HCl(g) and HCl(aq.) (B) CH3COOH((l) and CH3COOH(aq.)

(1) HCl (aq.) & CH3COOH(l) (2) HCl(g) & CH3COOH(g)

(3) HCl (aq.) & CH3COOH (aq.) (4) HCl (g) & CH3COOH(aq.)

9. In the process : NH3 + NH3 

 NH2− + NH4+ , The nature of ammonia is :-

(1) Acidic (2) Basic (3) Amphoteric (4) None

10. Which of the following behave both as Bronsted acid as well as Bronsted bases?

H2O, HCO3− , H2SO4, H3PO4, HS–, NH3

(1) H2O, HCO3–, H2SO4, H3PO4 (2) H2O, HCO3–, HS–, NH3

(3) H2O, H2SO4, H3PO4, NH3 (4) H2O, H3PO4, HS–, NH3

11. For cationic hydrolysis, pH is given by–

1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) pH = pK + pK + log C (2) pH = pK − pK − log C
2 w 2 a 2 2 w 2 b 2

1 1 1 1 1 1
(3) pH = pK + pK − pK (4) pH = pK + pK + log C
2 w 2 a 2 b 2 w 2 b 2

12. Which of the following salts is neutral in water?

(1) KCl (2) NH4NO3 (3) NH4CN (4) NH4OH

13. Find pH of 10–3 M Ba(OH)2 solution.

(1) 11.3 (2) 12.7 (3) 11.7 (4) 6.83

14. 10–6 M HCl is diluted to 100 times pH of solution after dilution-

(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 6.95 (4) 9.5

15. If nitrous acid is added to water and ethanol given that dielectric constant of ethanol < water. What
will be relation between Ionisation constant of HNO2 in two solvents-
(1) Ka(H2O) > Ka (C2H5OH) (2) Ka(H2O) = Ka(C2H5OH)
(3) Ka(H2O) < Ka(C2H5OH) (4) None of the above

16. If degree of dissociations of HF are α1, α2 and α3 when dissolved in water, 0.1 M NaOH Aq solution
and 0.1 M HCl solution respectively. Correct order of degree of dissociation is-
(1) α1 > α2 > α3 (2) α1 < α2 < α3 (3) α3 < α1 < α2 (4) α1 < α3 < α2

80
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.–1 REDOX REACTIONS

1. The oxidation number of an element in a compound is evaluated on the basis of certain rules. Which

of the following rules is not correct in this respect?

(1) The oxidation number of hydrogen is always +1.

(2) The algebraic sum of all the oxidation numbers in a compound is zero.

(3) An element in the free or the uncombined state bears oxidation number zero.

(4) In all its compounds, the oxidation number of fluorine is – 1.

2. In which of the following compounds, an element exhibits two different oxidation states.

(1) NH2OH (2) NH4NO3 (3) N2H4 (4) NO3−

3. Which of the following arrangements represent increasing oxidation number of the central atom?

(1) CrO2− , ClO3− , CrO24− , MnO4− (2) ClO3− , CrO24− , MnO4− CrO2− ,

(3) CrO–2 ,ClO–3 ,MnO–4 ,CrO2–

4
(4) CrO2–
4
,MnO–4 ,CrO–2 ,ClO–3

4. The largest oxidation number exhibited by an element depends on its outer electronic configuration.

With which of the following outer electronic configurations the element will exhibit largest oxidation

number?

(1) 3d14s2 (2) 3d34s2 (3) 3d54s1 (4) 3d54s2

5. Match Column I with Column II for the oxidation states of the central atoms.

Column I Column II

(1) Cr2O27− (a) + 3

(2) MnO4− (b) + 4

(3) VO3− (c) + 5

(4) FeF63− (d) + 6

(e) + 7

81
6. Reduction involves

(1) Loss of electrons

(2) Gain of electrons

(3) Increase in the valency of positive part

(4) Decrease in the valency of negative part

7. Oxidation involves

(1) Loss of electrons

(2) Gain of electrons

(3) Increase in the valency of negative part

(4) Decrease in the valency of positive part

8. The oxidation number of chlorine in HOCl

(1) – 1 (2) 0 (3) + 1 (4) + 2

9. Oxidation number of N in HNO3 is

(1) – 3.5 (2) + 3.5 (3) – 3 (4) +5

10. Match the items in Column I with relevant items in Column II.

Column I Column II

(1) Ions having positive charge (a) +7

(2) The sum of oxidation number (b) –1

of all atoms in a neutral molecule (c) +1

(3) Oxidation number of hydrogen ion (H+) (d) 0

(4) Oxidation number of fluorine in NaF (e) Cation

(5) Ions having negative charge (f) Anion

82
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.–2 REDOX REACTIONS

1. Oxidation number of P in KH2PO2 is

(1) + 1 (2) + 3 (3) + 5 (4) – 4

2. The oxidation number of sulphur in H2SO4 and iron in K4[Fe(CN)6] is respectively

(1) + 6 and + 2 (2) + 2 and + 2 (3) + 8 and + 2 (4) + 6 and + 4

3. The oxidation number of oxygen in HOF is

(1) - 2 (2) + 2 (3) + 4 (4) 0

4. Oxidation number of P in Mg 2P2O7 is

(1) + 3 (2) + 2 (3) + 5 (4) – 3

5. The oxidation number of sulphur in S8 , S2F2 , H2S respectively, are

(1) 0, + 1 and - 2 (2) + 2, + 1 and - 2
(3) 0, + 1 and + 2 (4) - 2, + 1 and - 2

3-
6. The charge on cobalt in Co (CN)  is
 6

(1) - 6 (2) - 3 (3) + 3 (4) + 6

7. Oxidation state of C in C6H12O6 is

(1) + 6 (2) - 6 (3) 0 (4) + 4

8. The oxidation number of carbon in CH2O is

(1) – 2 (2) + 2 (3) 0 (4) + 4

9. Maximum oxidation state of Cr is

(1) + 3 (2) + 4 (3) + 6 (4) + 7

10. The oxidation number of N in NH4Cl is

(1) + 5 (2) + 3 (3) – 5 (4) - 3

83
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.–3 REDOX REACTIONS

1. Which of the following is not an example of redox reaction?

(1) CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O (2) Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2
(3) 2K + F2 → 2KF (4) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl

2. Identify disproportionation reaction

(1) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O (2) CH4 + 4Cl2 → CCl4 + 4HCl
(3) 2F2 + 2OH → 2F + OF2 + H2O
– –
(4) 2NO2 + 2OH– → NO–2 + NO–3 + H2O

3. Which of the following elements does not show disproportionation tendency?

(1) Cl (2) Br (3) F (4) I

4. Oxidation number of Fe in K3 [Fe(CN)6 ] is

(1) + 2 (2) + 3 (3) + 1 (4) + 4

5. The oxidation number of nitrogen in NH2OH is :

(1) + 1 (2) – 1 (3) – 3 (4) – 2

6. Select the compound in which chlorine is assigned the oxidation number + 5

(1) HClO4 (2) HClO2 (3) HClO3 (4) HCl

7. Which of the following shows maximum oxidation state of Mn.

(1) K2MnO4 (2) KMnO4 (3) MnO2 (4) Mn2O2

8. Oxidation number of osmium (Os) in OsO4 is

(1) + 4 (2) + 6 (3) + 7 (4) + 8

9. Oxidation state of oxygen in ozone (O3 ) is

(1) + 3 (2) - 3 (3) - 2 (4) 0

10. Oxidation state of Fe in Fe3O4 is

3 4 5 8
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 5 4 3

84
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.–4 REDOX REACTIONS

1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true about the following decomposition reaction.
2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2
(1) Potassium is undergoing oxidation
(2) Chlorine is undergoing reduction
(3) Oxygen is oxidized
(4) None of the species are undergoing oxidation or reduction

2. Identify the correct statement (s) in relation to the following reaction:

Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2
(1) Zinc is acting as an oxidant (2) Chlorine is acting as a reductant
(3) Hydrogen ion is acting as an oxidant (4) Zinc is acting as a reductant

3. The exhibition of various oxidation states by an element is also related to the outer orbital electronic
configuration of its atom. Atom(s) having which of the following outermost electronic configurations
will exhibit more than one oxidation state in its compounds..
(1) 3s1 (2) 4s2 (3) 3d24s2 (4) 3s23p3

4. Identify the correct statements with reference to the given reaction

P4 + 3OH– + 3H2O → PH3 + 3H2 PO–2

(1) Phosphorus is undergoing reduction only.

(2) Phosphorus is undergoing oxidation only.
(3) Phosphorus is undergoing oxidation as well as reduction
(4) Hydrogen is undergoing neither oxidation nor reduction.

5. Assertion (A) : Among halogens fluorine is the best oxidant.

Reason (R) : Fluorine is the most electronegative atom.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

85
6. Assertion (A) : The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide to form water and oxygen is an example of
disproportionation reaction.
Reason (R) : The oxygen of peroxide is in –1 oxidation state and it is converted to zero oxidation
state in O2 and –2 oxidation state in H2O.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

7. The process in which oxidation number increases is known as

(1) Oxidation (2) Reduction

(3) Auto-oxidation (4) None of the above

8. Zn2+ (aq) + 2e- → Zn(s) . This is

(1) Oxidation (2) Reduction

(3) Redox reaction (4) None of these

+
9. 2Cu → Cu + CuI2 , the reaction is

(1) Redox (2) Neutralisation

(3) Oxidation (4) Reduction

10. In C + H2O → CO + H2, H2O acts as :

(1) Oxidising agent (2) Reducing agent

(3) Both (4) None

86
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.–5 REDOX REACTIONS

1. When P reacts with caustic soda, the products are PH3 and NaH2PO2 . This reaction is an example

of

(1) Oxidation (2) Reduction

(3) Oxidation and reduction (Redox) (4) Neutralization

2. In the reaction 3Cl2 + 6OH– → 5Cl– + ClO3– + 3H2O chlorine is :

(1) Oxidised (2) Reduced

(3) Oxidised as well as reduced (4) Neither oxidised nor reduced

3. H2O2 is used as

(1) An oxidant only (2) A reductant only

(3) An acid only (4) Both an oxidant and a reductant

4. In the compounds KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7, the highest oxidation state is of the element :

(1) Potassium (2) Manganese (3) Chromium (4) Oxygen

5. Which of the following change represents a disproportionation reaction (s)

(1) Cl 2 + 2OH− → ClO− + Cl − + H2O

(2) Cu2O + 2H+ → Cu + Cu2+ + H2O

dilution with
(3) 2HCuCl 2 
→ Cu + Cu2+ + 4Cl − + 2H+
water

(4) All of the above

6. Which one of the following compounds can act as an oxidising as well as reducing agent -

(1) KMnO4 (2) H2O2 (3) BaO (4) K2Cr2O7

87
7. Which of the following are oxidation-reduction reaction ?

(1) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) (2) Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

(3) O3(g) + NO(g) → O2(g) + NO2(g) (4) All of these

8. Which of the following reactions involves oxidation-reduction both

(1) NaBr + HCl → NaCl + HBr (2) HBr + AgNO3 → AgBr + HNO3

(3) H2 + Br2 → 2HBr (4) 2NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O

9. Which one of the following compounds can act as an oxidising as well as reducing agent -

(1) HNO2 (2) H2O2 (3) HClO2 (4) All of the above

10. The conversion of sugar C12H22O11 → CO2 is

(1) Oxidation (2) Reduction

(3) Neither oxidation nor reduction (4) Both oxidation and reduction

88
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.–6 REDOX REACTIONS

1. Assertion (A): In the reaction between potassium permanganate and potassium iodide,
permanganate ions act as oxidising agent.
Reason (R) : Oxidation state of manganese changes from +2 to +7 during the reaction.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

2. In the following reaction Cr2O–2

7
+ 14H+ + 6I- → 2Cr3+ + 3H2O + 3I2 .Which element is reduced
(1) Cr (2) H (3) O (4) I

3. When N2 is converted into NH3, the equivalent weight of nitrogen will be :

(1) 1.67 (2) 2.67 (3) 3.67 (4) 4.67

4. If molecular weight of KMnO4 is 'M', then its equivalent weight in acidic medium would be :
(1) M (2) M/2 (3) M/5 (4) M/4

5. In the conversion NH2OH → N2O, the equivalent weight of NH2OH will be : (M = molecular weight of
NH2OH)
(1) M/4 (2) M/2 (3) M/5 (4) M/1

6. The equivalent weight of MnSO4 is half its molecular weight when it is converted into
(1) Mn2O3 (2) MnO4– (3) MnO2 (4) MnO42–

7. The equivalent weight of H3PO2, when it disproportionate into PH3 and H3PO3 is :
(1) 82 (2) 49.5 (3) 14 (4) 20.5

8. Cr2 O-2
7
+ I– + H+ → Cr+3 + I2 + H2O
The equivalent weight of reductant in the above equation is - (At. wt. of Cr = 52, I = 127)
(1) 26 (2) 127 (3) 63.5 (4) 10.4

9. Find the equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 in the reaction

2Na2S2O3 + Ι2 → Na2S4O6 + 2NaI
(M = molecular weight of Na2S2O3)
M M M
(1) M (2) (3) (4)
2 4 8

10. In the following reaction, SO2 acts as a reducing agent :

SO2 + Cl2 + 2H2O → H2SO4 + 2HCl
Find the equivalent weight of SO2.
M M M
(1) (2) M (3) (4)
2 4 8

89
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.–7 REDOX REACTIONS

1. In the ionic equation : K+BrO3– + 6H+ + 6e– → K+Br– + 3H2O,

find the equivalent weight of KBrO3, where molecular weight of KBrO3 is M.

M M M
(1) M (2) (3) (4)
2 6 4

2. In the reaction : (COOH)2 → CO2,

find the equivalent weight of oxalic acid. (M = molecular weight of oxalic acid)

M M M
(1) M (2) (3) (4)
3 2 7

3. The number of electrons to balance the following equation NO-3 + 4H+ + xe- → 2H2O + NO is

(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2

4. In a balanced equation : H2SO4 + x HI → H2S + y I2 + z H2O, the values of x, y, z are

(1) x = 3, y = 5, z = 2 (2) x = 4, y = 8, z = 5

(3) x = 8, y = 4, z = 4 (4) x = 5, y = 3, z = 4

5. For the redox reaction, MnO-4 + C2O2-

4
+ H+ → Mn2+ + CO2 + H2O

the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced reaction are

MnO4– C2O4– H+

(1) 2 5 16

(2) 16 5 2

(3) 5 16 2

(4) 2 16 5

90
6. 2MnO-4 + 5H2O2 + 6H+ → 2Z + 5O2 + 8H2O. In this reaction ‘Z’ is

(1) Mn+2 (2) Mn+4 (3) MnO2 (4) Mn

7. In the following equation ClO3— + 6H+ + X → Cl— + 3H2O, then X is

(1) Zero (2) 6e— (3) 4e— (4) 5e—

8. In the reaction xHI + yHNO3 → NO + I2 + H2O , where x and y are :

(1) x = 3, y = 2 (2) x= 2, y = 3 (3) x = 6, y = 2 (4) x = 6, y = 1

+ 3H2O → 5Br + BrO3 + 6HCO3 ?

– - -
9. In the following reaction : 3Br2 + 6CO2-
3

(1) Bromine is oxidised and carbonate is reduced

(2) Bromine is reduced and water is oxidised
(3) Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidised
(4) Bromine is reduced as well as oxidised also

10. In a reaction between zinc and iodine, in which zinc iodide is formed, what is being oxidised
(1) Zinc ions (2) Iodide ions (3) Zinc atom (4) Iodine

11. In the reaction, 8Al + 3Fe3O4 → 4Al 2O3 + 9Fe, the number of electrons transferred from reductant

to oxidant is:
(1) 8 (2) 4 (3) 16 (4) 24

12. The value of x in the partial redox equation MnO-4 + 8H+ + xe– → Mn2+ + 4H2O is:

(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 0

13. What is the value of W, X, Y and Z respectively in the following reaction ?

H2O + W MnO4– + X IO3– → Y MnO2 + Z IO4– + 2OH–

() (aq) (s) (aq)

(1) 2, 3, 2, 3 (2) 3, 3, 2, 2 (3) 2, 3, 3, 2 (4) 2, 2, 3, 3

14. In the chemical reaction, K2Cr2O7 + X H2SO4 + Y SO2 → K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + Z H2O

X, Y and Z are :
(1) 1, 3, 1 (2) 4, 1, 4 (3) 3, 2, 3 (4) 2, 1, 2

91
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-1
CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS AND PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES

1. Tendency to loose electron is maximum for

(1) F (2) Na (3) B (4) N

2. Tendency to gain electron is maximum for

(1) Li (2) Na (3) Ca (4) F

3. Newland’s octave law is not valid after discovery of

(1) Ne (2) F (3) N (4) Li

4. Newlands octave law is not valid for

(1) Na (2) Mg (3) Ca (4) Fe

5. Which of the following set of element represent dobereiner triad?

(1) P, As, Sb (2) Fe, Co, Ni (3) Cu, Ag, Au (4) C, N, O

6. Which of the following set of elements obey newland’s octave rule

(1) Na, K, Rb (2) F, Cl, Br (3) Be, Mg, Ca (4) B, Al, Ga

7. Elements which occupied position in the lother meyer's curve on the peaks were:
(1) Alkali metals
(2) Highly electropositive elements
(3) Elements having large atomic volume
(4) All

8. Which of the following set can be taken as example of dobereiner’s law of triad
(1) Na, K, Rb (2) Mg, Ca, Sr (3) F, Cl, Br (4) Cl, Br, I

9. According to lother meyer’s curve all the physical properties of elements are periodic function of
their–
(1) Atomic weight (2) Atomic no.
(3) Electronic configuration (4) All of these

92
10. Which pair of elements behave as Metalloid?
(1) Ge, As (2) Pt, I (3) Rb, Cs (4) Al, Zn

11. How many periods and groups are there in the long form periodic table:
(1) 7 & 16 (2) 7 & 9 (3) 7 & 18 (4) 9 & 7

12. Lanthanoids & actinoids belongs to:

(1) IIIA (2) IIIB (3) IVA (4) IVB

13. According to mendeleev’s periodic table all the physical & chemical properties of the elements are
the periodic function of their:
(1) Atomic weight (2) Atomic no. (3) Both (4) None

14. In mendeleev’s periodic table which of the following is not an anomolous pair:
(1) Ar & K (2) Te & I (3) Th & Pa (4) K & Ca

15. EKa aluminium in mendeleev’s periodic table is now known as:

(1) Aluminium (2) Silicon (3) Boron (4) Gallium

16. Total no. of elements known at the time when Mendeleev’s proposed periodic table:
(1) 57 (2) 69 (3) 63 (4) 71

17. The places that were left empty by Mendeleev’s were for:
(1) Al & Si (2) Ga & Ge (3) As & Sb (4) Mo & w

18. Which of the following is pair of liquid element at room temperature?

(1) Ga & Ge (2) Ge & Hg (3) Cs & Br (4) Br & Hg

93
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-2 PERIODIC TABLE

1. There are 10 neutrons in the nucleus of the element ZM19. It belongs to:

(1) f-block (2) s-block (3) d-block (4) p-block

2. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p4.The atomic number of element

present just below the above element in periodic table is:

(1) 36 (2) 34 (3) 33 (4) 32

3. Atomic number of Ag is 47. In the same group the atomic number of elements placed above and

below Ag will be:

(1) 37, 67 (2) 29, 79 (3) 39, 69 (4) 29, 65

4. Which of the following set of magic number correctly represent the magic no. for group-1:
(1) 2, 8, 20, 28, 50, 82, 126 (2) 2, 8, 8, 18, 18, 32

(3) 2, 2, 8, 8, 18, 32 (4) 2, 8, 18, 18, 32, 32

5. Which configuration represents a noble gas:

2 2 6 2 6 10 2 2 2 6 2 6
(1) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s (2) 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
2 2 6 6 2 2 6 2
(3) 1s 2s 2p 3p (4) 1s 2s 2p 3s

6. From atomic no. 1 to atomic no. 110 how many elements contain e– in f-subshell?

(1) 28 (2) 57 (3) 58 (4) 53

7. In first 100 elements of periodic table how many elements have e– in 4d sub-shells:
(1) 30 (2) 20 (3) 60 (4) 62

8. Which of the following is not correct match?

(1) Latest inert gas – Uuo (2) Latest pnicogen – Uup

(3) Next IIA metal – Ubn (4) Halogen – Uuu

94
9. If one orbital can accomodate 3 electrons instead of 2 then, what is maximum number of possible
elements in 3rd period?
(1) 8 (2) 18 (3) 12 (4) 32

10. If Aufbau principle is not followed then Ca would belong to:

(1) s-block (2) p-block (3) d-block (4) f-block

11. The atom having the valence shell electronic configuration 4s2 4p2 would be in:
(1) Group II A and period 3 (2) Group II B and period 4
(3) Group IV A and period 4 (4) Group IV A and period 3

10 14 2 6 2 2
12. The elements having the electronic configuration, [Kr] 4d , 4f , 5s , 5p , 5d , 6s belongs to:
(1) s-block (2) p-block (3) d-block (4) f-block

2 2 6 2 4
13. An element has electronic configuration 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p . Predict their period, group and block:
rd th
(1) Period = 3 , block = p, group = 16 (2) Period = 5 , block = s, group = 1
rd th
(3) Period = 3 , block = p, group = 10 (4) Period = 4 , block = d, group = 12

14. What is the position of the element in the Modern periodic table satisfying the electronic
1 2
configuration (n – 1) d ns for n = 4:
(1) 3rd period and 3rd group (2) 4th period and 4th group
(3) 3rd period and 2nd group (4) 4th period and 3rd group

15. Which of the following show diagonal relationship?

(1) B & Si (2) B & Al (3) B & Ga (4) B & C

16. The properties of lithium are more similar to magnesium although they are members of different
groups because: –
(1) Both are alkaline earth metals
(2) Both are s-block elements
(3) Both are of approximately same size
(4) Both have same number of neutrons

17. First member of rare earth element is –

(1) Ce (2) Ac (3) U (4) La

18. According to soviet union of russia the name of element with atomic no. 104 should have been: -
(1) Rutherfordium (2) Kurchatovium (3) Seaborgium (4) Lawrencium

95
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-3 PERIODIC TABLE

1. The last member in each period of the periodic table is:-

(1) An inert gas element (2) A transition element
(3) A halogen (4) An alkali metal

2. All the s-block elements of the periodic table are placed in the groups:-
(1) IA and IIA (2) IIIA and IVA (3) IIIB to VB (4) VA to VIIA

3. Fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine are placed in the same group (17) of the periodic table,
because:-
(1) They are non-metals (2) They are electronegative
(3) Their atoms are generally univalent (4) They have 7 electrons in the outermost shell of their atom

4. According to the Modern Periodic law the variation in properties of elements is related to their:-
(1) Atomic masses (2) Nuclear masses
(3) Atomic numbers (4) Nuclear neutron-proton number

5. If the atomic number of an element is 33, it will be placed in the periodic table in the:-
(1) Group 1 (2) Group 13 (3) Group 15 (4) Group 17

6. If an atom has electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3 4s2, it will be placed in:-
(1) Second group (2) Third group (3) Fifth group (4) Sixth group

7. Which group of the periodic table contains only metals:-

(1) IIA (2) VIIA (3) IIIA (4) None of these

8. Which of the following show diagonal relationship:-

(1) B and Si (2) Li and Mg (3) Be and Al (4) All of these

9. The element with atomic number 36 belongs to .... block in the periodic table:-
(1) p (2) s (3) f (4) d
96
10. Chemical property of Li and Mg similar because:-
(1) These belong to same group (2) Both IP is same
(3) Shows diagonal relationship (4) Both EA is same

11. Coinage metals are present in:-

(A) s-block (2) d-block (3) p-block (4) f-block

12. Which of the following is the atomic number of a metal:-

(1) 32 (2) 34 (3) 36 (4) 38

13. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding hydrogen atom:-
(1) It resembles halogens in some properties
(2) It resembles alkali metals in some properties
(3) It can be placed in 17th group of periodic table
(4) It can not be placed in first group of periodic table

14. Hydrogen can be put in halogen group because:-

(1) It has deuterium and tritium as isotopes (2) It forms hydrides like chlorides
(3) It contains one electron only (4) It is light

15. Elements whose outer electronic configuration vary from ns2np1 to ns2np6 constitute:-
(1) s-Block of elements (2) p-Block of elements
(3) d-Block of elements (4) f-Block of elements

16. Which of the following pairs has both members from the same group of periodic table:-
(1) Mg, Ba (2) Mg, Na (3) Mg, Cu (4) Mg, Cl

17. Elements belonging to the same group of periodic table have:-

(1) Same number of energy levels (2) Same number of valence electrons
(3) Same number of electrons (4) Same ionisation enthalpy

18. What is the name and symbol of the element with atomic number 112:-
(1) Ununbium, Uub (2) Unnilbium, Unb (3) Ununnillum, Uun (4) Ununtrium, Uut

19. An element with atomic number 117 is known as

(1) Nihonium (2) Flerovium (3) Tennessine (4) Roentgenium

20. The period number in the long form of the periodic table is equal to:-
(1) Magnetic quantum number of any element of the peirod.
(2) Atomic number of any element of the period.
(3) Maximum principal quantum number of any element of the period.
(4) Maximum azimuthal quantum number of any element of the period.

