LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25

MOCK CLAT 48

TR ID.

(In Figures)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

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Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)
1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader

rs . Maximum Marks : 120

10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for

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(OMR) Response Sheet is supplied along with writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
this Questions Booklet and the carbon copy response Sheet.
has to be detached and taken by the
candidates.

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2. In case of any discrepancy in the question k11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for
shading the circles. Indicate only the most
appropriate answer by shading from the

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booklet (QB), please request the invigilator for
replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR.
Do not use the previous OMR response Sheet
options provided. The answer circle should be
shaded completely without leaving any space.
12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected

To
for a fresh booklet so obtained.
3. Candidates will not be given a second blank
OMR response Sheet under any circumstance.
Hence, OMR response Sheet shall be handled
carefully.
on the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have
to take necessary precautions before marking
the appropriate circle.
13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card
duly Signed by the invigilator, as the same has
4. 5S8L
Answer
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1M questions. No clarification can be to be produced at the time of Admission.
tr-
sought on the Questions Paper 14. Handle the OMR response Sheet with care. Do
5. Possession of electronic devices in any form is not fold.
strictly prohibited in the examination Hall. 15. Ensure that invigilator puts his/her signature in
6. The use of any unfair means by any candidate the space provided on the OMR response
shall result tr-in5S8L
the cancellation
1L7L0S 0P 1M of his/her Sheet. Candidate should sign in the space
examination. provided on the OMR response Sheet.
7. Impersonation is an offense and the candidate, 16. The candidate should write Question Paper
apart from disqualification, will be liable to be booklet No., and OMR response Sheet No.,
prosecuted. and sign in the space/column provided in the
8. The test Paper for Five Year integrated Law attendance sheet.
Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response
multiple Choice Questions. Sheet to the invigilator after the examination.
9. There will be Negative marking for multiple 18. The candidate shall not write anything on the
choice objective type questions. 0.25 marks OMR response Sheet other than the details
will be deducted for every wrong answer or tr-5C8I1G7E 0G 0B 1E required and in the spaces provided for.
where candidates have marked more than one
response.
 CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER

Subject Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-52 10
Legal Reasoning 53-84 16
Logical Reasoning 85-108 31
Quantitative Techniques 109-120 38

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 SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): The human newborn is one of the most helpless and dependent of all living creatures. Its
survival and relief of distress depend on the love and protection of the parents. But as the child moves into
toddlerhood, that love and protection become increasingly dependent on being a good little girl or boy. Over
time, the child has to internalise a remarkable number of rules and values to stay in the good graces of the
seemingly omnipotent parents, the only security base the small child has. So being good is the basis for feeling
secure. And being bad is a precarious, scary thing, as it’s associated with possible loss of love and threat of
punishment.
Being good is based on what is learned from the parents, which reflects the cultural worldview the parents
themselves were taught. And so we strive for self-esteem because it tells us that we are good worthy people and

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therefore loved and protected. Of course, as we develop cognitively, we learn that there are threats too big for
our parents, and that they are not omnipotent. But they have taught us bigger things in which we can believe,

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and therefore we shift our primary bases of security to our god, our nation, our family line, science, humanity.

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As adults, we still need that self-esteem, that sense of significance, to feel secure, but we get it by feeling like
worthy contributors to those larger entities we have learned to believe in. Doing so allows us to feel that we will

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continue on, as valued Christians, artists, scientists, Australians, and so forth.

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Having been convinced by Becker that awareness of mortality plays a significant role in human behaviour, we

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formalised these ideas into terror management theory to introduce them into psychological science. We

a
submitted a paper to the American Psychologist journal, explaining the theory and how it can account for so

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much we know from anthropology, archaeology, history, as well as psychology. Neither the editors nor the
reviewers were pleased. One review was just a sentence long: ‘I have no doubt that this would be of no interest
to any psychologist, living or dead.’

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Such comments gave no clues on what the reviewers disliked, but our guess was that their reactions were due to

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two aspects of the theory: first, that it concerns a scary topic, the inevitability of death; and second, that it’s a big
theory, with psychoanalytic roots, that seems to help account for a lot of aspects of human behaviour. Ever since
the reaction against Sigmund Freud in the 1950s, academic psychologists have been suspicious of big theories,
accusing0P1M
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them of being unfalsifiable, or unscientific.
We never bought into the falsifiability argument regarding any theory. It’s always a matter of being able to derive
hypotheses and developing methods to test them. But getting an empirical handle on this big theory wasn’t easy.
We came up with three basic hypotheses that have now been supported by more than 1,000 published studies
across a wide range of0P1M
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domains, including prejudice, nationalism, political preferences, economics, art,
marketing, consumerism, environmentalism, legal decisionmaking, aggression, athletic achievement, romantic
relationships, mental health, and physical health.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from “ This mortal coil”, by Jeff Greenberg, aeon
1. According to the passage, how is a child’s sense of security positively influenced by their adherence to parental
expectations?
(a) Adhering to parental rules and values ensures a child's emotional stability by strengthening their social
adaptability.
(b) A child’s sense of security is positively enhanced when they meet parental expectations, reinforcing a feeling
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of safety derived from parental approval. tr-5C8I1G7E0G0B
(c) Following parental guidance without deviation provides children with a lifelong assurance of unconditional
parental love and affection.
(d) Children who consistently behave well foster an environment where parental protection and love are guaranteed.
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2. What does the passage imply about the role of broader societal structures in shaping an individual’s self-esteem
and sense of continuity in life?
(a) Societal structures like religion and national identity play a minimal role in shaping an individual's self-
esteem, which is largely determined by personal achievements.
(b) As adults, individuals outgrow the need for societal approval and find self-esteem solely through self-
reflection and personal development.
(c) Broader societal structures such as religion, science, and national identity provide a framework for
individuals to derive a sense of significance and continuity, enhancing self-esteem.
(d) The reliance on societal structures for self-esteem is a sign of incomplete personal development and cognitive
immaturity.
3. In the context of the passage, what is the antonym of "omnipotent" as used in the sentence:

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(a) Almighty (b) Limited (c) Benevolent (d) Omniscient

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4. What is the tone of the author in the passage?

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(a) Reflective and confident, with an undertone of vindication.
(b) Apologetic and uncertain, expressing doubt in their theory.
(c) Humorous and sarcastic, mocking the field of psychology.
(d) Indifferent and detached, showing no emotional investment.

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5.

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In the context of the passage, what does the phrase "getting an empirical handle on this big theory" most
likely mean?

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(a) Developing practical, testable hypotheses and methodologies to validate the theory.

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(b) Abandoning the theory due to its complex psychoanalytic roots and lack of empirical support.

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(c) Gaining access to financial resources for conducting large-scale psychological studies.

6.

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(d) Simplifying the theory to make it more understandable and widely accepted.
Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the author's view on the reaction of academic psychologists to
big theories?

(c) The author

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(a) The author believes academic psychologists reject big theories because they are too complex to understand.
(b) The author thinks academic psychologists are primarily concerned with the scientific validity of big theories.
suggests that academic psychologists are hesitant to accept big theories due to past biases.
(d) The author argues that academic psychologists reject big theories mainly because they dislike psychoanalytic
approaches.
Passage (Q.7-Q.12): What first took place in Rome in 1960, with 400 athletes from 23 countries, has grown into
a global phenomenon that brings together the world’s best Para athletes every four years to compete before
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millions of spectators and billions of television viewers around the world. Para athletes are ambassadors of
change. Their performances inspire and excite the world and redefine for many people what is humanly possible.
No other event can empower individuals through social inclusion and societal opportunity like the Paralympic
Games. Likewise, no other event can change the views of so many millions of people or stimulate Governments
to create investment programmes or pass new legislation that will benefit many generations of individuals with
impairments.
A total of 84 inspirational stories represented India at the Paralympics 2024. Their stories and collective success
will be recorded in India’s sporting history with aplomb. The medals tally reflected a rise—from the 24th spot
in Tokyo to the 18th in Paris. The medal haul tr-rose sharply 1E
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in the last two events. However, the beginning of
India’s Paralympic journey was sedate. A blank in 1968 was followed by the first medal—a gold in swimming—
at the next edition. After a break from participation in 1976 and 1980, India won four medals in 1984. Then there
were blanks from Seoul to Sydney.

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 The story of failure went beyond the Games. The Paralympic Committee of India (PCI) was mired in needless
controversies. A semblance of normalcy prevailed after Rio 2016. The tally increased from four in Rio to 19 in
Tokyo. In Paris, the count rose to 29 medals with seven gold. What was heartening is that most athletes billed as
medal hopes did go on to win—Avani Lekhara and Sumit Antil retained their gold medals, while the 17-year-
old para-archer Sheetal Devi became a sensation.
Credit must go to the newly-elected PCI that took charge months ahead of Paris, but the unprecedented support
athletes received from the government through the Sports Authority of India must also be noted. They supported
all sports and the total spend was about Rs 74 crore under the Target Olympic Podium, Khelo India and national
centres of excellence schemes.
The impact of the Paralympics will go beyond sport. As a country, India has a substantial population of persons
with various disabilities—according to the census, the number was at 2.68 crore in 2011. Not just in sports, but

the other hand, the authorities must not compare this success with the Olympic Games.

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the success of so many para athletes is inspirational to persons with disabilities to rise above their stations. On

.
In conclusion, India's performance at the 2024 Paralympics marks a significant milestone that transcends the

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realm of sports. It is a narrative of triumph over adversity, of turning past failures into stepping stones for success.
This evolution in India's Paralympic journey serves not only as a source of national pride but also as a beacon of

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inspiration for millions of differently-abled individuals. Moving forward, it is imperative that the lessons learned

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from these games inform future policies and actions, creating an environment where all athletes receive the
support and recognition they deserve. Celebrating these achievements is just the beginning; the real victory lies

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in sustaining this momentum and continuing to build a more inclusive society.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from “ Paralympians do what Olympians could not”, by TNIE

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7. What assumption does the passage make about the impact of the Paralympic Games on societal attitudes toward

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disability?
(a) The Paralympic Games have a negligible impact on societal attitudes and governmental policies regarding

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disability.

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(b) The Paralympic Games highlight the limitations of individuals with impairments more than their capabilities.
(c) The Paralympic Games can transform societal attitudes and motivate governments to improve conditions for
individuals with impairments.
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(d) The Paralympic Games discourage societal inclusion by emphasizing the differences between para athletes
and non-disabled individuals.
8. What can be inferred about the progression of India’s Paralympic journey from the passage?
(a) The initial phases of India's Paralympic participation saw consistent success in medal tally.
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(b) India's Paralympic success has remained stagnant over the years, with no significant changes in the number
of medals won.
(c) Organizational controversies within the Paralympic Committee of India (PCI) had no impact on the athletes'
performances in the Games.
(d) India's performance in the Paralympics improved significantly over time, with notable success in recent
events.
9. What does the term "unprecedented" imply in the context of the support athletes received from the government?
(a) Expected and usual level of support that had been seen in previous events.
(b) The support was minimal and largely symbolic, lacking0Bsubstantial
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(c) The support was extraordinary and greater than what had been provided before.
(d) The support was inconsistent and varied greatly among different sports.

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10. What is the antonym of "sedate" as used in the description of India's early Paralympic journey?
(a) Tranquil (b) Turbulent (c) Soothing (d) Moderate
11. What does the author suggest should be the primary focus moving forward after India's achievements in the 2024
Paralympics?
(a) To focus solely on winning more medals in future Paralympic Games.
(b) To reduce the financial support as the athletes have proven their capability.
(c) To use the lessons from the games to inform policies that support and recognize all athletes.
(d) To celebrate the current achievements without planning for future improvements.
12. According to the passage, how did the support from the Sports Authority of India impact India’s performance in
the 2024 Paralympics?
(a) The Sports Authority of India’s direct involvement in coaching resulted in the improvement of training
techniques.

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(b) Substantial funding from the Sports Authority of India enabled athletes to focus solely on preparation without
financial concerns.

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participation and global recognition.

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(c) The Sports Authority of India collaborated with international sports organizations to enhance India’s

(d) The Sports Authority of India focused on promoting lesser-known para-athletes, which increased their
chances of competing internationally.

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Passage (Q.13-Q.18): India’s connections with East Asia have changed dramatically in recent years, influenced

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by both historical links and current geopolitical dynamics. India’s cultural and commerce connections with East
Asia can be traced back to ancient times when Buddhism spread and the maritime Silk Route existed.

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‘India’s Near East’ by Avinash Paliwal can be viewed as a stage of geoeconomic connection epitomized by the
‘Act East’ policy, and it is critical not only to its great-power rivalry with China, which erupted in the 1962 war

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but also to the idea(s) of India itself. It is also one of the most delicately partitioned regions on Earth. Due to

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community and class strife, the region has produced extreme forms of religious and ethnic nationalism, as well
as communist groups. The Indian state’s survival instinct and goal of regional hegemony have exacerbated such
extremes.
Currently,
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0P1MIndia’s ‘Act East’ policy, which was introduced in 2014, aims to strengthen diplomatic and
commercial ties with East Asian countries, especially with South Korea, Japan, and the ASEAN countries.
China’s expanding influence in the Indo-Pacific, shared economic interests, and worries about regional security
are the main drivers of this change. In addition to encouraging deeper military and commercial collaboration,
India has taken an active position in regional fora such as the East Asia Summit and ASEAN-led initiatives.
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India’s expanding
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with an emphasis on improving connectivity, trade, and marine security.
This book provides a new history of India’s eastward-looking diplomacy and statecraft. It presents a simple but
powerful argument, set against the backdrop of separatist struggle in India’s northeastern provinces, as well as
rivalry with Beijing and Islamabad in Myanmar and Bangladesh. The objectives of ‘Act East’ conceal a painful
truth: India prioritizes political stability over economic opportunities in the area. Avinash Paliwal’s record of a
state’s battle to overcome conflict, relocation, and interventionism reveals the limits of independent India’s
influence in the Near East.
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Author Avinash Paliwal is an international relations
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African Studies, where he focuses on South Asian strategic issues. He is a former journalist and international
affairs commentator who has written India’s Near East: A New History and My Enemy’s Enemy: India in
Afghanistan from Soviet Invasion to US Withdrawal.
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 Speaking about the book, Srinath Raghavan, professor of international relations and history at Ashoka University
said, “Broadly conceived, deeply researched and vividly written, Avinash Paliwal’s book opens up new
dimensions of India’s international history and foreign policy. Indispensable for everyone interested in the past,
present and potential futures of India in Asia.”
Shivshankar Menon, former foreign Indian secretary, ambassador to China and national security adviser called
the book a ‘rigorous scholarly work of contemporary relevance’.
“India’s Near East is a rigorous scholarly work of great contemporary relevance. For a deep and basic
understanding of the geopolitical dynamics of a partitioned land that was once administratively united by
colonialism, and for its twentieth-century evolution through war, conflict and social and administrative change,
this will long be the book to turn to,” said Menon.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from “ New book explores India’s strategic shift eastward amid

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geopolitical rivalries and regional complexities”, The Print

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What is the primary goal of India's 'Act East' policy, as described in Avinash Paliwal's "India’s Near East"?

