PREFACE

Prelims Current Affairs MCQs

For UPSC CSE 2024
Jan 2024-April 2024 & April 2023

This high-quality compilation of Current Affairs in Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) format
for CSE Prelims 2024 is designed to help Civil Services Exam aspirants by:

1. Saving preparation time: Consolidates key current affairs from multiple sources into
MCQ format.
2. Reinforcing static concepts: Links static concepts with current affairs through MCQs
and explanations.
3. Enhancing revision: Combines important current affairs and static concepts for
effective revision.

Why Multiple Choice Question format?

• Aligns with the CSE prelims exam pattern.

• Aids understanding and recall by offering multiple perspectives on current affairs.

Our team of content developers have worked rigorously to create this high-quality
compilation, and we hope that all Civil Services and other competitive exam aspirants will
make the best use of it. All the Best!

R. C. Reddy IAS Study Circle

Hyderabad
 Table of contents

1. January 2024 Current Affairs Multiple Choice Questions...................(Page -02 to 22)

2. January 2024 Current Affairs Key and Explanations........................(Page -23 to 86)

3. February 2024 Current Affairs Multiple Choice Questions ................(Page -87 to 109)

4. February 2024 Current Affairs Key and Explanations......................(Page -110 to 180)

5. March 2024 Current Affairs Multiple Choice Questions.....................(Page -181 to 201)

6. March 2024 Current Affairs Key and Explanations..........................(Page -202 to 269)

7. April 2024 & April 2023Current Affairs Multiple Choice Questions... (Page -270 to 291)

8. April 2024 & April 2023 Current Affairs Key and Explanations.........(Page -292 to 373)

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 January 2024 Current Affairs Multiple Choice Questions
1. Consider the following:
Indian Festivals Associated States
1. Chandubi Assam
Festival
2. Moatsu Festival Nagaland
3. Wangala Festival Meghalaya
4. Chapchar Kut Mizoram
How many of the above pair(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
2. Peregrine Lander is related to which of the following?
a) Spacecraft to bring back soil sample from Near Earth Asteroid.
b) Spacecraft designed for lunar exploration.
c) Spacecraft to explore the interiors Mars craters.
d) Spacecraft designed to land on Mars moon.
3. Recently Sisal Plant was in the news for which of the following reasons ?
a) High absorption capacity.
b) Medicinal properties.
c) Rubber production.
d) Opium production.
4. Camptothecin, which was seen recently in news, is which of the following ?
a) Life threatening chemical.
b) Food colouring agent.
c) Anti-cancer drug.
d) Bio-degradable polymer.
5. Consider the following statements regarding UNESCO's World Heritage Committee:
1. Till January 2024 India has never chaired the UNESCO's World Heritage Committee.
2. It meets at least twice a year.
3. It has the final say on whether a property is inscribed on the World Heritage List.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

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6. Consider the following statements regarding Urea Gold:
Statement I - It is a Sulphur-Coated Urea (SCU).
Statement II - It has added humic acid that quickens the urea action to enhance the nutrient
availability.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement -I incorrect but Statement -II is correct
7. Consider the following statements regarding Bio-Imaging Bank:
1. It is a repository containing radiology and pathology images linked with clinical information,
outcome data, treatment specifics, and additional metadata.
2. The project uses deep learning to develop a cancer-specific tailored algorithm for early
detection.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Consider the following:
Terms Recently Description
seen in news
1. Urgam Unmanned Aerial Vehicle
2. Drishti 10 Assault Rifle
'Starliner'
3. Kabra Offshore patrol Vessel
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
9. Consider the following:
Tiger Reserve Located in
1. Biligiri Ranga Karnataka
swamy Temple
Tiger Reserve
2. Sariska Tiger Rajasthan
Reserve
3. Bhadra Tiger Maharshtra
Reserve
4. Kamlang Tiger Assam
Reserve

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 How many of the above pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

10. 'ANEEL', recently seen in news is related to which of the following?

a) Solar Powered Boat
b) Nuclear fuel
c) Cryogenic Engine
d) Surface to air missile
11. NUTEC Plastics Initiative is related to which of the following organisations?
a) Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO)
b) World Health Organisation (WHO)
c) International Seabed Authority (ISA)
d) None of the above
12. Consider the following:
Indian Fairs Associated State
1. Kateel Yakshagana Karnataka
Mela
2. Shamlaji Fair Gujarat
3. Sonepur Mela Bihar
4. Gangasagar Mela West Bengal
How many of the above pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
13. What is the primary focus of Momentum Investing recently seen in news?
a) Buying undervalued stocks.
b) Emphasizing long-term growth potential.
c) Identifying stocks with consistent dividend pay-outs.
d) Riding the trend of stocks that have exhibited strong recent performance.
14. Which of the following countries launched Einstein Probe (EP) to observe mysterious transient
phenomena in the universe?
a) France
b) United State of America
c) Japan
d) China
15. Consider the following:
Places in news Associated Country
1. Belgorod Region Ukraine
2. Aigai Palace Italy
3. Okinawa Japan
4. Kinmen Island Indonesia

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How many of the above pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
16. With reference to the Henley Passport Index 2024, consider the following:
1. India's passport ranked 62nd in the list, with citizens allowed to travel to 80 countries without
a visa.
2. Syria occupies the bottom spot on the list, with access to just 28 countries without a visa.
3. The United Arab Emirates was the fastest climber on the index over the past decade.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
17. Consider the following statements regarding Grant for Research and Entrepreneurship across
Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT):
1. It aims to provide impetus for the development of the technical textiles startup ecosystem in
India.
2. Under this scheme, a grant-in-aid of up to Rs 50 lakh for up to a period of 18 months will be
provided.
3. The scheme will be commensurate with the National Technical Textiles Mission.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
18. Consider the following regarding OLED (organic light-emitting diode) and QLED (quantum dot LED)
TV technologies:
1. OLED TVs do not have the same perfect blacks and infinite contrast as QLED TVs.
2. OLED TVs are susceptible to burn-in and image retention when the same image is displayed
on the screen for an extended period of time.
3. QLED use a layer of tiny semiconductor crystals called quantum dots that emit light.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
19. Consider the following statements regarding Clemency powers mentioned under the constitution:
1. Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of
punishment or suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence.
2. Article 161 gives similar powers to the governor of the state except that he/she cannot pardon
the death sentences.
3. In case of sentences inflicted by military courts only the President can grant pardon and not
Governor.

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 How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
20. Consider the following statements regarding Polymer Electrolyte Membrane (PEM) Fuel Cell:
Statement I - It converts chemical energy to heat energy by oxidising hydrogen to water.
Statement II - Polymer Electrolyte Membrane allows protons to pass through while blocking the
passage of electrons.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement -I incorrect but Statement -II is correct
21. Consider the following statements regarding Zero Effect, Zero Defect scheme (ZED):
1. It was launched in 2022 to drive manufacturing with the adoption of Zero-Defect production
processes without impacting the environment i.e. Zero Effect.
2. It offers certification for environmentally conscious manufacturing under three certification
levels (gold, silver, and bronze) classified according to 20 performance-based parameters.
3. The scheme does not provide financial assistance.
4. It is an initiative of Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) Only three d) All four
22. Consider the following statements regarding (VIPER) Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration
Rover:
1. It is NASA's first mobile robotic mission to Mars.
2. It will directly analyse the varying depths and temperature conditions of the Mars soil
environments.
3. It will help in providing valuable data for the manned mission to the red planet.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
23. Consider the following:
1. Minimum Alternate Tax
2. Excise Duty
3. Commodities Transaction Tax
4. Gift Tax
5. Fringe Benefits Tax
6. Customs Duty
7. Value Added Tax

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 How many of the above are classified as direct tax?
a) Only three b) Only four
c) Only five d) Only six

24. Consider the following statements regarding Tableau selection process for Republic day Parades:
1. The selection process of tableau for the Republic Day parade is carried out by the Ministry of
Home Affairs.
2. Expert committee of prominent people from art, culture, painting, sculpture, music,
architecture, choreography do the shortlisting of the tableau.
3. No other vehicles than tractor and trailers can be used for fabrication of tableaux.
4. The number of performers on the trailer will not be more than 10 persons and artists
performing on or along the tableau should be from the concerned state/UT only.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
25. Consider the following countries:
1. Austria
2. Slovakia
3. Germany
4. Romania
5. Slovenia
6. Poland
How many of the above share a land boundary with Czech Republic?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) Only five
26. Consider the following statements regarding Bharat stage (BS) emission standards:
1. The Bharat Stage (BS) Standards are based on European regulations that were first introduced
in India in 2000.
2. The Bharat stage (BS) standards and the timeline for implementation are set by the Central
Pollution Control Board under the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
3. Sulphur content in BS-VI fuel has five times lower (10ppm) as compared to sulphur content in
BS-IV fuel (50ppm).
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) All three d) None
27. Consider the following:
Dams/Reservoir Associated River
a) Maithon Dam Damodar
b) Thein Dam project Ravi
c) Bhakra Nangal Bhagirathi
Dam
d) Salal Project Beas

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 How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) Only three d) All four

28. Consider the following statements regarding National Clean Air Programme (NCAP):
1. It was launched by Ministry of Environment in 2019 and is first-ever effort in the country to
frame a national framework for air quality management with a time-bound reduction target.
2. Its target is to achieve reductions up to 40% of Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5)
concentrations by 2025-26, base year 2019.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. Which of the following organisation releases the Global Risk Report?
a) World Bank (WB)
b) World Economic Forum (WEF)
c) World Health Organisation (WHO)
d) World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
30. Which of the following tiger reserve has been designated as India's first Dark Sky Park?
a) Sariska Tiger Reserve
b) Rajaji Tiger Reserve
c) Pench Tiger Reserve
d) Satpura Tiger Reserve
31. Consider the following statements regarding Light Detection and Ranging (LiDAR):
Statement I - It is used to generate precise, three-dimensional information about the shape of the
Earth and its surface characteristics.
Statement II - It calculates how long it takes for beams of soundwaves to hit an object or surface
and reflect back to the receiver and the distance is then calculated using the frequency of waves.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement -I incorrect but Statement -II is correct
32. Saqqara, recently seen in news, is located in which of the following country?
a) United Arab Emirates
b) Saudi Arabia
c) Israel
d) Egypt
33. Consider the following countries:
1. Cape Verde
2. Sierra Leone
3. Gabon
4. Zambia

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 Arrange the above given countries from North to South:
a) 1-2-3-4
b) 2-1-3-4
c) 1-2-4-3
d) 2-1-4-3
34. Consider the following statements regarding Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC):
1. It is a statutory committee that functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and
Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
2. It is responsible for the approval of activities involving large-scale use of hazardous living
microorganisms.
3. The committee or any person authorized by it has the power to take punitive action under the
Biological Diversity Act.
4. It is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a
representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
35. Consider the following statements regarding Steel Slag Road Technology:
1. It was developed by CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI) is transforming the
waste of steel industries into wealth.
2. It involves processing the steel slag to remove impurities and metal content and then using it
as an aggregate for road base or sub-base layers.
3. India's first National Highway Steel Slag road section was inaugurated on Mumbai-Goa
National Highway.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
36. Recently a Multi-institution study found India's oldest living city in which of the following state?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Rajasthan
c) Punjab
d) Gujarat
37. Consider the following statements regarding India's Pulses production:
1. The share of Kharif pulses is more than Rabi pulses in the overall pulses production.
2. Pulses account for around one-fifth of the total area under food grains.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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38. Consider the following countries:
1. Namibia 2. Botswana
3. Zimbabwe 4. Angola
5. Mozambique
How many of the above share a land boundary with South Africa?
a) Only two b) Only three
c) Only four d) All five

39. Terms like Cheetah, Guldar and Kumbhir are related to which of the following?
a) Naval ships
b) Butterfly
c) Missile
d) Rare fish
40. Hadamard gate and CNOT are used in which of the following?
a) Road Building
b) Biodegradable polymer
c) Technical Textiles
d) Quantum Computing
41. Consider the following:
Regional Festival Associated Region
a) Poush West Bengal
Sangkranti
b) Hangrai Tripura
c) Shishur Kashmir
Saenkraat
d) Makaravilakku Kerala
How many of the pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
42. Consider the following statements regarding Green Fuels Alliance India (GFAI):
1. It is an alliance between the Denmark and India to boost collaborative efforts in the sustainable
energy solutions sector.
2. It aims to promote sustainable energy growth in India by establishing an ecosystem that
encourages collaboration among businesses, government entities, research institutions, and
financial stakeholders.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 3

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43. Recently India conducted Exercise Ayutthaya with which of the following countries ?
a) Indonesia
b) Thailand
c) Vietnam
d) Malaysia
44. Consider the following statements regarding Instrument Landing System:
Statement I - It guides pilots along both horizontal and vertical axes, aiding them in maintaining
the correct approach path during low-visibility conditions.
Statement II - It is a ground-based radio navigation system that provides pilots with accurate
information about their aircraft's position and alignment with the runway.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement -I incorrect but Statement -II is correct
45. Vijay Raghavan Committee, recently seen in news is related to which of the following?
a) To review the functioning of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
b) To review the functioning of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
c) To review the functioning of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC).
d) To review the functioning of Ordnance Factory Board (OFB).
46. e-SAKSHI Mobile Application is related to which of the following ?
a) Svamitva Scheme
b) Atal Bhujal Yojana
c) MPLAD Scheme
d) Stand-Up India Scheme
47. Asaphila, Longju and Namkha Chu are located on which of the following borders ?
a) India-China Border
b) India-Bhutan Border
c) India-Myanmar Border
d) India-Nepal Border
48. Consider the following:
Volcanoes Located in
a) Mount Marapi Indonesia
b) Mount Nyiragongo Tanzania
c) Bagana New Zealand
d) Lewotobi Kenya
How many of the above pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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49. Consider the following statements regarding Civil Aviation Requirements (CAR):
1. It is issued by The Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) and outlines procedures to be
followed in handling varying degrees of unruly passenger behaviour during and after incidents.
2. There are three different levels of unruly passenger behaviour outlined in the guidelines.
3. The airline can ban the unruly passenger for up to 30 days immediately after the incident and
if there is no decision within 30 days, the passenger will be allowed to fly.
4. Banned individuals can appeal within 60 days to an Appellate Committee led by a retired High
Court judge.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) Only three d) All four

50. Consider the following:

Tribes in news Generally found in
a) Kolam Tribe Madhya Pradesh
b) Nyishi Tribe Arunachal Pradesh
c) Mankidia Tribe Odisha
d) Tharu Tribe Uttar Pradesh
How many of the above pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
51. Consider the following statements regarding Stamp duty:
1. Stamp duty is a government direct tax, which is levied on all legal property transactions.
2. Indian Stamp Bill 2023 intends to replace the Indian Stamp Act, 1899.
3. Stamp duties are levied by the Central Government, but within the States are collected and
appropriated by the concerned States in terms of provisions of Article 268 of the Constitution.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) None
52. Consider the following statements regarding Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ):
1. CRZ I: Exploration of natural gas and extraction of salt are permitted.
2. CRZ II: Rural and semi-urban areas.
3. CRZ III: Urban areas located in the coastal areas.
4. CRZ IV: Aquatic area up to territorial limits.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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53. Consider the following statements regarding Electricity (amendment) Rules, 2024:
1. The rules allow consumers which have specified energy load and Energy Storage Systems (ESS)
to establish, operate and maintain their dedicated transmission lines themselves with the
requirement of license.
2. If a person availing General Network Access (GNA) or Open Access, the additional surcharge
shall be linearly reduced and get eliminated within four years from the date of grant of access.
3. There shall not be any gap between approved Annual Revenue Requirement and estimated
annual revenue from approved tariff except under natural calamity conditions.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) None
b) Only one
c) Only two
d) All three
54. Consider the following statements regarding Fertilizer Subsidies in India:
Statement I: The Nutrient Subsidy (NBS) scheme was introduced in 2010 to replace the earlier
administered pricing system for decontrolled phosphatic and potassic (P&K) fertilizers.
Statement II: Fertilizer Subsidy has the maximum share in the total subsidy given by the Central
Government of India.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement -I incorrect but Statement -II is correct.
55. Consider the following countries:
1. Jordan
2. Turkey
3. Israel
4. Saudi Arabia
5. Kuwait
6. Syria
How many of the above countries share a land boundary with Iraq ?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) Only five
56. Qanat System, recently seen in news, is related to which of the following ?
a) Ancient water-supply method.
b) Ancient warfare style.
c) Ancient method of biodiversity conservation.
d) Ancient trading system.
57. Consider the following statements regarding Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF):
1. It was set up by an Act of Parliament in December 2003 by amending the Indian Telegraph Act,
1885.
2. The USOF is funded through a levy called Universal Service Levy (USL) imposed on the gross
revenue of the telecom companies, which is a percentage of their Adjusted Gross Revenue
(AGR).
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 Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. Distress Alert Transmitter, recently seen in news, is used for which of the following?
a) Send Alert messages during the launch of space vehicles.
b) Send emergency messages from fishing boats.
c) Tool to send SOS message from Indian trains especially for women in distress situations.
d) Give early warning to farmers for upcoming bad weather.
59. Chandaka-Dampara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which of the following states ?
a) Mizoram
b) West Bengal
c) Odisha
d) Jharkhand
60. Consider the following:
Temple in News Located in
a) Guruvayur Temple Kerala
b) Kothandarama Tamil Nadu
swamy Temple
c) Jatar Deul Temple Odisha
d) Chausath Yogini Madhya Pradesh
Temple
How many of the above pair(s) is/are correct ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
61. Soligas and Yeravas tribal people commonly live in which of the following?
a) Krishna Basin
b) Godavari Basin
c) Mahanadi Basin
d) Kaveri Basin
62. Recently India's first Graphene Centre was opened in which of the following states?
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Karnataka
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Kerala
63. Consider the following statements regarding Khelo India Youth Games:
1. The first edition was organised in 2018 in Delhi by the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports.
2. In its 6th edition Archery, athletics, badminton, and squash have been introduced.
3. Kabbadi, the state sport of Tamil Nadu, is being introduced as a demo sport.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) All three d) None
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64. Consider the following Classification of the Nagara Style of Temple Architecture:
Style of Sikhara Best can be seen in
1. Valabhi Style Teli ka Mandir
2. Phamsana Style Jagmohan of Konark Temple
3. Latina Style Sri Jagannath Temple
4. Bhumija Style Udayeshwar Temple
How many of the above pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
65. Consider the following statements regarding SLIM (Smart Lander for Investigating Moon), recently
seen in news:
1. It is launched by Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) and with this Japan became the
5th country in the world to reach the lunar surface following the United States, the Soviet
Union, China and India.
2. Its main objective is to showcase precision landing capabilities on the Moon, targeting a landing
within 100 meters of its chosen site near the Shioli crater.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
66. Consider the following statements regarding working of Hypersonic missile:
1. Hypersonic Missiles fly at speeds of at least Mach 5 and are highly manoeuvrable and able to
change course during flight.
2. Hypersonic glide vehicles are launched from a rocket which leaves the Earth's atmosphere and
then plunges back into it.
3. Ballistic missiles are different from hypersonic missile as ballistic missiles cannot travel at
hypersonic speeds, and also follow only set trajectories and limited mano euvrability.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
67. Which of the following statements best describes the Jeddah Convention?
a) It is a treaty outlining international maritime laws and regulations for middle-east.
b) It is an agreement promoting cultural exchange between Arab nations.
c) It is a resolution aimed at addressing maritime piracy concerns in Red sea.
d) It is related to the conservation of the Red Sea and Gulf of Aden Environment.
68. Consider the following statements regarding Second Thomas Shoal, seen in news:
1. It is located in East China Sea.
2. It is disputed between China and Japan.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

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69. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar 2024:
1. The awards are conferred upon the children for their excellence in seven categories.
2. The selection of awardees was made by a Selection Committee under the chairpersonship of
the Secretary of Ministry for Women and Child Development.
3. For eligibility a child must be an Indian Citizen and between 6-18 years of age.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
70. Which of the following best describes SPICA, recently seen in news?
a) Customer malware tool.
b) Nuclear Fusion reactor.
c) Telescope to observe exoplanets.
d) Intercontinental Ballistic Missile.
71. Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA):
1. It regulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not adversely affect
internal security and it is implemented by Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. The candidates for elections, journalists or newspaper and media broadcast companies, judges
and Government servants, members of legislature and political parties or their office-bearers
cannot receive foreign contribution.
3. If NGOs registration is cancelled, it cannot apply for re-registration.
4. For FCRA registration Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) verifies the background and objectives
of the applicant through the Central Vigilance Commission.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
72. Consider the following statements regarding Competition Commission of India:
1. All members of the CCI are appointed by the Central Government.
2. It is a statutory body established by Competition Act, 2002 which replaced The Monopolies and
Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 (MRTP Act) based on the recommendations of the
Raghavan Committee.
3. Government replaced Competition Appellate Tribunal (COMPAT) with the National Company
Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) in 2017.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
73. Consider the following regarding Non-Aligned Movement:
Statement I - It started with the Bandung Conference held in Indonesia in 1955.
Statement II - Its permanent secretariat is located in Indonesia.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
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 b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement -I incorrect but Statement -II is correct.

74. Consider the following statements regarding Global Alliance for Global Good - Gender Equity and
Equality:
1. It is a new alliance established by India on the sidelines of the annual World Economic Forum
(WEF) meeting in Davos.
2. Invest India has come up as an 'Institutional Partner'.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. SIGHT programme, recently seen in news is related to which of the following ?
a) To bolster R&D for solar panels.
b) To increase the domestic green hydrogen production.
c) To initiate the semiconductor production for EVs.
d) To spread awareness about Antimicrobial Resistance.
76. Havisure vaccine, recently developed is to prevent which of the following ?
a) Hepatitis A
b) Hepatitis B
c) Hepatitis D
d) None
77. Consider the following statements regarding Mpemba effect:
1. It is based on counterintuitive observation that hot water can freeze faster than cold water in
similar conditions.
2. Possible causes include microbubbles, evaporation, the presence of frost in cold water, and the
effect of compounds precipitated by boiling.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
78. Recently Idate Commission report was in news. It is related to which of the following?
a) Restructuring of Indian Prisons.
b) Protection of Nomadic Tribes.
c) Reforming the Model code of conduct.
d) Sub-categorisation of Caste Census.
79. Consider the following statements regarding Lakshadweep islands:
1. The entire Lakshadweep islands group is made up of coral deposits.
2. Amindivi Islands are the northern-most.
3. 8 Degree Channel separates the islands of Minicoy and Maldives.
4. 9 Degree Channel separates the island of Minicoy from the main Lakshadweep archipelago.

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 How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

80. Consider the following statements regarding Free Movement Regime (FMR):
1. Under the FMR, the tribes along the borders, whether they are citizens of India or Myanmar,
can travel within 16 km on either side of the Indo-Myanmar Border (IMB).
2. It was implemented in 2019 as part of the Central Government's Act East policy.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
81. Consider the following statements regarding India's current Solar Capacity:
1. In terms of total solar capacity, Rajasthan is at the top with 18.7 GW. Gujarat is at the second
position with 10.5 GW.
2. In terms rooftop solar capacity, Gujarat tops the list with 2.8 GW, followed by Maharashtra by
1.7 GW.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
82. Recently Barpeta and Uttar Kamalabari were in news for which of the following?
a) Monasteries of the neo-Vaishnav order.
b) First ODF-plus regions of North East.
c) Got GI tag for textile handicrafts.
d) None of the above
83. Project BHISHM seen in news is related to which of the following ?
a) Space tech-warfare.
b) Counter anti-terror activities.
c) Reduce malware attacks.
d) Medical readiness and response capabilities.
84. Consider the following statements regarding FiloBot, a plant-inspired robot:
Statement I - FiloBot rely on pre-programmed movements to climb structures, mimicking the
growth patterns of climbing vines.
Statement II - It can help in inspection and maintenance, Disaster Response and Medical Surgery.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement -I incorrect but Statement -II is correct.

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85. Lake Retba, recently seen in news is located in which of the following country?
a) Senegal
b) Ghana
c) Egypt
d) Nigeria
86. Consider the following statements regarding Design-Linked Incentive Scheme (DLI):
1. The DLI scheme is part of the MeitY's comprehensive Program for the Development of
Semiconductors and Display Manufacturing Ecosystems in the country.
2. Its aim is to nurture at least 20 domestic companies involved in semiconductor design and
facilitate them to achieve turnover of more than Rs.1500 Crore in the next 5 years.
3. National Informatics Centre (NIC), a scientific body operating under MeitY, will serve as the
nodal agency for implementation of the DLI scheme.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
87. Recently Insta-3DS satellite was in news, it’s purpose for which of the following ?
a) Education satellite
b) Climate observation satellite.
c) Communication satellite.
d) Military satellite.
88. Consider the following:
Places in news Located in
a) Kampala Uganda
b) Willingdon Island United Kingdom
c) Torkam Border Iran-Pakistan Border
How many of the above pair(s) is/are incorrectly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
89. Consider the following:
Military Exercise Participating country along with India
a) Exercise Cyclone Egypt
b) Exercise Khanjar Kyrgyzstan
c) Exercise Ekuverin Maldives
d) Exercise Shakti France
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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90. Wadge Bank Ecosystem, a part of the sea that is a fertile fishing ground and rich in biodiversity, is
located off the coast of which of the following ?
a) United States of America b) Japan
c) India d) Australia

91. Consider the following statements regarding Group of 77 (G-77):

1. It is a group of 77 countries established in 1964 at the end of the first session of the United
Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) in Geneva.
2. It provides the means for the countries of the South to articulate and promote their collective
economic interests.
3. All the India's neighbouring countries are member of G-77.
How many of the above statements(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) None
92. Consider the following statements regarding Default Bail:
Statement I - Default Bail is only a statutory right.
Statement II - When a person is arrested and the police is not able to complete investigation within
the specified period, it is their default, and the arrested person cannot be kept behind bars beyond
this period.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement -I incorrect but Statement -II is correct.
93. Consider the following statements regarding Soda Lakes:
1. It is a lake with a pH value usually between 1 and 5 making too acidic for aquatic organisms.
2. These are the most productive aquatic environments on Earth because of the availability of
dissolved carbon dioxide.
3. India and China have the highest number of soda lakes in Asia.
4. Some of the soda lakes in Asia include Lake Van, Tso Kar Salt Lake, Pangong Salt Lake, and
Lake Zabuye.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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94. Consider the following statements regarding Election Seizure Management System (ESMS):
1. The ESMS is a dedicated technology platform developed by Centre for Development of Advanced
Computing (C-DAC) and is used for real-time updates on seizures.
2. It will be used in upcoming 2024 Lok Sabha elections for the first time.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
95. Recently Tetrahydrocannabidiol (THCBD) was in news for which of the following reasons ?
a) Can be used in making bio-degradable Plastic.
b) Showcasing Antibiotic Effects.
c) Life threatening carcinogenic agent.
d) Invasive species harming agricultural crops.
96. Operation Sarvashakti, recently seen in news, is related to which of the following?
a) To neutralise terrorist threats in Pir Panjal range.
b) To counter Insurgency along Indo-Myanmar Border.
c) To counter naxalism in Red Corridor region.
d) None of the above
97. Consider the following regarding Methods of Coal gasification:
1. In-situ method: Sulphur in coal is transformed to H2S and trace volumes of carbonyl
sulphide((COS) during the gasification process.
2. Ex-situ reactors: oxygen is infused into the seam together with water and ignited at high
temperatures, causing coal to partly oxidize into hydrogen, CO, carbon dioxide (CO2), methane
(CH4), and hydrogen sulfide (H2S).
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
98. Consider the following statements regarding National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA):
1. It is a statutory body constituted under Section 132 of the Companies Act, 2013.
2. It aims to regulate the auditing profession and accounting standards in India.
3. It has the power to investigate into the matters of professional or other misconduct committed
by any member or firm of chartered accountants registered under the Chartered Accountants
Act, 1949.
4. It has the same powers as are vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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99. Grantha script, recently seen in news, was most prevalent in which part of India during the 11th
century ?
a) North-east India
b) South India
c) North-western India
d) Central India
100. Consider the following:
Lakes in news Located in
a) Lake Van Turkey
b) Lake Onega Russia
c) Lake Tahore USA
d) Lake Poopo Bolivia
How many of the above pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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 January 2024 Current Affairs Key and Explanations
Q1 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
All pairs are correctly matched.
Chandubi Festival
• It is organised every year for five days starting from the first day of the New Year along the
Chandubi lake, which is situated in the state of Assam.
• The main attractions of the Chandubi festival are the local folk culture, ethnic cuisine, local
handloom and dresses, boating, etc.
• The major aim of the Chandubi Festival is to promote eco-tourism in this biodiversity hotspot of
Assam.
Moatsu Festival, Nagaland:
• Celebrated by the Ao tribes of Nagaland, the Moatsu Festival is a time of great rejoicing as the
planting season comes to an end.
• All activities are associated with the harvest.
Wangala Festival, Meghalaya:
• The Wangala Festival is the biggest harvest festival of the Garo tribe in Meghalaya.
• Held in honor of the Sun God of fertility, the festival marks the end of the sowing season and
agricultural year.
• It’s celebrated by the beating of drums, blowing horns, and traditional dancing.
Chapchar Kut, Mizoram:
• Chapchar Kut is a harvest festival named after the bamboo that has been cut and is drying for
burning and subsequent cultivation.
• The traditional bamboo dance performed by women (while men sit on the ground and beat bamboo
sticks against each other), called cheraw, is a big part of the festival.
Q2 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
About Peregrine Lander
• It is designed to carry scientific instruments and other payloads to the Moon's surface, specifically
targeting the Sinus Viscositatis region.
• This area, also known as the Bay of Stickiness, lies adjacent to the Gruitheisen Domes near the
Oceanus Procellarum, or Ocean of Storms.
• Aim: To locate water molecules on the moon, measure radiation and gases around the lander, and
evaluate the lunar exosphere (the thin layer of gases on the moon's surface)”
The mission's scientific goals are ambitious:
• To analyze the lunar exosphere, assess the thermal properties and hydrogen content of the lunar
regolith, study magnetic fields, examine the radiation environment, and test advanced solar arrays.
Peregrine Mission 1 will transport approximately ten payloads, with a total mass capacity of 90 kilograms.
The scientific payload features cutting-edge instruments such as the Laser Retro-Reflector Array (LRA),
Linear Energy Transfer Spectrometer (LETS), Near-Infrared Volatile Spectrometer System (NIRVSS),
PROSPECT Ion-Trap Mass Spectrometer (PITMS), and Neutron Spectrometer System (NSS).

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Q3 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Context:
A research team at Stanford University has found the absorption capacity of a sisal-based material to be
higher than those in commercial menstrual pads.
About Sisal Plant
• It is a xerophytic, monocarp, semi-perennial leaf fibre producing plant.
• The leaves are thick, fleshy and often covered with a waxy layer, typical characteristics of
xerophytic plants.
• Its leaves grow up to 2 m long. The lifespan of a sisal plant is about 7-10 years, during which it
produces 200-250 usable leaves.
• Each leaf has about a thousand fibres that can be used to make ropes, paper, and cloth.
• It could be used to make a highly absorbed material as well.
Climatic condition
• It is well adapted to arid environments as the species is xerophytic in nature.
• Temperature and Rain: It can withstand a maximum temperature 40-45°C and grows well with
evenly distributed rainfall of 60-125 cm.
• Soil: It thrives best on dry, permeable, sandy-loam soils with a good amount of liming materials
(Ca and Mg) but can also grow on various other types of soils.
• In India it is grown in light calcareous and gravelly soils with good drainage
• It is well adapted mainly in Odisha, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, part of Bihar, western part of West
Bengal and many southern states.
It is mainly propagated by vegetative means such as ‘bulbils’ and ‘suckers’.

Q4 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
Researchers at the Indian Institutes of Technology Madras and Mandi have metabolically engineered
Nothapodytes nimmoniana plant cells to increase production of anti-cancer drug camptothecin (CPT).
• Camptothecin (CPT) is an important anti-cancer drug lead molecule for high-value drugs like
Topotecan and Irinotecan.
• It is a potent topoisomerase I inhibitor extracted mainly from - Camptotheca acuminata (native to
Eastern Asia) and Nothapodytes nimmoniana (native to India).
• It is majorly produced in Southeast Asian region, with the plant being largely found only in China
and India.
• However, the conjunction of climate change and extensive deforestation undertaken for CPT
extraction has pushed these plants into the endangered species category.

Q5 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
• In a first, India is set to chair and host UNESCO’s World Heritage Committee in New Delhi from
21st to 31st July 2024. Statement 1 is correct.
• The World Heritage Committee meets once a year, and consists of representatives from 21 of the
States Parties to the Convention elected by their General Assembly. Statement 2 is incorrect.

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 • The Committee is responsible for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention, defines
the use of the World Heritage Fund and allocates financial assistance upon requests from States
Parties.
• It has the final say on whether a property is inscribed on the World Heritage List. Statement 3 is
correct.
• It examines reports on the state of conservation of inscribed properties and asks States Parties to
take action when properties are not being properly managed.
• It also decides on the inscription or deletion of properties on the List of World Heritage in Danger.

Q6 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context: Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) approves launch of Urea Gold
About:
• Urea gold will support the other initiative of government in the sphere of Environmentally Friendly
Fertilizers (EFFs).
• Urea gold is a Sulphur-Coated Urea (SCU). Statement I is correct.
• It is a non-organic slow-release fertilizer and is generally prepared by coating preheated urea
granules with molten sulphur.
• Sulphur coating ensures a more gradual release of nitrogen.
• It prolongs the urea action, thus helping plants to stay greener for longer time. Statement II is
incorrect.
• It will increase efficiency and reduce frequent application of fertilizer, thus enhancing soil health.
• As per Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) study, use of SCU leads to reduction in
urea consumption by 25%.
• EFFs are fertilizers that can reduce environmental pollution from nutrient loss by retarding, or even
controlling, the release of nutrients into soil.
• EFFs also include organic fertilizers such as Biocompost, Vermicompost, etc.

Q7 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
Mumbai’s Tata Memorial Hospital (TMH) is leveraging artificial intelligence (AI) to create a ‘Bio-Imaging
Bank’ for early-stage cancer detection.
What is a ‘Bio-Imaging Bank’?
• Comprehensive Repository: The Bio-Imaging Bank is a repository containing radiology and
pathology images linked with clinical information, outcome data, treatment specifics, and
additional metadata. Statement 1 is correct.
• AI Integration: The project uses deep learning to develop a cancer-specific tailored algorithm for
early detection, incorporating data from 60,000 patients. Statement 2 is correct.
Project Scope and Collaboration
• Focus on Specific Cancers: Initially targeting head and neck cancers and lung cancers, the project
aims to collect data for at least 1000 patients for each type.

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 • Multi-Institutional Effort: Funded by the Department of Biotechnology, the project involves
collaboration with IIT-Bombay, RGCIRC-New Delhi, AIIMS-New Delhi, and PGIMER-
Chandigarh.
AI’s Role in Early Cancer Detection
• Learning from Data: AI analyzes extensive datasets of radiological and pathological images to
recognize features associated with various cancers.
• Early Detection: By identifying tissue changes and potential malignancies, AI facilitates early
cancer detection, crucial for effective treatment.
Q8 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Pair 3 is correct, Pair 1&2 are incorrect.
About Ugram:
• ‘Ugram’ is a state-of-the-art indigenous assault rifle.
• It has been developed by the Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), a unit
of DRDO, in collaboration with a private industry partner.
• It was developed in less than 100 days.
• It has been developed as per the General Staff Qualitative Requirements (GSQR) of the army into
consideration.
About Drishti 10 ‘Starliner’:
• It is an indigenously manufactured Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV).
• It was developed by Adani Defence and Aerospace.
• It is an advanced intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR) platform with 36 hours
endurance and a 450 kg payload capacity.
• It is an all-weather military platform which has clearance to fly in both segregated and unsegregated
airspace.
• It is equipped with advanced communication systems, including satellite communication and Line-
of-Sight (LOS) data links, ensuring reliable and secure data transmission.
About INS Kabra:
• It is a naval vessel named after an island of the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago.
• It belongs to the Car Nicobar class of high-speed offshore patrol vessels are built by Garden Reach
Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) for the Indian Navy.
• It was eighth in a series of 10 Fast Attack Crafts.
• The vessels are designed as a cost-effective platform for patrol, anti-piracy and rescue operations
in India's Exclusive Economic Zone.

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Q9 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Pair 1&2 are correct, Pair 3&4 are incorrect.

Q10 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Clean Core Thorium Energy, a Chicago-based company, has developed Advanced Nuclear Energy for
Enriched Life (ANEEL), a new nuclear fuel combining Thorium and High Assay Low Enriched Uranium
(HALEU).
• ANEEL can be utilized in existing Pressurized Heavy-Water Reactors (PHWRs), making it
compatible with India’s indigenous reactor system.
• Offers a quicker and more accessible alternative for deploying thorium, especially in nations
lacking infrastructure for other green energy sources.
• Reduces operation costs and nuclear waste significantly compared to natural uranium.
• ANEEL fuel bundles have a longer lifespan and burn more efficiently.
• The spent ANEEL fuel cannot be repurposed for weapons, ensuring non-proliferation.
High Assay Low Enriched Uranium (HALEU)
• HALEU is defined as uranium enriched between 5% and less than 20% of the U-235 isotope.
• It is crucial for advanced nuclear reactor designs, although not widely available commercially.

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Q11 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:

• NUTEC Plastics is the IAEA’s (International Atomic Energy Agency) flagship initiative to
address the global challenge of plastic pollution.
• It brings together countries and partners from around the world to fight plastic pollution on two
fronts: at point of source, by introducing new technologies to improve plastic recycling; and in the
ocean, where the bulk of plastic waste ends up.
• India is part of the NUTEC Plastics Initiative.

Q12 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:

All pairs are correct

About Sri Kateel Yakshagana Mela

• It is a famous Yakshagana troupe (Kateel Sri Durgaparameshwari Yakshagaana Dashavatara

Mandali), which was founded in the middle of the 19th Century.
• It is popularly known as Kateel Mela is an important ‘Harake Seva’ troupe.
• Yakshagana troupe performs on request by devotees who have taken a vow (Harake) to arrange a
show of Yakshagana for fulfilment of a desire or as a service.
• Yakshagana activity is centuries old at Kateel, a well known temple village, pilgrim centre near
Mangalore in Karnataka.

Shamlaji Fair

• Lord Shamlaji "the Dark Divine," who is supposed to be incarnate of Krishna or Vishnu, is
honoured by a tribal community in Gujarat.
• Thousands of devotees flock to the Meshno River to worship the deity and take a sacred bath.
• The 'Bhils' have great faith in Shamlaji, whom they affectionately refer to as 'Kaliyo Dev.'
• It takes place in November for around three weeks, with Kartik Poornima being the most prominent
day of the fair.

Sonepur Mela

• It is one of Asia's major cattle fairs.

• The mela takes place at the confluence of the Ganga and the Gandak rivers in Sonepur, Bihar.
• It usually takes place in November on Kartik Poornima, a Hindu festival day considered auspicious.
• It is the only fair where huge numbers of elephants are auctioned, and legend has it that
Chandragupta Maurya used to go there to buy elephants and horses.

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Gangasagar Mela

• It takes place near the mouth of the Hooghly River in West Bengal throughout January and
February.
• Hindus consider a sacred dip in the Ganges, especially on Makar Sankranti day, to be extremely
auspicious.
• Hundreds of thousands of pilgrims have flocked to the site. The presence of Naga sadhus gives the
fair a distinct identity.

Q13 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:

About Momentum investing:

• It refers to a style of investing wherein investors purchase assets such as stocks or bonds that are
consistently rising in price while selling assets whose prices are falling. Option (d) is correct.
• The “buy high, sell higher” philosophy of momentum investing is in stark contrast to the traditional
“buy low, sell high” advice given to investors.
• Features: Momentum investors buy assets with rising prices in the hope that the upward price
momentum of these assets would continue, thus allowing them to sell these assets at higher prices
in the future to make profits.
• Similarly, they sell assets that are falling in price expecting the fall in prices to continue for some
time.
• Benefits: Momentum investing can generate high returns that comfortably beat the benchmark
indices.
• Issues: Momentum investing can cause an unsustainable rise or fall in prices and It can eventually
lead to heavy losses for investors.

Q14 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:

About Einstein Probe (EP):

• A Long March-2C carrier rocket carried a satellite called Einstein Probe.

• It is new astronomical satellite which is shaped like a lotus in full bloom,
• It is a mission of the Chinese Academy of Sciences (CAS) dedicated to time-domain high-energy
astrophysics.
• It consists of wide-field X-ray telescopes (WXT) and follow-up X-ray telescopes (FXT).

Purpose:

• It aims to capture the first light from supernova explosions,

• Search for X-ray signals accompanying gravitational wave events, and
• Discover dormant black holes and other celestial objects.

The satellite’s X-ray detection technology is inspired by lobster-eye telescopes.

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Q15 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:

Pair 3 is correct, Pair 1,2&4 are incorrect

About Belgorod Region:
• It is situated in the centre of the European part of Russia, on the southern and south-eastern slopes
of the Central Russian Upland.
• It is one of Russia’s successfully developing industrial and agricultural regions.
• It borders on the Kursk and Voronezh regions, the Lugansk People’s Republic.
• It also shares a state border with Ukraine.
• The region is crisscrossed with rivers.
• The largest rivers are the Psyol, Seversky Donets, Vorskla, Oskol, Tikhaya Sosna and Valui.
• The region has a moderate continental climate with hot summers and relatively cold winters.

About Aigai
• The city of Aigai was the ancient first capital of the Kingdom of Macedonia.
• It was discovered in the 19th century near Vergina, in northern Greece.
• The most important remains are the monumental palace, lavishly decorated with mosaics and
painted stuccoes, and the burial ground.
• Alexander the Great was crowned in the ancient Palace of Aigai.
• It was built by Philip II, the father of Alexander the Great, the tombs of Philip and other Macedonian
kings are nearby.
• After the assassination of his father, Alexander was crowned at the palace in 336 BC.
• The palace and the nearby tombs are listed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.

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About Okinawa:
• Okinawa Prefecture is located in the eastern part of the Asian continent
• It is the southwestern most point of the Japanese archipelago.
• It is located between Taiwan and Kyushu, the southwestern-most of Japan’s four main islands.
• Okinawa remains under Japanese administration today.
• Okinawa comprises 160 islands of varied sizes and enjoys warm and pleasant temperatures
throughout the year.
• The warm Kuroshio Current flows through the clear ocean waters of Okinawa, creating an
environment in which coral, fish, and other sea creatures thrive.
• It is the only region in Japan that is in the subtropical zone, and is blessed with a warm climate all
year round.

About Kinmen Island

Governed by: Kinmen, alternatively known as Quemoy, is a group of islands governed by Taiwan.
Location:
• In reference to China: At the southeastern coast of the People’s Republic of China, from which they
are separated by Xiamen Bay.
• To the east of Xiamen.
• In reference to Taiwan: On the west from the closest shoreline of the island of Taiwan across the
Taiwan Strait.

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Q16 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Statement 3 is correct, Statement 1&2 are incorrect.
About Henley Passport Index:
• It is the original, authoritative ranking of all the world’s passports according to the number of
destinations their holders can access without a prior visa.
• It started in 2006 as the Henley & Partners Visa Restrictions Index (HVRI).
• The index is based on exclusive data from the International Air Transport Association (IATA), the
largest, most accurate travel information database, and enhanced by Henley & Partners’ research
team. (Henley & Partners is a London-based advisory firm).
• The index includes 199 different passports and 227 different travel destinations.
• The number of countries that a specific passport can access becomes its visa-free 'score'.
Highlights of Henley Passport Index 2024:
• France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Singapore, and Spain hold the top spot as the world's most powerful
passports, allowing visa-free entry to 194 global destinations.
• The top 10 is largely dominated by European countries.
• The average number of destinations travellers are able to access visa-free has nearly doubled, from
58 in 2006 to 111 in 2024.
• India's passport ranked 80th in the list, with citizens allowed to travel to 62 countries without a visa.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Afghanistan occupies the bottom spot on the list, with access to just 28 countries without a visa.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Syria, with visa-free access to only 29 destinations, holds the second-lowest position, followed by
Iraq with 31 and Pakistan with 34.
• The United Arab Emirates was the fastest climber over the past decade, jumping to 11th place and
offering access to 183 destinations without a visa. Statement 3 is correct.

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Q17 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
All statements are correct
About GREAT Scheme:
Grant for Research and Entrepreneurship across Aspiring Innovators in Technical Textiles (GREAT)
Scheme focuses on supporting individuals and companies to translate prototypes to technologies &
products, including commercialisation.
Aim: To provide much-needed impetus for the development of the technical textiles startup ecosystem in
India, especially in niche sub-segments such as bio-degradable and sustainable textiles, high-performance
and speciality fibres, and smart textiles. Statement 1 is correct.
Funding:
• Under this scheme, a grant-in-aid of up to Rs 50 lakh for up to a period of 18 months will be
provided. Statement 2 is correct.
• The textile ministry will additionally provide 10 per cent of the total grant-in-aid to incubators.
• Only a minimum of 10 per cent contribution has to be made by the incubatee.
All of this is being done by incubators like IITs, NITs, Textiles Research Associations, and Centres of
Excellence.
The textiles ministry has also given a nod to 26 institutes for upgrading their laboratory infrastructure and
training of trainers in the application areas of technical textiles.
The scheme will be commensurate with the National Technical Textiles Mission. Statement 3 is correct.
Key facts about the National Technical Textiles Mission (NTTM)
• It was launched to increase the penetration level of technical textiles in India while leveraging the
extraordinary growth rate of the sector.
• The mission aims to position India as a global leader in Technical Textiles.
The mission will comprise the following four components:
• Research, Innovation and Development
• Promotion and Market Development
• Export Promotion
• Education, Training, Skill Development
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Textiles
Implementation: It has been approved with an implementation period of four years, starting from FY 2020-
21 till FY 2023-24.

Q18 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Statement 2&3 are correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
OLED (organic light-emitting diode) and QLED (quantum dot LED) are both types of display technologies
used in televisions.
The main difference between the two is the way they produce light. How does OLED work?
• OLED TVs use a layer of organic materials that emit light when an electric current is applied to
them.
• This means that each individual pixel in an OLED display can turn on and off independently,
producing perfect blacks and infinite contrast.
• OLED TVs also tend to be more energy efficient and have a wider viewing angle than other types
of TVs.