21. An element whose IUPAC name is Ununtrium (Uut) belong to:-

(1) s-Block (2) p-Block (3) d-Block (4) f-Block

97
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-4 PERIODIC TABLE

1. The correct order of atomic size of C, N, P, S follows the order:-

(1) N<C<S<P (2) N<C<P<S (3) C<N<S<P (4) C<N<P<S

2. The order of screening effect of electrons of s,p,d,f orbitals of a given shell of an atom on its outer
shell electrons:-
(1) s > p > d > f (2) f > d > p > s (3) p > d > s > f (4) f > p > s > d

3. In which of the following compounds manganese shows maximum radius:-

(1) MnO2 (2) KMnO4 (3) MnO (4) K3[Mn(CN)6]

4. Arrange in the increasing order of atomic radii of the following elements O, C, F, Cl, Br:-
(1) F<O<C<Cl<Br (2) F<C<O<Cl<Br (3) F<Cl<Br<O<C (4) C<O<F<Cl<Br

5. In the ions P3–, S2– and Cl– the increasing order of size is:-
(1) Cl–<S2–<P3– (2) P3–<S2–<Cl– (3) S2–<Cl–<P3– (4) S2–<P3–<Cl–

6. Atomic radii of Fluorine and Neon in Angstrom units are given by:-
(1) 0.72, 1.60 (2) 1.60, 1.60 (3) 0.72, 0.72 (4) None of these

7. Which of the following has largest radius:-

(1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 (2) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p1
(3) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p3 (4) 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p5

8. Arrange the following in increasing order of atomic radii Na, Si, Al, Ar:-
(1) Na<Si<Al<Ar (2) Si<Al<Na<Ar (3) Ar<Al<Si<Na (4) Na<Al<Si<Ar

9. Which of the following is not isoelectronic series?

(1) Cl–, P3–, Ar (2) N3–, Ne, Mg+2 (3) B+3, He, Li+ (4) N3–, S2–, Cl–

10. In the isoelectronic species the ionic radii ( A ) of N3–, Ne and Al+3 are respectively given by:-
(1) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71 (2) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40 (3) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36 (4) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40

11. The size of the following species increases in the order:-

(1) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (2) F– < Na+ < Mg2+ (3) Mg < F– < Na+ (4) Na+< F–< Mg2+

12. Highest size will be of:-

(1) Br– (2) I (3) I– (4) I+

98
13. The correct order of increasing atomic size of element N, F, Si & P:-
(1) N < F < Si < P (2) F > N < P < Si (3) F < N < P < Si (4) F < N < Si < P

14. The correct order of atomic/ionic size:-

(1) N > Li < B (2) Cl < Mg < Ca (3) Ca+2 < S–2 < Cl– (4) Na+ < Mg+2 < Cl–

15. Which of the following species does'not show shielding effect ?

(1) H (2) He (3) Li (4) Be

16. On moving down the group in Alkali metals value of σ :-

(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Remains same (4) First increases than be comes constent

17. If value of σ for Li is x than determine the value of σ for 'B' is:-
(1) x (2) x + 0.35 (3) x + 0.70 (4) x + 1.30

18. Which of the following order of Zeff. is correct:-

(1) Mn2+ < Mn4+ < Mn+7 (2) Mn+2 > Mn4+ > Mn+7
(3) Cr+2 > Cr+3 > Cr+6 (4) I⊕ > IΘ > I

19. Which of the following order of Zeffective is correct?

(1) N–3 > O–2 > F– (2) Al3+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > F–
(3) Al3+ < Mg 2+ < Na+ < F– (4) Na > Mg > Al > Si

20. If Zeff of Li is x than Zeffective of carbon is:-

(1) x + 0.90 (2) x + 1.05 (3) x + 1.95 (4) x + 0.40

21. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:-
List-I List-II
Ion Radius (in pm)
(i) Li +
(a) 220
(ii) Na +
(b) 196
(iii) Br –
(c) 76
(iv) I –
(d) 102

Codes:
I II III IV
(1) a b d c
(2) b c a d
(3) c d b a
(4) d c b a

22. Which of the following orders of radii are correct:-

(a) Li < Be < Na (b) Ni < Cu < Zn (c) Ti > V > Cr (d) Ti > Zr > Hf
Correct answer is :-
(1) All (2) a, b (3) b, c (4) b, d
99
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-5 PERIODIC TABLE

1. On moving from left to right across a period in the table the metallic character
(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Remains constant (4) First increases and then decreases

2. The first ionization energy of boron is less than that of beryllium because
(1) Boron has higher nuclear charge
(2) Atomic size of boron is more than that of beryllium
(3) Boron has only one electron in p-sub-shell
(4) 2p electron of boron is more shielded from the nucleus by the inner core of electrons than the
2s electrons of beryllium.

3. A → A+ + e, E1 and A+ → A2+ + e, E2. The energy required to pull out the two electrons are E1 and E2
respectively. The correct relationship between two energy would be
(1) E1 < E2 (2) E1 = E2 (3) E1 > E2 (4) E1 ≠ E2

4. Which of the following element has maximum, first ionisation potential?

(1) V (2) Ti (3) Cr (4) Mn

5. Highest energy will be absorbed to eject out the electron in the configuration
(1) 1s2 2s2 2p1 (2) 1s2 2s2 2p3 (3) 1s2 2s2 2p2 (4) 1s2 2s2 2p4

6. The first ionization potentials (eV) of Be and B respectively are

(1) 8.29eV, 9.32eV (2) 9.32eV, 9.32eV (3) 8.29eV, 8.29eV (4) 9.32eV, 8.29eV

7. The first four ionization energy values of an element are 191, 578, 872 and 5962 kcal. The number
of valence electrons in the element is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

8. Which of the following has least ionization potential?

(1) Li (2) Cs (3) Cl (4) I

100
9. Among the following which has the highest first ionization energy?
(1) K (2) Na (3) B (4) Kr

10. The set representing the correct order of first ionisation potential is
(1) K > Na > Li (2) Be > Mg > Ca (3) B > C > N (4) Ge > Si > C

11. The decreasing order of the ionisation potential in the following elements is
(1) Ne > Cl > P > S > Al > Mg (2) Ne > Cl > P > S > Mg > Al
(3) Ne > Cl > S > P > Mg > Al (4) Ne > Cl > S > P > Al > Mg

12. In view of their low ionisation energies the alkali metals are
(1) Weak oxidising agents (2) Strong reducing agents
(3) Strong oxidising agents (4) Weak reducing agents

13. The correct order of second I.P.

(1) Na < Mg > Al < Si (2) Na > Mg < Al > Si (3) Na > Mg > Al < Si (4) Na > Mg > Al > Si

14. The first ionisation energy of lithium will be

(1) Greater than Be (2) Less than Be
(3) Equal to that of Na (4) Equal to that of F

15. The order of the magnitude of first ionisation potentials of Be, B, N and O is
(1) N > O > Be > B (2) N > Be > O > B
(3) Be > B > N > O (4) B > Be > O > N

16. Which has the highest second ionisation potential?

(1) Nitrogen (2) Carbon (3) Oxygen (4) Fluorine

17. A neutral atom will have the lowest ionization potential when its electronic configuration is
(1) 1s1 (2) 1s2, 2s2p6 (3) 1s2, 2s2p2 (4) 1s2, 2s2p6, 3s1

18. Which one of the following elements has the highest ionisation energy?
(1) Na (2) Mg (3) C (4) F

19. The ionization energy will be maximum for the process.

(1) Ba → Ba++ (2) Be → Be++ (3) Cs → Cs+ (4) Li → Li+

20. Which of the following isoelectronic ion has the lowest ionisation energy?
(1) Na+ (2) F– (3) Mg2+ (4) O2–

101
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-6 PERIODIC TABLE

1. Electron affinity is: -

(1) Relative strength to attract the shared electron pair
(2) Necessary energy required to remove the electron from the ultimate orbit
(3) Energy released when an electron is added to the outermost shell
(4) Energy released when an electron is added to the inner shell

2. The electron affinity of N, O, S and Cl are such that: -

(1) N < O < S < Cl (2) O < N < Cl < S (3) O ≈ Cl < N ≈ S (4) O < S < Cl < N

3. The correct order of electron affinity of B, C, N, O is: –

(1) O > C > N > B (2) B > N > C > O (3) O > C > B > N (4) O > B > C > N

4. The correct order of electron affinity for the different families is: -
(1) Halogen > carbon > nitrogen > oxygen
(2) Halogen > oxygen > nitrogen > carbon
(3) Halogen > nitrogen > carbon > oxygen
(4) Halogen > oxygen > carbon > nitrogen

5. Highest electron–affinity is associated with the configuration: -

(1) 2s2, 2p° (2) 2s2, 2p2 (3) 2s2, 2p3 (4) 2s2, 2p1

6. Which statement is correct: -

(1) The E.A. of carbon is greater than oxygen (2) The E.A. of Sulphur is less than oxygen
(3) The E.A. of iodine is greater than bromine (4) The E.A. of bromine is less than chlorine

7. O(g) + 2e– → O2( g−) ∆Heg = 744.7 KJ/mole. The positive value of ∆Heg is due to: -

(1) Energy is released to add to 1 e– to O–1 (2) Energy is required to add to 1 e– to O–1
(3) Energy is needed to add on 1 e– to O (4) None of the above is correct

8. Which of the following process energy is liberated: -

(1) Cl → Cl+ + e– (2) HCl → H+ + Cl– (3) Cl + e– → Cl– + e– (4) O– + e– → O–2

102
9. The element having very high ionization enthalpy but zero electron gain enthalpy is: -
(1) H (2) F (3) He (4) Be

10. The electron affinity values for the halogens shown the following trend: -
(1) F < Cl > Br > l (2) F < Cl < Br < l (3) F > Cl > Br > l (4) F < Cl > Br < l

11. The electron affinity of the members of oxygen family of the periodic table, follows the sequence:
(1) O > S > Se (2) S > O > Se (3) O < S > Se (4) Se > O > S

12. Of the following elements, which have the highest electron affinity?
(1) As (2) O (3) S (4) Se

13. Electron affinities of O, F, S and Cl are in the order.

(1) O < S< Cl < F (2) O < S < F < Cl (3) S < O < Cl < F (4) S < O < F < Cl

14. Which of the following statement is not true?

(1) F atom can hold additional electron more tightly than Cl atom
(2) Cl atom can hold additional electron more tightly than F atom
(3) The incoming electron encounters greater repulsion for F atom than for Cl atom
(4) It is easier to remove an electron from F– than Cl–

15. Increasing order of Electron affinity for following configuration.

(a) 1s2, 2s2, 2p3 (b) 1s2, 2s2, 2p4

(c) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6 3s2 3p4 (d) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2, 3p3

(1) a < d < b < c (2) d < a < c < b (3) a <b< c < d (4) a < b < d < c

16. Highest electron affinity is shown by

(1) F– (2) Cl– (3) Li+ (4) Na+

17. On moving down the group, which of the following will not be observed?
(1) Ionisation energy increases (2) Electron affinity decreases
(3) Electronegativity decreases (4) Atomic radii increase

18. Which of the following element is expected to have highest electron gain enthalpy: -
(1) 1s22s22p63s23p5 (2) 1s22s22p3

(3) 1s22s22p4 (4) 1s22s22p5

19. The correct order of electron affinity is: -

(1) Be < B < C < N (2) Be < N < B < C
(3) N < Be < C < B (4) N < C < B < Be

20. Electron addition would be easier in: -

(1) O (2) O+ (3) O– (4) O+2

103
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-7 PERIODIC TABLE

1. In which of the following configuration of element has maximum electronegativity

(1) 1s2, 2s2 2p5 (2) 1s2, 2s2 2p6
(3) 1s2, 2s2 2p4 (4) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p3

2. On the pauling’s electronegativity scale, which is most electronegative?

(1) Cl (2) O (3) Br (4) Ne

3. What parameters are required to evaluate electronegativity in Mulliken scale?

(1) Only electronegativity (2) Only electron affinity
(3) Electron affinity and ionization energy (4) Ionic potential and electronegativity

4. Select the correct statement: -

(1) Cl2O7 is the most acidic oxide (2) Non-metallic character decreases in a period
(3) BeO is a basic oxide (4) All are correct

5. Which of the following is affected by the stable electronic configuration of an atom?

(1) Electronegativity (2) Ionisation enthalpy (3) Electron gain enthalpy

Correct answer is:

(1) only electronegativity
(2) only ionisation enthalpy
(3) both electron gain enthalpy and ionisation enthalpy
(4) all of the above

6. The lowest electronegativity of the element from the following atomic number is
(1) 37 (2) 55 (3) 9 (4) 35

7. Correct order of electronegativity is/are: -

(1) F > Cl > Br > l (2) Si > Al > Mg > Na (3) Cl > S > P > Si (4) All

104
8. Elements of which group form anions most readily: -
(1) Oxygen family (2) Nitrogen group (3) Halogens (4) Alkali metals

9. Outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative element is –

(1) ns2np3 (2) ns2np6 (3) ns2 (4) ns2np5

10. Electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order –

(1) O < N < S < P (2) P < S < N < O
(3) P < N < S < O (4) S < P < N < O

11. Which one of the following is incorrect?

(1) An element which has high electronegativity always has high electron gain enthalpy

(2) Electron gain enthalpy is the property of an isolated atom

(3) Electronegativity is the property of a bonded atom

(4) Both electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy are usually directly related to nuclear charge

and inversely related to atomic size

12. If electronegativity values of element X and Y are 3.8 and 1.8 respectively, then percentage of ionic

character in compound XY is:

(1) 50 (2) 46 (3) 64 (4) 36

13. The pair of amphoteric hydroxide is

(1) Al(OH)3, LiOH (2) Be(OH)2, Mg(OH)2

(3) B(OH)3, Be(OH)2 (4) Be(OH)2, Zn(OH)2

14. Which of the following have no acidic or basic properties: -

(1) CO (2) N2O (3) NO (4) All

15. The pair with minimum difference in electronegativity is: -

(1) F, Cl (2) C,H (3) P,H (4) Na, Cs

105
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-1 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Which condition favours the bond formation:

(1) Maximum attraction and maximum potential energy
(2) Minimum attraction and minimum potential energy
(3) Minimum potential energy and maximum attraction
(4) None of the above

2. During bond formation, potential energy of system:

(1) Increases (2) Decreases
(3) Remains the same (4) Cannot be predicted

3. Which of the following has pseudo inert gas configuration.

(1) Na+ (2) Cu+ (3) K+ (4) S–2

4. Which of the following covalent molecule is an exception to octet rule?

(1) BeCl2 (2) CO2 (3) H2O (4) CH4

5. Which of the following contains unpaired electron

(1) NO2 (2) CO2 (3) NO2− (4) CN–

6. Odd electron species is/are:

(1) NO (2) NO2 (3) ClO2 (4) All

7. Hypervalent species among the following is

(1) BF3 (2) CO2 (3) SiF4 (4) XeF6

8. Molecule which contain only bonded pair of electrons on the central atom is

(1) H2O (2) NH3 (3) BeCl2 (4) BrF3

106
9. Compound having maximum number of bonded pair of electrons in its molecule is
(1) Ethyne (2) Ammonia
(3) Sulphur hexafluoride (4) Bromine Pentafluoride

10. Expanded octet can be observed in the valence shell of the central atom in
(1) NH3 (2) CH4 (3) PCl5 (4) BeCl2

11. Duplet configuration is not found in

(1) Hydride ion (2) Hydrogen molecule
(3) Lithium cation (4) Be3+

Review Your Self

12. Which d-block metals is liquid at room temperature?

(1) Hg (2) Cd (3) Ga (4) Cs

13. In a given energy level, the order of penetration effect of different orbitals is-

(1) f < d < p < s (2) s = P = d = f (3) s < p < d < f (4) p > s > d > f

14. X is placed in group number 7 and 4th period, Its outermost configuration is-

(1) 5s2, 5p5 (2) 3d5, 4s2 (3) 4d5, 5s2 (4) 4d5, 4s1

15. Which of the following sets does not represent isoelectronic species?

(1) Ne, F–, O2– (2) Cl–, Ar, K+ (3) S2–, Br–, Kr (4) Mg+2, Na+, Ne

16. Last group of d-block is known as-

(1) II B (2) VII B (3) VIII (4) X

107
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-2 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Covalency of chlorine atoms after excitation of two electrons will be

(1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 7

2. In "SF6", Sulphur atom is in:

(1) Ground state (2) 1st excited state

(3) 2nd excited state (4) 3rd excited state

3. In Covalence

(1) Transfer of electrons takes place (2) Sharing of electrons takes place

(3) Sharing of electrons by one atom only (4) None of these take place

4. Valency of the atom with respect to oxygen is maximum in

(1) Na2O (2) MgO (3) Al2O3 (4) Cl2O7

5. Nucleus of an element has nine protons. its valence would be

(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 5

6. Variable valence is a property of

(1) Alkali metals (2) Transition metals

(3) Alkaline earth metals (4) Inert gases

7. The molecule that deviates from octet rule is

(1) NaCl (2) BeCl2 (3) MgO (4) NH3

8. Which of the following molecule deviates from octet rule with respect to central atom

(1) PCl3 (2) H2S (3) NH3 (4) XeF4

108
9. The maximum valence of sulphur is

(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 7

Review Your Self

10. Correct electronic configuration of Cr is-

(1) 1s22s22p63s23p23d44s1 (2) 1s22s22p63s23d64s0

(3) 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s1 (4) 1s22p22p63p03d5

11. ns2np4(n-outermost orbit) represents the valency electrons. The corresponding group would be-

(1) F, Cl, Br …… (2) N, P, As …… (3) O, S, Se …… (4) C, Si, Ge ……...

12. Outer configuration of X is 3d5, 4s1. It belongs to group number-

(1) 16 (2) 15 (3) 5 (4) 6

13. Electronic configuration are:

A - 1s22s22p1

B - 1s22s22p63s13p2

C - 1s22s22p63s23p2

D - 1s22s22p53s1

then which among these will belong to the same group in the periodic table?

(1) A & B (2) A, B, C (3) A, B, D (4) A, B, C, D

14. For the element Z = 120, in which family would you place:

(1) Group 18, Inert gas (2) Group 15, Nitrogen

(3) Group 2, Alkaline earth metal (4) Group 3, Inner transition element

109
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-3 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Which of the following overlaping is correct [assuming X-axis to be the internuclear axis]

(1) 2pz + 2pz → σ (2) 2py + 2py → π (3) 1s + 2py → π (4) 2py + 2pz → π

2. Which of the following does not form diatomic molecule?

(1) Iodine (2) Oxygen (3) Phosphorous (4) Nitrogen

3. Which of the following overlapping is not possible

(1) Px + px along y–axis (2) Px + px along x–axis

(3) Px + dxy along y–axis (4) Py + dxy along y–axis

4. CO2 is a gas, while SiO2 is a solid but both are:

(1) Covalent containing π–bond (2) Molecules having Pπ – dπ bonding

(3) Acidic (4) Discrete molecules

5. Nitrogen does not form NF5 because

(1) Nitrogen is member of V group (2) It contains no empty d-orbital

(3) The bond energy of N≡N is very high (4) None

6. Which of the following p-orbitals overlapping would result in the strongest bond:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

7. Which overlapping is involved in HCl molecule:

(1) s - s Overlap (2) p - p Overlap (3) s - d Overlap (4) s - p Overlap

110
8. Correct order of extent of overlapping is:

(1) 1s-1s < 2s-2s < 2s-2p

(2) 2p-2p (Axial) < 2p-2p (Collateral)

(3) 1s-1s > 2p-2p (Axial) > 2s-2p > 2s-2s

(4) 1s-1s > 2s-2p > 2s-2s > 2p-2p (Axial)

Review Your Self

9. Ionisation potential does not depend upon-

(1) Atomic size (2) Type of electron (3) Nuclear charge (4) Type of bonding in crystal lattice

10. Ionization potential phosphorus is greater than that of Sulphur because-

(1) Of its smaller size

(2) Of more penetrating power of p-orbitals

(3) Its nuclear force of attraction on electrons

(4) Phosphorous has half filled electronic configuration

11. Electropositive or metallic character-

(1) Increases in period

(2) Decreases in a group

(3) Decreases in a period and increases in a group

(4) Of an element is reflected in its tendency to from covalent compounds.