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.
(a) To promote Buddhist cultural exchanges exclusively with East Asian countries.

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(b) To enhance diplomatic and commercial relationships primarily with South Korea, Japan, and ASEAN
countries.

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(c) To establish a regional monopoly over economic and military activities in East Asia.

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(d) To solely improve maritime security across the Indian Ocean without engaging in diplomatic endeavors.

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14. According to Avinash Paliwal, what underlying issue does the 'Act East' policy mask in the context of India's

a
northeastern provinces?

instability.

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(a) The policy masks the economic downturn in India’s northeastern provinces without addressing political

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(b) The policy prioritizes political stability over economic opportunities in the region.
(c) The policy aims to suppress all forms of religious and ethnic nationalism in the northeastern provinces.

15.

(a) Collaborate
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(c) Suppress – Encourage
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(d) The policy is solely focused on resolving communist insurgencies in the northeastern provinces.
Which of the following pairs of words are synonyms, especially in the context of international diplomacy as
described in Avinash Paliwal's discussion of India's foreign policy?
– Compete (b) Strengthen – Bolster
(d) Disengage – Withdraw
16. What does the idiom "turn to" most closely mean as used in Shivshankar Menon's statement about the book
"India’s Near East"?
(a) To physically rotate 0P
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towards
1M something. (b) To rely on as a source of information.
(c) To change direction in a strategy. (d) To begin a new chapter.
17. What does the term "epitomized" most closely mean as used in the context of the passage describing the 'Act
East' policy in Avinash Paliwal's book?
(a) Demonstrated through a series of failures. (b) Diminished by external circumstances.
(c) Represented incompletely or inadequately. (d) Represented perfectly or typified.
18. The passage suggests that one of the reasons India focuses on political stability in its northeastern provinces is:
(a) To prevent separatist movements from weakening the country's overall regional influence and security.
(b) Because the area’s economic development is critical to0BIndia’s
1E growing trade relations with East Asia.
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(c) To counter China’s growing influence in Bangladesh and Myanmar by controlling border regions more
effectively.
(d) Since political instability in the northeast directly affects India’s relations with ASEAN countries and Japan.

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 Passage (Q.19-Q.24): Perhaps, no other single work of fiction has made such a momentous impact in Indian
English Literature in recent years as Arundhati Roy‟s The God of Small Things. Its impact is all the more
significant considering that the author has so far produced only one novel. Indeed, the work has been widely
acclaimed as an important book of the post-modernist literary trend that has motivated such major novelists as
Salman Rushdie, Upanayan Chatterjee, Shashi Tharoor, R. Mistry who immortalized themselves with just one
novel. She is one of the few Indian English writers actively interested in contemporary socio-political issues
which is amply evidenced in a number of articles, interviews and books she wrote on various topics in recent
years.
The God of small things is about several themes – one of the chief issues it brings into focus is the family and
social mechanism evolved over centuries in traditional Indian society to suppress woman and her independence
as a human being. Right at the centre is woeful tale of Amma, mother of Rahel and Estha, who suffers silently,

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yet simmers inside her a deep discontent. Traditional joint families are neatly structured where some woman
assume dominant role with greater authority over others who are lower down and, therefore, enjoy certain power.

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The complex structure is deeply embedded and has given rise to countless stories of personal tragedies of
unequally placed women. Their unequal position creates great misery, suffering and hardships in their lives

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forcing them to accept the oppressive system in a spirit of religious submissiveness and personal renunciation.
It is interesting to note how Mammachi and Baby Kachaman fit into the oppressive system that blatantly

death.

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victimizes Amma. They become her active oppressors, seeking to corner her and then drive her to her miserable

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One of the most glaring instances of it is the ambiguous stand adopted by these women with regard to Amma‟s

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relation with Velutha. They express scant sympathy for Amma‟s lonely life, her tragic marital circumstances

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and her anxiety about her children. On the other hand, their casteist hostility finds double force in Amma Velutha

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relationship and breaks out into expression of moral outrage, while Chako‟s sexual indulgences with low caste
women is overlooked as “Man‟s Needs”, Amma‟s affair with Velutha is treated as an unpardonable offence

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against family‟s reputation and status. Thus one can see that in this novel Arundhati Roy puts under focus

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deliberately constructed agencies of cruelty that work against women‟s interests. In this all are involved-the so-
called progressive politicians, the family members, the police etc. In the traditional Indian society such forces
flourish and find encouragement in maintaining their hold over the weaker people. Social structures are so
formed 0Pas1Mto sanctify women‟s victimization. Roy‟s depiction of the miserable lives of women in the novel
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generates in unmistakable terms the perpetuation of these exploitative forces.
In The God of Small Things, there is enough exploration of female experience, yet there is a wider view of
society as other ideas have been blended with this basic theme. The novel sheds enough light on the plight of
women and how they live under oppressive forces including their relationships with men who control them. It
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goes without saying that women are treated as objects of lust and sexual gratification. They are robbed of basic
amenities of life. Thus they are forced to live in a system of social structure and practices in which men dominate,
oppress and exploit women.”
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from the journal “Feminine Sensibility in God of Small Things – A
study of Arundhuti Roy’s The God of Small Things”, written by Prof. Felix Nayak.
19. What is the meaning of the phrase "simmers inside her a deep discontent" as used in the passage?
(a) She feels peaceful but confused.
(b) She has hidden anger and dissatisfaction.
(c) She is outwardly happy but physically weak.
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(d) She is content with her position in life.

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20. Which of the following is a simile that best describes the social structures discussed in the passage?
(a) Social structures are like chains that bind women to their victimization.
(b) Social structures are oppressive and unjust.
(c) Social structures flourish by maintaining control over weaker people.
(d) Social structures ensure the family’s reputation remains intact.
21. Which of the following idioms best describes how Chako's behavior is treated differently from Amma's in the
novel?
(a) The apple doesn't fall far from the tree. (b) Sweep it under the rug.
(c) Spill the beans. (d) Barking up the wrong tree.
22. What is one of the main themes explored in The God of Small Things?
(a) Women are treated with respect and equality.
(b) The novel only focuses on political issues, not personal relationships.
(c) Women enjoy freedom and control over their lives.
(d) Women live under oppressive forces and are exploited by men.

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23.

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Which of the following best represents the symbolic significance of the traditional family structure as depicted
in The God of Small Things?

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(a) It serves as a foundation for moral guidance and support for all family members.

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(b) It is portrayed as a microcosm of the larger societal system that perpetuates inequality and oppression,
particularly towards women.

changing society.

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(c) It highlights the importance of maintaining cultural traditions and the stability they provide in a rapidly

a
(d) It reflects the harmonious coexistence of individuals within a hierarchical yet balanced family structure.
24.

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What is the best representation of the main idea of the passage?
(a) The God of Small Things critiques caste-based discrimination through the character of Velutha’s tragic fate.

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(b) Arundhati Roy uses her novel to expose the complex and pervasive oppression of women in society.
(c) The passage highlights the impact of The God of Small Things on Indian English literature and its style.
(d) The novel focuses primarily on how men control the social structures that perpetuate women's suffering.

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 SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.25-Q.52): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.25-Q.30): Iran-Israel War
Two highly classified US intelligence documents have leaked, allegedly exposing Israel's military preparations
for a potential strike on Iran, the New York Times reported The documents, originating from the National
Geospatial-Intelligence Agency (NGA) - "responsible for analysing images and information collected by
American spy satellites" - offer insights into Israeli military exercises and operational readiness.
The two documents, dated October 15 and 16, were circulated on Telegram by accounts largely associated with
pro-Iran sentiments. They provide detailed analyses of satellite images showing Israel's military exercises, which
appear to be in preparation for a retaliatory strike on Iran. The potential strike comes in the wake of escalating
tensions following an Iranian missile barrage on October 1, itself a retaliation for an earlier Israeli attack.

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One of the documents is titled "Israel: Air Force Continues Preparations for Strike on Iran" and outlines recent

o
Israeli exercises that seem to rehearse a potential military operation against Iran. These preparations reportedly

c
include air-to-air refuelling operations, search-and-rescue missions, and the repositioning of missile systems in

military assets to strategic locations.

rs .
anticipation of potential Iranian strikes. The second document reveals Israeli efforts to move munitions and other

e
25. As per the IRGC, the recent missile barrage (October 2024) on Israel was in retaliation for -
1. violation of Iran’s sovereignty
2. martyrdom of Ismail Haniyeh

n
3. signing an agreement with Saudi Arabia that favours Sunnis over Shias
Select the correct answer using the given code -

a k
26.
(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3

p r (c) Only 1 and 3

Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the ongoing crisis?
(d) 1, 2 and 3

o
(a) Iran has recently created the ‘Axis of resistance’ – a Shia military organization to fight against Israel.

T
(b) Iran does not recognise Israel's right to exist and seeks its eradication.
(c) Israel has gone on the offensive against the Shia Islamist political and military organization.
(d) Recently the Israeli troops began an invasion of southern Lebanon.
27. Israel has recently declared UN Secretary General Antonio Guterres as PNG (persona non grata) on Israeli soil.
0P1M
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT related to this development?
(a) Israel’s reason for this announcement was because Guterres hadn’t “unequivocally condemned” Iran’s
missile strikes on Israel.
(b) A 104 countries have supported a letter that has “condemned” Israel for banning Guterres from entering
0P1M
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
Israeli territory.
(c) The letter has been circulated by Chile and has been supported by many European, African countries and
much of the Global South.
(d) This letter, however, saw the first time that India broke from the Global South and didn’t associate itself with it.
28. What is the name of Israel’s ballistic missile defence (BMD) system that intercepted a number of Iranian missiles
in April 2024?
(a) Arrow Aerial Defence System (b) Fattah-2
(c) Thaad battery (d) Stunner Defence System
29. Which of the following are India’s indigenous missile 7E0G0B1E systems designed to intercept ballistic missiles at
tr-5C8I1Gdefence
different altitudes?
(a) Barak-8 and QRSAM (b) PAD and AAD
(c) AMS and MRSAM (d) PAD and Barak-8
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30. The S-400 is highly effective against a wide range of aerial threats, including ballistic and cruise missiles. These
have been bought from -
(a) USA (b) Israel (c) France (d) Russia
Passage (Q.31-Q.36): West Bengal “Aprajita” Anti-Rape Bill
The recent Aparajita Woman and Child (West Bengal Criminal Laws Amendment) Bill, 2024, falls into a similar
pattern. Passed unanimously by the West Bengal assembly on September 3 this year, it seeks capital punishment
for rape convicts.The legislation allegedly came into play to shield Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee, who was
in the eye of a storm as RG Kar was run by her chosen principal, Dr Sandip Ghosh. Hours after Ghosh resigned
following a national uproar, Mamata committed a rare political blunder of appointing him principal of another
medical college instead of letting matters cool.
In the public eye, the slip up made her equally responsible as Ghosh for all his omissions and commissions while

across the state, demanding justice for the victim, continues to build momentum.

c o m
at RG Kar. As a result, the Aparajita bill hasn't given her respite, as the ceasework agitation of junior doctors

.
"We wanted the Centre to amend its existing laws and include stricter clauses to ensure exemplary punishment

rs
for perpetrators and quicker justice for victims. They showed no enthusiasm for it. That's why we made the move
first. This Bill, once enacted, can serve as a model for the rest of the country," Mamata said in the assembly

e
during the debate on the bill.
31.

by Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra?

an k
Recently, the Aprajita Bill was passed, following the introduction of similar bills in Andhra Pradesh and
Maharashtra aimed at amending criminal laws related to rape cases. What are the names of the bills introduced

p r
(a) Disha Criminal Laws (Andhra Amendment) Bill and Shakti Criminal Laws (Maharashtra Amendment) Bill
(b) Aprajita Criminal Laws (Andhra Amendment) Bill and Shole Criminal Laws (Maharashtra Amendment) Bill

o
(c) Shakti Criminal Laws (Andhra Amendment) Bill and Disha Criminal Laws (Maharashtra Amendment) Bill
(d) Shole Penal Laws (Andhra Amendment) Bill and Shakti Mahila Suraksha Bill
32.