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How does QLED work?
• QLED TVs, on the other hand, use a layer of tiny semiconductor crystals called quantum dots that
emit light when excited by a backlight. Statement 3 is correct.
• This means that QLED TVs do not have the same perfect blacks and infinite contrast as OLED
TVs, but they can still produce very high levels of brightness and colour accuracy. Statement 1 is
incorrect.
• QLED TVs also tend to be more durable and have a longer lifespan than OLED TVs.
What is the difference between picture quality?
• In terms of picture quality, OLED TVs are generally considered to be the better option due to their
perfect blacks and infinite contrast. However, QLED TVs can still produce very high levels of
brightness and colour accuracy, and they are often more affordable than OLED TVs.
• In addition, QLED TVs with the local dimming feature have an edge over OLEDs. This feature
divides the screen into small zones, each with its own LED backlight. This allows for better control
of the image and deeper blacks.
Which tech will last longer and is more durable?
• In terms of durability and lifespan, QLED TVs are generally considered to be more reliable than
OLED TVs.
• OLED TVs are susceptible to burn-in and image retention, which can occur when the same image
is displayed on the screen for an extended period of time. Statement 2 is correct.
• QLED TVs, on the other hand, do not have these issues.

Q19 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
All statements are correct
What is Remission?
• The remission is reducing the period of a sentence without changing its character.
• The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) provides for remission of prison sentences, which means
the whole or a part of the sentence may be cancelled.
Constitutional Provisions
Under Article 72, the President can grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or
suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence; Statement 1 is correct.
• In all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a court-martial,
• In all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence under any law relating to the Union
government’s executive power, and
• In all cases of death sentences.
Under Article 161 of the Constitution, the governor can grant pardons, reprieves, respites and remissions
of punishment or suspend, remit and commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offense against
a state law.
But, the pardoning power of the governor differs from that of the President in following two respects:
• The President can pardon sentences inflicted by court martial (military courts) while the governor
cannot. Statement 3 is correct.
• The President can pardon death sentences while the governor cannot. Statement 2 is correct.

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Q20 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
About Polymer Electrolyte Membrane Fuel Cell:
A Polymer Electrolyte Membrane (PEM) fuel cell is a type of electrochemical cell that converts chemical
energy from the reaction of hydrogen with oxygen or another oxidising agent into electrical energy.
Statement I is incorrect.
The key component of a PEM fuel cell is the polymer electrolyte membrane, which serves as the
electrolyte.

Key feature of PEM fuel cells

• Polymer Electrolyte Membrane (PEM): The PEM is a solid polymer electrolyte typically made of
a perfluorosulfonic acid material, such as Nafion.
• Use of Polymer Electrolyte Membrane: This membrane allows protons to pass through while
blocking the passage of electrons. It plays a crucial role in separating the anode and cathode
reactions. Statement II is correct.
Components and Working of Polymer Electrolyte Membrane (PEM) Fuel Cell
• Anode and Cathode: At the anode, hydrogen gas is typically supplied, and it undergoes
electrochemical oxidation to produce protons (H⁺) and electrons (e⁻). The electrons flow through
an external circuit, creating an electric current.
• Catalysts: Platinum or other platinum-group metals are commonly used as catalysts on the anode
and cathode to facilitate the electrochemical reactions.
• Proton Exchange: Protons generated at the anode move through the PEM to the cathode, while
electrons flow through an external circuit, creating an electrical current.
Characteristics of Polymer Electrolyte Membrane Cell (PEMC)
• Operating Temperature: PEM fuel cells operate at relatively low temperatures (typically between
60 to 80 degrees Celsius), allowing for quick start-up times (less warm up time) and increased
efficiency in certain applications.
• Catalyst Requirement: To facilitate the separation of electrons and protons in hydrogen, PEM fuel
cells use a noble-metal catalyst, typically platinum leading to high cost.
• Carbon Monoxide Sensitivity: The platinum catalyst in PEM fuel cells is highly sensitive to carbon
monoxide (CO) poisoning. If the hydrogen used in the fuel cell is derived from a hydrocarbon fuel,
it may contain trace amounts of carbon monoxide. The presence of CO can significantly degrade
the performance of the platinum catalyst, leading to a decrease in fuel cell efficiency.
• Carbon Monoxide Reduction Reactor: To address the issue of carbon monoxide poisoning, an
additional reactor is often employed to reduce the levels of carbon monoxide in the fuel gas before
it reaches the fuel cell. This reactor adds complexity and cost to the overall system.
• Water Management: PEM fuel cells require effective water management to maintain the hydration
level of the polymer electrolyte membrane. Water produced during the electrochemical reactions
needs to be removed from the membrane to prevent flooding.
Applications of Polymer Electrolyte Membrane (PEM) Fuel Cell
• PEM fuel cells are commonly used in various applications, including transportation (such as fuel
cell vehicles), stationary power generation (backup power systems, distributed generation), and
portable electronic devices.
• These fuel cells are known for their high efficiency, fast start-up times, and ability to operate under
varying loads.
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 • However, challenges such as cost, durability, and sensitivity to contaminants in the hydrogen fuel
remain areas of ongoing research and development.

Q21 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1,3&4 are incorrect
About Zero Effect, Zero Defect Scheme (ZED)
Launched in October 2016 and revamped in April 2022, the ZED scheme offers certification for
environmentally conscious manufacturing under three certification levels (gold, silver, and bronze)
classified according to 20 performance-based parameters such as quality management, timely delivery,
process control, waste management, etc. Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
The major objectives of the ZED Scheme are:
• To create proper awareness in MSMEs about ZED manufacturing and motivate them for the
assessment of their enterprise for a ZED rating.
• To drive manufacturing with the adoption of Zero Defect production processes without impacting
the environment (Zero Effect).
• To encourage MSMEs to constantly upgrade their quality standards in products and processes.
• To support the “Make in India” campaign.
o The scheme provides financial assistance of up to 75 percent of the total cost of certification, with a
maximum subsidy ceiling of Rs 50,000, along with up to Rs 2 lakh in support for
handholding/consultancy to achieve the next certification level. Statement 3 is incorrect.
o For technology upgradation, the scheme offers assistance of up to Rs 3 lakhs for moving towards zero
effect solutions/pollution control measures/cleaner technology.
o MSMEs are charged Rs 10,000 for bronze certification, Rs 40,000 for silver certification, and Rs 90,000
for gold certification.
o In December 2023, the MSME Ministry made the ZED scheme free for women-led MSMEs.
o In addition, the government will now make guarantee payment of 100 percent financial support for the
certification costs under the scheme.
o The ZED certification is valid for three years, and the MSME units are required to re-apply for the
certificate as per the validity of the scheme.
o Currently, the scheme is applicable for manufacturing MSMEs only. Statement 4 is incorrect. It is led
by Ministry of MSME.

Q22 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
All statements are incorrect
About VIPER Rover
• The Volatiles Investigating Polar Exploration Rover, or VIPER will get a close-up view of the
location and concentration of ice and other resources at the Moon's South Pole.
• It is NASA's first mobile robotic mission to the Moon. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• It will directly analyze ice on the surface and subsurface of the Moon at varying depths and
temperature conditions within four main soil environments. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The data VIPER transmits back to Earth will be used to create resource maps, helping scientists
determine the location and concentration of ice on the Moon and the forms it’s in, such as ice
crystals or molecules chemically bound to other materials.

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 • It navigates across the rugged terrain of the lunar South Pole and gathers valuable data that will
help us better understand the history of the Moon and the environment where NASA is planning to
send Artemis astronauts. Statement 3 is incorrect.
• Mission duration: 100 Earth days, covering 3 cycles of lunar day and night.
• It will land at the South Pole of the Moon in late 2024.

Q23 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1,3,4&5 are correct, Statement 2,6,7 are incorrect
Examples of Direct Tax
• Income Tax
• Corporation Tax
• Minimum Alternate Tax
• Capital Gain Tax
• Securities Transaction Tax
• Commodities Transaction Tax
• Alternate Minimum Tax
• Estate Duty
• Wealth Tax
• Gift Tax
• Fringe Benefits Tax
Examples of Indirect Tax
• Customs Duty
• Sales Tax
• Excise Duty
• Service Tax
• Value Added Tax
• Dividend Distribution Tax

Q24 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Statement 2,4 are correct, Statement 1,3 are incorrect
What is the Selection Process of Tableaux?
• The Ministry of Defence (MoD) is responsible for conducting the parade and coordinating
arrangements with States and other agencies. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Preparations for the ceremony, which has become synonymous with national pride and patriotism,
begin months in advance. This process includes the selection and shortlisting of tableaux.
Selection and Shortlisting:
• There is a standard procedure for selecting parade participants. Every year, months ahead of the
event, the MoD Invites States, UTs and departments to submit sketches or designs for tableaux on
a broad theme.
• For instance, the theme of 2024 is ‘Viksit Bharat’ (Developed India) and ‘Bharat-Loktantra ki
Matruka’ (India-Mother of Democracy).

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 • The sketch or design must be simple, colourful, easy to comprehend and avoid statistical data and
unnecessary details.
• The MoD constitutes a committee of experts from the fields of arts, culture, painting, sculpture,
music, architecture, and choreography, among others, to screen proposals. Statement 2 is correct.
What are the guidelines for tableau models and performers?
• Writing or use of logos on tableaux is not allowed except the name of states or Union Territories
that are presenting it.
• The names of the states should be written in Hindi in the front, in English on the back and in regional
language on the sides of the tableau.
• The number of performers on the trailer will not be more than 10 persons and artists performing on
or along the tableau should be from the concerned state/UT only. Statement 4 is correct.
• One tractor and one trailer upon which a tableau would be fabricated, would be provided by the
Ministry of Defence free of charge.
• There is no objection to the use of vehicles other than tractor and trailers for fabrication of tableaux
to give them a different look. But these vehicles will have to be arranged by the sponsoring
authorities themselves. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Q25 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Statement 1,2,3 & 6 are correct, Statement 4,5 are incorrect

Q26 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
All statements are correct
About BS Norms
• Bharat stage (BS) emission standards are laid down by the government to regulate the output of air
pollutants from internal combustion engine and spark-ignition engine equipment, including motor
vehicles.
• India has adopted BS Emission Standards since 2000, modelled on European Union norms.
Statement 1 is correct.
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 • The first emission norms with the name ‘India 2000’ were introduced in the year 2000. BS2 and
BS3 were introduced in 2005 and 2010, while BS4 norms came into effect in 2017 with stricter
emission standards or norms.
• The BS standards regulate tailpipe emissions of air pollutants, including particulate matter, SOx,
and NOx, as well as carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons, and methane.
Who sets them?
• The standards and timeline for implementation are set by the Central Pollution Control Board under
the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. Statement 2 is correct.
• In April 2020, India leapfrogged from BS-IV to the implementation of BS-VI. The central
government has mandated that vehicle makers must manufacture, sell, and register only BS-VI
(BS6) vehicles from April 1, 2020.
• It is applicable for cars, trucks, buses, three-wheelers, and two-wheelers (motorcycles, scooters,
and mopeds).
• This emission norm does not apply to off-highway equipment and vehicles such as tractors, back-
hoe loaders, excavators, etc.
Difference between BS-IV and BS-VI:
• Both BS-IV and BS-VI are unit emission norms that set the maximum permissible levels for
pollutants that an automotive or a two-wheeler exhaust can emit.
• Compared to BS4, BS6 emission standards are stricter.
• The main difference is in the amount of sulphur in the fuel, which is reduced from 50 ppm in BS
IV fuel to 10 ppm in BS VI fuel for both gasoline and diesel. Hence, BSVI engines produce less
harmful emissions and pollutants. Statement 3 is correct.

Q27 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Pair 2 is correct, Pairs 1,3& 4 are incorrect

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Q28 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Context: National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) completes 5 years.
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) launched NCAP in 2019 in the backdrop
of the rising air pollution in the country.
It is the first-ever effort in the country to frame a national framework for air quality management with a
time-bound reduction target. Statement 1 is correct.
About NCAP:
• About: Aims to improve air quality in 131 cities (non-attainment cities (NAC) and Million Plus
Cities) in 24 States by engaging all stakeholders.
• The cities which are exceeding the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for 5
consecutive years are identified as NAC by Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
• The NCAP’s initial target was to reduce two key air pollutants, PM10 and PM2.5, by 20-30% by
2024, with 2017 levels as the base. In September 2022, the Centre revised this to a 40% reduction
by 2026. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Implementation: CPCB at the national level.
• Under it, City Action Plan’s (CAPs) are implemented by state government and its agencies at state
and city level (Municipal bodies).
• PRANA (Portal for Regulation of Air-pollution in NAC) has been also launched monitor the
implementation of NCAP.
• NCAP's progress in last 5 years reveals a mixed scenario.
• As per studies, PM2.5 in 27 cities recorded improvements out of 49 cities. Similarly, for PM10, 24
cities saw an improvement out of 46.
• In terms of cities, Varanasi achieved a significant reduction in PM2.5 and PM10 levels, along with
Agra and Jodhpur.

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Q29 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
The Global Risks Report is published by the World Economic Forum.
WEF’s Global Risks report 2024: Misinformation, Economic Uncertainty, and Environmental Perils
Misinformation and Societal Polarization: The Global Risks Report 2024 highlights that risks posed by AI-
driven misinformation and disinformation are closely linked with societal polarization.
• Environment of Elections and Concerning Nexus of Misinformation and Societal Polarization:
With elections in major economies in the next two years, the main concern is for the nexus between
falsified information and potential societal unrest.
• Misinformation and disinformation is the 1st risk in India
Economic Uncertainty: There will be persistent economic uncertainty and widening economic and
technological gaps in the coming years.
Societal Issues: Over the longer term, a significant portion of the population may face challenges accessing
economic opportunities, potentially leading to societal issues.
Cost of Living Crisis: A persistent cost-of-living crisis may lead to uncertainties in the global economic
stability.
Noticeable Risks: Inflation and economic downturn have emerged noteworthy top risks.
Interstate Armed Conflict: The risk of interstate armed conflict is the immediate concern.
Risk of Conflict Contagion: The ongoing conflicts, coupled with underlying geopolitical tensions pose the
risk of conflict contagion.
Absence of Secure Livelihoods & Arising Threats: In the absence of secure livelihood options, individuals
may be prone to crime, militarization, or radicalization.
Growing Isolation: The Global Risks Report 2024 says countries with a history of conflict or vulnerability
to climate change may face growing isolation from investment, technologies and job opportunities.
Environmental Risks: There is continued dominance of environmental risks in the World.
• Severe Risks: Extreme weather events, critical shifts in Earth systems, biodiversity loss, ecosystem
collapse, natural resource shortages, and pollution emerge as severe risks over the next decade.

Q30 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
About India’s First Dark Sky Park:
• The Pench Tiger Reserve (PTR) in Maharashtra is India's first Dark Sky Park within a tiger reserve
for earmarking areas around the park that restrict light pollution for stargazers to access pristine
dark skies.
• Dark Sky Place certification focuses on lighting policy, dark sky-friendly retrofits, outreach and
education, and monitoring the night sky.
• This designation positions PTR as a sanctuary where tourists can witness celestial spectacles,
shielded from the intrusion of artificial light pollution.
• PTR became the fifth such park in Asia.
• The certification was given by the International Dark-Sky Association, a global dark-sky movement
to promote astronomy.
• Location: The Reserve is located in the southern reaches of the Satpura hills in the Seoni and
Chhindwara districts in Madhya Pradesh and continues in Nagpur district in Maharashtra as a
separate Sanctuary.

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Q31 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
About LiDAR
• Lidar, which stands for Light Detection and Ranging, is a remote sensing method that uses light in
the form of a pulsed laser to measure ranges (variable distances) to the Earth.
• These light pulses—combined with other data recorded by the airborne system — generate precise,
three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface characteristics.
Statement I is correct
• A lidar instrument principally consists of a laser, a scanner, and a specialized GPS receiver.
• Airplanes and helicopters are the most commonly used platforms for acquiring lidar data over broad
areas.
How Does It Work?
• A LiDAR system calculates how long it takes for beams of light to hit an object or surface and
reflect back to the laser scanner.
• The distance is then calculated using the velocity of light. These are known as ‘Time of Flight’
measurements.
Two types of lidar are topographic and bathymetric.
• Topographic lidar typically uses a near-infrared laser to map the land, while bathymetric lidar uses
water-penetrating green light to also measure seafloor and riverbed elevations.
Lidar systems allow scientists and mapping professionals to examine both natural and man-made
environments with accuracy, precision, and flexibility.
It is used in a wide range of land management and planning efforts, including hazard assessment (including
lava flows, landslides, tsunamis, and floods), forestry, agriculture, geologic mapping, and watershed and
river surveys.
What is the difference between Radar and LiDAR?
• LiDAR works in a similar way to Radar and Sonar yet uses light waves from a laser, instead of
radio or sound waves. Statement II is incorrect.

Q32 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
About Saqqara
• It is part of the necropolis (burial place) of the ancient Egyptian city of Memphis.
• It is located on the western bank of the Nile, 40 kilometres south of Cairo, the capital of Egypt.
• Saqqara’s name derives from the name of the burial god Sokar.
• It was an active burial ground for more than 3500 years and is Egypt’s largest archaeological site.
• Sakkara is best known for the Step Pyramid, the oldest of Egypt's 97 pyramids.
• It was built in 2700 BC for King Djoser (Zoser) of the 3rd Dynasty by the architect and genius
Imhotep, who was the first to build stone tombs in honor of the king's majesty.
• Today, it is considered one of the oldest stone structures built by man, and it was the first time the
Ancient Egyptians would attempt to use limestone.

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Q33 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:

Q34 ANSWER (C)

Explanation:
Statement 1,2&4 are correct, Statement 3 is incorrect
About Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
• It is the statutory committee constituted under the “Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export
and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules,
1989)” framed under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
• It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
Statement 1 is correct.
Functions:
• It is responsible for the approval of activities involving large-scale use of hazardous living
microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from an environmental
perspective. Statement 2 is correct.
• The committee is also responsible for the appraisal of proposals relating to the release of genetically
engineered (GE) organisms and products into the environment, including experimental field trials.
• Clearance of GEAC is mandatory for the environmental release of GM crops.
The committee or any person authorized by it has the power to take punitive action under the Environment
Protection Act. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Composition:
• GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a
representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT). Statement 4 is correct.
• Presently, it has 24 members and meets every month to review the applications in the areas
indicated above.
• The members comprise experts from other ministries as well as institutions such as the ICAR,
ICMR, CCMB, and so on.

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Q35 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
All statements are correct
Context:
Recently, India’s first National Highway Steel Slag road section (on NH-66 Mumbai-Goa National
Highway) was inaugurated. Statement 3 is correct.
More in news
• It was developed by CSIR-Central Road Research Institute (CSIR-CRRI) in collaboration with the
Union Ministry of Steel. Statement 1 is correct.
• It involved converting around 80,000 tons of CONARC Steel slag into processed steel slag
aggregates.
• The processed steel slag aggregates exhibit superior mechanical properties compared to natural
aggregates, making them a preferred choice for all layers of the road instead of natural aggregates.
• It is built with 28% less thickness in comparison to conventional bituminous roads.
Steel Slag Road Technology
• It is focused on Waste to Wealth, turning steel industry waste into a valuable resource, contributing
to the construction of robust and eco-friendly national highways in India.
• The technology involves processing the steel slag to remove impurities and metal content and then
using it as an aggregate for road base or sub-base layers. Statement 2 is correct.
• The processed steel slag has high strength, hardness, abrasion resistance, skid resistance, and
drainage capacity, making it suitable for road construction.
• CSIR-CRRI has implemented steel slag in road construction projects in Gujarat, Jharkhand,
Maharashtra and Arunachal Pradesh.
• The 1st road made with this technology in Surat, Gujarat, has become famous for its technological
excellence.
• Border Roads Organization (BRO) has constructed a steel slag road in Arunachal Pradesh along
with CRRI and Tata Steel on the India-China border.

Q36 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
Multi-institution study found India’s oldest living city in Vadnagar, Gujarat.
• Vadnagar town is a multi-layered and multi-cultural mercantile settlement with its history
stretching back to nearly 8th Century BCE.
• Explorations and excavations show evidence of a human settlement that is contemporary to Late-
Vedic/pre-Buddhist Mahajanapadas or oligarchic republics.
• The earliest archaeological record is the rock-inscription of Emperor Ashoka during the Mauryan
period (320-185 BCE) at Sudarsana Lake, Girnar hill, Gujarat.
• A joint study by the IIT Kharagpur has found evidence of cultural continuity in Vadnagar even after
the collapse of Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC), thus making it likely that the ‘Dark Age’ was a
myth.
• The period between the collapse of IVC and the emergence of the Iron Age and cities like Gandhar,
Koshal, and Avanti is often depicted as a Dark Age by archaeologists.
• Excavation revealed the presence of seven cultural stages (periods) namely, Mauryan, Indo-Greek,
Indo-Scythian or Shaka-Kshatrapas (AKA ‘Satraps’, descendants of provincial governors of
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 ancient Achaemenid Empires, Hindu-Solankis, Sultanate-Mughal (Islamic) to Gaekwad-British
colonial rule.
About Vadnagar
• It was a multicultural and multireligious (Buddhist, Hindu, Jain and Islamic) settlement, currently
located in the Mehsana district of North Gujarat, India.
• It is also known by names like Vridhanagar, Anandapur, Anantapur and Nagar.
• It is an L-shaped town with Sharmishtha Lake on its northeastern edge.
• The town represents a continuously evolving historic urban landscape/area which played a major
role in the hinterland trade network of Western India.
• World Heritage Site (UNESCO): Vadnagar was added to the tentative list in December 2022.

Q37 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context
India’s masur (lentil) production is estimated to touch an all-time high of 1.6 million tonnes in 2023-24.
About
• The total masur acreage has increased to 1.94 million hectares in the ongoing rabi season, when
compared to 1.83 million hectares in the year-ago period.
• Despite being the world’s largest producer and consumer of pulses, India imports certain pulses,
including masur and tur, to meet domestic shortages.
Production of Pulses in India
• India is the largest producer (25% of global production), consumer (27% of world consumption)
and importer (14%) of pulses in the world.
• Pulses account for around 20 percent (one-fifth) of the area under food grains and contribute around
7-10 percent of the total foodgrains production in the country. Statement 2 is correct
• Though pulses are grown in both Kharif and Rabi seasons, Rabi pulses contribute more than 60
percent of the total production. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Gram is the most dominant pulse having a share of around 40 percent in the total production
followed by Tur/Arhar at 15 to 20 percent and Urad/Black Matpe and Moong at around 8-10 percent
each.
• The main regions with high productivity are Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal
delta region, coastal Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, coastal and eastern Karnataka and some
parts of Maharashtra.

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Q38 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1,2,3&5 are correct, Statement 4 is incorrect.

Context:
Judges at the International Court of Justice (ICJ) opened two days of legal arguments in a case filed by
South Africa accusing Israel of genocide in Gaza war.
About Issue
• South Africa had moved the ICJ, invoking the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of
the Crime of Genocide, 1948, against Israel, accusing it of committing genocide during its ongoing
military campaign in Gaza.
• Both South Africa and Israel are signatories to the Genocide Convention of 1948.
• Earlier Instances: In 2019, the Gambia had approached the ICJ against Myanmar for its alleged
genocide against the Rohingya community.

Q39 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Why in news?
Recently, INS Cheetah, Guldar and Kumbhir were decommissioned from the service. They were
decommissioned after 40 years of service. The decommissioning event was conducted at Port Blair in a
traditional ceremony.
What are these ships?
• Built at: Gdynia Shipyard, Poland.
• They are Polnocny class Landing Ships.
o Note: The Polnocny class ships are amphibious warfare vessels.
• The INS Cheetah joined the Indian Navy in 1984, followed by Guldar in 1985, and Kumbhir in 1986.
• They were initially stationed in mainland India before establishing their permanent base in the
Andaman and Nicobar Command.

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What was significance of these ships?
• Over the years, these ships traversed a staggering 17 lakh nautical miles, spending over 12,300 days at
sea.
• They served as the backbone of amphibious operations in the region, conducting over 1300 beaching
operations to land troops ashore and secure the islands.
• The ships played a crucial role in numerous maritime security missions and humanitarian
assistance efforts.
• They participated in Operation Aman during the IPKF operations in Sri Lanka and Operation Tasha, a
joint venture with the Indian Coast Guard to curb smuggling and illegal immigration.
• They also provided critical relief in the aftermath of the 1997 cyclone in Sri Lanka and the devastating
2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami.

Q40 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
What are Quantum Gates?
• Quantum gates are fundamental components in quantum computing that manipulate quantum bits
or qubits.
• These gates perform operations on qubits, allowing the creation of quantum circuits that execute
complex calculations.
• Unlike classical bits in traditional computing, which can only be in a state of 0 or 1, qubits can exist
in superpositions of both states simultaneously.
• Quantum gates enable the implementation of quantum algorithms by performing operations such
as the application of quantum logic gates like Hadamard gates, CNOT (controlled NOT) gates, and
others.
What are the key applications of Quantum gates in quantum computing?
• Quantum Circuits: Quantum gates are used to construct quantum circuits, analogous to classical
circuits in traditional computers.
• Quantum Algorithms: Quantum gates play a vital role in implementing quantum algorithms, such
as Shor’s algorithm for integer factorization and Grover’s algorithm for unstructured search
problems.
• Quantum Machine Learning: Quantum gates are explored for applications in quantum machine
learning algorithms.

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Q41 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
All pairs are correct.

Ellu Birodhu in Karnataka; Hangrai in Tripura; Poush Sangkranti in West Bengal; Pusna in West Bengal,
Assam, and Meghalaya; Shishur Saenkraat in Kashmir Valley; Tusu in West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha;
and Uttarayan in Gujarat; Ugadi in Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka & Telangana; Nuakhai in Odisha; Onam in
Kerala; Gudi Padwa in Maharashtra, Karnataka & Andhra Pradesh, Khichdi in Eastern Uttar Pradesh and
Magh Bihu or Bhogali Bihu in Assam.
Significance of these festivals
• Harvest festivals signify cultural, social, and religious aspects.
• The festival is celebrated to mark the beginning of the harvesting season in the country and is
probably the only one that is celebrated in every region of India, on the same day, but in different
manners and names.
• Sun’s northward Movement: It is associated with the sun’s northward journey.

Q42 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
What is Green Fuels Alliance India (GFAI)?
• Green Fuels Alliance India (GFAI) is an alliance between the Denmark and India to boost
collaborative efforts in the sustainable energy solutions sector. Statement 1 is correct.
• Led by: Danish Embassy and the Consulate General of Denmark in India.
• Aim: to advance the green fuels sector, including green hydrogen, through innovation and
partnerships.
• Objective: To promote sustainable energy growth in India by establishing an ecosystem that
encourages collaboration among businesses, government entities, research institutions, and
financial stakeholders. Statement 2 is correct.

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Founding members of the GFAI
• Nine prominent Danish organisations such as Maersk, Topsoe, Umwelt Energy, Mash Makes,
European Sustainable Solutions, Novozymes, Danfoss, Brdr. Christensen, and Hydrogen Denmark.
Advisory board members of the GFAI
• India Hydrogen Alliance, Energy Consortium at the Indian Institute of Technology Madras, the
Danish Energy Agency and State of Green.

Q43 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
About Exercise Ayutthaya
• The India-Thailand Bilateral Exercise is being named as ‘Ex-Ayutthaya’, which literally translates
to ‘The Invincible One’ or ‘Undefeatable’.
• It symbolises the significance of two of the oldest cities Ayodhya in India and Ayutthaya in
Thailand, the historic legacies, rich cultural ties and shared historical narratives dating back to
several centuries.
• Indigenously built Indian Naval ships Kulish and IN LCU 56 participated in the inaugural edition
of the exercise.
• With the institution of a Bilateral Exercise, both navies have taken a step towards strengthening
operational synergy and progressively increasing the exercise complexity.
• During the maiden edition of the exercise, participating units from both navies conducted surface
and anti-air exercises including weapon firing, seamanship evolutions and tactical manoeuvres.
• The 36th edition of India-Thailand Coordinated Patrol (Indo-Thai CORPAT) was also conducted
along with the maiden bilateral exercise.
• Maritime Patrol Aircraft from both navies participated in the Sea Phase of the exercise.
• As part of Government of India's vision of SAGAR (Security And Growth for All in the Region),
the Indian Navy has been proactively engaging with countries in the Indian Ocean Region towards
enhancing regional maritime security.
• The Indian Navy and Royal Thai Navy have maintained a close and friendly relationship which has
strengthened over the years.

Q44 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
About Instrument Landing System
• It is a ground-based radio navigation system that provides pilots with accurate information about their
aircraft's position and alignment with the runway. Statement I is correct.
It comprises two main components, the localiser, and the glide slope,
o The localizer ensures lateral alignment, guiding the aircraft along the correct azimuth toward the
runway centreline.
o Simultaneously, the glide slope provides vertical guidance, aiding pilots in maintaining the proper
descent angle for a safe landing.
• It guides pilots along both horizontal and vertical axes, aiding them in maintaining the correct approach
path during low-visibility conditions. Statement II is correct.
• With the help of ILS systems, pilots are able to understand how their aircraft is positioned with respect
to an airport runway without needing to physically see it.
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• This system warns pilots in case their jets are not flying to meet the runway's centreline.
• It will also warn pilots in case their jets are too low or too high and thus, at the risk of undershooting
or overshooting the runway.
• Both of these tasks performed by the Instrument Landing System are crucial in ensuring landing in
cases where the pilots aren't able to see the runway clearly.
• In addition to ILS, modern aircraft are equipped with advanced avionics and autopilot systems that
enhance precision during foggy landings.
• These systems, often coupled with radar altimeters, help maintain a stable descent and ensure the
aircraft follows the designated glide path with minimal reliance on external visibility.
• It is a standard International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) precision landing aid that is used to
provide accurate azimuth (angular measurement in a spherical coordinate system) and descent guidance
signals for guidance to flight for landing on the runway under adverse weather conditions.

Q45 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context
A nine-member committee headed by former Principal Scientific Advisor to government, K Vijay
Raghavan has submitted its report recently.
About Committee
• It was set up by the Ministry of Defence (MoD) in 2023 to review the functioning of the Defence
Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
• Need: The government’s decision to review the functioning of DRDO comes against the backdrop
of several of its projects suffering from huge delays.
Major Recommendations:
• Set up Defence Technology Council: Chaired by the Prime Minister, with the Defence Minister and
the National Security Advisor as its Vice Presidents
• It should determine the country’s defence technology roadmap and decide on major projects and
their execution
• It is proposed to have an executive committee chaired by the Chief of Defence Staff.
• The Principal Scientific Advisor, along with the three service chiefs and their vice chiefs, will also
be its members.
• Furthermore, it will include representation from academia and industry, with two members from
each sector.
• Department of Defence Science, Technology, and Innovation: It is proposed to be headed by a
technocrat, will not only promote defence research and development in the academic and start-up
ecosystem but also serve as the secretariat for the Defence Tech Council, chaired by the Prime
Minister.
• It will draw scientists from DRDO and academia, building a repository of knowledge on production
expertise and conducting background research for the DTC, hence aiding its decisions on
technology production.
• For DRDO: The DRDO should focus on its original goal of research and development for defence
and refrain from involving itself in productization, production cycles, and product management,
tasks that are more suitable for the private sector.
• At present, DRDO remains engaged in all aspects, from research to development to production, in
its projects.
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Q46 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context
The government has launched the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)
e-SAKSHI Mobile Application for revised fund flow procedure under MPLAD Scheme.
About
• The mobile app would offer convenience and accessibility, allowing MPs to propose, track, and
oversee the projects at their fingertips.
• This real-time access enhances decision-making processes, enabling swift responses to emerging
needs or issues.
• The application will streamline the communication between MPs and relevant authorities,
facilitating a more efficient exchange of information.
About MPLAD Scheme
• The MPLADS is a Plan Scheme fully funded by the Government of India.
• The annual MPLADS fund entitlement per MP constituency is Rs. 5 crores.
• MPs are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15 percent of the MPLADS entitlement
for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 percent for areas inhabited
by Scheduled Tribes population.
• Lok Sabha Members can recommend works within their Constituencies and Elected Members of
Rajya Sabha can recommend works within the State of Election.
• Nominated Members of both the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha can recommend works anywhere in
the country.
• All works to meet locally felt infrastructure and development needs, with an emphasis on creation
of durable assets in the constituency are permissible under MPLADS as prescribed in the scheme
guidelines.

Q47 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:

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The India-China Borders:
• India considers the LAC to be 3,488 km long, while the Chinese consider it to be only around 2,000
km.
• It is divided into three sectors: the eastern sector which spans Arunachal Pradesh and Sikkim, the
middle sector in Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh, and the western sector in Ladakh.
• Western Sector or Aksai Chin Sector: The region is claimed by the Chinese government post-1962
war as an autonomous part of the Xinjiang region which was originally a part of the Indian state of
Jammu and Kashmir.
• Middle Sector: It is the less disputed section of the Indo-China border but the recent Doklam
standoff and Nathu La Pass trading issues have brought distress at all levels.
• Eastern Sector or Arunachal Pradesh: McMahon Line had differentiated India and China in this
sector but in the 1962 war the People’s Liberation Army covered 9000 sq. km. area.
• The announcement of a unilateral ceasefire made them step back on the international borderline.
• However, China has been claiming that area as their own and recently they have started to claim
the whole of Arunachal Pradesh as their own.

Q48 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Pair 1 is correct, Pairs 2,3,4 are incorrect
Mount Merapi, is an active stratovolcano located on the border between the province of Central Java and
the Special Region of Yogyakarta, Indonesia. It is the most active volcano in Indonesia and has erupted
regularly since 1548.
Nyiragongo (Democratic Republic of the Congo): This volcano has been erupting continuously since
October 2023, with lava flows and gas emissions posing a threat to nearby communities.
Bagana (Papua New Guinea): Ongoing eruptions since December 2023, are generating ash and lava flows
in this frequently active volcano.
Lewotobi (Indonesia): Situated on Flores Island, Lewotobi's eruption started on December 2023. It is
ejecting ash and lava flows, impacting nearby villages.

Q49 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
All statements are correct
How are airlines supposed to respond to incidents of unruly passenger behaviour?
The DGCA has issued guidelines known as ‘Civil Aviation Requirements (CAR) ‘to all airlines. It outlines
procedures to be followed in handling varying degrees of unruly passenger behaviour during and after
incidents. Statement 1 is correct.
• The airline should first notify passengers that unruly behaviour, as per guidelines, may lead to
possible arrest.
• If the pilots and central control determine that cabin crew cannot manage the unruly passenger, they
must promptly land at the nearest airport.
• Upon landing, an airline representative will file an FIR (First Information Report) with the relevant
security agency at the aerodrome, where the unruly passenger will be handed over.
There are 3 different levels of unruly passenger behaviour outlined in the guidelines: Statement 2 is
correct.
1. Level 1: Unruly behaviour, including physical gestures, verbal harassment, and unruly inebriation.

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 2. Level 2: Physically abusive behaviour, including pushing, kicking, hitting, and grabbing or
inappropriate touching or sexual harassment.
3. Level 3: Life-threatening behaviour, including damage to aircraft operating systems, physical
violence such as choking, eye gouging, murderous assault, and attempted or actual breach of flight
crew compartment.
What penalties can unruly behaviour by a flight passenger attract?
• The airline can ban the unruly passenger for up to 30 days immediately after the incident.
• If the Internal Committee doesn’t reach a decision within 30 days, the passenger will be allowed to
fly. Statement 3 is correct.
• Airlines must keep a database of unruly passengers, sharing it with the DGCA and other airlines to
maintain a No-Fly List.
• Level 1 and 2 offenses may result in flying bans of up to three months and six months, respectively.
• Level 3 offense incurs a minimum 2-year ban with no maximum limit.
• Appeal- Banned individuals can appeal within 60 days to an Appellate Committee led by a retired
High Court judge. An appeal against the appellate panel’s decision shall be made to a High Court.
Statement 4 is correct.

Q50 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
All pairs are correct
Kolam Tribe:
• Kolam tribes, also known as Kolamboli, Kulme and Kolmi, occupy a major portion of Madhya
Pradesh.
• The main concentration of this tribe is on the plains and in the mountainous region.
• These tribal groups are reckoned as scheduled tribes and apart from Madhya Pradesh they reside in
some parts of Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh.
• They are listed as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in the state of Maharashtra and
Andhra Pradesh.
Nyishi Tribe:
• They are people of eastern Bhutan and Arunachal Pradesh, a mountainous state in northeastern
India.
• They speak the Tibeto-Burman language of the Sino-Tibetan family.
• The Nyishi support themselves with slash-and-burn agriculture and with hunting and fishing.
Mankidia Tribe:
• The Mankidia are a nomadic tribal group of people who live in Odisha.
• The term ‘Mankidia’ is derived from Odia's word ‘Mankada’ meaning monkey.
• This is in reference to their ability in catching monkeys.
• They are categorised as a particularly vulnerable tribal group.
• The group is an offshoot of the Birhor tribe of the Chota Nagpur region.
Tharu Tribe:
• The community belongs to the Terai lowlands, amid the Shivaliks of the lower Himalayas. Most of
them are forest dwellers and some practise agriculture.
• The word Tharu is related to the followers of Theravada Buddhism.
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 • The Tharus live in both India and Nepal.
• In the Indian Terai, they live mostly in Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar.

Q51 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Statement 2& 3 are correct, Statement 1 is incorrect.
Context
The Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, has prepared a draft ‘Indian Stamp Bill, 2023’ to align
with the modern stamp duty regime.
About
• The Bill intends to replace the Indian Stamp Act, 1899. It is a fiscal statute, laying down the law
relating to tax levied in the form of stamps on instruments recording transactions. Statement 2 is
correct.
• Stamp duties are levied by the Central Government, but within the States are collected and
appropriated by the concerned States in terms of provisions of Article 268 of the Constitution.
Statement 3 is correct.
Stamp duties
• Stamp duty is a government indirect tax, which is levied on all legal property transactions.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Union List: Stamp duties on documents specified in Entry 91 of the Union List in the 7th Schedule
of the Constitution (viz. Bills of Exchange, cheques, promissory notes, bills of lading, letters of
credit, policies of insurance, transfer of shares, debentures, proxies and receipts) are levied by the
Union.
• State List: Stamp duties on documents specified in entry 63 are levied and collected by the States.
• Concurrent List: Stamp duties other than duties or fees collected by means of judicial stamps, but
not including rates of stamp duty which fall within the scope of Entry 91 and Entry 63 mentioned
above, fall under Entry 44 of the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule.

Q52 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1,4 are correct, Statement 2,3 are incorrect
Coastal Regulation Zone
CRZ along the country has been placed in four categories:
1. CRZ-1: These are ecologically sensitive areas; these are essential in maintaining the ecosystem of
the coast. They lie between low and high tide lines. Exploration of natural gas and extraction of salt
are permitted. Statement 1 is correct.
2. CRZ-2: These areas are urban areas located in the coastal areas. Statement 2 is incorrect.
3. CRZ-3: Rural and urban localities which fall outside the CRZ-1 and CRZ-2. Only certain activities
related to agriculture and even some public facilities are allowed in this zone. Statement 3 is
incorrect.
4. CRZ-4: This lies in the aquatic area up to territorial limits. Fishing and allied activities are permitted
in this zone. No Solid waste should be let off in this zone. Statement 4 is correct.

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Coastal Zone Management Plan (CZMP)
• Coastal zone management plans (CZMP) are designed to promote sustainable development within
coastal zone environments.
• Till now the CZMP has been approved for Odisha, Karnataka and Maharashtra and ICRZP has
been approved for Great Nicobar Island and Little Andaman Island as per CRZ Notification, 2019.
Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) notification, 2019
• The notification implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(MoEFCC) classifies the coastal area into different zones to manage infrastructure activities and
regulate them.
• It incorporates recommendations of the Shailesh Nayak committee which looked into the concerns
relating to the CRZ, 2011 notification.

Q53 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Statement 2,3 are correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
Context
The Ministry of Power issued Electricity (amendment) Rules, 2024, under the aegis of the Electricity Act,
2003.
About
• Exemption in license requirement: The rules allow consumers which have specified energy load and
Energy Storage Systems (ESS) to establish, operate and maintain their dedicated transmission lines
themselves without the requirement of license. Statement 1 is incorrect.
o The rule covers those companies / persons who have loaded more than 25 megawatts and 10
megawatts on inter-state and intra-state transmission networks.
• New formula to reduce open access charges: It prescribed, if a person availing General Network Access
(GNA) or Open Access, the additional surcharge shall be linearly reduced and get eliminated within
four years from the date of grant of access. Statement 2 is correct.
Open access charges
✓ Open access charges are levied by power distribution companies (discoms) on those consumers
which buy electricity from any other source.

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 ✓ These charges were capped by the union ministry of power but the discoms started levying a variety
of other charges such as additional surcharge.
• Cost reflective tariff: There shall not be any gap between approved Annual Revenue Requirement and
estimated annual revenue from approved tariff except under natural calamity conditions. Statement 3
is correct.
o Such a gap, created if any, shall not be more than three percent of the approved Annual
Revenue Requirement.
Significance
• Affordable electricity: The rules will ensure the reduction of discom losses and increased
efficiency, leading to them being able to provide better services to the consumers.
• Industrial development: Doing away with the requirement of license for dedicated transmission
lines for industry will lead to ease of doing business for the industry.
• Promotion of renewable energy: Rationalization of open access charges will lead to faster adoption
of renewable energy by the industry and reducing emission.

Q54 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
• The fertilizer subsidy in India has two components: urea subsidy and nutrient-based subsidy
(NBS).
• Urea is the most widely used nitrogenous fertilizer in India, accounting for about 80% of the total
consumption. Urea is sold at a statutorily notified uniform maximum retail price (MRP).
• The Nutrient Subsidy (NBS) scheme was introduced in 2010 to replace the earlier administered
pricing system for decontrolled phosphatic and potassic (P&K) fertilizers. Statement I is correct.
• Under the NBS scheme, the government fixes a per kg subsidy rate for each nutrient, i.e., nitrogen
(N), phosphorus (P), potash (K) and sulphur (S), based on their nutrient content, international and
domestic prices and exchange rate.
• The manufacturers/importers/marketers are free to decide the MRP of P&K fertilizers at
reasonable levels. The subsidy is paid to them on receipt of fertilizers in district warehouses.
• The Food Subsidy gets the maximum share in the total subsidy given by the Central Government
of India. Statement II is incorrect.
Steps Taken to Reform Fertilizer Subsidy
• Introducing the Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme in 2010 to rationalize the subsidy on P&K
fertilizers and encourage balanced use of nutrients.
• Implementing the neem coating of urea in 2015 to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of urea
and reduce its diversion and black marketing.
• Launching the direct benefit transfer (DBT) system for fertilizer subsidy in 2018 to ensure timely
and transparent payment of subsidy to the manufacturers/importers based on actual sales to farmers
through point of sale (PoS) devices.
• Increasing the subsidy rates for NBS nutrients in 2021 and 2022 to ensure adequate availability and
affordable prices for farmers despite the uptrend in the international market.
• Converting the existing village, block/sub-district/taluk and district-level fertilizer retail outlets into
model fertilizer retail outlets called Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samridhi Kendra (PMKSK) to act as
“one-stop shop” for all agriculture-related inputs and services.

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Q55 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1,2,4,5&6 are correct, Statement 3 is incorrect

Q56 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
About Qanat system
• It is an ancient type of water-supply system, developed and still used in arid regions of the world.
• It taps underground mountain water sources trapped in and beneath the upper reaches of alluvial
fans and channels the water downhill through a series of gently sloping tunnels.
• The qanats have been used for centuries in arid and semi-arid parts of north Africa, the Middle East
and Asia, where water supplies are limited.
• It’s known by a variety of names, “foggara” in north Africa, “falaj” in Oman and “qarez” in parts
of Asia.
• Many old qanāts are still used in Iran and Afghanistan, chiefly for irrigation.
• It’s a system that’s managed by everyone and its benefits are shared.
• Some of the region’s qanat systems, like those in Iran, are protected under heritage status.
Significance of the system
• The qanat is sustainable as it works with gravity and no electricity is needed. It can even be used to
create clean energy.
• Water lost to evaporation is minimal in comparison to surface water supplies.
• It can have a wide scale impact. Qanats are multiple kilometres long and once this water hits a
floodplain, it can irrigate multiple hectares of land.
• It fosters social cohesion. Many people, with different skills, are involved in maintaining the
system.
• The lifespan of the system extends beyond that of a deep water well, which is only about 20 years.
Tunnels do not clog as easily as wells.
• The quality of water coming from the mountains is much better than water on the plains. It’ll have
lower salinity and be better for crops and people.

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Q57 ANSWER (C)
Explanation:
About Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF)
• USOF was set up by an Act of Parliament in December 2003 by amending the Indian Telegraph
Act, 1885. Statement 1 is correct.
• The objective of the USOF is to provide access to telecom services in a non-discriminatory manner
to people in rural and remote areas at affordable and reasonable prices, thereby bridging the rural-
urban digital divide.
• For commercially non-viable rural and remote areas, USOF provides subsidy support in the form
of Net Cost or Viability Gap Funding (VGF) to incentivize telecom service providers for the
expansion of telecommunications and broadband services in those areas.
Funding Mechanism:
• The USOF is funded through a levy on the revenue earned by telecom operators.
• The government imposes a Universal Service Levy (USL) on the gross revenue of the telecom
companies, which is a percentage of their Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR). Statement 2 is correct.
• This levy is collected and deposited into the USOF.
Administration:
• USOF is headed by the Administrator, USO Fund who is appointed by the Central Government,
for the administration of the fund.
• It is an attached office of the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of
Communications.

Q58 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has developed an improvised Distress Alert Transmitter
(DAT) with advanced capabilities and features for the fishermen at sea to send emergency messages from
fishing boats.
• The first version of DAT has been operational since 2010.
• The fishermen at sea send emergency messages from fishing boats.
• The messages are sent through a communication satellite and received at a central control station
(INMCC: Indian Mission Control Centre) where the alert signals are decoded for the identity and
location of the fishing boat.
• The extracted information is forwarded to Maritime Rescue Co-ordination Centres (MRCCs) under
Indian Coast Guard (ICG).
• Using this information, the MRCC co-ordinates to undertake Search and Rescue operations to save
the fishermen at distress.

Q59 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
After relocating deer from Cuttack, the Odisha state government is planning to introduce Sambar and Gaur
(bison) in the Chandaka-Dampara wildlife sanctuary.
• It is located in Khurda district of Odisha represents the north-eastern limits of Eastern Ghats.

