TEST BOOKLET TEST BOOKLET

NO: 9002024
CODE: A
GREAT INDIAN BATTLE
EXAMINATION

Important instructions :

1. The test is 3 hour 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200
multiple - choice questions (four options with a single correct answer) from
Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology. 50 questions in each subjects are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below.
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 Questions in each subject. All questions
are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 questions in each subject, a candidate
needs to attempt any 10 questions out of 15 .
2. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/-
marking responses.
3. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the exami-
nation with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of
unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this exam-
ination.

Name of the candidate :

Roll Number :

1 GIB CODE A
 PHYSICS

SECTION A (1) 50 m (2) 100 m

(3) 150 m (4) 200 m
1. For angle of projection 20 , range of a pro-
◦

jectile is R. For the same range, another an- 6. Four balls A, B, C and D are projected
gle of projection should be with the same speed making angles of
10◦ , 30◦ , 45◦ , 60◦ respectively with the hori-
(1) 40◦ (2) 50◦
zontal. Which ball will strike the ground at
(3) 600 (4) 700 the farthest point?
(1) B (2) A
2. A scooterist sees a bus 1 km ahead of him
moving with a velocity of 10 m s−1 . With (3) D (4) C
what speed the scooterist should move so as
to overtake the bus in 100 s ? 7. What is the ratio of the angular speeds of the
minute hand and second hand of a clock?
(1) 10 m s−1 (2) 20 m s−1
(1) 1 : 12 (2) 12 : 1
(3) 50 m s−1 (4) 30 m s−1
(3) 1 : 60 (4) 60 : 1
3. A motor boat covers a given distance in 6
hours moving downstream of a river. It cov- 8. A particle is moving on a circular path of 10
ers the same distance in 10 hours moving m radius. At any instant of time, its speed is
upstream. The time (in hours) it takes to 5 m s−1 and the speed is increasing at a rate
cover the same distance in still water is of 2 m s−2 . The magnitude of net accelera-
tion at this instant is
(1) 6 (2) 7.5
(1) 5 m s−2 (2) 2 m s−2
(3) 10 (4) 15
(3) 3.2 m s−2 (4) 4.3 m s−2
4. A car travels due east on a level road for 30
km . It then turns due north at an intersec- 9. A particle is projected at 60◦ to the horizon-
tion and travels 40 km before stopping. The tal with kinetic energy K . The kinetic en-
resultant displacement of the car is ergy at the highest point is

(1) 50 km, 53◦ north of east (1) K /4 (2) K /2

(2) 50 km, 53◦ east of north (3) K (4) zero

(3) 100 km, 37◦ north of east 10. Identify the correct statement related to the
(4) 100 km, 37◦ east of north projectile motion
(1) It is uniformly accelerated everywhere
5. A cricketer can throw a ball to a maxi-
(2) It is uniformly accelerated everywhere
mum horizontal distance of 100 m . With
except at the highest position where it
the same speed how much high above the
is moving with constant velocity
ground can the cricketer throw the same
(3) Acceleration is never perpendicular to
ball?

2 GIB CODE A
 velocity (1) 2 N (2) 6 N
(4) None of these (3) 8 N (4) 14 N

11. Identify the correct statement regarding cir- 15. Three equal weights A, B, C of mass 2 kg
cular motion of a particle. each are hanging on a string passing over
(1) The net acceleration of a particle in cir- a fixed frictionless pulley as shown in the
cular motion is always along the radius figure. The tension in the string connecting
of the circle towards the centre. weights B and C is
(2) The velocity vector of a particle at a
point is may not be always along the
tangent to the path of the particle at
that point.
(3) The acceleration vector of a particle in
uniform circular motion averaged over
one cycle is a null vector.
(1) zero (2) 13 N
(4) The net acceleration and velocity of a
particle in circular motion is always (3) 3.3 N (4) 19.6 N
perpendicular to each other.
16. Figure shows a man standing stationary
12. A scalar quantity is one that with respect to a horizontal conveyor belt
(1) is conserved in a process that is accelerating with 1 m s−2 .

(2) can never take negative values What is the net force on the man? (Mass of
(3) has the same value for observers with the man = 65 kg )
different orientations of axes.
(4) does not vary from one point to another
in space

13. A cricketer catches a ball of mass 150 g in

0.1 s moving with speed 20 m/s, then he ex-
periences a force of
(1) 35 N (2) 45 N
(1) 300 N (2) 30 N
(3) 55 N (4) 65 N
(3) 3 N (4) 0.3 N
17. Ten one-rupee coins are put on top of each
14. Three blocks of mass 4 kg, 2 kg, 1 kg respec- other on a table. Each coin has a mass m.
tively are in contact on a frictionless table The reaction of the 6th coin (counted from
as shown in the figure. If a force of 14 N is the bottom) on the 7th coin is
applied on the 4 kg block, the contact force
(1) 4 mg (2) 6 mg
between the 4 kg and the 2 kg block will be
(3) 7 mg (4) 3 mg

18. A man of mass 90 kg is standing in an ele-

3 GIB CODE A
 vator whose cable broke suddenly. If the el- which is inclined at an angle of 45◦ with re-
evator falls freely, the force exerted by the spect to horizontal axis. The co-efficient of
floor on the man is static friction between their surfaces is:
1
(1) 90 N (2) 180 N (1) 1.7 (2) p
3
(3) zero N (4) any negative value (3) 0.5 (4) 1

19. A man of mass 60 kg is riding in a lift. The 23. A heavy box of mass 50 kg is moving on a
weights of the man, when the lift is accel- horizontal surface. If co-efficient of kinetic
erating upwards and downwards at 2 m s−2 friction between the box and horizontal sur-
are respectively (Take g = 10 m s−2 ) face is 0.3 then force of kinetic friction is :
(1) 720 N and 480 N (2) 480 N and 720 N (1) 1.47 N (2) 147 N
(3) 600 N and 600 N (4) 600 N and 480 N (3) 14.7 N (4) 1470 N

20. A trolley of mass M is attached to a block of 24. A body of mass 4 kg experiences two forces
mass m by a string passing over a frictionless ⃗1 = 5ı̂ + 8 ȷ̂ + 7 k̂ and F
F ⃗2 = 3ı̂ − 4 ȷ̂ − 3 k̂. The
pulley as shown in figure. acceleration acting on the body is :
(1) −2ı̂ − ȷ̂ − k̂ (2) 4ı̂ + 2 ȷ̂ + 2 k̂
(3) 2ı̂ + ȷ̂ + k̂ (4) 2ı̂ + 3 ȷ̂ + 3 k̂

25. A batsman hits back a ball of mass 0.15 kg

straight in the direction of the bowler with-
out changing its initial speed of 10 m s−1 , If
If the coefficient of friction between the trol- the ball moves linearly, then the impulse im-
ley and the surface below is µ, what is the parted on it (in N s) is
acceleration of the trolley and the block sys-
(1) 3.0 (2) 2.0
tem, when they are released ?
(
m−M
)
m
(3) 1.5 (4) 1.9
(1) g (2) g
m+M M
( ) ( ) 26. The velocity of a body of mass 20 kg de-
µm − M m − µM
(3) g (4) g creases from 20 m/s to 5 m/s in a distance
m+M m+M
of 100 m . The force acting on the body is
21. The coefficient of friction between the tyres (1) −27.5 N (2) −47.5 N
and the road is 0.25 . The maximum speed
(3) −37.5 N (4) −67.5 N
with which a car can be driven round a
curve of radius 40 m without skidding is 27. A 12 kg bomb at rest explodes into two
(Take g = 10 m s−2 ) pieces of 4 kg and 8 kg . If the momentum
(1) 40 m s−1 (2) 20 m s−1 of 4 kg piece is 20 N s , the kinetic energy
(3) 15 m s−1 (4) 10 m s−1 of the 8 kg piece is
(1) 25 J (2) 20 J
22. A 2 kg brick begins to slide over a surface
(3) 50 J (4) 40 J

4 GIB CODE A
28. Two cars, A and B travel in a straight line. 32. What is the relation between pitch and least
The distance of A from the starting point is count of a screw gauge?
given as a function of time by xA (t) = α t + L.C
(1) Pitch =
β t2 , where α = 2.60 m/s and β = 1.20 m/s2 . 100
The distance of B from the starting point is Pitch
(2) L · C =
xB (t) = γ t2 − δ t3 , with γ = 2.80 m/s2 and δ = 100
0.20 m/s2 . (3) Pitch = L.C. ×200
Which car is ahead just after they leave the Pitch
(4) L.C. =
starting point? number of divisions on circular scale
(1) Car A moves ahead 33. Which of the following has the highest num-
(2) Car B moves ahead ber of significant figures?