remainder
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
0P1M
T
Which of the following accurately describes key features of the Aparajita Bill related to the punishment for rape,
gang rape, and the disclosure of a rape victim's identity?
(a) It enhances punishment for the offence of rape (BNS Section 64) either to life imprisonment for the
of the convict’s natural life or death,or with a penalty.
(b) For gang-rape, the bill prescribes the death penalty only along with a fine.
(c) The bill prescribes imprisonment of 3-5 years and a fine for disclosing a rape victim’s identity - up from two
years in jail under BNS Section 72.
(d) If the victim dies or is left in a vegetative state, the Bengal bill makes imprisonment for at least 20 years,
8L1L7L0S0P1M
which may extend
tr-5S to life imprisonment for the remainder of one’s life
33. The Aparajita Bill amended several important laws and leverages Article 254(2) of the Indian Constitution.
Which of the following statements correctly explains the role of Article 254(2) ?
(a) Article 254(2) allows a state legislature to pass a law that is always superior to a central law.
(b) Article 254(2) permits the state legislature to pass a law contradicting a central law on a concurrent list
subject to Presidential assent.
(c) Article 254(2) grants the state legislature the ability to pass laws that only apply to the central government.
(d) Article 254(2) allows states to pass laws on matters exclusively in the Union List without any restrictions.
0G0B 1E
34. tr-5C8I1G7E
Which two landmark cases emphasized the judiciary's stance on the supremacy of central legislation over state
amendments?
(a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) and Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967)
(b) State of West Bengal v. Union of India (1964) and KK Verma v. Union of India (1960)
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 (c) SR Bommai v. Union of India (1994) and Minerva Mills Ltd v. Union of India (1980)
(d) Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India (2006) and A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950)
35. In light of the current legal framework for rape, including protections under POCSO, what does the term "Zero
FIR" mean with respect to the rights of a rape victim?
(a) An FIR that must be filed only within the jurisdiction where the crime occurred but with priority processing.
(b) An FIR that is automatically registered in cases of insufficient evidence, without requiring further
investigation.
(c) An FIR that can be filed at any police station, regardless of the location of the incident
(d) A special FIR that applies only to cases under the POCSO Act and is limited to crimes against minors.
36. According to the NCRB report for 2022, how many FIRs were filed on average every hour for crimes against
women in India, and how does the crime rate in Delhi compare to the national average?
(a) 25 FIRs every hour, with Delhi's crime rate lower than the national average
(b) 35 FIRs every hour, with Delhi's crime rate equal to the national average
(c) 60 FIRs every hour, with Delhi's crime rate lower than the national average

c o m
Passage (Q.37-Q.42): Wayanad Landslide

rs .
(d) 51 FIRs every hour, with Delhi's crime rate significantly higher than the national average

e
In the early hours of July 30, 2024, Chooralmala and Mundakkai villages in the district of Wayanad in Kerala

k
were hit by devastating landslides triggered by torrential downpour. The massive landslides so far has claimed
over 230 lives. According to the district administration, over 130 people are still missing as of August 13. This

r an
is the worst natural disaster to occur in Kerala since the 2018 floods.
Chooralmala and Mundakkai, both located in Meppadi panchayat, are nearly 50 km away from the district

p
headquarters in Kalpetta. They were known for its scenic landscapes and waterfalls. Mundakkai is just 2.3 km

o
away from Chooralmala town by road.
Following the incident, the authorities launched a massive rescue operation in the area to look for possible

August 0P
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
district.
1,1M
T
survivors. A combined rescue mission of the Indian Army, National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), Fire and
Rescue Services, Forest and Wildlife authorities, and the police, along with hundreds of volunteers and
government officials rescued several stranded people in the surrounding forest area and mud-filled locations. On
Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan said over 9,300 people were staying in 91 relief camps in Wayanad

37. According to the satellite imagery released by ISRO’s National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC), the “crown of
the landslide” or the origin is above 1,550m above Mean Sea Level (MSL).What does the term "crown of a
landslide" refer to?
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
0P1M
(a) The uppermost part of the soil or rock surface not involved in the landslide, closest to its origin.
(b) The lowermost part of the landslide where debris accumulates
(c) The region where the landslide velocity is the highest.
(d) The area with the most significant destruction caused by the landslide.
38. According to the Geological Survey of India, Kerala reported the highest number of landslides between 2015
and July 2022. What percentage of the country’s total landslide incidents did Kerala account for during this
period?
(a) Kerala accounted for 45% of the country's total
0B1E
tr-5C8I1G7E0G
(b) Kerala accounted for 60% of the country's total
(c) Kerala accounted for 50% of the country's total
(d) Kerala accounted for 70% of the country's total

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39. In the context of the International Day for Disaster Risk Reduction, what are the key principles of the Sendai
Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction, and when was it first introduced?
(a) It focuses on economic resilience post-disaster, and was introduced in 2020 as part of the Sustainable
Development Goals.
(b) It advocates for post-disaster reconstruction and was first adopted in 2013 to promote recovery efforts.
(c) It emphasizes preparedness, resilience, and mitigation, and was introduced in 2015 as part of the post-2015
development agenda.
(d) It promotes short-term recovery strategies, introduced in 2018 in response to increased natural disasters.
40. The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024, introduced significant changes to the Disaster Management
Act, 2005. What is one of the key provisions of the 2024 Amendment, and how does it alter the roles of the
National and State Executive Committees?

m
(a) The Bill abolishes both the National and State Executive Committees, transferring all functions to local
governments.

Executive Committee is tasked with implementation.

.c o
(b) The Bill allows only the State Executive Committees to draft disaster management plans, while the National

rs
(c) The Bill mandates that NDMA and SDMA, instead of the National and State Executive Committees, will
now prepare disaster management plans.

its authority over planning and preparedness.

k e
(d) The Bill limits the role of the National Executive Committee to post-disaster recovery operations, removing

41.

r an
According to the IDMC's 'Global Report on Internal Displacement,' what was the primary reason for the sharp
decline in natural disaster-induced displacement in India in 2023 compared to 2022?
(a) A new government initiative significantly improved flood relief efforts across affected regions.

o p
(b) A significant reduction in tectonic activity, which led to fewer earthquakes and landslides.
(c) The construction of advanced dams and reservoirs to manage floodwaters across India.
(d) Developing El Niño conditions brought drier weather, resulting in fewer flood-related disasters.
42.

(b)1L7L
tr-5S8L
T
What are the primary applications of the payloads onboard ISRO's latest Earth Observation Satellite (EOS-08),
launched on August 16, 2024?
(a) Military surveillance, satellite communication, and deep space exploration.
0S0P1M urbanization, monitoring global financial markets, and securing international borders.
Tracking
(c) Environmental monitoring, disaster management, and scientific research.
(d) Maritime security, oil exploration, and international defense collaborations.
Passage (Q.43-Q.46): First Legally Binding International AI Treaty
The first legally binding
tr-5S8L 1L7L0S0Pinternational
1M AI treaty will be open for signing on Thursday by the countries that
negotiated it, the Council of Europe human rights organisation said.
The AI Convention, which has been in the works for years and was adopted in May after discussions between
57 countries, addresses the risks AI may pose, while promoting responsible innovation.
"This Convention is a major step to ensuring that these new technologies can be harnessed without eroding our
oldest values, like human rights and the rule of law," Britain's justice minister, Shabana Mahmood, said in a
statement.
The AI Convention mainly focuses on the protection of human rights of people affected by AI systems and is
8I1G7E 0G0B1E
separate from the EU AI Act, which entered into force
tr-5C last month.
The EU's AI Act entails comprehensive regulations on the development, deployment, and use of AI systems
within the EU internal market.An ad hoc committee in 2019 started examining the feasibility of an AI framework
convention and a Committee on Artificial Intelligence was formed in 2022 which drafted and negotiated the text.
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43. Where is the headquarters of the Council of Europe (COE), and which countries are expected to sign the first
legally binding international treaty on Artificial Intelligence (AI)?
(a) Brussels, Belgium; European Union and China
(b) Paris, France; United States and Canada
(c) Strasbourg, France; European Union, United States, and United Kingdom
(d) Geneva, Switzerland; Japan and South Korea
44. Many steps have been taken earlier regarding AI safety. What is the Bletchley Declaration, and which countries
signed this agreement at the first-ever AI Safety Summit in November 2023?
(a) The Bletchley Declaration is focused on regulating military AI systems; it was signed by the US, Russia, and
Japan.
(b) The Bletchley Declaration addresses the risks and opportunities of "frontier AI"; it was signed by 28
countries and the European Union

o m
(c) The Bletchley Declaration is focused on healthcare AI innovations; it was signed by the European Union,
Brazil, and Canada.

c
countries.

rs .
(d) The Bletchley Declaration mandates the regulation of AI in financial sectors only; it was signed by the G20

e
45. What is Strawberry, the new AI model from OpenAI, and what sets it apart from other conversational AI models?

k
(a) Strawberry is a reasoning-focused AI that pauses and deliberates before sharing information, making its
responses more thoughtful

responses to complex problems.

r n
(b) Strawberry is designed to instantly retrieve and process large datasets, ensuring rapid but less accurate

a
(c) Strawberry is an AI specialized in handling real-time voice-to-text tasks with an emphasis on multitasking
and speed.

o p
(d) Strawberry focuses on creating artistic and creative outputs, with limited reasoning or problem-solving

T
capabilities.
46. What is the primary purpose of the ‘Global IndiaAI Summit’ organized by the Ministry of Electronics and
Information Technology in July 2024?
(a) To launch India's first AI legislation that mandates government control over all AI technologies developed
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in the country.
(b) To explore the use of AI solely in defense and security operations, with a focus on military applications.
(c) To promote AI research focused solely on enhancing financial technology and corporate governance in India.
(d) To foster collaboration and knowledge exchange for the ethical and inclusive development and deployment
of AI technologies in0Pvarious
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1M sectors.
Passage (Q.47-Q.52): Section 6A - SC Decision
The Supreme Court on Thursday upheld the constitutional validity of a contentious clause in India’s citizenship
law applicable only to Assam, in a landmark judgment that and underlined parliamentary supremacy over
citizenship matters and potentially strengthened the Union government’s defence of the Citizenship
(Amendment) Act, or CAA.
The bench, led by Chief Justice of India (CJI) Dhananjaya Y Chandrachud, also flagged the problem of continued
influx of immigrants into India as “serious”, and decided to set up a bench to monitor the implementation of its
directions, underscoring the need to curb illegal movement
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of immigrants by fencing the porous borders with
0B1E
Bangladesh.

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 Justice Surya Kant wrote a concurring verdict for himself and justices MM Sundresh and Manoj Misra. CJI
Chandrachud wrote a separate but concurring opinion. Justice JB Pardiwala dissented, holding that Section 6A
was arbitrary and constitutionally invalid.
47. Which of the following statements about the section 6A of the Citizenship Amendment Act is INCORRECT?
(a) It states that January 1, 1965 shall serve as the base cut-off date for the detection and deletion of “foreigners”.
(b) This section was not present in the original Act, but was later added.
(c) This Section was a result of a tripartite agreement.
(d) None of the above
48. The author of the lead opinion of the SC Bench, Justice Kant observed that:
(a) The incessant migration from Bangladesh has nothing to do with Section 6(A)
(b) A large part of the fault lay with the government’s failure to detect and deport the post-1966 immigrants.

m
(c) The statutory machinery and Tribunals tasked with the identification and detection of illegal immigrants or

o
foreigners in Assam inadequate and disproportionate to the requirement of giving time-bound effect to the
legislative object of Section 6A read with other valid laws.

c
49.
(d) All of the above.

What is the Operation Searchlight in relation to this decision?

rs .
(a) This was Assam government’s recent drive to detect illegal migrants as per law.

k e
(b) This was the recent campaign name given by the opposers of the Section 6A to get this law invalidated by

n
the SC.

a
(c) This was a mission launched by the Pakistan Army to curb the Bengali nationalist movement in East Pakistan
in 1971.

p r
(d) This was mission launched by the Indian Army to facilitate the escape from the Pakistani Army of Bengali

o
nationalists from Bangladesh to India temporarily in 1971.
50. The SC was hearing petitions filed by NGOs that urged the apex court to declare Section 6A unconstitutional
because -

(c) This0Psection
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1M
T
(a) It was unconstitutional to not let people from genuine persecuted communities stay in India.
(b) This section was putting an incredible strain on the State’s economic and developmental goals.
was blocking genuine helpless people from taking refuge in India.
(d) This section was changing Assam’s demographic and was in violation of Articles 4 and 5 of the Constitution.
51. Justice Pardiwala was the lone dissenting voice in the Bench. What was his objection to the Section 6A?
(a) A nation can’t accommodate immigrants and refugees, while simultaneously prioritising sustainable
development and equitable
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
0P1M allocation of resources.
(b) Section 6A violates Article 29(1) of the Constitution.
(c) This Section incentivises undocumented immigrants from Bangladesh to stay in Assam indefinitely until
they are detected.
(d) The petitioners’ argument that influx of immigrants affected the local people’s right to sustainable
development is their fundamental right which must be upheld.
52. Which Article of the Constitution gives Parliament the power “to make any provision with respect to the
acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship”?
(a) Article 10 (b) Article 11 (c) Article 12 (d) Article 13
0B1E
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 SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.53-Q.84): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.53-Q.57): The Supreme Court of India, led by Chief Justice D.Y. Chandrachud along with Justices
J.B. Pardiwala and Manoj Misra, has taken up a significant case that questions the constitutional immunity
granted to the Governor of a state under Article 361. The case, which involves allegations of sexual harassment
by West Bengal Governor C.V. Ananda Bose, has prompted the Court to ask for insights from the Attorney
General of India, R Venkataramani.
Article 361 of the Constitution provides that the President and the Governors are not answerable to any court for
the exercise and performance of their powers and duties. Furthermore, it states that "no criminal proceedings
whatsoever shall be instituted or continued" and "no process for the arrest or imprisonment" can be executed
against them while they are in office. The interpretation of these protections—specifically the terms "criminal

o m
proceedings" and "process for the arrest or imprisonment"—is now under scrutiny by the Supreme Court.
The core of the issue is whether these constitutional protections extend to actions such as the registration of an

c
.
FIR, the initiation of a preliminary inquiry, or a magistrate taking cognizance of an offense, which mark the

rs
commencement of a criminal case. The petitioner from West Bengal argues that the inability to take any of these
actions against Governor Bose until he leaves office could violate rights and impact the integrity of evidence in
cases of misconduct.

k e
This debate traces back to the Latin maxim rex non potest peccare or “the king can do no wrong”, an idea rooted

n
in English legal traditions and incorporated into India's legal framework. The Constituent Assembly adopted this

a
principle without extensive debate on September 8, 1949, despite concerns raised about its implications.

r
Judicial interpretations of Article 361 have evolved over the years. Notably, in the 2017 criminal case against

o p
Rajasthan Governor Kalyan Singh related to the Babri Masjid demolition, the Supreme Court ruled that Singh
enjoyed immunity under Article 361 "as long as he remains Governor of Rajasthan," but could be tried once he