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 • It is also a home to a number of threatened wild animals and birds.
• This landscape has got a sanctuary status in 1982.
• The climate of the area is tropical climate with three distinct and well-marked seasons i.e. summer,
Rainy season and winter.
• Vegetation: Flora is moderately diverse with intimate mixture of evergreen and deciduous elements.
The area comes under semi-evergreen forest zone but the interplay of biotic factors has changed
the original character of the vegetation.
• Flora: Dhaman (Grewia Tiliaefolia), Bankapasia (Kydia calycina), Jamu (Syzyggium Cuminii),
Gandhana (Premna mucronata), Kansa (Hymenodictyon excelsum), Kusum (Schleichera oleosa),
Marua (Vitex pinnata), Sidha (Lagerstroemia parviflora), Karanja, Thorny bamboo etc.
• Fauna: Elephants, Chital, Barking Deer, Wild Boar, Rhesus Monkey, Pangolin, Sloth Bear, Indian
Wolf, Hyena and other mammals.

Q60 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Pair 1,2&4 are correct, Pair 3 is incorrect
Guruvayur Temple
• Guruvayoor Sree Krishna Swamy Temple, also known as the Dwarka of the South, is dedicated to
Lord Vishnu and the young form of Lord Krishna.
• It is located in the small town of Guruvayur, in the Thrissur District of Kerala.
Kothandaramaswamy Temple
• The Kothandaramaswamy Temple, situated in Rameswaram, Tamil Nadu, stands as a shrine
dedicated to the revered Hindu deity Rama.
• Recognized as one of the 108 Abhimana Kshethram of the Vaishnavate tradition, the temple holds
cultural and historical significance.
Jatar Deul Temple
• Jatar Deul also called tower temple (rekha-deul), is located in the numerous rivers criss-crossed by
stone-free alluvial and bush landscape of the southern Sundarbans settlements in West Bengal. Pair
3 is incorrect.
• The temple has a curvilinear tower similar to temple architecture of the Nagara order of Odisha
temples.
Chausath Yogini Temple
• It is situated in Mitaoli village, in Morena district of Madhya Pradesh.
• It is circular, with 64 chambers dedicated to the 64 yoginis, and a central shrine dedicated to Shiva.

Q61 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
About Soligas and Yeravas
• Indigenous groups Soligas and Yeravas have been living in the Cauvery Basin and the surrounding
hills of peninsular India for thousands of years.
• Soligas, one of the oldest indigenous communities in the country, are the original inhabitants of
Karnataka and live mostly in the Chamarajanagar and Mandya districts.

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 • Honey is an important part of the diet for the Soliga people, who still forage large parts of their
food from the biodiversity-rich Ghats.
• They reside in the peripheral forest areas near Biligiri Rangana Hills and Male Mahadeshwara.
• They are the first tribal community living inside the core area of a tiger reserve in India to get their
forest rights officially recognised by a court of law.
• Soligas use Silver cockscomb as a nutritious leafy green vegetable, as it is high in nutrients such as
beta-carotene and folic acids, and has vitamin E, calcium and iron.
• Also the scientific community has named a new genus (Soliga ecarinata) of wasp after this
community.
Who are Yeravas?
• The Yeravas, on the other hand, came to the state from Wayanad district in Kerala and settled in
Kodagu district of the state.
• Yeravas use more tubers than Soligas.
• Language: They speak their own language of Ravula.
• Mushrooms become part of the Yerava diet during monsoons
• Issues: The food that Soligas and Yeravas depend on for survival is now affected by changes in
land use and shifting policies. Worse, traditional knowledge is steadily being lost as young people
are migrating out.

Q62 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
• The Union government recently launched India’s first graphene centre (IICG) in Kerala.
• The centre was established to foster research and development, product innovation and capacity
building in the area of graphene and 2D material systems.
• Along with the IICG, the Centre of Excellence (CoE) in IIoT Sensors was also launched.
• It aims to catalyse the development of sensors within the realm of Intelligent IoT systems covering
a broad spectrum of applications of intelligent sensors in networks and devices.
• The IoT is a network of interconnected devices that communicate and share data with each other
through the internet.
About the Graphene
• Graphene, a single layer of carbon atoms arranged in a honeycomb lattice, holds immense potential
for revolutionizing various industries due to its extraordinary properties.
Properties: It is the world’s thinnest, strongest, and most conductive material of both electricity and heat.
• It conducts electricity better than copper.
• It is 200 times stronger than steel but six times lighter. It is almost perfectly transparent as it absorbs
only 2% of light.
• It is impermeable to gases, even those as light as hydrogen and helium.

Q63 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Statement 1,2 are correct, Statement 3 is incorrect
Context
The Prime Minister has inaugurated the sixth edition of the Khelo India Youth Games in Chennai.
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Sixth edition of the Khelo India Youth Games
• Venue: Four cities of Tamil Nadu: Chennai, Madurai, Trichy and Coimbatore from 19th to 31st
January 2024.
• Logo: Statue of Thiruvalluvar
• Mascot: ‘Veera Mangai’ (brave woman) Velu Nachiyar
• Rani Velu Nachiyar, the princess of Ramanathapuram was the first queen to fight against the British
colonial power for freedom in India. She is known by Tamils as Veeramangai.
New developments:
Archery, athletics, badminton, and squash have been introduced in this edition. Statement 2 is correct.
Silambam, a traditional sport of Tamil Nadu, is being introduced as a demo sport. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Background: The first edition was organised in 2018 in Delhi by the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports
to revive the sports culture in India at the grass-root level. Statement 1 is correct.

Q64 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
All pairs are correct
Classification of the Nagara Style of Temple Architecture
Adam Hardy classifies the Nagara style of temple architecture based on the style of Shikhara:
Valabhi
• They have barrel-vaulted roofs and are rectangular in design.
• An example of this style is the Teli Ka Mandir, a 9th-century temple in Gwalior.
Phamsana
• These Nagara-style temples are shorter and broader structures.
• Multiple slabs rise upwards in a moderate slope on a straight incline like a pyramid, meeting at a
single point above the building’s mid-point.
• An example of this style is the Jagmohan of Konark Temple.
Rekha-Prasad or Latina
• It emerged from the previous styles (Valabhi,phamsana).
• These temples feature a basic Shikara, a slightly curved tower with four sides of equal length.
• It remained the most refereed style till the 10th century.
• E.g: Sun Temple at Markhera in Madhya Pradesh (MP) and the Sri Jagannath Temple in Odisha.
Shekhari
• From the tenth century onwards, composite Latinas began to emerge, giving rise to Shekhari and
Bhumija styles.
• It has a primary Rekha-Prasad Shikara and one or more rows of lesser steeples (a tower with a
pointed top) on both sides of the centre spire.
• Mini Shikaras can also be found at the base and on the corners.
• The Kandariya Mahadev Temple in Khajuraho is a notable example of this style
Bhumija
• It was developed in Malwa under the Paramara dynasty.
• It has miniature spires in horizontal and vertical rows all the way to the top, creating a grid-like
effect on each face. The actual shikhara often approaches a pyramidal shape.
• The Udayeshwar Temple in Madhya Pradesh is an example of this architectural style.

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Nagara Style of Temple Architecture:

Q65 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Japan’s SLIM spacecraft lands on moon, a 1st for the country.
• SLIM – The Smart Lander for Investigating Moon is a lightweight spacecraft about the size of a
passenger vehicle.
• It is nicknamed as ‘the Moon Sniper’.
• Japan became the 5th country in world to reach the lunar surface following the United States, the
Soviet Union, China and India. Statement 1 is correct.
• Main goals – To test new landing technology that would allow moon missions to land ‘where we
want to land’ and to seek clues about the origin of the moon and analysing minerals with a special
camera.
• Launched by – Mitsubishi Heavy H2A rocket from the Tanegashima Space Centre on Tanegashima
Island, Japan.
• Space agency – Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).
• Scientific instrument – It was carrying 2 small autonomous probes lunar excursion vehicles LEV-
1 and LEV-2.
• LEV-1 is tasked with recording SLIM’s landing while LEV-2 is a ball-shaped rover equipped with
2 cameras.
• Landing – It was aiming to land near the Shioli crater, near a region covered in volcanic rock by
using “pinpoint landing” technology to provide greater control than any previous moon landing.
Statement 2 is correct.
• While most previous probes have used landing zones about 10 km wide, SLIM was aiming at a
target of just 100 m.
• Descent path – At an altitude of 5 kms, the lander was in a vertical descent mode, then at 50 m
above the surface, it was supposed to make a parallel movement to find a safe landing spot.

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Q66 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1,2 are correct, Statement 3 is incorrect.
• Hypersonic Missiles – They fly at speeds of at least Mach 5 and are highly manoeuvrable and able
to change course during flight. Statement 1 is correct.
• Hypersonic speed is at least more than 5 times the speed of sound (Mach 5) or about 6,200 km per
hour.
• It can also be launched from a submarine and a frigate.
• Hypersonic glide vehicles – Glide vehicle are launched from a rocket which leaves the Earth’s
atmosphere and then plunges back into it. Statement 2 is correct.
• Hypersonic cruise missiles - They are powered by high-speed, air-breathing engines, that can
sustain flight on its own through the atmosphere like a cruise missile.
• Advantages - It can’t be detected easily because of its speed, manoeuvrability and low altitude of
flight.
• Fractional orbital bombardment system (FOBS) – The missile can launch the glide vehicle partially
into orbit which could strip adversaries of reaction time and traditional defence mechanisms.
• Different from Ballistic missiles – While both can travel at hypersonic speeds, ballistic missiles
follow only set trajectories and limited manoeuvrability. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Q67 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Jeddah Convention of 1982, the ‘Regional Convention for the Conservation of the Red Sea and Gulf of
Aden Environment’ aims at protection of coastal and marine environment from pollution and the rational
management of living marine resources that also lead to establishment of PERSGA (Programme for the
Environment of the Red Sea and Gulf of Aden) in 1995.

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Q68 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Second Thomas Shoal
• 2nd Thomas Shoal is a submerged reef in the Spratly Islands of the South China Sea.
• Ren’Ai Reef is the Chinese name for what the Philippines call Ayungin Shoal and the U.S. calls
the Second Thomas Shoal
• The shoal is located 105 nautical miles west of Palawan, Philippines and lies within Manila’s
Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).
• The shoal is a disputed territory and is claimed by China, the Philippines, Taiwan (ROC) and
Vietnam.
Where is the South China Sea?
• The South China Sea is an arm of western Pacific Ocean in Southeast Asia.
• It is south of China, east & south of Vietnam, west of the Philippines and north of the island of
Borneo.
• It is connected by Taiwan Strait with the East China Sea and by Luzon Strait with the Philippine
Sea.
• Bordering states & territories: the People’s Republic of China, the Republic of China (Taiwan), the
Philippines, Malaysia, Brunei, Indonesia, Singapore and Vietnam.
Contesting Claims Over Islands:
• The Paracel Islands are claimed by China, Taiwan and Vietnam.
• The Spratly Islands are claimed by China, Taiwan, Vietnam, Brunei and Philippines.
• The Scarborough Shoal is claimed by the Philippines, China and Taiwan.

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Q69 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2&3 are incorrect
What is Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar (PMRBP)?
• The PMRBP is organized to celebrate the energy, determination, ability, zeal and enthusiasm of
children.
• The awards are conferred upon the children for their excellence in seven categories, viz. Art &
Culture, Bravery, Environment, Innovation, Science & Technology, Social Service and Sports,
which deserve national recognition. Statement 1 is correct.
• Each awardee of PMRBP is given a medal, cash prize of Rs. 1 Lakh, a Certificate and a Citation.
• The selection of awardees was made by a Selection Committee under the chairpersonship of the
Union Minister for Women and Child Development. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Awards are given by the President of India in the week preceding Republic Day every year.
Background:
• The Government of India has been conferring awards to children for their exceptional
achievements.
• The awards for child welfare were also conferred, to individuals as well as institutions.
These awards were given in the following categories:
1. National Child Award for Exceptional Achievements - since 1996.
2. National Child Welfare Award (Individual) - since 1979.
3. National Child Welfare Award (Institution) - since 1979.
4. Rajiv Gandhi Manav Sewa Award - since 1994.
Since 2017-18, these Awards were given under the following categories:
• Bal Shakti Puraskar (Earlier known as National Child Award).
• Bal Kalyan Puraskar [Individual & Institution] (Earlier known as National Child Welfare Award).
• From the year 2022 onwards, Bal Kalyan Puraskar (both Individual and Institution) has been closed
and Bal Shakti Puraskar has been subsumed under Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar.
Eligibility:
• A child who is an Indian Citizen and is a resident of India.
• A Child above the age of 5 years and not exceeding 18 years (as on 31st July of respective year).
Statement 3 is incorrect.
• The act/incident/achievement should have been within 2 years of the last date of receipt of
application/nomination for the year of consideration.
Number of Awardees:
25, however, any relaxation to this maximum number may be permitted at the discretion of the National
Selection Committee.

Q70 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
• Google's Threat Analysis Group (TAG) revealed that the Russian hacking group COLDRIVER is
engaged in credential phishing against high-profile targets, including NGOs, former intelligence
and military officers, and NATO governments. COLDRIVER conducts campaigns targeting
Ukraine, NATO countries, academic institutions, and NGOs.

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 • The group impersonates experts or individuals affiliated with the targets, sending innocuous-
looking PDF documents for feedback.
• If the target attempts to open the document, it appears encrypted. COLDRIVER then provides a
link to a supposed decryption utility, which is a backdoor called SPICA, enabling the hackers to
control infected devices and execute various commands.
• SPICA is a customer malware tool written in Rust. It uses the websocket communication for
commanding and controlling affected devices.
• It will allow the attackers to execute many commands on infected devices, including executing
arbitrary shell commands, stealing cookies from Chrome, Firefox, Opera and Edge, uploading and
downloading files, using the filesystem, exfiltrating documents and more.

Q71 ANSWER (b)

Statement 1,2 are correct, Statement 3,4 are incorrect
Explanation:
Key aspects Description
It regulates foreign donations and ensures that such contributions do not
About
adversely affect internal security

In 1976 during Emergency period amidst the apprehensions that foreign

Established powers were interfering in India’s affairs by pumping money through
independent organisations
Implementation Ministry of Home Affairs. Statement 1 is correct.
To all associations, groups and NGOs which intend to receive foreign
Applicability
donations.
Consolidated the law on utilisation of foreign funds, and to prohibit their
2010 Amendment
use for “any activities detrimental to national interest”.
Gave the Government tighter control and scrutiny over the receipt and
2020 Amendment
utilisation of foreign funds by NGOs.
Filing of annual returns The annual returns must be filed on the lines of Income Tax.
It means the donation, delivery
Foreign contribution
or transfer made by any foreign source
How foreign funds can be All NGOs must receive foreign funds in a designated bank account
availed by NGOs at SBI’s New Delhi branch.
Utilised only for the purpose for which they have been received and as
Utilisation of foreign funds
stipulated in the Act.
It must have a definite cultural, economic, educational, religious or social
Who can receive foreign
programme with prior FCRA registration/ permission from the Central
contribution?
Government.

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 The candidates for elections, journalists or newspaper and media
Who cannot receive foreign broadcast companies, judges and Government servants, members of
contribution? legislature and political parties or their office-bearers, and organisations
of a political nature. Statement 2 is correct.
It is mandatory for all the office-bearers, directors and other key
Aadhaar provision
functionaries of an NGO.
It was capped at 20% of the total foreign funds received, earlier the upper
Administrative expenses
limit was 50%
It barred sub-granting by NGOs to smaller NGOs who work at the grass
Bar on sub-granting
roots level.

What is the procedure for FCRA registration?

• Apply online- NGOs must apply online for FCRA registration with the required documents and
information.
• Role of Intelligence Bureau (IB)- Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) verifies the background and
objectives of the applicant through the Intelligence Bureau. Statement 4 is incorrect.
• Eligibility- The applicant must not be involved in any illegal or anti-national activities, such as
religious conversion, communal violence, fund misuse, or sedition.
• Time frame-The MHA must decide on the application within 90 days, or inform the NGO of the
reasons for delay.
• Validity- 5 years.
• Renewal- It must be applied for at least 6 months before the expiry date, in case of failure to renew
it will amount to expiry of registration.
• Due date- NGOs can appeal to the MHA within 4 months of the expiry of registration, by giving
valid reasons for the delay.
How FCRA registration can be cancelled?
• Right to cancel- The Government can cancel the FCRA registration of any NGOs if it finds to be
in violation of the Act.
• Grounds for cancellation- It can happen if the NGO is found to be dishonest, inactive, defunct or
harmful to public interest, or if it misuses foreign funds.
• Right to be heard- As per the act, no order of cancellation of certificate can be made unless the
person or NGO concerned has been given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.
• Right to Appeal- All orders of the Government can be challenged in the High Court.
• Re-registration- If NGOs registration is cancelled, it can apply for re-registration only after 3 years.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
• Suspend NGOs activities- MHA can suspend or freeze the NGO’s registration and funds for 180
days during inquiry.

Q72 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
All statements are correct
Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a statutory body of the Government of India responsible for
enforcing the Competition Act, 2002, it was duly constituted in March 2009.
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The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 (MRTP Act) was repealed and replaced by the
Competition Act, 2002, on the recommendations of Raghavan committee. Statement 2 is correct.
Composition: A Chairperson and 6 Members appointed by the Central Government. Statement 1 is
correct.
Duty of the Commission:
• To eliminate practices having adverse effects on competition.
• Promote and sustain competition.
• Protect the interests of consumers.
• Ensure freedom of trade in the markets of India.
The Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007 was enacted to amend the Competition Act, 2002.
• This led to the establishment of the CCI and the Competition Appellate Tribunal.
• The Competition Appellate Tribunal has been established by the Central Government to hear and
dispose of appeals against any direction issued or decision made or order passed by the CCI.
• The government replaced the Competition Appellate Tribunal (COMPAT) with the National
Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) in 2017. Statement 3 is correct.

Q73 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
About NAM Summit:
• The 19th NAM Summit was held under Uganda's leadership in Kampala. Uganda has taken over
as chair from Azerbaijan, to run until 2027.
• Theme: ‘Deepening Cooperation for Shared Global Affluence.’
Key discussions at the summit:
• Israel-Hamas war
• India’s “Vishwa Mitra” initiative
• A call for multipolar world
About Non-Aligned Movement:
• The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) is an alliance of developing nations that refuses to identify
with any major superpower.
• It was established in 1961 at the height of the Cold War. Whereas it started with Bandung
Conference held in Indonesia in 1955. Statement I is correct.
Current members:
• 120 countries: 53 from Africa, 39 from Asia, 26 from Latin America and the Caribbean and two
from Europe.
• It also includes the non-UN member state of Palestine, 17 other observer countries, and 10 observer
organizations.
• India is one of the founding member.
• After the United Nations, NAM is the second-largest grouping of nations.
• NAM does not have a permanent secretariat or a formal founding charter, act, or treaty. Statement
II is incorrect.
• The summit usually takes place every three years.

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Q74 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
About Global Alliance for Global Good - Gender Equity and Equality
• It is a new alliance for global good, gender equity, and equality established by India on the sidelines
of the 54th annual World Economic Forum (WEF) meeting in Davos. Statement 1 is correct.
• The alliance will bring together worldwide best practices, knowledge sharing, and investment
opportunities in women's education, health, and enterprise.
• This initiative marks a significant stride toward achieving multiple Sustainable Development Goals
(SDGs), including SDG 3 (Good Health and Well-Being), 4 (Quality Education), 5 (Gender
Equality and Empowerment), 17 (Global Partnership for Development) and more.
• It has garnered support from industry leaders such as MasterCard, Uber, Tata, TVS, Bayer, Godrej,
the Serum Institute of India, IMD Laussane, and over 10,000 partners from industry through the
Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).
• Supported by the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, the alliance will be housed and anchored by
the CII Centre for Women Leadership.
• The WEF has come on board as a ‘Network Partner’ and Invest India as an ‘Institutional Partner’.
Statement 2 is correct.

Q75 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
About Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition (SIGHT) Programme:
• It is a subcomponent of National Green Hydrogen Mission.
• Aim: To bolster domestic electrolyser manufacturing and green hydrogen production.
In the initial stage, two distinct financial incentive mechanisms were proposed with an outlay of ₹ 17,490
crore up to 2029-30:
• Incentive for manufacturing of electrolysers
• Incentive for production of green hydrogen.
• Depending on the markets and technology development, specific incentive schemes and
programmes will continue to evolve as the Mission progresses.
Implementing agency: The Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI) would be the implementing agency
responsible for the scheme’s execution.
What is National Green Hydrogen Mission?
• It is implemented by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy with an outlay of ₹ 19,744 crore
from FY 2023–24 to FY 2029–30.
• The overarching objective of the Mission is to make India a global hub for the production, usage,
and export of Green Hydrogen and its derivatives.
The expected outcomes of the mission by 2030, are as follows:
• India’s Green Hydrogen production capacity is likely to reach 5 MMT per annum, contributing to
reduction in dependence on the import of fossil fuels. Achievement of Mission targets is expected
to reduce a cumulative ₹ 1 lakh crore worth of fossil fuel imports by 2030.
• This is likely to leverage over ₹8 lakh crore in total investments and create over 6 lakh jobs.
• Nearly 50 MMT per annum of CO2 emissions are expected to be averted through the production
and use of the targeted quantum of Green Hydrogen.

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It has a provision for supporting pilot projects for low-carbon steel, mobility, shipping, and ports.
The Mission provides allocations for various sub-components of the Mission such as SIGHT, Pilot projects,
R&D etc. to fund specific selected projects.
There is no State-wise allocation made under the Mission.

Q76 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Recently, the Indian Immunologicals Ltd (IIL) a wholly owned subsidiary of National Dairy Development
Board (NDDB) launched India’s first indigenously developed Hepatitis A vaccine ‘Havisure’ in
Hyderabad.
• It is a two-dose vaccine — first dose administered at above 12 months of age and the second at
least six months after the first dose.
• The vaccine is recommended for children as part of the routine immunization as well as for
individuals at risk of exposure or travel to the regions with high hepatitis A prevalence.
• In addition to this people with occupational risk of infection and suffering from chronic liver
diseases also require Hepatitis A vaccination.

Q77 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
MPEMBA EFFECT
• The Mpemba effect has intrigued scientists with its counterintuitive observation that hot water can
freeze faster than cold water in similar conditions. Statement 1 is correct.
• Researchers have conducted numerous experiments to determine the causes of the phenomenon,
but a consensus conclusion remains wanting.
• Possible causes include microbubbles, evaporation, the presence of frost in cold water, and the
effect of compounds precipitated by boiling. Statement 2 is correct.
1. Microbubbles left suspended in water that has been heated by boiling. These promote convection
and transfer heat faster as the water cools.
2. Evaporation, an endothermic (heat absorb) process, contributes to faster heat loss in warmer water.
o Warmer water's lower density enhances convection and accelerates heat transfer, influencing
the freezing process.
3. The presence of frost in cold water may act as an insulator, this raises the freezing point of cold
water and slows heat loss and affects freezing times.
4. Compounds in water like calcium carbonate could be precipitated by boiling, and then dissolve,
thus increasing the water's freezing point.
Q78 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) has stressed on the need to implement the Idate
Commission report for welfare of NTs, SNTs, and DNTs.
Nomadic, Semi Nomadic, and Denotified Tribes (NTs, SNTs, and DNTs)
• Nomadic and semi-nomadic communities are defined as those who move from one place to another
rather than living at one place all the time.
• Denotified tribes (DNTs) are communities that were ‘notified’ as being ‘born criminal’ during the
British regime under a series of laws starting with the Criminal Tribes Act of 1871.
• These are communities who are the most vulnerable and deprived.
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Idate Commission
• In 2014 , a National Commission for Denotified, Nomadic and Semi Nomadic Tribes was
constituted under the Chairmanship of Bhiku Ramji Idate for a period of three years.
• The commission has given the following recommendations;
• There is a need to identify challenges faced by the NTs, SNTs, and DNTs owing to the stigma
imposed by the enactment of the Criminal Tribes Act, 1871 and later by the Habitual Offenders
Act, 1952 and figure out a way to modify discriminatory provisions of the latter.
• It also suggested the non-inclusion of DNTs/NTs/SNTs under the SC/ST/OBC and formulation of
specific policies for the former, among many others.
• Setting up a permanent commission for Nomadic, Semi Nomadic, and Denotified Tribes (NTs,
SNTs, and DNTs) in India.
• It stressed on taking measures to discern hurdles endured by the communities in availing basic
facilities such as education, employment, health care, and legal documents, among others.
Q79 ANSWER (d)
All statements are correct
About Lakshadweep Islands
• Lakshadweep is a tropical archipelago comprising 36 atolls and coral reefs situated in the Laccadive
Sea, positioned 280 km to 480 km off the Kerala coast.
• The name Lakshadweep, meaning "one lakh islands" in Malayalam, the official and widely spoken
native language in the territory, reflects its origin.
• Fishing stands as the predominant industry.
• As the smallest union territory of India, the islands collectively cover a surface area of merely 32
square kilometres.
• Kavaratti functions as the capital of this uni-district Union Territory, falling under the jurisdiction
of the Kerala High Court.
• The primary languages spoken in Lakshadweep include Malayalam, Jeseri (Dweep Bhasha), and
Mahl.
Geography
• The island is situated in the Laccadive Sea extending between 8 degree N and 12 degree N latitude.
• The entire Lakshadweep islands group is made up of coral deposits. Statement 1 is correct.
• The islands consist of unconsolidated pebbles, shingles, cobbles, and boulders. All are atolls
surrounded by Fringing Reefs.
• These islands are a part of Reunion Hotspot volcanism.
• Some islands under the Lakshadweep Islands group are:
o Kavaratti ,Agatti ,Minicoy, Amindivi ,Androth,Kalpeni,Pitti ,Suheli Par ,Keltan, Chetlat,
Kadmat, Bitra Perumul Par, Bangaram
• Amindivi Islands are the northern-most while the Minicoy island is the southernmost. Statement
2 is correct.
• 8 Degree Channel (8 degree north latitude) separates the islands of Minicoy and Maldives.
Statement 3 is correct.
• 9 Degree Channel (9 degree north latitude) separates the island of Minicoy from the main
Lakshadweep archipelago. Statement 4 is correct.
• Largest island: Minicoy Island (south of the nine-degree channel)

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 • The topography of the Lakshadweep Islands is flat and relief features such as hills, streams, valleys,
etc. are absent.

Q80 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Free Movement Regime (FMR) Agreement
• The FMR is a mutually agreed arrangement between the two countries that allows tribes living
along the border on either side to travel up to 16 km inside the other country without a visa.
Statement 1 is correct.
• It was aimed to minimise the historical divide and facilitate cultural and economic ties.
• The border between India and Myanmar was demarcated by the British in 1826, without seeking
the opinion of the people living in the region, which effectively divided people of the same ethnicity
and culture into two nations without their consent.
• People in the region have strong ethnic and familial ties across the border.
• It was implemented in 2018 as part of the Act East Policy and was supposed to provide impetus to
local trade and business and boost regional ties. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The region has a long history of trans-border commerce through customs and border haats.
Key Facts about Indo-Myanmar Border (IMB):
• It runs for 1,643 km in the four states of Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, and Arunachal Pradesh.
• It runs from the tripoint with China in the north to the tripoint with Bangladesh in the south.
• Assam Rifles is tasked with guarding the IMB.

Q81 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
PM announces a solar rooftop scheme to electrify one crore households with solar electricity.
About
• The government will launch ‘Pradhanmantri Suryodaya Yojana’ with the target of installing rooftop
solar on one crore houses.
• It will not only reduce the electricity bill of the poor and middle class, but will also make India self-
reliant in the field of energy.
Current status
• It is estimated that there are less than 10 lakh households with rooftop solar installations in the
country.
• There was a target to install 100 GW by 2022 — 60 GW from utility projects (mega concentrated
solar parks) and 40 GW from rooftop solar.
• But, according to the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy’s website, solar power installed
capacity in India has reached around 73.31 GW as of December 2023, while rooftop solar installed
capacity is around 11.08 GW. Notably, solar power has a major share in the country’s current
renewable energy capacity, which stands at around 180 GW.
• In terms of total solar capacity, Rajasthan is at the top with 18.7 GW. Gujarat is at the second
position with 10.5 GW. Statement 1 is correct.
• When it comes to rooftop solar capacity, Gujarat tops the list with 2.8 GW, followed by
Maharashtra by 1.7 GW. Statement 2 is correct.
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Q82 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
• There are an estimated 900 satras — monasteries of the neo-Vaishnav order — across Assam and
beyond. Barpeta and Uttar Kamalabari are two of the foremost among them but they are not on the
same level of spirituality or reverence as the Batadrava Than located roughly at the midpoint in the
Nagaon district.
• A ‘than’ is more than just a monastery that has a four-tier structure with a prayer hall at its centre.
And Batadrava, also spelled Bordowa, has been more than just an exalted place of worship for the
adherents of the Ekasarana Dharma, a neo-Vaishnav monolithic form of spiritualism propagated by
15th-16th Century saint-reformer Srimanta Sankaradeva.
Spread of Sattras
• Founding: Srimanta Sankaradeva established the first Satra in 1494 in Bardowa, his native village
in Nagaon district.
• Expansion: As Sankaradeva preached, Satras were established across the Brahmaputra Valley,
including Coochbehar in West Bengal.
• Current Count: There are nearly 900 Satras today, with significant ones located in Majuli island,
Barpeta, Nagaon, and Dhubri.
Composition of a Sattra
• Central Worship Hall: Each Sattra has a central worship hall known as “naamghar,” which serves
as its nucleus.
• Sattradhikar: A Sattra is headed by an influential leader known as the “Sattradhikar.”
• Bhakats: Monks, referred to as bhakats, are initiated into Sattras at a young age, and their celibacy
status varies depending on the Sattra they belong to.
Philosophy of Srimanta Sankardeva
• Teaching: His teaching focused on prayer and chanting (naam) instead of idol worship.
• Dharma: His dharma was based on the four components of deva (god), naam (prayers), bhakats
(devotees), and guru (teacher).
• Ek Saran Naam Dharma: The saint propagated the Ek Saran Naam Dharma, focussed on worship
in the form of bhakti (devotion) to Lord Krishna, through singing and congregational listening of
His name and deeds.
• Sankardeva espoused a society based on equality and fraternity, free from caste differences,
orthodox Brahmanical rituals and sacrifices.
• The saint traveled across Assam, spreading his teachings and establishing the Sattras/Thans as
centers of religious, social and cultural reforms in the 16th century.

Q83 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
What is Project BHISHM?
• Project BHISHM, which stands for Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog, Hita and Maitri, is a
revolutionary initiative that aims to bolster medical readiness and response capabilities.
• It involves the deployment of mobile hospitals known as Arogya Maitri Disaster Management
Cube-BHISHM. These units are equipped with cutting-edge technology and are designed to treat
up to 200 casualties.

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 • The portable hospital ‘Project BHISHMA,’ includes: Fully equipped operation theatre, Mini-ICUs
and ventilators, Blood-testing equipment and X-ray machine, Cooking station for self-sufficiency
and Capabilities to handle various injuries, including bullet, burn, head, spinal, and chest injuries,
fractures, and major bleeding.
About Arogya Maitri Disaster management cube:
• The Aid Cube integrates Artificial Intelligence (AI) and data analytics to facilitate effective
coordination, real-time monitoring, and efficient management of medical services in the field.
• It contains 72 easily transportable components that can be conveniently carried by hand, cycle, or
even drone. The Aid Cube can be deployed within an astonishing 12 minutes, effectively bridging
the crucial time gap from primary care to definitive care.
• The state-of-the-art BHISHM software system integrated into a provided tablet allows operators to
locate items quickly, monitor their usage and expiry, and ensure readiness for subsequent
deployments.
• These cubes are robust, waterproof, and light, designed for various configurations, making them
ideal for diverse emergency scenarios.
• From airdrops to ground transportation, the cube can be rapidly deployed anywhere, ensuring
immediate response capability.

Q84 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
About FiloBot
• It is different from conventional climbing robots as it doesn’t depend on pre-programmed
movements. Statement I is incorrect.
• It instead absorbs 3D printing filament through its head and extends its length over time, just like a
creeper.
• The team utilised a combination of plant behaviours like phototropism, negative phototropism
and gravitropism and utilises these naturally occurring behaviours in high-tech robots.
• The tests for FiloBot have been successful and displayed remarkable adaptability that adjusts its
growth trajectory dynamically in response to moving light intensity.
Significance
• By equipping autonomous systems with transportable additive manufacturing techniques merged
with bioinspired behavioural strategies, future robots can navigate unstructured and dynamic
environments and even be capable of self-building infrastructure.
• This new innovation has opened a new potential impact of technology that can be applied in
robotics, where adaptability and responsiveness redefine the capabilities of climbing robots.

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Statement II is correct.
Other similar innovations
• A similar snake-like robot was unveiled by NASA’s Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL), which was
specifically crafted to work on rough terrains of our solar system’s planets and moons.
• The robot named Exobiology Extant Life Surveyor (EELS 1.0) is engineered to navigate diverse
landscapes, including ice, sand, cliff walls, deep craters and lava tubes.

Q85ANSWER(a)
Explanation:
The Lake Retba’s waters are virtually devoid of life is on the verge of disappearing due to pollution and
mining.
• It is also known as Lac Rose (the Pink Lake).
• Location: It is located north of the Cap Vert peninsula of Senegal, northeast of Dakar.
• The lake is isolated from the sea by sand dunes.
• Its fresh water comes from the seasonal water table in the dunes, which are higher than the lake.
Thus the sea provides most of the lake’s water and all of its salt.
• The Pink Lake is one of the main tourist destinations in the Dakar region, primarily because of the
pink colour of its waters.
Why it is pink?
• The pink coloration is due to the proliferation of halophilic green algae (living in a salty
environment), Dunaliella salina, which contain red pigments.
• The alga is associated with halophilic bacteria of the genus Halobacterium.
• This microscopic alga’s resistance to salt comes from its high concentration of carotenoid pigments,
which protect it from light, and its high glycerol content.
• In fact, Dunaliella salina contains at least four antioxidant pigments (beta-carotene, astaxanthin,
lutein and zeaxanthin), which are rich in vitamins and trace elements.
• When salinity is high, algae with red pigments thrive, and when salinity is low, they give way to
other algae rich in green pigments.

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Q86 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1,2 are correct, Statement 3 is incorrect
Context:
The Ministry of Electronics and Information (MeitY) is seeking applications from 100 domestic
semiconductor chip design firms, companies, start-ups and Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
(MSMEs) under its Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme.
• The DLI scheme is part of the MeitY’s comprehensive Program for the Development of
Semiconductors and Display Manufacturing Ecosystems in the country. Statement 1 is correct.
• Lately, there has been an abrupt and cascading shortage of semiconductors worldwide.
About:
• Under the DLI Scheme financial incentives and design infrastructure support will be extended to
domestic companies, start-ups and MSMEs.
• The incentives will be provided across various stages of development and deployment of
semiconductor design for Integrated Circuits (ICs), Chipsets, System on Chips (SoCs), Systems &
IP Cores and semiconductor linked design for over a period of 5 years.
Eligibility:
• The approved applicants that claim incentives under the scheme will be encouraged to retain their
domestic status (i.e., more than 50% of the capital in it is beneficially owned by resident Indian
citizens and/ or Indian companies, which are ultimately owned and controlled by resident Indian
citizens) for a period of three years after claiming incentives under the scheme.
• An applicant must meet the Threshold and Ceiling Limits to be eligible for disbursement of
incentives under the Scheme.
Aim:
• To nurture at least 20 domestic companies involved in semiconductor design and facilitate them to
achieve turnover of more than Rs.1500 Crore in the next 5 years. Statement 2 is correct.
The scheme has three components
1. Chip Design infrastructure support: Under this C-DAC will setup the India Chip Centre to host the
state-of-the-art design infrastructure (viz. EDA Tools, IP Cores and support for MPW (Multi
Project Wafer fabrication) & post-silicon validation) and facilitate its access to supported
companies.
2. Product Design Linked Incentive: Under this component, a reimbursement of up to 50% of the
eligible expenditure subject to a ceiling of 15 Crore rupees per application will be provided as fiscal
support to the approved applicants who are engaged in semiconductor design.
3. Deployment Linked Incentive: Under this an incentive of 6% to 4% of net sales turnover over 5
years subject to a ceiling of ₹30 Crore per application will be provided to approved applicants
whose semiconductor design for Integrated Circuits (ICs), Chipsets, System on Chips (SoCs),
Systems & IP Cores and semiconductor linked design are deployed in electronic products.
Nodal Agency: C-DAC (Centre for Development of Advanced Computing). Statement 3 is incorrect.

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Q87ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context:
Indian Space Research Organisation has completed all key tests on Insat-3DS satellite before the final
review which will be followed by its shipping to the spaceport in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
• It is a collaborative effort between ISRO and the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
• It is part of a series of climate observatory satellites aimed at enhancing climate services.
Comprising three dedicated Earth observation satellites, including INSAT-3D and INSAT-3DR
already in orbit.
• It will be launched by using the Geosynchronous Launch Vehicle (GSLV-F14).
What is GSLV-F14?
• It a more advanced rocket utilising liquid propellant.
• The rocket, distinguished by its higher capacity and the use of cryogenic liquid propellants in all
three stages, presents a more complex engineering challenge but allows for a substantially higher
lift-off weight capacity.
Key facts about INSAT-3DR
• It is an advanced meteorological satellite of India configured with an imaging System and an
Atmospheric Sounder.
• The significant improvements incorporated in INSAT-3DR are:
• Imaging in Middle Infrared band to provide night time pictures of low clouds and fog
• Imaging in two Thermal Infrared bands for estimation of Sea Surface Temperature (SST) with
better accuracy
• Higher Spatial Resolution in the Visible and Thermal Infrared bands
• Payloads: INSAT-3DR carries a multi spectral Imager, 19 channel Sounder, Data Relay
Transponder and Search and Rescue Transponder.

Q88 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Pair is correct, Pair 2,3 are incorrect.
Kampala
• The 19th Summit of the Non-Aligned Movement was held in January 2024 in Kampala, Uganda.
Willingdon Island
• Willingdon Island is a seaport located in the city of Kochi, Kerala.
• It is the largest man-made/artificial island of India and is surrounded by backwaters (a part of a
river in which there is little or no current).
Torkam Border
• Pakistan and Afghanistan reopened a key trade crossing on Tuesday, officials on both sides said,
after a row over travel papers as Islamabad cracks down on cross-border movements.
• The Torkham border closure since January 12 came after Islamabad imposed tighter controls
requiring drivers from both sides to have visas and passports — documents many Afghans do not
have.

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Q89ANSWER(d)
Explanation:
All pairs are correct
o The Indian Army contingent is taking part in the 2nd edition of India-Egypt Joint Special Forces
Exercise CYCLONE.
o The Exercise is being conducted at Anshas, Egypt. The first edition of the exercise was conducted
in 2023 in India.

• The 11th edition of India-Kyrgyzstan Joint Special Forces Exercise KHANJAR has commenced at
the Special Forces Training School in Bakloh, Himachal Pradesh.
• Aim of the exercise is to exchange experiences and best practices in Counter Terrorism and Special
Forces Operations in Built-up Area and Mountainous Terrain.

➢ Ekuverin, meaning 'friend', is a bilateral annual exercise held alternately in India and Maldives.
➢ The exercise is aimed at enhancing interoperability in Counter Insurgency/ Counter Terrorism
Operations under the UN mandate and to carry out joint Humanitarian Assistance & Disaster Relief
operations. The focus is to share best practices, enhance coordination and cooperation between both
the forces at tactical level.

✓ Exercise Shakti is an important biennial military training exercise between India and France.

Q90 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
According to experts, the centre's oil exploration plans off Kanniyakumari coast could severely impact
fertile fishing ground, marine biodiversity and wadge bank ecosystem.
About Wadge Bank Ecosystem:
• The Wadge Bank is situated to the South of Cape Comorin and lies generally between latitudes
7°10’N and 8°00'N and longitudes 76°40'E and 78°00'E, but outside the territorial waters of India.
• The Bank shelves gradually up to 200 metres depth with its most extensive flattening in an East-
West direction between the 50 metres and 100 metres contours.
• The sea-bed consists of sand and shell and is rocky in places.

Significance
• Wadge Bank is an invaluable treasure that indigenous people and communities depend on for food
and resources that were important to their culture.
• It is like a warehouse, a feeding house for the fish, and a number of reef systems exist in this region
with over 200 varieties of rare fish species and more than 60 kinds of aquatic species.

Q91 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Statement 2 is correct, Statement 1,3 are incorrect
Context:
Recently, the 3rd South Summit was held in Kampala, Uganda, bringing together the members of the Group
of 77 (G77) and China.
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 • The Third South Summit brought together the 134 members of the Group of 77 and China to boost
South-South cooperation on trade, investment, sustainable development, climate change, poverty
eradication, and digital economy, among other areas. The theme of the summit was “Leaving No
One Behind.”
What is Group of 77 (G77)?
Establishment:
• The Group of 77 (G-77) was established on 15th June 1964 by signatories of the “Joint Declaration
of the Seventy-Seven Developing Countries” issued at the end of the first session of the United
Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) in Geneva. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The G77 group has 134 members excluding China because the Chinese government does not
consider itself a member, but rather a partner that provides political and financial support to the
group. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Aims:
• The Group of 77 is the largest intergovernmental organization of developing countries in the United
Nations.
• It provides the means for the countries of the South to articulate and promote their collective
economic interests and enhance their joint negotiating capacity on all major international economic
issues within the United Nations system. Statement 2 is correct.
Q92 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
About Default Bail:
• The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) provides for three kinds of bail. Section 438 provides for
Anticipatory Bail; Section 439 provides for Regular bail whereas Section 167(2) provides for
default/statutory bail.
• Default bail, also known as statutory bail, is a type of bail which accrues as a right to an accused
detained in custody, when the police fail to or are unable to complete the investigation and file the
chargesheet within the time frame stipulated under the law.
• When a person is arrested under any section of any act, there is an obligation on the arresting
authority to complete the investigation within a specified time. This period is mandatory, and not
obligatory.
The statutory time frame for completing the investigation of offences under the IPC, and for filing of the
charge sheet varies depending on the gravity of the offence.
1. For offences punishable with imprisonment up to 10 years, the investigation must be completed
within 60 days of arrest.
2. For offences punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for more than 10 years,
the investigation must be completed within 90 days of arrest (excluding investigation/arrests made
under special statutes).
Therefore, when a person is arrested and the police is not able to complete investigation within the specified
period, it is their default, and the arrested person cannot be kept behind bars beyond this period. This
entitlement is called default bail. Statement II is correct.
This is enshrined in Section 167(2) of the CrPC, where it is not possible for the police to complete an
investigation in time.

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Principles:
• It is a right, regardless of the nature of the crime.
• The stipulated period within which the charge sheet has to be filed begins from the day the accused
is remanded for the first time.
• It includes days spent in both police and judicial custody, but not days spent in house-arrest.
• For an accused to be entitled to default bail, the accused must have been in custody during the entire
statutory period for the investigation, and the accused must not have been released on bail during
that period.
• A requirement for the grant of statutory bail is that the right should be claimed by the person in
custody.
• If the charge sheet is not filed within the stipulated period, but there is no application for bail under
Section 167(2), there is no automatic bail.
• Once the accused files an application for bail under Section 167(2), it is considered that he/she has
enforced the right to be released on default bail.
• This right only comes into place after the stipulated time limit for investigation has expired.
• If the accused fails to apply for default bail after the investigation time period has expired and the
investigating agency files a charge-sheet or seeks more time before the accused makes such an
application for default bail, then the right to default bail is no longer applicable. The Magistrate can
then grant further time for the completion of the investigation.
• However, the accused may still be released on bail under other legal provisions of the Code.
• The default bail is not liable to be cancelled even after the completion of the investigation and the
submission of the charge sheet. The default bail can be cancelled only on the grounds and
considerations on which a regular bail can be cancelled.
Default Bail as Fundamental Right:
• The Supreme Court, while hearing an appeal regarding default bail, said that default bail under the
first proviso of Section 167(2) of the CrPC is a fundamental right and not merely a statutory right
as it is, a procedure established by law under Article 21 of the Constitution. Statement I is
incorrect.

Q93 ANSWER (c)

Statement 2,3&4 are correct, Statement 1 is incorrect
Explanation:
About Soda Lake
• It is a lake with a pH value usually between 9 and 11. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• High carbonate concentration, especially sodium carbonate, is responsible for the alkalinity of the
water.
• It may also contain a high concentration of sodium chloride and other salts making it saline or
hypersaline Lake.
• These are highly productive ecosystems compared to the freshwater lakes.
• These are the most productive aquatic environments on Earth because of the availability of
dissolved carbon dioxide. Statement 2 is correct.
• They occur naturally in both arid and semi-arid areas.

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Geology and Genesis
• Geological, climatic, and geographic requirements are required for a lake to become alkaline.
• A topography that limits the outflow of water from the lake is needed.
• An endorheic basin is formed when the water is confined without the outflow.
• The pH of the water in the depression rises through the evaporation of the lake which requires a
suitable climate like the desert climate to balance between the inflow and evaporation.
• The rate at which carbonate salt dissolve in the lake water depends on the ecology of the
surrounding area.
• The relative absence of magnesium and calcium is critical in the formation of the soda lake since
magnesium or calcium is likely to dissolve quickly and displace the carbonate ion thus neutralizing
the pH of the lake water.
Biodiversity
• These are dominated by prokaryotes like bacteria and archaea, especially in lakes with higher levels
of alkalinity.
• Multicellular organisms such as brine shrimp and fish are found in plenty if not most of the soda
lakes.
Examples of Soda Lakes
• Africa and Asia have the highest number of soda lakes since the two continents have vast desert
conditions which are perfect for the formation of soda lakes.
• Most of the soda lakes in Africa are located in Eastern Africa, especially in Kenya, Tanzania, and
Ethiopia.
• Lake Natron in Tanzania is one of the most outstanding soda lakes in Africa
• India and China have the highest number of soda lakes in Asia. Statement 3 is correct.
• Some of the soda lakes in Asia include Lake Van, Tso Kar Salt Lake, Pangong Salt Lake, and Lake
Zabuye. Statement 4 is correct.

Q94 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
• The Election Commission of India (ECI) has developed Election Seizure Management System
(ESMS) for real-time updates. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The ESMS is a dedicated technology platform where all the enforcement agencies such as police,
transportation authorities, Central tax agencies and others share information in real time.
• Both the Central and State government enforcement agencies share the information on the platform.
• It was used for the 1st time during the State Assembly Elections in November 2023 in the 5 states
of Mizoram, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Telangana. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Objective - To check the flow of illegal cash, drugs and freebies such as sarees, liquor etc. thereby
ensuring free and fair elections.
• Nodal agencies - State nodal officers, District nodal officers and flying squad teams.