(3) Car A and B move simultaneously (1) 0.007 m2 (2) 2.64 × 1024 kg

(4) Data insufficient (3) 0.0006032 m2 (4) 6.3200 J

29. A bird flies for 4 sec with a velocity v = 34. If C be the capacitance and V be the electric
| t−2|m/s along a straight line, where t is time potential, then the dimensional formula of
in second. It travels a distance equal to CV 2 is
[ ] [ ]
(1) 2 m (2) 4 m (1) M 1 L2 T −2 A 0 (2) M 1 L1 T −2 A −1
[ ] [ ]
(3) 6 m (4) 8 m (3) M 0 L1 T −2 A 0 (4) M 1 L−3 T 1 A −1

C
30. The particles P and Q get 6 m closer each 35. If A = B + , the dimensions of B and
[ 0 D−+E ] [ ]
second while traveling in opposite direc- C are M LT 1
and M0 LT0 , respectively.
tions. They get 2.4 m closer per second Find the dimensions of A, D and E .
while traveling in the same direction. The [ ]
(1) [ A ] = M0 L0 T−1 , [D] = [T], [E ] = [LT]
speeds of P and Q are respectively. [ ] [ ] [ ]
(2) [ A ] = MLT0 , [D ] = T2 , [E ] = T2
(1) 4.2 ms−1 and 2.4 ms−1 [ ]
(3) [ A ] = M0 LT−1 , [D ] = [MT], [E ] = [MT]
(2) 6 ms−1 and 2.4 ms−1 [ 0 −1 ]
(4) [ A ] = M LT , [D ] = [T], [E ] = [T]
(3) 8.4 ms−1 and 3.6 ms−1
(4) 4.2 ms−1 and 1.8 ms−1 SECTION B

31. The period of oscillation of a simple pendu-

√
lum is T = 2π L/ g. Measured value of L is 36. A police van moving on a highway with a
10 cm known to 1 mm accuracy and time for speed of 30 kmh−1 fires a bullet at a thief’s
100 oscillations of the pendulum is found to car speeding away in the same direction
be 50 s using a wrist watch of 1 s resolution. with a speed of 192 km h−1 . If the muzzle
What is the accuracy in the determination of speed of the bullet is 150 m s−1 , with what
g? speed does the bullet hit the thief’s car?
(1) 2% (2) 3% (1) 105 m s−1 (2) 205 m s−1
(3) 4% (4) 5% (3) 305 m s−1 (4) 405 m s−1

5 GIB CODE A
37. A body is projected with velocity v1 from the and ⃗d are not collinear, and in the line
point A as shown in figure of ⃗ d , if they are collinear.
a and ⃗

41. A monkey of mass 40 kg climbs on a

rope(ignore the mass of the rope) which can
withstand a maximum tension of 600 N . In
which of the following cases will the rope
break: the monkey

At the same time, another body is projected

vertically upwards from B with velocity v2 .
The point B lies vertically below the high-
v2
est point. For both the bodies to collide,
v1
should be
(1) 2 (2) 0.5
p
3
(3) (4) 1 (1) climbs down with an acceleration of
2
4 m s−2
38. A projectile is given an initial velocity of
(2) climbs up with a uniform speed of
ı̂ + 2 ȷ̂ . The cartesian equation of its path is
5 m s−1
( g = 10 m/s2 )
(3) climbs up with an acceleration of
(1) y = 2 x − 5 x2 (2) y = x − 5 x2 6 m s−2
(3) 4 y = 2 x − 5 x 2
(4) y = 2 x − 25 x 2
(4) falls down the rope nearly freely under
gravity
39. Ratio of minimum kinetic energies of two
projectile of same mass is 4 : 1. The ratio 42. The rear side of a truck is open and a box of
of the maximum height attained by them is 40 kg mass is placed 5 m away from the open
also 4 : 1. The ratio of their ranges would be end as shown. The coefficient of friction be-
(1) 16 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 tween the box and the surface below it is
0.15 . On a straight road, the truck starts
(3) 8 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
from rest and accelerates with 2 m s−2 . At
→
− what distance from the starting point does
40. Given →
−a + b +⃗ c +⃗d = 0, then
→
− →
− the box fall off the truck? (Ignore the size of
(1) a , b ,⃗c and d must each be a null vec-
⃗
the box).
tor,
(2) The magnitude of (⃗a +⃗ c) is not equal to
the magnitude of (⃗b + ⃗d ),
(3) The magnitude of ⃗
a can be greater than
→
−
the sum of the magnitudes of b ,⃗c and
⃗
d
(4) ⃗b +⃗c must lie in the plane of ⃗
a and ⃗
d if ⃗
a (1) 10 m (2) 20 m

6 GIB CODE A
 (3) 25 m (4) 30 m the first second and a distance of 2 m in the
third second. The magnitude of force acting
43. A wooden block of mass 5 kg rests on a soft on the body is
horizontal floor. When an iron cylinder of
(1) 6 N (2) 8 N
mass 25 kg is placed on the top of the block,
the floor yields and the block and the cylin- (3) 2 N (4) 4 N
der together go down with an acceleration
47. A gun fires bullets each of mass 1 g with
of 0.1 ms−2 . The action force of the system
velocity of 10 m s−1 by exerting a constant
on the floor is equal to: (take g = 9.8 m/s2 )
force of 5 g weight. Then the number of bul-
(1) 196 N (2) 291 N lets fired per second is (Take g = 10 m s−2 )
(3) 294 N (4) 297 N (1) 50 (2) 5

44. A light string passing over a smooth light (3) 10 (4) 25

pulley connects two blocks of masses m 1 and
48. A mass of 10 kg is suspended from a spring
m 2 (where m 2 > m 1 ). If the acceleration
g balance. It is pulled aside by a horizontal
of the system is p , then the ratio of the
2 string so that it makes an angle of 60◦ with
m1
masses is: the vertical. The new reading of the balance
m2
p p is
1+ 5 2−1 p p
(1) p (2) p (1) 10 3 kg wt (2) 20 3 kg wt
5−1 2+1
p
1+ 5
p
3+1
(3) 20 kg wt (4) 10 kg wt
(3) p (4) p
2−1 2−1 1
49. Graph of versus x for a particle under mo-
v
45. A bob of mass 0.1 kg hung from the ceiling tion is shown, where v is velocity and x is
of a room by a string 2 m long is set into os- position. The time taken by particle to move
cillation. The speed of the bob at its mean from x = 4 to x = 12 m is
position is 1 m s−1 . Then choose the correct
option.
(1) The trajectory of the bob is a parabola
if the string is cut when the bob is at at
one of its extreme positions.
(2) The trajectory of the bob is a straight
line if the string is cut when the bob is
at at one of its extreme positions. (1) 16/3 s (2) 10 s
(3) The trajectory of the bob is a parabola (3) 8 s (4) 12 s
if the string is cut when the bob is at at
the mean position. 50. A car and a bus start from rest at the same
(4) both (2) and (3). instant, with the car initially at some dis-
tance behind the bus. The bus has a con-
46. A body of mass 4 kg is accelerated upon by stant acceleration of 2.10 m/s2 , and the car
a constant force, travels a distance of 5 m in has an acceleration of 3.40 m/s2 . The car

7 GIB CODE A
 overtakes the bus after the bus has moved (1) 20 sec (2) 18.7 sec
40.0 m. How much time does it take for the (3) 2 sec (4) 6.1 sec
car to overtake the bus?

CHEMISTRY

SECTION A 55. Which of the following statement is not

true?
(1) Lyman spectral series of hydrogen atom
51. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, lies in the ultraviolet region of electro-
( )
the value of molal depression constant K f magnetic radiation.
will be : (2) Balmer spectral series of hydrogen
(1) halved (2) tripled atom lies in the visible region of elec-
tromagnetic radiation.
(3) unchanged (4) doubled
(3) Paschen spectral series of hydrogen
52. The rate constant for a first order reaction atom lies in the visible region of elec-
is 4.606 × 10−3 s−1 . The time required to re- tromagnetic radiation.
duce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is : (4) Brackett spectral series of hydrogen
atom lies in the infrared region of elec-
(1) 200 s (2) 500 s
tromagnetic radiation.
(3) 1000 s (4) 100 s
56. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a
53. Bohr’s theory is not valid for the species: 1.00 m aqueous solution?
(1) H atom (2) He+ ion (1) 0.177 (2) 1.770
(3) Li+ ion (4) Li2+ ion (3) 0.0354 (4) 0.0177

54. Assertion (A) An organic compound con- 57. Which one of the following statements for
taining 24 mg of carbon, 6 mg of hydro- the order of a reaction is incorrect?
gen and 32 mg of oxygen has the empir-
(1) Order can be determined only experi-
ical formula CH3 O.
mentally.
Reason (R) Empirical formula gives the
(2) Order is not influenced by stoichiomet-
simplest ratio of the masses of the var-
ric coefficient of the reactants.
ious elements present in one molecule
of the compound. (3) Order of reaction is sum of the powers
of the concentration terms of reactants
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the
in the rate law expression.
correct explanation of A .
(4) Order of reaction is always whole num-
(2) A is true but R is false.
ber.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the cor- 58. Assertion (A) Black body is an ideal body
rect explanation of A .

8 GIB CODE A
 that emits and absorbs radiations of all (iii) n = 3, l = 2, m = −1, s = +
1
frequencies. 2
1
Reason (R) The frequency of radiation (iv) n = 6, l = 1, m = 0, s = +
2
emitted by a black body goes from a 1
lower frequency to higher frequency (v) n = 5, l = 2, m = +1, s = −
2
with decrease in temperature. How many sets have same energy?
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the (1) 1 (2) 2
correct explanation of A .
(3) 4 (4) 3
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true. 62. Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the cor- X 2 + Y2 −→ 2 X Y is given below :
rect explanation of A . (i) X 2 ⇌ X + X (fast)

59. 1M, 2.5 litre NaOH solution is mixed with (ii) X + Y2 −→ X Y + Y (slow)
another 0.5M, 3 litre NaOH solution. Then (iii) X + Y −→ X Y (fast)
find out the molarity of resultant solution. The overall order of the reaction will be :
(1) 0.80 M (2) 1.0 M (1) 2 (2) 0
(3) 0.73 M (4) 0.50 M (3) 1.5 (4) 1

60. For reaction A → B, enthalpy of reaction is 63. During the kinetic study of the reaction,
−4.2 kJ mol−1 and enthalpy of activation is 2 A + B → C + D following results were ob-
9.6 kJ mol−1 . The correct potential energy tained
profile for the reaction is shown in option. Initial rate of
Exp [ A ]/mol L−1 [B]/mol L−1 formation of
D /mol L−1 min−1