12. Ionisation potential is lowest for-

(1) Halogens (2) Inert gas

(3) Alkaline earth metals (4) Alkali metals

13. The element which have lowest ionization potential-

(1) Cs (2) Li (3) Na (4) K

111
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-4 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Which of the following is the electron deficient compound ?

(1) ICl (2) NH3 (3) BCl3 (4) PCl3

2. The octet rule is not obeyed in : –

(1) CO2 (2) BCl3 (3) PCl5 (4) 2 & 3 both

3. Example of super octet molecule is –

(1) SF6 (2) PCl5 (3) IF7 (4) All

4. In which of the following species octet rule is applicable ?

(1) BrF5 (2) SF6 (3) IF7 (4) CO2

5. Which of the following have co-ordinate bond ?

(1) NH4+ (2) H3O+ (3) Both (4) None

6. How many bonded electron pairs are present in IF7 molecule

(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) None

7. The odd electron molecules among the following is/are :

(1) NO2 (2) NO (3) ClO2 (4) All of these

8. Which of the following does not exist –

(1) [BF6]3– (2) NCl5 (3) [CF6]2– (4) All

9. In ICl3 iodine atom present in –

(1) GS (2) ES1 (3) ES2 (4) ES3

Review Your Self

10. Which of the following element has the highest value of electron affinity -
(1) Carbon (2) Oxygen (3) Fluorine (4) Neon

11. The process requiring the absorption of energy is -

(1) F → F¯ (2) Cl → Cl¯ (3) O → O2– (4) H → H¯

12. Arrange S, O and Se in ascending order of electron affinity -

(1) Se < S < O (2) O < Se < S (3) S < O < Se (4) S < Se < O

13. Which of the following elements has the maximum electron affinity ?
(1) F (2) Cl (3) Br (4) I

112
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-5 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. The hybridization state of the central atom in AlI3 is-

(1) sp3d (2) sp3 (3) sp2 (4) sp

2. By hybridization, we mean the mixing of-

(1) Electrons (2) Atomic orbitals
(3) Atoms (4) Protons

3. On hybridization of one s and one p orbitals we get

(1) Two mutually perpendicular orbitals
(2) Two orbitals at 180o
(3) Four orbitals directed tetrahedrally
(4) Three orbitals in a plane

4. Beryllium atom in beryllium fluoride is

(1) sp3 hybridized (2) sp2 hybridized
(3) sp hybridized (4) Unhybridized

5. Shape of BF3 molecule is

(1) Linear (2) Planar (3) Tetrahedral (4) Square pyramidal

6. Which of the following molecule having sp2 hybridization

(1) BeF2 (2) BF3 (3) C2H2 (4) NH3

7. Which molecule is planar

(1) NH3 (2) CH4 (3) AlCl3 (4) SiCl4

8. Which one of the following is a correct set with respect to molecule, hybridization and shape
(1) BeCl2, sp2, linear
(2) BeCl2, sp2, triangular planar
(3) BCl3, sp2, triangular planar
(4) BCl3, sp3, tetrahedral

113
9. A sp3 hybrid orbital contains
(1) 1/4s character (2) 1/2s character (3) 2/3s character (4) 3/4s character

10. A molecule with four bonded electron pairs on the central atom and no lone pair is likely to be
(1) Linear (2) Tetrahedral (3) Octahedral (4) Triangular planar

11. Hybridisation state of 'S' atom in SF6 molecule is:-

(1) sp3 (2) sp3d (3) sp3d2 (4) sp3d3

12. The AsF5 molecule is trigonal bipyramidal. The hybrid orbitals used by the As atoms for bonding are
(1) dx 2
− y2
, dz2 , s,px ,py (2) dxy , s,px ,py ,pz

(3) s,px ,py ,pz ,dz2 (4) dx 2

− y2
, s,px ,py

Review Your Self

13. The formula of oxide of metal whose successive ionisation enthalpies are 10, 20, 50, 2000 kJ mol–1
respectively
(1) M2O (2) M2O3 (3) MO (4) MO2

14. The electronic configurations of the elements X, Y, Z and J are given below. Which element has the
highest metallic character
(1) X = 2, 8, 4 (2) Y = 2, 8, 8 (3) Z = 2, 8, 8, 1 (4) J = 2, 8, 8, 7

15. (I) Be and Mg are alkaline earth metal

(II) K+ have larger radii than Ca2+
(III) All d-block elements are transition elements
(IV) HΘ ion have larger size than Li+
Incorrect statements is/are
(1) (I), (III) & (IV) (2) (II) & (III) (3) (I) & (IV) (4) (I) & (III)

16. The successive ionization energies for element X is given below

IE1 : 250 kJ mol–1
IE2 : 820 kJ mol–1
IE3 : 1100 kJ mol–1
IE4 : 1400 kJ mol–1
Find out the number of valence electrons for the element X.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1

17. Element of highest second ionization energy is

(1) Na (2) Al (3) Mg (4) Si

114
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-6 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Predict the hybridisation of the central atom in following molecules :

Molecules No. of hybrid No. of σ No. of Hybridisation Electronic Molecular

orbital bond Lone pair geometry geometry
1. BeH2(g)
2. BeF2
3. CO2
4. PCl3F2
5. BF3

6. CH+3

7. IF5
8. SO2
9. SO3
10. SnCl2
11. AlCl3
12. AlH4–
13. NF3
14. PF3
15. AsCl3
16. CH3–
17. OF2
18. SCl2
19. SF4
20. PCl6–
21. ICl2–
22. ICl5
23. ICl4–
24. XeF6
25. ClO–4

115
2. Which of the following does not have sp hybridized central atom
(1) XeF2 (2) C2H2 (3) CO2 (4) BeH2

3. How many species having two lone pair of electrons on central atom?
XeF4, XeF5–, XeOF4, ICl4–, SCl2
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 4

4. Match the species in column (I) with characteristics in column (II) :

Column I Column II
(P) BH4– (I) 2 bond pair and 3 lone pair on centralatom
(Q) ICl2+ (II) 4 bond pair and no lone pair on central atom
(R) ICl2– (III) 3 bond pair and 1 lone pair on central atom
(S) ICl 4
–
(IV) 2 bond pair and 2 lone pair on central atom
(V) 4 bond pair and 2 lone pair on central atom

(1) P = II ; Q = IV; R = III ; S = I (2) P = II ; Q = IV ; R = I ; S = V

(3) P = II ; Q = I ; R = V ; S = IV (4) P = II ; Q =I ; R = III ; S = IV

5. The molecule without lone pair around the central atom is

(1) XeO3 (2) XeO4 (3) XeF6 (4) XeO2F2

6. The hybridisation of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3– & NH4+ are –

(1) SP, SP3 and SP2 respectively (2) SP, SP2 & SP3 respectively
(3) SP2, SP & SP3 respectively (4) SP2, SP3 & SP respectively

7. BF3 + F– → [BF4]– what is hybridisation state of boron in BF3 & (BF4)–

(1) SP2, SP3 (2) SP3, SP3 (3) SP2, SP2 (4) SP3SP3d

Review Your Self

8. Correct order of ionic size is
(1) S–2 > P–3 > Cl– (2) Cl– > P–3 > S–2 (3) Cl– > S–2 > P–3 (4) P–3 > S–2 > Cl–

9. An element with atomic number 34 belongs to

(1) s-block (2) p-block (3) d-block (4) f-block

10. The least electronegative element has the following electronic configuration
(1) ns2np5 (2) ns2np4 (3) ns2np3 (4) ns2

116
11. The first four ionization energy values of an element are 191, 578, 872 and 5962 kcal. The number
of valence electrons in the element is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

12. Which of the following species has highest electron affinity?

(1) Li (2) O (3) O– (4) N

13. If each orbital contains 3 electrons then total number of elements present in 5th period
(1) 18 (2) 27 (3) 32 (4) 36

14. The electronic configuration having maximum difference in first and second ionization energies is
(1) 1s22s22p63s2 (2) 1s22s22p63s23p1 (3) 1s22s22p63s23p2 (4) 1s22s22p63s1

117
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-7 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. The hybridisation of in C2 & C3 in HC ≡ C–CH = CH2 is

4 3 2 1

(1) sp , sp
3 3
(2) sp , sp
2
(3) sp, sp2 (4) sp3, sp

2. Shape of NH3 is very similar to –

⊕
(1) BF3 (2) CH3 (3) SO3 (4) CH3

3. Which of the following molecular geometry is not possible for sp3d hybridisation ?
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal (2) See-saw
(3) T-shaped (4) Triangular planer

4. Which of the following molecule is planar?

(1) CH4 (2) BF3 (3) PF3 (4) NH3

5. Which of the following is V-shapped

(1) CH4 (2) H2O (3) SO3 (4) All

6. Which of the following statement is correct for given molecule CH2=CH2

(1) No of sigma bonds = 5 (2) No. of π-bonds = 1
(3) All H-atoms lie in the same plane (4) All of these

7. XeF2 molecule is –
(1) Linear (2) Triangular planer (3) Pyramidal (4) Square planer

8. The pair of species with similar shape is

(1) PCl3, NH3 (2) CF4, SF4 (3) NH3, CO2 (4) PF5, IF5

9. Incorrect statement for SF4

(1) Hypervalent (2) Number of bond pair is four
(3) it form in first excited state (4) p at central sulphur atom are two

118
10. Which among the following have regular geometry
(1) CCl4 (2) NF3 (3) PF3 (4) SCl4

11. Which of the following species is planar

(1) CO32– (2) NH3 (3) PCl3 (4) SOCl2

Review Your Self

12. Element having highest 1st ionization energy in the following is

(1) Na (2) Mg (3) Al (4) He

13. The electronic configuration for the various elements are given below
a. 1s22s22p5 b. 1s22s22p63s1 c. 1s22s22p63s2 d. 1s22s22p6
From the above configurations, the correct order of their ionisation energy will be
(1) b < c < a < d (2) a < b < c < d (3) b < c < d < a (4) d < a < c < b

14. Which of the following is a representative element?

(1) Zn (2) Sr (3) Au (4) Fe

119
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-8 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. The bond angles of NH3, NH4+ and NH–2 are in the order -
(1) NH–2 > NH3 > NH+4 (2) NH+4 > NH3 > NH–2
(3) NH3 > NH–2 > NH+4 (4) NH3 > NH+4 > NH–2

2. Which order of decreasing bond angle is correct:-

(1) CCl4 > BF3 > NO2
+
(2) NH3 > NCl3 > NBr3
(3) Br2O > Cl2O > OF2 (4) PF3 > PH3 > PCl3

3. Which of the following is the correct order of bond-angle

(1) NH3 < CH4 < BeCl2 < H2O (2) H2O < NH3 < CH4 < BeCl2
(3) BeCl2 < CH4 < H2O < NH3 (4) NH3 < H2O <CH4 < BeCl2

4. Maximum bond angle is present in

(1) BCl3 (2) BBr3 (3) BF3 (4) Same for all

5. The correct order for bond angle is

(1) NO2+ > NO2 > NO2− (2) NO2+ > NO2− > NO2
(3) NO2 > NO2− > NO2+ (4) NO2− > NO2 > NO2+

6. In SO3 molecule there are three σ-bond & three π-bonds, three π-bonds are formed by

(1) pπ – pπ overlap b/w S & O-atom

(2) sp2 – P overlap b/w S & O-atoms

(3) One by pπ-pπ overlap & other by pπ-dπ overlap

(4) Both by pπ-dπ overlap

7. In which molecule all possible bond angles are identical ?

(1) SF4 (2) SO2Cl2 (3) ClF3 (4) SiF4

8. Minimum bond angle is associated with ?

(1) H2S (2) H2O (3) NH3 (4) CH4

120
9. What is the hybridisation of the central atom of SiO2

(1) sp (2) sp2 (3) sp3 (4) sp3d

10. Which of the following molecule is not planar?

(1) ClF3 (2) XeF5+ (3) XeF4 (4) BF3

Review Your Self

11. The elements whose atoms have three outer most shells incomplete are called

(1) s-block elements (2) p-block elements (3) f-block elements (4) d-block elements

12. Which of the following configuration is associated with biggest jump between 2nd and 3rd 1E?

(1) 1s22s22p2 (2) 1s22s22p63s1 (3) 1s22s22p63s2 (4) 1s22s22p1

13. The electronegativity of Be is almost same as

(1) Al (2) Mg (3) Na (4) Li

14. Among group 16 elements, electron gain enthalpy of which is least negative?

(1) O (2) S (3) Se (4) Te

15. Nature of three oxides formed by A, B and C is acidic, basic and amphoteric. Give the sequence of
their electronegativity

(1) A > C > B (2) A > B > C (3) C > B > A (4) B > C > A

16. Which one of the following represents a d-block element?

(1) [Rn] 6d10 7s2 7p2 (2) [Xe] 4f1 5d1 6s2 (3) [Xe] 4f14 5d1 6s2 (4) [Xe] 5d1 6s2

121
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-9 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Which of the following is non polar molecule ?

(1) CH4 (2) CHCl3 (3) F2O (4) CH2Cl2

2. AB3 has zero dipole moment A can have

(1) SP3 hybridisation (2) SP2 hybridisation (3) Both (4) None

3. Among the following compound one that is polar & has central atom with sp2 hybridisation ?
(1) SO2 (2) BF3 (3) CHCl3 (4) CCl4

4. Which of the following pair of molecules will have permanent dipole moments for both members ?
(1) SiF4 & NO2 (2) NO2 & CO2 (3) NO2 & O3 (4) SiF4 & CO2

5. Which of the following has zero dipole moment

(1) ClF (2) PCl3 (3) SiF4 (4) CHCl3

6. Which of the following represents a non-polar molecule with polar bonds

(1) NCl3 (2) NF3 (3) N2 (4) CCl4

7. Which of the following would have a permanent dipole moment ?

(1) SiF4 (2) SF4 (3) PCl5 (4) BCl3

8. The most polar bond is

(1) C – F (2) F – O (3) C – Br (4) C – N

9. Which has maximum dipole moment ?

Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Cl Cl
Cl Cl

122
Review Your Self

10. Select the element of positive electron gain enthalpy

(1) Li (2) Na (3) P (4) He

11. Which element has lowest electron affinity?

(1) O (2) S (3) Se (4) Te

12. Electronic configuration of elements with atomic number 117 will be

(1) [Rn]5f146d107s27p5 (2) [Rn]5f147s27p66d9

(3) [Rn]7s27p66d105f13 (4) [Rn]5f16d107s27p6

13. Which of the following set of atomic number represents only representative elements?

(1) 55, 12, 48, 53 (2) 13, 23, 54, 83 (3) 3, 33, 53, 87 (4) 22, 33, 55, 66

123
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-10 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. In Co-ordinate bond, the acceptor atoms must essentially contain in its valency shell an orbital:-

(1) With paired electron (2) With single electron

(3) With no electron (4) With three electron

2. The correct statement for the reaction-

NH3 + H+ → NH4+

(1) Hybridisation state is changed (2) Bond angle increases

(3) NH3 act as a Lewis acid (4) Regular geometry is changed

3. The number of coordinate bonds presents in SO3 molecule are

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

4. In PO3–
4
ion, the average charge on the oxygen atoms is

(1) +1 (2) –1 (3) –0.75 (4) +0.75

5. Bond order of S – O bond in SO2–

4
is

4
(1) 2 (2) 1.5 (3) 3 (4)
3

6. Which of the following contain both ionic and covalent bonds?

(1) H2O (2) NaOH (3) C6H5Cl (4) CO2

7. Nitrogen-Oxygen bond order in NO2− is

(1) 3 (2) 1.5 (3) 2 (4) 4

8. Electrovalency of Al in Al2O3 compound is

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

124
Review Your Self

9. The correct order for the mentioned property is

(1) F– < O2– < S2– < Br– – Ionic radii

(2) Li > Na > K – Electropositive Nature

(3) N > P > Sb > As – Electron affinity

(4) Sn > Ge > Si > C – Non-metallic character

10. Which of the following element has the lowest first ionisation potential?

(1) Na (2) F (3) Cs (4) I

11. The correct order regarding second ionisation potential is

(1) N > C > B > Be (2) N > C > Be > B (3) N > B > C > Be (4) Be > N > C > B

12. Which of the following pairs of atomic numbers represent elements belonging to the same group?

(1) 11 and 20 (2) 12 and 30 (3) 13 and 31 (4) 14 and 33

13. Which of the following electronic configuration represent element of highest ionisation potential is

(1) [Xe] 6s2 (2) [Ar] 4s23d10 (3) 1s2 (4) [Rn] 7s26d15f14

125
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-11 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Correct order of energy is –

(1) BMO > AO > ABMO (2) AO > BMO> ABMO
(3) BMO > ABMO > AO (4) ABMO > AO > BMO

2. Correct statement is for MOT –

(1) Only those atomic orbital can combine which has same or approx same energy
(2) Molecular orbitals are polycentric
(3) One molecular orbital can accomodate max two electron
(4) All

3. Bonding molecular orbital is formed by –

(1) In phase combination of atomic orbitals
(2) Out phase combination of atomic orbitals
(3) In phase or out phase combination of atomic orbitals
(4) None

4. ABMO is formed by –
(1) In phase combination of atomic orbitals
(2) Out phase combination of atomic orbitals
(3) In phase or out phase combination of atomic
(4) All of these

5. Electron finding probability in BMO is –

(1) Greater than sum of electron finding probability of parent atomic orbitals
(2) Than sum of electron finding probability of parent atomic orbitals
(3) Equal to the sum of electron finding probability of parent atomic orbitals
(4) All of these

6. If Z-axis is the molecular axis then π-molecular orbitals are formed by overlap of –
(1) S + Pz (2) Px + Py (3) pz + Pz (4) Px + Px

7. MOT can explain

(1) Fractional bond order (2) Paramagnetic behaviour of dioxygen
(3) Diamagnetic behaviour of dinitrogen (4) All of these

8. Which of the following has nodal plane?

(1) σ2s (2) σ*2s (3) Both (4) None

126
9. In a homonuclear diatomic molecule higher the bond order larger will be
(1) Bond length (2) Bond strength
(3) Paramagnetic nature (4) Ionic character

10. Which of the following should be most stable

(1) H2 (2) H2+ (3) H2– (4) All are equally stable

11. Which of the following does not exist

(1) H2 (2) Li2 (3) He2 (4) He2+

12. Which of the following has maximum bond strength ?

(1) H2 (2) H2– (3) H2+ (4) He2

Review Your Self

13. The correct order of ionic radii is

(1) Fe > Fe++ > Fe+++ (2) O–– > O– > O+ (3) I– > I > I+ (4) All of these

14. Electronic configuration of anion in sodium hydride will be

(1) 1s2 (2) 1s1 (3) 1s0 (4) 1s1 2s1

15. CO and NO are

(1) Neutral oxides (2) Acidic oxides
(3) Basic oxides (4) Neutral and basic respectively

16. Which of the following is correct order of ionization potential is

(1) K > Ca (2) Ca > Ba (3) Na > Na+ (4) Cl– > Cl

127
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-12 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Which have non-integral bond order -

(1) O2+ (2) O–2 (3) NO (4) All of these

2. Number of bonding electrons in N2 is -

(1) 4 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 14

3. N2 and O2 are converted to monocations N2+ and O2+ respectively, which is wrong statement-

(1) In N2+ , the NN bond weakens (2) In O2+ , the OO bond order increases

(3) In O2+ , the paramagnetism decreases (4) N2+ becomes diamagnetic

4. The species having bond order different from that in CO is

(1) NO– (2) NO+ (3) CN– (4) N2

5. What is correct sequence of bond order

(1) O+2 > O-2 > O2 (2) O+2 > O2 > O-2 (3) O2 > O-2 > O+2 (4) O-2 > O+2 > O2

6. Which of the following is not paramagnetic

(1) C2 (2) N-2 (3) O-2 (4) NO

7. The paramagnetic property of the oxygen molecule is due to the presence of unpaired electrons

present in :

(1) (σ2px)1 and (σ*2px)1 (2) (σ2px)1 and (π2py)1

(3) (π*2px)1 and (π*2py)1 (4) (π*2py)1 and (π2py)1

128
8. Which of the following is paramagnetic ?
(1) B2 (2) C2 (3) N2 (4) F2

9. N2 accept electron and convert into N2–, where this electron goes

(1) Antibonding π molecular orbital (2) Bonding π molecular orbital

(3) σ bonding molecular orbital (4) σ-anti bonding molecular orbital

Review Your Self

10. The elements with atomic number 31 belongs to which group and period respectively?

(1) 13, 4 (2) 14, 3 (3) 4, 13 (4) 4, 8

11. Element having highest 1st ionization energy in the following is

(1) Na (2) Mg (3) Al (4) He

12. Which of the following is most acidic in nature?

(1) SO3 (2) CO (3) Al2O3 (4) P2O5

13. Positive electron gain enthalpy is shown by

(1) Ne (2) O– (3) F (4) Both (1) & (2)

14. Which of the following sequences contains atomic number of only representative elements?

(1) 3, 33, 53, 87 (2) 2, 10 22, 36 (3) 7, 17, 25, 37, 48 (4) 10, 35, 66, 88

15. The electronegativity follows the order

(1) F > O > Cl > Br (2) F > Cl > Br > O (3) O > F > Cl > Br (4) Cl > F > O > Br

129
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-13 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Among HF,CH4 ,CH3OH, andN2H4 intermolecular hydrogen bonding is expected