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Q95 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context Scientists at CSIR-Indian Institute of Integrative Medicine (IIIM), Jammu, have found that
phytocannabinoids, a class of compounds found in the cannabis plant, possess some hitherto unexplored
antibiotic properties.
About the study
• The study specifically focused on tetrahydrocannabidiol (THCBD), a phytocannabinoid, and its
efficacy against Staphylococcus aureus, a bacteria contributing to antibiotic resistance.
• THCBD demonstrated strong antibacterial effects against various resistant strains of S. aureus,
including the methicillin-resistant strain.
Cannabinoids are a class of compounds found in the cannabis plant.
• The prefix ‘phyto’ in phytocannabinoid means it comes from a plant. Cannabinoids bind to
receptors in the bodies of animals to produce a variety of neurological effects.
• The researchers extracted cannabidiol from a cannabis plant and made it react with hydrogen, using
palladium as a catalyst.
• This process yielded a mixture of molecules with the same composition and order of atoms but
different structures.
• One of them was THCBD.
Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR): It is a major health concern worldwide. It refers to when bacteria,
viruses, fungi, and parasites no longer respond to medicines used to treat them.
• Bacterias have developed certain sophisticated ‘shields’ to resist the effects of antibiotic
medications over a period of time.
• Biofilms: Thin sheets of bacterial colonies that are more resistant to antibiotics than when separated.
• Efflux pumps: These are cellular mechanisms called efflux pumps that flush drugs out from cells.
• The resulting AMR increases the risk of disease spread, severe illness, and death.

Q96 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context
The Indian Army has launched Operation Sarvashakti in Jammu and Kashmir, deploying forces on both
sides of the Pir Panjal range to target terrorists.
About
• The operation will focus on locating the terrorists’ hideouts in the dense jungles, mountains and the
caves.
• The Chinar Corps along with the Nagrota-headquartered White Knight Corps would be carrying
out simultaneous operations.
• The operation is reminiscent of Operation Sarpvinash, which was launched in 2003 to eliminate
terrorists from the same area.
Why is this area important strategically?
• The areas south of Mendhar leading to the Pir Panjal range through Hilkaka constitute among the
shortest routes of access for infiltrators from across the LoC into the Kashmir valley.
• The dense forests and steep mountain slopes offer both adequate cover and visual domination of
the area.

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Pir Panjal range:
• The Pir Panjal Range is a chain of mountains in the Lesser Himalayan region located in the Indian
subcontinent.
• It extends between Beas and Kishanganga rivers, from Himachal Pradesh to Jammu and Kashmir.
• Passes: Pir Panjal Pass, Banihal pass, Sinthan pass, Saach Pass, Rohtang La.
• The Pir Panjal Pass connects the Kashmir valley with Rajouri and Poonch via the Mughal Road.

Q97 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
About Coal Gasification:
• Process: Coal gasification is a thermo-chemical procedure wherein the pressure and heat of the
gasifier disintegrate coal into its chemical components.
• Constituents: The resulting “syngas” is mostly carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrogen, with some
other gaseous substances such Hydrogen Sulphide and Carbon dioxide.
Cleaner Alternative: Coal gasification is said to be more efficient than traditional coal burning since it can
use the gases two times:
1. Primary use: Coal Gases are first purified of contaminants before being fired inside a turbine to
produce energy.
2. Secondary use: The gas turbine exhaust heat can be then collected and used to produce steam for a
steam turbine-generator.
• Efficiency: Coal gasification processing facility using this dual method can possibly attain an
efficiency of 50% or higher, compared to the customary coal power plant, which is typically just
above 30%.
Methods of Coal Gasification
• In-situ method: Here oxygen is infused into the seam together with water and ignited at high
temperatures, causing coal to partly oxidize into hydrogen, CO, carbon dioxide (CO2), methane
(CH4), and hydrogen sulfide (H2S). Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Ex-situ reactors: They are designed to simulate the gasification process above the ground’s surface.
Sulphur in coal is transformed to H2S and trace volumes of carbonyl sulphide((COS) during the
gasification process. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Types of Gasifiers
• Fixed Bed Gasifiers: It has a solids stream that is independent of the gas flow, needs little pre-
treatment of the feed coal, and has a high thermal efficiency.
• Fluidized Bed Gasifiers: It has uniform particulate blending, uniform thermal gradients, a high char
recycling percentage, and a low capital cost.
• Entrained Flow Gasifiers: It can handle almost any feed, and the syngas it produces is free of oils
and tars.
About the National Coal Gasification Mission:
• It is an initiative by the Union Ministry of Coal, under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan.
• The mission aims to utilise coal through coal gasification, with the goal of achieving 100 MT coal
gasification by 2030, with investments worth over Rs 4 trillion.
• It is expected to reduce imports by 2030.

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 • It envisions the adoption of indigenous technologies for the production of chemical products and
their derivatives.
• It is expected to reduce the country’s reliance on imports of natural gas, methanol, ammonia, and
other essential products.
Q98 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
All statements are correct
About National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA):
• It is a statutory body constituted under Section 132 of the Companies Act, 2013. Statement 1 is
correct.
• It was established as an independent authority to regulate the auditing profession and accounting
standards in India. Statement 2 is correct.
• Its goal is to enhance the country's financial statement quality and consistency and to guarantee that
businesses and financial institutions report accurate and fair information.
Composition:
• The Companies Act requires the NFRA to have a chairperson who will be appointed by the Central
Government and a maximum of 15 members.
• The appointment of such chairperson and members are subject to the following qualifications:
• They should be having an expertise in accountancy, auditing, finance, or law.
• They are required to make a declaration to the Central Government that there is no conflict of
interest or lack of independence in their appointment.
• All the members, including the chairperson, who are in full-time employment, should not be
associated with any audit firm (including related consultancy firms) during their term of office and
2 years after their term.
The NFRA has the following responsibilities:
• Make recommendations on the foundation and laying down of accounting and auditing policies and
standards;
• Monitor and enforce the compliance of the accounting standards and auditing standards:
• Oversee the quality of service of the professionals (such as auditors, CFOs, etc.) and suggest
measures required for improvement in the quality of service;
Powers:
• NFRA has the power to investigate, either suo moto or on a reference made to it by the Central
Government, into the matters of professional or other misconduct committed by any member or
firm of chartered accountants registered under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949. Statement 3
is correct.
• It has the same powers as are vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, while
trying a suit. Statement 4 is correct.
• Where professional or other misconduct is proved, it shall have the power to impose punishment.
• Any person who is not satisfied with the order of the NFRA can then make an appeal to the
Appellate Authority.

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Jurisdiction of NFRA:
• The jurisdiction of the NFRA for the investigation of Chartered Accountants and their firms would
extend to listed companies and large unlisted public companies, the thresholds for which shall be
prescribed in the Rules.
• The Central Government can also refer such other entities for investigation where public interest
would be involved.
• Head Office: New Delhi.

Q99 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
A team of archaeologists recently discovered two stone inscriptions of ‘Grantham’ and Tamil dating 11th
and 16th centuries respectively at Pazhnchervazhi village near Kangayam.
About Grantham Inscriptions:
• Grantha is an important historical script that was once used to write Sanskrit throughout South East
Asia and greater Tamil Nadu.
• The word Grantha denotes in Sanskrit ‘a literary work’. Evidently, the script used for writing the
Sanskrit works obtained the same name.
• At one time, it was prevalent throughout South India.
• When the Malayalam language began to freely borrow words as well as the rules of grammar from
Sanskrit, this script was adopted for writing that language and was known as Arya Ezhuthu.
• Both Grantha and Tamil scripts appear alike in modern forms. The evolution of both scripts from
Brahmi was also more or less similar.
• The development of the Grantha script in Tamil Nadu may be divided into four periods. The archaic
and ornamental, the transitional, the medieval, and the modern.
• Archaic and ornamental variety is commonly known as Pallava Grantha. Mahendravarman's
Tiruchirappalli rock cut cave and other cave temple inscriptions, Narasimhan's Mamallapuram,
Kanchi Kailasanatha, and Saluvankuppam temple inscriptions, Mutharaiyar's Senthalai inscriptions
are examples of this variety.
• The transitional variety of Grantha inscriptions roughly belong to three centuries between 650 CE
and 950 CE. Later Pallava's (Nandivarman's Kasakudi, Udayendram plates, etc.) and Pandyan
Nedunjadaiyan's Anaimalai inscriptions are samples of this.
• The medieval variety dates from about 950 CE to 1250 CE. Inscriptions of the imperial Cholas of
Thanjavur are examples of this.
• The modern variety belongs to the later Pandya's and Vijayanagarar periods.
• It was popular in Tamil Nadu until the early 20th century.
• After the introduction of printing machines, many Sanskrit books transcribed from palm leaves
were printed in Grantha script.
• After Independence, the popularity of Hindi in Deva Nagari script influenced all printing works,
and Grantha script went out of vogue.

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Q100 ANSWER (d)
All pairs are correct.
Explanation:
• Lake Van (Turkey): The largest lake in Turkey, situated in the Armenian Highlands and known for
its volcanic origins and unique soda ash islands.
• Lake Onega (Russia): The second-largest lake in Europe, located in north-western Russia and
known for its archipelago of islands and historical significance.
• Lake Tahoe (USA): A stunning alpine lake located on the border of California and Nevada, known
for its crystal-clear waters, winter sports, and surrounding mountains.
• Lake Poopo (Bolivia): This lake in west-central Bolivia occupies a shallow depression in the
Altiplano, or high plateau, at 12,090 feet above sea level. By December 2015, however, the lake
had completely dried up as a result of the combined effects of climate change-exacerbated drought
and sediment build-up caused by the local mining industry.

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 February 2024 Current Affairs Multiple Choice Questions
1. Consider the following:
Ramsar Site Associated State
a) Magadi Kere Karnataka
Conservation
Reserve
b) Ankasamudra Andhra Pradesh
Bird Conservation
Reserve
c) Longwood Shola Kerala
Reserve Forest
d) Karaivetti Bird Tamil Nadu
Sanctuary
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
2. Consider the following statements regarding Green Roofs:
1. They are ballasted roofs consisting of a waterproofing membrane, growing medium, and
vegetation overlying a traditional roof.
2. According to recent research, Fungal-rich soil may reduce the green roof sustainability.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the following statements regarding Martand Sun Temple:
1. It is a Hindu temple, dedicated to the Sun God, located in Kashmir Valley.
2. It was built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida of Utpala dynasty.
3. It has a unique architecture where local Kashmiri style is blended with the architectural styles
of Gupta, Chinese, Gandhara, Roman, and Greek.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
4. Consider the following:
1. It can become a banking correspondent (BC) of another bank.
2. The money received as deposits can be invested in secure government securities only in the
form of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
3. It can set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial activities.
4. It can accept time deposits or NRI deposits.

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 How many of the above given activities can be performed by Payments Banks?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) Only three d) All four
5. The term 'Volt Typhoon' recently seen in news, is related to which of the following?
a) Cryptocurrency
b) Internet of Things
c) Cyber Hacking
d) Technical Textiles
6. eROSITA, sometimes seen in news, is a/an:
a) X-ray telescope.
b) Communication Satellite
c) Anti-Satellite Missile
d) None of the above
7. Consider the following statements regarding Legal Provisions of Internet Shutdown in India:
Statement I - Under Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Safety)
Rule 2017 telecom/internet shutdowns may be ordered on grounds of public emergency and public
safety.
Statement II - Public emergency and public safety have been defined in the Indian Telegraph
Act,1885 or the 2017 Rules.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
8. Consider the following statements regarding Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund:
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme.
2. Under this government entities and cooperatives are not eligible to get benefit of this scheme.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
9. Which of the following best describes a Tidal Disruption Event (TDE)?
a) The merger of two black holes resulting in the emission of gravitational waves.
b) The collision of two neutron stars leading to the formation of heavy elements.
c) The destruction of a star by the intense tidal forces of a supermassive black hole.
d) The explosion of a massive star at the end of its life cycle.
10. Consider the following statements regarding Tax buoyancy and Tax elasticity:
1. Tax buoyancy explains the relationship between the changes in the government's tax revenue
growth and the changes in Gross domestic product (GDP).
2. When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate.
3. Tax buoyancy will be highest for direct taxes.
4. Tax elasticity refers to changes in tax revenue in response to changes in the tax rate.

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 How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
11. Consider the following in the context of Interim Budget 2024:
1. Income Tax
2. Corporation Tax
3. Union Excise Duties
4. Customs
Arrange the above given Taxes in the ascending order of their contribution towards revenue receipts
and choose the correct option from below.
a) 4-3-2-1
b) 4-3-1-2
c) 3-4-1-2
d) 3-4-2-1
12. Consider the following statements regarding Green Propulsion System by ISRO:
1. ISRO developed an eco-friendly solid propellant consisting of Glycidyl Azide polymer (GAP) as
fuel and Ammonium Di-Nitramide (ADN) as the oxidizer.
2. ISRO introduced ISORENE, a rocket-grade version of kerosene, as an alternative to
conventional Hydrazine rocket fuel.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
13. The term 'Diamond Rain' is associated with which of the following?
a) Jupiter
b) Saturn
c) Pluto
d) Neptune
14. Consider the following:
Traditional Associated with
Painting
1. Subika Painting Manipur
2. Basohli painting Uttrakhand
3. Pichwai paintings Madhya Pradesh
4. Thangka paintings Sikkim
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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15. What is Cygnus X-1, recently seen in news?
a) A type of interstellar gas cloud.
b) A black hole system.
c) A star formation region in the Milky Way.
d) A satellite launched by NASA to study cosmic radiation.
16. The GHAR Portal, recently seen in the news, is launched for which of the following purposes ?
a) Track the progress of PM Awas Yojana through Geo-tagging.
b) Provide shelter for the homeless individuals.
c) to track and monitor the restoration of children.
d) Provide safe transportation service for Indians stuck in various disturbed regions around the
world.
17. Consider the following statements regarding Exercise Vayu Shakti:
1. It is a multilateral air exercise that takes place once in every five years.
2. This will see aircraft from friendly air forces like the US, Germany, France, Australia and
neighbouring and other friendly countries taking part in it.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
18. Consider the following countries:
1. Singapore
2. Brunei
3. East Timor
4. Papua New Guinea
5. Malaysia
How many of the above given countries share a land boundary with Indonesia?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
19. Consider the following countries:
1. China
2. Laos
3. Thailand
4. Myanmar
5. Cambodia
6. Vietnam
How many of the above given countries are members of Mekong River Commission?
a) Only three
b) Only four
c) Only five
d) All six

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20. Consider the following statements regarding UNESCO 1970 Convention:
1. It refers to 'Means of Prohibiting and Preventing the Illicit Import, Export and Transfer of
Ownership of Cultural Property'.
2. It does not apply retrospectively.
3. It came into force in 1972 and India ratified it in 1977.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
21. Arrange the following countries from lowest to highest based on the recent Interim budget allocation
of the Ministry of External Affairs' development assistance for 2024-25:
1. Nepal
2. Maldives
3. Afghanistan
4. Myanmar
Choose the correct option from below:
a) 3-4-2-1
b) 3-2-4-1
c) 4-3-1-2
d) 4-3-2-1
22. Consider the following:
1. Invoice in the inbox
2. One-time mandate
3. Linking of overdraft account
4. Signed intent and QR
How many of the above are the key features of Unified Payment Interface (UPI):
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
23. Consider the following:
Nutrient Contribution to Plant Growth
1. Potassium Root development, flowering and fruiting.
2. Phosphorus Cell wall structure and cell division.
3. Nitrogen Overall plant health and stress resistance.
4. Calcium Leaf and stem growth and protein synthesis.
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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24. Ilsenhohle Cave Site, recently seen in news, is located in which of the following country?
a) Greece b) Germany
c) Iceland d) France
25. Consider the following statements regarding Photorespiration:
1. It is a process that involves the uptake of oxygen and release of carbon dioxide by the plant.
2. It occurs in the cells of plants during both day and night.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. Where is Aldabra Atoll located, recently seen in news?
a) Pacific Ocean
b) Indian Ocean
c) Atlantic Ocean
d) Mediterranean Sea
27. Consider the following statements regarding the Stingless bees:
1. Unlike honeybee they are incapable of producing honey.
2. However, they are native to Amazon they are mostly found in temperate regions.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Consider the following countries:
1. Paraguay
2. Bolivia
3. Ecuador
4. Argentina
5. Colombia
How many of the above given countries share a land boundary with Peru?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
29. Which of the following best describes the term 'Ergosphere', sometimes seen in news?
a) It is a region of intense magnetic activity surrounding a neutron star.
b) It is the outer layer of a star where nuclear fusion occurs.
c) It is a theoretical region surrounding a rotating black hole where spacetime is dragged along
with the rotation.
d) It is a region of space-time where gravitational waves are emitted during the collision of two
black holes.

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30. Seabed Curtain project, recently seen in news, is primarily focused on:
a) Protecting marine habitats from invasive species.
b) Extracting minerals from the ocean floor.
c) Creating artificial reefs to enhance marine biodiversity.
d) Protecting ice sheets from being eroded by warm sea water.
31. Consider the following statements regarding GRAPES-3 experiment:
1. It is designed to study cosmic rays with an array of air shower detectors and a large area muon
detector.
2. It is located in Ooty, Tamil Nadu.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
32. Intelligent Transportation System Endeavor (InTranSE) is an initiative of which of the following
ministry?
a) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
b) Ministry of Science and Technology.
c) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
33. Consider the following:
Places in news Located in
1. Masara Egypt
2. Abhkhazia Azerbaijan
3. Ziguinchor Cameroon
4. Lake Rotorua New Zealand
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are incorrectly matched?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) Only three d) All four
34. Messinian Event recently seen in news is related to which of the following water body?
a) Red Sea b) Caspian Sea
c) Baltic Sea d) Mediterranean Sea
35. Consider the following statements regarding Gender Budgeting:
Statement I - It aims to ensure that public resources are collected and spent efficiently based on
differing gender needs and priorities.
Statement II - Gender Budgets are separate budgets for women and it implies that funds be divided
into half for men and women.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

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36. Consider the following statements regarding Conservation Reserves:
1. It is a protected area that act as buffer zones to established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries
and reserved forests.
2. These protected area categories were first introduced through the Wildlife (Protection)
Amendment Act of 2002.
3. It is designated by the National Board of Wildlife after discussing it with nearby communities.
4. The 1st conservation reserve of India was established in Tamil Nadu.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
37. Consider the following statements regarding Hindu Kush Himalaya:
1. It stretches 3,500 kms and spans across more than ten countries.
2. It comprises 4 biodiversity hotspots out of the world's 36 global biodiversity hotspots.
3. The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD), a regional
intergovern- mental organization established in 1983 to make Hindu Kush Himalaya region
greener, more inclusive and climate resilient.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
38. Consider the following statements regarding Annual Survey of Industries (ASI):
1. The National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
(MoSPI) conducts the ASI.
2. It started in 1960 with 1959 as the base year and from 2010-11, the Survey is being conducted
under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008.
3. ASI covers factories registered under the Factories Act, 1948 and excludes Bidi and cigar
manufacturing establishments registered under the Bidi & Cigar Workers (Conditions of
Employment) Act,1966.
4. As per ASI 2021-22 data the top five states employing the highest number of persons in the
manufacturing sector includes Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, and
Andhra Pradesh.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
39. Consider the following countries:
1. Nigeria
2. Chad
3. Gabon
4. Democratic Republic of Congo
5. Congo

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 How many of the above given countries share a land boundary with Cameroon?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
40. The S2, nicknamed 'Jigarthanda' facility, recently seen in the news, will be used for:
a) simulating hypersonic conditions for aerospace technologies.
b) testing the newly developed cryogenic engine for space launch vehicles.
c) providing the cold storage banks for foodgrains with the use of liquid nitrogen.
d) None of the above
41. Consider the following statements regarding T-cells:
1. Cytotoxic T-cells suppress excessive immune responses to prevent autoimmune reactions and
maintain immune tolerance.
2. Helper T-cells kill cells infected with viruses and bacteria, and they also destroy tumour cells.
3. Regulatory T-cells send signals that direct other immune cells to fight infection.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
42. Consider the following:
Coalfields Located in
1. Birbhum West Bengal
2. Jhilmil Chhattisgarh
3. Wun field Maharashtra
4. Talcher Odisha
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
43. Consider the following statements regarding Katabatic Winds:
Statement I - It is a mountain breeze which moves from a higher elevation of a mountain to a lower
elevation.
Statement II - As air cools relatively quicker at elevated altitudes, it becomes denser and heavier,
then flows down the side of the mountain due to pressure gradient force.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

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44. Consider the following statements regarding Speaker of State Legislative Assemblies:
1. Article 178 of Indian constitution provides for speaker to preside over the sessions of State
Legislative Assembly.
2. It is modelled on the basis of Office of Speaker in Britain.
3. A no-confidence motion can be brought against the Speaker after 14 days of giving notice to
the Secretary.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
45. Mahmudia Wetland, recently seen in news, is located in which of the following country?
a) Poland
b) Turkey
c) Bulgaria
d) Romania
46. Consider the following statements regarding Brazil:
1. It is the fifth largest country in the world.
2. It borders every South American country except Chile and Ecuador.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
47. Consider the following statements in the context of 'Indian Oil Market Outlook to 2030' released by
International Energy Agency:
1. India is projected to become the largest source of global oil demand growth, surpassing China
by 2027.
2. Diesel is identified as the single largest source of oil demand growth in India.
3. India is the world's third-largest producer and consumer of ethanol.
4. India's current oil stock holding levels equate to 90 days of net-import cover, with Strategic
Petroleum Reserve (SPR) stocks of seven days.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
48. Which of the following best describes the term 'MXenes', recently seen in news?
a) A type of high-performance ceramics used in aerospace engineering.
b) A class of 2D transition metal carbides, nitrides, and carbonitrides.
c) A group of polymers used in biomedical applications.
d) A category of organic compounds commonly found in pharmaceuticals.

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49. Consider the following statements regarding Open Network Digital Commerce:
Statement I - It is an open-source network set up to democratise electronic commerce.
Statement II - It is an initiative of Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology which uses
network-enabled application to engage buyers and sellers to transact with each other irrespective
of the e-commerce platform on which either of them is registered.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for
Statement- I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
50. Consider the following statements with respect to Election Commissioners:
1. He is appointed through a consultative process by a committee that include 'Leader of
Opposition' as one of its members.
2. He can be removed by the President on the basis of a resolution passed by both the Houses of
Parliament with special majority.
3. Dinesh Goswami committee recommended for appointments to be made solely at the discretion
of the government.
How many of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All Three
d) None
51. Consider the following statements regarding Payment Aggregators:
1. The non-bank payment aggregators require authorisation from the RBI to operate.
2. They process payments themselves, similar to traditional banks.
3. Merchants need separate merchant accounts with individual banks for each payment method
offered through the aggregator.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
52. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana
(PM-MKSSY):
1. It is a sub scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana, for the micro and small
enterprises operating in the fisheries sector.
2. It is 100% funded by the Central Government.
3. It will be implemented for four years from 2023-24 to 2026-27 across all the States and union
territories.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) All three d) None

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53. Consider the following statement(s) regarding Safe City project:
1. Safe City Projects have been approved by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs with
centrally sponsored funding.
2. It covers welfare measures for both transgender persons and persons who are engaged in the
act of begging with focus extensively on rehabilitation.
3. To align it with Smart Cities Mission it will be implemented in all 100 cities covered under
Smart City Mission initiative.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
54. Consider the following:
Indian Cities River
1. Jaunpur Gomti
2. Rourkela Mahanadi
3. Pandharpur Bhima
4. Gwalior Chambal
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
55. Kalingarayan Anicut barrage, one of the oldest water diversion projects in the world, is located in
which of the following state?
a) Odisha
b) Tamil Nadu
c) Kerala
d) Andhra Pradesh
56. Pantanal wetland, world's largest freshwater wetland, is located in:
a) Brazil, Peru and Ecuador
b) Brazil, Colombia and Venezuela
c) Brazil, Bolivia and Paraguay
d) Brazil, Argentina and Uruguay
57. Consider the following statements regarding Kaladan Project:
Statement I - Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project was launched in 2008 to provide
connectivity between India and Myanmar.
Statement II - It aims to connect the port of Kolkata with the port of Sittwe in Rakhine which would
then be connected to Tripura by road and the Kaladan River which flows by Paletwa.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for
Statement- I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

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58. King Abdul Aziz Port and Ras Al-Khair, recently seen in news, are located in which of the following
country?
a) Saudi Arabia
b) UAE
c) Yemen
d) Oman
59. Consider the following:
Volcano Located in
1. Ioto Philippines
2. Ulawun New Zealand
3. Shishaldin Japan
4. Ubinas Chile
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
60. Consider the following statements regarding Direct Taxes Collection Share:
1. For financial year 2022-23 Direct tax collection is greater than Indirect tax collection.
2. Direct Tax collection as a share of overall tax collection has been consistently increasing for
past five years.
3. Among states and union territories, Gujarat accounted for 36.4 per cent of the overall direct
tax collections in the country in the financial year 2022-23.
4. Share of Corporate Tax has always remained higher than Personal Income tax in the Direct Tax
collection.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
61. Consider the following statements regarding Bharat Ratna Awards:
1. In 1958, a special ceremony for the award was held in the Brabourne Stadium in Mumbai to
honour Mahadev Govind Ranade on his 100th birthday.
2. Morarji Desai discontinued the Bharat Ratna awards in and then accepted the award himself
in 1999.
3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the first person to be honored with Bharat Ratna posthumously.
4. Three people were awarded the Bharat Ratna in its first year which included C Rajagopalachari,
Sarve palli Radhakrishnan and CV Raman.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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62. Consider the following statements regarding Capital Expenditure:
1. FY25 Interim Budget emphasizes public capex, setting a record high at Rs.11.11 trillion,
comprising 4% of GDP and 23.3% of total expenditure.
2. National Statistical Office estimates India's investment ratio at 29.8% of GDP in 2023-24.
3. India ranks fourth best in G-20 countries for the investment ratio improvement post-COVID-
19.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
63. Aral Sea is located in which of the following?
a) Uzbekistan and Kazakhstan
b) Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan
c) Uzbekistan and Russia
d) None of the above
64. Consider the following:
Dedicated Freight Important Cities
Corridor (DFC) located on it
1. Western DFC Surat
2. Eastern DFC Lucknow
3. Southern DFC Ankola
4. North-South DFC Itarsi
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
65. Which of the following statements best describes the term deep tech?
a) Technologies with shallow impact on society
b) Emerging technologies with substantial scientific innovation
c) Traditional technologies with long-standing use
d) Technologies primarily focused on entertainment purposes.
66. Consider the following statements regarding Government's Expenditure over past two decades 2004
to 2024-25:
1. Capital expenditure has been consistently increasing since 2004.
2. Since 2004, Defence accounts for the highest share of expenditure as percentage of GDP.
3. Government spending on health sector has been consistently increasing.
4. Spending on rural development has always remained higher than urban development
expenditure in the given time period.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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67. Consider the following statements regarding Sectoral shares in GVA since last decade:
1. Share of Agriculture in GVA has decreased consistently.
2. Share of Services in GVA has increased consistently.
3. Share of Industry in GVA has increased exponentially.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
68. Consider the following statements regarding Dhokra Shilpkala:
Statement I - It is related to the Dhokra Damar tribes, who are the traditional metal smiths of
north-western India.
Statement II - It has a remarkable technique of metal casting, which involves using the lost wax
casting method, also known as cire perdue.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
69. Consider the following:
Wildlife Sanctuary Located in
(WLS)
Thanthai WLS Tamil Nadu
Sunabeda WLS Odisha
Sepahijala WLS Tripura
Rollapadu WLS Andhra Pradesh
How many of the above pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
70. The term "brumation", recently seen in news, refers to which of the following?
a) A type of camouflage used by reptiles in their natural habitat.
b) The process of shedding old skin layers.
c) A state of dormancy similar to hibernation experienced by reptiles during colder months.
d) A behaviour where reptiles bask in sunlight to regulate their body temperature.
71. Consider the following statements regarding Science for Women-A Technology & Innovation
(SWATI) Portal:
1. It is aimed at creating a single online portal representing Indian Women and Girls in STEMM
(Science, Technology, Engineering, Mathe- matics & Medicine).
2. The portal will be developed by the National Institute of Plant Genome Research (NIPGR).
3. It is launched by the Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India.

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 How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
72. Consider the following statements regarding Sangeet Natak Akademi:
1. It is an autonomous body of the Ministry of Culture.
2. It was created by a resolution of the Ministry of Education.
3. The Chairman of the Akademi is appointed by the President of India for a term of five years.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
73. Which of the following best describes the term 'Palaeo proxies', recently seen in news?
a) Instruments used to measure seismic activity in ancient geological formations.
b) Indicators used to estimate past environmental conditions
c) Tools used for carbon dating archaeological artifacts.
d) Devices used to analyse ancient DNA found in fossil remains.
74. Consider the following statements with reference to the El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO):
1. During El Nino, temperatures are lower than normal over eastern and central parts of the
equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. During La Nina, temperatures are higher than normal over eastern and central parts of the
equatorial Pacific Ocean.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Consider the following:
Metal Crafts Associated State/UT
1. Aranmula Kerala
Kannadi
2. Pembarthi craft Telangana
3. Kamrupi crafts Assam
4. Tarkashi Punjab
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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76. Consider the following statements:
Statement I - The Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) helps in moderating the
climate of Europe and North America.
Statement II - The Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation moves warm ocean water from the
tropics to the northern Atlantic Ocean basin.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
77. Consider the following statements regarding Swachhata Green Leaf Rating:
1. It aims to ensure world-class hygiene and sanitation in all hospitality facilities of the country
with or without restaurants.
2. The ranking scheme was launched in November 2023 by the Union Tourism Ministry in
collaboration with the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
78. Consider the following statements regarding the Greening India's Wastelands with Agroforestry
(GROW) Report and Portal:
1. It is a multi-institutional effort led by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate change that
will utilize remote sensing and GIS to assess agroforestry suitability across India.
2. It provides state-wise and district-wise analysis, supporting government departments and
industries for greening and restoration projects.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
79. Consider the following countries:
1. UAE
2. France
3. Saudi Arabia
4. Sri Lanka
5. Bhutan
6. Qatar
How many of the above countries accept UPI based digital payments?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) Only five

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80. Consider the following:
Biodiversity Heritage State/UT
Sites
1. Gupteshwar Odisha
Forest
2. Purvatali Rai Gujarat
3. Nallur Tamarind Andhra Pradesh
Grove
4. Glory of Allapalli Tamil Nadu
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
81. World Government Summit (WGS) is hosted annually by which of the following country?
a) India
b) UAE
c) United States of America
d) United Kingdom
82. Consider the following statements regarding calculation of Minimum Support Price (MSP):
1. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) conducts field-based cost estimates
itself to determine the cost of MSP.
2. The CACP calculates three types of costs A2, A2+FL and C2, for each mandated crop for
different states.
3. The National Commission for Farmers had recommended MSP under the C2 formula which is
defined as a more comprehensive cost that factors in rentals and interest for owned land and
fixed capital assets.
4. The government announces MSP on the basis of A2 cost which covers all paid-out costs directly
incurred by the farmer in cash and kind on seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, hired labour, etc.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
83. Consider the following statements regarding Harmonized System of Nomenclature (HSN) codes:
Statement I - They are six-digit numerical codes used to classify traded goods globally.
Statement II - It was developed by the World Trade Organization (WTO) and is considered the global
standard when it comes to naming goods.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

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84. Consider the following statements regarding synthesis methods of Carbon nanotubes (CNTs):
1. Plasma Enhanced Chemical Vapour Deposition Technique (PECVD) is a novel method for
directly synthesising CNTs.
2. It requires high temperatures and a transition metal catalyst.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
85. Sanjay Aggarwal Committee, recently seen in news, is related to which of the following?
a) Sub-categorisation of OBC.
b) Subordinate Legislation.
c) Child labour.
d) Minimum Support Price.
86. Consider the following statements regarding the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory
Species:
1. COP14 of Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species is being hosted by Uzbekistan.
2. It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP).
3. It is the only global and UN-based intergovernmental organisation established exclusively for
the conservation and management of terrestrial, aquatic and avian migratory species.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) All three d) None
87. Consider the following statements regarding Baltic Sea:
1. It connects to the Atlantic Ocean through the Danish Straits.
2. It is often cited as the world's largest brackish inland water body.
3. Its water salinity levels are lower than that of the World Oceans due to the inflow of fresh water
from the surrounding land and the sea's shallowness.
4. Gotland, located off the coast of Finland, is the largest island in the Baltic Sea.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) Only three d) All four
88. Consider the following statements regarding UN World Restoration Flagships:
Statement I - It is part of the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration led by the UN Environment
Programme (UNEP) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
Statement II - It aims to prevent, halt, and reverse the degradation of ecosystems on every continent
and in every ocean.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

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89. The Cassini-Huygens Mission, a collaboration between NASA, the European Space Agency (ESA), and
the Italian Space Agency (ASI), primarily aimed at exploring:
a) Mars' atmosphere and surface features.
b) Jupiter's magnetic field and its moons.
c) Saturn and its moons.
d) Pluto's composition and geological characteristics.
90. Consider the following pairs:
Organisms Symbiotic
Relationship
1. Barnacles & - Parasitism
Swimming Crabs
2. Clownfish - Commensalism
& Sea Anemones
3. Barnacles & - Mutualism
Humpback
Whales
4. Corals & Sponges - Competition
How many of the pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
91. Consider the following places along the Indo-China border:
Places in news Located in
1. Kaurik Himachal Pradesh
2. Pulan Sunda Uttrakhand
3. Spanggur Gap Ladakh
4. Sumdorong Chu Arunachal Pradesh
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
92. Consider the following statements regarding Sea of Japan:
1. It is bounded by the Japanese archipelago, Sakhalin, the Korean Peninsula, and the mainland
of the Russian Far East.
2. The sea is separated from the East China Sea to the south by the Tatar strait and from the Sea
of Okhotsk to the north by Tsushima strait.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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93. Consider the following countries:
1. Norway
2. Sweden
3. Iceland
4. Denmark
5. Switzerland
How many of the above-mentioned countries are part of European Free Trade Association (EFTA)?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
94. Consider the following statements regarding declaration of Vermin under Wild Life (Protection) Act,
1972:
1. The Central Government may, by notification, declare any wild animal specified in Schedule II
to be vermin.
2. Currently, it includes only 4 species of wild animals namely Common Crows, Fruit Bats, Rats,
and Mice.
3. The Act empowers Chief Wildlife Warden of a State (CWLW) to declare any wild animal specified
in Schedule I to be hunted if it has become dangerous to human life.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
95. The Schengen Zone, established by the Schengen Agreement of 1985, is primarily known for:
a) Economic cooperation and trade liberalization among European Union member states.
b) Standardization of currency and monetary policies across European countries.
c) Facilitating the free movement of people between participating European countries.
d) Harmonizing environmental regulations and policies to combat climate change.
96. Consider the following:
1. Canary Current
2. Labrador Current
3. Gulf stream
4. Kuroshio current
5. Agulhas
How many of the above given current(s) is/are categorised as warm current?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five

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97. Consider the following:
GI-Tagged Fruits Associated State
/Vegetables
1. Beed Custard Maharashtra
Apple
2. Kaji Nemu Assam
3. Nanjanagud Andhra Pradesh
Banana
4. Banaganapalle Telangana
Mangoes
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
98. Consider the following statements regarding Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs):
1. There are only two Indian PSUs that manufacture EVM machines.
2. First-level check (FLC) is the initial technical examination of the EVM's Ballot Unit (BU) and
Control Unit (CU) as well as the Voter-Verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT).
3. EVMs have a life of 15 years and after that chips with the code need to be crushed in the
presence of an officer of Election Commission.
4. The EVM runs on a 6-volt single alkaline battery fitted in the control unit, and can even be
used in areas that have no electricity.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
99. Consider the following statements regarding Coal Gasification:
Statement I - It is the process of producing syngas, a mixture consisting primarily of carbon
monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and water vapour (H2O).
Statement II - Syngas can be used for electricity production, used in energy-efficient fuel cell
technology, or as chemical 'building blocks' for industrial purposes.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement -I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct.

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100. Consider the following statements regarding Anti-Dumping Duty:
1. It is imposed to protect local businesses and markets from unfair competition by foreign
imports.
2. The use of anti-dumping measure as an instrument of fair competition is permitted by the
World Trade Organization (WTO).
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 February 2024 Current Affairs Key and Explanations
Q1 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the union Environment Minister said that five more Indian wetlands have been added to
the global list of wetlands of international importance under the Ramsar Convention.
About New Ramsar site
• Of the five wetlands added to the Ramsar list, Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve,
Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve, and Aghanashini Estuary are in Karnataka and
Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary and Longwood Shola Reserve Forest are in Tamil Nadu.

Q2 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Context:
According to recent research, green roofs treated with mycorrhizal fungi foster a more diverse soil
community that is more likely to support long-term green roof sustainability. Statement 2 is
incorrect.
About Green Roofs:
• Green roofs, also known as ‘vegetated roofs’ or ‘living roofs’ — are ballasted roofs consisting
of a waterproofing membrane, growing medium (soil), and vegetation (plants) overlying a
traditional roof. Statement 1 is correct.
• The layers of green roof systems must, like any roof, accommodate drainage, stormwater
management, and protect the building from the elements with a waterproof membrane.
• But they also must create a growing area and potentially provide support, irrigation, and root
protection barriers while staying as light as possible.

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Two types of green roofs exist: intensive and extensive.
1. Intensive green roofs are essentially elevated parks. They can sustain shrubs, trees, walkways and
benches with their complex structural support, irrigation, drainage, and root protection layers.
2. Extensive green roofs are relatively light. They support hearty native ground cover that requires
little maintenance. Extensive green roofs usually exist solely for their environmental benefits and
don't function as accessible rooftop gardens.
Benefits:
• Green roofs last longer than conventional roofs, reduce energy costs with natural insulation, create
peaceful retreats for people and animals, and absorb storm water, potentially lessening the need for
complex and expensive drainage systems.
• On a wider scale, green roofs improve air quality and help reduce the Urban Heat Island Effect, a
condition in which city and suburban developments absorb and trap heat.

Q3 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
About Martand Sun Temple
• It is a Hindu temple located near the city of Anantnag in the Kashmir Valley of Jammu and
Kashmir.
• It is dedicated to the Sun God. Martand is another Sanskrit synonym for Surya. Statement 1 is
correct.
• It was built by King Lalitaditya Muktapida around the 8th Century CE. Lalitaditya
Muktapida was the third ruler of the Karkota Dynasty. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Features:
• It has a unique architecture where local Kashmiri style is blended with the architectural styles
of Gupta, Chinese, Gandhara, Roman, and Greek. Statement 3 is correct.
• The temple is located on top of a plateau and has been constructed entirely out of stone.
• It covers an area of 32,000 square feet.
• It stands in the middle of a large courtyard with 86 fluted columns. The courtyard is connected to
the main shrine, where Sun God’s idol was installed.
• The construction of the main shrine was such that during most of the days’ time, especially during
sunrise and sunset, the rays would directly fall on the idol.
• The central shrine, or vimana, stands tall at around 60 feet. It features intricate carvings and
sculptures that depict various Hindu gods and goddesses.
• There are 84 smaller shrines around the main Sun Temple. They are lined along the perimeter of
the complex.
The temple is believed to have been demolished by Sultan Sikandar Shah Miri, who ruled Kashmir from
1389 to 1413.

Q4 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
About Payments Bank
• A payments bank is like any other bank but operates on a smaller scale without involving any
credit risk.
• It was set up based on the recommendations of the Nachiket Mor Committee.
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 • Objective: To advance financial inclusion by offering banking and financial services to the
unbanked and underbanked areas, helping the migrant labour force, low-income households, small
entrepreneurs, etc.
• It is registered as a public limited company under the Companies Act 2013 and licensed under
Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act 1949.
• It is governed by a host of legislation, such as the Banking Regulation Act, 1949; RBI Act,
1934; Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, etc.
Features:
• They are differentiated, and not universal banks.
• These operate on a smaller scale.
• The minimum paid-up equity capital for payments banks shall be Rs. 100 crores.
• The minimum initial contribution of the promoter to the Payment Bank to the paid-up equity capital
shall be at least 40% for the first five years from the commencement of its business.
Activities that can be performed:
• It can take deposits up to Rs. 2,00,000. It can accept demand deposits in the form of savings and
current accounts.
• The money received as deposits can be invested in secure government securities only in the
form of Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). This must amount to 75% of the demand deposit
balance. Statement 2 is correct.
• The remaining 25% is to be placed as time deposits with other scheduled commercial banks.
• It can offer remittance services, mobile payments/transfers/purchases, and other banking services
like ATM/debit cards, net banking, and third-party fund transfers.
• It can become a banking correspondent (BC) of another bank for credit and other services
which it cannot offer. Statement 1 is correct.
Activities that cannot be performed:
• It cannot issue loans and credit cards.
• It cannot accept time deposits or NRI deposits. Statement 4 is incorrect.
• It cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial activities. Statement 3 is
incorrect.

Q5 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
About Volt Typhoon:
• It is a state-sponsored hacking group based in China that has been active since at least 2021.
• The group typically focuses on espionage and information gathering.
• It has targeted critical infrastructure organizations in the US, including Guam.
• To achieve their objective, the threat actor puts strong emphasis on stealth, relying almost
exclusively on living-off-the-land techniques and hands-on-keyboard activity.
• The recurring attack pattern of Volt Typhoon begins with initial access via exploitation of public-
facing devices or services.
• Volt Typhoon employs the comparatively uncommon practice of leveraging preinstalled utilities
for most of their victim interactions.

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 • Compromised small office/home office (SOHO) devices are used by the attackers to proxy
communications to and from the affected networks.
• They issue commands via the command line to (1) collect data, including credentials from local
and network systems: (2) put the data into an archive file to stage it for exfiltration: and then
(3) use the stolen valid credentials to maintain persistence.
• Volt Typhoon was a particularly quiet operator that hid its traffic by routing it through hacked
network equipment, like home routers, and carefully expunging evidence of intrusions from the
victim’s logs.
• This combination of behaviours makes detection especially difficult, as defenders must be able to
differentiate between attacker activities and those of power users or administrative staff.

Q6 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
• The eROSITA (extended ROentgen Survey with an Imaging Telescope Array) is a wide-field
X-ray telescope on-board the Russian-German "Spectrum-Roentgen-Gamma" (SRG)
observatory.
• It was developed under the leadership of the Max-Planck Institute for extraterrestrial Physics in
Germany (DE).
• It is a sensitive X-ray telescope capable of delivering deep, sharp images over very large areas
of the sky.
• The eROSITA telescope consists of seven identical Wolter-1 mirror modules.
• SRG was successfully launched from Baikonur on July 13 2019, and placed in a halo orbit around
the L2 point.
Functions:
• It has been performing an all-sky survey, in which the whole celestial sphere is mapped once
every six months. Eight such all-sky charts are planned until December 2023.
• It is also expected to yield a sample of several million Active Galactic Nuclei, providing a unique
view of the evolution of supermassive black holes within the emerging cosmic structure.
• The survey will also provide new insights into a wide range of astrophysical phenomena, including
accreting binaries, active stars and diffuse emission within the Galaxy, as well as solar system
bodies that emit X-rays via the charge exchange process.

Q7 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context
The Supreme Court questioned the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir about the
non-publication of orders for the suspension of Internet services in the UT.
Legal Provisions
Till the year 2017, shutdowns were imposed largely under Section 144 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure (CrPC).
• Section 144 of CrPC gave the police and the District Magistrate the powers in order to prevent
unlawful gathering of people and also to direct any person to abstain from a certain activity.

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However, in 2017 the law was amended and the Government promulgated the Temporary
Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Safety) Rule 2017. Statement I is
correct.
Under the 2017 Rules, telecom/internet shutdowns may be ordered on grounds of public emergency
and public safety.
Public emergency and public safety have not been defined in the 1885 Act or the 2017 Rules.
Statement II is incorrect.

Q8 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
About Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund
• It is a Central Sector Scheme. Statement 1 is correct.
• It has been approved for incentivizing investments by individual entrepreneurs, private companies,
MSME, Farmers Producers Organizations (FPOs) and Section 8 companies to establish
o the dairy processing and value addition infrastructure
o meat processing and value addition infrastructure and
o Animal Feed Plant.
Objectives
o To help increasing of milk and meat processing capacity and product diversification thereby
providing greater access for unorganized rural milk and meat producers to organized milk and meat
market.
o To make available increased price realization for the producer.
o To make available quality milk and meat products for the domestic consumer.
o To promote exports and increase the export contribution in the milk and meat sector.
o To make available quality concentrated animals feed to the cattle, buffalo, sheep, goat, pig and
poultry to provide balanced ration at affordable prices.
Government of India will provide 3% interest subvention for 8 years including two years of moratorium
for loan up to 90% from the scheduled bank and National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC),
NABARD and NDDB.
Under this government entities and cooperatives are not eligible to get benefit of this scheme.
Statement 2 is correct.

Q9 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
About Tidal Disruption Event (TDE)
• Tidal disruption events (TDEs) are astronomical phenomena that occur when a star passes
close enough to a supermassive black hole and is pulled apart by the black hole's tidal forces,
causing the process of disruption.
• Such tidally disrupted stellar debris starts raining down on the black hole and radiation emerges
from the innermost region of accreting debris, which is an indicator of the presence of a TDE.
How does a TDE typically unfold?
• Close Approach: A star in a galaxy approaches a black hole on a very close trajectory due to
gravitational interactions within the galaxy.
• Tidal Forces: As the star gets closer to the black hole, the gravitational forces acting on it become
increasingly uneven due to the difference in gravitational pull on the near side and far side of the
star. These tidal forces can be strong enough to disrupt the star.
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 • Stellar Disruption: When the tidal forces exceed the self-gravitational forces holding the star
together, it undergoes a process called "tidal disruption." The star is stretched and eventually torn
apart into a stream of gas and debris.
• Accretion Disk Formation: The debris from the disrupted star forms an accretion disk around the
black hole. This disk is composed of hot gas and dust, and it spirals inwards towards the black hole.
• Energy Release: As the material in the accretion disk spirals inwards, it releases a tremendous
amount of energy in the form of X-rays and ultraviolet radiation.
• Flares and Observations: TDEs are often observed as bright flares of radiation from the centre of
a galaxy. These flares can last for several months to years, gradually fading as the disrupted star's
material is consumed by the black hole.