I 0.1 0.1 6.0 × 10−3

II 0.3 0.2 7.2 × 10−2

III 0.3 0.4 2.88 × 10−1

IV 0.4 0.1 2.40 × 10−2

Based on the above data which one of the

following is correct?
(1) Rate = k[ A ]2 [B] (2) Rate = k[ A ][B]
(3) Rate = k[ A ] [B] 2 2
(4) Rate = k[ A ][B]2

61. Given below are sets of quantum numbers. 64. Which of the following statements is cor-
1 rect regarding a solution of two components
(i) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = + A and B exhibiting positive deviation from
2
1 ideal behaviour?
(ii) n = 3, l = 2, m = +1, s = −
2 (1) Intermolecular attractive forces be-

9 GIB CODE A
 tween A − A and B − B are equal to those (1) 5 (2) 4
between A − B. (3) 2 (4) 3
(2) Intermolecular attractive forces be-
tween A − A and B − B are stonger than 70. Match List-I with List-II.
those between A − B. List-I List-II
(3) ∆mix H = 0 at constant T and P . (Graph) (Slope)
(4) ∆mix V = 0 at constant T and P .
Ea
A. ln[R] vs t I. −
R
65. Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions,
which one will exhibit the largest freezing
point depression ?
1 1
B. ln k vs II.
T 2k
(1) KCl (2) C6 H12 O6
(3) Al2 (SO4 )3 (4) K2 SO4 [Ro ]
C. log vs t III. −k
[R]
66. If the series limit of wavelength of the Ly-
man series for the hydrogen atoms in 912Å,
k
then the series limit of wavelength for the D. t 1/2 vs [A]0 IV.
2.303
Balmer series of the hydrogen atom is:
(1) 912Å (2) 912 × 2Å Choose the correct answer from the options
912 given below
(3) 912 × 4Å (4)
2Å (1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
67. What is the mass % of H2 O in
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Fe(CNS)3 · 3H2 O ?
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(1) 45 (2) 30
(3) 19 (4) 25 71. Assertion (A) If 50% of a zero order reac-
tion is completed in 100 s , then, 75%
68. All form ideal solution except : of reaction will be completed in 150 s .
(1) C6 H6 and C6 H5 CH3 Reason (R) The rate constant of a zero or-
der reaction increases with time.
(2) C2 H5 Br and C2 H5 I
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the
(3) C6 H5 Cl and C6 H5 Br
correct explanation of A .
(4) C2 H5 I and C2 H5 OH (2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
69. In following aqueous solutions, how
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the cor-
many of them have same freezing point.
rect explanation of A .
(K b = 1.86 K kg/mol) ?
(i) 0.1 m KNO3 (ii) 0.1 m BaCl2 72. At 100◦ C the vapour pressure of a solution
(iii) 0.1 m AlCl3 (iv) 0.1 m Al2 (SO4 )3 of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732
mm Hg . If K b = 0.52, the boiling point of
(v) 0.1 m NH4 Cl

10 GIB CODE A
 this solution will be : (2) Elevation of boiling point
(1) 101◦ C (2) 100◦ C (3) Depression of freezing point
(3) 102◦ C (4) 103◦ C (4) Relative lowering of vapour pressure

73. For the reaction 77. The rate of the reaction

[ ]
1 2NO + Cl2 −→ 2NOCl is given by the rate,
N2 O5 (g) → 2NO2 (g) + O2 (g)
2 equation rate = k [NO]2 [Cl2 ]. The value of
The value of rate of disappearance of N2 O5 the rate constant can be increased by:
is given as 6.25 × 10−3 mol L−1 s−1 . The rate (1) increasing the concentration of NO
of formation of NO2 and O2 is given respec- (2) increasing the temperature
tively as :
(3) increasing the concentration of the Cl2
(1) 6.25 × 10−3 mol L−1 s−1 and
(4) doing all of these
6.25 × 10−3 mol L−1 s−1 ( )
(2) 1.25 × 10−2 mol L−1 s−1 and 78. The slope of Arrhenius plot ln k v/ s
1
of
−3 −1 −1
T
3.125 × 10 mol L s first order reaction is −5 × 103 K. The value
(3) 6.25 × 10 −3
mol L −1
s −1
and of E a of the reaction is :
3.125 × 10 −3
mol L−1
s−1 [Given R = 8.314JK−1 mol−1 ]
(4) 1.25 × 10−2 mol L−1 s−1 and (1) −83 kJ mol−1 (2) 41.5 kJ mol−1
6.25 × 10−3 mol L−1 s−1 (3) 83.0 kJ mol−1 (4) 166 kJ mol−1

74. A solution of acetone in ethanol : 79. In the reaction,

(1) shows a positive deviation from BrO− − +
3 (aq) + 5Br (aq) + 6H −→
Raoult’s law
3Br2 ( l ) + 3H2 O( l )
(2) behaves like an ideal solution
The rate of appearance of bromine (Br2 ) is
(3) obeys Raoult’s law
related to rate of disappearance of bromide
(4) shows a negative deviation from ions as following :
Raoult’s law d [Br2 ] 5 d [Br− ]
(1) =−
dt 3 dt
75. The rate constant of the reaction A → B is
0.6 × 10−3 mol L−1 s−1 . If the concentration d [Br2 ] 5 d [Br− ]
(2) =
of A is 5 M then concentration of B after 20 dt 3 dt
minutes is : d [Br2 ] 3 d [Br− ]
(3) =
(1) 1.08 M (2) 3.60 M dt 5 dt

(3) 0.36 M (4) 0.72 M d [Br2 ] 3 d [Br− ]

(4) =−
dt 5 dt
76. Which of the following colligative property
can provide molar mass of proteins (or poly- 80. 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid
(H X ) is 20% ionised. If K f for water is
mers or colloids) with greatest precision?
1.86 K kg mol−1 , the lowering in freezing
(1) Osmotic pressure

11 GIB CODE A
 point of the solution is : (1) 6 (2) 1
(1) 0.56 K (2) 1.12 K (3) 4 (4) 2
(3)−0.56 K (4) −1.12 K
SECTION B
81. A sample of pure carbon dioxide, irrespec-
tive of its source contains 27.27% carbon and 86. Match List-I with List-II.
72.73% oxygen. The data support: List-I (Prefix) List-ll (Multiple)
(1) Law of constant composition. A. Micro I. 106
(2) Law of conservation of mass. B. Mega II. 109
(3) Law of multiple proportions. C. Giga III. 10−6
(4) None of the above D. Femto IV. 10−15
Choose the correct answer from the options
82. The correct option for the value of vapour given below
pressure of a solution at 45◦ C with benzene (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
to octane in molar ratio 3 : 2 is :
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
[At 45◦ C vapour pressure of benzene is 280
mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Assume ideal gas] (4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(1) 350 mm of Hg (2) 160 mm of Hg
87. Match List-I with List-II.
(3) 168 mm of Hg (4) 336 mm of Hg
Column I (Orbitals) Column II (Nodes)

83. 7.5 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of vol-

A. 2s I. 2 radial, 1 angular
ume at STP, the gas is:
(1) NO (2) N2 O B. 4p II. 3 radial, 2 angular

(3) CO (4) CO2

C. 7f III. 1 radial, 0 angular

84. A bulb of 40 W is producing a light of wave-

D. 6d IV. 3 radial, 3 angular
length 620 nm with 80% of efficiency then
the number of photons emitted by the bulb Choose the correct answer from the option
(
in 20 seconds are 1eV = 1.6 × 10−19 J , hc = given below
12400eVÅ ): (1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(1) 2 × 10 18
(2) 1020 (2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(3) 1021 (4) 2 × 1021 (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
85. Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron
by weight. The molecular weight of 88. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid
haemoglobin is approximately 67,200 u. solution should be used to prepare 250 mL
The number of iron atoms (At. wt. of Fe = of 2.0 M HNO3 ? (The concentrated acid is
56) present in one molecule of haemoglobin 70% HNO3 by weight)
is:

12 GIB CODE A
 (1) 90.0 g conc. HNO3 (2) ∆Vmix
(2) 70.0 g conc. HNO3 (3) ∆P = Pobserved − PRaoult
(3) 54.0 g conc. HNO3 (4) ∆Hmix
(4) 45.0 g conc. HNO3
93. The MRI (magentic resonance imaging)
89. Among the following graph. body scanners used in hospitals operate with
400 MHz radio frequency. The wavelength
corresponding to this radio frequency is:
(1) 0.75 m (2) 0.75 cm
(3) 1.5 m (4) 2 cm

94. The van’t Hoff factor (i) for a compound

which undergoes dissociation in one solvent
and association in other solvent is respec-
tively :
(1) less than one and greater than one.
(2) less than one and less than one.
(3) greater than one and less than one.
The total number of graph, which represents (4) greater than one and greater than one.
the first order reaction is
(1) 3 (2) 1 95. If 60% of a first order reaction was com-
pleted in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reac-
(3) 2 (4) 4
tion would be completed in approximately :
90. A reaction is 50% completed in 2 hours and (1) 45 minutes (2) 60 minutes
75% completed in 4 hours. The order of re- (3) 40 minutes (4) 50 minutes
action is :
(1) 0 (2) 1 96. The following solutions were prepared by
dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6 H12 O6 ) in 250
(3) 2 (4) 3
mL of water (P1 ), 10 g of urea (CH4 N2 O) in
250 mL of water (P2 ) and 10 g of sucrose
91. An increase in the concentration of the re-
(C12 H22 O11 ) in 250 mL of water (P3 ). The
actants of a reaction leads to change in :
right option for the decreasing order of os-
(1) heat of reaction
motic pressure of these solution is :
(2) threshold energy
(1) P3 > P1 > P2 (2) P2 > P1 > P3
(3) collision frequency
(3) P1 > P2 > P3 (4) P2 > P3 > P1
(4) activation energy
97. In a sample of H -atom electrons make tran-
92. Which one is not equal to zero for an ideal
sition from 5th excited state to ground state,
solution:
producing all possible types of photons, then
(1) ∆Smix number of lines in infrared region are:

13 GIB CODE A
 (1) 4 (2) 5 O2 , NH3 and CO2 at STP are:
(3) 6 (4) 3 (1) In the order: CO2 < O2 < NH3
(2) In the order: NH3 < O2 < CO2
98. A solution of urea boils at 100.18◦ C at the at- (3) The same in all
mospheric pressure. If K f and K b for water (4) In the order: NH3 < CO2 < O2
are 1.86 and 0.512 K kg mol−1 respectively,
the above solution will freeze at : 100. 4.4 g of CO2 and 2.24 litre of H2 at STP are
(1) 0.654◦ C (2) −0.654◦ C mixed in a container. The total number of
(3) 6.54◦ C (4) −6.54◦ C molecules present in the container will be:
(1) 6.023 × 1023 (2) 1.2046 × 1023
99. Number of molecules in 100 ml each of (3) 6.023 × 1022 (4) 6.023 × 1024

BOTANY
SECTION A 106. Companion cells are associated with
(1) Tracheids
101. Water containing cavities in vascular bun- (2) Phloem parenchyma
dles are found in (3) Sieve tubes
(1) Sunflower (2) Maize (4) Xylem vessels.
(3) Cycas (4) Pinus.
107. Match the following
102. Casparian strips occur in Column I Column II
(1) Epidermis (2) Pericycle a. Seed i) Funaria
(3) Cortex (4) Endodermis b. Rhizome ii) Fucus
c. Rhizoid iii) Ginkgo
103. Closed vascular bundles lack d. Hold fast iv) Equisetum
(1) Cambium
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(2) Pith
(2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i d-iv
(3) Ground tissue
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(4) Conjunctive tissue.
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
104. The girth or diameter of the stem increases
108. Coralloid roots are associated with
due to the activity of the following.
(1) Fungi
(1) Apical meristems
(2) N2 - fixing cyanobacteria
(2) Intercalary meristems
(3) Rhizobium
(3) Lateral meristems
(4) None of these.
(4) Parenchyma cells
109. The reduced male gametophyte of gym-
105. The commonly found tissue in pulp of fruits
nosperm is called
like guava and in leaves of tea is
(1) Pollen grain (2) Embryo sac
(1) Collenchyma (2) Parenchyma
(3) Anther (4) Megaspore
(3) Chlorenchyma (4) Sclereid.

14 GIB CODE A
110. Which among the following is not a prokary- 117. Life cycles of Polysiphonia and Ectocarpus are
ote? respectively
(1) Anabaena (2) Nostoc (1) Haplontic, Haplo-diplontic.
(3) Mycoplasma (4) Euglena (2) Haplo-diplontic, Diplontic
(3) Haplo-diplontic, Haplontic
111. Match the following (4) Haplo-diplontic, Haplo-diplontic
Column I Column II
a) Rust fungi i) Trypanosoma 118. The taxonomy based on chromosome num-
b) Smut fungi ii) Desmids ber and behaviour
c) Golden algae iii) Puccinia (1) Chemotaxonomy
d) Sleeping sickness iv) Ustilago (2) Cytotaxonomy
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (3) Numerical taxonomy
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (4) Phytotaxonomy
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 119. Read the following statements and identify
the correct option.
112. Floridean starch is similar to (1) Selaginella and Salvinia are homo-
(1) Glycogen and cellulose sporous
(2) Starch and cellulose (2) Horsetail are gymnosperms
(3) Amylopectin and glycogen (3) Ovules are enclosed by ovary wall in
(4) Pectose and amylopectin gymnosperms
(4) Cycas is dioecious
113. Citrus canker is caused by
(1) Virus (2) Fungi 120. The mesocarp in coconut is
(3) Bacteria (4) Prions (1) Fleshy (2) Stony
(3) Fibrous (4) Milky.
114. Which among the class of fungus reproduce
asexually by producing conidia 121. Basal placentation is/are found in
(1) Ascomycetes and Deuteromycetes (1) Marigold (2) Rice
(2) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes (3) Barley (4) All of these
(3) Basidiomycetes and Phycomycetes
(4) Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes. 122. Endosperm is completely consumed by the
developing embryo before seed maturation
115. Marine algae used as food in
(1) Porphyra (2) Laminaria (1) Pea, groundnut and castor
(3) Sargassum (4) All of these (2) Groundnut, bean and coconut
(3) Pea, gram and bean
116. Identify the diseases caused by viruses (4) None of the above.
(1) AIDS, Cholera, Tetanus, Small pox
(2) Mumps, Small pox, Herpes, Influenza 123. The flower of Calotropis has which of the fol-
(3) Cholera, Tetanus, Mumps, Herpes lowing aestivations?
(4) Tuberculosis, Typhoid, Small pox, AIDS (1) Twisted (2) Imbricate

15 GIB CODE A
 (3) Valvate (4) Vexillary Column I
Column II
(Modifications
124. Lodicules are scale like structures found be-
(Examples)
in plants)
low the ovary in the flower of A. Tap root 1. Sweet potato
(1) Wheat B. Adventitious root 2. Turnip
(2) Lily C. Stem 3. Onion
(3) Mustard D. Leaf 4. Potato

(4) Sunflower A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
125. Syngenesious stamens are found in (2) 2 3 1 4
(1) Helianthus (3) 2 1 4 3
(2) Lupin (4) 4 3 2 1

(3) Hibiscus 130. Match the following columns.

(4) None of these

126. Cruciform corolla is characteristic of Family

(1) Asteraceae
(2) Brassicaceae
(3) Poaceae
(4) Malvaceae

127. In Banana, Pineapple and Chrysanthemum,

the lateral branches originate from the basal
and underground portion of main stem grow
horizontally beneath the soil and then come A B C
obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots (1) 3 2 1
(1) Runner (2) Offset (2) 3 1 2
(3) Bulb (4) Sucker (3) 1 2 3
(4) 1 3 2
128. In which plant the underground stem
spreads to new niches and when older parts 131. Identify the incorrect match.
die new plants are formed?
(1) Stamens attached to petals -
(1) Grasses
Epipetalous
(2) Strawberry
(2) Stamens attached to perianth - Episepa-
(3) Pistia
lous
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Free stamens - Polyandrous
(4) Sterile stamen - Staminode
129. Match the following columns and choose
the correct option from the codes given be-
132. Apical meristem and intercalary meristem
low.
are called primary meristem because

16 GIB CODE A
 (1) They appear early in plant and con- 137. Consider the following statements about
tribute to the formation of primary Deuteromycetes
plant body (I) Some members are saprophytes or par-
(2) They make secondary tissue asites
(3) They make whole plant body (II) A large number of members are decom-
(4) All of these posers of litter and help in mineral cy-
cling.
133. Simple tissue, which constitutes few layers (III) Alternaria, Colletotrichum,
below the epidermis in most of dicotyle- Aspergillus, Trichoderma are examples of
donous plants are Deuteromycetes.
(1) Parenchyma
Which of the statements given above are
(2) Phloem
correct?
(3) Collenchyma
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(4) Sclerenchyma
(3) II and III (4) All of these

134. Choose the incorrect match.

138. T.O Diener discovered a new infectious
(1) Vessels - Cells are dead with thick chiti- agent that was smaller than viruses
nous cell walls consider the following statements about this
(2) Tracheids - Elongated tube-like cells infectious agent
with thick and lignified walls and taper-
(I) It causes potato spindle tuber disease
ing ends
(II) These are infectious RNA particles.
(3) Xylem fibres - Cells possess highly
(III) It lacks a protein coat
thickened walls with obliterated central
The above statements are assigned to
lumen.
(1) Prions (2) Viroids
(4) Xylem parenchyma - Cells are living
(3) Viruses (4) Lichen.
with thin cellulosic cell walls
139. Select the wrong statement
135. Stomata in grass leaf are
(1) Rectangular (1) The term ‘contagium vivum fluidum’ was
(2) Kidney shaped coined by M.W. Beijerinck
(3) Dumb-bell shaped (2) W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could
(4) Barrel shaped be crystallised
(3) Mosaic disease in tobacco is caused by
SECTION B bacteria
(4) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy in
cattle is caused by prions
136. Subsidiary cells are the specialised cell in
the 140. Identify the correct statements from the fol-
(1) Vicinity of guard cells lowing regarding basidiomycetes.
(2) Vicinity of stomatal cells (a) The asexual spores are generally ab-
(3) Absence of stomatal cells sent.
(4) Absence of guard cells (b) Sex organs are absent, but sexual repro-
duction takes place by the fusion of two