T
left office. Similarly, in the Vyapam scam involving then Governor of Madhya Pradesh, Ram Naresh Yadav, the
Madhya Pradesh High Court ruled that registering an FIR did not constitute "instituting" criminal proceedings,
allowing the investigation to continue without implicating the Governor while in office.
Moreover, in a 2006 landmark ruling in Rameshwar Prasad vs Union of India concerning the Bihar Assembly's
tr-5S8L 1L7L0S0P1M
dissolution,the Supreme Court stated that while the Governor has "complete immunity" under Article 361(1)
when exercising their powers, this does not prevent the court from examining the validity of their actions,
including for malafides.
[Extracted with edits and revisions from https://www.deccanherald.com/india/supreme-court-agrees-to-
examine-constitutional-provision-granting-immunity-to-governors-3112100]
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
0P1M

53. During his tenure, Governor Arjun Mehra of the state of Devnagar is accused of misusing his official powers by
unilaterally authorizing the diversion of state funds for personal use. An investigative journalist uncovers
substantial evidence supporting these accusations and files a petition for criminal proceedings against Governor
Mehra. However, the state prosecutor hesitates, citing Article 361 of the Constitution, which protects the
Governor from criminal proceedings and arrest during his tenure. The case garners public interest, and a debate
arises regarding the scope of the Governor's immunity under the Constitution. The journalist argues that the
immediate need for accountability should override the constitutional immunity provisions. Which of the
following is most accurate in this regard?
1G7E0G0B1E
(a) The criminal proceedings can be initiated astr-the
5C8IGovernor’s actions, if proven true, constitute a grave misuse
of power.
(b) No criminal proceedings can be instituted or continued against Governor Mehra while he is in office,
according to Article 361 of the Constitution.
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 (c) The Governor can be detained for interrogation as this does not constitute formal arrest or continuation of
criminal proceedings.
(d) The Governor’s immunity does not cover actions of financial misconduct, and he can be prosecuted while
in office.
54. Considering the constitutional protections provided to the Governor under Article 361 and its implications on
legal proceedings, which of the following situations best aligns with the potential violation of rights and integrity
of evidence mentioned in the case against Governor Bose?
(a) A lawsuit filed against a state Governor for actions taken in their official capacity, delayed until after their
term ends, leading to potential loss of critical evidence.
(b) A criminal case initiated against a former Governor immediately after they leave office, regarding actions
taken during their tenure.

m
(c) An investigation into alleged misconduct by a Governor, where preliminary inquiries are postponed until the
end of their term, risking the degradation of evidence.

to proceed while in office.

.c o
(d) A civil lawsuit against a Governor for personal financial dealings unrelated to their official duties, allowed

rs
55. Governor Ashok Verma of the state of Vindhyachal is implicated in a high-profile corruption scandal involving
the award of government contracts to his close associates. A whistleblower provides substantial evidence,

k e
prompting the state's Anti-Corruption Bureau (ACB) to consider registering an FIR against various officials
involved, including Governor Verma. The ACB's legal team, recalling the precedent set by the Vyapam case,

n
debates whether the registration of an FIR against the Governor, who is currently in office, would contravene

a
his constitutional immunity under Article 361. A public interest litigation (PIL) is subsequently filed, challenging

r
the ACB’s hesitation and seeking clarification on the permissible scope of initial legal actions against a sitting

o p
governor. The court is now tasked with determining whether to allow the registration of the FIR without
implicating the governor in ongoing criminal proceedings. Which of the following is most accurate in this
regard?

under
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Article 361.
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T
(a) The registration of the FIR against Governor Verma is valid, as it does not constitute the instituting of
criminal proceedings, which is consistent with the Vyapam precedent.
(b) The registration of the FIR is invalid, as any legal action that names the Governor while in office is prohibited

(c) The ACB can proceed with the FIR against other officials but must exclude Governor Verma until he leaves
office, to avoid constitutional violations.
(d) Registering an FIR and initiating an investigation are considered the same under Article 361; therefore,
neither can proceed while the Governor is in office.
tr-5S 8L1L7L0S0P1M
56. In light of Article 361(1) and its interpretation regarding the immunity of a Governor, which of the following
situations best illustrates the court's capacity to scrutinize the actions of a Governor for potential malafides,
despite their immunity?
(a) A Governor is charged with corruption during their tenure, but the case cannot proceed until they leave
office, as criminal proceedings are barred under their immunity.
(b) A Governor's decision to dissolve a state assembly is challenged in the Supreme Court, which reviews the
decision of Governor for potential malafides despite the Governor's immunity.
(c) An opposition party files a civil lawsuit against a sitting Governor for defamation during a political
campaign, alleging malice. 0B1E
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(d) A complaint is filed against a Governor for misuse of official resources, but the complaint is dismissed
without investigation due to the Governor's immunity.

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57. Which of the following statements correctly interprets the Supreme Court's ruling on the immunity of Governors
under Article 361 of the Constitution in criminal proceedings?
(a) The immunity under Article 361 extends to all forms of criminal proceedings, including registration of an
FIR, ensuring no legal actions can commence against a Governor while in office.
(b) The Supreme Court has consistently ruled that Governors enjoy absolute immunity from criminal
prosecution, which includes both the initiation of an investigation and subsequent judicial proceedings.
(c) Article 361's protections for Governors prevent the arrest and continuation of criminal proceedings, but do
not necessarily bar preliminary inquiries or the registration of an FIR.
(d) Governors under Article 361 are immune from any form of judicial scrutiny, and their actions cannot be
challenged in court until they leave office.
Passage (Q.58-Q.62): In a recent ruling, a Mumbai Special Court cited the Supreme Court's decision in granting

m
bail to Delhi Chief Minister Arvind Kejriwal to release businessman Purushottam Mandhana, arrested on charges
of money laundering linked to a Rs 975 crore bank fraud. The court found that the Enforcement Directorate (ED)

Money Laundering Act (PMLA).

.c o
did not provide Mandhana the "reasons to believe" for his arrest, a procedural necessity under the Prevention of

rs
Section 19 of the PMLA mandates that an ED officer must record a "reason to believe," based on the "material
on record," that the accused has committed an offence under the PMLA. Furthermore, it requires that the accused

k e
be informed of the grounds for arrest "as soon as maybe [possible]." This provision is crucial because PMLA
sets a high threshold for bail, necessitating strict adherence to legal protocols during arrest.

n
The legal basis for the Mumbai Special Court's decision stems from the Supreme Court's July 12 ruling in

a
Kejriwal's case, where the court emphasized that arrests under the PMLA cannot be arbitrary and must be based

r
on valid "reasons to believe" that meet legal standards. This ruling highlighted the importance of judicial scrutiny

o p
to prevent violations of the fundamental right to life and liberty.
Moreover, the Supreme Court had previously ruled in 2023, in the case of Pankaj Bansal vs Union of India, that

Section0P45
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
T
disclosing the "grounds of arrest" to an accused in writing at the time of arrest is mandatory under Section 19 of
the PMLA. This requirement is significant as it ensures transparency and accountability in the arrest process,
allowing the accused to challenge the legality of the arrest if necessary.
1Mof the PMLA, which deals with bail, first states that no court can grant bail for offences under this
law, and then proceeds to mention a few exceptions. The negative language in the provision itself shows that
bail is not the rule but the exception under PMLA.
The provision makes it mandatory to hear the public prosecutor in all bail applications, and when the prosecutor
opposes bail, tr-the court is required
5S8L1L7L0S0P
1M to apply a twin test. These two conditions are: (i) that there are “reasonable
grounds for believing that [the accused] is not guilty of such offence”; and (ii) that “he is not likely to commit
any offence while on bail”.
The importance of these procedural safeguards was further underscored in a related context under the Unlawful
Activities Prevention Act (UAPA), where the Supreme Court invalidated the arrest of NewsClick founder Prabir
Purkayastha due to a failure to inform him of the arrest grounds beforehand.
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/arvind-
kejriwal-bail-supreme-court-pmla-case-money-laundering-case-excise-policy-case-ed-pmla-act-section-9-
9483566/
0B1E
tr-5C8I1G7E0G

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58. Rahul Mehta, a well-known financier in Mumbai, is arrested by the Enforcement Directorate (ED) on suspicions
of money laundering amounting to Rs 450 crore linked to overseas shell companies. At the time of arrest, the
ED officer verbally informs Rahul that they have "reason to believe" he is involved in money laundering based
on his recent financial activities and transactions. However, Rahul's legal team challenges the arrest in court,
arguing that no concrete "material on record" was provided at the time of arrest to substantiate the "reason to
believe," as mandated by Section 19 of the PMLA. The court now needs to assess whether the procedural
requirements under the PMLA were met, focusing specifically on the legitimacy of the arrest without
documented evidence at the time. Which of the following is most accurate in this regard, assuming the
contentions of Rahul’s team is true?
(a) The arrest is valid as the ED officer had a subjective "reason to believe" Rahul was involved in money
laundering, fulfilling the requirement under PMLA.

m
(b) The arrest is valid since the ED's ongoing investigation is expected to gather material, making the initial lack
of documentation acceptable.

PMLA, regardless of whether it is documented.

.c o
(c) The arrest is valid because the verbal statement of "reason to believe" by the ED officer is sufficient under

rs
(d) The arrest is invalid because the ED officer failed to provide concrete and written "material on record" at the
time of arrest to justify the "reason to believe," as required by Section 19 of the PMLA.
59.

e
Ankit Patel, a reputed businessman, is arrested on allegations of laundering over Rs 100 crore through his textile

k
export company. Following his arrest under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), Ankit applies

n
for bail. During the bail hearing, the prosecution presents evidence suggesting Ankit's involvement in multiple

a
shell companies and offshore transactions suspected of laundering funds. However, Ankit's defense argues that

r
the evidence is circumstantial and highlights his lack of criminal history and his significant community ties,

o p
asserting that he poses no flight risk and is not likely to tamper with evidence. After listening to Public
Prosecutor, The court is faced with deciding whether to grant bail under Section 45 of the PMLA, which requires
satisfaction that there are prime facie reasonable grounds for believing that the accused is not guilty and that he

(b) Bail0Pshould
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
1M
T
will not commit any offense while on bail. Which of the following is most accurate in this regard?
(a) Bail should be granted because Ankit has strong community ties and no prior criminal record, indicating he
is not likely to commit any offense while on bail.
not be granted because the serious nature of the allegations requires a higher threshold of proof
for the non-guilt of the accused before bail can be considered.
(c) Bail should be granted as Ankit’s involvement with the shell companies has not been conclusively proven,
satisfying the court of reasonable grounds for believing he is not guilty.
(d) Bail should not be granted, as the court must be satisfied that Ankit is not guilty of the offense charged and
8L1L7L0S0P
not likelytr-to5Scommit any1M offense while on bail, which has not been conclusively established by the defense.

60. In line with the Supreme Court's guidelines on arrests under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA),
which situation correctly reflects the required standard for a valid "reason to believe" based on the "material on
record"?
(a) An ED officer arrests a corporate executive based on a detailed whistleblower report and preliminary
evidence suggesting undisclosed overseas transactions.
(b) An ED officer arrests a property developer for high volume transactions during a real estate boom without
any direct evidence of illegality.
(c) An ED officer arrests an art dealer after noting unusually 1E
high-value purchases at an auction, but without
5C8I1G7E0G0B
specific evidence linking these purchases totr-money laundering.
(d) An ED officer arrests an individual based solely on their previous criminal record for fraud, with no current
evidence of money laundering.

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61. Vivek Gupta, a financial analyst, is arrested by the Enforcement Directorate (ED) on suspicions of involvement
in a large-scale foreign exchange fraud. At the time of his arrest, the ED officers verbally inform him of their
suspicions detailing the specific grounds for his arrest, citing the urgency of securing his custody to prevent
potential evidence tampering. Vivek’s legal team challenges the arrest in court, arguing that the arrest violates
the Supreme Court's directive under Section 19 of the PMLA, as established in the case of Pankaj Bansal vs
Union of India. The court must now decide whether the arrest meets the legal requirements under the PMLA.
Which of the following is most accurate in this regard?
(a) The arrest is valid as the verbal explanation at the time of arrest is sufficient under extreme circumstances
where evidence tampering is feared.
(b) The arrest is invalid because not providing written grounds at the time of arrest directly violates the PMLA
stipulations as reinforced by the Supreme Court.
(c) The arrest is valid since the verbal information provided to Vivek at the time of arrest meets the basic
requirements for transparency and accountability.

o m
(d) The arrest is valid because the urgency of the situation allows for a temporary bypass of the requirement for
written grounds, which can be submitted later.

c
62.

rs .
Vikram, an entrepreneur, is arrested under charges of fraud involving a government subsidy scheme intended
for small businesses. Due to the nature of the allegations, the case garners significant public attention. At

k e
Vikram’s initial bail hearing, the public prosecutor is unexpectedly unable to attend due to a medical emergency.
The defense argues for immediate bail on the grounds that Vikram poses no flight risk and has a previously
unblemished record. The judge, aware of the statutory requirements to hear the public prosecutor in bail

r
prosecutor, should the court grant bail to Vikram?
n
applications, faces a dilemma due to the absence of the prosecutor at the hearing. Given the absence of the public

a
(a) Yes, because the absence of the public prosecutor should not unduly delay the legal proceedings and Vikram
has a clean record.

o p
(b) No, because the statutory requirement mandates the hearing of the public prosecutor, and without this, the

T
bail hearing cannot proceed correctly.
(c) Yes, because the charges are related to a non-violent crime and Vikram has significant community ties.
(d) No, because the nature of the charges implies a risk of financial harm to public resources, which necessitates
a rigorous application of the twin test.
0P1M
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
Passage (Q.63-Q.67): The Constitution of India secures the freedom of Trade, Commerce and Intercourse
within the Territory of India under Article 301, subject to reasonable restrictions & public interest ranging from
Article 302- 307. It is worth mentioning that Part XIII (Art. 301-307) is in addition to Articles 14 (right to
equality) & 19 (freedom of business).
0P1M
tr-5S8L1L7L0S contain special provisions to protect this freedom specifically USA and Germany. The
Most federal constitutions
Indian Constitution also contains provisions guaranteeing freedom of commerce, trade and intercourse
throughout the territory of India. However, no freedom can be absolute. Limitations for the common good are
inherent in such freedom, lest it should degenerate into a self-defeating licence. That is why, legitimate regulatory
measures are not considered to constitute restrictions on this freedom.
Article 301 guarantees that trade, commerce and intercourse shall be free throughout the territory of India. It
imposes a general limitation on the exercise of legislative power, whether of the Union or of the States, to secure
unobstructed flow of trade, commerce and intercourse from one part of the territory of India to another.
1E
7E0G0Bprovisions
This guarantee of freedom is expressly subject tr-to5Cthe
8I1Gother of Part XIII (Articles 302 to 305) of the
Constitution. Article 302 enables Parliament to impose restrictions, by law, on the freedom of trade, commerce
and intercourse between one State and another or within any part of the territory of India as may be required in
public interest. But, this power to place restrictions cannot be used by Parliament to make any law which
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 discriminates between one State and another or gives preference to one State over another, “by virtue of any
Entry in the Seventh Schedule relating to trade and commerce” [Article 303(1)].
Clause (2) of Article 303 engrafts an exception to the limitation contained in clause (1), in as much as it permits
Parliament to make a law giving preference, or making discrimination between one State and another, if it is
declared by such law that it is necessary to do so for the purpose of dealing with a situation arising from scarcity
of goods in any part of the territory of India.
The limitations imposed by Article 303(1) on Parliament also apply to State Legislatures. This means that State
Legislatures cannot make laws that discriminate between States in matters of trade and commerce.
However, State Legislatures do not have the exceptional power provided to Parliament under Article 303(2). In
other words, while Parliament can make discriminatory laws during a situation of scarcity, State Legislatures do
not have this authority.