Q10 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
Finance Minister recently presented fiscal consolidation projections that surpass expectations for
the current financial year and Budget Estimates (BE) for the next year, despite the conservative tax
buoyancy in the estimates.
About Tax Buoyancy:
• Tax buoyancy explains the relationship between the changes in the government’s tax revenue
growth and the changes in Gross domestic product (GDP). Statement 1 is correct.
• There is a strong connection between the government’s tax revenue earnings and economic growth.
• As the economy achieves faster growth, the tax revenue of the government also goes up. Tax
buoyancy explains this relationship.
• It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
• When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate. Statement 2 is
correct.
It depends upon:
• the size of the tax base;
• the friendliness of the tax administration;
• the rationality and simplicity of tax rates;
Tax buoyancy will be highest for direct taxes. Generally, direct taxes are more sensitive to the GDP
growth rate. Statement 3 is correct.
What is tax elasticity?
• A similar looking concept is tax elasticity. It refers to changes in tax revenue in response to
changes in the tax rate. Statement 4 is correct.
• For example, how tax revenue changes if the government reduces corporate income tax from 30
percent to 25 percent indicate tax elasticity.

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Q11 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:

Budget at a Glance
• The Revised Estimate (RE) of the total receipts other than borrowings is Rs 27.56 lakh crore.
• The RE of the total expenditure is Rs 44.90 lakh crore.
• The revenue receipts at Rs 30.03 lakh crore are expected to be higher than the Budget Estimate
(BE).
• It reflects strong growth momentum and formalisation in the economy.
• It suggests that income tax revenues will account for 19%, Corporate tax will account for 17%,
GST for 18% and borrowings for 28% of all government resources in FY25.
Rupee come from:
• Borrowings and other liabilities account for the largest avenue from where the Budget money
comes, followed by income tax and GST and other taxes.
Rupee goes to:
• When it comes to expenditure, the highest amount goes towards paying interest and the money
given to the states in the form of taxes and duties, accounting for 20% each of the total expenditure.

Q12 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
A Green Propulsion System, developed under the Technology Development Fund (TDF) scheme of
the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), has successfully demonstrated in-
orbit functionality on a payload launched by PSLV C-58 mission.

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 • The TDF is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Defence executed by DRDO under the ‘Make
in India’ initiative for funding innovation in defense and aerospace, especially to start-ups and
MSMEs.
What is Propulsion Technology?
• Propulsion means to push forward or drive an object forward.
• A propulsion system is a machine that produces thrust to push an object forward.
• On aeroplanes, thrust is usually generated through some application of Newton’s third law of action
and reaction.
Green Propulsion Technology by ISRO:
The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) embarked on the development of Green Propulsion
Technology in 2018, aiming to create environmentally friendly alternatives for propellants.
Key milestones in ISRO's Green Propulsion endeavours include:
• Eco-Friendly Solid Propellant: ISRO developed an eco-friendly solid propellant consisting of
Glycidyl Azide polymer (GAP) as fuel and Ammonium Di-Nitramide (ADN) as the oxidizer
in 2018. Statement 1 is correct.
• Testing Various Combinations: ISRO engaged in technology demonstration projects involving
green propellant combinations, such as kerosene, Hydrogen Peroxide, Liquid Oxygen, ADN-
Glycerol-water, ADN-Methanol-water.
• Liquid Oxygen and Hydrogen Propulsion Systems: ISRO initiated testing of propulsion systems
based on Liquid Oxygen and Liquid Hydrogen for launch vehicles, expanding the scope of green
propulsion technologies.
• ISORENE Development: ISRO introduced ISORENE, a rocket-grade version of kerosene, as
an alternative to conventional Hydrazine rocket fuel. Statement 2 is correct.
• Electric Propulsion System: ISRO successfully demonstrated the Electric Propulsion system in
the South Asia Satellite (GSAT-9) launched in May 2017. This technology offers enhanced
efficiency and control.
Types of Propulsion Systems in Satellites:
1. Chemical Propulsion
o Bi-Propellant Systems:
• Utilize two separate propellants that combine in a combustion chamber.
• Common propellant combinations include liquid oxygen (LOX) and hydrazine.
o Mono-Propellant Systems:
• Use a single propellant that decomposes exothermically to produce thrust.
• Hydrogen peroxide is a common choice for mono-propellant systems.
2. Electric Propulsion
o Ion Thrusters:
• Expel ions at high speeds using electric or magnetic fields.
• Ideal for long-duration missions due to high specific impulse.
o Hall Effect Thrusters:
• Accelerate plasma using magnetic fields.
• Balances thrust and efficiency, suitable for station-keeping and orbit adjustments.

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3. Green Propulsion
o Water Electrolysis Propulsion:
• Utilizes water as a propellant, separating it into hydrogen and oxygen through electrolysis.
• Environmentally friendly and suitable for small satellites.
o Green Mono-Propellants:
• Focuses on developing non-toxic, environmentally friendly mono-propellants.
• Aims to reduce the environmental impact of satellite propulsion.
Applications of Propulsion Systems in Satellites:
• Orbit Insertion: Chemical propulsion is commonly used during launch to insert satellites into their
designated orbits.
• Station-Keeping: Electric propulsion systems help satellites maintain their positions in
geostationary or other orbits.
• Collision Avoidance: Propulsion systems enable satellites to adjust their orbits to avoid collisions
with space debris or other satellites.
• End-of-Life Manoeuvres: Satellites use propulsion systems to deorbit and perform end-of-life
manoeuvres to reduce space debris.

Q13 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
The recent study published by the Department of Energy's SLAC National Accelerator Laboratory
have unveiled new insights into the formation of diamonds within the icy giants of our solar system,
Neptune and Uranus.
Diamond Rain
• There is a high possibility of diamonds raining on hundreds of exoplanets in space.
• Diamond rain may become a common phenomenon inside ice-giant planets like Uranus and
Neptune.
• Diamonds are gradually forming from the polystyrene at temperatures around 2200 degrees Celsius
and pressures around 19 gigapascals, conditions which are similar to those in the interiors of Uranus
and Neptune.
• Diamond rain is a possibility on several of the smaller planets such as mini-Neptunes, which are
abundant outside our solar system.
• These diamonds are result of extremely compressed carbon compounds present deep inside
the core of exoplanets at extremely low temperatures.

Q14 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Subika Painting:
Subika paintings are an early visual art form from Manipur. Pair 1 is correctly matched.
The paintings are based on stories and events from the Hindu epic and Puranas.

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The style is intricately linked to the Meitei community’s cultural history through its 6 surviving
manuscripts that include:
• Subika
• Subika Achouba
• Subika Laishaba
• Subika Choudit
• Subika Cheithil
• Thengrakhel Subika
Basohli painting – Is a traditional art form that originated in the Basohli town of Jammu and
Kashmir, known for its rich cultural heritage. Pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
• It is a distinct style of miniature painting that has a unique blend of Hindu mythology, folk art, and
Persian influences.
Pichwai paintings – Are a traditional Indian art form that originated in the town of Nathdwara in
Rajasthan, India over 400 years ago. Pair 3 is incorrectly matched.
Thangka paintings – Of Arunachal Pradesh are famous in the Tawang, West Kameng, and Upper
Siang districts. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched.
• The process involves a picture panel of paint which is put on a silk border or cover. The dyes of the
painting are vibrant.

Q15 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Astro Sat, India’s first, dedicated multi-wavelength astronomy mission, accomplished the difficult
task of measuring the X-ray polarisation of the Cygnus X-1 black hole system.
About Cygnus X-1:
• It was discovered over four decades ago.
• It is one of the first confirmed black hole systems in our galaxy.
• The black hole in Cygnus X-1 is 20 times heavier than the Sun, and has a companion - a heavy
supergiant star (40 times more massive than the Sun) in a binary system.
• It is located at a distance that is about 400 times more than the distance between Earth and
Sun.
• Due to the gravitational pull of the black hole, material from the supergiant falls and spirals in
towards the black hole.
• This process leads to the formation of a thin accretion disk which is responsible for soft X-rays.
Significance of X-ray Polarisation:
• Normal X-ray measurements only reveal the energy or intensity of the radiations.
• Polarisation characteristics of X-rays, which tells about the orientation of the oscillating
electric field, holds clues on the geometry and other properties of the black hole.
• This measurement of high polarization in this source in the 100-380 keV implies that radiation
emitted from the source at energies above 100 keV, is likely to have originated at the black hole jet
• Polarization is one of the properties that a photon carries from the celestial objects in the sky.

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Q16 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
GHAR - GO Home and Re-Unite Portal have been developed and launched by the National
Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR).
About GHAR Portal:
• It is a portal to digitally monitor and track the restoration and repatriation of children
according to the protocols under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act,
2015, and Rules thereof.
• It has been developed and launched by the National Commission for Protection of Child
Rights (NCPCR).
The following are the salient features of the portal:
• Digital tracking and monitoring of children who are in the Juvenile Justice system and have to be
repatriated to another Country/State/District.
• Digital transfer of cases of children to the concerned Juvenile Justice Board/Child Welfare
Committee of the State. It will help in the speedy repatriation of children.
• Where there is a requirement of a translator/interpreter/expert, request will be made to the
concerned State Government.
• Child Welfare Committees and District Child Protection Officers can ensure proper restoration and
rehabilitation of children by digitally monitoring the progress of the case.
• A checklist format will be provided in the forms so that the children who are being hard to repatriate
or children who are not getting their entitled compensation or other monetary benefits can be
identified.
• List of Government implemented schemes will be provided, so that at the time of restoration, the
Child Welfare Committees can link the child with the schemes to strengthen the family and ensure
that the child remains with his/her family.

Q17 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
The Indian Air Force will be conducting Exercise Vayu Shakti-24 on 17 February 2024 at the
Pokhran Air to Ground Range, near Jaisalmer.

• The Indian Air Force is slated to carry out three large scale war games on February 17,
namely, Vayu Shakti, Gagan Shakti and Tarang Shakti.
• It will be a riveting demonstration of the offensive and defensive capabilities of the IAF, spanning
across day and night.
• The exercise will also showcase joint operations with the Indian Army.
Exercise Vayu Shakti
• The IAF will first undertake the major "Vayu Shakti" firepower demonstration, which is
held once every three years, with 135 fighters, aircraft, helicopters and drones at the Pokhran field
firing ranges. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Gagan Shakti’
• The second mega exercise will be ‘Gagan Shakti’.

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 • In this, almost the entire air fleet race would be activated from north to south, and from west to east
to test integrated war fighting strategies and tactics with the other two forces and other stakeholders.
• All the potent weapon systems like the Rafale fighter aircraft and the S-400 air defense systems
would be participating in the ‘Gagan Shakti’ exercise.
• The exercise, which is held once in five years, is also going to be the biggest ever of the series
with active participation from other two services.
Tarang Shakti
• The third major exercise, Tarang Shakti, would be the first ever multinational exercise to be
held in the country.
• This will see aircraft from friendly air forces like the US, Germany, France, Australia and
neighbouring and other friendly countries taking part in it. Statement 2 is incorrect.

Q18 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
About Indonesia:
Political Features
• An archipelago, located off the coast of mainland Southeast Asia in the Indian and Pacific oceans.
• Shares borders with Malaysia, Papua New Guinea and East Timor.
• Maritime Neighbours: Singapore, Philippines, Australia, and India.
Geographical Features
• Five main islands: Sumatra, Java, Kalimantan (two-thirds of the island of Borneo), Sulawesi and
Papua.
• Positioned in boundary zone of 3 major tectonic plates: Indian-Australian, Eurasian and Pacific.
• Java Trench is the deepest point of the Indian Ocean.
• Highest Peak: Puncak Jaya.

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Q19 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
• About:
• The Mekong, or Mekong River, is a trans-boundary river in Southeast Asia. It is the world's twelfth
longest river and the seventh longest in Asia.
• The Mekong flows from China to Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia and Vietnam.
Mekong River Commission (MRC):
• Mandate: It is inter-governmental organisation to jointly manage the shared water resources and
the sustainable development of the Mekong River.
• Membership: Cambodia, Laos, Thailand, Vietnam. The two upper states if the Mekong River
Basin, the People's Republic of China and the Union of Myanmar, are dialogue partners to
the MRC.
• Headquarters: Vientiane, Laos.
• Established in: 1995.

Q20 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the pressure on European museums to return artefacts taken from Southeast Asia during
colonial times is growing.
UNESCO 1970 Convention:
• 1970 Convention – It refers to ‘Means of Prohibiting and Preventing the Illicit Import, Export
and Transfer of Ownership of Cultural Property’. Statement 1 is correct.
• 1970 Convention defines ‘Cultural Property’ as ‘a property designated by countries having
importance for archaeology, prehistory, history, literature, art or science’.
• It is the principal legal source when a country makes a claim to have its possessions returned.
• Launch – It came into force in 1972.
• State Parties – 144, India ratified in 1977. Statement 3 is correct.
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Objectives – To urge States Parties to take measures to prohibit, prevent the illicit trafficking and
return the cultural property.
• To provide a common framework for the States Parties on the measures and to safeguard the identity
of peoples and promote peaceful societies.
Principles – Prevention, restitution and international cooperation.
Limitations – It does not apply retrospectively, so it does not include the peak phase of colonialism.
Statement 2 is correct.
Ownership approval – The requesting State Party shall furnish, at its expense, the documentation and
other evidence necessary to establish its claim for recovery and return.
Significance of returning artefacts – It can provide significant soft-power benefits for European countries
in their extension of influence in regions such as Southeast Asia.
Indian laws in Protection of Antiquities
• Before Independence – Antiquities (Export Control) Act of 1947 ensured that “no antiquity could
be exported without license.”
• After Independence – Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act was enacted
in 1958.
• The Antiquities and Art Treasures Act was enacted in 1972 (AATA), implemented from April 1,
1976.
• Item-67 of the Union List, Item-12 of the State List, and Item-40 of the Concurrent List of the
Constitution deal with the country’s heritage.

Q21 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
The MEA’s total development assistance to various countries and regions such as Latin America and
Eurasia has been pegged at Rs 4,883 crore.
• The ministry allocated a total of Rs 22,154 crore for the 2024-25 fiscal in the Interim budget as
against last year’s outlay of Rs 18,050 crore.
• In line with India’s ‘Neighbourhood First’ policy, the largest share of aid portfolio for 2024-25
went to Bhutan with an allocation of Rs 2,068 crore as against Rs 2,400 crore in 2023-24.
• Nepal would be provided Rs 700 crore against Rs 650 crore in 2023-24.
• The assistance to the Maldives has been kept at Rs 600 crore as against Rs 770 crore in 2023-
24, despite recent strain in the bilateral ties.
• ‘The allocation for Chabahar Port has also been maintained at Rs 100 crore, underlining India’s
focus on connectivity projects with Iran.
• In continuation with India’s special relationship with the people of Afghanistan, a budgetary
aid of Rs 200 crore has been set aside.
• In 2023-24, it was Rs 220 crore.
• An amount of Rs 120 crore will be provided to Bangladesh against Rs 130 crore in 2023-24.
• Sri Lanka will get development aid worth Rs 75 crore (up from Rs 60 crore in 2023-24).
• Mauritius to receive Rs 370 crore (up from Rs 330 crore), while for Myanmar it is at Rs 250
crore (down from Rs 370 cr in 2023-24).

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Q22 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
About:
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile
application of any participating bank. The interface has been developed by the National Payments
Corporation of India (NPCI).
• UPI is a payment system that allows money transfer between any two bank accounts by using
a smartphone.
• UPI allows a customer to pay directly from a bank account to different merchants, both online and
offline, without the hassle of typing credit card details, IFSC code, or net banking/wallet passwords.
• It merges several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant payments into one hood.
• It was launched in April 2016 and today, the platform has emerged as a popular choice among users
for sending and receiving money.
• It also caters to the “Peer to Peer” collect request which can be scheduled and paid as per
requirement and convenience.
• In 2018, an upgraded version of UPI 2.0, was launched by the National Payments Corporation of
India (NPCI).
Key features of UPI:
• Invoice in the inbox: This feature is designed for customers to check the invoice sent by the
merchant prior to making payment. It will help customers to view and verify the credentials and
check whether it has come from the right merchant or not.
• One-time mandate: UPI Mandate, which means customers including both merchants and
individual users can pre-authorize a transaction and pay at a later date, can be created and executed
instantly. On the date of actual purchase, the amount will be deducted and received by the
merchant/individual user.
• Linking of overdraft account: In addition to current and savings accounts, customers can link
their overdraft account to UPI.
• Signed intent and QR: This feature helps customers to check the authenticity of merchants while
scanning QR or quick response code. It notifies the user with information to ascertain whether the
merchant is a verified UPI merchant or not. This provides additional security. Customers will be
informed in case the receiver is not secured by way of notifications.
About National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
• NPCI is an umbrella organisation for operating retail payments and settlement systems in
India.
• It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA)
under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 for creating a robust
Payment and Settlement Infrastructure in India.

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Q23 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Primary Macro-nutrients Essential for Plant Growth
Nutrient Contribution to Plant Growth

Essential for leaf and stem growth, protein

Nitrogen
synthesis, and overall vigour

Crucial for root development, flowering,

Phosphorus
fruiting, and energy transfer

Aids in overall plant health, stress resistance, and

Potassium
regulation of water

Important for cell wall structure, cell division, and

Calcium
enzyme activation

Essential component of chlorophyll, involved in

Magnesium
photosynthesis and metabolism

Necessary for protein synthesis, enzyme function,

Sulfur
and nutrient uptake

Main component of organic molecules, essential for

Carbon
photosynthesis

Critical for biochemical reactions, water uptake, and

Hydrogen
maintaining pH

Involved in respiration, energy release, and nutrient

Oxygen
transport

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 Key for chlorophyll synthesis, electron transfer, and
Iron
enzyme activation

Essential for enzyme function, hormone

Zinc
regulation, and protein synthesis

Required for photosynthesis, enzyme activation, and

Manganese
nitrogen metabolism

Important for enzyme activity, lignin formation, and

Copper
nutrient uptake

Facilitates cell division, sugar transport, and

Boron
hormone regulation

Needed for nitrogen fixation, enzyme activity, and

Molybdenum
amino acid synthesis

Involved in photosynthesis, water regulation, and

Chlorine
ion balance

Required for nitrogen metabolism, enzyme

Nickel
activation, and seed development

Essential for nitrogen fixation, vitamin B12

Cobalt
synthesis, and enzyme activity

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Context:
What is Nano DAP?
DAP (Di-Ammonium Phosphate):
• DAP is the second most commonly used fertilizer in India after urea.
• DAP is a preferred fertilizer in India because it contains both Nitrogen and Phosphorus which are
primary macro-nutrients and part of 18 essential plant nutrients.
• Fertilizer grade DAP contains 18% Nitrogen and 46% Phosphorus. It is manufactured by reacting
Ammonia with Phosphoric acid under controlled conditions in fertilizer plants.
Nano DAP:
• Nano DAP is a specialised form of DAP designed with the goal of improving the fertiliser's
effectiveness in promoting plant growth and development.
• In 2023 Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative (IFFCO) launched its Nano DAP, containing
8% Nitrogen and 16% Phosphorus by volume.
• Unlike conventional DAP, which comes in granular form, IFFCO’s Nano DAP is in liquid
form.

Q24 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Ilsenhohle Cave Site
During the Re-excavation of Ilsenhohle Cave Site, it was recently found that the site provides
evidence for the first dispersal of Homo sapiens across the higher latitudes of Europe.
• The researchers re-excavated the Ilsenhohle cave site in Ranis, Germany, aiming to locate
remaining deposits from man excavation in 1930 while also clarifying the chronology of the site.
• The site provides evidence for the first dispersal of Homo sapiens across the higher latitudes of
Europe.
• The stone artefacts that were thought to be produced by Neanderthals were in fact part of the early
H. sapiens tool kit.
• During the re-excavation a 1.7-metre-thick rock and human fossils was found.
• The site now has the oldest H. sapiens fossils.
• Bones and stone artefacts from the cave showed that these people hunted large mammals including
reindeer, horses, bison and woolly rhinoceroses.
• The results from the Ilsenhohle in Ranis fundamentally change our ideas about the chronology and
settlement history of Europe north of the Alps.
• The new study’s revelations mean that Homo-sapiens reached Northern Europe before
Neanderthals went extinct.

Q25 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Higher photorespiration in warmer climates
A ground-breaking study by a team led by the Pennsylvania State University has revealed that trees
release more carbon dioxide (CO2) in warmer and drier climates.
Photorespiration
• A process that involves the uptake of oxygen and release of carbon dioxide by the plant.
Statement 1 is correct.
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 • It occurs in the cells of plants during both day and night. Statement 2 is correct.
• It decreases the sugar synthesis and wastes the energy of the cell.
• It is opposite of photosynthesis process, which involves the inhaling of carbon dioxide and release
of oxygen by trees.
• Thus, it reverses the carbon-capturing process of photosynthesis
Rate of photorespiration is measured using wood samples. Researchers can now predict future tree
"breathing" and unravel the past by examining fossilised wood.
• Findings of the research – It have challenged the prevailing notion of trees as climate change
warriors.
• Accelerated photorespiration – In regions with heightened temperatures and water scarcity.
• Rate of photorespiration – It is up to 2 times higher in warmer climates, especially when water is
limited than the cooler and wetter regions.
• Reducing carbon dioxide emissions is crucial for mitigating climate change, as this is a major
greenhouse gas contributing to global warming.

Q26 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
The Aldabra Atoll is situated in the Indian Ocean. It is one of the world's largest coral atolls and is
located in the Aldabra Group of islands in the Seychelles. The atoll is renowned for its rich
biodiversity and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Context:
The flightless Aldabra rail:
• Scientific name: Dryolimnas cuvieri aldabranus
• It lives on a coral atoll off the southeast coast of Africa.
• Appearance: It's about the size of a chicken, with a flecked gray back, a rusty red head and chest
and a white throat.
• It is a subspecies of the white-throated rail (Dryolimnas cuvieri) and is the only living flightless
bird in the Indian Ocean.
• In losing its ability to fly once again, the Aldabra rail has essentially evolved twice, rising from the
dead through a process called iterative evolution.
What is Iterative evolution?
Iterative evolution can be defined as "the repeated evolution of a specific trait or body plan from the
same ancestral lineage at different points in time."

Q27 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
To protect Amazon, conservators try to save pollinator Stingless bees.
• A stingless bee is a bee that appears very similar to a honeybee, but is incapable of stinging.
• These bees are eusocial, which means that they live together in hives and produce honey.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
• These are native to the Amazon.
• Their honey, which is runny enough to be drunk like a liquid and is said to have a citrusy
aftertaste
• It is used by many Indigenous Peruvians as a natural medicine.
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Distribution: Stingless bees can be found mostly in tropical and subtropical regions. Statement 2 is
incorrect.
• These bees cannot sting but nature has made sure to give them other ways of defending themselves.
• These bees do possess stingers, but they are too small to be useful in defense. Instead of stinging,
stingless bees use their mandibles to bite their attackers.
Threats:
• The Amazon is home to hundreds of species of stingless bee, but as deforestation converts the
tropical landscape into farms and ranches, these and other native pollinators are in danger of
disappearing.
• Pesticides and climate change.

Q28 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:

Q29 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Scientists theorize that extracting matter and energy from the Ergosphere, the region between the
event horizon and the stationary limit of a rotating black hole, is possible.
What is Ergosphere?
• The ergosphere is a region surrounding a rotating black hole, located between the event
horizon and the stationary limit.
• In this area, space-time itself is dragged along with the rotation of the black hole.
• Objects within the ergosphere are forced to rotate along with the black hole’s spin due to the
distortion of spacetime caused by its immense gravitational pull.
The event horizon, on the other hand, is a theoretical boundary around a black hole beyond which
no radiation can escape.

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Q30 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context:
Seabed Curtain project
Scientists are working on an unusual plan to prevent Antarctic glaciers from melting through seabed
curtain project.
• Aim – To build a set of giant underwater curtains in front of ice sheets to protect them from
being eroded by warm sea water.
• Need – Ice in Polar Regions is now disappearing at record rates as global warming intensifies.
• Warmer air melts the surface of glaciers, while they are also eroded at their bases by warm seawater.
• Loss of the Thwaites and Pine Island glaciers could be enough to raise sea levels round the world
by 3 metres if they melted.
• Proposal – To construct a 100km-long curtain attached to the bed of the Amundsen Sea and
would rise by about 200 metres.
• Curtain – It would stretch along the seabed opposite the Thwaites and Pine Island glaciers to
act as plugs that prevent the giant ice sheets behind them from sliding into the ocean.
• Working – It would partially restrict the inflow of relatively warm water that laps at the bases
of coastal Antarctic glaciers and undermines them.

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Q31 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
The GRAPES-3 experiment discovered a new feature in the cosmic-ray proton spectrum at about
166 tera-electron-volt (TeV) energy while measuring the spectrum spanning from 50 TeV to a little
over 1 peta-electron-volt (PeV).
• Gamma Ray Astronomy PeV EnergieS phase-3 (GRAPES-3) is designed to study cosmic rays
with an array of air shower detectors and a large area muon detector. Statement 1 is correct.
• Location: It is located in Ooty, India. Statement 2 is correct.
• It is operated by the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research.
• It aims to probe acceleration of cosmic rays in different astrophysical settings.
Its objectives are to study
• The origin, acceleration and propagation of >1014 eV cosmic rays in the galaxy and beyond.
• Existence of “Knee” in the energy spectrum of cosmic rays.
• Production and/or acceleration of highest energy (~1020 eV) cosmic rays in the universe.
• Astronomy of multi-TeV γ-rays from neutron stars and other compact object.
• Sun the closest astrophysical object, accelerator of energetic particles and its effects on the Earth.
Key facts about Cosmic rays:
• These rays were discovered more than a century ago.
• They are considered to be the most energetic particles in the universe.
• Our planet is constantly bombarded by them from outer space almost uniformly from all directions
at a constant rate.

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 • They enter into Earth's atmosphere and induce a shower of particles that travel to the ground almost
at the speed of light.
• The shower particles constitute electrons, photons, muons, protons, neutrons etc.
• They have been observed over a remarkably wide energy range (108 to 1020 eV).

Q32 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
During the launch event of " Digital India FutureLABS Summit 2024” held at IIIT- Delhi, three
Indigenous Technologies - Thermal camera, CMOS camera and Fleet Management System designed
and developed by CDAC Thiruvananthapuram under InTranSE Program of MeitY were
transferred to 12 Industries.
• The Intelligent Transportation System Endeavor (InTranSE) is a revolutionary collaborative
research and development programme.
• It is an initiative of the Union Ministry of Electronics & IT.
• Purpose: To synergize the transformation in Intelligent Transportation System the Ministry
of Electronics & IT took early steps by bringing together premier academic institutes like
Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Indian Institute of
Management (IIM) etc. and Premier R&D Centre like C-DAC under one umbrella.
• This initiative formulated the Collaborative Intelligent Transportation Systems Endeavor for Indian
Cities (InTranSE) during the year 2009-2012 (Phase-I) that witnessed IIT Bombay, IIT Madras,
IIM Calcutta and C-DAC Thiruvananthapuram collaboratively developing, implementing,
demonstrating and knowledge transfer of ITS products and solutions.
• The InTranSE Phase-II program (2019-2021) is aiming at undertaking R&D projects
collaboratively with IIT Bombay, IIT Madras, IISc Bangalore and C-DAC Thiruvananthapuram
• Significance: It will achieve traffic efficiency by minimizing traffic problems, prompting
efficient infrastructure usage, enriching users with prior information about traffic and
reducing travel time as well as enhancing safety and comfort of commuters.

Q33 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Masara Philippines
Abhkhazia Georgia
Ziguinchor Senegal
Lake Rotorua New Zealand
Context:
Magnetic Anomaly under Lake Rotorua
Recently, scientists have unveiled a hidden hydrothermal system and a magnetic anomaly beneath
the waters of Lake Rotorua.
• Mapping Lake Rotorua's floor, showed a series of eruption craters, traces of an ancient river, and a
significant magnetic anomaly in the southern part of the lake.
• Magnetic anomaly – Typically, volcanic rocks exhibit strong positive magnetic responses due to
the presence of magnetite.
• But in Lake Rotorua, the hydrothermal fluids have altered the magnetite into pyrite, or fool's gold.
• This results in a reduced magnetic signal.

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Lake Rotorua
• Geography – It is situated atop a dormant volcanic crater on New Zealand's North Island.
• Formation – When a magma chamber collapsed following a volcanic eruption, created the Rotorua
Caldera.
• Characteristics – It is shallow, with an average depth of about 10 m, and is part of the Taupo
Volcanic Zone.
• It is renowned for its geothermal marvels such as bubbling mud pools, shooting geysers, and natural
hot springs.
• But despite the intense geothermal activity, its temperature at the bottom remains cooler.
Significance of discovery – It confirm for the 1st time that the hydrothermal activity on the mainland
extends into the submerged realm of Lake Rotorua.
It helps to deepen our understanding of the complex interplay between land, water, and the forces beneath
the Earth's crust.

Q34 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context: The Geological Institute of Israel recently uncovered a never-before-known about
underwater canyon near Cyprus that dates back to the Messinian Event.
About Messinian Event:
• Also known as the Messinian Salinity Crisis (MSC), the Messinian event was a geological
event during which the Mediterranean Sea went into a cycle of partial or nearly complete
desiccation (drying up).
• It was one of the most severe ecological crises in the Earth's history.
• The MSC began approximately 6 million years ago (MYA) and lasted until around 5.3 MYA.
How has it unfolded?
• It began when the connection between the Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea was cut off.
• This occurred due to a combination of lowered sea levels in the global oceans and collision between
the European and African plates that caused the land to lift.
• Normally, there is much more evaporation than precipitation over the Mediterranean Sea. This
means that much more water is leaving than entering the sea.
• Without a significant source of water from the Atlantic Ocean, this led to the evaporation of much
of the Mediterranean Sea.
• A large underground canyon formed, and rivers made deep incisionsinto the bottom of the basin.
This canyon was much larger than the Grand Canyon and had a depth of up to 2,000 meters (6562
feet).
• As the water in the Mediterranean evaporated, the salt that was in the water was left behind and
began to build up in layers on the floor of the Mediterranean.
• Two major salts that were deposited on the floor were Halite and Gypsum. Some of the salt deposit
areas were 800 meters (2,500 feet) deep.
• However, the salt in the Mediterranean did not deposit on the floor as quickly as the water was
evaporating. This means that whatever water was left in the Mediterranean became very salty.
• This high amount of salt in the water (also known as salinity) caused the Mediterranean to become
deadly to all marine life.
• The Mediterranean continued to dry up until there was almost no water left.
• It ended with the Zanclean flood, when the Atlantic reclaimed the basin.
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Q35 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context
The Interim Budget 2024-25 has increased the Gender Budget.
About:
• The quantum of Gender Budget reported in 2024-25 is 38.6% more than budget estimates of
2023-24.
• The share of Gender Budget in the total Union Budget increased to 6.5% in 2024-25 from 5%
in 2023-24.
What is Gender Budgeting?
• Gender Budgeting is a strategy with gender responsive formulation of legislation, policies, plans,
programmes, and schemes; resource allocation; implementation; tracking of expenditure, audit, and
impact assessment.
• It aims to ensure that public resources are collected and spent efficiently based on differing
gender needs and priorities. Statement I is correct.
• Gender Budgets are not separate budgets for women; neither do they imply that funds be
divided into half for men and women or that budgets should be divided into half. Statement
II is incorrect.
• They are attempts to disaggregate the government’s budget according to its differential impact on
different Genders, and reprioritize allocations to bridge gender gaps.
Gender-responsive budgeting in India was adopted in 2005. It comprises two parts:
• Part A: It encompasses schemes that allot 100 percent of the funds for women (such as maternity
benefits).
• Part B: It consists of schemes that allocate at least 30 percent of funds for women (such as the Mid-
Day Meal scheme).

Q36 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Conservation Reserve
The Telangana Forest Department moots conservation reserve in Tadoba-Kawal tiger corridor.
The proposed conservation reserve comprises areas of tiger corridor between the Tadoba-Andhrari Tiger
Reserve in Maharashtra and the Kawal Tiger Reserve in Mancherial district of Telangana State.
• Conservation Reserve – A protected area that act as buffer zones to or connectors and
migration corridors between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved
forests. Statement 1 is correct.
• Aim – To protect landscapes, seascapes, flora and fauna and their habitat.
• Legality – Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002, the amendment to the Wildlife
Protection Act of 1972. Statement 2 is correct.
• It is designated by the state government after discussing it with nearby communities.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
• Criteria for designation – Uninhabited and completely owned areas of the Government.

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Managed by – Conservation Reserve Management Committee.
• 1 from each village panchayat.
• 3 from NGOs and 1 each from the departments of Agriculture and Animal Husbandry.
• A member-secretary who will be the representative from the Forest or Wildlife wing.
Coverage – There are 115 existing Conservation Reserves in India covering an area of 5548.75 km2,
which is 0.17% of the geographical area of India as of 2023.
• The 1st conservation reserve of India is located near Tiruppadaimarathur in Tamil Nadu.
Statement 4 is correct.

Q37 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
Hindu Kush Himalaya
ICIMOD experts call for urgent finance to prevent collapse of nature in High Mountain Asia in a
recent meeting at Kathmandu.
• High Mountain Asia comprises of mountain ranges such as the Tian Shan, Kunlun Shan, Pamir,
Karakoram, Hindu Kush, the Tibetan Plateau and the Himalayas. Mountains cover 22% of Earth’s
land surface but hold 50% of the world’s global biodiversity hotspots.
• Geography – It stretches 3,500 kms and spans 8 countries, is home to most of the snow and
ice on Earth outside the poles. (Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Myanmar,
Nepal, and Pakistan.) Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Importance – It comprises 4 biodiversity hotspots out of the world’s 36 global biodiversity
hotspots, 2 of the global 200 eco regions, 575 Protected Areas, 335 important bird areas.
Statement 2 is correct.
• Still 85% of mountain communities remain dependent on this biodiversity, for food, water, flood
control and cultural identity.
Water Tower of Asia – Hindu Kush Himalayas
• It provides clean water for a third of the world’s population.
• At least 12 rivers fan out across the Asian continent from it.
• The Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra towards the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
• Syr Darya and Amu Darya towards the now-dead Aral Sea
• The Tarim toward the Taklamakan
• The Yellow River towards the Gulf of Bohai
• The Yangtze towards the East China Sea
• The Mekong towards the South China Sea
• The Chindwin, Salween and Irrawaddy towards the Andaman Sea
HinduKush
• Biodiversity on the brink – 70% of the original biodiversity has been lost over the last century.
• It is estimated to be warming at nearly 2 times the average rate of warming in the Northern
Hemisphere.
• 241 million people live in the HKH region, of whom 31% are food-insecure and 50% of whom face
some form of malnutrition.

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 • The International Centre for Integrated Mountain Development (ICIMOD), a regional
intergovernmental organization established in 1983 to make Hindu Kush Himalaya region
greener, more inclusive and climate resilient. Statement 3 is correct.
• Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES), an
independent intergovernmental body established in 2012 for conservation and sustainable use of
biodiversity. UNEP provides secretariat services to it.

Q38 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) released the results of
the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) for the reference periods of 2020-21 and 2021-22 referred to
as ASI 2020-21 and ASI 2021-22.
What is the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI)?
The Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is the principal source of industrial statistics in India. It
started in 1960 with 1959 as the base year and continues annually except for 1972, under the
Collection of Statistics Act, of 1953.
From ASI 2010-11, the Survey is being conducted under the Collection of Statistics Act, 2008.
Statement 2 is correct.
The Collection of Statistics Act, 2008 has been amended in 2017 as the Collection of Statistics
(Amendment) Act, 2017 which extends the coverage to All India.
The National Statistical Office (NSO) conducts the ASI. The NSO is part of the MoSPI. Statement 1
is correct.
The MoSPI is responsible for the coverage and quality of released statistics.
Scope and Coverage:
• ASI covers factories registered under Sections 2(m)(i) and 2(m)(ii) of the Factories Act, 1948.
• Bidi and cigar manufacturing establishments registered under the Bidi & Cigar Workers
(Conditions of Employment) Act,1966. Statement 3 is incorrect.
• Electricity undertakings engaged in generation, transmission and distribution of electricity, not
registered with the Central Electricity Authority (CEA).

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 • Units with 100 or more employees registered in the Business Register of Establishments (BRE)
prepared and maintained by the State Governments as and when such lists are shared by the
respective State Governments.
Data Collection Mechanism:
• Data for ASI are collected from the selected factories under the Collection of Statistics Act
2008 as amended in 2017 and Rules framed there under in 2011.
Key Highlights:
GVA Growth:
• GVA grew by 8.8% in 2020-21 due to a sharp fall in input, while it rose significantly by 26.6% in
2021-22, driven by industrial output growth of over 35%.
Sector Performance:
• Industries like Basic metals, Pharmaceuticals, Motor vehicles, and Food Products were major
contributors to GVA growth in 2021-22.
Employment
• Total employment in the sector rebounded in 2021-22, growing by 7.0% year-on-year and
exceeding pre-pandemic levels.
State Rankings:
• Gujarat led in GVA in 2020-21 and ranked second in 2021-22, while Maharashtra topped in
2021-22, followed by Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Uttar Pradesh.
Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, and Haryana emerged as the top five states
employing the highest number of persons in the manufacturing sector in both 2020-21 and 2021-22.
Statement 4 is incorrect.

Q39 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:

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Context:
Recently, Cameroon adopted the Nagoya Protocol to benefit from its rich biodiversity.
About Nagoya Protocol
• The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of
Benefits Arising from their Utilisation is a supplementary agreement to the UN Convention
on Biological Diversity (CBD).
• It is an offshoot of the CBD that addresses fair and equitable benefit sharing in the context of
biodiversity access.
• Cameroon in central Africa is home to vast biological resources, which have long been exploited
by foreign firms, without fair and equitable benefits to the communities that own them.
• It provides a transparent legal framework for the effective implementation of objectives of the CBD,
that is the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilisation of genetic resources.
• The Nagoya Protocol on Access and Benefit Sharing was adopted on 29 October 2010 in
Nagoya, Japan and entered into force in 2014, 90 days after the deposit of the fiftieth
instrument of ratification.

Q40 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
The Indian Institute of Technology Kanpur (IIT-K) has successfully established and tested India’s
first Hypervelocity Expansion Tunnel Test Facility recently.
About India’s first Hypervelocity Expansion Tunnel Test Facility:
• The S2, nicknamed 'Jigarthanda', is a 24-meter-long facility located at IIT Kanpur’s
Hypersonic Experimental Aerodynamics Laboratory (HEAL) within the Department of
Aerospace Engineering.
• It is India’s first Hypervelocity Expansion Tunnel Test Facility.
• It was indigenously designed and developed over three years with funding and support from the
Aeronautical Research and Development Board (ARDB), the Department of Science and
Technology (DST), and IIT Kanpur.
• It is capable of generating flight speeds between 3-10 km/s, simulating the hypersonic conditions
encountered during the atmospheric entry of vehicles, asteroid entry, scramjet flights, and
ballistic missiles.
• It will be a critical asset for the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Defence
Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
• It will serve as a testing ground for ongoing missions of ISRO and DRDO like Gaganyaan, Reusable
Launch Vehicles (RLV), and hypersonic cruise missiles, enabling the development of more
advanced and reliable aerospace technologies.

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Q41 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context
Indigenous CAR-T cell therapy (NexCAR19) is now available for commercial use.
About
• NexCAR19 is the indigenously developed therapy for B-cell cancers (types of cancers that form in
the immune system’s cells) such as leukemia and lymphoma.
• It has been developed collaboratively by ImmunoACT, a company incubated at the Indian Institute
of Technology Bombay (IITB), and Tata Memorial Hospital.
• The commercial use of this therapy was approved by the Central Drugs Standard Control
Organisation (CDSCO).
CAR-T Cell Therapy
• CAR-T cell therapy, short for chimeric antigen receptor T-cell therapy, is an innovative form of
immunotherapy used to treat certain types of cancer.
• It involves genetically modifying a patient’s own T cells (a type of immune cell) to recognize and
attack cancer cells.
What are B and T-Cells?
B-cells and T-cells are a specific type of white blood cell called lymphocytes.
They help the immune system to fight germs and protect from disease.
Types of T cells:
• Cytotoxic T-cells: They kill cells infected with viruses and bacteria, and they also destroy
tumour cells. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Helper T-cells: They send signals that direct other immune cells to fight infection. Statement
2 is incorrect.
• Regulatory T-cells (Tregs): These cells suppress excessive immune responses to prevent
autoimmune reactions and maintain immune tolerance. They play a crucial role in preventing
the immune system from attacking the body’s own cells and tissues. Statement 3 is incorrect.
T-cells start in bone marrow, mature in thymus and eventually relocate to lymph tissue or
bloodstream.
B-cells make antibodies in response to antigens (antibody generators).
• There are two main types of B-cells: plasma cells and memory cells. Both types help to protect
from infection and disease.
Q42 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:

Coal Mines in India

Coal Mine States Features/Prominence

Jharia, Dhanbad, Jharkhand Dhanbad – One of the oldest in Jharkhand

Bokaro, Jayanti, Godda, Giridih and the richest coalfields of India. It is the

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 (Karbhari Coal Field), Ramgarh, storehouse of the best metallurgical coal
Karanpura, Daltonganj i.e coking coal.

Gondwana Coalfield.

Giridih (Karbhari Coal Field) gives the

finest coking coal in India for
metallurgical purposes.

Raniganj Coalfield, Dalingkot West Bengal Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri are the chief
(Darjeeling) Birbhum, Chinakuri producing districts.
Gondwana Coalfields

Korba, Bishrampur, Sonhat, Chhattisgarh Gondwana Coalfields

Jhilmil, Hasdo-Arand

Jharsuguda, Himgiri, Rampur, Odisha Talcher – Ranks 2nd in reserves after

Talcher Raniganj i.e. (24,374 million tonnes)
Most of the coal is suitable for steam and
gas production and utilised in thermal
power plants at Talcher.

Gondwana Coalfields

Singareni, Kothagudem, Telangana/ Most of the coal reserves are in Godavari

Kantapalli Andhra Pradesh valley. Non-coking variety is explored.
The workable collieries are situated at
Kothagudem and Singareni.
Gondwana Coalfields

Neyveli Tamil Nadu Tertiary coalfield

Kamptee(Nagpur), Wun field, Maharashtra Gondwana Coalfields

Wardha, Walarpur, Ghughus and
Warora

Ledo, Makum, Najira, Janji, Assam Assam coals have low ash and high coking
Jaipur qualities. sulphur content is high, good
for metallurgical purposes.
The coal is best for making liquid fuels
and hydrogenation processes.

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 Tertiary Coalfields

Darrangiri (Garo hills), Meghalaya Tertiary Coal Field

Cherrapunji, Liotryngew,
Maolong and Langrin coalfields
(Khasi & Jaintia Hills)

Singrauli, Sohagpur, Johila, Madhya Singrauli is the largest coalfield of MP.

Umaria, Satpura coalfield Pradesh Gondwana Coalfields.

Q43 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
According to new research, glaciers around the world's tallest mountains are actually getting slightly
colder during the warm season due to intensification of katabatic winds.
Katabatic wind:
• It is also called as mountain breeze as they move from a higher elevation of a mountain to a
lower elevation. Statement I is correct.
• Origin – During and after sunset, air near the top of elevated land surfaces cools relatively
quicker than air at lower altitudes.
• As air cools, it becomes denser and heavier, then flows down the side of the mountain,
resulting in a katabatic wind. Statement II is correct.
• Over glacial mountains – If the slopes are covered with ice and snow, it will blow both at night and
day.
• On warm days, air just above the glacier's surface warms and rises, creates a vacuum.
• Thus, cold air around the snowy peaks rushes down due to gravity, creating a downhill katabatic
wind.

• Characteristics – It typically peak in the afternoon, reach speeds of over 100 mph.
• Examples – Foehn winds, Santa Ana and others
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 • Climate change impacts – As average global temperatures rise worldwide, more air warms
and rises from the mountain's surface, forcing more cold air down as katabatic winds, thus
causing the cooling trend over the last 15 years over the Himalayas.
• Impact on glacier melting – These chilly winds may have partly helped in slowing the melting
of these glaciers which otherwise could have been even worse.
• However, glaciers will continue to melt with climate change because glacial melting is not just
linked to air temperature close to the ice.

Q44 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Speaker of State Legislative Assemblies (SLA)
Recently, Speaker of Bihar State Legislative Assembly had refused to resign until floor test in
Assembly citing constitutional provisions.
• SLA – State Legislative Assembly is the legislative wing of the government, the lower house in
Bicameral States and the sole house in unicameral states and are also called as Vidhan Sabha.
• Speaker of SLA – Article 178 of Indian constitution provides for speaker to preside over the
sessions of SLA. Statement 1 is correct.
• It is modelled on the basis of Office of Speaker in Britain. Statement 2 is correct.
• Election – After every general election, the SLA at its 1st session shall elect Speaker and Deputy
Speaker from amongst its members.
• Term – He remains in office till the next speaker sworn in.
• Independence – The salary of speaker is charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State.
• His resignation from the party does not account for defection and thereby upholds his independence.
• Vacancy – According to Article 179, it arises, if he resigns or removed from office by a resolution
of SLA or ceases to be a member of the house or he dies.
• Article 180 says that, while the office of Speaker is vacant, the duties of the office shall be
performed by the Deputy Speaker or, if it is also vacant, by such member of the SLA as the
Governor may appoint for the purpose.
• Removal – A no-confidence motion can be brought against the Speaker after 14 days of giving
notice to the Secretary. Statement 3 is correct.
• Article 181 says that, when a motion for his removal is discussed in the house, he does not preside
over the SLA.
Powers and Functions – He ensures quorum, order and discipline in the house and may adjourn or suspend
the sitting to maintain this.
• He does not participate in the debate and casts a vote only if there is tie in voting.
• He may even suspend or expel members of the house for unruly behaviour.
• He decides whether a bill is money bill or not and his decisions cannot be challenged in the court
of law.
• Unlike Speaker of Lok Sabha, Speaker of SLA does not preside over Joint Session of the 2 houses
as there is no provision of joint session in bicameral states.