(1) In all (2) In all leaving one
(3) In two (4) None of these

2. Intramolecular H-bonding is present in

(1) Meta nitrophenol (2) Salicylaldehyde
(3) Hydrogen chloride (4) Benzophenone

3. Out of the two compounds shown below, the vapour pressure of B at a particular temperature is
expected to be

and

A B

(1) Higher than that of A

(2) Lower than that of A
(3) Same as that of A
(4) Can be higher or lower depending upon the size of the vessel

4. Density of ice is less than that of water because of

(1) Extensive hydrogen bonding
(2) Crystal modification of ice
(3) Open porous structure of ice due to hydrogen bonding
(4) Different physical states of these

5. Hydrogen fluoride is a liquid unlike other hydrogen halides because

(1) HF molecules associate due to hydrogen bonding
(2) F2 is highly reactive
(3) HF is the weakest acid of all hydrogen halides
(4) Fluorine atom is the smallest of all halogens

130
6. Incorrect order of decreasing boiling points is:
(1) HF > HI > HBr > HCl (2) H2O > H2 Te > H2Se > H2S
(3) Br2 > Cl 2 > F2 (4) CH4 > GeH4 > SiH4

7. Which does not show hydrogen bonding

(1) C2H5OH (2) Liquid NH3 (3) H2O (4) Liquid HBr

8. The boiling points of methanol, water and diethyl ether are respectively 65oC, 100oC and 34.5oC.
Which of the following best explain these wide variations in b.p.
(1) The molecular mass increases from water (18) to methanol (32) to diethyl ether (74)
(2) The extent of H-bonding decreases from water to methanol while it is absent in ether
(3) The extent of intermolecular H-bonding decreases from ether to methanol to water
(4) The number of H atoms per molecule increases from water to methanol to ether

9. Ethanol and methoxymethane have the same molecular weight but methoxymethane boils at a
lower temperature because it has
(1) Low density (2) No hydrogen bonding
(3) Molecular association (4) Oxygen atom attached to two methyl groups

10. Which one shows maximum hydrogen bonding

(1) H2O (2) H2Se (3) H2 Te (4) HF

Review Your Self

11. The symbol of element with atomic number 105 is

(1) Uup (2) Unp (3) Uuu (4) Unn

12. Consider the iso-electronic series: K+, S2–, Cl– and Ca2+. The radii of the ions decreases as
(1) Ca2+ > K+ > Cl– > S2– (2) Cl– > S2– > K+ > Ca2+
(3) S > Cl > K > Ca
2– – + 2+
(4) K+ > Ca2+ > S2– > Cl–

13. Which of the following has positive electron gain enthalpy?

(1) Cl (2) S (3) He (4) C

14. An element with E.C. [Xe] 4f145d7 6s2 belongs to

(1) 7th period (2) 9th group (3) 7th group (4) 5th period

15. Which of the following set of elements does not belong to the same group, but resemble in
properties?
(1) Li and Mg (2) Be and Al (3) B and Si (4) All of these

16. the correct order of shielding effect of s, p, d and f orbital is

(1) s > p > d > f (2) s < p < d > f (3) s < p < d < f (4) s > p < d < f

131
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-14 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Which of the following molecules are Expected of exhibit Intermolecular H-bonding

(I) Acetic acid (II) O-nitrophenol (III) M-nitrophenol (IV) Boric acid
(1) I, II, III (2) I, III, IV (3) I, II, IV (4) II, III, IV

2. Hydrogen bonding (I) In solid state ____ & (II) in gaseous state ____ fill in the blanks the appropriate
word:
(1) (I) Maximum (II) Minimum (2) (I) Minimum (II) Maximum
(3) Cannot be predicted (4) All of these

3. Which of the following compounds would have significant Intermolecular H-bonding?

HF, CH3OH, N2O4, CH4
(1) HF, N2O4 (2) HF, CH4, CH3OH (3) HF, CH3OH (4) CH3OH, CH4
4. Which of the following exhibits H-bonding?
(1) CH4 (2) H2Se (3) N2H4 (4) H2S

5. The H-bond in solid HF can be best represent as

F
(1) H–F…………..H–F…………H–F (2) H F
H H
H
F
(3) H H H H (4) H H
F F F F F H
F
H

6. The volatility of HF is low because of

(1) Its low polarizability
(2) The weak dispersion interaction between the molecules
(3) Its smaller molecular mass
(4) Its strong Hydrogen bonding

7. Two ice cubes are pressed over each other until they unite to form one block. Which force is
responsible for holding them together is:
(1) Vander wall’s forces (2) Covalent interaction
(3) Hydrogen bond formation (4) Dipole-dipole attraction

132
8. Which is weakest among the following types of bonds?
(1) Debye force (2) Dipole-dipole bond
(3) Metallic bond (4) Hydrogen bond

Review Your Self

9. Which of the following elements show properties that are characteristic of both metals and non-
metals?
(1) Mg (2) S (3) C (4) Si

10. Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with

(1) Mg (2) Al (3) Li (4) Si

11. The element having lowest first ionization potential among Sr, As, S and F is
(1) Sr (2) As (3) S (4) F

12. Electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order

(1) C, N, Si, P (2) N, Si, C, P (3) Si, P, C, N (4) P, Si, N, C

13. Most electronegative among halogens is

(1) F (2) Cl (3) Br (4) I

14. An atom of an element has electronic configuration 2, 8, 1. Which of the following statement is
correct?
(1) The valency of element is 7 (2) The element exists as a triatomic molecule
(3) The element is metalloid (4) The element forms basic oxide

15. Select the element of positive electron gain enthalpy

(1) Li (2) Na (3) P (4) He

133
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-15 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Element X is strongly electronegative and Y is strongly electropositive. Both are univalent. The

compound formed would be

(1) X+Y– (2) X - Y (3) Y⊕XΘ (4) X → Y

2. Most favourable conditions for covalent bond formation are

(1) Low charge on ions, large cation, large anion

(2) Low charge on ions, large cation, small anion

(3) High charge on ions, large cation, small anion

(4) High charge on ions, small cation, large anion

3. An electrovalent compound does not exhibit space isomerism because of

(1) Presence of oppositely charged ions (2) High melting points

(3) Non-directional nature of the bond (4) Crystalline nature

4. The stability of ionic crystal depends principally on

(1) High electron affinity of anion forming species

(2) The lattice energy of crystal

(3) Low I.E. of cation forming species

(4) Low heat of sublimation of cation forming solid

5. Which of the following options is/are true?

(1) Ionic bonds have non-directional nature

(2) Ionic bonds do not show any isomerism

(3) Generally, ionic compounds have high melting points

(4) All are true

134
6. Which of the following will have high lattice energy?

(1) LiCl (2) KCl (3) NaCl (4) CsCl

7. Which of the given molecule contains ionic bond, covalent bond and coordinate bond?

(1) Li2CO3 (2) KCl (3) NH4Cl (4) HCN

Review Your Self

8. With which of the following electronic configuration an atom has the lowest ionization enthalpy?

(1) 1s22s22p3 (2) 1s22s2s2p63s1 (3) 1s22s22p6 (4) 1s22s22p5

9. Ce (z = 58) is a member of

(1) s-block elements (2) p-block elements

(3) d-block elements (4) f-block elements

10. The element having least difference in the values of first and second ionization potential is

(1) Na (2) K (3) Li (4) Mg

11. Which of the following has lowest ionisation energy?

(1) P3– (2) Cl– (3) S2– (4) K+

12. Maximum number of elements which can be placed in 7th period

(1) 18 (2) 32 (3) 50 (4) 86

13. S electrons in Ne are same in number as

(1) p electrons in O (2) d electrons in Fe3+

(3) d electrons in Cr (4) All of these

14. Increase in atomic size down the group is due to

(1) Increase in number of orbit

(2) Increase in number of protons and neutrons

(3) Increase in number of protons

(4) Increase in number of protons, neutrons and electrons

135
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-16 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Which of the following order is incorrect ?

(1) Ionic character = MCl < MCl2 < MCl3
(2) Polarizibility = F– < Cl– < Br– < I–
(3) Polarising power = Na+ < Mg+2 < Al+3
(4) Covalent character = LiF < LiCl < LiBr < Lil

2. Which of the following having maximum covalent character?

(1) NaCl (2) MgCl2 (3) AlCl3 (4) SiCl4

3. Which of the following have maximum and minimum ionic character out of MnO, MnO2, Mn2O7 ?
(1) MnO, Mn2O7 respectively (2) MnO2, Mn2O7 respectively
(3) MnO2, MnO respectively (4) Mn2O7, MnO respectively

4. Ionic potential (φ) of Electropositive element will be highest in which of the following compound:
(1) CsCl (2) MgCl2 (3) AlF3 (4) SF6

5. Which of the following pairs of elements forms a compound with maximum ionic character?
(1) Na and F (2) Cs and F (3) Na and Cl (4) Cs and I

6. Among LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2, MgCl2 the compounds with greatest and least ionic character respectively
are :
(1) LiCl, RbCl (2) RbCl, BeCl 2 (3) RbCl, MgCl 2 (4) MgCl 2 , BeCl 2

Review Your Self

7. The Group number for the Inner transition element is:

(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 8

8. Which is not s–block element :

(1) [Ar]4s2 3d10 4p6 5s1 (2) 1s2 2s2 2p1
(3) 1s2 2s2 (4) [He] 2s2 2p6 3s1

136
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-17 CHEMICAL BONDING

1. Which of the following is maximum soluble in organic solvent?

(1) LiF (2) LiCl (3) LiBr (4) LiI

2. Among the following metal halides, the one which is soluble in ethanol is?
(1) BaCl2 (2) MgCl2 (3) CaCl2 (4) SrCl2

3. Which of the following is most soluble in water.

(1) Li2O (2) Na2O (3) K2O (4) Cs2O

4. Which of the following is least soluble in water?

(1) AgF (2) AgCl (3) AgBr (4) AgI

5. The hydration energy of Mg2+ ions is higher than that of:

(1) Al3+ (2) Be2+ (3) Na+ (4) None of these

6. The right order of the solubility of sulphates of alkaline earth metals is:
(1) Be > Ca > Mg > Ba > Sr (2) Mg > Be > Ba > Ca > Sr
(3) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba (4) Mg > Ca > Ba > Be > Sr

Review Your Self

7. The set representing the correct order of first ionisation potential is:
(1) K > Na > Li (2) Be > Mg > Ca
(3) B > C > N (4) Ge > Si > C

8. What is the Atomic number of element. Which belongs to fifth period and Group-16?
(1) 50 (2) 34 (3) 52 (4) 53

9. Identify the block to which an element with electronic configuration [Kr] 4d10, 4f14, 5s2 5p6 5d1, 6s2
belongs to:
(1) s-block (2) p-block (3) d-block (4) f-block

137
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-1 THE P-BLOCK ELEMENTS

1. For BF3 molecule which of the following is true?

(1) B-atom is sp2 hybridised

(2) There is pπ-pπ back bonding in this molecule

(3) Observed B–F bond length is found to be less than expected bond length

(4) All

2. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) BF3 is weaker lewis acid than BBr3

(2) BF3 has greater extent of back bonding than BBr3

(3) N(CH3)3 is weaker lewis base than N(SiH3)3

(4) None

3. Back bonding is observed in:-

(1) (CH3)3N (2) H3Si–N=C=O (3) O(CH3)2 (4) P(SiH3)3

4. In which of the following back bonding is absent

Θ
(1) P(SiH3)3 (2) N(SiH3)3 (3) BF3 (4) CCl 3

5. In which of the following compounds observed bond angle is found to be greater than expected but
not due to back bonding ?
(1) N(SiH3)3 (2) BCl3 (3) O(CH3)2 (4) O(SiH3)2

6. Which of the following always change due to back bonding ?

(1) Bond angle (2) Hybridisation of central atom
(3) Geometry (4) Bond length

138
7. Strongest B-F bond present in:-
(1) BF4– (2) H3N → BF3 (3) BF3 (4) F3B ← NMe3

8. Pπ–dπ Back bonding present in:-

(1) H3BO3 (2) B3N3H6 (3) H3C–N=C=0 (4) H3Si–N=C=0

9. Which is the correct order of Lewis basicity:-

•• ••
(1) N(CH3 )3 < N (SiH3)3 (2) N(CH3 )3 > N (SiH3)3

•• ••
(3) N(CH3 )3 = N (SiH3)3 (4) (CH3)2O < (SiH3)2O

10. Which of the following having highest Lewis acidic character:-

(1) BeF2 (2) BeCl2 (3) BeBr2 (4) BeI2

11. Which of the following statements is true ?

(1) (SiH3)3 N is more basic than (CH3)3 N.
(2) Molecular geometries of both (CH3)3N and (SiH3)3 N are trigonal planar.
(3) (CH3)3N is more basic than (SiH3)3N
(4) For ozone molecule, one oxygen-oxygen bond is stronger than the other oxygen-oxygen bond.

Review Yourself
12. Which of the following options is/are true?
(1) Ionic bonds have non-directional nature
(2) Ionic bonds do not show any isomerism
(3) Generally, ionic compounds have high melting points
(4) All are true

13. An example of non polar molecule is:-

(1) BF3 (2) CIF3 (3) PCl3 (4) SO2

14. Which molecule has the largest dipole moment?

(1) HCl (2) HBr (3) HI (4) HF

15. Bond order of B2 and its magnetic property is

(1) 1 and Diamagnetic (2) 2 and Paramagnetic
(3) 1 and Paramagnetic (4) 2 and paramagnetic

139
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-2 THE P-BLOCK ELEMENTS

1. The structure of diborane (B2H6) contains:

(1) Four 2c-2e bonds and four 3c-2e bonds
(2) Two 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-3e bonds
(3) Two 2c-2e bonds and four 2c-2e bonds
(4) Four 2c-2e bonds and two 3c-2e bonds

2. In B2H6 :
(1) There is a direct boron-boron bond.
(2) The structure is similar to that of C2H6.
(3) The boron atoms are linked through hydrogen bridges.
(4) All the atoms are in one plane.

3. Which is not true about B2H6

(1) Both 'B' atoms are sp3 hybridised
(2) Maximum six atoms are in same plane in structure of B2H6
(3) Four bridge hydrogen present in B2H6
(4) There are two, three centre two electron bonds

4. Which of the following do not from dimer

(1) BF3 (2) AlF3 (3) BBr3 (4) All of these

5. Hybridization state of 'I' In I2Cl6 is:-

(1) sp3d2 (2) sp3 (3) sp3d (4) sp3d3

6. Which of the following species in Non planar

(1) (BeCl2)2 (2) (BeH2)η (3) I2Cl6 (4) (BeH2)2

7. No. of 3C–4e– bond in Al2Cl6 and 2C–2e– bond in B2H6 are respectively :-
(1) 2, 4 (2) 4, 2 (3) 2, 2 (4) 4, 4

8. In B2H6, Substitution Reaction takes place then maximum no. of Hydrogen atom will be substituted?
(1) 2 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 5

140
9. Which of following is Examples of Banana bonding?
(1) B2H6 (2) (BeH2)η (3) Ga2(CH3)6 (4) All of these

10. Assertion : Diborane is an electron deficient hydride.

Reason : its contains 3c-2e bonds
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Review Your Self

11. The IP1, IP2, IP3, IP4, and IP5, of an element are 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 45.8, 162.2 eV respectively the element

is likely to be-

(1) Na (2) Si (3) F (4) Ca

12. Electronic configuration of species M2+ is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6 and its atomic weight is 56 The

number of neutrons in the nucleus of species M is:

(1) 32 (2) 36 (3) 30 (4) 28

13. Hypervalent species among the following is

(1) BF3 (2) CO2 (3) SiF4 (4) XeF6

14. Which of the following species not exists?

(1) BF3 (2) NF3 (3) PF5 (4) NF6

15. In an octahedral structure, the pair of d-orbitals involved in sp3d2 hybridization is

(1) dxy & d 2 2 (2) d 2 2 & d 2 (3) dz2 & dxz (4) dxy & dzx
x −y x −y z

141
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-3 THE P-BLOCK ELEMENTS

1. The correct code for stability, of oxidation states for given cations is :
(i) Pb2+ > Pb4+, Tl+ > Tl3+ (ii) Bi3+ < Sb3+, Sn2+ < Sn4+
(iii) Pb2+ > Pb4+, Bi3+ > Bi5+ (iv) T3+ < In3+, Sn2+ > Sn4+
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii) (3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (iii) and (iv)

2. PbI4 does not exist because :

(1) Iodine is not a reactive
(2) Pb(IV) is oxidizing and I– is strong reducing agent
(3) Pb(IV) is more stable than Pb(II)
(4) Pb4+ is not easily formed

3. In view of the signs of ∆rG° for the following reactions:

PbO2 + Pb → 2PbO, ∆rG° < 0
SnO2 + Sn → 2SnO, ∆rG° > 0
Which oxidation states are more characteristic for lead and tin?
(1) For lead +4, for tin +2 (2) For lead +2, for tin +2
(3) For lead +4, for tin +4 (4) For lead +2, for tin +4

4. The ion(s) that act/s as oxidising agent in solution is/are :

(1) Tl+ and Al3+ (2) B3+ and Al3+ (3) Tl3+ only (4) B3+ only

5. The stability of dihalides of Si, Ge, Sn and Pb increases steadily in the sequence:
(1) PbX2 << SnX2 << GeX2 << SiX2 (2) GeX2 << SiX2 << SnX2 << PbX2
(3) SiX2 << GeX2 << PbX2 << SnX2 (4) SiX2 << GeX2 << SnX2 << PbX2

6. Assertion : Pb4+ compounds are stronger oxidizing agents than Sn4+ compounds
Reason : The higher oxidation states for group 14 elements are more stable for the heavier members
of the group due to 'inert pair effect'.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

7. Which stability order is incorrect ?

(1) Pb2+ > Pb4+ (2) Sn2+ > Sn4+ (3) Sn2+ < Pb2+ (4) Sn4+ > Pb4+

8. Which correct order of stability in following

(1) GaCl3 > TlCl3 (2) SnCl4 < PbCl4 (3) TlCl < TlCl3 (4) PbCl2 < pbCl4

142
Review Your Self

9. Compound having sp3d hybridization is

(1) PF5 (2) BF3 (3) SF6 (4) IF7

10. In PO34− ion, number of bond pair and lone pair of electrons on phosphorus atom respectively are
(1) 5, 1 (2) 4, 1 (3) 3, 1 (4) 5, 0

11. Which of the following is correctly matched for hybridization?

Column-I Column-II

(1) sp

(2) sp2

(3) sp3d2

(4) All are correctly matched

12. considering the elements B, C, N, F, and Si the correct order of their non-metallic character is:-
(1) B > C > Si > N > F (2) Si > C > B > N > F
(3) F > N > C > B > Si (4) F > N > C > Si > B

13. The ionization energy of sodium is 495 kJ mol–1 How much energy is needed to convert atoms
present in 2.3 mg of sodium into sodium ions?
(1) 4.95 J (2) 49.5 J (3) 495 J (4) 0.495 J

14. considering the elements B, Al, Mg, and K the correct order of their metallic character is:-
(1) B > Al > Mg > K (2) Al > Mg > B > K
(3) Mg > Al > K > B (4) K > Mg > Al > B

15. Ionization energy of F– is 320 kJ mol–. The electron gain enthalpy of fluorine would be:
(1) –320 kJ mol–1 (2) –160 kJ mol–1 (3) + 320 kJ (4) + 160 kJ mol–1

143
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-4 THE P-BLOCK ELEMENTS

1. Which of the following oxyacid contains both P-H and P-O-P bond?
(1) H4P2O5 (2) H4P2O7 (3) H4P2O6 (4) (HPO3)η

2. In which of the following oxy acids, P–P bonds is present?

(1) Cyclotrimeta phosphoric Acid (HPO3)3
(2) Pyrophosphoric acid (H4P2O7)
(3) Hypophosphoric acid (H4P2O6)
(4) Polymetaphosphoric acid (HPO3)n

3. Pick the incorrect and answer form the choice given below:-
(1) H3PO2 > H3PO3 :- Reducing nature
(2) H3PO3 > H3PO2 :- Basicity
(3) H3PO3 :- Disproportionate on Heating
(4) (HPO3)3 :- Three P-H bond

4. Which of the following is Caro's acid

(1) H2SO4 (2) H2SO3 (3) H2SO5 (4) H2S2O7

5. In which of the following oxy acid prefix “hypo” is used

(1) H2SO3 (2) H3PO2 (3) HOCl (4) B & C Both

6. Metaphosphoric acid exits in

(1) Polymeric form (2) Monomeric form
(3) Dimeric form (4) All form

7. Which of the following do not have peroxide linkage (–O–O– linkage)

(1) H2SO5 (2) H2S2O8 (3) H2O2 (4) H2S2O7

8. In Which of the following oxy acid prefix “per” can be used

(1) HNO4 (2) H2SO5 (3) H2S2O8 (4) All

9. Hypophosphoric acid is having ________ number of replaceable H-atom.

(1) Four (2) Two (3) Three (4) Five

144
10. Dithionous acid in the following compound is: –
(1) H2SO5 (2) H2S2O4 (3) H2SO5 (4) H2S2O3

11. Pyro acid can’t be formed by :-

(1) HClO4 (2) H2SO4 (3) H3PO4 (4) H3PO3

12. How many P–OH bond in pyrophosphoric acid?

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

13. Which is/are wrong about P4O10 Molecule:-

(1) Each 'P' atom can be considered to be sp3 Hybridised
(2) The are six P–O–P bonds in the molecule
(3) P–O–P Angle is 180°
(4) There are two types of bond length

14. Which of the following is mixed anhydrides :-

(1) Cl2O6 (2) P4O10 (3) SO3 (4) SO2

15. The number of P-O-P bonds in cyclic trimetaphosphoric acid is :-

(1) Zero (2) Two (3) three (4) four

16. The total number of diprotic acids among the following is :-

H3PO4, H2SO4, H3PO3, H2CO3, H2S2O7, H3BO3, H3PO2, H2CrO4, H2SO3,
(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3

Review Your Self

17. Which of the following is correct molecular orbital representation of π*-molecular orbital?

+ −

+
(1) (2)
− +
−

+ − + +
(3) + + + (4)

18. Electron deficient molecule is

(1) SiH4 (2) H2S (3) BF3 (4) IF7

19. Which of the following have an incorrect order of ionization energy:

(1) Pb (IE) > Sn (IE) (2) Mg (IE) > Al (IE)
(3) Tl (IE) < Ga (IE) (4) In (IE) < Tl (IE)