17 GIB CODE A
 somatic cells. lary, unilocular ovary
(c) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic (4) Persistent calyx, epipetalous stamens
(d) Asexual spore is motile zoospores and leguminous fruit
(1) a and c (2) b and c
(3) c and d (4) a and b 144. Match the modification in column I with the
part modified in column II and choose the
141. Assertion (A): The two Kingdom classifica- right option.
tion, used for a long time, was found to be Column I Column II
inadequate Pneumatophores
A. (i) Stem
Reason (R): Two kingdom system of clas- in Rhizophora
sification did not distinguish between the B. Tendrils in Pea (ii) Roots
C. Thorns in Citrus (iii) Leaves
eukaryotes and prokaryotes, unicellular and
multicellular organisms and photosynthetic (1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii)
green algae and non-photosynthetic fungi. (2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii)
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the (3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i)
correct explanation of A (4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i)
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the
145. Match the plants in column I with their mod-
correct explanation of A
ification types in column II and choose the
(3) If A is true, but R is false
right options given below.
(4) If A is false, but R is true
Column I Column II
142. The partial floral formula of a flower is (A) Ginger (i) Flattened stem
K(5) C5 A(∞) G(5) Which of the following set (B) Pumpkin (ii) Thorns
of information is conveyed here? (C) Bougainvillea (iii) Stem tendrils
(D) Opuntia (iv) Underground stem
(1) Gamosepalous, polypetalous, syncar-
pous and superior ovary (1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
(2) Polysepalous, polypetalous, syncarpous (2) (A)-(iv), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iii)
and inferior ovary (3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(3) Gamosepalous, gamopetalous, polycar- (4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
pous and superior ovary
(4) Gamosepalous, polypetalous, syncar- 146. The transverse section of a plant shows fol-
pous and inferior ovary lowing anatomical features:
(i) Large number of scattered vascular
143. Identify the set of characteristics related to bundles surrounded by bundle sheath
plants belonging to family Fabaceae from (ii) Large conspicuous parenchymatous
the following. ground tissue
(1) Papilionaceous corolla, axile placenta- (iii) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed
tion and leguminous fruit (iv) Phloem parenchyma absent
(2) Actinomorphic flower, syncarpous Identify the category of plant and its
ovary and marginal placentation part.
(3) Vexillary aestivation of corolla, di- (1) Monocotyledonous stem
adelphous stamens and monocarpel- (2) Monocotyledonous root

18 GIB CODE A
 (3) Dicotyledonous stem (4) A-Mustard, B- Rose, C- Plum, D- Brinjal
(4) Dicotyledonous root
149. Identify A, B and C indicated in the diagram
147. Select the correct matching. of root apex given below.

(1) A - Tomato, B - Argemone,

C-Dianthus, D - Sunflower
(2) A - Dianthus, B - Argemone,
C- Tomato, D - Sunflower
(3) A - Tomato, B - Sunflower,
C-Dianthus, D - Argemone
(4) A - Argemone, B - Tomato,
(1) A-Vascular bundle, B-Epidermis, C-
C-Dianthus, D - Sunflower
Root apical meristem
(2) A-Cortex, B-Epidermis, C-Shoot apical
148. Diagrams of hypogynous, perigynous and
meristem
epigynous flowers are given below.
(3) A-Cortex, B-Protoderm, C-Root apical
meristem
(4) A-Cortex, B-Epidermis,
C-Protoderm

150. Assertion (A): Leaves of both monocot and

dicot plants generally possess parallel vena-
Find out the option that correctly exempli- tion.
fies A, B, C and D. Reason (R): Parallel venation is the charac-
teristic feature of monocot plants.
(1) A-Mustard, B- Rose, C- Plum,
D- Guava (1) If both A and R are true and R is the
(2) A-Cucumber, B- Plum, C- Rose, D- Brin- correct explanation of A
jal (2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the
(3) A-China rose, B- Guava, C- Rose, D- correct explanation of A
Mustard (3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) If A is false, but R is true

ZOOLOGY
SECTION A matched ?
(i) Acidic aminoacids - Palmitic acid ,
Arachidonic acid
151. How many of the following are incorrectly

19 GIB CODE A
 (ii) Basic aminoacids - Arginine and Lysine given.
(iii) Aromatic aminoacids -Tryptophan,
Tyrosine
(iv) Heteropolysaccharides - Starch , Inulin
(v) Toxins - Curcumin , Vinblastin
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four

152. Select the incorrect statement regarding

enzyme action
(1) Low temperature preserves the enzyme (1) A - Proteins (2) E - Lipids
in a temporarily inactive state (3) B - Nucleic acids (4) C - Ions
(2) High temperature denatures proteins
156. The given structure represents a monosac-
and destroys enzyme activity
charide known as
(3) Activity of enzymes decline above and
below the optimum value
(4) Enzymes of human body can function
at a wide temperature range

153. Statement I: Lipids are organic compounds

containing amino group and carboxyl group
as substituents of the same carbon atom
Statement II: R group of a fatty acid could
be a hydrogen, a methyl group or hydroxy
(1) Ribose (2) Glucose
methyl.
(3) Fructose (4) Deoxyribose
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are
correct 157. In which of the following energy is released?
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are (1) Conversion of glucose to pyruvate
incorrect (2) Formation of proteins from amino acids
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II (3) Conversion of glucose to lactic acid
is incorrect (4) Both (1) & (3)
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-
II is correct 158. Find the correctly matched pair
(1) Polypeptide chain - First aminoacid in
154. The ’R’ group of glycine and serine are re-
the left end is C-terminal aminoacid
spectively
(2) Polysaccharide chain - The left end has
(1) Hydrogen and Hydroxyl group
reducing sugar and the right end has
(2) Methyl and Hydroxy methyl group
non reducing sugar
(3) Methyl group and Ethyl group
(3) In a nucleic acid chain - A nitrogen base
(4) Hydrogen and Hydroxy methyl group
links the 30 -carbon of one sugar of one
nucleotide to the 50 carbon of the sugar
155. Select the correct match based on the graph
of the next nucleotide

20 GIB CODE A
 (4) Phosphoester bond - Between phos- (3) (b) & (c) (4) (a) & (d)
phate and hydroxyl group of sugar
163. Match columns I and II and select the cor-
159. In a polysaccharide chain, the bond formed rect option
between two carbon atoms of two monosac- Column I Column II
charides is called: 1 Niacin A Peroxidase, Catalase
(1) N-glycosidic bond Carbonic anhydrase,
(2) Peptide bond 2 Haem B
Carboxy peptidase
(3) Glycosidic bond 3 Zn C NAD, NADP
(4) Phosphodiester bond
4 Cofactors D Metal ions, Coenzymes
160. Find the mismatched pair regarding chemi- (1) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
cal bonds (2) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
(1) Alpha helix of protein - Peptide bonds (3) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
and hydrogen bonds (4) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C
(2) Tertiary structure of protein - Hydrogen
bonds, disulphide bonds 164. Refer to the reactions
(3) Primary structure of proteins - Peptide 1. ...A... + Phosphate → Cytidylic acid
bonds 2. Adenine + ...B... → Adenosine
(4) Nucleotide - Phosphodiester bond and 3. Uridine + Phosphate → ...C...
N-glycosidic bond (1) A-Cytosine, B-deoxyribose sugar,
C-Uridylic acid
161. The product of the given reaction would be a (2) A-Cytidine, B-deoxyribose sugar,
C- Uridylic acid
(3) A-Cytidine, B-Ribose sugar,
C-Uridylic acid
(4) A-Deoxycytidine, B-Ribose sugar,
C-Uridine
(1) Lecithin (2) Polypeptide
(3) Triglyceride (4) Phospholipid
165.
162. Study the following statements :
a. The substrate binds to the active site of
the enzyme.
b. Enzymes isolated from thermophilic or-
ganisms denature at 50◦ C.
c. The active site of enzyme breaks the
chemical bonds of the product.
d. Prosthetic groups are tightly bound to
the apoenzyme.
The above structure depicts:
Select the option which includes all correct
statements : (1) Starch, a polysaccharide which can
(1) (a) & (c) (2) (c) & (d) hold

21 GIB CODE A
 iodine in its helix ureter
(2) Cellulose, a polymer of glucose present (V) Vasa efferentia - 10-12 in number and
in plant cell wall arises from kidney
(3) Inulin, a polymer of fructose present in (1) One (2) Two
the root of Dahlia plant (3) Three (4) Four
(4) Glycogen, a storage polysaccharide
which is a branched polymer of glucose 169. Read the following statements with respect
to cockroach
166. In each abdominal segment of cockroach, (A) Heart of cockroach consist of an elon-
exoskeleton has hardened plates called ’A’ gated muscular tube lying along mid
dorsally and ’B’ ventrally. The hardened ventral line of thorax and abdomen
chitinous plates are joined by C (B) In the head region, brain is represented
Choose the option that correctly identifies by supra oesophageal ganglion which
A, B and C supplies nerves to antennae and com-
A B C pound eyes
Thick arthrodial
(1) Sternites Tergites (1) Both statements (A) and (B) are true
membrane
(2) Both statements (A) and (B) are false
Thick arthrodial
(2) Tergites Sclerites
membrane
(3) Only statement (A) is true
Thin arthrodial (4) Only statement (B) is true
(3) Tergites Sternites
membrane
170. Observe the following graphical representa-
Thin arthrodial
(4) Sclerites Tergites tions and find out which is the correct rep-
membrane
resentation showing the impact of pH on en-
167. Identify the incorrect statement regarding zyme action ?
frog.
(1) Eyes of frog are protected by nictitating
membrane
(2) Hind limbs are much larger and muscu-
lar than fore limbs
(3) Copulatory pad of male frog is seen in
the first digit of fore limbs
(4) Hind limbs have four digits and the fore
limbs have five digits

168. How many of the following are mismatched

171. How many of the following pairs are incor-
regarding Rana tigrina ?
rectly matched regarding the morphology of
(I) Sinus venosus - triangle shaped, joins Periplaneta ?
left atrium
(i) Head - Fusion of six segments
(II) Lymph - colour less, without RBCs and
(ii) Hind gut - Pharynx, Oesophagus, Crop
few proteins
and Gizzard
(III) Skin - aquatic respiratory organ
(iii) Mesenteron - Six hardened chitinous
(IV) Bidder’s canal - transports ova into the