63.
[Source: https://interstatecouncil.gov.in/wp-content/uploads/2015/06/CHAPTERXVIII.pdf]

o m
Karnataka is a major agricultural state in India, known for its production of crops such as rice, sugarcane, and

c
.
various fruits and vegetables. However, due to local political pressures and concerns over supporting the

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livelihoods of Karnataka's farmers, the state government decided to enact a policy that severely restricted the
flow of agricultural goods from other states into Karnataka. Under this new policy, the state government of

e
Karnataka imposed exorbitant taxes and levies on the entry of agricultural products from Maharashtra and Tamil

k
Nadu. Additionally, the state government introduced a complex licensing system, which made it extremely
difficult for traders and farmers from neighboring states to engage in cross-border trade. This included mandatory

n
permits, inspections, and high fees for any goods entering Karnataka. Is it valid in light of the passage?

a
(a) No, because the law to discriminate between states in trade can only be made by Parliament on the ground of scarcity.

r
(b) Yes, because the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse can be put to limitations under Article 301.

o
on the ground of natural disaster.
p
(c) No, because the law to impose restrictions on other states in inter-state trade can only be made by Parliament

T
(d) Yes, because the state government is empowered under Article 303 to impose restrictions on inter-state trade.

64. The Nilgiri River originates in Karnataka and flows into Kerala. Both states heavily rely on the river for
irrigation, drinking water, and other essential purposes. Over the years, disputes had arisen over the distribution
of water0Pfrom
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
1M the Nilgiri River, as well as allegations of Karnataka's excessive use of water, leading to adverse
effects downstream in Kerala. In an attempt to address the water-sharing dispute and concerns over the equitable
distribution of resources, the Parliament of India enacted a law that imposed several trade restrictions between
Kerala and Karnataka. The law stipulated that certain goods and commodities could not be transported across
state borders, particularly those that were considered essential for the agriculture and industrial sectors. A strict
tr-5S8L 1L7L0S0P1M
licensing system was put in place, requiring traders and businesses to obtain special permits for trade with the
neighboring state. Is it valid in light of the passage?
(a) Yes, because such a restriction is allowed under Article 302 for public interest.
(b) No, because such restrictions cannot be imposed as freedom of trade and commerce is free throughout India.
(c) Yes, because such a restriction is allowed under Article 303 for scarcity of a private commodity.
(d) No, because such restrictions can be imposed by the state government under Article 303.
65. In case Parliament enacts a law that prohibits supply for an essential good to another state for the reason that the
other state has glut in the supply of that good from imports from a neighbouring country, then:
(a) Such a law will not infringe the freedom of tr-trade, commerce
5C8I1G7E0G0B
1E and intercourse under Article 301.
(b) Such a law will not infringe Article 303 (2) as there was a ground on which discrimination was made.
(c) Such a law would infringe Article 301 as such restrictions can only be put for public interest or scarcity.
(d) Such a law would not be violating Article 303 (2) as there was scarcity of such goods in one state.

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66. If State government enacts a law that prohibits the import of goods from two neighbouring state because it is
excessively affecting that industry in their state, then:
(a) The legislation will impinge on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse under Article 301.
(b) The legislation will impinge on the rights given to the neighbouring states’ producers under Article 19.
(c) The legislation will impinge on power given under Article 303 regarding discrimination and restriction.
(d) All of the above
67. If State of Premachal enacts a law which puts an additional tax on the entry of goods from other states to its
territories, then:
(a) Such a law will not infringe Article 301 as the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse is not absolute.
(b) Such a law will infringe Article 303 as the power of putting restriction is given to the President.
(c) Such a law will not infringe on the freedom of trade and commerce as it is liable to be restricted under Article

m
19.
(d) Such a law will infringe Article 302 and 303 as such power is not given to the state government.

c o
Passage (Q.68-Q.72): The Supreme Court on October 3, 2024 declared that caste-based division of labour in

.
prisons is “unconstitutional” marking a significant milestone in addressing institutional biases entrenched in

rs
India’s correctional system. Accordingly, a three-judge Bench headed by Chief Justice of India D.Y.
Chandrachud struck down several provisions in State prison manuals that reinforced such caste differences for
being violative of the fundamental rights of prisoners.

k e
Underscoring that caste may be employed as a criterion for classification only when it seeks to benefit victims

n
of caste discrimination, the top court ruled that the prison manuals failed to achieve this objective and instead

a
contravened Article 14 of the Constitution It added caste-based classification can be justified when it seeks to

r
remedy past injustices and improve the social and economic conditions of disadvantaged groups. “Segregating

o p
prisoners on the basis of caste would reinforce caste differences or animosity that ought to be prevented in the
first place”, it reasoned. The judges further opined that differentiating between inmates based on “habit,”
“custom,” “superior mode of living,” and “natural tendency to escape” offends principles of substantive equality.

tr-5S8L 1L7L0S0P
T
The ruling also flagged the perpetuation of both direct and indirect discrimination against marginalised
communities. “By assigning cleaning and sweeping work to the marginalised castes, while allowing the high
castes to do cooking, the manuals directly discriminate. This is an instance of direct discrimination under Article
15(1)’’, 1M Bench asserted. Furthermore, assigning specific tasks to these communities based on their purported
the
“customary” roles, rather than offering “more skilled, dignified, or intellectual work,” was deemed to result in
indirect discrimination.
Referring to prison rules that require food to be cooked by members of a “suitable caste” or “menial duties” to
be exclusively performed
tr-5S by communities “accustomed” to such work, the court noted that these practices
8L1L7L0S0P1M
constituted untouchability, prohibited under Article 17 of the Constitution. “When Prison Manuals restrict the
reformation of prisoners from marginalised communities, they violate their right to life. At the same time, such
provisions deprive prisoners from marginalised groups of a sense of dignity and the expectation that they should
be treated equally”, the Chief Justice further underscored.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from "Why did the Supreme Court strike down ‘casteist’ provisions in
India’s prison manuals? | Explained/ The Hindu/, https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/supreme-court-
verdict-casteist-provisions-indias-prison-manuals-explained/article68704711.ece ]

0B1E
tr-5C8I1G7E0G

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68. Which of the following scenarios does not represent caste-based discrimination, as per the court’s ruling?
(a) Arjun, a prisoner from a marginalised community, is assigned cleaning duties because the prison authorities
believe that this matches his community's traditional role. The authorities argue that this assignment
preserves cultural practices within the prison.
(b) Sameer, from a marginalised caste, is given the opportunity to work in the library alongside prisoners from
other castes, as the prison aims to provide equal access to skilled and dignified work regardless of caste
background.
(c) Ravi, a prisoner from a higher caste, is assigned to cooking duties while prisoners from marginalized castes
are assigned to cleaning and sweeping. The prison manual states that such divisions are based on the
“customary roles” of these communities.
(d) Pooja, a prisoner from a marginalised community, is given only menial tasks like sweeping, while inmates

m
from higher castes are given roles involving learning new skills. The prison authorities argue that this
allocation of duties is based on the habits and customs of the inmates.
69.

c o
Ravi files a case against a state-run organisation in Karnataka, challenging their policy of reserving 30% of

.
employment seats for candidates from Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST). He argues that the

rs
reservation policy harms his religious feelings by favouring certain castes. The state defends the policy by stating
that the reservation is specifically designed to uplift the marginalised castes who have historically faced

k e
discrimination, providing them with better employment opportunities and helping to improve their social and
economic condition, which has historically been affected by discrimination. Choose the court's reasoning.

n
(a) The court strikes down the reservation policy, stating that any classification based on caste is discriminatory

a
and violates the principle of equality under Article 14 of the Constitution.

r
(b) The court concludes that the reservation policy must be ended because it goes against the principle of merit,

o p
stating that everyone should have equal opportunities regardless of caste.
(c) The court finds that reservations based on caste should only apply if all members of a caste are disadvantaged,
ruling that the policy should consider individual situations instead of making a general classification based

70.tr-5S8L
The
on caste.

1L7LSupreme
T
(d) The court decides that the reservation is justified because caste can be used as a reason when it aims to
provide support to those who have faced discrimination, helping to improve their social and economic status.
0S0P1M Court ruled that prison manuals restrict the reformation of prisoners from marginalised
communities, violate their right to life and take away their dignity. Based on this ruling, decide if the court
believes that prisoners from marginalised groups should be treated equally and given chances for reformation.
(a) Yes, because the court highlighted that all prisoners deserve equal treatment and opportunities to reform, and
denying marginalised0Pprisoners
1M
this chance goes against their fundamental rights.
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
(b) No, because the court stated that different treatment is needed based on a prisoner’s caste to maintain order
and discipline within the prison system.
(c) Yes, because the ruling emphasises that all prisoners should have the opportunity to reform, and while it
highlights the importance of dignity, it also mentions the need to remove untouchability from the
Constitution.
(d) No, because the court's ruling only examines the prison manuals and does not propose any changes to how
all prisoners should be treated.
71. Analyse the following scenarios and decide which of these violates the principles of substantive equality.
I. A prison policy assigns inmates with a history of1Gescaping
tr-5C8I 7E0G0B1E to higher security cells, while other inmates are
allowed in lower-security areas, without considering their current behaviour or reform efforts.
II. A prison implements a job allocation system where inmates can apply for various tasks, such as cooking,
teaching, or maintaining the library. Selection is based on individual skills and interests.

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 III. Prison authorities require prisoners of lower caste to engage in cleaning work, arguing that it aligns with
their community's traditional roles, while upper caste prisoners are given more skilled tasks like managing
the library.
IV. A rehabilitation program categorises prisoners based on their interests and previous work experience,
allowing them to choose roles that match their skills and provides access to training for all.
V. A skill-building program in a prison offers courses like carpentry, tailoring, and computer literacy. All
prisoners are encouraged to participate, and extra assistance is provided to those who didn’t have experience
of such work.
VI. A prison manual stipulates that inmates who come from rural backgrounds must perform farming tasks,
while those from urban backgrounds are assigned to administrative work, assuming they are more familiar
with paperwork.
(a) I, II and V (b) I and III only (c) I, III and V (d) I, III and VI
72.

o m
Ramesh, a prisoner, files a petition in court against the prison authorities, arguing that prisoners are assigned
work based on their caste background. He claims that the prison is reinforcing caste differences by assigning

c
.
tasks based on caste and the system is discriminatory. He argued that every prisoner should have the opportunity

rs
to engage in more skilled or dignified work.
The state prison authority defends its actions by arguing that the given works are based on the prisoners' past

k e
skills and the “customary roles” they are familiar with. They claim that this division is not intended to be
discriminatory but to ensure that the prison runs smoothly by utilising each prisoner’s background skills. They
further argue that this system helps maintain order within the prison, as prisoners are more comfortable
performing tasks they are accustomed to. Decide.

an
(a) The court will rule in favour of Ramesh, ruling that assigning tasks based on “customary roles” reinforces

r
caste differences and is discriminatory. Such practices violate the principles of substantive equality and

o p
dignity, and prisoners should not be assigned work solely based on their caste background.
(b) The court will rule in favour of the prison authorities, accepting their argument that assigning tasks based on

T
“customary roles” respects the prisoners' previous skills and does not violate their rights as it is aimed at
maintaining order and efficiency in the prison.
(c) The court will conclude that both parties have valid points and that a middle ground should be found where
prisoners can choose their work based on their skills and preferences, rather than following the manual's
7L 0S0P1M
tr-5S8L1L caste-based assignments.
(d) The court will decide that since there is no evidence of ill-treatment or abuse of the prisoners, the assignments
based on customary roles will be allowed, as long as the living conditions are equal for all inmates.
Passage (Q.73-Q.78): According to the new Bill-2024 approved in the recent Vidhan Sabha session, registration
of private coaching 7L0S0P1M by the state government has become compulsory and those violating direction will
institutes
tr-5S8L1L
have to face heavy penalties ranging up to R 1 lakh. The Bill has been passed to register and regulate private
coaching institutes providing coaching for competitive examinations in higher studies, jobs, and professional
courses.
As per the provisions of The Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024, no
private coaching institute shall publish or cause to be published any misleading advertisement or give false
information related to coaching and in case of violation of the Act, it shall be liable for a fine of Rs 25,000 for
the first violation, Rs 1 lakh for the subsequent violation and if the violation continues then the registration of
the private coaching institute shall be cancelled. 0B1E
tr-5C8I1G7E0G
After the implementation of the new law, there shall be an Authority, headed by the deputy commissioner in
each district across the state to register and regulate private coaching institutes to include the SP of the district

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 concerned and education department officers. The authorities will constitute a grievance redressal cell at the
district level and will inspect violation of rules or upon a complaint against such private coaching institutes.
The Act also stated that every private coaching institute shall engage at least one full-time counsellor to address
mental health and stress-related issues among students. For the registration of a new coaching centres, an
application needs to be made to the district-level Authority, whereas in case of those private coaching institutes
which have been established prior to the commencement of this Act shall also get themselves registered for a
period of three years within a period of three months from the commencement of this Act.
While talking to the media persons, Haryana Higher Education Minister Mool Chand Sharma said the state
government is taking various welfare measures in the field of education.
Answer the following questions that the bill is enacted.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions from “Bill-2024 for registration of private coaching institutes in Haryana

73.
passed” by Parvesh Handa, The Financial World].

o m
Bright Future Coaching Institute, a well-known public coaching institute in Gurugram, Haryana, offering

c
.
preparatory classes for engineering and medical entrance exams had been running for over five years. In 2025,

rs
it has continued to operate without registering under The Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private
Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024, despite the new law making it compulsory. The local education authorities

e
discovered that Bright Future had not completed the mandatory registration process and issued to impose a fine
on the institute. However, the institute’s management argued that their reputation and years of operation

or not.

a k
exempted them from compliance. Decide whether Bright Future Coaching Institute will be liable to pay the fine

n
(a) Bright Future Coaching Institute will be liable to pay the fine of Rs 25,000 under the Haryana Registration

p r
and Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024 because the new law made it compulsory.
(b) Bright Future Coaching Institute will be liable to pay the fine of upto Rs 1,00,000 for the violation of

o
directions under Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024.

