Practice Test 2

Section I

The Exam

AP® Human Geography Exam

SECTION I: Multiple-Choice Questions

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

Instructions
At a Glance Section I of this exam contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Fill in only the ovals for
Total Time numbers 1 through 60 on your answer sheet.
60 minutes
Number of Questions Indicate all of your answers to the multiple-choice questions on the answer sheet.
60 No credit will be given for anything written in this exam booklet, but you may use
Percent of Total Grade the booklet for notes or scratch work. After you have decided which of the suggested
50% answers is best, completely fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Give
only one answer to each question. If you change an answer, be sure that the previous
Writing Instrument
mark is erased completely. Here is a sample question and answer.
Pencil required
Sample Questions Sample Answers

The first president of the United States was A C D E

(A) Millard Fillmore
(B) George Washington
(C) Benjamin Franklin
(D) Andrew Jackson
(E) Harry Truman

Use your time effectively, working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy. Do not
spend too much time on any one question. Go on to other questions and come back to the
ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected that everyone will know the
answers to all the multiple-choice questions.

About Guessing
Many candidates wonder whether or not to guess the answers to questions about which
they are not certain. Multiple-choice scores are based on the number of questions answered
correctly. Points are not deducted for incorrect answers, and no points are awarded for
unanswered questions. Because points are not deducted for incorrect answers, you are
encouraged to answer all multiple-choice questions. On any questions you do not know the
answer to, you should eliminate as many choices as you can, and then select the best answer
among the remaining choices.

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 Section I

HUMAN GEOGRAPHY
SECTION I
Time—60 minutes
60 Questions

Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select the
one that best answers the question or completes the statement.

1. The demographic transition model states that stage 3 3. The primary reason that humanity has been able to escape
societies differ from stage 2 societies primarily in that the Malthusian trap is
(A) a stage 3 economy is agricultural, not manufacturing (A) changing weather patterns
(B) a stage 3 birth rate is decreasing, not increasing (B) improvements in human digestion
(C) a stage 3 death rate is increasing, not decreasing (C) increased government intervention
(D) a stage 3 total population has leveled off (D) reduced open-border policies
(E) a stage 3 gender imbalance has rebalanced itself (E) improved agricultural technology

2. Countries that are near or below zero population growth

will often
(A) eliminate guest worker programs
(B) elect nativist or authoritarian leaders
(C) experience reduced levels of manufacturing
(D) offer incentives to citizens to have more children
(E) exhibit an increased death rate

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 Section I

Question 4 refers to the graph below.

Male Female
100+
95–99
90–94
85–89
80–84
75–79
70–74
65–69
60–64
55–59
50–54
45–49
40–44
35–39
30–34
25–29
20–24
15–19
10–14
5–9
0–4

4 3.2 2.4 1.6 0.8 0 0 0.8 1.6 2.4 3.2 4

Population (in millions) Age Group Population (in millions)
Source: U.S. Census Bureau, International Data Base

4. The 2014 population pyramid depicted above most likely 6. An example of an officially multilingual society is
describes a nation in (A) Canada
(A) sub-Saharan Africa (B) the United States
(B) western Europe (C) Bolivia
(C) central Asia (D) France
(D) South America (E) South Korea
(E) the Middle East
7. A Bangladeshi immigrant to France, who has limited
5. An example of cyclic movement is grammar and few vocabulary words in French, speaks a
(A) a Polish woman working as a housekeeper in Ireland (A) lingua franca
each summer (B) pidgin
(B) a Chinese software entrepreneur opening a branch (C) creole
of his business in Ethiopia (D) patois
(C) a French woman with dual citizenship retiring to her (E) dialect
parents’ homeland of Tunisia
(D) a Syrian refugee seeking refuge with his family in
Germany
(E) a young Colombian moving from the countryside to
Bogotá to attend university

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VI. Practice Test 2  4 11

 Section I

Questions 8–10 refer to the map below.