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Q45 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
• World Wildlife Fund (WWF) has urged the Romanian government to classify Mahmudia
wetland as a ‘national interest ecological restoration area’.
• It aims to protect its natural progress and foster community prosperity.
• A significant portion of the naturally regenerated wetlands within the Romanian Danube Delta faces
the possibility of reversion to agricultural land.
• In June 2023, the Danube River’s high waters has breached the dyke enclosing a marshland
in Mahmudia.
• The ensuing flood submerged 1,000 hectares of farmland, converting them into a typical delta
ecosystem.

Q46 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Rio De Janeiro Declared a Dengue Health Emergency.
About Rio De Janeiro
• Rio de Janeiro is a city in Brazil and it is shaped by interaction with mountains and sea.
• It lies in the narrow strip of alluvial plain between Guanabara Bay and the Atlantic Ocean.
• It is widely recognized as one of the world’s most beautiful and interesting urban centres.
Brazil
• Brazil is a country in South America and is the fifth largest country in the world. Statement
1 is correct.
• It borders every South American country except Chile and Ecuador. Statement 2 is correct.
• To the north, it shares a boundary with Colombia, Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname, and French
Guiana. To the northwest, it meets Peru and Bolivia, to the west Argentina and Paraguay, to
the southwest Uruguay, and to the south it is bounded by the Atlantic Ocean.

Q47 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the International Energy Agency (IEA) has released the Indian oil market outlook to 2030
report, which looks in-depth at how India’s role on the global oil market may evolve over the period
through to 2030.
What are the Key Highlights of the Report?
India's Dominance in Oil Demand Growth:
• India is projected to become the largest source of global oil demand growth between now and
2030, surpassing China by 2027. Statement 1 is correct.
• India's oil demand is set to rise by about 1.2 million barrels per day (bpd) by 2023. This increase
constitutes over a third of the expected global demand growth of 3.2 million bpd by 2030.
• India’s total oil demand projections will stand at 6.64 million bpd in 2030 against 5.48 million bpd
in 2023.

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Growth in Fuel Demands:
• Diesel/gasoil is identified as the single largest source of oil demand growth in India,
accounting for nearly half of the rise in the nation's demand and over one-sixth of total global
oil demand growth through 2030. Statement 2 is correct.
• Jet-kerosene demand is poised to grow strongly, at around 5.9% per year on average, but from a
low base compared to other countries.
• India’s petrol demand is projected to grow by 0.7% on average, as the electrification of India’s
vehicle fleet avoids a more substantial rise.
• Gasoline demand is projected to grow modestly due to the electrification of India's vehicle fleet.
LPG demand is expected to increase due to investments in production facilities.
Crude Oil Imports:
• India's Crude oil imports are forecasted to rise by over a fourth to 5.8 million bpd by 2030 due to
robust oil demand growth and declining domestic production. India currently depends on imports
to meet over 85% of its oil requirement.
• India currently is the third largest consumer of crude oil behind the US and China. The domestic
consumption as per the oil ministry data is around 5 mb/d.
Investment in Refining Sector:
• Over the next seven years, 1 mb/d of new refinery distillation capacity will be added – more than
any other country in the world outside of China.
• Several other large projects are currently under consideration that may lift capacity beyond the 6.8
mb/d capacity that we expect so far.
Role in Global Oil Markets:
• India’s role as a global swing supplier has risen since 2022 as the loss of Russian product exports
to European markets has increased the pull of Asian diesel and jet fuel westward.
• In 2023, India was the fourth-largest exporter of middle distillates globally and the sixth
largest refinery product exporter at 1.2 mb/d.
Biofuels in Decarbonisation:
• Biofuels are also expected to play a key role in India’s decarbonisation of the transport sector.
• India is already the world’s third-largest producer and consumer of ethanol, as domestic
production has tripled over the last five years. Statement 3 is correct.
• Supported by the country’s abundant feedstocks, political support and effective policy
implementation, its ethanol blending rate of around 12% is amongst the world’s highest.
• India has advanced by five years its deadline for doubling nationwide ethanol blending in gasoline
to 20% in Q4 2026.
Recommendations:
• India’s current oil stock holding levels equate to 66 days of net-import cover, with Strategic
Petroleum Reserve (SPR) stocks of seven days. Statement 4 is incorrect.
• IEA member countries maintain a stockpile equivalent to 90 days of their demand.
• Strategic petroleum reserves help mitigate the impact of emergencies like wars on energy supplies.

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Q48 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context:
Researchers recently reported on the potential of using MXene coatings that can guide microwaves
in space and lighten satellite payloads.
About Mxenes:
• Mxenes, first discovered in 2011, are ceramics that comprise one of the largest families of two-
dimensional (2D) materials.
• Unlike most 2D ceramics, MXenes have inherently good conductivity and excellent volumetric
capacitance because they are molecular sheets made from the carbides and nitrides of
transition metals like titanium.
• They are made from a bulk crystal called MAX.
• They have the general formula of Mn+1XnTx, where M is an early transition metal, X is carbon
and/or nitrogen, and T is a functional group on the surface of an MXene (typically O, OH, and F).
• Among various types of MXenes, titanium carbide (Ti3C2Tx) is the most widely used.
• Some potential applications of MXenes include energy storage (such as lithium-ion batteries and
supercapacitors) due to their high conductivity and large surface area, electromagnetic interference
shielding, catalysis, sensors, and water purification, among others.

Q49 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
In a first, the Centre has on boarded 11 fair price shops on the state-run e-commerce portal Open
Network Digital Commerce (ONDC).
Open Network Digital Commerce (ONDC):
• It is an open-source network set up to enable buyers and sellers to transact with each other
irrespective of the e-commerce platform on which either of them is registered. Statement I is
correct.
• It will enable local commerce across segments, such as mobility, grocery, food order and delivery,
hotel booking and travel, among others, to be discovered and engaged by any network-enabled
application.
• It is an initiative of the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Statement II is incorrect.
Purpose
• To promote open networks for all aspects of exchange of goods and services over digital or
electronic networks.
• To create new opportunities, curb digital monopolies and by supporting micro, small and medium
enterprises and small traders and help them get on online platforms.
• It seeks to democratise digital or electronic commerce, moving it from a platform-centric model to
an open-network.
Benefits:
• It offers small retailers an opportunity to provide their services, and goods to buyers across the
country through an e-commerce system.
• It enables merchants to save their data to build credit history and reach consumers.

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 • It is expected to digitise the entire value chain, promote inclusion of suppliers, derive efficiencies
in logistics and enhance value for consumers.
• ONDC protocols would standardize operations like cataloguing, inventory management, order
management and order fulfilment.

Q50 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
The current Election Commissioner is about to retire and appointment of the new Election
Commissioner will follow the consultative process as directed by the supreme court of India.
Election Commissioners:
• Article 324 deals with the conditions for the appointment of the Election Commissioner.
• The process for the appointment of Election Commissioner (EC) - The appointment of the chief
election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the president.
• They were appointed solely at the discretion of the government.
• The power to make appointments rested exclusively with the Executive (Union Government).
• The Prime Minister held the power to decide the appointment, with the President formally
appointing the chosen candidate.
• The Supreme Court bench in 2022 directed for a consultative process in which a collegium or a
body of persons is tasked with the responsibility to select the Election Commissioners.
• On March 2023, the final verdict of the Supreme Court bench said that the appointment of the Chief
Election Commissioner and the Election Commissioners shall be made by the President on the
advice of a select Committee.
• Following the final verdict of the Supreme Court, The Chief Election Commissioner and Other
Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Bill, 2023 was
passed.
• According to the law The CEC and ECs will be appointed by the President upon the
recommendation of a Selection Committee.
• The Selection Committee will consist of the Prime Minister, a Union Cabinet Minister and
Leader of Opposition/leader of the largest opposition party in Lok Sabha. Statement 1 is
correct.
• A Search Committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary will propose a panel of names to the
Selection Committee.
• Eligibility for the posts includes holding (or having held) a post equivalent to the Secretary to
the central government.
Removal – The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office in like manner and on like
grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
• The other Election Commissioners can only be removed from office on the recommendation
of the Chief Election Commissioner. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Dinesh Goswami Committee – Recommended that, for the appointment of the Chief Election
Commissioner and ECs the President consult the:
• Chief Justice of India and the Leader of the Opposition (or)
• The leader of the largest Opposition group.

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The recommendations of Dinesh Goswami Committee for appointment of CECs and ECs are
consultative in nature and not solely depend on the union government. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Q51 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Payment aggregators
• A payment aggregator is a third-party service provider that enables customers to make and
businesses to accept payments online by acting as middlemen.
• They do not process payments themselves but act as facilitators, routing them to acquiring
banks. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Payment aggregators enable clients to accept various payment methods such as debit cards, credit
cards, cardless EMIs, UPI, bank transfers, e-wallets, and e-mandates.
• Merchants only need one account with the aggregator, which handles settlements with
different payment methods. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Types:
1. Bank Payment Aggregators:
• A bank payment aggregator facilitates online payments from different payment methods.
• Since it is operated by a bank, it does not require further authorisation from the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI).
2. Third-Party Payment Aggregators
• Third-party payment aggregators are non-bank payment aggregators and they require
authorisation from the RBI to operate. Statement 1 is correct.
• Third-party payment aggregators take on the technological and operational burdens involved in
managing payments from different payment methods.

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Payment Aggregator vs Payment Gateway
• According to the RBI, both payment aggregators and gateways facilitate online payments, but only
payment aggregators handle funds.
• Payment gateways are termed as technology infrastructure providers for online payments.
• Hence, RBI guidelines for payment aggregators are stricter.

Q52 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context
The Union Cabinet approved the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana (PM-
MKSSY).
About
• It is a sub scheme under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana, for the micro and
small enterprises operating in the fisheries sector with an expected investment of ₹6,000 crore
in the next four years. Statement 1 is correct.
• The sub-scheme PM-MKSSY is with 50% public finance, including the World Bank and the
Agence Française de Développement (AFD) external financing, and the rest 50% investment
from the private sector leverage. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• It will be implemented for four years from 2023-24 to 2026-27 across all the States and union
territories. Statement 3 is correct.
Significance: Fishers, aquaculture farmers, fish workers and fish vendors are expected to benefit from the
scheme.
• It is aimed at gradual formalisation of the fisheries sector and enhanced access to institutional credit.
Fisheries Sector of India
• India is the 3rd largest fish producing and 2nd largest aquaculture producing nation in the
world.
• India is the 4th largest exporter of fish and fisheries products with a growth in exports of
26.73% in terms of quantity between FY 2021-22 and FY 2022-23.
• In terms of employment, the sunrise sector supports the livelihood of over 30 Mn people in India.
• The Department of Fisheries, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying has
implemented a flagship scheme “Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)- to bring
about Blue Revolution through sustainable and responsible development of the fisheries sector in
India.

Q53 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
U.N. Women will provide technical assistance for the Safe City project
About Safe City Project:
• Safe City Projects have been approved by the Ministry of Home Affairs with centrally
sponsored funding. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Empowered Committee under Nirbhaya Fund has approved Safe City projects in 8
selected cities (Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Ahmedabad and
Lucknow). Statement 3 is incorrect.

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Objectives: It aims to create a safe, secure and empowering environment for women in public places,
to enable them to pursue all opportunities without the threat of gender-based violence and/or
harassment. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• It also aims to prevent and curb all forms of crimes against women and girl children in public places
by providing safer urban infrastructure and efficient access to law enforcement agencies.
UN Women
• UN Women is the United Nations entity dedicated to gender equality and the empowerment of
women.
• In July 2010, the United Nations General Assembly created UN Women.
• A global champion for women and girls, UN Women was established to accelerate progress on
meeting their needs worldwide.
• It works globally to make the vision of the Sustainable Development Goals a reality for women and
girls and stands behind women’s equal participation in all aspects of life.

Q54 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Over 600 turtles seized from smugglers were released into the Gomti River recently.
About Gomti River
• It is a tributary of the Ganges River.
Course:
Origin: It is an alluvial river that originates from the Gomat Taal, otherwise called Fulhaar Jheel,
found near the Madho Tanda in Pilibhit district in Uttar Pradesh, India.
The characteristic of the river is perennial. The river is characterized by sluggish flow throughout the
year, except during the monsoon season, when heavy rainfall causes a manifold increase in the runoff.
Major Cities: There are various cities that are situated on the banks of the river Gomti, such as
Sultanpur, Lucknow, Jaunpur, and Lakhimpur Kheri. Pair 1 is correctly matched.
List of Important Cities on Rivers in India
City State River
Agra Uttar Pradesh Yamuna
Ahmedabad Gujarat Sabarmati
Allahabad Uttar Pradesh Confluence of Ganga, Saraswati, and Yamuna
Ayodhya Uttar Pradesh Sarayu
Badrinath Uttarakhand Alaknanda
Bhagalpur Bihar Ganga
Bangalore Karnataka Vrishabhavathi
Bareilly Uttar Pradesh Ram Ganga
Cuttack Odisha Mahanadi
Chennai Tamil Nadu Adyar
Coimbatore Tamil Nadu Noyyal
Delhi Delhi Yamuna
Dibrugarh Assam Brahmaputra
Ferozpur Punjab Satluj
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Gaya Bihar Falgu
Gwalior Madhya Pradesh Chambal
Guwahati Assam Brahmaputra
Haridwar Uttarakhand Ganga
Hyderabad Telangana Musi
Jabalpur Madhya Pradesh Narmada
Jamshedpur Jharkhand Subarnarekha
Jaunpur Uttar Pradesh Gomti. Pair 4 is correct.
Kanpur Uttar Pradesh Ganga
Kolkata West Bengal Hooghly
Kurnool Andhra Pradesh Tungabhadra
Kota Rajasthan Chambal
Lucknow Uttar Pradesh Gomti
Ludhiana Punjab Sutlej
Mathura Uttar Pradesh Yamuna
Nasik Maharashtra Godavari
Pandharpur Maharashtra Bhima. Pair 3 is correct.
Patna Bihar Ganga
Panaji Goa Mandavi
Rourkela Odisha Brahmani. Pair 2 is incorrect.
Sambalpur Odisha Mahanadi
Surat Gujarat Tapti
Srinagar Jammu and Kashmir Jhelum
Tirucharapalli Tamil Nadu Kaveri
Ujjain Madhya Pradesh Shipra
Varanasi Uttar Pradesh Ganga
Vadodara Gujarat Vishwamitri, Mahi, Narmada
Vijayawada Andhra Pradesh Krishna

Q55 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
• Kalingarayan Anicut is 13th century barrage on the Bhavani River in Erode, Tamil Nadu,
one of the oldest water diversion projects in the world.
• It is recognised as a World Heritage Irrigation Structure by the International Commission
on Irrigation and Drainage (ICID) in 2021.
• It was built by Kalingarayan, then king of Poondurai Nadu, one of the subdivisions in Kongu
Nadu.
• In 1240, he joined the Madurai Pandyas as a soldier and in 1265, Sadayavarman Sundara Pandyan
bestowed the title, ‘Kalingarayan’ and appointed him to rule Poondurai Nadu.

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Q56 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
• The Pantanal wetland is the world's largest freshwater wetland and one of the world's most
productive habitats.
• It is located mostly in Brazil, but also extends in parts of Bolivia and Paraguay.
• It is fed through the Paraguay River and tributaries.

Q57 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
A senior official from Myanmar said that, the Kaladan Project has “almost died” after the rebel
Arakan Army (AA) captured the Paletwa township near Mizoram border in January, 2024.
Kaladan Project:
• KMTTP – Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project, was launched under Framework
agreement in 2008, between Ministry of External Affairs, India and the Government of
Myanmar. To provide connectivity between India and Myanmar. Statement I is correct.
• It aims to connect the port of Kolkata with the port of Sittwe in Rakhine which would then
be connected to Mizoram by road and the Kaladan River which flows by Paletwa. Statement
II is incorrect.
• Budget – Estimated around 500 million USD.
• Project Development Consultant (PDC) – Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI).
• Progress – Sittwe Port was inaugurated in May 2023 and has been operationalised.
• Advantages – The transportation of goods from Kolkata to Aizawl and Agartala will incur at least
50% lesser cost and time.
• Marine transport will considerably bring down environmental cost of transport with drop in fossil
fuel carbon emission.
• Challenges – Funding has been delayed for multiple reasons, including the Rohingya crisis
and recent tripartite conflict between the Junta’s forces, the Arakan Army and the rebels of
Chin state.
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Q58 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
• Ras Al-Khair is a town and port currently under development in the Eastern Province of
Saudi Arabia. It is on the eastern coast, 60 km (37 mi) north of Jubail. It is also known under its
project name of "Minerals Industrial City".
• King Abdul Aziz Port, also known as Dammam Port, is a port in the city of Dammam, Saudi
Arabia. It is the largest port in the Persian Gulf, and the third largest and third busiest port in the
Middle East and North Africa (MENA) region, after the Jeddah Islamic Port.

Q59 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, a volcano erupted in Iceland.
Volcano Country
Ioto Japan
Ulawun Papua New Guinea
Shishaldin United States
Ubinas Peru
Klyuchevskoy Russia
Mayon Philippines
Kikai Japan

Q60 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
• In the overall tax collections by the government, direct tax collections accounted for 54.62 per
cent share in financial year 2022-23, a four-year high. Statement 1 is correct.
• Direct taxes as a share of the overall taxes had stood at 52.27 per cent in FY22, 46.84 per cent
in FY21, 52.42 per cent in FY20 and 54.83 per cent in FY19. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• A higher direct taxes-to-indirect taxes ratio is considered progressive as indirect taxation hurts the
poor more than direct taxes.

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 • Among states and union territories, Maharashtra accounted for 36.4 per cent (Rs 6.05 lakh
crore) of the overall direct tax collections in the country in the financial year 2022-23, followed
by Delhi at 13.3 per cent (Rs 2.22 lakh crore), Karnataka at 12.5 per cent (Rs 2.08 lakh crore)
and Tamil Nadu at 6.4 per cent (Rs 1.07 lakh crore). Statement 3 is incorrect.
• Cumulatively, these four states accounted for 68.6 per cent of the overall direct tax collections in
FY23.
Statement 4 is incorrect.

Q61 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
• Bharat Ratna, the country’s highest civilian award instituted in 1954, is given in recognition
of exceptional service and performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavor. Any
person without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex is eligible for this award.
• The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President.
The number of annual awards is usually restricted to a maximum of three in a particular
year. However, in 2024, it was awarded to five people.
• On conferment of the award, the recipient receives a Sanad (certificate) signed by the
President and a medallion. The award does not carry any monetary grant. The award cannot
be used as a prefix or suffix to the recipient’s name. However, should an award winner consider it
necessary, he or she may use the following expression in their biodata or letterhead or visiting card
etc. to indicate that he or she is a recipient of the award: ‘Awarded Bharat Ratna by the President’
or ‘Recipient of Bharat Ratna Award’.

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Some facts about Bharat Ratna Awards:
• Three people were awarded the Bharat Ratna in its first year: C Rajagopalachari, the only
Indian governor-general, Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, India’s second president and Scientist
CV Raman. Statement 4 is correct.
• The Bharat Ratna ceremony is usually held at Rashtrapati Bhavan. But in 1958, a special
ceremony for the award was held in the Brabourne Stadium in Mumbai to honour social
reformer Dhondo Keshav Karve, also known as Maharishi Karve on his 100th birthday.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Technically, Mother Teresa was an Indian citizen and Badshah Khan was born in undivided India.
Nelson Mandela was the first foreigner, a citizen of a country in another continent, to be awarded
the Bharat Ratna.
• Two former pilots have been awarded the Bharat Ratna. The first was Rajiv Gandhi, posthumously
in 1991 and the other was Industrialist, philanthropist and aviation pioneer JRD Tata in 1992.
• Pandit Ravi Shankar, in 1999 was the first Grammy winner to be awarded a Bharat Ratna.
• In 2001, the two people awarded the Bharat Ratna were both from the field of music — one classical
and one largely popular: Ustad Bismillah Khan and Lata Mangeshkar.
• Morarji Desai discontinued the Bharat Ratna awards when he came to power in 1977, calling
them “worthless and politicized” and then accepted the award himself when he was
nominated in 1991. Statement 2 is correct.
• The leaf of Peepul tree (Ficus Religiosa) is used in the design of the awards along with an image of
the sun and the words ‘Bharat Ratna’ in Devanagari script.
• In 1992, which nominee’s family vociferously opposed the decision of the government to award
this leader a posthumous Bharat Ratna on the ground that nobody had actual proof that he had died?
Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
• Lal Bahadur Shastri was the first person to be honored posthumously. Statement 3 is
incorrect.

Q62 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
India’s post-COVID-19 economic recovery, emphasizing robust exports, increased domestic
investments, and the FY25 Interim Budget’s record-high public capital expenditure, focusing on
infrastructure and fiscal consolidation.
India’s Economic Recovery Post-COVID-19:
• Notable recovery marked by robust exports and domestic investments.
• Exports benefited from global supply chain ease and a surge in services exports.
• Domestic investments driven by the government’s focused capital expenditure (capex) push.
Improved Investment Ratio:
• National Statistical Office estimates India’s investment ratio at 29.8% of GDP in 2023-24, a
significant improvement from the 2020-21 low of 27.3%. Statement 2 is correct.
• Ranks fourth best in G-20 countries for the investment ratio improvement post-COVID-19.
Statement 3 is correct.

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Record High Capex in FY25 Interim Budget:
• FY25 Interim Budget emphasizes public capex, setting a record high at ₹11.11 trillion,
comprising 4% of GDP and 23.3% of total expenditure. Statement 1 is correct.
• Notable two-thirds allocated to economic services, focusing on hard infrastructure sectors
like roads and railways.
PM Gati Shakti Program:
• Introduction of PM Gati Shakti program identifies economic rail corridors to enhance logistics
efficiency.
• Focus areas include energy, mineral, and cement corridors, port connectivity corridors, and
upgrading 40,000 rail bogies to Vande Bharat standards.
Record High Defence Capex:
• Atmanirbhar Bharat campaign prioritizes defence capex, allocating ₹1.72 trillion, reaching 0.5% of
GDP in FY25.
• Launch of a new scheme for deep-tech technologies in defence to expedite self-reliance.
Loans and Advances for Capex Creation:
• Loans and advances increase to ₹1.71 trillion in FY25, facilitating State participation in ground-
level capex creation.
• States contribute significantly to general government capex, holding a 44% share as of December
23.
Inclusive Agenda Integration:
• Despite a focus on hard infrastructure, FY25 Budget addresses the housing sector and aims to
include two crore additional houses in the next five years.
• Emphasis on green energy ambitions, providing one crore households with 300 units of free
electricity monthly through rooftop solarization.
Challenges in PSE Capex:
• Public sector enterprises (PSEs) experience a slowdown in capex spending, with a reduction from
₹4.88 trillion to ₹3.26 trillion in FY24.
• Modest growth projected in PSE capex to ₹3.43 trillion in FY25, with a ratio to GDP at 1.0%, the
lowest in recent history.

Q63 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently NASA has reported that, the climate change is accelerating the demise of the Aral Sea.
Aral Sea – An endorheic lake, once the 4th largest saline lake in the world with a surface area of
66,900 square km.
• Endorheic lakes do not have a natural outflow and lose water solely by evaporation or
underground seepage or both. Caspian Sea, Great Salt Lake in Utah and Dead Sea are some
of the endorheic lakes.
Geographical location – Between Kazakhstan in the north and Uzbekistan in the south.
• Formation – It was made by waters from the Syr Darya and the Amu Darya rivers that were
dependent on glacial melt.

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 • Catchment area – It is approximately 1.5 million square miles and drains Uzbekistan and portions
of Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, Iran, and Kyrgyzstan.
• Threat – Climate change, human engineering & agricultural projects has shrunk about less than
25% of its former size.
• Water diversion project – In 1960, the Soviet Union diverted the Syr Darya and the Amu Darya
rivers for irrigation that lead to gradual drying up of the lake.
The North Aral Sea (called the Small Aral Sea) had separated from the South (Large) Aral Sea.
• Impacts – Its demise is the cause of land degradation and desertification, drinking water shortages,
malnutrition, and deteriorating health conditions in the surrounding areas.
• The United Nations Development Program (UNDP) calls the destruction of the Aral Sea ‘the
most staggering disaster of the 20th century’.
• The salinity level of Aral Sea has risen from less than 10 grams/litre to over 100 g/l in the remnant
lake. It has also now become the Aralkum Desert, a significant new source of sand and dust storms.
• Measures – 5 countries, Turkmenistan, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan, and Kyrgyzstan
adopted the Aral Sea Basin Program in 1994 as part of the restoration strategy.

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Q64 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:

Q65 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
During her Interim Budget address, the finance minister unveiled a Rs 1 lakh crore fund aimed at
offering long-term, low-cost, or zero-interest loans for research and development initiatives.
What is Deep Tech?
About:
• Deep tech or deep technology refers to a class of startup businesses that develop new offerings
based on tangible engineering innovation or scientific discoveries and advances.
• Deep tech fields like Artificial Intelligence, advanced materials, blockchain, biotechnology,
robotics, drones, photonics, and quantum computing are moving more and more quickly
from early research to market applications.
Characteristics of Deep Tech:
• Impact: The deep tech innovations are very radical and disrupt an existing market or develop a
new one. Innovations based on deep tech often change lives, economies, and societies.
• Time & Scale: The time required for deep technology to develop the technology and reach market-
ready maturity is way more than shallow technology development (like mobile apps and websites).
• Capital: Deep tech often requires a lot of early-stage funding for research and development,
prototyping, validating hypothesis, and technology development.

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Q66 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:

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Q67 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:

Q68 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
Chhattisgarh's Ocher Studio is helping to preserve India's 4,000-year-old craft- Dhokra Shilpkala.
About Dhokra Shilpkala
• The word "Dhokra" is believed to be derived from the Dhokra Damar tribes, who are the
traditional metal smiths of Central India. Statement I is incorrect.
• The origins of Dhokra Shilpkala can be traced back to the tribal communities residing in the regions
of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha, where it evolved as an integral part of their
cultural and religious practices.
• Technique and Process: What sets Dhokra Shilpkala apart is its remarkable technique of
metal casting, which involves using the lost wax casting method, also known as cire perdue.
Statement II is correct.
Artistry and Designs:
• Its design has rustic charm and the organic nature of its designs.
• Artisans draw inspiration from nature, mythology, and everyday life, incorporating motifs such as
animals, birds, deities, and tribal symbols into their creations.
• From miniature figurines and jewelry to larger-than-life sculptures and functional objects, Dhokra
Shilpkala encompasses a wide range of artistic expressions.
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Q69 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
• Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary is a proposed protected area in the Erode, Tamil Nadu.
• The Government of Tamil Nadu notified it in March 2023, making it the 18th wildlife sanctuary in
TamilNadu.
• It is located between the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve of Tamil Nadu and the Male
Mahadeshwara Wildlife Sanctuary and the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary of Karnataka.
• The landscape is also a tiger corridor identified by the National Tiger Conservation Authority.
Sunabeda Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary and a proposed tiger reserve located in the
Nuapada district of Odisha, adjoining Chhattisgarh
Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary in Tripura, India, of some 18.53 square
kilometres (7.15 sq mi), about 25 kilometres (16 mi) from the city centre, located in Bishalgarh. It is a
woodland with an artificial lake and natural botanical and zoological gardens. It also has clouded leopard
enclosures.
About Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary:
• It is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
• It lies between the Nallamalai and Yerramalai hill ranges of the Eastern Ghats.
• It was declared a sanctuary in 1988 to protect the dwindling populations of the critically endangered
Great Indian Bustard.
• Uniqueness: It is the only GIB Sanctuary in Andhra Pradesh.
• It owes its genesis to the discovery of the endangered Great Indian Bustard (GIB).

Q70 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
• Winter dormancy in reptiles, also called brumation, is akin to hibernation in mammals.
• Instead of experiencing long, sustained periods of inactivity, brumating reptiles stir occasionally to
drink water; however, they may go without food for several months.
• Dormancy in reptiles may display a circadian rhythm, a seasonal one, or both; it is a state of torpor
directly induced by low temperature.
About Brumation
• It’s a state of sluggishness, inactivity, or torpor exhibited by reptiles during winter or extended
periods of low temperature because of scarcity of food.
• It is a period of dormancy in reptiles, similar to hibernation in mammals, to conserve energy and
survive the adverse environmental conditions.
• During brumation, reptiles may retreat to underground burrows, rock crevices or other sheltered
areas where temperatures are relatively more stable.
Brumating Species
• Turtles (box and painted), Tortoises, Snakes, Lizards and some amphibians like frogs.
• The Bearded Dragon is the most brumating of all the known reptiles.
Significance of Brumation
• It allows reptiles to go weeks or even months without eating, and to conserve energy and minimise
their resource requirements.

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 • It is crucial for reptiles to survive cold climes and endure challenging environmental conditions,
until they can reemerge to feed and reproduce in more favourable climes.
• It is a survival strategy hardwired into these animals over thousands of years to adapt to sudden
climatic changes.

Q71 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
Principal Scientific Advisor to the Government of India launched “Science for Women-A
Technology & Innovation (SWATI)” Portal. Statement 3 is correct.
About SWATI Portal
• It is aimed at creating a single online portal representing Indian Women and Girls in STEMM
(Science, Technology, Engineering, Mathematics & Medicine). Statement 1 is correct.
• The database of SWATI Portal will serve in policy making to address the challenges of Gender-
gap.
• The Portal is a complete interactive database; and the first-of-its-kind in India which is
developed, hosted and maintained by the National Institute of Plant Genome Research
(NIPGR), New Delhi. Statement 2 is correct.
Objectives:
• To scale up the effort exponentially to include each and every Indian woman in science, across all
career stages and subjects, spanning both Academia and the Industry enabling reliable and
statistically significant long-term research on the issues of equality, diversity and inclusivity in
India;
• Inclusion of each and every Indian WiS, career stages, subjects, spanning both Academia and the
Industry; Enabling reliable and statistically significant long-term research on the issues of equality,
diversity and inclusivity in India, developing active search engine and searchable database (Name,
Affiliation, Area of Interest).
• The various Sections in the portal include Icons - Awardees (Padma / Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar /
Stree Shakti Science Samman) & Directors, Secretaries Academy Presidents; Faculty- Indian
Universities, Autonomous organizations including S&T Ministry/ CSIR/ DBT/ DST/ CSIR/
MHRD/ UGC/ GATI/ KIRAN.

Q72 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Former vice-president of India and Union Minister for Culture, Tourism and Development of the
Northeast Region will be inaugurating the Sangeet Natak Akademi’s ‘Dakshin Bharat Sanskritik
Kendra’ here in Hyderabad.

• It is India’s national academy of music, dance and drama.

• It was created by a resolution of the Ministry of Education, with P.V. Rajamannar as its first
Chairman. Statement 2 is correct.
• It was set up in 1953 for the preservation and promotion of the vast intangible heritage of India’s
diverse culture expressed in forms of music, dance and drama.
• Presently, it is an autonomous body of the Ministry of Culture. Statement 1 is correct.
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 • The Chairman of the Akademi is appointed by the President of India for a term of five years.
Statement 3 is correct.
• It is fully funded by the Government for the implementation of its schemes and programmes.
Aims and objectives
• To co-ordinate the activities of regional or State Akademies of dance, drama and music;
• To promote research in the fields of Indian dance, drama and music and for this purpose, to establish
a library and museum, etc.;
• To co-operate with such similar academies as there may be and other institutions and associations
for the furtherance of its objects and for the enrichment of Indian culture as a whole;
• To encourage the exchange of ideas and enrichment of techniques between the different regions in
regard to the arts of dance, drama and music;
• To encourage, where necessary, the establishment of theatre centres, on the basis of regional
languages, and co-operation among different theatre centres;
The Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards are the highest national recognition conferred on practising artists.
The Akademi also confers Fellowships on eminent artists and scholars of music, dance and drama; and has
in 2006 instituted annual awards to young artists – the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar.

Q73 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently few scientists using the Palaeo Proxies technique have noted that that the earth’s surface
has already warmed by more than 1.5 degrees C on average over pre-industrial levels.
• Palaeo Proxies are tools that scientists use to reconstruct past climate and environmental
conditions.
• The technique that uses chemical evidence stored in various organic matter, such as corals,
stalactites and stalagmites to approximate the temperature at some point in the past.
• These proxies are typically derived from physical, biological, or chemical processes that respond
to changes in temperature or other climatic factors.
• It is still only indirect evidence of temperature changes with respect to a baseline temperature.
• Since palaeo proxies don’t directly measure the temperature, we call them proxies of past
temperature deviations (the ‘palaeo’ denotes the past).
Limitations – It can only provide temperature anomalies on long timescales, such as centuries or thousands
of years.
• Even the best proxies only offer estimates on weekly or seasonal timescales.
• All temperature proxies are local or regional, making global temperature estimates uncertain.

Q74 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
The El Nino and La Nina are the two phases of the El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO)
phenomenon that occurs in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
• During El Nino, temperatures higher than normal prevail mainly over eastern and central
parts of the equatorial Pacific Ocean. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• El Nino is mostly associated with hot summers and lack of rainfall during monsoon season in India.

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 • During La Nina, temperatures lower than normal prevail mainly over eastern and central
parts of the equatorial Pacific Ocean. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• La Nina is just an amplification of normal cold conditions in the eastern tropical Pacific. The spring
barrier may not be so important since strong El Ninos tend to transition into La Ninas.

Q75 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Bidri Craft Karnataka
Aranmula Kannadi Kerala
Kamrupi Assam
Bronze Crafts:
• Rare Jain imagery and icons (Karnataka)
• Pahaldar Lamps (Jaipur and parts of Uttar Pradesh)
• Pembarthi craft (Telangana)
Other Metal Crafts:
• Marori work of Rajasthan
• Tarkashi (Rajasthan). Pair 4 is incorrect.
• Bidri Craft (Karnataka).

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Q76 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
The Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) plays a crucial role in moderating the
climate of Europe and North America and influences temperatures near the Equator. It moves warm
ocean water from the tropics to the northern Atlantic Ocean basin.
• AMOC transports warm salty surface waters from the tropics to the northern regions.
• The waters then cool down, increase in density and sink in the North Atlantic Ocean, in a
phenomenon called downwelling or overturning.
• Cold, fresh water from the melting ice of the Arctic is added to the cooler ocean that moves towards
the equator.
• This cycle, therefore, acts like a heat conveyor belt, warming the northern latitudes and
cooling the southern latitudes.

Q77 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
A rating system for the hospitality sector has become a non-starter with no State opting for it as of
now.
Swachhata Green Leaf Rating:
The ranking scheme was launched in November 2023 by the Union Tourism Ministry in
collaboration with the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation.
• The rating will be based on compliance with the safe sanitation practices outlined in the guidelines.
Aim: To ensure world-class hygiene and sanitation in all hospitality facilities of the country with or without
restaurants.
Objective: The objective is to prevent pollution in water bodies and keep the environment clean.
Target groups: Hotels, resorts, lodges, homestays, ‘Dharamshalas’ and camps which have portable toilets.

Q78 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
The GROW report provides state-wise and district-wise analysis for greening and restoration
projects was recently released by the NITI Aayog.
• Greening India's Wastelands with Agroforestry (GROW) Report provides state-wise and
district-wise analysis, supporting government departments and industries for greening and
restoration projects. Statement 2 is correct.
• It is an initiative of NITI Aayog. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• NITI Aayog utilized remote sensing and GIS to assess agroforestry suitability across all districts in
India.
• Using thematic datasets, an Agroforestry Suitability Index (ASI) was developed for national-level
prioritization.
• Current report underscores the potential benefits of converting underutilized areas, especially
wastelands, for agroforestry.

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 • The GROW initiative aligns with national commitments, aiming to restore 26 million hectares of
degraded land by 2030 and create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of carbon
dioxide equivalent.
• Agroforestry integrates trees, crops, and livestock, addressing food, nutrition, energy, employment
and environmental challenges.

Q79 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Government releases list of countries where UPI Payments are accepted.
France, UAE, Mauritius, Sri Lanka, Singapore, Bhutan, and Nepal are the countries that accept UPI
payments, according to the government.

Q80 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Odisha government declared the Gupteswar forest in Koraput district as its fourth
Biodiversity Heritage Site (BHS). Pair 1 is correctly matched.
About Biodiversity Heritage Site:
• These are areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems having rich biodiversity comprising
of any one or more of the components such as;
• species richness, high endemism, presence of rare, endemic and threatened species, keystone
species, species of evolutionary significance, wild ancestors of domestic/cultivated species or
landraces or their varieties, past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds
and having cultural or aesthetic values.
Some heritage sites in India
Goa
• Purvatali Rai: This sacred grove dedicated to the folk deity Betal is Goa’s 1st Biodiversity
Heritage Site. Pair 2 is incorrect.
Karnataka
• Nallur Tamarind Grove: It is India’s first Biodiversity Heritage Site. It is a relic of the Chola
Dynasty with a group of old tamarind plants standing like ageless sentinels. Pair 3 is incorrect.

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Maharashtra
• Glory of Allapalli: It is a reserved forest having biological, ethnical and historical values. Pair 4
is incorrect.

Q81 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
The Indian Prime Minister will attend the World Government Summit 2024 as a guest of honour in
UAE.
About World Government Summit (WGS):
• It is an annual global gathering that brings together world leaders, policymakers, experts, and
thought leaders from various fields to discuss and address pressing global issues.
• It was established in 2013 under the leadership of the Vice President and Prime Minister of
the UAE.
• It is annually held in Dubai, UAE.
• The Summit, in its various activities, explores the agenda of the next generation of governments,
focusing on harnessing innovation and technology to solve universal challenges facing humanity.
• Since its inception, the Summit has championed the mission of shaping future governments and
creating a better future for humanity.
World Government Summit (WGS) 2024:
• Theme: “Shaping Future Governments”
It will focus on six main themes:
1. Government Acceleration and Transformation
2. Artificial Intelligence and The Next Frontiers
3. Reimagining Development and Future Economies
4. Future Societies and Education
5. Sustainability and The New Global Shifts
6. Urbanization and Global Health Priorities

Q82 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
What is MSP?
• Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to
insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices.MSP protects the producer-
farmers against distress sale during bumper production years.
• MSPs have no statutory backing — a farmer cannot demand MSP as a matter of right.
Who decides what the MSP would be and how?
The Cabinet Committee of Economic Affairs announces the MSP at the start of each sowing season,
taking into account the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
(CACP).
While recommending MSPs, the CACP looks at following factors:
• the demand and supply of a commodity;
• its cost of production;
• the market price trends (both domestic and international);
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 • inter-crop price parity;
• the terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture (that is, the ratio of prices of farm inputs
and farm outputs);
• a minimum of 50 per cent as the margin over the cost of production; and
• the likely implications of an MSP on consumers of that product.
Calculation Formula
• The CACP makes projections using state-wise, crop-specific production cost estimates provided
by the Directorate of Economics & Statistics in the Agriculture Ministry.
• The CACP does not do any field-based cost estimates itself. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The CACP calculates three types of costs — A2, A2+FL and C2 — for each mandated crop for
different states. Statement 2 is correct.
o A2 cost: It is the lowest and covers all paid-out costs directly incurred by the farmer — in
cash and kind — on seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, hired labour, leased-in land, fuel, irrigation,
etc.
o A2+FL cost: It includes A2 plus an imputed value of unpaid family labour.
o C2 cost: It is the highest of the three costs and defined as a more comprehensive cost that
factors in rentals and interest for owned land and fixed capital assets, on top of A2+FL.
The National Commission for Farmers, chaired by MS Swaminathan, had recommended MSP under
the C2+50 percent formula. That is, the total cost of the crop (C2) and the profit thereon is 50 percent.
Statement 3 is incorrect.
• However, the government announces MSP on the basis of A2+FL. Statement 4 is incorrect.

Q83 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context
The Commerce and Industry Ministry is for expanding the codes of classification (HSN codes) for
rice.
About
• It is to separate the varieties of non-basmati rice that are not traditionally consumed in the
country from the popular staple variety of non-basmati white rice.
• It is also to exclude them from export curbs when restrictions are being contemplated on
them.
• It comes after the government has temporarily banned all categories of non-basmati white
rice for exports.
Need for the separate code:
• At present, there are just six HSN codes for non-basmati rice while there are 30-40 varieties
of such rice grown in the country.
• When there is a ban on non-basmati white rice, all varieties get banned, whether it is sona
masuri, govind bhog and kala namak or the normal non-basmati white rice.
• There is also a demand from the industry for new HSN codes for other varieties of rice.
• APEDA is also working on separate HSN codes for GI (Geographical Indications) rice varieties
like red rice, black rice and kalanamak rice.

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HSN codes
• HSN codes, or Harmonized System of Nomenclature codes, are six-digit numerical codes used
to classify traded goods globally. Statement I is correct.
• It was developed by the World Customs Organization (WCO) and is considered the global
standard when it comes to naming goods. Statement II is incorrect.
Structure of HSN codes:
The six-digit code structure provides increasingly detailed product classifications:
• First two digits: Chapter (broad product category, e.g., vegetable products)
• Next two digits: Heading (more specific product group, e.g., fresh vegetables)
• Last two digits: Subheading (specific product, e.g., tomatoes)
• Additional digits: Some countries add additional digits to further classify products at the national
level.
Key functions of HSN codes
• Product identification: Each code corresponds to a specific product or group of products,
providing a standardized way to classify and identify goods across borders.
• Customs clearance: HSN codes facilitate efficient customs clearance by enabling authorities to
quickly identify and assess applicable duties and taxes on imported goods.
• Trade statistics: By tracking trade flows based on HSN codes, governments and international
organizations can gather valuable data on global trade patterns and trends.
• Negotiating trade agreements: HSN codes serve as a common language for countries negotiating
trade agreements, ensuring accurate product coverage and tariff concessions.
Q84 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Context:
Researchers at the Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST) have pioneered
a novel method of Plasma Enhanced Chemical Vapour Deposition Technique (PECVD) for directly
synthesising CNTs on glass substrates at a temperature of 750 °C. Statement 1 is correct.
About Carbon nanotubes (CNTs)
• They are pivotal in advancing modern technology by showcasing extraordinary properties.
• Applications: They have found applications in diverse fields, including rechargeable batteries,
flexible electronics, aerospace, transparent electrodes, touch screens, supercapacitors, and
medicine.
Recent Developments: The experiment is performed using the Plasma Enhanced Chemical Vapour
Deposition Technique (PECVD), where plasma is generated using a specially designed spiral-shaped
fused hollow cathode source.
• This innovative process circumvents the need for elevated temperatures and eliminates the
necessity for a transition metal catalyst. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Why Needed? Conventional CNT synthesis methods require high temperatures (~1000 0C) and metal
catalysts (Fe, Co, and Ni).
• These catalysts pose biocompatibility concerns for potential biomedical applications.
• The challenge of removing these catalysts from CNTs adds a significant cost, highlighting the
urgent need for cleaner, more sustainable CNT synthesis methods – an exciting frontier in
the realm of nanotechnology.

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 • This study enables the production of clean CNTs suitable for applications in energy research,
biomedical fields, and optoelectronics.

Q85 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Union Government has constituted “Sanjay Agarwal Committee on Minimum Support Price
(MSP)”, to make it more effective and transparent. Committee has been created around eight months
later the three farm Acts were repealed.
Tasks given to the committee
• The Sanjay Agarwal committee has been tasked to make suggestions, in a bid to provide greater
autonomy to “Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices”. This move is directed towards
strengthening agricultural marketing system, in line with changing requirements of India.
Committee would deal with issues related to natural farming, including:
• Formulating strategies to make Krishi Vigyan Kendras and other R&D institutions as knowledge
centres on natural farming,
• Established a chain of laboratories, to provide organic certification to products produced by natural
farming.
• Committee will also work on crop diversification, in order to take farmers out of wheat and rice
cycles.
• It will finally map the existing cropping patterns of producer and consumer and help in creating a
system to provide remunerative prices for sale of new crops.

Q86 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
The Fourteenth Meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on the Conservation of
Migratory Species of Wild Animals (COP14) will be hosted by the Government of Uzbekistan, in
Samarkand from 12-17 February 2024. Statement 1 is correct.
• It is also known as the Bonn Convention, is an environmental treaty under the aegis of the
United Nations Environment Programme. Statement 2 is correct.
• It provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and
their habitats.
• It was signed in Bonn, Germany, on 23 June 1979.
• It is the only global and UN-based intergovernmental organisation established exclusively for
the conservation and management of terrestrial, aquatic and avian migratory species
throughout their range. Statement 3 is correct.
• The parties to the convention acknowledge the importance of conserving migratory species, and
the need to pay special attention to species whose conservation status is unfavourable.
• Activities by CMS Parties may range from legally binding treaties (called Agreements) to less
formal instruments, such as Memoranda of Understanding.
• The Conference of Parties (COP) is the decision-making organ of this convention.

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It has two Appendices.
• Appendix I lists endangered migratory species and includes prohibitions regarding the take
of these species.
• Appendix II lists species that have an ‘unfavourable conservation status’ (as per the conditions
set out in the Convention) and encourages range states to draft range-wide agreements for
conservation and management of these species.
Q87 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
A Stone Age wall has been discovered beneath the Baltic Sea in Germany, believed to be the oldest
megastructure built by humans in Europe.
About Baltic Sea:
• It is a semi-enclosed inland sea located in Northern Europe.
• It is an arm of the North Atlantic Ocean, extending northward from the latitude of southern
Denmark almost to the Arctic Circle and separating the Scandinavian Peninsula from the
rest of continental Europe.
• It has a coastline of approximately 8,000 km, shared by several countries, including Sweden,
Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Finland, Estonia, Germany, Denmark, and Russia.
• It is connected to the White Sea via the White Sea Canal and to the North Sea’s German Bight
via the Kiel Canal.
• It connects to the Atlantic Ocean through the Danish Straits. Statement 1 is correct.
• The Baltic Sea contains three major gulfs: the Gulf of Bothnia to the north, the Gulf of Finland to
the east, and the Gulf of Riga slightly to the south of that.
• It is often cited as the world’s largest brackish inland water body. Statement 2 is correct.
• Its water salinity levels are lower than that of the World Oceans due to the inflow of fresh
water from the surrounding land and the sea’s shallowness. Statement 3 is correct.
• More than 250 rivers and streams empty their waters into the Baltic Sea. Neva is the largest river
that drains into the Baltic Sea.
• Islands: It is home to over 20 islands and archipelagos. Gotland, located off the coast of Sweden,
is the largest island in the Baltic Sea. Statement 4 is incorrect.