22 GIB CODE A
 plates for grinding food ity and homoiothermy
(iv) Hepatic caeca - 100-150, at the junction (4) Chelone, Chameleon - Pulmonary respi-
of midgut and hind gut ration and poikilothermy
(v) Tegmina - Mesothoracic wing, protects
hind wings during flight 176. Identify the correctly matched pair regard-
(1) Two (2) Three ing the tissue and its two characteristics
(3) Four (4) Five

172. Certain statements regarding the reproduc-

tive system of Periplaneta are given. All
statements are false except :
(1) Spermatheca of males store sperms
(2) Collaterial gland and phallic gland are
parts of male reproductive system
(3) Phallomeres are three asymmetrical
chitinous plates around male gonopore
(4) Female brood pouch is formed by 9th
and 10th tergites and 9th sternum

173. Match List I with List II

List I List II 177. Match the columns and find the correct op-
A. Chondrichthyes I. Pterophyllum tion
B. Amphibia II. Ichthyophis Column I Column II Column III
1) Ctenophora (a) Ancylostoma (i) Bioluminescence
C. Osteichthyes III. Pteropus 2) Platyhelminthes (b) Pleurobrachia (ii) Acoelomate
D. Mammalia IV. Pristis 3) Cyclostomata (c) Planaria (iii) Migration
4) Aschelminthes (d) Ophiura (iv) Endoskeleton
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 5) Echinodermata (e) Petromyzon (v) Endoparasite
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (1) 1 − b − i, 2 − c − ii, 3 − b − iii, 4 − e − v, 5 − d − iv
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (2) 1 − d − i, 2 − e − ii, 3 − c − ii, 4 − a − v, 5 − d − iv
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (3) 1 − b − i, 2 − c − ii, 3 − e − iii, 4 − a − v, 5 − d − iv
(4) 1 − b − i, 2 − a − ii, 3 − d − ii, 4 − e − v, 5 − c − iv.
174. Open circulatory system is present in:
(1) Locusta, Pheretima, Saccoglossus 178. In a double stranded DNA:
(2) Hirudinaria, Bombyx, Pheretima (1) There are always equal number of Gua-
(3) Balanoglossus, Pila, Periplaneta nine and Cytosine
(4) Pheretima, Musca, Pila (2) Adenine always base pairs with Gua-
nine
175. Identify the incorrect match
(3) The two DNA strands are linked
(1) Hemidactylus, Calotes - Tympanum and through phosphodiester bonds
Cloacal aperture (4) Contains Adenylic acid and Guanylic
(2) Petromyzon, Pteropus - Ventral heart and acids as purine nucleotides
poikilothermy
(3) Ornithorhynchus, Aptenodytes - Ovipar-

23 GIB CODE A
179. Assertion (A): Fat exhibits low melting (4) R group - Same for all aminoacids
point whereas oils exhibit high melting
point. 182. Incorrect option regarding Watson and
Reason (R): Fat is rich in unsaturated fatty- Crick double helical model of DNA is:
acids with high packing efficiency whereas (1) Pitch of helix = 34 A ◦
oils are rich in saturated fatty acids with low (2) Complementary and antiparallel DNA
packing efficiency strands
(1) If both assertion and reason are true (3) Each step of ascent is represented by a
and reason is the correct explanation of pair of bases
assertion. (4) Purine of one strand always base pairs
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but with a purine of the other strand
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. 183. Identify the incorrect option regarding
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. Rana tigrina
(4) If assertion and reason are false (1) Foramen magnum - Opening at the base
of skull
180. How many of the following are mismatched (2) Cranial nerves - 12 pairs
regarding biomolecules ? (3) Male ureter - Urinogenital duct
(i) Proteins, Carbohydrates, Lipids - (4) Urinary bladder - Ventral to rectum
Molecular weight exceeds 10000 Da
(ii) GLUT-4 - Transport of aminoacids into 184. All of the following are true regarding
the cell Periplaneta except :
(iii) CH3 − (CH2 )14 − COOH - Trihydroxy (1) Antennae - Has sensory receptors
propane (2) Spiracles - Regulated by sphincters
(iv) (3) Ootheca - Laid in regions with high
humidity near a food source
(4) Labrum - Lower lip

185. Hepatic portal system of frog connects:

(v) Lecithin - Concanavalin A (1) Small intestine and kidney
(vi) Cellulose - Most abundant protein of (2) Lower parts of trunk and kidney
biosphere (3) Small intestine and pancreas
(1) Five (2) Six (4) Small intestine and liver
(3) Four (4) Three

181. Find the correctly matched pair SECTION B

(1) Collagen - A polysaccharide
(2) Nucleic acids - 10 − 15% of total cellular 186. The number of cyclic rings present in Gua-
mass nine and Cytosine are
(3) Na, Ca, Mg - Relative abundance is (1) 2,1 respectively
higher in the earth’s crust than in the (2) 1,2 respectively
living tissue (3) 2,2 respectively

24 GIB CODE A
 (4) 1,1 respectively cava
(4) Sac like conus arteriosus is present at
187. Find the true statement regarding Rana the dorsal side of heart
(1) Gall bladder is absent
(2) Rectum opens out through anus 192. For female frog, which of the following are
(3) Urinary bladder is absent false?
(4) Adrenal gland is present (I) One pair of ovaries are situated near
kidneys
188. Which one of the following pairs of ni- (II) Ovaries are compact, oval shaped and
trogenous bases of nucleic acids is wrongly yellow coloured
matched with the category mentioned (III) Fusion of gametes occur within the
against it? cloaca
(1) Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines (IV) Oviduct and ureter open separately into
(2) Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines the cloaca
(3) Guanine, Adenine - Purines (V) A female frog can lay 2500-3000 ova at
(4) Adenine, Thymine - Purines a time
(1) I and II (2) II and III
189. Exoskeleton of arthropods possess chitin
(3) I and IV (4) IV and V
which is not:
(1) A complex polysaccharide 193. Assertion (A): Consciousness is a defining
(2) A polymer of N -acetyl glucosamine property of living organisms.
(3) A polymer of N-acetyl galactosamine Reason (R): All organisms, except prokary-
(4) Found in the cell wall of fungi otes can sense their surroundings and re-
spond to environmental cues which could be
190. Match the columns correctly, regarding the physical, chemical or biological
CNS of frog.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true
Column I Column II
A. Fore brain (i) A pair of optic lobes and reason is the correct explanation of
B. Mid brain (ii) Cerebellum and medulla oblongata assertion.
Olfactory lobe, paired cerebral
C. Hind brain (iii)
hemispheres, unpaired diencephalon
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of
(1) A - (i), B - (iii), C - (ii)
assertion.
(2) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii)
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii)
(4) If assertion and reason are false
(4) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii)
194. Hydroxymethyl is the side chain of which
191. Choose the correct statement regarding the
aminoacid?
circulatory system of frog:
(1) Tyrosine (2) Serine
(1) Lymph and lymph channels are present
(3) Cysteine (4) Methionine
but lymph nodes are absent
(2) The left atrium receives deoxygenated 195. Identify the true statements
blood through sinus venosus
(i) Fibroblast cells secrete structural pro-
(3) Sinus venosus receives blood from vena
teins and modified polysaccharides that

25 GIB CODE A
 forms the matrix of connective tissue (1) Lecithin - Lipid with phosphate and
(ii) Mast cells of areolar tissue secrete his- phosphorylated organic compound
tamine which induces inflammation re- (2) Competitive inhibition - Decrease in K m
actions and Vmax value
(iii) Chondrocytes secrete a non-pliable (3) Heterocyclic ring - Uracil and Cytosine
polysaccharide which forms the matrix (4) NAD, NADP - Coenzymes that tran-
of cartilage siently bind to apoenzyme
(iv) Tendon is a dense irregular connective
tissue with abundant collagen bundles 198.
(v) All striated muscles are branched and
multinucleated
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(2) (iii) and (iv) only
(3) (i) and (ii) only
(4) (i) , (ii), (iii) and (iv)

196. In the following diagram of alimentary

canal of cockroach, identify the labels A, B,
C and D respectively. The above diagram represent the nitroge-
nous bases. Identify the correct combina-
tion:
(1) A= Adenine; B= Thymine
(2) A = Guanine; B = Thymine
(3) A = Adenine; B = Uracil
(4) A= Guanine; B= Uracil

199. Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) Nucleotide - Nucleosides = phosphate
(2) Nucleoside + Phosphate = Nucleotide
(3) Nucleotide - Phosphate = Pentose sugar
(1) ’A’ is an elongated sac like structure (4) Nucleoside - Pentose sugar = Nitrogen
called mesenteron for storing food base
(2) ’B’ has an outer layer of thick circular
muscles and six inner highly chitinous 200. Find the correctly matched pair
plates (1) Fatty acids in a diglyceride - Phospho-
(3) ’C’ is proventriculus which are 6-8 blind ester bond
tubules that secrete digestive juice (2) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide -
(4) ’D’ are 100 − 150 yellow coloured N - glycosidic bond
tubules differentiated as ileum, colon (3) Between a purine and a pyrimidine in a
and rectum DNA - Phosphodiester bond
(4) Between glycine and alanine - Peptide
197. Select the incorrect match bond

26 GIB CODE A
 GREAT INDIAN BATTLE
EXAMINATION
SOLUTIONS
CODE A

PHYSICS

SECTION A 2vb =
16D
60
8D D 60 30 15
vb = ⇒t= = = =
60 vb 8 4 2
1. (4)
= 7. 5 h
For same range angle of projection should
be θ and 90-θ 4. (1)