Orinoco estuary

Quito,
Ecuador Amazon estuary

Lima,
Peru
La Paz,
Bolivia

Rio de la Plata

8. The cities circled on the map all share which of the 10. The triangular region on the map has been facing which
following characteristics? of the following challenges in recent years?
(A) All share a history of agricultural wealth. (A) Religious fundamentalism
(B) All have sizable indigenous populations. (B) Loss of native architectural forms
(C) All have seen population decline in recent years. (C) Multilingualism
(D) All are located in former Portuguese states. (D) Transnational migration
(E) All are majority Protestant populations. (E) Ecological degradation

9. The regions inside the squares on the map all share which
of the following characteristics?
(A) Cultural hearths
(B) Regions of monoculture
(C) Value-added agriculture
(D) Linguistic dialect regions
(E) Estuaries

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 Section I

11. The influence of German music upon the norteño, 13. The difference between a site and a situation is defined as
ranchera, and banda forms of music in northern Mexico the difference between
is an example of (A) the physical characteristics of a place versus the
(A) contagious diffusion interconnectedness of that place with other places
(B) stimulus diffusion (B) the investment in historical renovation versus the
(C) hierarchical diffusion investment in new construction
(D) expansion diffusion (C) the fixed characteristics of a place versus the
(E) relocation diffusion changing characteristics of a place
(D) the tendency for a place to retain its own unique
characteristics over time versus the tendency for
12. All of the following are differences between monotheistic
a place to lose those unique characteristics over
and polytheistic traditions EXCEPT
time
(A) monotheistic traditions emerged in what is now (E) the power of a group effort versus the strength of
the Middle East, while polytheistic traditions individual effort
emerged in the Far East
(B) monotheistic traditions grew out of the visions of a
single founder, while polytheistic traditions grew
out of collective culture
(C) monotheistic traditions believe in one divine being,
while polytheistic traditions believe in many
divine beings
(D) monotheistic traditions maintain an egalitarian
structure, while polytheistic traditions maintain a
hierarchical structure
(E) monotheistic traditions practice moral absolutism,
while polytheistic traditions practice moral
relativism

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VI. Practice Test 2  4 1 3

 Section I

Questions 14–16 refer to the following diagrams.

Zone 1 Zone 2 Zone 3 Zone 4 Zone 5

Baltimore, 1920

14. In 1920, what was the primary obstacle preventing lower- 18. The concept of sequent occupance is best illustrated by
class people living in Zone 3 from moving to Zone 4? which of the following situations?
(A) Racist housing policies (A) The arrival of a Somali family into a white
(B) Prejudice against immigrants Minnesota neighborhood
(C) Cost of transportation (B) The discovery by construction workers in Rome of
(D) Fervent religiosity previously unknown ancient ruins
(E) Lack of employment (C) A young girl who is sharing an apartment with her
parents and two sets of grandparents
(D) The laws that allow squatters legal rights to a
15. If this urban model of Baltimore in 1920 were placed
property after a set period of time has elapsed
next to an urban model of Baltimore in 2020, which of
(E) The construction of Las Vegas on flat, untouched
the following changes would be evident during those one
desert
hundred years?
(A) Zone 1 would have remained unchanged.
(B) Zone 2 would have remained unchanged. 19. The perception of Mexicans as wearing large sombreros
(C) Zone 3 would have increased in population density. and eating tacos is an example of Mexico as a(n)
(D) Zone 4 would have declined in population density. (A) political region
(E) Zone 5 would have grown in real population. (B) environmental region
(C) absolute location
(D) relative location
16. Unlike the concentric zone model above, the sector model
(E) vernacular region
of urban structure takes into account which of the follow-
ing factors?
(A) Ethnicity
(B) Gender
(C) Socioeconomic class
(D) Transportation
(E) Religion

17. The scientific idea that a culture’s physical traits are

decided by the physical geography of its hearth region is
known as
(A) external identity
(B) environmental determinism
(C) ethnic cleansing
(D) syncretism
(E) appellations

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 Section I

Questions 20–22 refer to the following graph. 22. Given the fact that 55% of the global population now
lives in cities, which of the following statements can be
Regional Distribution of the Global Population, safely assumed?
2010 and 2050
80 (A) It’s not likely that the concentric zone model is
70 being adopted in regions such as Africa or Asia &
61 Key Oceania.
60 55
2010 2050 (B) The future of the human species is entirely urban.
50 (C) The most typical human profile is a person who
Percentage

40 lives in a city in Asia or Oceania.