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Q88 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context:
The United Nations named seven initiatives from across Africa, Latin America, the Mediterranean
and Southeast Asia as the intergovernmental organisation’s World Restoration Flagships.
About UN World Restoration Flagships
• The World Restoration Flagship is part of the UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration – led by
the UN Environment Programme (UNEP) and the Food and Agriculture Organization.
Statement I is incorrect.
• It aims to prevent, halt, and reverse the degradation of ecosystems on every continent and in
every ocean. Statement II is correct.
• The award conferred by the UNEP and FAO of the UN makes the initiatives eligible for
technical and financial support from the organisation.
• The awards track notable initiatives that provide support to global commitments in order to restore
one billion hectares.
The seven initiatives are:
1. The Restoring Mediterranean Forests Initiative: It involves the countries of Lebanon, Morocco,
Tunisia and Türkiye.
• It consists of a novel approach said to have protected and restored natural habitats and vulnerable
ecosystems. It is also said to have led to around two million hectares of forests restored across the
region since 2017.
2. The Living Indus initiative received approval from the Pakistan parliament in the wake of the
devastating 2022 climate change-induced floods.
• Its official launch took place at the 27th Conference of Parties to the UN Framework Convention
on Climate Change in Sharm el-Sheikh.
• It designates the Indus River as a living entity with rights — a measure taken to protect rivers
elsewhere as well.
3. The Acción Andina social movement led by Peruvian conservation non-profit ECOAN aims to
protect and restore a forest area of one million hectares.
4. The Sri Lanka Mangrove Regeneration initiative: It is a science-driven programme co-led by local
communities. It focuses on the restoration of natural balance in the ecosystem
5. The Terai Arc Landscape initiative: It is aimed to restore the forests of critical corridors of the Terai
Arc Landscape in collaboration with local communities working as citizen scientists, community-based
anti-poaching units, forest guards, among others.
• “It also supported the tiger population in the landscape shared by India and Nepal, which increased
today to 1,174.
6. Regreening Africa’s agriculture: It is expected to benefit over 6,00,000 households.
7. Growing forests in Africa's drylands initiative: It aims to expand from 41,000 restored hectares
today to 229,000 hectares by 2030.

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Q89 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
Recent findings from data collected by NASA's Cassini spacecraft reveal the presence of a vast ocean
beneath the icy surface of Saturn's moon Mimas.
About Cassini Spacecraft:
• Cassini-Huygens was a joint NASA/European Space Agency (ESA)/Italian Space Agency
(ASI) space mission to Saturn.
• It was launched on October 15, 1997.
• The mission consisted of NASA’s Cassini orbiter, which was the first space probe to orbit
Saturn, and the ESA’s Huygens probe, which landed on Titan, Saturn’s largest moon.
Spacecraft:
• It was one of the largest interplanetary spacecrafts.
• The Cassini orbiter weighed 2,125 kg (4,685 pounds) and was 6.7 metres (22 feet) long and 4 metres
(13 feet) wide.
• The instruments on board Cassini included radar to map the cloud-covered surface of Titan and a
magnetometer to study Saturn’s magnetic field.
• The disk-shaped Huygens probe was mounted on the side of Cassini. It weighed 349 kg (769
pounds), was 2.7 metres (8.9 feet) across, and carried six instruments designed to study the
atmosphere and surface of Titan.
Highlights:
• It orbited Saturn from 2004 to 2017, circling the planet 294 times and teaching us almost everything
we know about Saturn.
• It measured the structure of Saturn’s atmosphere and rings, as well as how they interact with the
planet’s moons.
• It also discovered six named moons and revealed Enceladus and Titan as promising locations to
search for extraterrestrial life.
Key Facts about Mimas
• It is the smallest and innermost of the major regular moons of Saturn.
• The surface is icy and heavily cratered.
• The most striking feature of this small moon is a gigantic crater known as Herschel. This crater
measures 80 miles (130 km) across.
o A central peak in the centre of the crater rises to a height of 4 miles, almost as high as Mount Everest
on Earth.
o Herschel is one of the largest impact structures, relative to the size of the body, known in the solar
system.
• The low density of Mimas indicates that it is composed almost entirely of water ice.

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Q90 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, for the first time the scientists have found a mushroom growing out of a frog, indicating a
symbiotic relationship between a frog and the mushroom.
• Symbiosis is a term describing any relationship or interaction between two dissimilar organisms.
• The specific kind of symbiosis depends on whether either or both organisms benefit from the
relationship.
• Symbiotic relationships can be useful measures of an ecosystem’s health.
There are 4 main symbiotic relationships:
1. Mutualism
2. Commensalism
3. Parasitism
4. Competition
Barnacles & Swimming Crabs - In parasitism, one species (the parasite) lives with, on, or in a host
species, at the expense of the host species. Pair 1 is correct.
• Examples of common parasites found in the ocean include nematodes, leeches and barnacles.
• A barnacle may root itself within a swimming crab’s reproductive system. While the crab does not
die from this interaction, its reproductive capabilities are greatly diminished.
Clownfish and Sea Anemones - In the warm waters of the Pacific or Indian Oceans, the excellent
example of mutualism is the relationship between clownfish and sea anemones. Pair 2 is incorrect.
• In a mutualistic relationship, both species benefit.
Barnacles & Humpback Whales – The commensalistic relationship exists between them. Pair 3 is
incorrect.
• Commensalism happens when one species lives with, on or in another species, known as the host.
• The host species neither benefits nor is harmed from the relationship.
• The huge whales transport the tiny barnacles to plankton-rich waters, where both species feast upon
the abundant microorganisms that live there.
Corals & Sponges – It is an example of interspecific competition in the ocean is the relationship
between corals and sponges. Pair 4 is correct.
• Competition can happen between members of the same species (intraspecific competition) and
between different species (interspecific competition).
• Sponges are very abundant in coral reefs. If they become too successful, however, they take needed
food and other resources from the corals that make up the reef.

Q91 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
Chinese nationals have started occupying several of their model “Xiaokang” border defence villages
across India’s north-eastern borders which the country has been building along the Line of Actual
Control (LAC) since 2019.
Line of Actual Control (LAC)
• LAC refers to the disputed border between India and China, spanning approximately 3,488
kilometres.
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Q92 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Context:
South Korea is on high Alert as North Korea has launched Multiple Cruise Missiles into the Sea of
Japan.
About:
• Sea of Japan, marginal sea of the western Pacific Ocean
• It is bounded by the Japanese archipelago, Sakhalin, the Korean Peninsula, and the mainland
of the Russian Far East. Statement 1 is correct.
• The sea is separated from the East China Sea to the south by the Tsushima and Korea straits
and from the Sea of Okhotsk to the north by the La Perouse and Tatar straits. Statement 2 is
incorrect.

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Q93 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context:
India has rejected the demand of the four-nation European Free Trade Association (EFTA) for ‘data
exclusivity’ provisions in the free trade agreement that both sides are negotiating.
About European Free Trade Association
• It is an intergovernmental organisation established in 1960 by the Stockholm Convention.
• Objective: Promotes free trade and economic integration between its members within Europe and
globally.
• Member Countries: Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland.
• The members of this organization are all open, competitive economies committed to the
progressive liberalisation of trade in the multinational arena as well as in free trade
agreements.
• In contrast to the European Union (EU), it is not a customs union.
Governance
• Its highest governing body is the EFTA Council. It generally meets 8 times a year at the
ambassadorial level and twice a year at the ministerial level.
• EFTA Surveillance Authority (ESA): It monitors compliance with European Economic Area
(EEA) rules in Iceland, Liechtenstein and Norway.
• EFTA Court: It is based in Luxembourg and has the competence and authority to settle internal and
external disputes regarding the implementation, application or interpretation of the EEA agreement.
• The headquarters of the EFTA Secretariat is located in Geneva. It assists the EFTA Council in the
management of relations between the 4 EFTA States and deals with the negotiation and operation
of EFTA’s FTAs.

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Q94 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
Kerala Legislative Assembly has unanimously passed a resolution urging the Centre to address the
escalating human-animal conflict in the state and to classify wild boar as vermin.
• Vermin – It means any wild animal notified under section 62 of Wildlife Protection Act.
• Need – To control the population of small wild animals that carry disease and destroy plants and
food.
• Declaration of Vermin – The Central Government may, by notification, declare any wild
animal specified in Schedule II to be vermin for any area and for such period as may be
specified therein and so long as such notification is in force. Statement 1 is correct.
• Once declared as vermin, these animals can be hunted.
• Currently, it includes only 4 species of wild animals namely Common Crows, Fruit Bats, Rats,
and Mice. Statement 2 is correct.
Authority empowering hunting – Section 11 of the Act empowers Chief Wildlife Warden of a State
(CWLW)
To declare any wild animal specified in Schedule I to be hunted if it has become dangerous to human
life or disabled or diseased beyond recovery. Statement 3 is correct.

Q95 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, Kosovo secured visa-free access to the Schengen zone, facing opposition due to its
declaration of independence from Serbia.
About the Schengen Zone:
• It’s an area in the European Union without internal borders, allowing for the free and
unrestricted movement of people.
• It allows for passport-free travel, work and living in an EU country without special formalities
between countries that fall within the European zone.
• The Schengen Agreement was signed in 1985 at a Schengen village in Luxembourg (bordering
France and Germany).
• The Schengen Zone covers most of the EU countries, except Cyprus and Ireland, and it includes
few non-EU countries like Norway, Iceland, Switzerland, and Liechtenstein.
India and the Schengen Visa:
• Indian passport holders can stay in the Schengen area for up to 90 days within any 180-day
period.

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Q96 ANSWER (b)
Explanation

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Q97 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Beed Custard Apple – Maharashtra. Pair 1 is correct.
• Custard apples, also known as sitaphal, are grown in Maharashtra's Beed area and have been
designated as Geographical Indications.
Recently, the Assam government declared the GI-tagged ‘Kaji Nemu’ (Citrus Limon) as the State
Fruit. Pair 2 is correct.
Nanjanagud Banana – Karnataka. Pair 3 is incorrect.
• Nanjanagud Banana is a type of banana that is grown in the Mysore and Chamarajanagar districts
of Karnataka and is known for its distinct flavor and scent. It is included under geographical
indicators.
Banaganapalle Mangoes – Andhra Pradesh. Pair 4 is incorrect.
• Banaganapalle Mangoes are grown at Banaganapalle, in the Kurnool district, and are recognized as
a geographical indication in Andhra Pradesh under the horticulture products category.

Q98 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context
Several states had flagged the malfunctioning of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) during the
2019 Lok Sabha polls according to documents obtained through the Right to Information.
Electronic Voting Machine (EVM)
• Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) is a simple electronic device used to record votes in place of
ballot papers and boxes which were used earlier in conventional voting systems.
• The use of EVM started back in 1982 Kerala Assembly elections. Prior to this only ballot papers
and ballot boxes were allowed.
How does the machine work?
• EVM has two parts, it consists of a ‘control unit’ and a ‘balloting unit’, connected by a 5-
meter cable.
• The control unit is with the Election Commission-appointed polling officer and it is the brain of the
EVM.
• The balloting unit is in the voting compartment into which the voter enters to cast the vote in secret
by pressing the button against the name and symbol of the candidate of her choice.
• The balloting unit is turned on only after the polling officer presses the ‘Ballot’ button on it.
• The EVM runs on a 6-volt single alkaline battery fitted in the control unit, and can even be
used in areas that have no electricity. Statement 4 is correct.
Production and design:
There are only two Indian PSUs that manufacture EVM machines;
• Bharat Electronic Limited (BEL) and
• Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL). Statement 1 is correct.

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The secret source code is only accessible to a few engineers.
How long can EVM be used?
• EVMs have a life of 15 years. Chips that have the code need to be crushed in the presence of
an officer of EC. Statement 3 is correct.
• Even CU, BU display units are removed from the plastic holding and are crushed.
What is malfunctioning of EVMs?
• Malfunction or breakdown of EVMs doesn’t imply they are open to rigging or tampering.
• Like any machine, EVMs too can malfunction. However, frequent instances of breakdown can lead
to interruptions in voting, slowing down the process and potentially affecting voter turnout.
• To ensure the functionality of EVMs, First-level check (FLC) is done.

First-level check (FLC):

• FLC is the initial technical examination of the EVM’s Ballot Unit (BU) and Control Unit (CU)
as well as the Voter-Verified Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT). Statement 2 is correct.
• This process is conducted by engineers in the six months leading up to the Lok Sabha polls at
the district level under the supervision of a District Election Officer (DEO).
• If any EVM part malfunctions during the FLC, it is returned to the manufacturers.

Q99 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
The Ministry of Coal, Government of India, is set to host an Industry Interaction in Hyderabad
aimed at fostering the development and proliferation of coal/lignite gasification projects across the
nation.
• Coal Gasification is the process of producing syngas, a mixture consisting primarily of carbon
monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H2), carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and water vapour
(H2O) – from coal and water, air and/or oxygen. Statement I is correct.
• Gasification occurs in a gasifier, generally a high temperature/pressure vessel where oxygen and
steam are directly contacted with the coal or other feed material causing a series of chemical
reactions to occur that convert the feed to syngas and ash/slag.
• Syngas can be used for electricity production, used in energy-efficient fuel cell technology, or
as chemical “building blocks” for industrial purposes. Statement II is correct.
• The hydrogen can also be extracted for use in fuelling a hydrogen economy.

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Q100 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
India has initiated an anti-dumping probe into imports of certain solar glass from China and
Vietnam, following a complaint by domestic players.

About Anti-Dumping Duty:

• Anti-dumping duty is a tariff imposed on imports manufactured in foreign countries that are
priced below the fair market value of similar goods in the domestic market.
• The government imposes anti-dumping duty on foreign imports when it believes that the goods are
being “dumped” – through the low pricing – in the domestic market.
• Anti-dumping duty is imposed to protect local businesses and markets from unfair
competition by foreign imports. Statement 1 is correct.
• Thus, the purpose of anti-dumping duty is to rectify the trade distortive effect of dumping and re-
establish fair trade.
• The use of anti-dumping measure as an instrument of fair competition is permitted by the
World Trade Organization (WTO). Statement 2 is correct.
• The WTO allows the government of the affected country to take legal action against the
dumping country as long as there is evidence of genuine material injury to industries in the
domestic market.
• The government must show that dumping took place, the extent of the dumping in terms of costs,
and the injury or threat to cause injury to the domestic market.
• While the intention of anti-dumping duties is to protect local businesses and markets, these tariffs
can also lead to higher prices for domestic consumers.

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 March 2024 Current Affairs Multiple Choice Questions
1. Consider the following:
Islands Associated
in news Waterbody
1. Agalega IslandIndian Ocean
2. Greater Tunb Mediterranean Sea
Island
3. Thitu Island Sea of Japan
4. Corisca Island Atlantic Ocean
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
2. Consider the following:
Multipurpose Located on
project
1. Pancheshwar Mahakali River
project
2. Hidkal Project Tapti River
3. Koldam Project Sutlej River
4. Idduki Project Periyar River
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) Only three d) All four
3. Consider the following statements regarding Harit Nauka Initiative:
1. The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways unveiled the Harit Nauka guidelines for inland
vessels in January 2024.
2. According to it all states have to make efforts to use green fuels for 50% of inland waterways-
based passenger fleets in the next one decade, and 100% by 2045.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Which of the following organisation recently released Global Waste Management Outlook 2024?
a) World Health Organization (WHO)
b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
c) World Bank Group
d) None of the above

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5. Which of the following best describes the term 'Juice Jacking', recently seen in news?
a) Unauthorized access to financial accounts through phishing emails.
b) Theft of electronic devices from public charging stations.
c) Malicious software installed on smartphones via USB charging ports.
d) Data theft or malware installation through compromised USB charging ports.
6. Consider the following statements regarding "Report on the Status of Leopards in India 2022":
1. India's leopard population rose by 18% from 2018 to 2022.
2. Madhya Pradesh houses the largest population of leopards in the country followed by
Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
3. The Shivalik hills and the Gangetic plains recorded significant growth in leopard population.
4. The fifth cycle of leopard population estimation was carried out by the National Tiger
Conservation Authority and Wildlife Institute of India.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
7. Consider the following statements regarding 'Planum Boreum':
Statement I - It consists of layers that can be found in the north pole of the earth.
Statement II - It is formed as a mix of dust, water ice and frost settled on the ground over time.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-l is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
8. Consider the following Wildlife Sanctuaries (WLS):
1. Chimmony Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary
3. Kottiyoor Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Kurinjimala Wildlife Sanctuary
5. Thattekad Bird Wildlife Sanctuary
How many of the above given WLS lies in the state of Kerala?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
9. The Bilateral Maritime Exercise named 'Samudra Laksamana' is conducted between India and
which of the following countries?
a) Singapore b) Thailand
c) Malaysia d) Indonesia

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10. Consider the following statements regarding Genome India Project:
1. It is a project launched in 2020, funded and coordinated by the Department of Biotechnology
(DBT).
2. It involves whole-genome sequencing and data analysis of 10,000 individuals to understand
disease nature in the Indian population.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
11. Consider the following statements regarding National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT):
1. It is a nation-wide centralized payment system owned and operated by the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI).
2. There is no limit on maximum transfer value.
3. NEFT transfers are only allowed for bank accounts and transfers in India, and cannot be used
for transfers abroad except for Bhutan.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
12. Consider the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha elections:
1. Article 81 of the Constitution mandates the indirect election of Rajya Sabha representatives by
the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies.
2. An amendment to the Representation of the People Act, 1951 in 2003 introduced open ballot
voting for Rajya Sabha elections.
3. The provisions of the 10th Schedule, with respect to voting against the instruction of the party,
will not be applicable for a Rajya Sabha election.
4. The June 1998 Rajya Sabha elections in Kerala witnessed cross-voting for the first time.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
13. Consider the following:
Wildlife Conservation
species Status
1. Puma Least Concern
2. Jaguar Near Threatened
3. Snow Leopard Vulnerable
4. Cheetah Endangered
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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14. Consider the following:
National Associated Park Geographical Feature
1. Anamudi Shola Anamudi Peak
National Park
2. Pambadum Shola Sungam range Hills
National Park
3. Periyar Nilgiri Hills
National Park
4. Silent Valley Cardamom Hills
National Park
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
15. Terms like 'Barbados Programme of Action', 'Mauritius Strategy' and 'SAMOA Pathway', sometimes
seen in news are related to which of the following?
a) Addressing climate change impacts on small island developing states.
b) Incorporating gender equality in terms of action against climate change.
c) A cultural initiative promoting local traditions and arts globally.
d) None of the above
16. Consider the following statements regarding Press and Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act),
2023:
1. It has replaced the colonial era Press and Registration of Books Act dating back to 1867.
2. The office of Press Registrar General of India shall be carrying out the purposes of the new Act.
3. The Act exempts books and journals from the purview of mandatory registration.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
17. Consider the following:
Places in news Located in
1. Nainativu Palk Strait
Island
2. Dholera Assam
3. Morigaon Maharashtra
4. Nhava Sea Port Arabian Sea
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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18. Consider the following:
GI tag Products Associated State
1. Risa Textile Tripura
2. Rupa Tarakasi Odisha
Jewellery
3. Narasapur Andhra Pradesh
crochet lace
products
4. Majuli mask Assam
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
19. Nyoma Advanced Landing Ground, recently seen in news is located in which of the following state?
a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Ladakh
c) Sikkim
d) Himachal Pradesh
20. Which of the following statement best describes 'Protoplanetary Disk'?
a) A type of galaxy formation observed in the early universe.
b) A structure formed during the early stages of star formation, consisting of gas and dust orbiting
a young star.
c) A theoretical model explaining the behaviour of black holes within the Milky Way.
d) A term used to describe the outer layers of a gas giant planet.
21. Consider the following countries:
1. Azerbaijan
2. Malaysia
3. Mexico
4. Sudan
5. Brunei
How many of the above given countries are members of OPEC+?
a) Only two b) Only three
c) Only four d) All five
22. Consider the following statements regarding Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable
Advertisements) 1954:
1. It is a legislative framework to control the advertisement of drugs and prohibit claims of magical
qualities in remedies.
2. The term "advertisement," under the Act, extends to all notices, labels, wrappers, and oral
announcements.
3. However, the Act does not extend to talismans, mantras, and charms that allegedly possess
miraculous powers for healing.
4. The Act applies to all individuals and entities involved in the publication of advertisements,
including manu- facturers, distributors, and advertisers.
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 How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
23. How many of the following functions can be served by the tail in various wildlife species?
1. Maintain balance
2. Social interactions
3. Regulating body temperature
4. Defence against threats
Choose the correct option from below:
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
24. What is Post-quantum Cryptographic Protocol (PQ3), recently seen in the news, primarily designed
for?
a) Enhancing the performance of device processors.
b) Securing communications and data against attacks from quantum computers.
c) Optimizing battery life in mobile devices for low-energy consumption.
d) Improving the graphical user interface (GUI) for future-ready operating systems.
25. Consider the following statements in the context of Defence Modernisation Fund:
1. The 15th Finance Commission has proposed the establishment of a dedicated Modernisation
Fund for Defence and Internal Security (MFDIS).
2. It is a non-lapsable fund which contradicts the fundamental principles of parliamentary
financial accountability.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. Which of the following organisation recently released the report titled "Women, Business and Law
Index”?
a) World Economic Forum
b) World Bank
c) International Monetary Fund
d) International Law Commission
27. Consider the following statements regarding Cavum clouds:
Statement I - They are also known as hole-punch clouds formed when aeroplanes pass through
layers of Nimbostratus Clouds, which are mid-level clouds containing supercooled water droplets.
Statement II - As the aircraft moves through, a process known as adiabatic expansion can cause
the water droplets to freeze into ice crystals which eventually become too heavy and fall out of the
cloud layer, creating a hole in the clouds.

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 Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
28. Consider the following statements regarding Udyam Assist Platform (UAP):
1. It was launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises.
2. It aims to facilitate registration of Informal Micro Enterprises (IMEs) through generation of
Udyam Assist Certificate.
3. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is the implementing agency for the project.
4. Informal Micro Enterprises (IMEs) not having Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN) are
allowed to register on Udyam Assist Platform.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
29. Consider the following:
Naval Base Located in
1. INS Kadamba Karnataka
2. INS Hansa Maharashtra
3. INS Shikra Goa
4. INS Dega Odisha
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
30. Which of the following country has recently approved abortion as a constitutional right?
a) Spain
b) Germany
c) France
d) Austria
31. Consider the following statements regarding ADITI Scheme:
1. Under the scheme, start-ups are eligible to receive grant-in-aid of up to Rs 25 crore for their
research, development, and innovation endeavours in defence technology.
2. It falls under the iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence) framework of Department of
Defence Production (DDP), Ministry of Defence.
3. It aims to develop about 30 deep-tech critical and strategic technologies.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) All three d) None

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32. Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Privileges:
1. Legislators are immune from prosecution against bribery charges in connection with their
speech and votes made in Parliament and Legislative Assemblies.
2. The Parliamentary Privileges does not apply to the elections of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
33. Which of the following statements about the RAD51 recombinase (RAD51) gene is true?
a) RAD51 is primarily involved in photosynthesis in plants.
b) RAD51 is a tumor suppressor gene associated with brain cancer.
c) RAD51 plays a crucial role in repairing double-strand DNA breaks.
d) RAD51 is responsible for regulating blood sugar levels in humans.
34. How many of the following World Heritage Sites are located in the Red Sea and Gulf of Aden (RSGA)
Ecosystems?
1. Socotra Archipelago
2. Dungonab Bay
3. Senganeeb Atoll
4. Fraser Island
5. Macquarie Island
Choose the correct option from below:
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
35. Consider the following statements regarding 'Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor':
Statement I - It is a machine that produces more nuclear fuel than it consumes and will initially
use the Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide (MOX) fuel.
Statement II - India will only be the third country to have commercial operating Fast Breeder
Reactor.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d) Statement -I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct
36. Consider the following statements regarding MethaneSAT:
1. It is a satellite that tracks and measures methane emissions at a global scale.
2. It is developed by the European Space Agency.
3. It is backed by the Green Climate Fund (GCF).

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 4. The data collected by MethaneSAT will be made public for free in near real-time.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
37. Consider the following countries:
1. Egypt
2. Russia
3. Libya
4. Saudi Arabia
5. Iran
How many of the above given countries are part of Gas Exporting Countries Forum (GECF)?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
38. Consider the following statements with respect to Dry Ice:
1. Dry ice is the solid form of carbon dioxide at a temperature of -78.5°C.
2. Dry ice undergoes sublimation when exposed to warmer temperatures, transitioning directly
from a solid to a gas.
3. Both liquid nitrogen and dry ice cause severe damage to skin and internal organs.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
39. Consider the following:
Sacred Groves Associated State
1. Oran Rajasthan
2. Dev Van Maharashtra
3. Lai Umang Meghalaya
4. Devarakadu Andhra Pradesh
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
40. Dolutegravir (DTG) drug recently seen in news is the World Health Organisation's (WHO)
recommended antiretroviral drug for the treatment of which of the following disease?
a) Tuberculosis
b) Ebola
c) HIV/AIDS
d) COVID-19

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41. Consider the following statements regarding Star dunes:
1. They are landscapes in deserts that resemble giant pyramid sand.
2. They make up more than 50% of all the dunes in Earth's deserts.
3. Earth's largest star dunes are found in the Sahara Desert in the eastern Morocco.
4. They also have been spotted on Mars and on Saturn's large moon Titan.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
42. Consider the following:
Glacier Located in
1. Lambert Greenland
Fisher Glacier
2. Fedchenko Austria
Glacier
3. Perito Moreno Chile
Glacier
4. La Corona Venezuela
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
43. UDGAM portal, recently seen in news, is developed by which of the following?
a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
b) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
c) National Institute for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
44. Consider the following statements regarding Dying Declaration:
1. It is dealt with under clause (1) of Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872.
2. It is admissible as evidence in criminal proceedings only.
3. If the person making the dying statement is likely to live, his/her statement becomes admissible
at the judge's discretion.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) All three d) None
45. In the recent news, the term 'Blue Line' has been associated with Israel. Which of the following
statements best describes it?
a) Established in 2000 by the United Nations Interim Force in Lebanon (UNIFIL), the Blue Line
serves as a demarcation line between Israel and Lebanon.
b) The Blue Line represents the fictional boundary separating Israel from the Jordan
c) It refers to an imaginary line claimed by Israel in the Mediterranean as its Exclusive Economic
Zone.
d) The Blue Line delineates the occupied territories by Israel in the West Bank and Gaza.

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46. Consider the following statements regarding Uttar Poorva Transformative Industrialization Scheme,
2024 (UNNATI - 2024):
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme.
2. It aims to develop industries that will create productive economic activity in the manufacturing
and service sectors.
3. It focuses on states of North East Region with a financial outlay of Rs.10, 037 crore.
4. Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region is the nodal ministry for the scheme.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
47. Consider the following statements regarding 'IndiaAI Mission':
1. It will be implemented by the 'IndiaAI' Independent Business Division (IBD) under Digital India
Corporation (DIC).
2. It will establish a comprehensive ecosystem catalysing AI innovation through strategic
programmes across the public and private sectors.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
48. Consider the following:
State Specific Declared
Disaster State
1. Snakebite Odisha
2. Lightning Assam
3. Coastal Erosion Tamil Nadu
4. Sunburn Kerala
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) Only three d) All four
49. Arrange the following Epochs in correct chronological order (from older to younger):
1. Ecocene
2. Oligocene
3. Holocene
4. Pliocene
5. Pleistocene
Choose the correct option from below:
a) 1-2-4-5-3
b) 1-2-5-4-3
c) 2-1-4-5-3
d) 2-1-5-4-3

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50. Which of the following best describes the term "Haiper," recently seen in news?
a) A revolutionary quantum computing algorithm for enhanced data encryption.
b) An advanced AI-powered video generation tool.
c) A blockchain-based platform for secure digital asset management.
d) A neural network framework for real-time language translation.
51. Consider the following statements regarding exploration licences of critical and deep-seated
minerals:
1. The Exploration Licence holder will identify the areas that can be auctioned for mining lease.
2. The states of Rajasthan and Karnataka have launched India's first exploration licence auction
for critical minerals.
Which of the above given statements(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. Consider the following statements regarding Very Small Aperture Terminal (V-SAT) Station:
1. It is a two-way satellite ground station with a dish antenna that is used to transmit narrowband
data for the provision of satellite Internet access to remote locations.
2. It can be used in place of a large physical network as it bounces the signal from satellites
instead of being transported through physical network connection.
3. There is no latency issue in V-SATs unlike a physical network like an ethernet connection.
4. The signal quality of V-SAT can be affected by the weather and other environmental conditions.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
53. What is the primary application of the Ossification Test, recently seen in news?
a) Monitoring water contamination levels.
b) Identifying potential food allergens.
c) Assessing the structural integrity of bridges.
d) Estimating the age of an individual.
54. Consider the following statements regarding Frontier Technology Labs (FTLs):
1. They aim to advance the government's agenda of digital inclusion, skilling and growth.
2. Atal Innovation Mission and Meta will partner to set up FTLs in schools of strategic importance.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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55. Inflection 2.5, recently seen in the news, refers to:
a) A breakthrough in renewable energy technology.
b) A submarine prototype for deep-sea exploration.
c) An advanced tool or system within the field of artificial intelligence.
d) None of the above.
56. Consider the following:
Heat Exchange Description
Processes
1. Conduction Energy is transferred by direct contact.
2. Convection Energy is transferred by the mass motion of
molecules.
3. Advection Horizontal transfer of heat by wind.
4. Terrestrial Energy is transferred Radiation by electromagnetic
radiation.
How many of the above pair(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
57. Consider the following statements regarding Biarritz Partnership:
1. It was established during the G7 summit held in Biarritz, France, in 2019.
2. It aims to address gender disparities and promote women's empowerment globally.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
58. The term "Yaounde Declaration" recently seen in news is related to which of the following?
a) Addressing environmental challenges across the African continent.
b) A framework for economic cooperation and integration among African nations.
c) To sustainably and equitably address the threat of malaria in the African region.
d) Commitment of African nations to uphold human rights and democratic principles.
59. Consider the following statements regarding Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):
1. The Khan Committee on Rural Credit (1975) recommended the establishment of RRBs.
2. Prathama Grameen Bank was the first RRB bank and was established on 2nd October 1975.
3. RBI has set a Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target of 40% of total outstanding advances for
RRBs.
4. They are regulated and supervised by the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(NABARD).
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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60. Consider the following statements regarding India's trade with EFTA Bloc (European Free Trade
Association) in 2023:
1. Organic Chemicals constituted the major part of the export items from India to the EFTA.
2. Norway received the maximum exports from India in 2023.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
61. Consider the following statements regarding Core Inflation:
1. It is the change in the costs of goods and services excluding the price variations in seasonal
elements, such as those related to food and energy.
2. It represents the long-term trend in the price level.
3. It is used to determine the impact of rising prices on consumer income.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
62. Consider the following statements regarding Self Help Group - Bank Linkage Programme:
Statement I - It aims to provide financial services to unreached and underserved poor households.
Statement II - It was launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 1992 to strengthen the
microfinancing in India.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-l is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
63. Consider the following:
Places in news Located in
1. Sela Tunnel India
2. Mangistau Russia
Region
3. Port Victoria United Kingdom
4. Badwater Basin Mexico
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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64. Consider the following statements about Blue Leaders:
1. It is a group of countries calling for urgent action to save the global ocean from overfishing and
pollution.
2. It has set target to protect at least 50% of the global ocean through a network of highly and
fully protected marine areas by 2030.
3. India is a member of this group.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
65. Consider the following statements regarding Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle
(MIRV) Technology:
1. It is the capability that allows multiple warheads to be loaded on a single missile delivery system
and programmed to hit different targets.
2. The warheads of MIRV-equipped missile can be made to hit the same location too.
3. An MIRV-equipped missile has never been used so far in any conflict situation.
How many of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
66. Consider the following statements regarding Citizenship Amendment Act, 2019:
Statement I - It allows non-Muslim migrants from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan to seek
Indian citizenship through registration.
Statement II - Members of the designated communities under (CAA-2019) are exempted from
criminal cases under the Foreigners Act, 1946.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-l is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
67. Consider the following:
Indian Festival Associated State
1. Gorsam Kora Assam
Festival
2. Myoko Festival Arunachal Pradesh
3. Kharchi Puja Tripura
4. Saga Dawa Meghalaya
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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68. SheRNI Portal, recently seen in news is launched by which of following body?
a) NITI Aayog
b) All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
c) Ministry of Women and Child Development
d) University Grants Commission
69. Consider the following statements about Sponge Iron:
1. It is produced from the direct reduction of iron ore by a reducing gas.
2. The reducing gas is a mixture of Nitrogen, Carbon dioxide and Argon.
3. India with 20% of the world's sponge iron production is the 2nd largest producer of sponge iron
in the world.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
70. Consider the following statements regarding Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA):
1. It will be India's indigenous fifth-generation stealth fighter aircraft.
2. At present, only USA, Russia and China have built fifth-generation fighters.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
71. Consider the following statements regarding Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT):
1. The Finance Act, 1987 introduced MAT in the form of a tax on book profits in Income Tax Act,
1961.
2. When MAT for a company is greater than its normal tax liability, the difference between MAT
and normal tax liability is called MAT Credit.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
72. Consider the following statements regarding Uniform Code for Pharmaceuticals Marketing Practices
(UCPMP) 2024:
1. It prohibits pharma companies from offering gifts and travel facilities to healthcare
professionals or their family members.
2. It bans supply of free samples to those who are not qualified to prescribe such a product.
3. It requires all pharma companies to disclose details and expenditure of events involving health
care professionals.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

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73. What are Per- and poly-fluoroalkyl substances (PFAS), recently seen in news, primarily known for?
a) Enhancing agricultural crop yields.
b) Serving as natural antioxidants in food preservation.
c) Providing flame-retardant properties in textiles and furniture.
d) Being persistent pollutants with potential health and environmental risks.
74. Recently, the Exercise 'Bharat Shakti' was in news. Which one of the following best describe it?
a) A bilateral maritime exercise between India and Sri Lanka aimed at enhancing coastal security.
b) A joint air defence exercise conducted by India and the United States to bolster regional
security.
c) A military exercise involving Indian and Nepalese forces focusing on disaster response and
humanitarian assistance.
d) An integrated tri-service exercise held in the Thar Desert to demonstrate India's combat
readiness.
75. Consider the following statements regarding Article 341 of the constitution:
Statement I - It authorises the President to declare certain castes and classes as Scheduled Castes
in a state or a union territory.
Statement II - It empowers state legislatures to create sub-classifications among the list of
Scheduled Castes notified by the President.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-l is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
76. The terms like 'Lotokoi' and 'Cho Mukha', recently seen in news, is related to which of the following?
a) Traditional farming methods.
b) Indigenous musical instruments.
c) Architectural styles.
d) Types of traditional masks.
77. Which of the following best describes the terms like 'Sunset Yellow', 'Carmoisine', and 'Tartrazine'?
a) Traditional dyeing techniques.
b) Synthetic food color additives.
c) Traditional spices.
d) Varieties of rare gemstones.
78. Meropenem and Disodium EDTA, recently seen in news, are primarily used for which of the
following?
a) Agricultural fertilizers.
b) Household cleaning products.
c) Medical treatments.
d) Automotive lubricants.
79. Consider the following statements regarding Graphics Processing Unit (GPU):
1. Like a central processing unit (CPU), a GPU is also a chip component in computing devices.
2. GPUs work by using a method called parallel processing, where multiple processors handle
separate parts of a single task.

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 Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
80. What is the implication of "Digital Arrest" in the context of cyber fraud in India?
a) A method for halting the spread of cyber fraud.
b) A type of cyber-attack targeting law enforcement databases.
c) The termination of digital communications networks to prevent fraud.
d) None of the above
81. Consider the following countries:
1. Haiti
2. Jamaica
3. Puerto Rico
4. Cuba
How many of the above share a land boundary with Dominican Republic?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
82. Consider the following statements regarding Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme, 2024:
1. It aids to accelerate the adoption of electric vehicle (EVs) in India by providing financial support.
2. It is applicable only to the electric two-wheeler and three-wheeler.
3. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Heavy Industries, in collaboration with the Ministry of
Finance.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
83. Operation 'Rising Sun,' spearheaded by the Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI), primarily
targets which of the following?
a) Illegal wildlife trafficking across Indian borders.
b) Counterfeit currency circulation in major cities.
c) Smuggling of foreign-origin gold into India.
d) Cybercrime syndicates operating in metropolitan areas.
84. Recently inaugurated Sabroom Land port is located in which of the following state?
a) Manipur
b) Nagaland
c) Meghalaya
d) Tripura

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85. Consider the following countries:
1. Armenia
2. Kazakhstan
3. Uzbekistan
4. Georgia
5. Russia
How many of the above given countries are the member states of Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU)?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
86. Consider the following statements regarding the 'Vocal for Local' initiative by NITI Aayog:
1. It is an initiative under the 'Startup India' scheme of the government.
2. As a part of this initiative, local products from 500 aspirational blocks have been mapped and
consolidated under the 'Shreshta' brand.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
87. Darien Gap, recently seen in news, is located between which of the following countries?
a) Panama and Colombia
b) Colombia and Venezuela
c) Ecuador and Peru
d) Peru and Bolivia
88. Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) in
nuclear energy production?
a) FBRs primarily consume fissile material to generate electricity.
b) FBRs utilize enriched uranium as fuel and produce minimal radioactive waste.
c) FBRs have the ability to breed more fissile material than they consume by converting fertile
material through nuclear transmutation.
d) FBRs operate at lower temperatures compared to traditional nuclear reactors, ensuring safer
operation.
89. Consider the following statements regarding process for de-notification of protected areas:
1. De-notifying a sanctuary or National Park requires recommendation of National Board for
Wildlife and approval by the Supreme Court with no specific time limit.
2. De-notifying a tiger reserve requires recommendation of National Tiger Conservation Authority
and approval of National Board for Wildlife.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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90. Which of the following best describes the term 'Private Placement', recently seen in news?
a) A method of selling government bonds directly to individual investors.
b) The process of offering shares of a company to the public for the first time.
c) The sale of securities to a select group of investors without a public offering.
d) The transfer of ownership of a privately held company to a public corporation.
91. PM-SURAJ portal is related to which of the following ministry?
a) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
b) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
c) Ministry of Rural development
d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
92. Consider the following statements regarding Atmospheric Research Testbed (ART):
Statement I - The first phase of India's Atmospheric Research Testbed in Central India (ART-CI)
was inaugurated in Sehore district, Madhya Pradesh.
Statement II - The locality is pristine and free of anthropogenic and other pollutants, making it the
best site in central India for setting up sensitive, high-end meteorological instruments and
observatories for recording data.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
93. Consider the following:
Geo-Heritage Located in
Sites
1. Pandavula Tamil Nadu
Gutta
2. Ramgarh Maharashtra
Crater
3. Chabimura Manipur
4. Mawmluh Meghalaya
Cave
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
94. Hybrid perovskites, recently seen in news, primarily refer to which of the following ?
a) A type of genetically modified crops developed for increased resistance to pests.
b) Complex crystal structures used in semiconductor devices for energy conversion.
c) A novel class of antibiotics designed to combat drug-resistant bacteria.
d) Traditional building materials derived from natural minerals for sustainable construction.

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95. Consider the following statements regarding Global Human Development Index (HDI) 2023-24:
1. Ranking of India in 2022 has degraded as compared to 2021.
2. India ranked below its neighbours Sri Lanka and Bhutan.
3. India's life expectancy at birth has improved in 2022 as compared to 2021.
4. There is an increase in expected years of schooling (EYS).
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) Only three d) All four
96. Consider the following statements regarding Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity
(IPEF):
1. It is a regional arrangement to build cooperation and economic integration in the Indo-Pacific
region which was launched in May 2022.
2. The economic framework broadly rests on four pillars including Trade; Supply chain resilience;
Clean Energy and Decarbonization; and Infrastructure Taxes and anti-corruption measures.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
97. Which of the following institute/organisation recently launched the Avaana Sustainability Fund
(ASF)?
a) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
c) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
d) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
98. Consider the following statements:
1. Lepidolite is the lithium-rich mica mineral that is usually pink, red or purple in colour.
2. Lepidolite is the most abundant lithium-bearing mineral and is a secondary source of Lithium.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
99. DIANA, occasionally highlighted in news reports, is an initiative of which organization?
a) European Space Agency (ESA)
b) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO)
c) North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
d) World Health Organization (WHO)
100. What does Joint Logistics Over-the-Shore (JLOTS) refer to?
a) A military strategy for air-to-sea combat operations.
b) A system of maritime navigation aids used in coastal regions.
c) A joint military exercise focused on logistics operations in remote areas.
d) A specialized technique for offshore drilling in the oil and gas industry.

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 March 2024 Current Affairs Key and Explanations
Q1 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Prime Minister of India and Mauritius jointly inaugurated an airstrip, jetty, and 6 other
projects to ensure maritime security and connectivity to Mauritius’ Agalega islands.
• The Agalega island of Mauritius is seen as important as they are expected to boost connectivity
as well as maritime security and surveillance of Mauritius’ vast EEZ of 2.3 million square
kilometres in the strategic Indian Ocean region. Pair 1 is correct.

• Recently, Tensions between Iran and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) have escalated as a joint
statement issued at the 6th Arab-Russian Cooperation Forum in Morocco challenged Iran’s claims
to three disputed islands in the Persian Gulf.
• The dispute involves three islands in the strategic Strait of Hormuz, namely the Greater
Tunb, Lesser Tunb, and Abu Musa. Pair 2 is incorrect.

• Thitu Island, also known as Pag-asa Island and Zhongye Dao, having an area of 37.2 hectares,
is the second largest of the naturally occurring island in Spratly Islands. It is located in South
China Sea. Pair 3 is incorrect.

• Corisca is an island in the Mediterranean Sea and one of the 18 regions of France. It is the
fourth-largest island in the Mediterranean and lies southeast of the French mainland, west of
the Italian Peninsula and immediately north of the Italian island of Sardinia, the nearest land mass.
Pair 4 is incorrect.

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Q2 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
Despite the recently held high meeting between India and Nepal, the consensus over sharing benefits
of the Pancheshwar project is not resolved.
About Pancheshwar Project
• PMP is a bi-national hydropower project to be developed in Mahakali River bordering Nepal
and India.
• Development of PMP, is a mutual interest project between two countries, and is covered under
integrated Mahakali Treaty signed between Nepal and India in 1996.
• The project is aimed at generating around 6,480 MW energy (to be divided equally between two
sides), along with water for irrigation of 130,000 hectares of land in Nepal and 240,000 hectares of
Indian territory, respectively.
Multipurpose project Located on
1. Pancheshwar project Mahakali River
2. Hidkal Project Ghatprabha River
3. Koldam Project Sutlej River
4. Idduki Project Periyar River

Q3 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, Prime Minister of India flagged off India’s first indigenously built hydrogen fuel cell ferry
boat in virtual.
The hydrogen cell-powered inland waterway vessel launched under the Harit Nauka initiative.
What is the Harit Nauka initiative?
• The Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways unveiled the Harit Nauka guidelines for
inland vessels in January 2024. Statement 1 is correct.
Guidelines:
• As per the guidelines, all states have to make efforts to use green fuels for 50% of inland
waterways-based passenger fleets in the next one decade, and 100% by 2045. Statement 2 is
correct.
• This is to reduce greenhouse gas emissions as per the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047.
• Globally, the shipping industry is increasingly transitioning to green fuels due to environmental
regulations, sustainability goals, and advancements in green fuel technologies.
• Hydrogen and its derivatives are gaining attention for promising zero-emission fuels for the
industry.
What are the Other Key Highlights About the Ferry?
• The vessel's flagging off was a key component of a major program that involved the foundation
stone laid for a ₹17,300-crore project, including the outer harbor at the V.O. Chidambaranar Port.
• The vessel has been built at the Cochin Shipyard.
The V.O. Chidambaranar Port is the first Green Hydrogen Hub Port of the country and the projects
include a desalination plant, hydrogen production and bunkering facility.

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Q4 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context:
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) has released the report titled Beyond an age
of waste: Global Waste Management Outlook 2024 (GWMO 2024).
Major Highlights of the Report
• Global Scenario: Every year across the globe more than two billion tonnes of municipal solid
waste (MSW) is generated.
• Waste Collection: More than a third of the world’s population is drowning in waste, with over 2.7
billion people in the Global South and developing regions of the world not having their waste
collected.
• An estimated 540 million tonnes of municipal solid waste, an equivalent of 27 percent of the global
total waste, is not being collected.
• Future Projection: It also predicted that waste generated was set to grow in volumes — from 2.3
billion tonnes in 2023 to 3.8 billion tonnes by 2050.
• Health Impact: The negative impacts of municipal solid waste on the climate, biodiversity and
human health will almost double by 2050.

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Q5 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued a warning against charging mobile phones using
public ports.
About the Juice Jacking
• It is a type of cyberattack where hackers tamper with public USB charging ports, infecting
them with malware or making hardware changes that allow them to steal data from devices
connected to them.
• Most attacks target both Android and iOS mobile devices, with older devices being particularly
vulnerable due to their outdated software.
The Threat:
• When users connect their devices to compromised USB ports, hackers use the connection to hack
into mobile devices and steal personal data like email, SMS, and saved passwords or deliver
malware by gaining access to the phones.

Q6 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context:
The fifth cycle of leopard population estimation was carried out by the National Tiger Conservation
Authority and Wildlife Institute of India. Statement 4 is correct.
About
• India’s leopard numbers rose by 8% from 12,852 in 2018 to 13,874 in 2022. Statement 1 is
incorrect.
• Madhya Pradesh houses the largest population of leopards in the country – 3907, followed by
Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. Statement 2 is correct.
• Tiger Reserves or sites with highest leopard population are, Nagarajunasagar Srisailam (Andhra
Pradesh), followed by Panna (MP), and Satpura (MP).
Habitat conservation
• The Shivalik hills and the Gangetic plains recorded 3.4% yearly decline in leopard
population. Statement 3 is incorrect.
• Central India and the Eastern Ghats, the Western Ghats and the hills of the northeast, and the
Brahmaputra flood plains recorded growth of 1.5%, 1% and 1.3% per annum respectively.

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Q7 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently Mars Express, a European space craft captured massive dunes colliding with several layers
of dusty ice covering the north pole of Mars.
• The North Pole of the Mars is covered in layers and layers of fine dust and water ice that are
several kilometres thick and stretch out for around 1000 kilometres. Statement I is incorrect.
• The North Pole of Mars is known as Planum Boreum formed as a mix of dust, water ice and
frost settled on the Martian ground over time. Statement II is correct.
• In Martian winter, the layers are topped by a thin cap of dry ice (carbon dioxide ice) a couple of
meters thick.
• This cap completely disappears into the atmosphere each Martian summer.
• Mars Express of European space agency (ESA) has been orbiting the Red Planet since 2003.
• It is imaging Mars’s surface, mapping its minerals, identifying the composition and circulation of
its tenuous atmosphere, probing beneath its crust.