2. (2)
Distance = 1000 m
Time taken = 100 s
1000
Velocity = = 10 m/s
100
This is velocity of scooterist with respect to
bus.
So the scooterist should have an additional
velocity of 10 m/s 5. (1)
∴ Net Velocity of Scooterist = 20 m/s v2
Maximum Range , R= = 100
g
3. (2)
v2 100
vb = Velocity of boat Maximum height, H = = = 50 m
2g 2
vr = Velocity of river
6. (4)
D D
= 6 hrs = 10hrs Maximum Range is possible, when θ = 45◦
vb + vr vb − vr

vb + vr =
D
(1) 7. (3)
6 2π
Angular speed of second hand ωs =
D 60
vb − vr = (2) 2π
10 Angular speed of minute hand ωm =
Adding (1) and (2) 60 × 60
ωm 1
=
D D ωs 60
2vb = +
6 10

1 GIB CODE A
 8. (3)
v2
Centripetal acceleration =
r
5×5
=
10
= 2.5 m/s
Tangential acceleration = 2 ms−2
√
Resultant acceleration = (2.5)2 + 22 =3.2
m/s

9. (1)
1 1
mv2x = mv2 × cos2 60
2 2
1 1
= mv2 ×
2 4
K
=
4

10. (1)
It is accelerated towards earth, hence it has
For A
a parabolic path
T − 2 g = 2a

11. (3) T = 2( g + a) ……(i)

Change in velocity for a complete circle is For C
zero, hence acceleration (average)=0 2 g − T 0 = 2a
T 0 = 2( g − a) ……...(ii)
12. (3)
For B
Scalar Quantity has no direction. Hence it
T 0 + 2 g − T = 2a ……...(iii)
doesn’t varies with orientation of axis.
Substitute for T 0

13. (2) 2 g − 2a + 2 g − T = 2a
m(v − 0)
F= 4 g − 4a = T
t
150 × 10−3 (20) 4( g − a) = T
=
0. 1 2( g − a) = g + a
= 30 N
2 g − 2a = g + a
g
14. (2) a=
14 3
Acceleration of block = = 2 m/s2 ( g)
0
7 T =2 g−
3
Force between 4 kg and 2 kg, block = 3 × 2
4 g 4 × 9. 8
=6 N = = = 13 N
3 3

15. (2) 16. (4)

2 GIB CODE A
 Force, F = ma = 65 × 1 = 65 N 22. (4)

17. (1)
Above 6th coin there are 4 more coins.
Hence the Reaction on 7th coin by 6th coin
is the force exerted by the 4 coins above it
due to weight. Force = 4mg
Coefficient of friction = tan θ
18. (3) = tan 45 = 1
Force exerted by floor on
man = m( g − g) 23. (2)
F = µk mg = 0.3 × 50 × 9.8
=0
= 147 N
19. (1)
Weight when accelerating
upwards = m( g + a) 24. (3)
Fnet = F ⃗1 + F ⃗2
= 60(10 + 2)
= 8 î + 4 ĵ + 4 k̂
= 12 × 60 Fnet
acceleration, a =
= 720 N 4
= 2 î + ĵ + k̂
Weight when accelerating downwards
= m( g − 9)
25. (1)
= 60(10 − 2)
Impulse = 0.15(10 − 0) × 2
= 60 × 8
= 2 × 0.15 × 10 = 3 Ns
= 480 N
26. (3)
20. (4)
v2 = u2 − 2as ⇒ 52 = 202 − 2a × 100
For mass m
25 = 400 − 200a
mg − T = ma
200a = 400 − 25
T = m( g − a)
For mass M = 375
T − µ M g = Ma 375
a= = 1.875
200
mg − ma − µ M g = Ma
Force, F = ma
( m − µ M ) g = ( m + M )a
( ) = 20 × 1.875
m − µM
a= g = 37.5 N
m+M
Since the velocity is decreasing force will be
21. (4) negative
µ = 0.25
p
v = µr g 27. (1)
p Applying conservation of momentum
= 0.25 × 40 × 10
= 10 m/s

3 GIB CODE A
 Momentum of 8 kg = 20 kgm/s ∆g
× 100 =
∆l
× 100 + 2 ×
∆T
× 100
g l T
p2 20 × 20
K · E of 8 kg = = = 1% + 2 × 2%
2m 2×8
= 1 + 4 = 5%
= 25 J

32. (4)
28. (1)
d
vA = ( x A ( t)) = α + 2β t 33. (4)
dt

vB =
d
( xB ( t)) = 2γ t − 3δ t2 34. (1)
dt CV 2 = dimension of energy
Put t = 0 [ ]
ML2 T−2
v A = α, vB = 0, hence, A move fast
35. (4)
29. (2) A, B, have same dimension
Velocity, v = | t − 2| D, E , have same dimension
at t = 2, velocity, v = 0 [
A = LT−1
]

C [ −1 ]
= LT
D
[C ] = L
D = [ T ], E = [ T ]

SECTION B

Distance travelled = Area under v-t graph 36. (1)

1 1 Speed of police van = 30 km/hr
= ×2×2+ ×2×2
2 2
Speed of thief van = 192 km/hr
= 4m
Speed of bullet = 150 m/s = 540 km/hr
30. (4) Resultant speed of bullet = 540 + 30
VP + VQ = 6 m/s . . . . . . (1)
= 570 km/hr
VP − VQ = 2.4 m/s . . . . . . (2)
(1) + (2) ⇒ 2VP = 8.4 m/s Speed of the bullet when hitting on car
VP = 4.2 m/s = 570 km/hr − 192 km/hr
VQ = 4.2 − 2.4 = 378 km/hr
= 1.8 m/s = 105 m/s

31. (4) 37. (2)

4π 2 l 4π2 l 1 2 1
T2 = , g= v1 sin 30( t) − gt = v2 t − gt2
g T2 2 2

4 GIB CODE A
 v1 sin 30 = v2 16 R1 4
= ⇒ =
v1 1 1 2 1 R2 1
= = =
v2 sin 30 1/2 1 40. (4)
v2 1
= = 0. 5
v1 2 (1) ⃗
a +⃗ d = 0,
c +⃗
b +⃗
38. (1) If ⃗
a = −⃗
c
x = u x t , here u x = 1 m/ s ⃗
b = −⃗d
x=t (2) ⃗
a +⃗ c +⃗
b = −(⃗ d)
1 2 a +⃗
|⃗ c +⃗
b| = |⃗ d|
y = ut + gt , here u y = 2 m/ s
2
1 (3) ⃗
a = −(⃗ c +⃗
b +⃗ d)
= 2t − × 10 × t2
2 hence it cannot be greater than ⃗b +⃗c +⃗d
= 2 t − 5 t , (put x = t)
2
(4) Is correct
= 2 x − 5 x2
41. (3)
39. (2) (1) m( g − a) = 40(10 − 4)
1 = 6 × 40
mv12 cos2 θ1
Ratio of minimum K · E = 2 = 240 N
1
mv22 cos2 θ2 rope will not break
2
v12 cos2 θ1 (3) m( g + a) = 40(10 + 6)
=
v22 cos2 θ2 = 16 × 40

v12 sin2 θ1 = 640

2g v12 sin2 θ1 The rope will break
Ratio of max height = =
v22 sin2 θ2 v22 sin2 θ2
2g 42. (2)
Force of friction on block = µ mg
v12 2 sin θ1 cos θ1
= 0.15 × 40 × 10
g
Ratio of maximum range = = 60 N
v22 2 sin θ2 cos θ2
g Psuedo force on block due to
v12 sin θ1 cos θ1 acceleration of truck = 40 × 2
=
v22 sin θ2 cos θ2 = 80 N

R 12 v14 sin2 θ1 cos2 θ1 ∴ Net force on the block = 80 − 60

Squaring =
R 22 v24 sin2 θ2 cos2 θ2 = 20 N
K · E 1 H1 20
= × Acceleration of block along the truck =
K · E 2 H2 40
1
= ⇒ 0.5 m/s2
2

5 GIB CODE A
 1 1
Distance, S = at2 5 = u + a . . . . . . (1)
2 2
1 5
= × 0.5 × t2 2 = u + a . . . . . . (2)
2 2
= 5 m. −3
(2) − (1) − 3 = 2a, ⇒ a =
2
5
t2 = = 20 −3
0.25 F = ma = 4 × = −6 N
2
Distance travelled by the truck
1 2 47. (2)
= at = 20 m 5
2 Applied force = × 10 = 0.05 N
1000
43. (2) Velocity = 10 m/s
N = mg = 5 × 10 = 50 N
Mass of bullet = 1 g = 0.001 kg
30 g − N = 30 a
N = 30( g − a) 0.05 = n × 0.001 × 10
= 30(9.8 − 0.1) n=5
= 30 × 9.7
= 291 N 48. (3)

44. (2)
m2 − m1 9
a= g= p
m1 + m2 2
m2 − m1 1
=p
m1 + m2 2
p p
2m2 − 2m1 = m1 + m2
p p
( 2 − 1) m 2 = ( 2 + 1) m 1
p
m1 2−1
=p
m2 2+1

45. (4)
(1) At extreme position the velocity is zero
and when the string is cut there is Tcos θ = mg
only acceleration ’g’, hence it will move mg
straight downwards T=
cos θ
(2) At mean position the horizontal veloc- 10 × 10
ity is not zero, hence the body will =
1/2
move in parabolic path. when the sting = 200 N
is cut. T 200
weight in kgwt = =
g 10
46. (1)
1 = 20 kgwt
5 = u + a(2 − 1)
2
49. (2)

6 GIB CODE A
 Velocity, v =
dx 50. (4)
dt Distance travelled by bus
dx
dx = vdt ⇒ dt = 1 2
v = at
∫t2 ∫ dx ∫ −1 2
t 1 dt = = v dx 1
v = × 2.1 × t2
= Area under the graph 2
= Area of trapezium = 40
( ) 40 × 2
1 1 t2 = = 38.09
= × 2+ ×8 2. 1
2 2
t = 6.1
1
= × 2.5 × 8 = 10
2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION A 56. (4)