20. Which of the following is incorrect match?

(1) Z = 48, group = II B, period No. = 5th
(2) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2, group = IIIB, period = 6th
(3) [Rn] 6d2 7s2, group = IVB, period = 7th
(4) Z = 56, group = IIA, period = 6th

145
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-5 THE P-BLOCK ELEMENTS

1. Due to inert pair effect +1 oxidation state is most stable for :

(1) Al (2) Ga (3) In (4) Tl

2. Which molecule does not exist ?

(1) BF4− (2) AIF63– (3) BF63– (4) All

3. Which element is used inmeasurement of very high temperature ?

(1) Carbon (2) Aluminium (3) Galium (4) Mercury

4. B2H6 contain:
(1) 2C, 2e bond (2) 3C, 2e bond (3) Both (4)None

5. Which is acidic oxide ?

(1) B2O3 (2) Al2O3 (3) Ga2O3 (4) In2O3

6. Whose fibers are used to make bullet Proof vest

(1) Boron (2) Aluminium (3) Chromium (4) Carbon

7. Nature of CO and CO2 is :

(1) Acidic and amphoteric respectively (2) Neutral and acidic respectively
(3) Neutral and amphoteric respectively (4) Basic and Acidic respectively

8. Diamond is an example of
(1) molecular solid (2) ionic solid (3) covalent solid (4) metallic solid

9. Fullerenes are only pure form of carbon due to

(1) Cage like molecules (2) Soccer ball structure
(3) Absence of dangling bonds (4) Presence of six membered ring

10. Which is electrical conductor

(1) diamond (2) graphite (3) both (4) none

146
11. Which is amphoteric
(1) SnO2 (2) PbO2 (3) both (4) none

12. Carbon is sp2 hybridised in

(1) diamond and graphite (2) graphite and fullerenes
(3) diamond and fullerenes (4) only diamond

13. Hybridisation of silicon in SiO2 is:

(1) sp (2) sp2 (3) sp3 (4) sp3d

14. Which can show +5 oxidation state

(1) N (2) P (3) As (4) All

15. Reason for anamalous behaviour of nitrogen in its group may be due to
(1) small size (2) high EN
(3) Non availabality of vacant d orbitals (4) All

16. Select incorrect statement regarding P4 molecule

(1) Each P atom is joined with three P-atoms (2) It has angle strain
(3) Phosphours is sp hybridized (4) It contains 4 rings, each of 3 membered

147
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-1 CLASSIFICATION & NOMENCLATURE

O
||
1. How many σ bonds are present in CH3 − C − OH
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9

2. How many π electrons are present in given compound.

NC CN
C=C
NC CN
(1) 2 (2) 9 (3) 18 (4) 1

3. How many σ & π bonds are present in given compound respectively: -

(1) 6, 3 (2) 6, 6 (3) 12, 3 (4) 3, 3

4. The state of hybridization of C2, C3, C5 and C6 of the given compound is in the following sequence: -

CH3 CH3
| |
CH3  C  CH = CH  CH  C ≡ CH
7 |6 5 4 3 2 1

CH3

(1) sp, sp3, sp2 and sp3 (2) sp, sp2, sp2 and sp3

(3) sp, sp2, sp3 and sp2 (4) sp3, sp2, sp2 and sp

5. In which of the following, all carbon atoms are collinear: -

(1) CH3–CH=CH2 (2) CH3–C≡C–CH3

(3) CH≡C–CH=CH2 (4) CH3–CH2–CH3

6. How many 1°C, 2°C, 3°C, & 4°C present in given compound respectively: -
CH3

CH3  C  CH2  CH  CH3 (Isooctane)
 
CH3 CH3

(1) 5, 1, 1, 1 (2) 5, 2, 1, 0 (3) 2, 3, 2, 1 (4) 5, 1, 2, 0

148
 CH3

7. Number of 1°H, 2°H, & 3°H present in (mesitylene) respectively are:

H3 C CH3
(1) 9, 0, 0 (2) 9, 6, 3 (3) 9, 3, 0 (4) 9, 6, 0

8. Which of the following statement is/are true about given compound.

O
||
CH3  CH = CH  C  C ≡ C  C  CH2  CN
||
NH

(a) Double bond = 3 (b) Olefinic bond = 1

(c) Triple bond = 1 (d) Acetylenic bond = 1

(1) a, b, c, d (2) a, b, d (3) b, c, d (4) a, c, d

9. Which of the following is/are unsaturated compound: -

O
||
(1) CH3  CH2  C  OH
(2) CH3  CH2  C ≡ N
(3) CH2 = CH  CH2  CH3 (4) All

10. Which of the following is Homocyclic organic compound: -

(1) Pyrrole (2) Benzene (3) Furan (4) Pyridine

11. Maximum number of hetero atoms are present is: -

H NO2
|
N
(1) (2) (3) (4)
N O O2N NO2

12. Which one is not correct for a homologous series: -

(1) All members have a same general formula
(2) All members have same chemical properties
(3) All members have same physical properties
(4) All members have same functional group

13. Number of C – atoms in 3rd member of ester homologous series are: -

(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 6

14. Molecular formula of 2nd member of alkenyne homologous series is: -

(1) C4H4 (2) C5H8 (3) C5H6 (4) C4 H6

149
15. Which of the following pair is homologue of each other.
H
| NH2
(1) N & (2) CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3 & CH3–O–CH2–CH2–CH3

O O
OH H
(3) & (4) &
O H
O O

16. Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) 1°, 2° & 3° alcohol are considered as same functional group.
(2) 1°, 2° & 3° amine have different chemical properties.
(3) Alcohol and phenol are different functional group.
(4) All of the above.

17. The general formula for carboxylic acid is: -

(1) CnH2n+2O (2) CnH2nO (3) CnH2nO2 (4) CnH2n+2O2

18. The molecular formula C4H8O can represent.

(1) Aldehyde (2) Ketone (3) Acid (4) Both of 1 & 2

CH3 CH3
| |
19. A ⇒ H3C – C – OH B ⇒ H3C – C – NH2 A & B are respectively: -
| |
CH3 CH3

(1) Tertiary alcohol, tertiary amine

(2) Tertiary alcohol, primary amine
(3) Primary alcohol, tertiary amine
(4) Primary alcohol, primary amine

20. The geometry of the compound is: -

CH2=CH–CH=CH2
(1) Tetrahedral (2) Linear (3) Planar (4) Pyramidal

150
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-2 CLASSIFICATION & NOMENCLATURE

1. Which of the following is tertiary radical: -

(1) CH3–CH– (2) CH2=CH– (3) C6H5– (4) (CH3)3C–

|
CH3

2. Which of the following is secondary radical

CH3
|
(1) CH3–CH–CH2– (2) (3) CH3–CH2– (4) CH3–C–
|
| CH3
(Ph–)
CH3

CH3
|
3. Common name of CH3–C–Cl is:-
|
CH3

(1) Neobutyl chloride (2) Neopentyl chloride

(3) Tert. Butyl chloride (4) Isobutyl chloride

4. The structure of allyl vinyl ether is:

(1) CH2=CH–CH2–O–CH2–CH=CH2 (2) CH2=CH–O–CH2–CH=CH2

(3) CH2=CH–O–CH=CH2 (4) CH3–CH=CH–O–CH=CH2

5. Neopentyl radical is: -

(1) Tertiary (2) Primary (3) Secondary (4) Quaternary

151
6. Identify the structure of Ethyl methyl ketone.

O O O
Et
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Me
O

7. Common name of CH2=CH–CN

(1) Vinyl Cyanide (2) Acrylonitrile (3) Ethyl cyanide (4) Both (1) & (2)

8. Structure of Isopropyl formate is: -

CH3–CH–C–O–CH3 H–C–O–CH–CH3
(1) | ‖ (2)
‖ |
CH3 O O CH3

CH3–CH–C–O–H CH3–C–O–CH–CH3
(3) | ‖ (4) ‖ |
CH3 O O CH3

O O
‖ ‖
9. Common name of CH3–C–O–C–CH3 is: -

(1) Ethanoic anhydride (2) Butyric anhydride

(3) Acetic anhydride (4) Formic anhydride

10. Derived name of Neopentyl alcohol is: -

(1) tert-Butyl carbinol (2) n-Butyl carbinol

(3) Isopropyl carbinol (4) Ethyl methyl carbinol

152
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-3 CLASSIFICATION & NOMENCLATURE

1. Which of the following functional group is not present in given compound:-

O O
‖ ‖
H2 N

H OCH3
‖ ‖
O O

(1) Ester (2) Amide (3) Amine (4) Aldehyde

2. Which of the following selected principal carbon chain (PCC) is correct: -

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

3. Which of the following has correct numbering according to IUPAC:-

1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
(1) CH3 – CH – CH2- CH2 (2) CH2 = CH – CH – CH3
| | |
Br Cl OH

1 2 3 4 5 1 2 3 4 5
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – C ≡ CH (4) CH2 = CH – CH2 – C ≡ CH

4. Which of the following has correct numbering according to IUPAC :-

4 3 2 1
CH3 – CH – CH – CH3 CH2
1 2 ‖3 4 5
(1) | | (2) CH3 – C – C – CH2 – CH3
Br Cl ‖
CH2

4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5
(3) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3 (4) CH3 – CH – CH – CH2 – CH3
| | | |
OH Cl Cl Br

153
5. The IUPAC name for the given structure is: -
CH3
|
CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH – CH2 – CH3
|
H3C – CH – CH3

(1) 3–Isopropyl–4–methylhexane (2) 4–Isopropyl–3–methylhexane

(3) 3–Ethyl–2,5–dimethylhexane (4) 2–Ethyl–3–isopropylpentane

6. IUPAC name of compound is :-

CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH – CH3
| |
CH2CH3 OH

(1) 4–Methyl–3–hexanol (2) Heptanol

(3) 4–Methyl–2–hexanol (4) 4–Ethylpentan–2–ol

7. The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional group in the IUPAC system of
nomenclature:-
(1) −CONH2 , −CHO, −SO3H, −COOH (2) −COOH, −SO3H, −CONH2 , −CHO

(3) −SO3H, −COOH, −CONH2 , −CHO (4) −CHO, −COOH, −SO3H, −CONH2

8. In which of the following compound acetylinic bond may be present:

(1) C5H12 (2) C4H8 (3) C6H12 (4) C6H10

9. The correct IUPAC name of isooctane is :-

(1) 2,4,4-Trimethylpentane (2) 2,2,4-Trimethylpentane
(3) 2,2,4-Trimethylbutane (4) 2,4-Dimethylpentane

10. IUPAC name of the following compound is:-

OH

(1) 1,3–Dimethylhex–4–en–1–ol (2) 4,6–Dimethylhex–4–en–6–ol

(3) 4–Methylhept–2–en–6–ol (4) 4–Methylhept–5–en–2–ol

154
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-4 CLASSIFICATION & NOMENCLATURE

1. What is the correct IUPAC name of the following?

CH3 – CH = CH – CH – CH2 – CH3

|
CN

(1) 4–Cyanohex–2–ene (2) Hex–4–ene–3–nitrile

(3) 2–Ethylpent–3–enenitrile (4) 2–(Prop–1–enyl)butanenitrile

2. Select the incorrect match of IUPAC name with following structure:

Me Et
(2) H (2–Ethylpent–3–enal)
(1) (2-Ethyl-4-methylpentane)

(3) CH3COOMe (Methylethanoate) (4) HC≡C–CH=CH–CH3 (Pent–3-en–1–yne)

O
3. The IUPAC name of CH3–C–CH–CH3 is:
CH3

(1) 2–Methylbutan–3–one (2) 3–Methylbutan–2–al

(3) 2–Methylbutan–3–al (4) 3–Methylbutan–2–one

4. The IUPAC name of : CH3–CH2–CH–COOC2H5

|
CH3

(1) 2–Methyl–ethylpropanoate (2) Ethyl–3–ethyl acetate

(3) Ethyl–2–methylbutanoate (4) 2–Methylbutanoic acid ethylester

155
 H
|
5. The IUPAC name of compound is: HOOC–C–COOH
|
COOH

(1) Tricarboxy methane (2) 2-Carboxypropanoic acid

(3) Tributanoic acid (4) Methanetricarboxylic acid

6. The IUPAC name of the structure is:

Me

Me Me
Me Me

(1) 2,4,5–Triethyl–3–nonene (2) 5,6–Diethyl–2–methyl–4–decene

(3) 2,4,5–Triethyl–3–octene (4) 3–Ethyl–5–methyl–3–heptane

HO
7. has the IUPAC name: -

(1) 3,4–Dimethylpent–1–en–3–ol (2) Isopropyl 3–methyl vinyl carbinol

(3) 2,3–Dimethylpent–4–en–3–ol (4) 1–Vinyl–1,2–dimethylpropanol

8. Which of the following pairs of trivial/common names and IUPAC name are incorrectly matched

(1) Isohexane 2–Methylhexane

(2) Isooctane 2,2,4–Trimethylpentane

(3) Isobutyraldehyde 2–Methylpropanal

(4) Isobutylene 2–Methylpropene

9. Correct IUPAC name is:

(1) 3–Methyl–2–ethylpentane (2) 2–Ethyl–3–methylpentane

(3) 3–Ethyl–2–methylpentane (4) 2–Ethyl–2–methylpentane

156
 O O
10. The IUPAC name of is:
O H

(1) Acetic anhydride (2) Formyl ethanoate

(3) Butane–2,4–dione (4) Ethanoic methanoic anhydride

O
||
11. Select the correct IUPAC name of the following compound NC − CH2 − CH2 − C − OH

(1) 3–Carboxypropanenitrile (2) 4–Carboxypropanenitrile

(3) 3–Cyanopropanoic acid (4) 4–Cyanopropanoic acid

12. The IUPAC name of given compound is: CH3 -CH2 -N-CH2 -CH3
|
CH3

(1) N–Methyl–N–ethylethylamine (2) N–Ethyl–N–methylethanamine

(3) Methyldiethylamine (4) Diethylmethylamine

13. The IUPAC name for CH3–C–NH2 and CH3–C–Cl are:

‖ ‖
O O

(1) 1–Amino–1–oxoethane, 1–chloroethanal

(2) 1–Aminoethanal, acetoylchloride

(3) 1–Oxoethanamine, ethanoylchloride

(4) Ethanamide, Ethanoylchloride

14. The number of carbon atoms in the principal carbon chain (PCC) of the given compound are:

CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – C – COOH

‖
NC – C – CH2–CH3

(1) 7 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 6

157
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-5 CLASSIFICATION & NOMENCLATURE

1. Which of the following name will be incorrect?

(1) 3,6–Dimethylcyclohexene (2) 1,6–Dimethylcyclohexene

(3) 6,6–Dimethylcyclohexene (4) 1,5–Dimethylcyclohexene

HO CH3
2. The IUPAC name of given compound is

(1) 3–Methylcyclopentanol (2) 4–Methylcyclopentanol

(3) 1–Hydroxy–3–methylcyclopentane (4) None of these

CH3

3. The IUPAC name of is: -

CH2CH3

(1) 1-Methyl-5-ethylcyclohex-2-ene (2) 5-Ethyl-3-methylcyclohex-1-ene

(3) 4-Ethyl-6-methylcyclohex-1-ene (4) 1-Ethyl-5-methylcyclohex-3-ene

4. The IUPAC name of the given compound is: -

(1) Octylcyclopentane (2) 3-Cyclopentyloctane

(3) Cyclopentaneoctane (4) 6-Cyclopentyloctane

158
 H
5. The correct name for C=O is:

OH

(1) 2-Hydroxycyclopentanal (2) 2-Formyl-1-hydroxycyclopentane

(3) 2-Hydroxycyclopentanecarbaldehyde (4) Cyclopentane-2-ol-1-al

OH O

6. The IUPAC name of OH is:

(1) 2-Carboxyphenol (2) 2-Hydroxybenzoic acid

(3) 1-Carboxy-2-hydroxybenzene (4) (2-Hydroxyphenyl)methanoic acid

7. The IUPAC name of H2N OCH3 is: -

(1) 1-Methoxy-4-aminobenzene (2) Aminophenyl methyl ether
(3) 4-Methoxyaniline (4) 4-Aminoanisol

8. Which of the following has wrong IUPAC name

Me Et
(1) 5-Ethyl-1-methylcyclohexene

COOH

(2) Benzenecarboxylic acid

Cl
Cl
(3) 1,6-Dichlorocyclohexene

OH
(4) 2-Methylcyclopent-4-en-1-ol
CH3

9. The IUPAC name for:

Cl
NO2

CH3
(1) 1-Chloro-2-nitro-4-methylbenzene (2) 1-Chloro-4-methyl-2-nitrobenzene
(3) 2-Chloro-1-nitro-5-methylbenzene (4) m-Nitro-p-chlorotoluene

10. Give IUPAC name of the following compound

CH2CHO
Br

(1) 2-(2-Bromophenyl)ethanal (2) 2-Bromophenylethanal

(3) 2-Bromobenzeneethanal (4) Bromobenzenecarbaldehyde

159
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-1 ISOMERISM

1. 1,2-Epoxy propane and Allyl alcohol are:

(1) Position isomers (2) Functional group isomers

(3) Chain isomers (4) Metamers

2. Minimum number of carbon atoms required by an alkane, alkene and alkyne to show chain

isomerism respectively are:

(1) 4,4,4 (2) 4,3,3 (3) 4,5,4 (4) 4,4,5

3. The number of aldehydes and ketones with formula C5H10O are (structural isomers)

(1) 7 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 8

4. How many structural isomers are possible for the formula C4H8

(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 4

5. Total number of ethers having molecular formula C4H10O are (structural only) :

(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 1

6. Total number of different isomeric amines corresponding to the molecular formula C4H11N

(structural only) :

(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 5 (4) 2

7. The number of structural isomers for C5H10 are :

(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 10

8. The formula C3H6O2 represents

(1) Methylethanoate (2) Propanoic acid (3) Ethylmethanoate (4) All of the above.

9. Number of structural isomers of C6H14 are :-

(1) 6 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3

160
10. Which of the following compound is isomeric with propanoic acid :-

(1) CH3–C–OC2H5 (2) CH2–CH2–C–H

O OH O
(3) CH3–CH(OH)–CH3 (4) CH3O–CH2–OH

11. Total number of primary alcohols having molecular formula C5H12O (Excluding stereoisomer)

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6

12. The minimum number of carbon atoms in ketone to show metamerism: -

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

13. Which are metamers :-

CH3
(1) CH3–O–CH2CH2CH3, CH3–O–CH
CH3
(2) C2H5–O–C2H5, CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(3) CH3–O–C2H5, CH3–CH2–O–CH3

(4) CH3–C–CH3, CH3–CH2–C–H

O O

CH3 OH

14. CH2=CH–CH2–OCH3
O
(I) (II) (III)

Which among these are structural isomers?

(1) I and II only (2) I and III only (3) II and III only (4) All of these

15. How many position isomers are possible for dichlorobenzene?

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5

161
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-2 ISOMERISM

1. Which of the following is not isomeric with Propanal.

O
CH2 − CH =
CH2
(1) (2) | (3) (4) CH3 − O − CH2 − CH3
OH
O

2. Which of the following pair is isomer of each other.

O
||
(1) CH2 = CH − CH3 & CH3 − C ≡ CH (2) CH2= CH − CH= O & CH3 − C− CH3
(3) CH3 − CH2 − Cl& CH3 − CH2 − Br (4) &

3. Incorrect statement is: -

(1) Two or more than two compound which have same molecular formula but different physical or
chemical or both properties are known as isomers.
(2) Two homologue can not be isomers.
(3) Isomers have different molecular formula
(4) Stereoisomers have same structural formula but different arrangement of atom or group in
space.

O
4. O
(A) (B)

(A) and (B) are:

(1) Chain isomers (2) Position isomers
(3) Metamers (4) Functional group isomers

5. CH3CHOHCH2CHO and CH3CH2CH2COOH constitute a pair of: -

(1) Position isomers (2) Metamers
(3) Optical isomers (4) Functional group isomers

6. Compound CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − C ≡ CH and show.

(1) Position isomers (2) Chain isomers

(3) Ring chain isomers (4) All of these

162
7. o-Cresol and benzyl alcohol are:
(1) Functional group isomers (2) Position isomers
(3) Chain isomers (4) Metamers

8. CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CN and CH3 − CH − CH3 are called as:

|
CN
(1) Position isomers (2) Chain isomers
(3) Functional group isomers (4) Metamers

O O
|| ||
9. Compound CH3 − CH2 − C − HN − CH3 and CH3 − C − NH − CH2 − CH3 are:
(1) Functional group isomers (2) Position isomers
(3) Metamers (4) All of these

10. Which of the following compound is not isomer of C4H6.

(1) CH2 = CH − CH = CH2 (2)

(3) CH ≡ C − CH =
CH2 (4)

11. The minimum number of carbon atoms present in an organic compound to show chain isomerism
is
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 4

12. The minimum number of carbon atoms present in an organic compound to be able to show position
isomerism is:
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5

13. CH3–NH–C2H5 and (CH3)3N show which type of isomerism:

(1) Position isomerism (2) Functional group isomerism
(3) Chain isomerism (4) None of these

14. The minimum number of carbon atoms in ketone to show position isomerism.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

15. Structures CH3–CH=CH–CH3 and CH3–C=CH2 are:-

CH3
(1) Chain isomers (2) Position isomers (3) Metamers (4) Not isomers

163
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-3 ISOMERISM

1. The two structures (i) and (ii) represent

CH3 CH3

H H H H

(i) (ii) H C H
H3C CH3 3

H CH3

(1) Conformational isomers (2) Stereoisomers

(3) Constitutional isomers (4) Identical

2. In which of the following has minimum torsional strain and minimum Van der Waals strain?
CH3
CH3
H CH3 H

(i) CH3 (ii) H CH3

CH
H CH3 3
CH3
CH3
CH3
H CH3
H

(iii) H (iv) H CH3

CH
H CH3 3
CH3

3. The dihedral angle between two methyl groups in partially eclipsed conformation of n-butane is
(1) 180° (2) 120°
(3) 90° (4) 109°28'

4. Which of the following is most stable?

COOH COOH

H NH2 H H

(1) (2)
H H H H
H NH2
COOH COOH
NH2 H

(3) (4)
H H
H H H H NH2 H

164
5. Most stable conformation of CH2 —CH2
| |
Cl Cl

Cl Cl Cl
Cl
Cl H Cl H H Cl H

H H H H H H
H
H HH H Cl H
(1) (2) (3) (4)

6. Which of the following statements about conformers of ethane is/are correct?

(1) The energy difference between the two extreme forms is of the order of 12.5 kJ mol–1 in ethane.
(2) The energy difference between two extreme forms of ethane is overcome through
intermolecular collisions.
(3) Conformers can not be separated at room temperature.
(4) All of these

7. Dihedral angle of most stable conformer of ethane is:

(1) 120° (2) 180° (3) 60° (4) 0°

8. In which of the following compound gauche conformation is more stable than anti conformation:
CH2 —CH2 CH2 — CH2 CH2 — CH2
| | | | | |
(a) OH OH (b) ⊕NR COOΘ (c) NO COOH
3 2

CH2 —CH2 CH2 — CH2

| | | |
(d) Cl (e) COOH COOH
Cl

(1) a, b, c only (2) a, b, c, e (3) a, b, d, e only (4) a, b, c, d, e

9. Which of the following compounds will exhibit conformational isomerism?

(1) CH2 = C = CH2 (2) (3) (4) All of these

10. Which of the following compound will exhibit conformational isomerism?

(1) CH2 = CH2 (2) CH4 (3) CH3Cl (4) None of these

11. Which one of the following is the most stable conformation of 2, 3-butanediol?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

165
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-4 ISOMERISM

1. Geometrical isomers arises due to

(1) Free rotation about a bond
(2) Restricted rotation about a bond
(3) Different connectivity of atoms
(4) Same arrangement of atoms/groups in 3-D-space (same spatial arrangement of atoms and
groups)

2. All alkenes do not exhibit geometrical isomerism. For an alkene to exhibit geometrical isomerism,
which of the following conditions is required?
(1) Two atoms or groups bonded with each C of C=C bond should be same.
(2) Two atoms or groups bonded with each C of C=C bond should not be same.
(3) C=C bond should bear at least three identical groups.
(4) C=C bond should bear all four atoms or groups identical.