T
(c) Bright Future Coaching Institute will not be liable to pay the fine under the Haryana Registration and
Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024 because the Act will not be applicable on the institute.
(d) Bright Future Coaching Institute will not be liable to pay the fine under the Haryana Registration and
Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024 as their reputation and years of operation exempted them
7L 0S0P1M
tr-5S8L1L from compliance.
74. Excel Minds Coaching Center, a private coaching institute in Hisar, Haryana, ran an aggressive marketing
campaign claiming a 100% success rate in the state’s medical entrance exams. Their advertisements, displayed
on billboards and prominently featured testimonials from "toppers". However, an investigation by concerned
parents revealed that
tr-5S8L only
1L7L a handful of students from Excel Minds had actually qualified for medical entrance
0S0P1M
exams and none had achieved top ranks as advertised. The parents filed a case claiming that Excel Minds was
guilty of violation of The Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024 as Excel
Minds intentionally deceived students and parents with false promises. However, Excel Minds Coaching Center
argued that the advertisements were intended to convey confidence in their coaching methods and not an actual
guarantee. Decide whether Excel Minds would be guilty of violation of The Haryana Registration and Regulation
of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024 or not.
(a) Excel Minds would be guilty of violation of The Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching
Institutes Bill, 2024 for publishing misleading advertisement or giving false information related to their
coaching. tr-5C8I1G7E0G
0B1E
(b) Excel Minds would not be guilty of violation of The Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private
Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024 because the advertisements were intended to convey confidence in their
coaching methods and not an actual guarantee.

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 (c) Excel Minds would be guilty of violation of The Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching
Institutes Bill, 2024 because Excel Minds intentionally deceived students and parents with false promises.
(d) Excel Minds would not be guilty of violation of The Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private
Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024 because the Act will not be applicable on the institute.
75. Suppose, in the above instance, Excel Minds Coaching Center was found to be guilty of publishing misleading
advertisements about their 100% success rate and "guaranteed admission" claims. Thereafter, it removed the
original ads but quickly launched a new marketing campaign. This time, Excel Minds posted new advertisement
claiming "90% of our students secure admission to their dream colleges," without any factual basis. The blatant
disregard for authority and continued defiance aggravated them and the authorities decided to cancel the
registration of Excel Minds. However, Excel Minds argued that decision was influenced by personal agitation
on the part of the authorities. Decide whether the authorities can cancel registration of Excel Minds Coaching

m
Center on account of violation of The Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill,
2024 or not.

.c o
(a) The authorities can cancel registration of Excel Minds Coaching Center on account of violation of The
Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024 because the coaching

rs
published misleading advertisement or gave false information related to their coaching.
(b) The authorities cannot cancel registration of Excel Minds Coaching Center on account of violation of The

based on application of the law.

k e
Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024 because the decision was not

(c) The authorities can cancel registration of Excel Minds Coaching Center on account of violation of The

r n
Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024 because the blatant disregard

a
for authority and continued defiance aggravated the authorities.
(d) The authorities cannot cancel registration of Excel Minds Coaching Center on account of violation of The

o p
Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024 because that decision was
influenced by personal agitation on the part of the authorities.
76.

professional
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
0P1M
T
Which of the following is the main aim of The Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching
Institutes Bill, 2024?
(a) To register and regulate private coaching institutes for competitive examinations in higher studies, jobs, and
courses.
(b) To prevent publishing any misleading advertisement or giving false information related to coaching.
(c) To address mental health and stress-related issues among students.
(d) All of the above.
77. In Kurukshetra, Haryana, a complaint was filed against Achievers Coaching Institute (A private coaching
0P1M
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
institute for CLAT Preparation) for charging excessive fees without proper disclosure. The district's regulatory
authority, which included the Deputy Commissioner (DC) and two officers from the education department, was
scheduled to inspect the institute in response to the complaint. The authority did thorough inspection and decided
to revoke the institute’s license on the basis of such inspection. However, the institute argued that the authorities
are not empowered under The Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024 to
revoke the institute’s license. Decide whether the authority can revoke institute’s license for charging excessive
fees without proper disclosure or not.
(a) The authority can revoke institute’s license for charging excessive fees without proper disclosure because
authorities are empowered under The Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes
8I1G7E0G0B1E
Bill, 2024 to revoke the institute’s license. tr-5C
(b) The authority cannot revoke institute’s license for charging excessive fees without proper disclosure because
the authorities are not empowered under The Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching
Institutes Bill, 2024 to revoke the institute’s license.
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 (c) The authority can revoke institute’s license for charging excessive fees without proper disclosure but only if
they had investigated properly in the presence of all required members of the authority as mentioned under
The Haryana Registration and Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024.
(d) The authority cannot revoke institute’s license for charging excessive fees without proper disclosure because
the quorum of the authority is not complete and not in accordance of The Haryana Registration and
Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024.
78. Which of the following private coaching institute can get itself registered under the Haryana Registration and
Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024?
(a) At Pinnacle Academy, a coaching institute in Panchkula, Haryana, the management recognizing the intense
pressure students faced while preparing for competitive exams hired Dr. Riya Sharma, a part-time counselor
who is a licensed psychologist with experience in educational counseling. Dr. Sharma’s role was to provide

m
support through regular counseling sessions, workshops on stress management, and mental health awareness
programs.

.c o
(b) In the town of Fatehabad, Haryana, Achieve More Coaching Institute had been serving students for over five
years, helping them prepare for various competitive exams. However, when The Haryana Registration and

rs
Regulation of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024 came into effect on 04.10.2024, the owner, Ms. Kavita
Singh submitted their registration application to the district-level authority on 01.01.2025 for getting
registration till 01.01.2028.

k e
(c) In the town of Ambala, Haryana, Future Scholars Coaching Institute decided to open a new center to cater
to students preparing for competitive exams. The institute’s director, Mr. Rajiv Mehta, gathered the

r n
necessary documents and meticulously filled out the application form, providing essential details such as the

a
institute's proposed location, course offerings, faculty qualifications, and safety measures in place for
students for registration with the state-level authority.

o p
(d) In the city of Hisar, Haryana, Bright Future Coaching Center had been a prominent establishment for students
preparing for engineering entrance exams for over a decade. When The Haryana Registration and Regulation

T
of Private Coaching Institutes Bill, 2024 was enacted on 22.06.2024, Mr. Anil Kumar, the director of Bright
Future, immediately submitted their application to the district-level authority for getting registration till
22.06.2028.
Passage0P(Q.79-Q.84):
1M The Supreme Court on Friday expressed dismay over the persistent misunderstanding and
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
misapplication of the law regarding the offences of criminal breach of trust and cheating, which has sprouted
various unjust outcomes in society.
The court observed that it is common practice for police officers to register FIRs for both criminal breach of trust
and cheating based on mere 0P1M
allegations of dishonesty or fraud. This mechanical approach, it noted, has led to
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
numerous instances of injustice and has muddied the legal waters and thus needs to be remedied by setting
reforms and guidelines to maintain sanctity of justice.
The IPC (now BNS) through Sec 405 defined Criminal Breach of Trust as “Whoever, being in any manner
entrusted with property, or with any dominion over property, dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own
use that property, or dishonestly uses or disposes of that property in violation of any direction of law prescribing
the mode in which such trust is to be discharged, or of any legal contract, express or implied, which he has made
touching the discharge of such trust, or wilfully suffers any other person so to do, commits “criminal breach of
trust”.”
7E0G0B1E
tr-5C8I1G as “Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or
The IPC (now BNS) through Sec 415 defined Cheating
dishonestly induces the person so deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person
shall retain any property, or intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he

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 would not do or omit if he were not so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage
or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property, is said to “cheat”.”
While both offences involve dishonest intent, the court highlighted, they are distinct in nature. Criminal breach
of trust pertains to a situation where property is legally entrusted to a person, who then dishonestly
misappropriates it. Cheating, however, involves a fraudulent inducement from the outset, where a person is
deceived into parting with property or consent, it said.
The court was unequivocal that both offences are independent and distinct and cannot coexist under the same set
of facts.
[Extracted, with edits and revisions from “Must clarify the legal differences between cheating, criminal breach
of trust, says Supreme Court” by Utkarsh Anand, The Hindustan Times].
79. Decide which of the following would not be an example of Criminal Breach of Trust in accordance to Sec 405
IPC?

o m
(a) Ravi, a college student, was walking home when he found a leather wallet on the sidewalk. The wallet

c
contained ₹20,000 in cash and several credit cards. Ravi took the wallet home, thinking it might be difficult

rs
decided to use the money for his own expenses, believing it was abandoned property.
.
to find the owner. Instead of reporting the find to the police or making an effort to locate the owner, Ravi

(b) Neha worked as a financial manager for a non-profit organization. The organization had entrusted her with

k e
₹15,00,000 to invest in low-risk bonds, as part of their long-term savings plan. Neha, however, saw an
opportunity to make a quick profit in the stock market. Believing she could earn a high return for the

approval from the organization’s board.

r n
organization, Neha used ₹10,00,000 of the funds to invest in high-risk stocks without informing or getting

a
(c) Ramesh and Sanjay were lifelong friends and business partners in an electronics shop. Before leaving for a

o p
two-week pilgrimage, Ramesh entrusted Sanjay with ₹5,00,000 to pay a supplier. Sanjay, facing personal
financial troubles due to gambling debts, decided to use the money in hopes of winning more. However,
Sanjay lost all the money gambling.

80.
permission.
tr-5S8L1L7L0S0P1M
T
(d) Anil worked as a caretaker for Mr. Sharma, a businessman who owned a vacant bungalow. Before traveling
abroad for six months, Mr. Sharma instructed Anil to only maintain the bungalow but seeing an opportunity
to make money, Anil decided to lease the bungalow to a family temporarily, without Mr. Sharma’s
Anil collected rent from the family, believing Mr. Sharma wouldn’t find out.
Ramesh and Sanjay were lifelong friends and business partners in an electronics shop. Before leaving for a two-
week pilgrimage, Ramesh entrusted Sanjay with ₹5,00,000 to pay a supplier. Sanjay, facing personal financial
troubles due to gambling debts, decided to use the money in hopes of winning more. Surprisingly, Sanjay won
a large sum and was able0Pto1M
return ₹5,00,000 to the supplier as Ramesh had instructed. When Ramesh returned,
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
he was initially unaware of Sanjay's actions. However, the truth eventually came out when a mutual friend, who
had seen Sanjay at the gambling den, told Ramesh about it. Although Sanjay had returned the money as directed,
Ramesh filed a case against Sanjay charging him with "criminal breach of trust" under Section 405 of the IPC,
decide whether Sanjay can be held lible or not.
(a) Sanjay can be held liable for "criminal breach of trust" under Section 405 of the IPC because Ramesh and
Sanjay were lifelong friends and business partners in an electronics shop.
(b) Sanjay cannot be held liable for "criminal breach of trust" under Section 405 of the IPC because Sanjay did
not had dishonest intentions but facing personal financial troubles due to gambling debts.
(c) Sanjay can be held liable for "criminal breach of trust"0Bunder
1E
Section 405 of the IPC because by using the
tr-5C8I1G7E0G
money for gambling, he violated the instructions given by Ramesh to hold the money for a supplier payment.
(d) Sanjay cannot be held liable for "criminal breach of trust" under Section 405 of the IPC because he had
returned the money as directed to the supplier.