(D) Europe features greater urban density than any other
30 25
region.
20 15 14 13 (E) Africa’s population density is projected to grow
11
10 7 faster than that of any other region.
0
Asia & Oceania Africa Americas Europe 23. In the United States in the 1830s, the change in land
survey patterns from a traditional system of metes and
bounds to a rectilinear township and range system was
20. According to the bar graph, total population is projected the result of
to increase the most in which region?
(A) new territory obtained via the Louisiana Purchase
(A) Asia & Oceania (B) new waves of Southern and Eastern European
(B) Africa immigrants
(C) Americas (C) new incentives for redistricting state apportionments
(D) Europe (D) new surveying tools derived from seafaring
(E) There is not enough information to determine. technology
(E) new methods of calculating population density
21. Instead of a bar graph, what type of graphic would more
accurately describe the demographic makeup of these
regions?
(A) Mercator projections
(B) population pyramids
(C) demographic transition models
(D) concentric zone models
(E) sector models

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VI. Practice Test 2  4 1 5

 Section I

Questions 24 and 25 refer to the following map.

H1N1 Influenza Pandemic Map, 2009

24. The above is an example of a 27. GIS (Geographic Information Systems) would be LEAST
(A) cartogram useful in which of the following situations?
(B) flow-line map (A) Plotting the effects of an economic crash on
(C) graduated symbol map immigration
(D) isoline map (B) Dialing 911 from a landline
(E) choropleth map (C) Using in-car navigational systems
(D) Assessing crop damage after a flood
(E) Planning the construction of roads and bridges
25. The spread of the influenza is most analogous to
(A) absolute location
(B) contagious diffusion 28. The racist method of real estate agents encouraging white
(C) relocation diffusion homeowners to sell their homes at a loss by implying that
(D) orthomorphic projection minorities were moving in is known as
(E) choropleth (A) gentrification
(B) blockbusting
(C) functional zonation
26. Two neighboring villages with populations of 300 and
(D) redlining
400 are separated by 10 miles. What is their gravity
(E) new urbanism
model?
(A) 12
(B) 24 29. In the United States, the process of suburbanization that
(C) 120 has occurred since the 1950s has resulted in all of the
(D) 240 following EXCEPT
(E) 1,200 (A) increased automobile ownership
(B) diminished economic power of urban cores
(C) loss of agricultural land
(D) increased environmental degradation
(E) a greater sense of community

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 Section I

30. The heartland theory holds that 34. One consequence of the Soviet collectivization of farm-
(A) the American Midwest is the center of the United land was
States because of its agricultural bounty (A) a wider variety of food
(B) Eurasia is the core of global influence owing to its (B) a lack of surplus food
size, population, and resources (C) a greater profit margin for farmers
(C) all national cultural identity can be traced to a (D) a more effective system of distribution
central region in that nation (E) a greater resistance to disease
(D) far more important than the geographic expression
of culture is the internal possession of that
35. In history, the rice farmers of Southeast Asia and the
culture’s norms
farmers of the Andes both increased crop yield by
(E) the Middle East, and Jerusalem in particular, is the
utilizing
center of the world’s monotheistic religions
(A) terrace farming
(B) wetland draining
31. The type of world order in which one state is dominant (C) deforestation
over the others, issuing orders for allies to follow instead (D) chemical farming
of pursuing a joint decision-making process, is known as (E) pesticides
(A) unilateralism
(B) absolute monarchy
36. When the World Bank or the International Monetary
(C) totalitarianism
Fund make “structural adjustment loans” to a country,
(D) First World
those loans are often accompanied by requests
(E) neo-multilateralism
(A) to separate religion from politics
(B) to adopt a set of collectivist policies
32. Which of the following has NOT been a challenge to (C) to open that country to outside trade and investment
pastoral nomadic herders? (D) to restrict immigration to and emigration from that
(A) Changes in economic relationships within regional country
contexts (E) to hold democratic elections
(B) Domination of political relationships by central
states
37. The primary economic difference between urban and
(C) Climatic change resulting in loss of resources for
rural areas is that
animals, such as food
(D) Reduced numbers of livestock (A) urban areas feature higher levels of education, while
(E) Erosion of resource base rural areas feature higher levels of experience
(B) urban areas offer more entertainment options, while
rural areas offer more outdoor activities
33. The “tragedy of the commons” is best exemplified by (C) urban areas are built upon services, while rural
which of the following situations? communities are built upon resources
(A) Deteriorating language because of poor formal (D) urban areas promote free-market policies, while
instruction rural areas promote big-government policies
(B) The Malthusian idea of population limited by its (E) urban areas contain elite residential neighborhoods,
food production while rural areas contain housing for the poor
(C) Neighboring ethnic groups that have coexisted
peacefully devolving into warfare
(D) Degrading land as a result of too many individuals
grazing their livestock on publicly held pasture
(E) Declining resistance to viruses as a result of more
densely packed populations