W 1 n
Molality = × =
M V(kg) V(kg)
1 m = n/V i.e., 1 mole in 1 kg
51. (3) K f → depends on nature of the solvent
and is independent of the concentration of of water moles of 1 kg H2 O
the solution. 1000 g
= = 55.55 mol
18 g/mol
52. (2) n solute 1
X solute = =
First order rate eq. n solute + n solvent 1 + 55.55

2.303 = 0.01768 = 0.0177

[ A0]
K= log
t [ A]
−3 2.303 [2]
4.606 × 10 = log 57. (4) Order can be zero, whole no. or frac-
t [0.2]
2.303 tional.
t=
4.606 × 10−3
= 0.5 × 103 = 500sec 58. (2) A is true but R is false.
The correct form of R is : The frequency
53. (3) of radiation emitted by a body goes from a
lower frequency to higher frequency with an
54. (2) A is true but R is false. increase in temperature.
The correct form of R is :
59. (3)
Empirical formula gives the simplest ratio of
M1 V1 = M2 V2 = MV
the atoms of the various elements present in
one molecule of the substance. 1 × 2.5 + 0.5 × 3 = M × 5.5
M = 4/5.5 = 0.727 ≈ 0.73M
55. (3)

7 GIB CODE A
60. (3) Reaction is exothermic graph 3 possible. ber of particles, hence will have the largest
value of freezing point depression.
61. (2) Among the given sets of quantum num-
bers only (ii) and (iii) have same energy. 66. (3)

62. (3) Overall rate = k[ X ] [Y2 ] (slowest step) 67. (3)

k = rate constant
step (i) to be reversible, its equilibrium con- 68. (4) Ethyl alcohol form hydrogen bonding
stant. with itself, hence it will not form ideal so-
lution with C2 H5 I.
[ X ]2
k eq = ⇒ [ X ]2 = k eq [ X 2 ]
[X2] 69. (3) The correct option is (3)
= k1/2 As,
1/2
X eq [ X 2 ]

Rate = k1/2
eq [ X 2 ]
1/2
[Y2 ] (i)
Overall order = 1.5
0.1m KNO3
( )
63. (4) Let, r = k[ A ]a [B]b KNO3 −→ K+ + NO−
3
6 × 10−3 = k(0.1)a (0.1)b ...(i) ∆T f = = K f m
7.2 × 10−2 = k(0.3)a (0.2)b ...(ii) ∆T f =2 × 1.86 × 0.1 = 0.372◦ C
2.88 × 10−1 = k(0.3)a (0.4)b ...(iii) T f =T ◦f − ∆T f = 0 − 0.372◦ C

2.40 × 10−2 = k(0.4)a (0.1)b ...(iv) = − 0.372◦ C

eqn. (iv) ÷ eqn. (i) and (v) 0.1 mNH4 Cl have same freezing
( )b
2.40 × 10 −2
0.4 point. While the freezing point of other
=
6 × 10−3 0.1 aqueous solutions are
4 = (4)a (ii) BaCl2 −→ −0.558◦ C
a=1 (iii) AlCl3 −→ −0.744◦ C
eqn. (iii) ÷ eqn. (ii) (iv) Al2 (SO4 )3 −→ −0.930◦ C
−1 ( )b
2.88 × 10 0.4
=
7.2 × 10−2 0.2 70. (4) The correct match is A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II.
b
4 = (2)
71. (2) A is true but R is false.
22 = 2 b
The correct form of R is :
b=2
The rate constant of a zero order reaction
Rate = k[ A ]1 [B]2
does not depend on time.

72. (1)
64. (2)

65. (3) Colligative properties ∝ no. of particles.

Since Al2 (SO4 )3 , contains maximum num-

8 GIB CODE A
 stant can be increased by increasing the tem-
( ) perature and is independent of the initial
P ◦ − Ps n W1 M2
= = × concentration of the reactants.
P◦ N M1 W2
760 − 732 6.5 × 18
= 78. (2) From Arrhenius equation
760 M1 × 100
M1 = 31.75 g mol−1 k = Ae−E a /RT
W1 × 1000
∆T b = m × K b = × Kb ln k = ln A + ln e−E a /RT
M1 × W2 ( )
Ea 1
0.52 × 6.5 × 1000 ln k = ln A − ...(i)
= 1.06◦ C R T
31.75 × 100
BP of sol = 100◦ C + 1.06◦ C = 101◦ C slope of ln k vs 1/T curve, m = −E a /R

73. (2) −5 × 103 = −E a /R

d [ N2 O5 ]
− = 6.25 × 10−3 mol L−1 s−1 E a = 41.5 kJ/mol
dt
d [ N2 O5 ] 1 d [NO2 ] d [O2 ]
− =+ =2 79. (4)
dt 2 dt dt 1 d [Br− ] 1 d [Br2 ]
d [NO2 ] −2 −1 −1
− =
= 1.25 × 10 mol L sec 5 dt 3 dt
dt d [Br2 ] 3 d [Br− ]
d [O2 ] =−
= 3.125 × 10−3 molL−1 sec−1 dt 5 dt
dt
80. (2) As ∆T f = iK f m
74. (1) Due to H-bonds.

75. (4)
k = 0.6 × 10−3 mol L−1 s−1
By the unit of rate constant we conclude that Total no. of moles = 1 − 0.20 + 0.20 + 0.20
reaction is zero order = 1 + 0.20 = 1.2 K
∆T f = 1.2 × 1.86 × 0.5 = 1.1160 ≈ 1.12
t = 20 × 60sec
[ A ] = [ A 0 ] − kt 81. (1)

[ A 0 ] − [ A ] = kt = B 82. (4)
PT = p benzene xbenzene + p octane xoctane
= 0.6 × 10−3 × 20 × 60 = 0.72M 3 2 n benzene 3
= 280 × + 420 × =
5 5 n octane 2
76. (1) Molecular masses of polymers are best 3
= 168 + 168 xbenzene =
determined by osmotic pressure method be- 5
cause other colligative properties gives so = 336 mm of Hg xoctane =
2

low values that they cannot be measured ac-

5

curately. 83. (1)

77. (2) Rate = k [NO]2 [Cl2 ] Value of rate con- 84. (4)

9 GIB CODE A
85. (3) 96. (2) Order of molar mass of solute decreses
as
SECTION B
Sucrose > Glucose > Urea
1
P∝
86. (4) The correct match is A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV. M

87. (4) The correct match is A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II. So, correct order of osmotic pressure of so-
lution is P3 < P1 < P2 .
88. (4)
w × 1000 97. (3)
Molarity =
mol.wt. × vol(mL)
w 1000 98. (2) As ∆T f = K f · m
2= ×
63 250
63 ∆T b = K b · m
w= g
2
∆T f
w of 70% acid =
100
× 31.5 = 45 g Hence, we have m = Kf =
∆T b
Kb or
70
Kf
89. (2) Among the given graph, only one graph or ∆T f = ∆T b
Kb
(iii) represent the first order reaction, while ]
(i), (ii) and (iv) represent zero order reac- ⇒ [∆T b = 100.18 − 100 = 0.18◦ C
tion. = 0.18 ×
1.86
= 0.654◦ C
0.512
90. (2) 1st order ⇒ t75% = 2 × t50%
As the freezing point of pure water is 0◦ C.
91. (3)
∆T f = 0 − T f

92. (1) For an ideal soln. ∆Smix > 0 0.654 = 0 − T f

∴ T f = −0.654
93. (1)
Thus the freezing point of solution will be
94. (3) If compound dissociates in solvent i > 1 −0.654◦ C
and on association i < 1.
99. (3)
95. (1)
k=
2.303
log
a 100. (2)
t a−x
2.303 100 2.303 100
k= log = log
60 100 − 60 60 40
= 0.0153
0.693
t 1/2 =
k
0.693
= = 45.31 min.
0.0153

10 GIB CODE A
 BOTANY
SECTION A SECTION B

101. (2) 113. (3) 125. (1) 136. (1) 148. (1)
102. (4) 114. (1) 126. (2) 137. (1) 149. (3)
103. (1) 115. (4) 127. (4) 138. (2) 150. (4)
104. (3) 116. (2) 128. (4) 139. (3)
105. (4) 117. (4) 129. (3) 140. (4)
106. (3) 118. (2) 130. (1) 141. (1)
107. (4) 119. (4) 131. (2) 142. (1)
108. (2) 120. (3) 132. (1) 143. (3)
109. (1) 121. (4) 133. (3) 144. (4)
110. (4) 122. (3) 134. (1) 145. (1)
111. (3) 123. (3) 135. (3) 146. (1)
112. (3) 124. (1) 147. (1)

11 GIB CODE A
 ZOOLOGY
SECTION A SECTION B

151. (3) 163. (2) 175. (2) 186. (1) 198. (3)
152. (4) 164. (3) 176. (4) 187. (4) 199. (3)
153. (2) 165. (4) 177. (3) 188. (4) 200. (4)
154. (4) 166. (3) 178. (1) 189. (3)
155. (2) 167. (4) 179. (4) 190. (3)
156. (1) 168. (3) 180. (1) 191. (3)
157. (4) 169. (4) 181. (3) 192. (2)
158. (4) 170. (1) 182. (4) 193. (3)
159. (3) 171. (3) 183. (2) 194. (2)
160. (4) 172. (3) 184. (4) 195. (3)
161. (3) 173. (3) 185. (4) 196. (2)
162. (4) 174. (3) 197. (2)

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