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81. Decide which of the following is a correct example of Cheating as per Sec 415 of the IPC?
(a) Priya, a schoolteacher, was known in her community for her involvement in various activities. Mrs. Gupta,
an elderly resident, assumed Priya was a social worker dedicated to charitable causes. Based on this
assumption, Mrs. Gupta decided to donate ₹50,000 to Priya, believing she was contributing to a charity. Mrs.
Gupta presented the money to Priya as a donation. Priya, unaware of Mrs. Gupta’s assumptions and the
intended charitable context, accepted the money and used it for her personal expenses.
(b) Rajesh, a small business owner, was struggling to find investors for his new startup. He met Sameer, an
experienced investor, and presented a fake investment opportunity. Rajesh forged documents showing
impressive financial projections and past successes. Rajesh convinced Sameer that investing ₹5,00,000 in
his startup would yield substantial returns. Sameer, impressed by the falsified documents and Rajesh’s
convincing presentation, invested the amount.
(c) Raj, a financial advisor, made a presentation to several potential investors about a promising new investment

m
opportunity in a tech startup. He claimed that the startup had secured substantial contracts and was on the

o
verge of a major breakthrough, exaggerating the potential returns and downplaying the risks. Maya was not

c
impressed by Raj’s presentation. However, before any investments were made or money was transferred,
Maya discovered that the startup was not as promising as he had claimed.
(d) All of the above.

rs .
82.

k e
Nischal found a leather bag containing ₹10,000 in cash and personal items while walking in the park. A few days
later, the rightful owner, Mrs. Rao, came forward to identify the bag and requested its return. Nischal, who was
aware that the bag belonged to Mrs. Rao, falsely claimed that the bag was his own and refused to return it. He

r n
kept the bag and its contents, despite knowing it did not belong to him. Nischal claimed that since he found the

a
bag, he believes he has a right to keep it under the principle of "finders keepers," asserting that it was his by
virtue of finding it. Decide whether Nischal can be held liable for cheating under Sec 415 of the IPC or not.

o
falsely claiming ownership of the bag.
p
(a) Nischal can be held liable for cheating under Sec 415 of the IPC because Nischal deceived Mrs. Rao by

T
(b) Nischal cannot be held liable for cheating under Sec 415 of the IPC because he did not intend to deceive
Mrs. Rao but genuinely thought the bag was now his property due to the circumstances of finding it.
(c) Nischal can be held liable for cheating under Sec 415 of the IPC because he deceived Mrs. Rao by falsely
claiming ownership of her property and unlawfully retained it, causing her loss and distress.
tr-5S8L 7L 0S0P1M cannot be held liable for cheating under Sec 415 of the IPC because since he found the bag, he
(d)1L Nischal
believes he has a right to keep it.
83. Anil, a trustee for a community fund, was responsible for managing donations meant for a local charity. Anil,
facing personal financial issues, decided to use part of the funds for his own expenses while falsely representing
to the community 1M
0S0Pfunds
tr-5S8Lthat
1L7Lthe were being used for charity work. The police charged Anil under both Criminal
Breach of Trust and cheating, as he both misappropriated the funds (CBT) and deceived the donors about how
the funds were being used (cheating). However, he claimed that the actions for which he is being charged were
part of a single continuous act of misappropriation and deception, and therefore, charging him with both offenses
is redundant. Decide whether Anil can be charged under both Sec 405 and 415 of the IPC or not.
(a) Anil can be charged under both Sec 405 and 415 of the IPC because he both misappropriated the funds (CBT)
and deceived the donors about how the funds were being used (cheating).
(b) Anil can be charged under both Sec 405 and 415 of the IPC because it is common practice for police officers to
register FIRs for both criminal breach of trust and cheating based on mere allegations of dishonesty or fraud.
(c) Anil cannot be charged under both Sec 405tr-5C and 415
8I1G 0B1E
7E0Gof the IPC because the actions for which he is being
charged were part of a single continuous act of misappropriation and deception, and therefore, charging him
with both offenses is redundant.

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 (d) Anil cannot be charged under both Sec 405 and 415 of the IPC because both offences are independent and
distinct and cannot coexist under the same set of facts.
84. Decide which of the following is not a correct inference from the passage?
(a) The Supreme Court's dismay reflects a concern that the offenses of criminal breach of trust and cheating are
not being handled appropriately, potentially leading to unjust outcomes.
(b) The court emphasized on the distinct nature of these offenses and that they should be evaluated and
prosecuted according to their specific legal definitions and conflated or treated interchangeably.
(c) There is a need for reform or better guidelines to ensure that FIRs are registered and pursued in a manner
that accurately reflects the legal requirements of Criminal Breach of Trust and cheating.
(d) Criminal Breach of Trust concerns the breach of an established trust relationship, while cheating involves
deceitful actions designed to induce someone to give up property or consent from the outset.

c o m
rs .
k e
r an
o p
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
0P1M
T
0P 1M
tr-5S8L1L7L0S

0B1E
tr-5C8I1G7E0G

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 SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.85-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.85-Q.90): Human behaviours, including tobacco and alcohol consumption, dietary behaviours,
physical activity and sexual practices, play a key role in many of the leading causes of death in developing and
developed countries. Even small changes in such behaviours can have substantial effects on population health
outcomes. Understanding these behaviours and the contexts in which they occur is essential for developing
effective evidence-based health behaviour change interventions and policies and for reducing avoidable mobility
and mortality.
Despite the relatively small investment in preventive health and behavioural science, there is evidence for the
effectiveness of behaviour change interventions at individual, community and population levels. Interventions
have been targeted at behavioural risk factors, encouraging protective behaviours, improving adaptation to

m
chronic and acute illness and changing health professional behaviours to improve the quality and efficiency of

o
services. While there are many examples of successful interventions, there are also examples of ineffective

c
interventions; for those that are effective, the effects tend to be modest, with significant heterogeneity of short-
term and long-term effects.

rs .
To maximise the potential efficacy of interventions, it is necessary to understand behaviour and behaviour

e
change: in other words, it is necessary to have a theoretical understanding of behaviour change. In this context,
theory represents the accumulated knowledge of the mechanisms of action (mediators) and moderators of change

k
as well as the a priori assumptions about what human behaviour is, and what the influences on it are. The

n
application of theory is advocated as an integral step in intervention design and evaluation and in evidence

a
synthesis, for example, by the UK Medical Research Council's guidance for developing and evaluating complex

p r
interventions. This is for several reasons. First, the antecedents of behaviour and the causal determinants of
change can be appropriately identified and targeted by the intervention and component behaviour change

To
techniques can be selected and/or refined and tailored. Second, theoretically identified mechanisms of action
(i.e., mediators) can be investigated to gain further understanding as to how the intervention brings about its
effects. This allows researchers to determine whether unsuccessful interventions have failed either because the
intervention has had no effect upon the hypothesised mediator or because the hypothesised (and successfully
influenced) mediator has had no effect upon behaviour, thus facilitating more efficient refinement of the
intervention.
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
0P1M Third, theory summarises the cumulative knowledge of how to change behaviour across different
populations, behaviours and contexts. Finally, theory-based interventions provide an opportunity in which theory
can be tested. This aids development of more useful theories which, in turn, supports intervention optimisation.
85. How might the principles outlined in the passage be applied to improve the effectiveness of an intervention
aimed at reducing alcohol consumption in a specific population?
0P1M
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
(a) By designing an intervention that includes widespread public health campaigns, regardless of the
population's specific behaviors.
(b) By conducting a survey to identify the most common reasons for alcohol consumption in the population and
tailoring the intervention to address these reasons.
(c) By implementing an intervention that has been successful in another population, without modifying it for the
new context.
(d) By focusing on increasing awareness of the health risks associated with alcohol consumption without
addressing other factors.
86. According to the passage, why might some health 1G7E0G0B1Echange interventions have only modest or varied
tr-5C8Ibehavior
effects?
(a) The interventions do not adequately address the underlying behavioral risk factors.
(b) The interventions are often too complex to be effectively implemented.
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 (c) The interventions may lack a theoretical basis, leading to ineffective targeting of behavior.
(d) The interventions are frequently conducted without sufficient funding.
87. The passage argues that using theory in health behavior change interventions is essential for understanding and
targeting behaviors effectively. Which of the following most closely parallels this reasoning?
(a) A teacher insists on using proven educational methods to ensure students understand complex concepts,
rather than relying on intuition or trial and error.
(b) A company decides to implement a new software system without testing it, assuming that any issues can be
resolved later.
(c) A doctor prescribes medication based on a patient’s symptoms without conducting any diagnostic tests,
believing the symptoms are sufficient for diagnosis.
(d) An architect designs a building based on aesthetic preferences alone, ignoring engineering principles.
88.
effective than those not based on theory?

c o m
Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion that theory-based interventions are more

(a) A meta-analysis shows that theory-based interventions consistently result in higher long-term behavior
change rates compared to non-theory-based interventions.

rs .
(b) Several theory-based interventions have been widely criticized for being overly complex and difficult to
implement.

yield better results.

k e
(c) Health professionals report that theory-based interventions are more time-consuming but do not necessarily

89.
diverse populations.

r n
(d) Research indicates that theory-based interventions are more expensive but often fail to address the needs of

a
Which of the following would best help evaluate the effectiveness of theory-based interventions in changing
health behaviors?

o p
(a) A study comparing the long-term health outcomes of participants in theory-based versus non-theory- based

T
interventions.
(b) An analysis of the costs associated with implementing theory-based interventions across different healthcare
systems.
(c) A survey of health professionals' opinions on the practicality of using theory in designing interventions.
(d)1L7L 0P1M of the number of peer-reviewed articles that support theory-based interventions.
A0Sreview
tr-5S8L

90. What is the central idea of the passage?

(a) The success of behaviour change interventions is guaranteed if they are applied at individual, community,
and population levels.
(b) Understanding the
tr-5S8L1L 7L0Stheoretical
0P1M basis of human behaviour and applying this knowledge is essential for
designing effective behaviour change interventions and improving health outcomes.
(c) Behaviour change interventions have had consistently strong long-term effects in improving public health,
regardless of context.
(d) Preventive health and behavioural science are largely ineffective due to the modest impact of interventions
across different populations.
Passage (Q.91-Q.96): In 1962, economist Hawkins Stern of the Stanford Research Institute published a paper
titled “The Significance of Impulse Buying Today.” Aware of the influence of behavioral psychology on
consumer habits, the William Wrigley Jr Company commissioned this seminal study in order to gain insights
7E0G0B1E
tr-5C8I1Gproduct
that would later shape strategies that vastly improved sales.
For anyone who has ever stood at a checkout counter and wondered about the practice of placing chewing gum
on it, a review of Stern’s work is highly recommended. The idea behind this strategy is that, by the time

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 consumers reach a checkout counter, their decision-making ability has been so exhausted by the act of making
choices about their other purchases that they are more vulnerable to impulsive buys, such as gum. Intriguingly,
some of the concepts outlined in this piece find application not only in economics but also in medicine. For
instance, the phenomenon of decision fatigue outlined above is also known to impair clinicians’ prescribing
ability. One manifestation of this phenomenon is the increased likelihood that primary care clinicians will
prescribe antibiotics for upper-respiratory tract infections towards the end of a clinic day as opposed to the
beginning of one.
The phenomenon of decision fatigue is but one example of many that fall under the umbrella of behavioral
psychology, a field that studies the connection between the systematic tendencies in our thinking and the way
that these tendencies respond to environmental stimuli and, ultimately, manifest as actions. In essence, whether
conscious or subconscious, deliberate or accidental, heuristics and biases are vital factors in the everyday

m
decision making of physicians and patients alike.

o
The field of behavioral psychology finds its application in behavioral design and choice architecture, powerful
tools with which to influence the practice of health care professionals and the behaviors of patients. When choice

rs .c
architecture is designed to influence behavior in a predictable way but without restricting options, it is often
called a nudge. In September 2015, The White House issued an executive order directing federal agencies to
incorporate behavioral science into their programs, thereby establishing the formation of “nudge units” or

k e
behavioral design teams. By influencing the behaviors of citizens and government employees, these units were
able to improve outcomes in many areas, including energy conservation, personal savings, and completion of

n
college financial aid applications.
91.
the following assumptions?

p r a
The argument that placing chewing gum at the checkout counter is an effective sales strategy relies on which of

(a) Consumers are generally aware of the reasons behind their impulsive purchases at checkout counters.

o
(b) Decision fatigue affects consumers in a way that makes them more likely to purchase items they did not plan to buy.
(c) Chewing gum is perceived by consumers as a high-stakes purchase.

following
tr-5S8L
T
(d) The act of making decisions about other purchases has little to no effect on the consumer’s mental state by
the time they reach the checkout counter.
92. If a study were conducted to test the effectiveness of placing chewing gum at the checkout counter, which of the
findings would most support the claims made in the passage?
1L7L0S0P1M
(a) Consumers who buy chewing gum at the checkout counter report higher levels of satisfaction with their
shopping experience.
(b) Stores that remove chewing gum from the checkout counter see no significant change in overall sales.
(c) Consumers are more likely to purchase chewing gum at the checkout counter if it is placed near other small,
0P1M
tr-5S8L1L7L0S
low-cost items.
(d) Consumers are more likely to purchase chewing gum at the checkout counter after making complex
purchasing decisions elsewhere in the store.
93. Which of the following, if true, could serve as the most effective counterargument to the idea that decision fatigue
significantly increases impulsive purchases at checkout counters?
(a) Some consumers report feeling more focused and deliberate in their purchasing decisions as they approach
the checkout counter.
(b) Retailers find that the placement of high-demand items at the checkout counter drives more sales than low-
cost impulse items like chewing gum. 0B1E
tr-5C8I1G7E0G
(c) Consumers who shop with children are less likely to make impulsive purchases, despite experiencing decision
fatigue.
(d) Impulsive purchases at checkout counters are more closely related to the appeal of the items than to the
mental state of the consumer.
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94. Based on the information presented in the passage, which of the following can most logically be inferred about
the relationship between decision fatigue and impulse buying?
(a) Consumers at checkout counters have likely already made numerous decisions before encountering items for
impulse buys.
(b) Consumers are less likely to experience decision fatigue in environments with a wide variety of product
options.
(c) Impulse buying is more likely to occur when consumers are presented with complex choices rather than
simple ones.
(d) Retailers place small, inexpensive items at checkout counters to capitalize on consumer vulnerability caused
by decision fatigue.
95. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously undermine the idea that the phenomenon of decision fatigue
plays a significant role in clinicians’ prescribing patterns throughout the day?

o m
(a) Clinicians are equally likely to prescribe antibiotics for infections regardless of the time of day.

c
(b) Clinics where doctors take regular breaks between consultations show similar prescribing patterns
throughout the day.

rs .
(c) Experienced clinicians are more likely to prescribe antibiotics than their less experienced colleagues,
irrespective of timing.

prescriptions throughout the day.

k e
(d) Clinicians receive daily reminders about appropriate antibiotic use, significantly reducing inappropriate

96.

policy outcomes.

r an
The main idea of the passage is best represented by:
(a) Behavioral design and choice architecture are powerful tools for improving healthcare and government

behavioral psychology.

o p
(b) Decision fatigue impacts both consumer behavior and clinical decision-making, highlighting the role of

(c) Stern’s study on impulse buying is crucial for understanding consumer decisions at checkout counters in

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retail.