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VI. Practice Test 2  4 1 7

 Section I

38. The spinning jenny, power loom, and steam engine were 43. Investors in the United States and Canada view which of
inventions of the following as the best potential investments?
(A) the Italians (A) Durable goods
(B) the Chinese (B) Non-durable goods
(C) the United States (C) Service products
(D) the First Industrial Revolution (D) Raw agricultural products
(E) the Second Industrial Revolution (E) Stocks

39. The primary reason that “First World/Second World/Third 44. In the field of high-tech services, the primary advantage
World” terminology is being replaced by “developing that India enjoys over other nations is
country/developed country” terminology is that (A) its population of nearly one billion
(A) the former describes a world defined by the Cold (B) its tradition of hosting many diverse religions
War (C) its traditional caste system
(B) many developing countries objected strongly to (D) its inability to manufacture textiles and other goods
being ranked last (E) its English language heritage owing to its colonial
(C) a public awareness campaign forced intellectuals to past
redefine their language
(D) the former implies that some societies are unable to
45. The economic indicator GNI (Gross National Income)
improve themselves
attempts to correct GDP (Gross Domestic Product) by
(E) the latter implies that all societies are in a state of
constant improvement (A) adjusting for inflation
(B) taking into account the dollar value of exports minus
imports
40. One common characteristic of FTZs (free-trade zones) is (C) considering inheritances as earned income
that they are (D) counting multiple currencies within the same
(A) responsible for a marked increase in theft country
(B) organized around seaports, airports, and national (E) including petroleum imports
frontiers
(C) found primarily in developed countries
46. The least cost theory, which tries to explain the loca-
(D) a new innovation in world trade
tion of manufacturing establishments, takes into account
(E) subject to the same laws regarding immigration
which of the following three factors?
(A) Labor, transportation, agglomeration
41. In places like Kenya and Ethiopia, all of the following (B) Labor, agglomeration, climate
accelerate the process of desertification EXCEPT (C) Agglomeration, climate, investment
(A) continuous cultivation without adding supplements (D) Investment, transportation, labor
(B) overgrazing (E) Transportation, climate, supply chain
(C) lack of soil and water conservation
(D) the planting of trees
47. A rural feed and farm supply store often draws customers
(E) random bushfires
from up to 100 miles away. This indicates that the busi-
ness has a very high
42. Groups such as Doctors Without Borders, the World (A) agglomeration
Wildlife Fund, and Heifer International provide relief (B) threshold
and policy advocacy in foreign countries, often using (C) range
funds raised from private philanthropy. These groups are (D) margin
examples of (E) point of maximum profitability
(A) policy think tanks
(B) international non-governmental organizations
(C) microcredit programs
(D) transnational migration
(E) political action committees