3. Which of these compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism?

(1) (2) (3) (4) All of these

4. Among these groups, which of the following orders is the correct priority order in accordance with
sequence rule (CIP rule)?
–CHO –COOH –CN –NO2
I II III IV
(1) IV > III > II > I (2) IV > II > I > III (3) II > I > III > IV (4) III > IV > II > I

5. Assign the configuration E/Z to the following compounds:–

F
Cl NH2 C Br
(1) C=C (2) Cl
Cl C
O2N CH3

F NH2 NC CHO
(3) C=C (4) C=C
HSH2C OCH3 HO—C CH2–OH

166
6. To apply sequence rule (CIP rule), —CN group should be written as

C C N C N

(1) –C≡N (2) C N (3) C N (4) C N

N C N

7. Geometrical isomerism is shown by:

Cl Me
(1) C (2) HN = NH
Cl Me

(3) (4) All of the above

8. Which of the following compound can show geometrical isomerism

(1) Pent–3–en–1–yne (2) Acetaldoxime

(3) 1,2–Dimethylcyclopropane (4) All of the above

9. Which statement is incorrect?

(1) cis–isomer of symmetrical alkene has definite dipole moment (µ≠0)

(2) trans–isomer of symmetrical alkene has zero dipole moment (µ=0)

(3) The trans–isomer has higher melting point than the cis–isomer due to symmetrical nature and

more close packing

CH3CH2 H CH3CH2 CH3

(4) C=C is more polar than C=C
H CH3 H H

10. which of the following statement(s) is (are) incorrect?

X Y

(1) X is cis and Y is trans (2) X is Z and Y is E

(3) X is trans and Y is cis (4) X and Y are diastereomers

167
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-5 ISOMERISM

1. Which of the following compound show geometrical isomerism

(1) 1,1-Diphenyl-1-butene (2) 1,1-Diphenyl-2-butene
(3) 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene (4) 3-Phenyl-1-butene

2. Which of the following show geometrical isomerism :

(i) CH3–CH2–CH=N–OH (ii) H2C=N–OH
H3C H3C
C=N–OH C=N–OH
(iii) (iv)
H3C H3CH2C
(1) i, iv (2) i, iii (4) iii, iv (4) ii, iv

3. Which is a pair of geometrical isomers :

Cl Me Br H Ph OH Me
(1) C=C and C=C (2) C=N and C=N
Br H Cl Me Me Ph OH

Me Ph H Ph
Br and
(3) C=C and C=C (4) Br Br Br
H Me Me Me

4. Fumaric acid shows geometrical isomerism with

(1) Malonic acid (2) Maleic acid (3) Malic acid (4) Succinic acid

5. The number of geometrical isomers for the given compound are :-

CH3–CH=CH–CH=CH–CH2–CH3
(1) 2 (2) 5 (3) 4 (4) 3

6. Which of the following statement is incorrect for following compounds are :-

H3C CH3 H3C H
(a) C=C (b) C=C
H H H CH3
(1) A is z and b is E (2) Boiling point : a > b
(3) Melting point : b > a (4) Polarity : b > a

168
7. The geometrical isomerism is shown by
CH2 CH2 CHC CHCl
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Me Me
Me Me

8. Which of the following compounds will not show geometrical isomerism :-

H3C CH3
(a) C=C (b) H3C–C≡C–CH3
Me H

Cl
(c) (d) H2C=CH–CH2–CH=CH2
Cl

(1) b, c, d only (3) b, d only (3) a, b, c only (4) a, b, c, d

9. Statement I: Restricted rotation about a bond is the necessary condition for geometrical isomerism.
Statement II: Alkene having different atoms/groups attached to each sp2 hybridised carbon can
have two different orientations about π-bond.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

10. Assign the configuration E/Z to the following compounds:-

CH3
C
H3C H CHO
(1) C=C (2)
DH2C CH3 O

16
HOH2C Ph H H Cl CH3
(3) C=C (4) C=C C=C
18
HOH2C CH=CH2 HOOC C=C Ph
H H

169
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO. 1 GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following is nucleophile

O
⊕
(a) CH2 (b) R–C–N (c) C6H5 – N2 (d) H2O

(1) a, b, d (2) b, d (3) b, c (4) d

2. Inductive effect involves:-

(1) Partial displacement of σ e– (2) Complete delocalisation of σ e–
(3) Partial displacement of π e– (4) Complete delocalization of π e–

3. The number of following group which show -I effect:-

Θ Θ
CH2 , –CH=CH2, – O , –NR2, –NO2,

Θ
–CN, –CH2CH3, –Cl, – COOH, – COO
(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 5

4. Which of the following statement is false:

(1) Inductive effect is a permanent effect operates through σ bond only.
(2) Polarisation of σ bond caused by the polarisation of adjacent σ bond is called Inductive effect.
(3) Inductive effect is distance dependent effect.
(4) Alkyl group in CH3–CH2–CH2–MgBr show +I effect.

5. Which of the following is incorrect order for inductive effect :-

O
(1) –NO2 > – C≡N > –C–OH (–I effect)
O CH3
(2) –CH2 > –C–O > –C–CH3 (+I effect)
CH3
(3) –CT3 > –CD3 > –CH3 (+I effect)

(4) –OH > –OR > Cl (–I effect)

170
6. Which of the following compound is electrophile:

(1) CO2 (2) NH3 (3) H3O⊕ (4)

7. Which of the following stability order is incorrect:

Θ Θ Θ
(1) FΘ > Cl Θ > BrΘ > IΘ (2) FΘ > OH > NH2 > CH3

Θ Θ Θ Θ
(3) IΘ > BrΘ > Cl Θ > FΘ (4) CH2–CH2 > CH2–CH2 > CH2–CH2 > CH2–CH2
F Cl Br I

8. Which of the following statement is/are correct

(a) Reagents attack the reactive site of substrate.

(b) Nucleus seeking species is called nucleophile

(c) A reagent that brings an electron pair to the reactive site is called nucleophile

(d) Electron seeking species is called electrophile

(e) A reagent that takes away an electron pair from reactive site is called electrophile

(1) a, c, e only (2) b, c, d, e only (3) a, b, d only (4) a, b, c, d, e

9. Which of the following intermediate has complete octet.

(1) Carbocation (2) Carbene (3) Carbanion (4) Carbon free radical

Θ
10. CH3 is less stable than

Θ Θ Θ Θ
(1) CH3 – CH2 (2) CH2 – NO2 (3) CH3 – CH – CH3 (4) CH3 – CH – C2H5

171
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO. 2 GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

⊕
1. The number of electrons present in the valance shell of carbon of CH3 CH2 ion bearing +ve charge:-
(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 4

⊕
2. Wrong statement regarding methyl carbonium ion (CH3 ) :-
(1) It is sp2 hybridised.
(2) It is electrophile with sextet of electron.
(3) Vacant orbital is pure p-orbital which is perpendicular to molecular plane.
(4) Vacant orbital is sp2 hybridised.

3. Carbanion is a:-
(1) Base (2) Nucleophile (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above.

4. Mesomeric effect involves:-

(1) Complete delocalisation of σ electrons.
(2) Complete delocalization of π electrons.
(3) Delocatisation of H-atom
(4) Partial delocalization of π electrons.

5.
Θ
Hybridisation of the negatively charged C-atom of given anion is:-
(1) sp3 (2) sp2 (3) sp (4) Unhybridised.

6. Hydrogen attached to sp3 carbon in cyclopentadiene can be easily removed as:-

(1) Hydride ion (2) Hydrogen atom (3) Proton (4) Hydrogen molecule

7. The sum of π electrons in benzene and naphthalene are:-

(1) 16 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 10

172
8. In benzene C–C bond length between all carbons are equal because of:-
(1) Resonance (2) sp2 hybridisation
(3) Inductive effect (4) Isomerism.

9. An aromatic molecule will not:-

(1) Have 4nπ electrons (2) Have (4n+2) π electron
(3) Be planar (4) Be cyclic

10. Identify aromatic, antiaromatic and nonaromatic compounds from following molecules :-

⊕ ⊕

(1) (2)

Θ Θ

(3) (4)

(5) (6)
O

(8)
(7)

⊕
(9) (10)
⊕

Θ
(11) (12)
Θ

(14)
(13)
Θ

H CH2
B
(15) (16)

(17)
N

173
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO. 3 GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

1. In which of the following compounds the carbon marked with asterisk is expected to have greatest

positive charge?
⊕
(1) *CH3 – CH2 – Cl (2) *CH3 – CH2 – Mg Cl– (3) *CH3 – CH2 – Br (4) *CH3 – CH2 – CH3

2. Show the polarisation of carbon-magnesium bond in the following structure.

CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–Mg–X
δ− δ− δ+ δ−
(1) CH3–CH2–CH2– CH2 – Mg – X (2) CH3–CH2–CH2– CH2 – Mg – X

δ+ δ+ δ− δ+
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2– CH2 – Mg – X (4) CH3–CH2–CH2– CH2 – Mg – X

3. Match the intermediates given in Column I with their probable structure in Column II.

Column I Column II

(i) Free radical (a) Trigonal planar

(ii) Carbocation (b) Pyramidal

(iii) Carbanion (c) Linear

(1) (i) → (a); (ii) → (b); (iii) → (b) (2) (i) → (c); (ii) → (b); (iii) → (a)

(3) (i) → (a); (ii) → (a); (iii) → (b) (4) (i) → (a); (ii) → (b); (iii) → (c)

O
Θ Θ
4. (I) –CH3 (II) –C–O (III) –O

Which of these groups has +I effect?

(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) all of these

5. Which of the following groups has +M effect?

(1) –OH (2) –OCH3 (3) –O (4) All of these

174
6.

Which of the following statements is correct for this carbocation?

(1) Positive charge is resonance stabilized because empty orbital is 2p which can overlap with

p-orbitals on adjacent C-atoms.

(2) Positive charge is not resonance stabilized because empty orbital is sp2 which can not overlap

with p-orbitals on adjacent C-atoms.

(3) Positive charge is not resonance stabilized because empty-orbital is sp which cannot overlap

with p-orbital on adjacent C-atoms

(4) Positive charge is not resonance stabilized because empty orbital is sp3 which cannot overlap

with p-orbitals on adjacent C-atoms.

COOH COOH COOH

7.
O
O
I II III

Which of the following orders is correct the strength of these carboxylic acids?

(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) II > I > III (4) II > III > I

8. In which of the following pairs of resonance contributors is the structure on the right a important

contributor?

⊕ •• ⊕ Θ ⊕ •• ⊕ Θ
— C O: ←
(1) H = → H — C ≡ O: (2) CH2 — N ≡ N ←
→ CH
= N N
2 =

⊕ •• ⊕
(3) CH3 — CH — OH ←
→ CH3 — CH= OH (4) All of the above
•• ••

9. Examine the following resonating structures of formic acid and arrange them in decreasing order
Θ Θ ⊕
O O O O
•• ⊕
H—C—OH
••
→ H—C
← O—H ←
→ H—C OH → H—C
← OH
⊕ Θ

of stability: (I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) II > I > III > IV (2) I > II > III > IV (3) III > II > IV > I (4) IV > III > I > II

175
10. Less contributing structure of nitroethene is:
Θ
O O O O
⊕ Θ
(1) CH2 CH—N
⊕
(2) CH2—CH—N
⊕ Θ
(3) CH2—CH—N
⊕ ⊕ ⊕
(4) CH2—CH
⊕
Θ Θ Θ N Θ
O O O O

11. The most stable resonating structure is:

O O O O

NΘ N⊕ N⊕ ⊕
N
Θ

(1) ⊕
(2) (3) (4) Θ

N N⊕ N⊕ N⊕
Θ Θ Θ Θ Θ
O O O O O O O O

12. Most contributing structure in nitroethene is:

O O
⊕ ⊕ Θ ⊕
(1) CH2—CH—N (2) CH2—CH—N
Θ Θ
O O

Θ
O O
Θ ⊕ ⊕ ⊕ ⊕
(3) CH2—CH—N (4) CH2—CH—N
Θ Θ
O O

13. Assertion: Cyclic conjugated compounds having (4n+2) πe– are aromatic.

Reason: Cyclic compounds containing non-planar atom known as non-aromatic.

(1) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.

(2) If both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.

(3) If assertion is correct but reason is wrong.

(4) If assertion and reason both are wrong.

176
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO. 4 GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

1. Which of the following statements is true about hyperconjugation?

(1) Transmittance of substituent effect through π-π conjugation is called hyperconjugation.
(2) Transmittance of substituent effect through σ-π conjugation is called hyperconjugation.
(3) Transmittance of substituent effect through σ-σ conjugation is called hyperconjugation
(4) Both (1) and (2)

2. Which of the following represents the case of hyperconjugation?

CH–CH=CH2 CH2–CH=CH2 CH2–CH=O
CH2 H H
Θ Θ
(1) CH=CH–CH2 (2) CH2=CH–CH2 (3) CH2=CH–OH (4) Both (2) and (3)
⊕
CH2 H⊕

3. Hyperconjugation is possible in
(1) Alkenes (2) Carbon free radical
(3) Carbocations (4) All of these

4. Hyperconjugation occurs in
CH3
(1) CH3–C–CH=CH2 (2) CH3–CH=CH–CH3
CH3

(3) Ph–CH=CH2 (4) ⊕CH3

5. Hyperconjugation occurs in
⊕ ⊕
CH2
(1) (2)

⊕
CH
(3) (4) All of these

177
6. Which of the following statements is true about hyperconjugation?

(1) It is like resonance except that in this case σ-π conjugation occurs but in resonance π-π

conjugation occurs.

(2) Like resonance, hyperconjugation also leads to delocalization of electrons.

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of these

CH3
7. (I) –CH3 (II) –CH2–CH3 (III) –CH
CH3
Which of the following orders is correct for electron-donating power of these alkyl groups through
Hyperconjugation?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) II > I > III (4) I > III > II

8. Correct order of stability is:

(1) 1-butene>trans-2-butene>cis-2-butene
(2) Trans-2-butene>1-butene>cis-2-butene
(3) Trans-2-butene>cis-2-butene>1-butene
(4) Cis-2-butene>trans-2-butene>1-butene

9. Assertion: Resonance which inbolve delocalization of C— H, σ e– known as hyperconjugation.

Reason: Hyperconjugation proceed by ‘H’ of α-C, which is attached with sp2 hybridised ‘C’.
(1) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is correct but reason is wrong.
(4) If assertion and reason both are wrong.

10. Assertion: As number of α-H’ s in alkenes increases their stability also increases.
Reason: Stability of alkene also decided by inductive effect.
(1) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is correct but reason is wrong.
(4) If assertion and reason both are wrong.

178
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO. 5 GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

1. (I) HC≡CH (II) CH3–C≡CH (III) CH3–C≡C–CH3

Which of the following orders is correct for heat of combustion of these alkynes?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) II > I > III (4) III > I > II

CH3 CH3 CH3

2.
CH3 CH3 CH3
I II III
Which of the following orders is correct for heat of hydrogenation of these compounds?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) II > III > I (4) III > I > II

⊕
3. (I) ⊕ (II) ⊕ (III)

Which of the following orders is correct for the stability of these carbocations?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) I > III > II (4) II > I > III
⊕ ⊕ ⊕
O
4.
O
I II III

Which of the following orders is correct for the stability of these carbocations?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) II > I > III (4) II > III > I

Θ Θ Θ
CH2 CH2 CH2

5.
OCH3
OCH3
I II III

Which of the following orders is correct for the stability of these carbanions?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) III > I > II (4) II > I > III

179
 Θ Θ Θ
NO2
6.
NO2
NO2
I II III
Which of the following orders is correct for the stability of these carbanions?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) II > I > III (4) II > III > I

Θ
7.

NO2
Which of the following effects of the nitro group operates on this carbanion?
(1) Only inductive effect (2) Only mesomeric effect
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

Θ
8.
NO2
Which of the following effects of the nitro group operates on this carbanion?
(1) Only inductive effect (2) Only mesomeric effect
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these

Θ Θ Θ
9. (I) C H2 – CH = CH2 (II) C H2 – CH = O (III) C H2 – CH2 – CH3

Which of the following orders is correct for the stability of these carbanions?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) II > I > III (4) II > III > I

10. Which one is most stable free radical?

Me CH2

• •
(1) (2) (3) CH2=CH— CH2 (4) CH3 — C — CH3
|
CH3

11. Which of the following cations is most stable?

⊕
⊕
(1) (2) (3) ⊕ (4)
CH3 CH3 CH3 ⊕ CH3

180
12. Correct decreasing order of stability of following cations is:-
⊕ ⊕ ⊕ ⊕
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2

; ; ; :

OH NH2 CH3 Cl
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(1) P > Q > R > S (2) Q > S > R > P (3) Q > P > S > R (4) Q > P > R > S

13. Correct decreasing order of stability of following cations is:-

⊕ ⊕ ⊕ ⊕
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2
CH3
; ; ; :
CH3
CH3
(P) (Q) (R) (S)

(1) Q > R > P > S (2) P > S > Q > R (3) P > R > Q > S (4) S > R > Q > P

14. Correct decreasing order of stability of following anion is:

Θ Θ Θ Θ
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2

; ; ; :

OCH3 C Cl CH3
O H
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(1) Q > R > S > P (2) R > Q > P > S (3) S > P > R > Q (4) P > Q > R > S

Θ Θ
15. Assertion: C Cl 3 is more stable than CF3

Θ
Reason: In C Cl 3 negative charge of ‘C’ is delocalized to d-orbital of ‘Cl’.

(1) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is correct but reason is wrong.
(4) If assertion and reason both are wrong.

181
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO. 6 GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

CH3
1. CH3–H CH3–CH2–H CH3–C–CH3
H
I II III
Which of the following orders is correct for the energy required for homolytic cleavage of indicated
C-H bonds?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) III > I > II (4) II > I > III

I II III
2.
CH2–H CH2–H
CH2–H

Which of the following orders is correct for the energy required for homolytic cleavage of indicated
C-H bond?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) II > I > III (4) III > I > II

COOH COOH COOH COOH

CH3
3.
CH3
CH3
I II III IV

Which of the following orders is correct for the strength of these carboxylic acids?
(1) II > IV > I > III (2) III > II > I > IV (3) I > II > III > IV (4) II > I > IV > III

4.
N N N
H H
I II III

Which of the following order is correct for the basic strength of these compounds?
(1) I > II > III (2) III > II > I (3) III > I > II (4) II > I > III

182
 NH2
5.

Me Me
NO2
Which of the following effects of –NO2 group operates on –NH2 group in this molecule?
(1) Only –I effect (2) Only +M effect
(3) Only –M effect (4) Both –I and –M effect

6. Arrange the following in correct order of acidic strength:

(I) CH3—NO2 (II) NO2—CH2—NO2 (III) CH3—CH2—NO2 (IV) NO2— CH —NO2
|
NO2
(1) IV > II > I > III (2) IV > II > III > I (3) III > I > II > IV (4) III > I > IV > II

7. Which of the following is more basic than aniline?

(1) Diphenyl amine (2) Triphenyl amine (3) p-nitro aniline (4) Benzyl amine

NH2 NH2 CH2—NH2 NH2

8. ; ; ;

OCH3 CH3 Cl
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
The correct decreasing order of pKb is:
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) III > IV > II > I (3) II > III > IV > I (4) IV > II > I > III

9. Which of the following compounds is most basic?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

10. Which of the following exhibit electromeric effect?

(1) Alkanes (2) Aldehydes (3) Alkyl halides (4) Alkyl amines

11. Shifting of electron of a multiple bond under the influence of a reagent is called:
(1) I-effect (2) M-effect (3) E-effect (4) Non of these

12. Assertion: p-nitrobenzoic acid is more acidic than p-methyl benzoic acid.
Reason: EDG increases acidity of benzoic acid while EWG decreases acidity of benzoic acid.
(1) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is correct but reason is wrong.
(4) If assertion and reason both are wrong.