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Passage (Q.97-Q.102):
T
(d) Nudge theory has proven effective in improving public sector outcomes, such as energy savings and
healthcare.
Social marketing in India has become increasingly focused on gender roles, family
hierarchy, and traditional marriage practices. Different forms of “femvertising” has taken hold there in
unexpected ways. To illustrate how this is happening, we selected for this article three emblematic
advertisements that not only challenge but also reverse the traditionally dominant roles that Indian fathers, sons,
and husbandstr-assume
5S8L1L7Lwith the women in their lives.
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Role inversion highlights men acting “out of script” to improvise a new way of assuming inherited, highly
codified familial roles. In these ads, Indian men, like their western counterparts, appear to have grown weary of
the limiting script and role that’s been passed down to them.
The Ariel detergent ad opens with an older gentleman sitting at a dinner table, observing his grown daughter
performing a dizzying array of evening tasks while her husband sits watching television, calling out for his
evening tea, oblivious to her multi-tasking – a work call, preparing dinner, and supervising kids’ homework. Her
father’s off-screen voice reads a “Dear Daughter” letter in Hindi as he witnesses the gaping disparity of her
duties during the unpaid portion of her work day.tr-Stunned by the
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dad acknowledges his direct responsibility for this state of affairs. Admitting that he provided the example that
she internalized, the dad resolves to change this once he’s back home with mom, confiding that he is “so very
sorry” for not having provided a different role model. Cut to the next scene and dad is loading the machine with

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 his dirty laundry, much to mom’s surprise, and the viewer is left with Ariel’s parting slogan “Share the load”
because “why should laundry be a mother’s job”?
When we repeatedly act out our roles in everyday life, we internalize information on our identity in the
form of social 'scripts' that we repeat and perfect over time. Now researchers have been applying the idea of
scripting practices to a variety of fields. Popular culture often provides striking examples of such gendered
scripts, as evident from studies on television and advertising as well as in social media and music. The advertising
culture in India seems ripe for revisiting these scripts, as our current research on Indian women’s identity has
revealed.
In many homes, the kitchen still embodies gender segregation. Research into gender choice and domestic space
suggests that kitchen design preferences are gendered and linked to professional status: women versus men,
working versus non-working. The women’s clothing company BIBA questioned this gendered space in a popular

97.
2016 advertisement that went viral in India and beyond.
Which of the following is the primary argument of the author?

c o m
.
(a) Advertising in India, increasingly focused on redefining masculinity, pushes for a complete overhaul of all

rs
gender-based societal norms.
(b) Social marketing in India empowers women by reinforcing the importance of their traditional roles, while

e
subtly encouraging men to continue in their dominant positions.

k
(c) Social marketing in India subverting traditional roles of Indian men within the family reflects societal shifts
and a rethink on traditional gender roles.

an
(d) Advertising in India is primarily centered on encouraging men to take over women's traditional roles, pushing
women to take on more professional and leadership responsibilities.

r
p
98. What is the role of Aerial advertisement in the entire argument?
(a) The advertisement focuses on the father’s personal apology and change in behavior which has been the cause

To
of his daughter’s condition.
(b) The advertisement highlights conventional gender roles, yet challenges the gender dynamics.
(c) It illustrates reluctance of men to change their traditional roles and the expectation from women to handle
domestic chores.
(d) It highlights the need for more aggressive advertising strategies to address gender equality.
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99. Which statement would the author most likely support?
(a) Men should take over household responsibilities while women handle external work.
(b) The focus should be more on women's rights than on men's rights.
(c) Challenging gender stereotypes is necessary to build a more equitable society.
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(d) It is crucial to8Lrecognize
tr-5S the shortcomings of a male-dominated society.
100. The author’s argument “When we repeatedly act out our roles in everyday life, we internalize information on
our identity in the form of social 'scripts' that we repeat and perfect over time” depends on which of the following
assumption?
(a) Consistent repetition of societal roles reinforces the formation of social 'scripts' that shape one’s identity.
(b) Social 'scripts' are formed only through intentional efforts to understand societal norms, rather than through
habitual behaviors.
(c) Social 'scripts' are based primarily on individual preferences and not influenced by societal norms or
repetitive actions. tr-5C8I1G7E0G
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(d) Social 'scripts' are relevant and apply to individuals who actively seek to change their roles in society.

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101. Each of the following cannot be inferred from the passage EXCEPT that
(a) The Ariel advertisement will contribute to a broader societal shift and bring gender equality in the society.
(b) The deeply entrenched traditional gender roles are not going to change so easily to bring gender equality in society.
(c) The advertisement reinforces the idea that household chores should remain a man's responsibility.
(d) Traditional gender roles and family dynamics continue to play a significant role in contemporary society.
102. In the context of the passage, the term “femvertising’ is most likely to be
(a) female empowerment through socially-focused marketing.
(b) Marketing of products exclusively for women based on their preferences.
(c) Advertisements showing men and women in their conventional roles.
(d) Advertisements that cater men’s needs to adopt female centric roles.
Passage (Q.103-Q.108): Ever frantically rush to your car after making a purchase to log in to your bank account

o m
because you might have spent too much? Maybe you’ve experienced that jolt of happiness when you swipe your
card followed by a rush of guilt and shame when you realize you just busted your budget. As you can tell, our

c
.
first point of discussion on breaking bad spending habits relates to how you feel. Here are some tips: To break
bad spending habits, consider how they make you feel. Most spending feels fun in the moment. It’s in the minutes

rs
– or even months – afterward that buyer’s remorse sets in. Take a moment to jot down the last not-so-great choice

e
you made with your money. Note how you felt when you made the decision, how you felt in the minutes and

k
days after, and how you feel right now. You might notice a downward trajectory. This is what we want to work
to change. Good spending habits might be a tough call at first, but they produce a lifetime of rewards! Decide

n
which bad spending habits you want to break first. Take a look at your bank account, talk with your parents, or

a
just look around your house to get a feel for the spending habits you’d like to break. Feel free to start small and

r
select just one or two to address first. A few ideas include, going over on cell phone data, eating out when you

o p
have food at home, buying duplicates of items you forgot you already own, shopping impulsively online,
shopping sales because you love the thrill of a good deal, etc. Let’s say you want to stop scrolling through
Amazon Prime before bed. You’ll do best to replace this bad habit with a good one. You might decide to use a

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103.
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digital alarm clock instead of your phone alarm, so you can leave your phone across the room at night. Replace
bad spending habits with good ones! By putting good spending habits in place, you’ll eventually make smart
money choices without much thought or effort.
The author is likely to agree with each of the following except that
(a) Replacing bad spending habits with positive alternatives can eventually lead to better financial decisions
with less effort.
(b) Spending money seems enjoyable but leads to feelings of guilt and regret afterward
(c) Understanding the
tr-5S8L1L emotional
7L0S 0P1M impact of spending can help individuals identify and break bad spending habits.
(d) The excitement of finding a good deal can lead to impulsive spending, which may result in long-term regret.
104. The strategy for improving one’s spending habits in the passage can be best compared to which of the following
approaches?
(a) To improve academic performance, a student should review their past exam results, identify areas of
weakness, and then create a study plan that focuses on these weak areas.
(b) To build stronger relationships, an individual should compare interactions among friends with those among
family, note the differences, and then use exclusive strategies for each of them.
(c) To increase creativity in problem-solving, recognize the times when creative ideas flowed, and then do
8I1G7E0G0B1E
experiments during times which are similartr-to5Cthose times.
(d) To achieve healthier eating habits, a person should track their food choices, observe their satisfaction and
any resultant discomfort, and then gradually incorporate nutritious alternatives while reducing indulgent
foods.
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105. Which of the following would make the best title for the passage?
(a) Learning to Live with Your Poor Spending Habits
(b) Spending Money Without Feeling Regret
(c) Increasing Savings Through Higher Spending
(d) Tips for Better Spending Habits
106. Each of the following underlies the author's argument about improving spending habits EXCEPT that
(a) People are often unaware of the emotional trajectory of their spending decisions
(b) Buyer’s remorse is a common outcome of impulsive or bad spending habits.
(c) People generally feel happier when they limit their spending to essential purchases only.
(d) Reflecting on past spending choices can help people break bad spending habits.
107. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

of debt.

c o m
(a) How you spend your money is just as important to your financial success as your decision to save or get out

.
(b) Overspending or impulse-buying are signs of living and absorbing the realities of a capitalistic world.

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(c) Setting money goals and keeping them in mind whenever you swipe your card or hand over cash will put
too much stress on you.

e
(d) ‘Living on a budget’ means living frugally. It means saving money to enjoy the goodness of life later.
108. According to the author, how do bad spending habits make us feel?
(a) They feel rewarding throughout.
(b) They create conflicting feelings.

an k
(c) They make us feel bad in the beginning.

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(d) They create pressure to purchase things we don’t need.

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 SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.109-Q.112): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
The speed of boat ‘P’ downstream is (a + 9) km/h and ratio of the speed of boat ‘P’ in downstream and upstream is
5:3, respectively. Boat ‘S’ can cover a distance of 240 km downstream in 6 hours and the ratio of the speed of boat
‘P’ and ‘S’ in still water is 4:3, respectively. The speed of boat ‘N’ in still water is (a – 16) km/h and it can catch boat
‘D’ which is 35 km ahead of it in 5 hours, when both the boats are travelling in the same direction.
Note:- All the boats (‘P’, ‘S’, ‘N’ and ‘D’) are rowing in the same river/stream.
109. What is the ratio of the speed of boat ‘S’ in still water to the speed of boat ‘D’ in still water?
(a) 4:3 (b) 5:3 (c) 5:4 (d) 9:7
110. The speed of boat ‘N’ in still water is how much percent of the speed of the stream?
(a) 250% (b) 150% (c) 200% (d) 120%
111. Find the total time taken by boat ‘P’ to travel 120 km in upstream and 150 km in downstream.
(a) 5 hours (b) 4.5 hours (c) 6 hours (d) 7 hours

c o m
(a) 5 hours (b) 3.5 hours (c) 4.5 hours (d) 4 hours

rs .
112. If the downstream speed of another boat ‘M’ is 120% of that of the same of the boat ‘P’, then find the time taken by
boat ‘M’ to travel 160 km in the upstream direction given the speed of the stream is 10 km/h.

e
Directions (Q.113-Q.116): Study the following information carefully and answer the related questions.

k
n
Following information gives the data regarding number of employees in different departments in company
A, B and C. There are only four departments in each company.

p r a
Company A: 25% of total number of employees is in finance department which is 10 more than the number
of employees in marketing department. The respective ratio of number of male and female employees in
sales department is 5: 3 and their difference is 16. The average of number of employees in marketing and

o
sales department taken together is 112. Some employees are in production department.

T
Company B: The respective ratio of number of employees in finance and marketing department is 9: 11
and their sum is 600. Number of employees in sales department is 30% of number of employe es in
production department. Number of employees in production department is 70 more than the number of
employees in marketing department.
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Company C: 22% of total number of employees is in finance department and 12.5% of the total number of
employees is in sales department. The difference between the number of employees in finance and sales
department is 76. Number of employees in marketing department is 140% more than the number of
employees in sales department.
113. The average tr-
of5Snumber of1Memployees in production department from company B and C together is __ more
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than the average of number of employees in marketing department from company A and B together.
Which of the following option is true for the given blank?
(a) 103 (b) 107 (c) 93 (d) 97
114. If the respective ratio of total number of employees in company A to that in company D is 4: 5 and there
are 25% less employees in production department in company D as compared to that in company B, then
approximately what percent of number of employees from company D is in production department?
(a) 31% (b) 35% (c) 27% (d) 38%
115. If the average of number of employees in sales department 0B1E
from company A, C and E together is 84, then
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how many more/less is the number of employees in sales department in company E as compared to that in
company B?
(a) 32 (b) 28 (c) 30 (d) 34

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116. What is the respective ratio of total number of employees in company A and B together to the number of
employees in marketing department from company A and C together?
(a) 3: 1 (b) 9: 2 (c) 8: 5 (d) 4: 1
Directions (Q.117-Q.120): Answer the questions based on the information given below.
A sales company has four employees – Aman, Nihal, Sarjan and Pratap and each employee has to complete certain
number of calls to complete their desired target. Some of them did not complete the target while some employees
completed more number of calls than the desired target.
The ratio of the number of call to be completed by Aman, Nihal, Sarjan and Pratap to meet their respective target is
9:12:10:11, respectively.
For Aman - The number of calls made by him is ‘A’% of total number of calls he has to complete to meet the target.
Had he made 90 more calls, he would have completed his target.

calls made by Aman is half of the number of calls made by him.

c m
For Nihal – The number of calls made by him is 20% more than the number of his targeted calls and the number of

o
For Sarjan – The number of calls made by him is 75% of his targeted calls. Had he made ‘B’ more calls, he would
have completed his target.

rs .
For Pratap - Had he made 220 more calls, he would have completed his target. If he had taken ‘C’ more calls, he

e
would have completed the A% of a total number of calls he has to complete to meet the target.

k
117. What is the value of ‘B’?
(a) 125 (b) 140 (c) 175 (d) 200
118. Find the number of calls made by Pratap.
(a) 450 (b) 500

r an (c) 220 (d) 330

received by Nihal.
(a) Rs. 7200
o
(b) Rs. 8400 p
119. If the company paid Rs. 10 for each call till target and Rs. 15 for each additional call thereafter, then find the amount

(c) Rs. 7800 (d) Rs. 9000

120. What is the value of ‘A’?
(a) 75

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(b) 80 (c) 90 (d) 60

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 Notes:

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 Notes:

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 Notes:

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 Notes:

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 SELF-ASSESSMENT PAGE
1. My sequence in today's Mock (write 1-5 in the box):
English Language Logical Reasoning Legal Reasoning

General Knowledge and Current Affairs Quantitative Techniques

2. Approx time devoted to each section:

c o m
English Language Logical Reasoning

rs . Legal Reasoning

General Knowledge and Current Affairs

k e
Quantitative Techniques

3. I:
r an
◻ was too distracted during the Mock today

o
◻ think I used the wrong sequence p
T
◻ wrote today's Mock without any defined strategy around sequence, attempts etc in mind.
 spent a lot of time on ____________________________________________ section.
 spent1Minsufficient time on _______________________________________ section.
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 couldn't understand the passage properly of these genres _______________, ________________, _______________.

Write a quick explanation of your mistakes.

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That's it! Now go through this page before you write your next Mock and ensure we don't repeat the same
8I1G7E0G0B1E
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