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 Section I

48. The difference between buying a single hot dog at the 51. Unlike other models of urban structure, the multiple-
corner convenience store, a pack of six hot dogs at the nuclei model
nearest grocery store, and a case of forty-eight hot dogs at (A) analyzes the different areas of a city from a scientific
a faraway big-box retail outlet is the difference in standpoint
(A) comparative advantage (B) can be applied to all urban environments around the
(B) distance elastic world
(C) supply chain (C) explains the growth at the periphery of cities
(D) peak land value intersection (D) admits that there is often more than one commercial
(E) urban hierarchy center in a city
(E) defines zones more loosely than other theories do
49. The difference between the close clustering of rural com-
munities in New England and the wide dispersal of rural 52. The set of Spanish colonial codes that specifically re-
communities in the Great Plains is best explained by quired all towns to be centered around a plaza was
(A) the difference between the climates of the two (A) the Laws of Burgos
regions (B) the Laws of the Indies
(B) the different level of ethnic and family ties that (C) the Napoleonic Code
existed in each region prior to settlement (D) the Spanish Requirement of 1513
(C) the different level of religiosity of the two (E) the Fueros of Navarre
populations
(D) the need for trade in New England versus the need
53. One important difference between real estate laws in
for privacy in the Great Plains
Latin America and real estate laws in the United States is
(E) the pre-existing housing stock in each region
that in Latin America
(A) trade agreements such as NAFTA have made it
50. A diamond-cutting company that employs four different easier to purchase real estate
workers, and whose only physical need is four machines (B) the rights of landowners are stronger than in the
on a table, can be regarded as part of U.S.
(A) a special economic zone (C) real estate laws discourage English-speaking
(B) a decentralized network foreigners from buying property
(C) a supply chain (D) only the middle and upper classes are legally
(D) a footloose industry allowed to purchase land
(E) a high-benefit service (E) idle land can be legally squatted upon if residents
use it

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VI. Practice Test 2  4 1 9

 Section I

Questions 54 and 55 refer to the following images.

Source A: Sint-Laurenskerk, Rotterdam, The Netherlands

Source B: Pauluskerk, Rotterdam, The Netherlands

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 Section I

54. The difference between the two religious structures is the 58. Taking a cruise to the Galapagos Islands for the purpose
difference between of seeing its exotic wildlife during limited shore excur-
(A) the Christian and Judaic traditions sions can be classified as
(B) high and low budgets (A) relocation diffusion
(C) reverent and irreverent attitudes towards religion (B) globalization
(D) medieval and modern design (C) offshore production
(E) Eastern Orthodox and Western Christianity (D) ecotourism
(E) distance decay
55. These religious structures do NOT share which of the
following characteristics? 59. A person who takes a bus to a subway to an airport for a
(A) An effective use of natural interior light flight has experienced several
(B) A floor plan with centralized seating (A) examples of rapid transit
(C) A tall, nearly flat facade (B) convergence zones
(D) Lack of a dome (C) vertical integrations
(E) Symmetry and perpendicularity (D) intermodal connections
(E) spatial fixes
56. Megacities in the developing world, such as São Paulo,
Brazil, share all of the following characteristics EXCEPT 60. Which of the following lists includes Chinese innovations
(A) a thriving and modern center of commerce that were brought to Europe?
(B) an immigrant population from rural areas (A) Compass, paper, gunpowder, spinning jenny
(C) a military presence in the central business district (B) Paper, gunpowder, printing press, porcelain
(D) rapidly growing rate of natural increase (C) Porcelain, compass, paper, gunpowder
(E) squatter settlements that lack basic amenities (D) Compass, paper, spinning jenny, porcelain
(E) Printing press, compass, porcelain, gunpowder
57. In 2004, General Motors relocated its world headquarters
from suburban Detroit to downtown Detroit. In 2018,
McDonald’s relocated its world headquarters from
suburban Chicago to downtown Chicago. These decisions
can best be seen to signify
(A) the way that large global corporations are leading
the way in urban renewal
(B) a precursor to wide-scale rejection of
suburbanization
(C) the inevitability of the gentrification movement
(D) a renewed interest from American companies in the
central business district
(E) the debatable intentions of leaders of industry

END OF SECTION I

VI. Practice Test 2  4 2 1

 Section II

HUMAN GEOGRAPHY
SECTION II
Time—1 hour and 15 minutes
Percent of total grade—50

Directions: You have 1 hour and 15 minutes to answer all three of the following questions. It is recommended that you spend
approximately one-third of your time (25 minutes) on each question. It is suggested that you take up to 5 minutes of this time
to plan and outline each answer. You may use the unlined space below each question for notes. For this practice test, write your
answers on lined notebook paper.