183
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO. 7 GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

1. The addition of HCl to an alkene proceeds in two steps. The first step is the attack of H+ ion to
C=C portion which can be shown as

(1) H+ C=C (2) H+ C=C

(3) H C=C
+
(4) All of these are possible

2. Which hydrogen in the following compound is most acidic?

O
CH3—CH2—CH2—C—H
4 3 2 1

(1) C1—H (2) C2—H (3) C3—H (4) C4—H

3. Tautomerism is not exhibited by:

(1) –CH=CH–OH (2) O O

(3) O (4) O

O
O
4. Which of the following compounds can exhibit tautomerism?
O O O O

(1) C6H5CHO (2) C6H5–C–CMe3 (3) C6H5–C–CH2–C–H (4) C6H5–C–C6H5

5. The correct statement(s) concerning the structures E, F and G is (are):

H3C O H3C OH H3C CH3

H3C CH3 H3C CH3 H3C OH

(E) (F) (G
(1) E, F and G are resonance structures (2) E, F and E, G are tautomers
(3) F and G are geometrical isomers (4) F and G are diastereomers

184
6. Which one of the following compounds does not show tautomerism?

CH3 O O O

(1) CH3CH2NO2 (2) CH3–C–N=O (3) CH3–NH–C–CH3 (4) CH3–C–CH–C–OC2H5

CH3 CH3

7. Tautomerization is that isomerization which involves.

(1) Change in the position of a H-atom only

(2) Change in the position of a π-bond only

(3) Change in the position of a H-atom as well as change in the position of a π-bond

(4) No change in the position of either a π-bond or a H-atom

8. The tautomer of II is.

O OH O

I II III

(1) I (2) III (3) Both I and III (4) None of these

9. This molecule can be enolized involving

O
Hα

Hβ
Hγ

(1) α-H (2) β-H (3) γ-H (4) Cannot be enolized

10. Which among these can exhibit tautomerism?

O
O
Ph
Ph
I II
(1) I only (2) II only (3) Both I and II (4) None of these

185
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-1 HYDROCARBONS

1. Arrange the following hydrogen halides in order of their decreasing reactivity with propene.

(1) HCl > HBr > HI (2) HBr > HI > HCl (3) HI > HBr > HCl (4) HCl > HI > HBr

2. Name and draw a structural formula for the product of each alkene addition reaction.
CH3 CH3
(a) CH3C = CH2 + HI → (b) + HCl →

3. Arrange the following alkenes in decreasing order of reactivity towards acid-catalysed hydration?

(I) (II) (III) CH2 = CH2

4. Complete the following reactions:

HCl CH2–CH=CH2
HI
(iii) (iv)
Indene

F HCl [H2SO4]
(vii) (viii) + H2O
F F

5. Rank the following carbocations in each set from most stable to least stable:
CH3 + +
(a) (i) CH3CH2CCH3 (ii) CH3CH2 CHCH3 (iii) CH3CH2CH2 CH2
+
+ + +
(b) (i) CH3CHCH2CH2 (ii) CH3CHCH2CH2 (iii) CH3CHCH2CH2
Cl CH3 F

6. (a) How many σ bond orbitals are available for overlap with the vacant p orbital in

(i) isobutyl cation?

(ii) n–butyl cation?

(iii) sec–butyl cation?

(b) Which of the carbocations in part a is most stable ?

186
7. Incorrect statement is:
(1) Alkene & Alkyne can show electrophilic addition reaction.
(2) Alkene can show free radical addition reaction as well as free radical substitution reaction.
(3) Alkene is more reactive than alkyne towards electrophilic addition reaction.
(4) Alkene & Alkyne are electrophilic in nature.

Ph ⊕
H/H2O(1eq.) P
8. (Major)

P should be
HO Ph OH
(1) (2) Ph

OH
Ph Ph
(3) (4)
OH

9. In which of the following reaction product is not formed according to markovnikov's rule?
(1) CH3-CH=CH2 (2) CH3 − C =CH2
|
CH3

(3) CCl3–CH=CH2 (4)

10. Incorrect statement is:

(1) Alkene & alkyne decolourize bromine water solution.
(2) Alkene & alkyne decolourize kMnO4 solution.
(3) Alkane & benzene decolourize bromine water.
(4) Ozonolysis reaction is useful to detecting the position of double bond.

O3
11. A 2CH3–CH=0 A is:
H2O/zn

(1) But–1–ene (2) But–2–ene

(3) But–1–yne (4) But–2–yne

187
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-2 HYDROCARBONS

1. If carbocation formed as intermediate in reaction then

(1) It can rearrangement to attain maximum stability
(2) It can combine to nucleophile
(3) It can also show elimination reaction
(4) All of the above

2. Which of the following carbocation can not show rearrangement phenomena

+ ⊕
⊕
(1) (2) (3) CH3–C=CH2 (4)
+

3. Incorrect statement regarding given reaction:-

Cl
CH2=CH2 
2
→
CCl 4

(1) CH2—CH2 formed as intermediate

⊕
Cl
(2) Cl2 act as electrophile
(3) Geminal dichloride formed as product
(4) This reaction is example of electrophilic addition reaction.

4. Which of the following compound do not react with Br2/CCl4

(1) But-1-ene (2) But-1-yne (3) Cyclopropane (4) Benzene

(I) B H , THF
5. CH3–CH=CH2 
2 6
Θ
→ CH3–CH–CH2
(II) H2O2 / OH
H OH
Which of the following statement is correct about above reaction.
(a) This reaction is acidic hydration of alkene.
(b) This is hydroboration oxidation reaction
(c) 4 member cyclic transition state formed during the reaction
(d) This reaction is example of syn addition mechanism.
(e) Addition of H & OH according to anti markovnikov rule
(f) Carbocation formed as intermediate
(1) b,c,d,f (2) b,c,d,e (3) a,b,c,d,e (4) b,c,d

188
6. Which of the following statement is not correct?
(1) Acidic hydration of alkyne complete with slow rate as compared to alkene
(2) Acidic hydration alkyne give aldehyde or ketone as product
(3) Rate of hydration of alkyne can be increased by catalyst like Hg+2
(4) Propyne give aldehyde as final product with dil. H2SO4/HgSO4.

Reagent
7. OH
??

(i) (CH3COO)2 Hg, H2O

(1) H2O/H+ (2)
(ii) NaBH4
(i) B2H6 / THF
(3) (4) Both (1) & (2)
(ii) H2O2 / OH

H–Br
Major product
8.

H2O/H+ ,,

(i) B2H6/THF
,,
(ii) H2O2/OH

Br2 ,,
CCl4

(i) (CH3COO)2Hg, H2O

,,
(ii) NaBH4

(i) B2H6/THF
Major product
(ii) H2O2/OH
9. CH3–C≡C–H

(i) (AcO)2 Hg, H2O

Major product
(ii) NaBH4

H–Cl
10. CH2=CH–C≡CH  → major product
(1 eq)
(A)
Correct statement is/are:-
(1) A ⇒ CH2=CH–C=CH2
Cl
(2) Chloroprene formed as major product
(3) Polymerisation of chloroprene give synthetic rubber (neoprene)
(4) All of the above

189
11. Match the column if alkene is treated with given reagent.

Reagent Reaction name

(a) H2O/H+ (p) Free radical addition reaction

(b) H–X (q) Hydroboration oxidation

(c) X2/CCl4 (r) Oxymercuration demarcuration

(i) B2H6 /THF

(d) → (s) Hydroboration reduction
(ii) H2O

(i) (CH3COO)2 Hg, H2O

(e)  → (t) Halogenation
(ii) NaBH4

(i) B2H6 /THF

(f) → (u) Hydrohalogenation
(ii) H2O2 /OH

H–Br
(g) → (v) Acidic hydration
(ii) R2O2

12. Match the following if given reagent is treated with ethene

Reagent Product

(a) H–X (p) Alcohol

(b) H2O/H+ (q) Alkane

(c) X2/CCl4 (r) Alkyl halide

(i) B2H6 /THF

(d) → (s) Vicinal dihalide
(ii) H2O

(i) (AcO)2 Hg, H2O

(e) →
(ii) NaBH4

190
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-3 HYDROCARBONS

1. When ethene gas is passed into an aqueous solution containing bromine and sodium chloride. Which
of the following is not formed?
(1) Br (2) Br
Br OH

(3) Br (4) Cl
Cl Cl

2. Complete the following reactions

CH3
(i) Hg(OAc)2,CH3CH2OH
1 BH3.THF CH3–C=CH–CH3 (ii) NaBH4.OH–
(i) 2 H2O2.OH¯.H2O (ii)

(1) BH3.THF
(iii) (2) H2O2. NaOH (iv) HBr
Ph
1.B2D6
(v) Cl HCl (vi) 2.H2O2.OH¯

Me
1. Hg(OAc)2PhOH 1. Hg(OAc)2, H2O
(vii) 2. NaBH4 (viii)
2. NaBH4

3. What alkylborane is formed from hydroboration of each alkene?

(i) (ii)

4. Suggest the reagents for the following conversions.

OH
? ?
(i) (ii)
OH
OH
? ?
(iii) (iv)
OH

191
5. Draw the major product(s) of each reaction, including stereoisomers.

Cl2
(i) Cl2 (ii) H2O

Br2
(iv) (v) (1) BH3
(2) H2O2, HO¯

6. Draw the constitutional isomer formed when the following alkenes are treated with each set of

reagents

(1) H2O, H2SO4;

(2) BH3 followed by H2O2, OH¯

(a) (b) (c)

H–Br
A (major)
7. CH=CH2
H–Br
B (major)
(C6H5CO)2O2

Incorrect statement:

(1) A = Ph–CH–CH3
Br

(2) B = Ph–CH2–CH2
Br

(3) A & B are position isomer of each other

(4) A & B are chain isomer of each other

8. How many Alkene can be taken to form n-butane by hydrogenation method.

(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 4

192
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.- 4 HYDROCARBONS

1. Draw structural formulas for the products of the following ozonolysis reactions and name the new
functional groups formed in each oxidation.

(a)

(b)

2. Draw the structural formula of the alkene that reacts with ozone followed by dimethyl sulfide to
give each product or set of products

(1) (2)

(3)

3. What is X is given reaction?

Alkene

4. Which of the following statement is incorrect

(1) o–xylene gives three products on O3 ozonolysis.
(2) m–xylene gives two products on O3 ozonolysis.
(3) p–xylene gives two products on O3 ozonolysis.
(4) Benzene forms diozonide with ozone

193
5. Predict the major product for each of the following reactions:

KMnO4 1. Hg(OAC)2H2O
NaOH.cold 2.NaBH4
KMnO4.H ⊕
Br2
K2Cr2O7 H2 O
H⊕ Br2
HBr H2.pt
ccl4

6. What product is formed when each alkene is treated with H2 and a Pd catalyst?

(a) (b) (c)

7. Which of the following represents an efficient method for preparing the alcohol shown?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

8. Incorrect statement is:

(1) Alkene & alkyne decolourize bromine water solution.
(2) Alkene & alkyne decolourize kMnO4 solution.
(3) Alkane & benzene decolourize bromine water.
(4) Ozonolysis reaction is useful to detecting the position of double bond.

(I) B H , THF
9. CH3–CH=CH2 
2 6
Θ
→ CH3–CH–CH2
(II) H2O2 / OH
H OH
Which of the following statement is correct about above reaction.
(a) This reaction is acidic hydration of alkene.
(b) This is hydroboration oxidation reaction
(c) 4 member cyclic transition state formed during the reaction
(d) This reaction is example of syn addition mechanism.
(e) Addition of H & OH according to anti markovnikov rule
(f) Carbocation formed as intermediate
(1) b,c,d,f (2) b,c,d,e (3) a,b,c,d,e (4) b,c,d

10. Which of the following compound give only aldehyde as product on ozonolysis.
(1) But–1–ene (2) But–2–ene
(3) Ethene (4) All of the above

194
11. Which of the following alkene give mixture of aldehyde & ketone on ozonolysis.

(1) CH–CH3 (2)

H CH3
(3) CH3–CH=CH–CH3 (4) C C
H H

12. Which of the following statement is correct.

O3
(1) Alkene 
H O/zn
→ carbonyl compound
2

(2) Ozonolysis is highly useful in detecting the position of double bond.

(3) Ozonolysis of alkene involves the addition of ozone molecule to alkene to form ozonide
(4) All of the above

13. Which of the following is not correct.

H–Br Alkene H–Br
(1) Alkene EAR (2) FRAR
Peroxide
Alkene H–Cl
(3) FRAR (4) Both 2 & 3
Peroxide

14. Which of the following compound can not react with bromine water solution.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) Both 2 & 3

15. Which of the following reaction is not correct.

(1) Pd (2) Pd
+ H2 n – butane + H2 n – butane

(3) Pd (4) Pd
+ 2H2 n – hexane + 2H2 n – butane

16. Trans – 2 – butene can be formed by.

(1) Complete hydrogenation of but–2–yne (2) But–2–yne with lindlar catalyst
(3) But–1–yne with Na/liq NH3 (4) But–2–yne with Na/liq NH3

17. Incorrect statement is:

(1) Alkene & alkyne decolourize bromine water solution.
(2) Alkene & alkyne decolourize kMnO4 solution.
(3) Alkane & benzene decolourize bromine water.
(4) Ozonolysis reaction is useful to detecting the position of double bond.

18. Which of the following alkane can not formed by hydrogenation of alkene.
(1) n-pentane (2) iso–pentane (3) iso-butane (4) Neo-pentane

195
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-5 HYDROCARBONS

1. Draw the major product expected when each of the following alkynes is treated with sodium
metal in liquid ammonia:

(1) (2)

2. Identify reagents that you could use to achieve each of the following transformations:

(1)

(2)

3. Predict the major product(s) expected for each of the following reactions:

(1) CH3–C≡CH 

HBr
→ (2) CH–C≡C–CH3 
HBr
→
(excess) Peroxide

2+
Hg
(3) R–C≡CH 
HgSO4
→ (4) CH3–C≡C–CH3 +
→
DilH2 SO4 H3O

1. BH .THF
(5) CH3–C≡CH 
3
-
→ (6) HC≡CCH3 
excess Br2
→
2. H2O2 . OH CH2Cl2

(7) CH3CH2C≡CCH3+H2 

Lindlar
→ (8) Na
 →
catalyst NH3 (liq)
–78°C

4. Identify reagents that you could use to achieve each of the following transformations:
R–C–CH3
R–C≡CH O
R–CH2–CHO

196
5. Draw the products formed when each alkyne is treated with O3 followed by H2O.

(a) CH3–C≡C–CH2CH3 (b) C≡CH

6. In which of the following reaction CO2 gas is released?

(a) 3 1. O (–78°C)

→ (b) 1. O (–78°C)

3
→
2. H2O. Zn 2. H2O

(c) 
3
→
1. O (–78°C)
(d) 
3
→
O
2. H2O H2O

(e) CH3–CH=CH2 

1. O3 (–78°C)
→
2. H2O2

Na in
CH3 A
liq NH3

7.
H Pd/H2
B
CaCO3.
N
Lead acetate
Which statement is incorrect
(1) A is optically active (2) B is optically inactive
(3) B is optically active (4) All statements are correct

8. Which acid-base reaction(s) is/are feasible

Θ ⊕
1. CH3 − C ≡ CH + NaNH2  CH3C ≡ CNa + NH3
Θ ⊕
2. CH3C ≡ CH + NaOH  CH3 − C ≡ CNa + H2O
Θ ⊕
3. CH3C ≡ CH + CH3COONa  CH3C ≡ CNa + CH3COOH
4. CH3C ≡ CH + CH3 − MgBr  CH3C ≡ CMgBr + CH4

9. Arrange the following in decreasing order of acidic strength

(1) CH3 − CH3 CH2 =CH2 HC ≡ CH

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(2) CH3COOH CH ≡ CH H2O NH3

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

10. But–1–yne & But–2–yne can be distinguish by:

(1) Br2/ccl4 (2) AgNO3 + NH4OH
(3) CuCl2 + NH4OH (4) Both (2) & 3

Red hot
11. CH≡CH A is:
Fe tube
(1) Ethene (2) Ethane (3) Benzene (4) None of these

197
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-6 HYDROCARBONS

1. Marsh gas would be obtained by which of the following reaction :-

(a) CH3MgBr + H2O →

(b) CH3MgCl + NH3 →

(c) CH3MgI + CH3COOH →

(d) IMgCH3 + CH3OH →

(1) Only a (2) only b and a (3) a, b, c, d (4) b, c, d only

2. Choose the correct reaction for which, the synthesis of an asymmetrical alkane is possible.

Dry Ether
(1) CH3–Br + Na 
→
Dry Ether
(2) CH3–Br + C2H5–Br + Na 
→
Dry Ether
(3) C3H7Br + Na 
→
Dry Ether
(4) C2H5–Br + Na 
→

3. Choose the possible products of the following chemical equation :-

Dry
CH3–Br + C2H5–Br + Na →
Ether

(a) C2H6 (b) C3H8 (c) C4H10 (d) C5H10

(1) I, II and III (2) I and II (3) I, II, III, and IV (4) Only II

4. Boiling points of n-pentane, iso-pentane and neopentane are (in______)

(1) 309, 282.5, 301 (2) 309, 301, 282.5 (3) 301, 282.5, 309 (4) 282.5, 301, 309

5. Compound with the highest boiling point is:-

(1) Pentane (2) 2-methylbutane (3) 2,2-dimethylpropane (4) Hexane

198
 Cl
6. CH4 
2
→ CH3–Cl (Given), then
500°C
Br
CH4 
2
→ CH3–Br
?
(1) 510°C (2) 500°C (3) 490°C (4) None of the above

hν
7. CH4 + Cl2  → products
(I) CH3Cl (II) CH2Cl2 (III) CHCl3 (IV) CCl4
(1) II only (2) I and II (3) I, II and III (4) I, II, III and IV

8. Assertion : Branched alkanes have lower boiling point than their unbranded isomer
Reason : Branched chain alkanes have relatively small surface area, so less London forces operate
in molecules
(1) Both A & R are correct & R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A & R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct R is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect R is correct

9. RMgX + CH3OH → “A”

If the mol. wt of A = 44, then R is:-

(1) C3H7 (2) CH3 (3) C2H5 (4) C4H9

Br , hν
10. RMgX + CH3OH → A 
2
→ B
If R = C3H7 no. of primary H in B is:

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 2

11. Write IUPAC name for a compound that doesn't contain 4 C–C single bonds and 12 C–H single bonds

(I) Butane (II) Pentane (III) Neo pentane (IV) Hexane

(1) I and III (2) II and III (3) I and IV (4) II and IV

12. Benzylmagnesiumbromide reacts with methanol to give

(1) Anisole + Mg(OH)Br (2) Benzene + Mg(OMe)Br
(3) Toluene + Mg(OMe)Br (4) Toluene + Mg(OH)Br

13. Which statement is not true for alkanes

(1) Large number of alkanes are soluble in water
(2) All alkanes have a lower density than water
(3) At room temp. some alkanes are liquids some are solids and some are gases
(4) Alkanes are called 'paraffins'

199
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-7 HYDROCARBONS

1. R–H + X2 
hv
→ R–X + H–X Rate of X2 is:-

(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (2) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2

(3) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 (4) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

2. CH4 + X2 → CH3 –X + H–X

If chain initiation is rate determining step of above reaction then reactivity of X2 is:-

(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (2) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2

(3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (4) I2 > F2 > Br2 > Cl2

3. Which of the reaction is not correct?

(1) CH4 + Cl2 
→ CH3 – Cl (2) CH4 + Cl 2 
→ CCl 4
(excess) (major) (excess) (major)

bright
(3) CH4 + Cl2 →
dark
no rxn (4) CH4 + Cl2  → CCl 4
sunlight
(major)

4. Correct statement regarding halogenation of alkane

(1) carbon free radical formed as intermediate

(2) Reactivity order is 3°H > 2°H > 1°H

(3) Iodination is reversible reaction due to formation of H–I

(4) Fluorination complete with explosion

(5) Chlorination reaction in bright sunlight give C black as product

(6) Reactivity of X2 :- F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2

(7) Chain initiation step is rate determining step.

200
5. Which of the following isomer of C5H12 give only one mono chloro product on photochemical

chlorination

(1) n-pentane (2) iso-pentane (3) neo-pentane (4) both (1) and (2)

6. Mono chloro product of iso-pentane (excluding stereoisomer)

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

7. Find major product in given reaction:-

Br2 KMnO4
(1) (2)
hv

(3) Cr2O3–Al2O3
heat

8. Compare heat of composition.

(a) (b) (c)

(1) a > b > c (2) b > a > c (3) a > c > b (4) c > b > a

201
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-8 HYDROCARBONS

1. Arenium ion formed in:-

(1) Electrophilic addition reaction
(2) Free radical addition reaction
(3) Electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction
(4) Free radical substitution reaction.

2. Wmpare the rate of reaction towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction.

CH3 CH2–CH3 H3C–CH–CH3

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) a > b > c > d (2) b > a > c > d (3) d > c > b > a (4) c > b > a > d

3. Which of the following statement is correct regarding nitration of benzene.

(a) Rate of E.S.R C6H6  C6D6  C6T6
(b) Polysubstitutin product possible
(c) Nitrobenzene is more reactive than benzene
(d) Conc. HNO3 + conc.H2SO4 is used as reagent
(e) Neutronium ion is act as electrophile
(f) HNO3 act as acid in nitrating mixture (HNO3 + H2SO4)
(1) a, b, d (2) a, d, e
(4) a, b, c, d, e, f, (4) a, e, d, f

SO3H

H+/∆ CO+HCl
4. (A) (B)
ZnCl2

Which of the following not formed during the reaction

OH
(1) (2)

CHO
(3) (4) Both 2 & 3

202
5. Which of the following is\are ortho-para directing group
+ ••
(a) –CCl3 (b) –NH3 (c) OCH3 (d) –CH3
••

(e) –NH–CH3 (f) –NH–CO–CH3 (g) –CH=0

(1) c, d, b, g (2) c, d, a, b (3) a, d, e, c (4) c, d, e, f

6. Which of the following statement is not correct?

(1) –NO2, –CN, –CHO are meta directing groups
(2) Halogens are weak deactivator but ortho & para directing group
(3) –OCH3, –OH, –NH2 are ortho & para directing group
(4) –M group are meta directing group because it decreases e– density at ortho & para position
whereas e– density increases at meta positions

7. Incorrect reaction is:-

Cl

Cl2
(1)
Fe
OH OH OH

Br2 Br
(2) cs2 +

Br
Br

Br2
(3)

Cl

(4) Cl2
AlCl3
Cl Cl Cl

Cl2 Cl
(5) +
FeCl3

Cl

8. Red hot CH3–Cl Br2

CaC2 (A) (B) (C)
Fe tube Anhy AlCl3 AlCl3

Br2/hν
(D)

9. Write the structure of major products expected form:-

(1) Mononitration of 3-methyl phenol
(2) Dinitration of 3-methyl phenol
(3) Mononitration of phenyl methonoate

203
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO.-9 HYDROCARBONS

1. Which of following arenium ion is most stable when nitrobenzene is treated with Cl2 in presence of
anhydrous AlCl3
NO2
NO2
NO2
Cl +
+
(1) (2) (3) Cl (4) Both 1 & 3
Cl +

2. Statement-I: Nitration of chlorobenzene leads to the formation of m-nitro chlorobenzene.

Statement-II: NO2 group is m-directly group.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II is correct.
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.