1. A wave of cultural globalization has swept across the world during the twentieth and twenty-first centuries.
A. Describe ONE reason for this wave of globalization.

B. Describe ONE example of an ADVANTAGE of cultural globalization.

C. Describe ONE example of a DISADVANTAGE of cultural globalization.

D. Discuss ONE way that a specific government has ACCEPTED cultural globalization.

E. Discuss ONE way that a specific government has REJECTED cultural globalization.

F. Discuss ONE way that an indigenous culture has been harmed by globalization.

G. Discuss ONE way that an indigenous culture has benefited from globalization.

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 Section II

Central Business District

Wholesale, light manufacturing

Outlying business district

Low-class residential

Medium-class residential

High-class residential

Residential suburb

Heavy manufacturing

Industrial suburb

Multiple-Nuclei Model, 1945

2. The multiple-nuclei model is an urban model created in 1945 by Chauncey Harris and Edward Ullman. In the decades since
its debut, it has gained popularity for many different reasons.
A. Define the multiple-nuclei model.

B. Explain the advantage that the multiple-nuclei model presents over earlier urban models, such as the concentric zone
model.

C. Describe ONE disadvantage that the multiple-nuclei model offers.

D. List a reason why the multiple-nuclei model became so popular in the United States when other urban models did not.

E. Describe two advantages that businesses hold in a city built upon a multiple-nuclei model.

F. Using a specific example, describe ONE city that has fully evolved under the multiple-nuclei model.

G. Describe a contemporary challenge to the multiple-nuclei model.

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VI. Practice Test 2 | 423

 Section II

India – 2016 Japan – 2016

Male Female Male Female
100+ 100+
95–99 95–99
90–94 90–94
85–89 85–89
80–84 80–84
75–79 75–79
70–74 70–74
65–69 65–69
60–64 60–64
55–59 55–59
50–54 50–54
45–49 45–49
40–44 40–44
35–39 35–39
30–34 30–34
25–29 25–29
20–24 20–24
15–19 15–19
10–14
10–14
5–9
5–9
0–4
0–4
6 4.8 3.6 2.4 1.2 0 0 1.2 2.4 3.6 4.8 6
65 52 39 26 13 0 0 13 26 39 52 65
Population (in millions) Age Group Population (in millions)
Population (in millions) Age Group Population (in millions)

Source: U.S. Census Bureau, International Data Base

3. Use the diagrams to answer the following questions.

A. Using specific evidence or speculation, discuss the reasons for ONE baby boom revealed by either graph.

B. Using specific evidence or speculation, discuss the reasons for ONE baby bust revealed by either graph.

C. Describe a general ADVANTAGE of using a population pyramid.

D. Describe a general DISADVANTAGE of using a population pyramid.

E. Using specific evidence or speculation, discuss what the sex ratios of each pyramid reveal about each society.

F. Describe at least ONE demographic problem facing India in the future.

G. Describe at least ONE demographic problem facing Japan in the future.

STOP

END OF EXAM

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O O O O O O
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S S S S S S
JUN 3 3 3 3 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
T T T T T T
JUL 4 4 4 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
U U U U U U
AUG 5 5 5
V V V V V V
SEP 6 6 6
W W W W W W
OCT 7 7 7
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NOV 8 8 8
MALE Y Y Y Y Y Y
DEC 9 9 9
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7 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 47 A B C D E
8 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 48 A B C D E
9 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 49 A B C D E
10 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 50 A B C D E
11 A B C D E 31 A B C D E 51 A B C D E
12 A B C D E 32 A B C D E 52 A B C D E
13 A B C D E 33 A B C D E 53 A B C D E
14 A B C D E 34 A B C D E 54 A B C D E
15 A B C D E 35 A B C D E 55 A B C D E
16 A B C D E 36 A B C D E 56 A B C D E
17 A B C D E 37 A B C D E 57 A B C D E
18 A B C D E 38 A B C D E 58 A B C D E
19 A B C D E 39 A B C D E 59 A B C D E
20 A B C D E 40 A B C D E 60 A B C D E

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