3. Statement-I: In monohaloarenes, further electrophilic substitution occurs at ortho & para position.
Statement-II: Halogen atom is ring deactivator.
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II is correct.
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.

4. Column I Column II
(i) CH3 – CH– CH3 (a) Aryl halide
|
X
(ii) CH2=CH–CH2–X (b) Alkyl halide
X

(iii) (c) Vinyl halide

(iv) CH2=CH–X (d) Allyl halide

(1) (i) → (c), (ii) → (a), (iii) → (d), (iv) → (b)

(2) (i) → (b), (ii) → (d), (iii) → (a), (iv) → (c)
(3) (i) → (d), (ii) → (c), (iii) → (b), (iv) → (a)
(4) (i) → (a), (ii) → (b), (iii) → (c), (iv) → (d)

204
5. Which of the following reaction will form n-propyl benzene

Cl
CH3–CH=CH2
(1) (2) AlCl3
H+

OH
Cl

(3) H+ (4) Anhy FeCl3

6. Find out P & Q in the following reaction.

P HCl
Q
Zn.Hg

O
Cl
(1) P = Cl + AlCl3, Q = H2/Pd (2) P = + AlCl3, Q = Red P/HI
O

O O

(3) P = Cl + AlCl3, Q = Zn–Hg/Hd (4) P = Cl + AlCl3, Q = NaBH4

7. The reaction of toluene with chlorine in the presence of iron and in the absence of light yields

____________.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) Mixture of (ii) and (iii)

Red hot CH3–Cl Br2

8. CH≡CH (A) (B) (C) (Major)
Fe tube Anhy AlCl3 AlCl3
Br2/hν
(D)

205
9. Find out A, B, C & D in the following reaction.

Ag Red hot Fe N.M.

CHCl 3 → A 
Fe tube
→ B →
Cl
C 
→D + E
2

10. Write the product of the following reaction.

CH2–C=CH2
H Peroxide
(i) +HBr (ii) +HBr
H H H

CH2–CH3 Br2
Heat
(iii) +Br2 (iv) Heat
Uv light O2N

CH3 HCl
(v) Peroxide

11. Which of the following cannot give Friedel craft reaction.

NO2 CH3

(i) (ii) Aniline (iii) (iv)

Cl

(v)

206
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO. 1
PURIFICATION & ANALYSIS OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS

1. The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is:

(1) Chromatography (2) Crystallisation

(3) Steam distillation (4) Sublimation

2. Paper chromatography is an example of:

(1) Column chromatography (2) Adsorption chromatography

(3) Partition chromatography (4) Thin layer chromatography

3. A liquid compound (x) can be purified by steam distillation only if it is:

(1) Steam volatile, immiscible with water (2) Not steam volatile, miscible with water

(3) Steam volatile, miscible with water (4) Not steam volatile, immiscible with water

4. The fragrance of flowers is due to the presence of some steam volatile organic compounds called essential oils.

These are generally insoluble in water at room temperature but are miscible with water vapour in
vopour phase. A suitable method for the extraction of these oils from the flowers is:

(1) Distillation (2) Crystallisation

(3) Distillation under reduced pressure (4) Steam distillation

5. During hearing of a court case, the judge suspected that some changes in the documents had been

carried out. He asked the forensic department to check the ink used at two different places.

According to you which technique can give the best results?

(1) Column chromatography (2) Solvent extraction

(3) Distillation (4) Thin layer chromatography

6. The principle involved in paper chromatography is

(1) Adsorption (2) Partition (3) Solubility (4) Volatility

207
7. Match the type of mixture of compounds in column I with the technique of separation /purification
given in column II.
Column-I Column-II
(i) Two solids which have different solubilities (a) Steam distillation
in a solvent and which do not undergo reaction
when dissolved in it.
(ii) Liquid that decomposes at its boiling point (b) Fractional distillation
(iii) Steam volatile liquid (c) Simple distillation
(iv) Two liquids which have boiling points close (d) Distillation under
to each other reduced pressure
(v) Two liquids with large difference in boiling points (e) Crystallisation

(1) (i)-(e), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b), (v)-(c) (2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a), (v)-(e)

(3) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(a), (v)-(b) (4) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(e), (v)-(d)

8. Assertion (A): Simple distillation can help in separating a mixture of propan-1-ol (boiling point ~
97°C) and propanone (boiling point 56°C)
Reason (R): Liquids with a different of more than 20°C in their boiling points can be separated by
simple distillation.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Both assertion and reason are not correct
(4) Assertion is not correct but reason is correct.

9. Assertion (A): components of a mixture of red and blue inks can be separated by distributing the
components between stationary and mobile phases in paper chromatography.
Reason (R): The coloured components of inks migrate at different rates because paper selectively
retains different components according to the difference in their partition between the two phases.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Both assertion and reason are not correct
(4) Assertion is not correct but reason is correct.

10. Mixture Purification technique

(A) Chloroform & aniline (P) Distillation (Simple Distillation)
(B) Glycerol & spent lye (Q) Fractional distillation
(C) Aniline & water (R) Steam distillation
(D) Crude oil in Petroleum industry (S) Distillation under reduced pressure
Correct match
(1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S (2) A-P, B-S, C-R, D-Q
(3) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q (4) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q

208
NEET-CHEMISTRY ELP NO. 2
PURIFICATION & ANALYSIS OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS

1. Correct statement is/are:

(I) Rate of adsorption is a > b > c (II) Rate of adsorption is c > b > a
(III) c is least polar (IV) a is least polar

(1) I and III (2) III only (3) II and IV (4) IV only

2. Which of the following is used as adsorbent in chromatography

(1) Silica gel or alumina (2) n-Hexane
(3) Ethyl acetate (4) Ninhydrin solution

3. Sodium nitroprusside Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] is used as reagent for detection of __________ and the

compound formed is ______________.

(1) Sulphur, Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] (2) Nitrogen, Na4[Fe(CN)6]

(3) Sulphur, Na2[Fe(CN)4NOS] (4) Sulphur, Na2[Fe(CN)5NOS]

4. The prussian blue colouration obtained in the test for nitrogen in the organic compound is

(1) K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (3) Fe[Fe(CN)6] (4) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2

209
5. If N and S both are present in an organic compound during Lassaigne's test, both will change into

(1) Na2S and NaCN (2) NaSCN

(3) Na2SO3 and NaCN (4) Na2S and NaCNO

6. Which of the following will not give test for 'N' in sodium extract?

NH2

(1) C6H5NHNH2 (2) NH2CONH2 (3) NH2–NH2 (4)

SO3H

7. Kjeldahl's method for detection of nitrogen in organic compound, cannot be used in case of

(1) CH3– NO2 (2)

N

(3) N=N (4) All of these

8. Carius method is used for the estimation of

(1) Halogens (2) Sulphur 9

(3) Phosphorus (4) All of these

9. Match the column-I to column-II

Column-I Column-II

a. Carius method (i) (NH4)2SO4

b. Duma's method (ii) Sodium fusion extract

c. Kjeldahl's method (iii) N2–gas

d. Lassaigne's test (iv) AgNO3

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

10. On complete combustion of 0.25 g of an organic compound 0.22 g of CO2 and 0.18 g of H2O are

obtained. The percentage of C and H respectively in the organic compound are

(1) 8 and 20 (2) 24 and 12 (3) 24 and 8 (4) 24 and 10

210
ANSWER KEY SOME BASIC CONCEPT OF CHEMISTRY

ELP-1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 4 1 2 4 3 2 4 2 4 1

ELP-2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 2 4 1 2 2 4 4 4 4

ELP-3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 1 2 4 4 4 1 4 3 1 2 1 2 2 3

ELP-4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 4 3 3 3 2 3 1 1 2 1

ELP-5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 3 2 4 3 1 3 3 1 3

ELP-6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 2 2 2 1 4 1 3 1 4

ELP-7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 1 2 3 3 1 1 3 2 1 4

211
ANSWER KEY STRUCTURE OF ATOM

ELP-1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Ans. 2 4 2 1 1 3 1

ELP-2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 4 4 4 3 2 1 1 4

ELP-3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 4 1 1 1 2 1 3 1

ELP-4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Ans. 2 3 1 1 1 1 4 4 4

ELP-5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 2 3 1 2 1 3 3 2 1

ELP-6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 1 2 3 2 2 4 3 4 2 2

ELP-7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans. 2 1 3 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 3

212
 ELP-8
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 1 2 1 1 3 2 4 3 4

ELP-9
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 4 3 4 2 4 1 3 2 1 1

ELP-10
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans. 1 3 3 1 4 4 1 4 3 2 1 1

ELP-11
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans. 2 3 3 2 2 2 1 4 2 4 4 4

ELP-12
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans. 2 3 2 4 4 3 3 1 2 2 1 1

213
ANSWER KEY THERMODYNAMICS

ELP-1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 3 4 3 1,4 3 3 4 3 2

ELP-2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 4 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 2 2

ELP-3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 2 1 1 4 1 3 4 2 1

ELP-4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Ans. 3 1 4 2 4 2 2 2 3 1 2 4 3

ELP-5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 4 3 2 1 1 1 3 3 1

ELP-6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 1 2 2 3 4 3 3 1 3 2

ELP-7
Que. 1 2 3 4
Ans. 3 1,2 3,4 (i-e; ii-d; iii-f; iv-a; v-g,k,l; vi-b; vii-c; viii-j; ix-h; x-i; xi-l,m; xii-g,k)
Que. 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 3,4 (i-b; ii-c; iii-a) 2 1 (i-c; ii-a; iii-b)

214
 ELP-8
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 1 1 2 2 2 3 3 4 2

ELP-9
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 3 4 1 1 2 4 4 2 (i) → b, d, (ii) → b, (iii) → c, (iv) → a

ELP-10
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 3 2 3 3 1 2 2 4 1

ELP-11
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 1 2 3 1 2 1 4 4 2 2

ELP-12
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 2 2 4 4 2 3 2 3 2

ELP-13
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 1 2 1 2 4 2 1 1 2 3

ELP-14
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
Ans. 2 1 3 2 2 4 4 2 3 3 1

215
ANSWER KEY CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

ELP-1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 2 4 4 1 1 2 3 1 2

ELP-2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 1 3 4 2 2 1 3 4 3

ELP-3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 4 3 4 1 2 2 2 2 2 4

ELP-4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 4 2 4 1 1 4 3 3 4

ELP-5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans. 4 3 4 1 2 1 4 4 1 4 1 3

ELP-6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans. 1 1 3 4 1 3 2 3 1 4 1 3

ELP-7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 3 1 2 3 2 3 1 2 3

216
 ELP-8
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 2 4 2 3 4 4 2 1 3

ELP-9
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 3 3 4 1 1 1 4 1 1

217
ANSWER KEY IONIC EQUILIBRIUM

ELP-1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 4 4 3 3 2 3 2 2 3 3

ELP-2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 1 2 3 2 3 4 4 1 2 2

ELP-3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 4 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 2 2

ELP-4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 1 3 4 1 2 3 4 4 3 1

ELP-5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. 1 1 1 3 4 2 1 1 2 3 1 3 1 3

ELP-6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 1 3 4 1 1 4 4 2 1 2

ELP-7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 1 2 4 4 3 2 2 3 2 3

218
 ELP-8
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Ans. 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 2 4

ELP-9
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 4 2 3 2 3 1 2 3 2

ELP-10
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
Ans. 4 1 3 1 4 4 2 3 3 2 2 1 1 3 1 3

219
ANSWER KEY REDOX REACTIONS

ELP-1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5
Ans. 1 2 1 4 (i) → (d), (ii) → (e), (iii) → (c), (iv) → (a)
Que. 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 1 3 4 (i) → (e), (ii) → (d), (iii) → (c), (iv) → (b), (v) → (f)

ELP-2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 1 1 4 3 1 3 3 3 3 4

ELP-3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 4 4 3 2 2 3 2 4 4 4

ELP-4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 1,4 3,4 3,4 3,4 2 1 1 2 1 1

ELP-5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 3 4 2 4 2 4 3 4 1

ELP-6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 1 4 3 2 3 2 2 1 1

ELP-7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. 3 3 3 3 1 1 2 3 4 3 4 1 1 1

220
ANSWER KEY CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS AND PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES

ELP-1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 1 4 1 3 4 4 1 1 3 2 1 4 4
Que. 16 17 18
Ans. 3 2 4

ELP-2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 2 2 2 2 4 4 4 3 3 3 3 1 4 1
Que. 16 17 18
Ans. 3 1 2

ELP-3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 1 4 3 3 3 1 4 1 3 2 4 4 2 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21
Ans. 1 2 1 3 3 2

ELP-4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 1 3 1 1 1 1 2 4 3 1 3 3 2 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
Ans. 1 3 1 2 3 3 3

ELP-5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 1 4 2 4 3 2 4 2 2 2 2 2 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 4 4 2 3

221
 ELP-6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 1 3 4 2 4 2 3 3 1 3 3 2 1 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 1 1 2 4

ELP-7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 3 1 3 2 4 3 4 2 1 2 4 4 3

222
ANSWER KEY CHEMICAL BONDING

ELP-1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
Ans. 3 2 2 1 1 4 4 3 3 3 4 1 1 2 3 1

ELP-2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. 2 3 2 4 1 2 2 4 2 3 3 4 1 3

ELP-3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Ans. 2 3 4 3 2 3 4 3 4 4 3 4 1

ELP-4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Ans. 3 4 4 4 3 2 4 4 2 3 3 2 2

ELP-5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
Ans. 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 3 1 2 3 3 2 3 4 4 1

ELP-6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. 1 4 2 2 2 1 4 2 4 3 2 2 4

ELP-7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. 2 2 4 2 2 4 1 1 4 1 1 4 1 2

223
 ELP-8
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
Ans. 2 3 2 4 1 3 4 1 3 2 3 3 1 1 1 4

ELP-9
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Ans. 1 2 1 3 3 4 2 1 2 4 1 1 3

ELP-10
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Ans. 3 2 2 3 2 2 2 2 1 3 3 3 3

ELP-11
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
Ans. 4 4 1 2 1 4 4 2 2 1 3 1 4 1 1 2

ELP-12
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 2 4 1 2 1 3 1 1 1 4 1 4 1 1

ELP-13
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
Ans. 2 2 1 3 1 4 4 2 2 1 2 3 3 2 4 1

ELP-14
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 1 3 3 2 4 3 1 4 2 1 3 1 4 4

ELP-15
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. 3 4 3 2 4 1 3 2 4 4 1 2 1 1

ELP-16
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Ans. 1 4 1 4 2 2 1 2

ELP-17
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Ans. 4 2 4 4 3 3 2 3 4

224
ANSWER KEY THE P-BLOCK ELEMENTS

ELP-1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 3 2 1 3 4 3 4 2 4 3 4 1 4 3

ELP-2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 3 3 4 1 2 1 3 4 1 2 2 4 4 2

ELP-3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 2 4 3 4 3 2 1 1 4 4 3 2 4 1

ELP-4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 4 3 4 4 4 4 1 2 1 3 3 1 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 2 3 3 3

ELP-5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
Ans. 4 3 3 3 1 1 2 3 3 2 3 2 3 4 4 3

225
ANSWER KEY CLASSIFICATION & NOMENCLATURE

ELP-1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 3 1 2 1 3 2 3 2 3 3 1 3 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 3 4 2 3

ELP-2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 4 2 3 2 2 3 4 2 3 1

ELP-3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 4 4 4 3 3 2 4 2 4

ELP-4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14
Ans. 3 1 4 3 4 2 1 1 3 4 3 2 4 2

ELP-5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 1 2 2 3 2 3 4 2 1

226
ANSWER KEY ISOMERISM

ELP-1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 1 2 2 2 4 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 2

ELP-2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 4 3 4 4 3 1 2 3 3 4 3 2 3 1

ELP-3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
Ans. 3 2 2 1 3 4 3 2 3 4 3

ELP-4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 2 2 2 (Z)–a, b; (E)–c, d 3 4 4 4 1,2

ELP-5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 1 3 2 3 4 4 4 3 (1) (Z), (2) (Z), (3) (E), (4) (2Z,4Z,6E)

227
ANSWER KEY GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

ELP-1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 4 1 1 4 4 1 1 4 3 2

ELP-2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Aromatic:- 1,4,6,8,10,11,12,14,15,16,17
Ans. 3 4 3 2 2 3 1 1 1 Antiaromatic:- 2,3,5
Nonaromatic:-7,9,13

ELP-3
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Ans. 1 4 3 4 4 1 4 4 2 3 3 1 2

ELP-4
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 2 4 2 3 3 1 3 1 3

ELP-5
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 3 3 4 1 1 1 3 1 4 4 3 1 1

ELP-6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Ans. 1 3 4 2 1 1 4 4 3 2 3 3

ELP-7
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 2 2 2 3 2, 3, 4 2 3 3 3 4

228
ANSWER KEY HYDROCARBONS

ELP-1

2
Que. 1 3
(a) (b)

CH3 Cl
CH3CCH3
Ans. 3 CH3 I > II > III
I 1-Chloro-1-methylcyclopentane
2-Iodo-2-methylpropane

4
Que.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Cl
CH–CH2CH3
Ans. F3C–CH 2–CH 2–Cl OH
I

5
Que.
(a) (b)

Ans. i > ii > iii ii > i > iii

Que. (a)
(b)
(i) (ii) (iii)

Ans. One Two Five Sec. Butyl cation

Que. 7 8 9 10 11

Ans. 4 2 3 3 2

229
 ELP-2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Ans. 4 3 3 4 2 4 4
Que. 8 (a)

Ans.

Que. 8 (b)

Ans.

Que. 8 (c)

Ans.

Que. 9

CH3–C≡CH

Ans.

Que. 10 11
Ans. 4 (a) → v, (b) → u, (c) → t, (d) → s, (e) → r, (f) → q, (g) → p
Que. 12
Ans. (a) → r, (b) → p, (c) → s, (d) → q, (e) → p

230
 ELP-3
2
Que. 1
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
CH3
Ans. 4 CH3–C–CH2–CH3 Ph
Br
H OH H
OEt
2
Que.
(v) (vi) (vii) (viii)

Me
Ans.
Cl OPh
Cl OH
D OH
H
3
Que.
(i) (ii) (iii)

Ans. B
H H B
B H H
H H
4
Que.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

1. BH3 THf 1. BH3 THf 1. BH3 THf 1. Hg(OAc)2.EtoH

Ans. –
2. H2O2, OH , H2O
–
2. H2O2, OH, H2O 2. H2O2, OH , H2O
–
2. NaBH4

5
Que.
(i) (ii)

Cl
Cl OH OH
+
Ans. +
Cl Cl
Cl
Cl
5
Que.
(iii) (iv)

Br CH3
Br CH3
Ans. + +
Br Br OH
OH

6
Que.
(a) (b)

(1) OH H
(1) OH
Ans.

(2) H OH
(2)
OH

231
Que. 6
7 8
(c)
Ans.
(1)
OH
3 2
(2)

OH

ELP-4
1
Que.
(a) (b)

O O an aldehyde a ketone
O O
H + H
Ans. H

Propanal 2-Methylpropanal
(an aldehyde) 5-Oxohexanal
(an aldehyde)
(a ketoaldehyde)

2
Que.
(a) (b) (c)

Ans.
H H

Que. 3 4

Ans. 4

(X)
Que. 5

OH OH
OH
KMnO4 1. Hg(OAC)2H2O

NaOH.cold 2.NaBH4
OH OH Br
o KMnO4.H ⊕
Br2
o
K2Cr2O7 H2 O
Ans.
H ⊕ Br Br
Br2
Br HBr H2.pt
ccl4

6
Que.
(a) (b) (c)

Ans.

Que. 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
Ans. 4 3 2 4 1 4 3 4 4 4
Que. 17 18
Ans. 3 4

232
 ELP-5
1
Que.
1 2

H H
Ans.
H CH3 H

2
Que.
1 2

H2 Na
Lindlar liq NH3
Ans. Catalyst

Na H2
liq NH3 (Pt, Pd or Ni)

3
Que.
1 2 3 4

CH3 CH3
C O
CH3 Br H
CH3 C CH3
C–CH3 HBR
Br
Br
Peroxide O
Ans.
CH3 C CH2 CH3
Br
CH3
C H
Br
H CH3

3
Que.
5 6 7 8

O Br Br
CH3 H
Ans. CH3 C CH
H H H H
Br Br

Que. 4 5

1. HgSO4
2. H2SO4(dil.)

Ans.
1. BH3.THF
2. H2O2.OHΘ

233
Que. 6 7

Ans.

8
Que.
1 2 3 4
Ans. Feasible Not Feasible Not Feasible Feasible
9
Que. 10 11
1 2
Ans. III > IV > II > I I > III > II > IV 4 3

ELP-6
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Ans. 3 2 1 2 4 1 4 1 1 3 3 3 1

ELP-7

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6

Ans. 1 4 4 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 3 2

7
Que.
1 2 3 4 5

Ans.

Que. 8
Ans. 2

234
 ELP-8
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Ans. 3 1 2 2 4 4 3
Que. 8

Ans.

ELP-9
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
O

P → Cl

Ans. 3 2 1 2 4 4

Q →

Que. 8

CH3 CH3 CH2Br

Ans. (A) → (B) → (C) → (D) →

Br

Que. 9
Cl
Cl Cl
Ans. A →CH≡CH B→ NO2 E →
C→ D→
NO2

10
Que.
1 2 3

Br
Br
CH2–CH2–CH2–Br
Ans.
H
H

10
Que. 11
4 5

Br
CH3
CH–CH3
Ans. Cl (i) and (ii)
O2N

235
ANSWER KEY PURIFICATION & ANALYSIS OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS

ELP-1
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 3 3 1 4 4 2 1 1 1 2

ELP-2
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. 1 1 1 2 2 3 4 4 4 3

236