Q8 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Wildlife Sanctuaries of Kerala
Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary
• It is located on the Western Ghats and it is contiguous with the Brahmagiri Wildlife
Sanctuary of Karnataka.
• Nagarhole National Park and Tiger Reserve lies to the east of Aralam Wildlife Sanctuary.
Chimmony Wildlife Sanctuary
• It is located along the Western Ghats and is contiguous with Peechi-Vazhani Wildlife
Sanctuary and Parambikulam Wildlife Sanctuary & Tiger Reserve.
• Nestled in the sanctuary is Chimmony Dam built across the Chimmony river.
Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary
• It is located in the Idukki district and is contiguous with Eravikulam National Park, Indira Gandhi
Wildlife Sanctuary (Anamalai Tiger Reserve & National Park) and Kodaikanal (Palani Hills).
• It forms an integral part of the protected forests straddling the Kerala-Tamil Nadu border in the
Anaimalai Hills.
• It is under consideration for selection as UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The Chinnar and Pambar rivers are the major perennial rivers in the Wildlife Sanctuary. The
Chinnar River becomes the Amaravati River in Tamil Nadu.
• The rare Albino gaur (Manjampatti white bison) are found only in Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary
and Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary.
Idukki Wildlife Sanctuary
• It is cradled by the Cheruthoni River (tributary of the Periyar River) and Periyar River.
• It is located to the northwest of Periyar Tiger Reserve and to the southwest of Mathikettan National
Park.
• Cardamom Hills lie between Mathikettan National Park and Idukki Wildlife Sanctuary.
• Periyar River originates near Periyar Tiger Reserve, flows from Mullaperiyar Dam to the Idukki
Reservoir, flows entirely through Kerala and joins the sea in the Kerala.
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Kottiyoor Wildlife Sanctuary
• It is situated in eastern hilly area of Kannur. It is adjacent to Aralam WLS and Nagarhole
National Park.
Kurinjimala Wildlife Sanctuary
• It protects the core habitat of the endangered Neelakurinji plant in Idukki district.
Neelakurinji is a shrub that is found in the shola forests of the Western Ghats.
• Nilgiri Hills (which literally means blue mountains) got their name from the purplish-blue flowers
of Neelakurinji that blossoms only once in 12 years.
• The Wildlife Sanctuary is contiguous to the Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary, Eravikulam National Park,
Anamudi National Park, Pampadum Shola National Park and the proposed Palani Hills NP.
Malabar Wildlife Sanctuary
• It is located along the Western Ghats. It is a part of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and Wayanad ER.
Mangalavanam Bird Wildlife Sanctuary
• It is situated at the Kochi city and supports many types of migratory birds and mangroves.
Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary
• It spread over the southeast corner of the Western Ghats.
• It is the drainage basin of Neyyar River and Neyyar Dam.
• It is a part of the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve.
Peechi-Vazhani Wildlife Sanctuary
• It is the second oldest Wildlife Sanctuary of Kerala.
• It consists of Palappilli-Nelliyampathi forests, including the area of Chimmony Wildlife Sanctuary.
Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary
• It is located in the Western Ghats and comes under the control of Agasthyamalai Biosphere Reserve.
Thattekad Bird Wildlife Sanctuary
• It is an evergreen low-land forest located between the branches of the Periyar River.
Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
• It an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It is bounded by Nagarhole National Park and
Bandipur National Park (Karnataka) and Mudumalai National Park.
• It is a major elephant and tiger corridor.

Others
• Chulannur Peafowl Wildlife Sanctuary: Located in the Pal Gap/ Palghat Gap/Palakkad Gap in
Palakkad district.
• Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary: Located to the north of Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary and west of
Agasthyamalai.

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Q9 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
The Exercise Samudra Laksamana kicked off on February 28 and will continue until March 2,
taking place at or off the coast of Visakhapatnam.
• It is a joint naval exercise between the Indian Navy and Royal Malaysian Navy.
• It is the 3rd edition of this exercise.
• Indian Naval Ship Kiltan and Royal Malaysian Ship KD Lekir are participating in this
exercise which has harbour professional interactions followed by the operational phase at sea.
• At harbour, crew of both ships will have various professional interactions, Subject Matter Expert
Exchange on topics of mutual interest, sports fixtures, and other interactions.
• These interactions are aimed to enhance knowledge base, share best practices and further
cooperation on maritime aspects.
• During sea phase, units would be jointly honing skills while conducting various operations at sea.
• The exercise aims to strengthen bonds and enhance interoperability between the Indian and Royal
Malaysian Navy.

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Q10 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
The Genome India Project recently announced that it had finished sequencing 10,000 Indian
genomes.
About Genome India Project:
• It is a pan-India initiative focused on the whole genome sequencing of representative populations
across India.
• DBT initiated the ambitious Genome India Project (GIP) on 3rd January 2020. It is led by
the Centre for Brain Research at the Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru, and involves
collaboration with 20 institutions.
• Goal: The goal is to start with and execute whole genome sequencing and subsequent data
analysis of 10,000 individuals representing the country’s diverse population. Statement 2 is
correct.
• This is a mission-mode, multi-institution consortium project, the first of its kind in India,
supported and funded by the Department of Biotechnology, Government of India. Statement
1 is correct.
The specific aims of the project are:
• Create an exhaustive catalog of genetic variations (common, low frequency, rare, single nucleotide
polymorphisms, or SNPs, and structural variations) in Indians.
• Create a reference haplotype structure for Indians. This reference panel can be used for imputing
missing genetic variation in future studies.
• Design genome-wide arrays for research and diagnostics at an affordable cost.
• Establish a biobank for DNA and plasma collected for future use in research.
What is Genome?
• A genome is the complete set of genetic information in an organism.
• In living organisms, the genome is stored in long molecules of DNA called chromosomes.
• In humans, the genome consists of 23 pairs of chromosomes located in the cell’s nucleus, as well
as a small chromosome in the cell’s mitochondria.
• A genome contains all the information needed for an individual to develop and function.

Q11 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
The National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) reported its highest-ever daily number of
transactions at 4.10 crore recently.
About National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT):
• NEFT is a nation-wide centralized payment system owned and operated by the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI). Statement 1 is correct.
• It is an electronic method of transferring money online.
• Most Indian banks provide the NEFT feature on internet banking and mobile banking.
• It enables transferring funds from the account maintained with any bank to any other bank branch,
provided the transaction is attempted between the banks that participate in the NEFT payment
system.

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 • Organizations, companies, and individuals can use it to transfer funds from one bank account to
another.
• As per Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines, the payments made via NEFT are processed and
settled in half-hourly batches.
• Minimum Transfer Value: Rs. 1
• Maximum transfer value: No limit. Statement 2 is correct.
NEFT offers the following advantages for funds transfer or receipt:
• Round-the-clock availability on all days of the year.
• Near-real-time funds transfer to the beneficiary account and settlement in a secure manner.
• Pan-India coverage through large network of branches of all types of banks.
• The beneficiary need not visit a bank branch for depositing the paper instruments. Remitter can
initiate the remittances from his / her home / place of work using internet banking, if his / her bank
offers such a service.
• Positive confirmation to the remitter by SMS / e-mail on credit to beneficiary account.
• Penal interest provision for delay in credit or return of transactions.
• No levy of charges by RBI from banks.
• No charges to savings bank account customers for online NEFT transactions.
• The transaction charges have been capped by the RBI.
• Besides fund transfers, NEFT system can be used for a variety of transactions, including the
payment of credit card dues to the card issuing banks, payment of loan EMIs, inward foreign
exchange remittances, etc.
• The transaction has legal backing.
• Available for one-way funds transfers from India to Nepal. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Q12 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Understanding the legal framework governing Rajya Sabha elections and the implications of cross-
voting is crucial in addressing these concerns and upholding democratic principles.
Rajya Sabha Elections and Cross-Voting
• Constitutional Provision: Article 80 of the Constitution mandates the indirect election of
Rajya Sabha representatives by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies.
Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Historical Context: Rajya Sabha elections were traditionally uncontested until 1998, when
cross-voting in Maharashtra marked a departure from this trend. Statement 4 is incorrect.
Legal Provisions and Precedents
• Open Ballot System: An amendment to the Representation of the People Act, 1951 in 2003
introduced open ballot voting for Rajya Sabha elections, aimed at curbing cross-voting.
Statement 2 is correct.
• Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law): Introduced in 1985, this Schedule disqualifies legislators
who voluntarily give up party membership or vote against party instructions. However, it does not
apply to Rajya Sabha elections. Statement 3 is correct.

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 • Court Rulings: The Supreme Court, in cases such as Kuldip Nayar versus Union of India
(2006), upheld the open ballot system while clarifying that voting against party candidates in Rajya
Sabha elections does not invoke disqualification under the Tenth Schedule.

Q13 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
The Union Cabinet approved the creation of International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA) to set up a global
network for the conservation of tigers and other big cats.
About
• The alliance was conceived as a multi-country, multi-agency coalition of 96 big cat range
countries and others to establish a common platform for conservation.
• Objective: Focus of the Alliance is to conserve seven big cats of the world which includes Tiger,
Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard, Puma, Jaguar and Cheetah.
• In India out of the seven big cats only five — tiger, lion, leopard, snow leopard and cheetah
— are found.
• The government also approved a one-time budgetary support of ₹150 crore for a period of
five years from 2023-24 to 2027-28.
• Governance: IBCA governance consists of an Assembly of Members, Standing Committee and a
Secretariat with its Head Quarter in India.
Seven Big Cats
Lion (Panthera Leo)
• IUCN Status: Vulnerable
• Range: It is mainly found in sub-Saharan Africa. Asiatic lions are found in the Gir National Park.
Tiger (Panthera Tigris)
• IUCN Status: Endangered
• Range: Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia, China, India, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Nepal,
Russia, Thailand and Vietnam.
Snow leopard (Panthera Uncia)
• IUCN Status: Vulnerable. Pair 3 is correct.
• Range: Mountainous regions of 12 countries – Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, India, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyz Republic, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
Jaguar (Panthera Onca)
• IUCN Status: Near Threatened. Pair 2 is correct.
• Range: Most of their population exist in the Amazon rainforest and Pantanal in South America.
Brazil accounts for half of the wild jaguars in the world.
Cheetah (Acinonyx Jubatus)
• IUCN Status: Vulnerable. Pair 4 is incorrect.
• Range: Initially, they were found in Africa, Russia, South Asia, Iran and the Middle East. Currently,
the majority live in east and southern Africa apart from a small population in Iran.

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Puma (Puma Concolor)
• IUCN Status: Least Concern (LC). Pair 1 is correct.
• Range: Also known as a mountain lion, the puma is found in North, Central and South America.
Leopard (Panthera Pardus)
• IUCN Status: Vulnerable
• Range: Africa, parts of the Middle East, and Asia.

Q14 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Anamudi Shola National Park
• It is located along the Western Ghats. Anamudi (2695 m), the highest peak in peninsular
India, is located in this park and Eravikulam National Park. Pair 1 is correct.
• It is surrounded by Mathikettan Shola National Park, Eravikulam National Park, Pambadum Shola
National Park, Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary, and the Kurinjimala Wildlife Sanctuary. (All are part
of Munnar Wildlife Division).
• Vegetation: tropical evergreen forests, wet montane forests, moist deciduous forests and shola
forests.
• Major Fauna: Lion-tailed macaques, Nilgiri tahr (EN), Nilgiri marten (VU), gaur, muntjac, giant
grizzled squirrel (NT), flying squirrels, Nilgiri langur (VU).
• Threats: Tourism-related construction, invasive species, severe deforestation for plantation crops
like rubber, tea.
Eravikulam National Park
• It is located along the Western Ghats.
• Vegetation: High altitude grasslands and sholas.
• Major Fauna: Similar to Anamudi Shola National Park.
• Major Avifauna: Black-and-orange flycatcher
Mathikettan Shola NP
• It is located along the Western Ghats.
• Vegetation: Similar to Anamudi Shola National Park.
• Fauna: Similar to Anamudi Shola National Park.
Pambadum Shola National Park
• It is a part of Palani hills of Kerala and Tami Nadu. Pair 2 is incorrect.
• Similar to Anamudi Shola National Park.
Parambikulam Tiger Reserve
• It is located in the Sungam range of hills between Anaimalai Hills (TN) and Nelliampathy Hills
(Kerala).
• Vegetation: Evergreen, moist deciduous, and sholas.
• Major Fauna: Lion-tailed macaques, Nilgiri tahr, Nilgiri langurs, Nilgiri marten, small Travancore
flying squirrel.

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Periyar National Park, Tiger Reserve, ER
• It forms the major watershed of two important rivers of Kerala, the Periyar and the Pamba.
It is located in the Cardamom Hills of the Western Ghats. Pair 3 is incorrect.
• It surrounds the Periyar Lake which became a reservoir in 1895 after the Mullaperiyar Dam was
erected. The dam is built at the confluence of Mullayar and Periyar rivers in Kerala but is operated
and maintained by Tamil Nadu.
• Vegetation: tropical evergreen, semi-evergreen and moist deciduous forests, montane grasslands,
montane savannas, wetlands, and lake and river ecosystems.
• Major Flora: Teak, rosewoods, sandalwoods, eucalyptus.
• Major Fauna: Travancore flying squirrel, Nilgiri tahr, lion-tailed macaque, Salim Ali’s fruit bat,
Nilgiri marten.
• Major Avifauna: Malabar grey hornbill (endemic), Nilgiri wood pigeon, Nilgiri flycatcher.
Silent Valley National Park
• Silent Valley National Park is located in the Nilgiri Hills in the Malappuram district, Kerala,
and Nilgiris district of Tamil Nadu. The park lies within the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. Pair
4 is incorrect.
• Bhavani River (a tributary of the Kaveri River) and Kunthipuzha River (a tributary of the
Bharathappuzha River) originate in the vicinity of the park. The Kadalundi River also originates in
this park.
• Vegetation: Rainforests, tropical moist evergreen forest and shola forests.
• Major Fauna: It is home to the largest population of lion-tailed macaques (EN). Other major fauna:
Malabar giant squirrel, Nilgiri tahr, Travancore flying squirrel.
• Major Avifauna: Nilgiri wood-pigeon, Malabar grey hornbill, Nilgiri flycatcher.
• Threats: Livestock grazing and forest fires, illegal plantations of cannabis.

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Q15 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Context:
More funding is needed to support Small Island Developing States (SIDS) on the frontlines of climate
change, the UN Secretary-General said recently.
About Small Island Developing States (SIDS)
• SIDS are a distinct group of 39 States and 18 Associate Members of United Nations regional
commissions that face unique social, economic, and environmental vulnerabilities.
• The three geographical regions in which SIDS are located are: the Caribbean, the Pacific, and the
Atlantic, Indian Ocean and South China Sea (AIS).
• SIDS were recognized as a special case both for their environment and development at the 1992
United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
• They are highly vulnerable developing countries as they suffer from low economic diversification,
often characterised by high dependence on tourism and remittances, volatility due to fluctuations
in private income flows and the prices of raw materials, and debt stress situations.
• For SIDS, the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)—the ocean under their control—is, on average, 28
times the country’s land mass.
• Thus, for many SIDS, the majority of the natural resources they have access to come from the
ocean.
UN Programmes of Action in Support of SIDS:
• Barbados Programme of Action: In 1994, the Barbados Programme of Action (BPoA) prescribed
specific actions that would enable SIDS to achieve sustainable development. The Conference also
adopted the Barbados Declaration, a statement of political will underpinning the commitments
contained in the BPoA.
• Mauritius Strategy: In 2005, the Mauritius Strategy for further implementation of the BPoA was
adopted to address remaining gaps in implementation.
• SAMOA Pathway (2014): The SAMOA Pathway recognizes the adverse impacts of climate
change and sea-level rise on SIDS’ efforts to achieve economic development, food security, disaster
risk reduction, and ocean management, among other challenges.

Q16 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
The registration of newspapers and other periodicals will be governed by the provisions of the Press
and Registration of Periodicals Act, 2023, and its Rules, which came into effect recently.

About Press and Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023:

• It has replaced the colonial era Press and Registration of Books Act dating back to 1867.
Statement 1 is correct.
• The office of Press Registrar General of India – PRGI (erstwhile Registrar of Newspapers for
India – RNI) shall be carrying out the purposes of the new Act. Statement 2 is correct.
• It provides for an online system for facilitating the registration of newspapers and other periodicals
in the country.
• The new system replaces the existing manual, cumbersome processes involving multiple steps and
approvals at various stages, which were causing unnecessary hardships to the publishers.

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 • The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting had launched the Press Sewa Portal
((presssewa.prgi.gov.in), the online portal of the Press Registrar General, for receiving
various applications as mandated by the new Act.
• All applications, including the intimation by the printer of a periodical, application for registration
of a facsimile edition of a foreign periodical, the application by a publisher for obtaining a
certificate of registration of a periodical, application for revision of certificate of registration,
application for transfer of ownership of periodicals, furnishing annual statement by the publisher
of a periodical, and procedure for desk audit for verification of circulation of a periodical will be
online through the Press Sewa Portal.
• Accordingly, publishers intending to bring out periodicals need to register their titles before
publishing them.
• Notably, the PRP Act exempts books and journals from the purview of registration
necessitated by the old PRB Act, focusing solely on periodicals, which are defined as publications,
including newspapers, published and printed at regular intervals containing public news or
commentary, but excluding scientific, technical, and academic books or journals. Statement 3 is
correct.

Q17 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
About Nainativu Island
• It is located in the Palk Strait, the stretch of sea that separates Sri Lanka from southern India.
Pair 1 is correct.
• It’s close to the famous island of Delft (also known as Neduntheevu).
• This tiny island is fairly close to the northern Sri Lankan city of Jaffna.
• It is an important pilgrimage place for both Hindus and Buddhists.
• Historical significance: Historians note the island is mentioned in the ancient Tamil Sangam
literature where it was mentioned as Manipallavam
• Nagapooshani Amman Kovil, a historic Hindu temple dedicated to the principal goddess of Tamil
Hindus, Amman is located in this Island.
The Union Cabinet recently approved three chip-related projects, including India’s first
semiconductor fabrication plant.
• India Approves Tata Group’s Ambitious Semiconductor Projects in Gujarat and Assam – The three
projects are:
Semiconductor Plant in Dholera, Gujarat: Pair 2 is incorrect.
• The semiconductor plant is a collaboration between Tata Group and Taiwanese foundry Powerchip
Semiconductor Manufacturing Corp (PSMC).
• It will provide access to leading-edge and mature nodes including 28 nanometer, 40 nm, 55 nm, 90
nm and 110 nm.
• Capacity of 50,000 wafers per month.
Chip Assembly plant in Morigaon, Assam: Pair 3 is incorrect.
• The Tata Group will also set up a chip assembly plant with a capacity to manufacture 48 million
chips per day, and will primarily cater to export needs.

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Chip Packaging Facility in Sanand, Gujarat:
• A chip packaging facility in Gujarat’s Sanand was also approved by the Cabinet.
About Nhava Sheva Port:
• The Port of Nhava Sheva lies to the east of the Port of Mumbai, about six nautical miles away
across Thane Creek on the Arabian Sea. Pair 4 is correct.
• It is also commonly known as the Jawaharlal Nehru Port, as it is run by the Jawaharlal Nehru Port
Trust.
• It is known to be the busiest port in India and deals with almost half of the country’s imports and
exports.

Q18 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
Tripura’s traditional tribal attire ‘risa’ gets Geographical Indication tag.
Risa Textile
• Geography – Tripura
• It is common in almost all 19 indigenous tribal communities of Tripura.
• However, each community has its own design.
Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi - Jewellery
• It is a silver filigree, a form of metalwork in jewellery.
• Geography – Odisha.
• Qualities – Fine craftsmanship and luxurious design.
• Origin – As early as 3500 BCE in Mesopotamia, it was incorporated and even today it is done as
Telkari work.
• In India – It might have reached Cuttack from Persia through Indonesia some 500 years ago by sea
trade, also evidences show the exchange of jewellery and gems between Kalinga and Indonesia.
Narasapur crochet lace products
• Geography – Narsapur in Andhra Pradesh.
• Qualities – Intricate craftsmanship, unique designs and good quality crochet craft.
• In India – It was brought by missionaries to Narsapur.
Majuli mask
• Geography – Assam
• They are made in different variety and sizes as they are mainly divided into different categories
• Mukha bhaona face mask – It covers the face.
• Lotokoi hanging mask – It is bigger in size extends to the chest.
• Cho Mukha huge mask – It is a head and body mask.

Q19 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
The Indian Air Force’s Advanced Landing Ground (ALG) in Nyoma, close to the Line of Actual
Control (LAC) in eastern Ladakh, has now been black-topped, while work is ongoing to extend the
runway so that it can eventually handle fighter jets.
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 • Nyoma is located at an altitude of about 13,700 feet and close to the south Bank of Pangong
Tso.
• It is very close to the LAC in eastern Ladakh.
• Nyoma is home to an Advanced Landing Ground (ALG) of Indian Air Force that was built in 1962
but remained unutilized.
• It was reactivated in 2009 when an An-32 landed in this airfield. Now the airbase at Nyoma of the
Indian Military is fully operational.

Q20 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Observations by the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) show that a protoplanetary disk around
a young star in the Orion Nebula is losing massive amounts of hydrogen each year.
About Protoplanetary Disk
• A protoplanetary disk is a disk of gas (99% by mass) and dust (1%), orbiting a newly formed
star, from which planets may eventually form or be in the process of forming.
• Disks are common by-products of star formation, and range in mass from 0.001 to 0.3 Solar masses
(1027–1029 kg) and in size from several tens to almost 1,000 Astronomical Units (1012–1014 m).
How are they formed?
• Stars form from cold interstellar molecular clouds. A molecular cloud is an interstellar cloud
of gas and dust in which molecules can form, the most common of which is hydrogen (H2).
• As they collapse into protostars under the force of gravity, the remaining matter forms a spinning
disk.
• Eventually, the star stops accreting matter, leaving the disk in orbit around it.
• The leftover gas and dust inside that protoplanetary disk become the ingredients for planet
formation.
• Organic molecules present in the original molecular cloud become part of the protoplanetary disk
and the planets that form from it.
The chemical composition of the protoplanetary disk determines the composition of the eventual planets
that form from it.
Protoplanetary disks typically disperse after 2–3 million years through the coalescence of their matter into
planets and photoevaporation by the stellar radiation.

Q21 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
OPEC+ members led by Saudi Arabia and Russia recently agreed to extend voluntary oil output
cuts first announced in 2023 as part of an agreement among oil producers to boost prices following
economic uncertainty.
About OPEC+:
• It is a group of oil-exporting countries which meets regularly to decide how much crude oil to sell
on the world market.
• Origin: These nations came to an accord towards the end of 2016 “to institutionalize a framework
for cooperation between OPEC and non-OPEC producing countries on a regular and sustainable
basis.”
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 • These nations aim to work together on adjusting crude oil production to bring stability to the oil
market.
• OPEC+ controls about 40% of global oil supplies and more than 80% of proven oil reserves.
• At the core of this group are the members of OPEC (the Organization of the Oil Exporting
Countries), which are mainly Middle Eastern and African countries.
• Members: It comprises OPEC countries plus Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan,
Russia, Mexico, Malaysia, South Sudan, Sudan and Oman.
What is the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)?
• It is a permanent intergovernmental organization of oil-exporting countries.
Mission:
• To coordinate and unify the petroleum policies of its member countries.
• Ensure the stabilization of oil prices in the international oil markets, with a view to eliminating
harmful and unnecessary fluctuations.
• Formation: It was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, with the signing of an agreement in September 1960
by five countries, namely the Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela.
• Currently, it has 12 members, including Algeria, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Libya,
Nigeria and the United Arab Emirates.
• Headquarters: Vienna, Austria.

Q22 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Supreme Court has prohibited Patanjali Ayurved from disseminating advertisements
that claim to treat medical conditions such as BP, diabetes, fevers, epilepsy, and lupus, as outlined in
the Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable Advertisements) Act of 1954.
• It is a legislative framework to control the advertisement of drugs and prohibit claims of
magical qualities in remedies. Statement 1 is correct.
• It encompasses various forms of advertisements, including written, oral, and visual mediums.
• Under the Act, the term “drug” refers to medicines intended for human or animal use, substances
for diagnosis or treatment of diseases, and articles affecting the body’s functions.
• Other than articles meant for consumption, the definition for “magic remedy” under this Act
also extends to talismans, mantras, and charms that allegedly possess miraculous powers for
healing or influencing bodily functions. Statement 3 is incorrect.
• It imposes strict regulations on the publication of advertisements related to drugs.
• It prohibits advertisements that give false impressions, make false claims, or are otherwise
misleading.
• Violations of these provisions can result in penalties, including imprisonment or fines, upon
conviction.
• The term “advertisement,” under the Act, extends to all notices, labels, wrappers, and oral
announcements. Statement 2 is correct.
Who comes under the Magic Remedies Act?
• The Act applies to all individuals and entities involved in the publication of advertisements,
including manufacturers, distributors, and advertisers. Statement 4 is correct.

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 • The Act can hold both individuals and companies accountable for contraventions.
• If a company violates the act, individuals in charge of its business operations may also be deemed
guilty unless they can prove lack of knowledge or demonstrate due diligence in preventing the
offense.
• Directors, managers, or officers of the company may also be held liable if they consented to or
neglected the offense.
Punishment
• Violating the Act can result in imprisonment, fines, or both.
• If this is the first conviction for the violator, they may face up to six months in prison, fines or both.
• For subsequent conviction, imprisonment may extend to one year, fine, or both.
• The Act does not include any limits for the fines that may be imposed on individuals or
organisations.

Q23 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
Scientists have identified the genetic mechanism behind the tailless evolution in humans and apes
about 25 million years ago.
What caused the evolution?
• Gene TBXT: The gene TBXT is involved with tail length in certain animals. The gene was missing
in humans, not because of mutation, but by another genetic code “snippet” known as AluY.
• Snippet AluY: It was randomly inserted into early humans and non-tailed apes during prehistoric
times. The new gene was shown to affect tail lengths.
• AluY snippets are also called “jumping genes” or “mobile elements” because they can move around
and insert themselves repeatedly and randomly in human code.
• TBXT + AluY Snippet: When paired with TBXT, it formed two types of ribonucleic acid – critical
to cellular structure – that produced tail loss in people and apes.
Functions served by Tail
• For many vertebrates, a tail has helped with functions like locomotion.
• They help creatures of all kinds maintain balance as they move across different environments.
• Tails also act as a communication tool, allowing animals to send signals to each other during
social interactions.
• In some species, tails are even essential for regulating body temperature or defending
themselves against threats.
Present Hominoids
• They include humans, the great apes – chimpanzees, bonobos, gorillas, orangutans – and the lesser
apes – gibbons.
• The earliest-known hominoid, called Proconsul, was tailless.
• Traces of a tail remain in humans: A bone at the base of the spinal column called the coccyx, or
tailbone, is formed from fused remnants of tail vertebrae.

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Benefits of a Tailless Existence
• Freed from the constraints of a tail, humans developed enhanced balance and mobility, crucial for
bipedalism.
• This adaptation facilitated a more upright posture, allowing for the use of hands in tool-making,
foraging, and social communication.
• The evolutionary success of humans and apes without tails underscores the advantages of this trait
in navigating the terrestrial and arboreal environments they inhabited.
• Significance: The loss of the tail is not just a matter of physical appearance but signifies a deeper
evolutionary strategy, adapting to new environments and ways of moving.
• This research sheds light on how evolution affects both our body features and risk of certain health
problems.
• This new way of thinking opens doors for further research into the genes and evolutionary history
of diseases.

Q24 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, Apple announced PQ3, a post-quantum cryptographic protocol, to encrypt conversations
in iMessage.
The company called it the first messaging protocol to reach Level 3 security. They assert it can
withstand even highly sophisticated quantum attacks.
What is PQ3 Protocol?
At the moment, communication security is measured by three security levels.
• Level 0: In this level, the messages remain unencrypted.
• Level 1: Here messages are end-to-end encrypted but there’s no additional identity authentication or
quantum security.
• Level 2: This includes identity authentication and quantum security but they are limited to the initial
key establishment. This means quantum security is offered only if the conversation key material is
never compromised.
• Level 3: PQ3 is the first messaging protocol that qualifies for what Apple calls Level 3 security.
o This uses post-quantum cryptography to secure both the initial key establishment and the ongoing
message exchange.
o In addition, the Level 3 PQC can automatically restore the security of a conversation even when
the key is compromised.
o Therefore, PQ3 is claimed to surpass protocols in all other widely deployed messaging apps.
How Does PQ3 Protocol Work?
• Apple’s PQ3 protocol uses a hybrid design combining the traditional encryption methods
with post-quantum encryption both during the initial key establishment between devices and
during rekeying.
• Each device generates public keys locally and then transmits them to Apple servers as part of the
iMessage registration process.
• For this, Apple uses the Module Lattice-based Key Encapsulation Mechanism standard or
ML-KEM.
• It enables the sender devices to get a receiver’s public keys and generate post-quantum encryption
keys for the very first message. This works even if the receiver is offline.
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 • Then Apple includes a periodic post-quantum rekeying mechanism within the conversation. This
mechanism can self-heal from key compromise and safeguard future messages.
• In PQ3, the new keys sent along with the conversation are used to create fresh message encryption
keys that can’t be computed from past ones. Thereby bringing the conversation back to a secure
state even if previous keys were extracted or compromised by an adversary.
Q25 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
The government has abandoned the proposal to establish a Non-lapsable Defense Modernization
Fund, citing drawbacks related to its impact on parliamentary scrutiny and accountability.
About non-lapsable defence modernisation fund:
• Background– The 15th Finance Commission has proposed the establishment of a dedicated
non-lapsable Modernisation Fund for Defence and Internal Security (MFDIS). The idea
behind is to address the disparity between projected budget needs and the allocation for defense
and internal security. Statement 1 is correct.
• In 2021, the government placed an action-taken report in Parliament alongside the Commission’s
report. The government mentioned that it has “in-principle” agreed to create such a fund in the
Public Account of India.
What is the need for Non-Lapsable Funds?
• In India, the defense budget is assigned annually. At the close of each fiscal year, any remaining
funds are reverted to the government’s consolidated fund.
• Consequently, the defense services miss the chance to utilize these allocated funds for
unforeseen needs or future requirements. Establishing a Non-Lapsable Defense
Modernization Fund (DMF) offers a solution to this challenge.
• Once operational, the DMF would allow the three services to keep any unspent budget
allocation beyond the fiscal year’s end.
Why did the government abandon this proposal?
• Traditionally, only funds raised through cesses for specific purposes are non-lapsable.
• Apart from items funded through a cess, deferring today’s allocations with the intention of
using them later contradicts the fundamental principles of parliamentary financial
accountability. Statement 2 is correct.
• The government says it is working on a separate plan to explore a special arrangement for
establishing a “Non-lapsable Defence Modernisation Fund.”

Q26 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
India's rank improved to 113 out of 190 countries in the World Bank’s Women, Business and Law
index.
About Women, Business and Law Index:
• It is a World Bank index measuring the enabling environment for women’s economic
opportunity in 190 economies.
• The index measures how laws and regulations affect women’s economic opportunity on a
scale from 0 to 100, where 100 means equal legal rights for men and women.

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 • The report covers eight related areas: Mobility, workplace, pay, marriage, parenthood,
entrepreneurship, assets, and pension.
• The data offer objective and measurable benchmarks for evaluating global progress toward legal
gender equality.
• It demonstrates the progress made while emphasising the work still to be done to ensure economic
empowerment for all.
Highlights of 2024 Index:
• It is the 10th edition of the report.
• Globally, none of the countries has a full score in the new index, indicating that women did not
enjoy equal rights in any of the countries.
• India's ranking improved to 113 out of 190 countries.
• Indian women enjoyed 60% of the legal rights given to men as per the new report, lower than
the global average of 64.2%.
Q27 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) shared captivating pictures
of clouds on a social media platform, showcasing the breathtaking view of Cavum clouds as seen
from space.
• These clouds are also known as “hole-punch clouds or fall streak holes.”
How are Cavum clouds formed?
• These are formed when aeroplanes pass through layers of altocumulus clouds, which are mid-
level clouds containing supercooled water droplets (water below freezing temperature but
still in liquid form). Statement I is incorrect.
• As the aircraft moves through, a process known as adiabatic expansion can cause the water
droplets to freeze into ice crystals.
• These ice crystals eventually become too heavy and fall out of the cloud layer, creating a hole
in the clouds. Statement II is correct.
• These "mysterious clouds" has been ongoing for over 13 years.
• They are formed when planes pass through at a relatively steep angle.
Q28 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Udyam Assist Platform (UAP)
• Udyam Assist Platform was launched by the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises. Statement 1 is correct.
• The platform aims to facilitate registration of Informal Micro Enterprises (IMEs) through
generation of Udyam Assist Certificate. Statement 2 is correct.
• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) is the implementing agency for the
project. Statement 3 is correct.
• Informal Micro Enterprises (IMEs) not having GSTN are allowed to register on Udyam Assist
Platform. Statement 4 is correct.
• The certificate issued on the UAP to IMEs shall be treated at par with Udyam Registration
Certificate for the purpose of availing Priority Sector Lending (PSL) benefits.

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 • The IMEs with an Udyam Assist Certificate shall be treated as Micro Enterprises under MSME for
the purposes of PSL classification.
Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) – Was set up on 2nd April 1990 under an Act
of Indian Parliament.
• It acts as the Principal Financial Institution for Promotion, Financing and Development of the
MSME sector as well as for co-ordination of functions of institutions engaged in similar activities.
• The shares of SIDBI are held by the Government of India and 22 other institutions / public sector
banks / insurance companies owned or controlled by the Central Government.

Q29 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Naval Base Located in
1. INS Kadamba Karnataka
2. INS Hansa Goa
3. INS Shikra Maharashtra
4. INS Dega Andhra Pradesh

Context:
PROJECT SEABIRD
• The Project Seabird is a naval infrastructure project that involves a naval base in Karwar,
Karnataka.
• INS Kadamba or Naval Base Karwar or Project Seabird is an Indian Navy base located near
Karwar in Karnataka.
• The project was originally conceived by Admiral OS Dawson, the Chief of Naval Staff in the early
1980s.
• The 1st phase of this project was commissioned in 2005 and the 2nd phase is yet to be completed.
• Once completed, it will be the largest naval base in the Asia.

Q30 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently the French lawmakers approved a bill to enshrine abortion rights in France's constitution,
making it the only country to explicitly guarantee a woman’s right to voluntarily terminate a
pregnancy.
• Abortion is a deliberate termination of pregnancy, resulting in the removal or expulsion of
the foetus or embryo from the uterus, before it is able to survive outside the uterus or can
develop to full term.
• Miscarriage is the natural or unintentional loss of a pregnancy before the foetus is able to survive
due to various factors such as hormonal imbalances, foetal development problems, genetic
abnormalities, or maternal health issues.
• The primary difference between abortion and miscarriage lies in the intent and causation.
• France is the first and only country to explicitly guarantee abortion as a constitutional right.
• India – Under the Indian Penal Code, voluntarily causing a miscarriage is a punishable
offence and is mentioned in Section 312 of the IPC.
• The rights of the foetus are governed under Section 20 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.
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 • The Indian Constitution does not explicitly mention the right to abortion but certain
fundamental rights have been interpreted by the judiciary in connection with reproductive
rights and women’s healthcare.
• Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty includes the
reproductive rights and women’s healthcare.
• Article 14 of the Constitution of India also highlights certain provisions regarding abortion. Article
14 guarantees the right to equality and prohibits discrimination.

Q31 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently the Ministry of Defence launched the ADITI Scheme to promote innovations in critical and
strategic defence technologies.
• ADITI – Acing Development of Innovative Technologies with iDEX.
• The ADITI Scheme aims to develop about 30 deep-tech critical and strategic technologies in
the proposed timeframe. Statement 3 is correct.
• It also envisages to create a ‘Technology Watch Tool’ to bridge the gap between the expectations
and requirements of the modern Armed Forces and the capabilities of the defence innovation
ecosystem.
• In the first edition of ADITI, 17 challenges – Indian Army (3), Indian Navy (5), Indian Air Force
(5) and Defence Space Agency (4) have been launched.
• It falls under the iDEX (Innovations for Defence Excellence) framework of Department of
Defence Production (DDP), Ministry of Defence. Statement 2 is correct.
• Under the scheme, start-ups are eligible to receive grant-in-aid of up to Rs 25 crore for their
research, development, and innovation endeavours in defence technology. Statement 1 is
correct.
• The scheme will nurture the innovation of youth, and help the country leap forward in the field of
technology.
• It was launched during the DefConnect 2024.

Q32 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently the Supreme Court ruled that the law enforcement agencies can initiate prosecution against
legislators in bribery cases under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 (Act).
• Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two
Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members.
• The Constitution has also extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled
to speak and take part in the proceedings of a House of Parliament or any of its committees.
• This includes the attorney general of India and Union ministers.
• The parliamentary privileges do not extend to the president who is also an integral part of the
Parliament.
• Both the court and Parliament can exercise jurisdiction to address bribery by lawmakers
(Members of Parliament and Members of State Legislative Assembly).

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 • Originally, the Article 105 expressed mentioned two privileges, that is, freedom of speech in
Parliament and right of publication of its proceedings.
• Overturned 1998 precedent – The court overruled a 25-year-old ruling (P.V. Narasimha Rao
Vs State) that granted immunity to legislators from prosecution for bribery related to votes
or speeches.
• Bribery and Parliamentary Privileges – The recent Supreme Court judgement clarified that
accepting bribes to influence votes or speeches is not protected under the Article 105 and
Article 194. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Legislative privileges apply to Rajya Sabha elections – The recent verdict have clarified that
immunity applies to Rajya Sabha elections too. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Dual Jurisdiction – The court have clarified that both courts and Parliament have separate
jurisdictions to address bribery by lawmakers.
• The House punishes for contempt, while courts handle criminal prosecution.
• “Necessity Test” for Privilege – For a privilege to be valid, it must be essential for a legislator to
perform their duties.
• Accepting bribes clearly fails this test.
• Equality and Corruption – Granting immunity to legislators for bribery would violate the
right to equality, creating an unfair advantage for public servants.

Q33 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Researchers recently identified the RAD51 protein as a key player in preventing DNA re-replication.
About RAD51:
• RAD51 recombinase (RAD51) is a gene that encodes a protein that functions in homologous
recombination and DNA repair.
• RAD51 has the function of finding and invading homologous DNA sequences to enable
accurate and timely DNA repair.
• Breaks in DNA can be caused by natural and medical radiation or other environmental exposures
and also occur when chromosomes exchange genetic material in preparation for cell division.
• The RAD51 protein binds to the DNA at the site of a break and encases it in a protein sheath,
which is an essential first step in the repair process.
• In the nucleus of many types of normal cells, the RAD51 protein interacts with many other
proteins, including BRCA1 and BRCA2, to fix damaged DNA.
• The BRCA2 protein regulates the activity of the RAD51 protein by transporting it to sites of DNA
damage in the nucleus.
• The interaction between the BRCA1 protein and the RAD51 protein is less clear, although research
suggests that BRCA1 may also activate RAD51 in response to DNA damage.
• By helping repair DNA, these three proteins play a role in maintaining the stability of a cell's genetic
information.

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Q34 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context:
The waters of the Red Sea, are at an ‘environmental risk’ after Belize-flagged, UK-owned bulk
carrier Rubymar sank in the southern part of the Sea.
• The Red Sea itself was once referred to as the Erythraean Sea by Europeans.
• The Red Sea stretches from the Egyptian, Israeli (Port of Eliat) and Jordanian (Port of
Aqaba) coasts in the north to the Yemeni, Djiboutian, Eritrean and Somali coasts in the south.
• It connects with the Mediterranean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean through the human-made
Suez Canal and to the Gulf of Aden, Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean through the Strait of Bab
el Mandeb (‘Gate of Tears’ in Arabic).
Red Sea and Gulf of Aden (RSGA) ecosystems:
• The Red Sea and Gulf of Aden (RSGA) ecosystems supports a rich biological diversity with a
distinct high proportion of endemic species, according the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP).
• The RSGA ecosystems is home to the Socotra Archipelago, Dungonab Bay and Senganeeb
Atoll, which are UNESCO Natural Heritage Sites.
• Farsan and Dahlak Archipelagos in the southern Red Sea (where the Rubymar has sunk) and
coral reefs in the northern and central parts of the Red Sea are also distinctive features of the
region.
• Red Sea is among the top areas of high fish endemism in the world.
• Endemism is a term used in biology to talk about the distribution of a taxon limited to a small
geographic area and which can therefore be found naturally in this place.
Fraser Island, officially K'gari is a World Heritage-listed sand island along the south-eastern coast
in the Wide Bay–Burnett region, Queensland, Australia.
Macquarie Island is an island in the southwestern Pacific Ocean, about halfway between New
Zealand and Antarctica. Regionally part of Oceania and politically a part of Tasmania, Australia, since
1900, it became a Tasmanian State Reserve in 1978 and was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage
Site in 1997.

Q35 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
The Prime Minister of India witnessed the start of the process of core-loading the indigenous
prototype fast breeder reactor (PFBR) at Kalpakkam.
• Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor is a machine that produces more nuclear fuel than it
consumes.
• The Fast Breeder Reactor (FBR) will initially use the Uranium-Plutonium Mixed Oxide
(MOX) fuel. Statement I is correct.
• The Uranium-238 “blanket” surrounding the fuel core will undergo nuclear transmutation to
produce more fuel, thus earning the name ‘Breeder’.
• The use of Throium-232, which in itself is not a fissile material, as a blanket is also envisaged in
this stage.
• By transmutation, Thorium will create fissile Uranium-233 which will be used as fuel in the third
stage.

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 • Coolant: It uses liquid sodium, a highly reactive substance, as coolant in two circuits. Coolant in
the first circuit enters the reactor and leaves with (heat) energy and radioactivity. Via heat-
exchangers, it transfers only the heat to the coolant in a secondary circuit. The latter transfers the
heat to generators to produce electricity.
• It has been fully designed and constructed indigenously by Bhartiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam
Ltd (BHAVINI) with significant contribution from more than 200 Indian industries including
MSMEs.
• In terms of safety, the PFBR is an advanced third generation reactor with inherent passive safety
features ensuring a prompt and safe shut down of the plant in the event of an emergency.
Significance:
• Since it uses the spent fuel from the first stage, FBR also offers great advantage in terms of
significant reduction in nuclear waste generated, thereby avoiding the need for large
geological disposal facilities.
• Once commissioned, India will only be the second country after Russia to have commercial
operating Fast Breeder Reactor. Statement II is incorrect.
• FBR is thus a stepping stone for the third stage of the program paving the way for the eventual full
utilization of India’s abundant thorium reserves.

Q36 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the MethaneSAT satellite was launched aboard a SpaceX Falcon9 rocket from California.
• It will track and measure methane emissions at a global scale. Statement 1 is correct.
• It will provide more details and have a much wider field of view than any of its predecessors.
• The entity behind MethaneSAT is the Environmental Defense Fund (EDF) — a US-based
nonprofit environmental advocacy group. Statement 3 is incorrect.
• It is developed in collaboration with Harvard University, the Smithsonian Astrophysical
Observatory, and the New Zealand Space Agency. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• It will orbit the Earth 15 times a day, monitoring the oil and gas sector.
• It will create a large amount of data, which will tell “how much methane is coming from where,
who’s responsible, and are those emissions going up or down over time”,
• The data collected by this will be made public for free in near real-time. This will allow
stakeholders and regulators to take action to reduce methane emissions. Statement 4 is
correct.
Features
• It is equipped with a high-resolution infrared sensor and a spectrometer.
• It can track differences in methane concentrations as small as three parts per billion in the
atmosphere, which enables it to pick up smaller emissions sources than the previous satellites.
• It also has a wide-camera view — of about 200 km by 200 km — allowing it to identify larger
emitters so-called “super emitters”.
The collected data will be analysed using cloud-computing and AI technology developed by Google
— the company is a mission partner — and the data will be made public through Google’s Earth
Engine platform.

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Q37 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently the 7th summit of the Gas Exporting Countries Forum was held at the historic city of
Algiers, Algeria.
• Gas Exporting Countries Forum (GECF) is an intergovernmental organisation that provides
a framework for exchanging experience and information among its member countries.
• It seeks to build a mechanism for a meaningful dialogue between gas producers and consumers in
order to improve the stability and security of supply and demand in gas markets around the world.
• Significance – Together, they represent 69% of the world’s gas reserves, 39% of the marketed
production, and 40% of global gas exports.
• GECF member countries collectively account for more than half of the world LNG exports
(51%).
• The central focus of the 7thsummit, articulated through the “Algiers Declaration” is to reaffirm the
commitment of member countries to the responsible stewardship of natural gas resources.
GECF Country List
Full-Fledged Members
1. Algeria
2. Bolivia
3. Egypt
4. Equatorial Guinea
5. Iran
6. Libya
7. Nigeria
8. Qatar
9. Russia
10. Trinidad and Tobago
11. UAE - United Arab Emirates
12. Venezuela

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Q38 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context:
Dry ice, was mistakenly offered to a party of diners at a Gurugram restaurant and subsequently
caused them to vomit blood.
• Dry ice is solid carbon dioxide (CO2) at a temperature of approximately -78.5°C (-109.3°F).
Statement 1 is correct.
• Sublimation - It is formed by compressing and cooling gaseous carbon dioxide until it reaches its
solid state without passing through the liquid phase, a process called sublimation.
• Dry ice undergoes sublimation when exposed to warmer temperatures, transitioning directly
from a solid to a gas, releasing CO2. Statement 2 is correct.
• Applications - It is commonly used as a cooling agent for food products like ice cream, frozen
desserts etc.
• It is frequently used for food items that are needed to be cold or frozen, without the use of
mechanical cooling.
• Threats - Both liquid nitrogen and dry ice can cause severe damage to skin and internal
organs if mishandled or accidently ingested due to the extremely low temperatures they can
maintain. Statement 3 is correct.
• As such, liquid nitrogen and dry ice should not be directly consumed or allowed to directly contact
exposed skin.
• As it comes into contact with moisture in the mouth or digestive tract, dry ice rapidly sublimates,
releasing large amounts of carbon dioxide gas.
• This can cause potentially life-threatening complications such as perforation of the stomach or
intestines, or even asphyxiation due to the displacement of oxygen.

Q39 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Sacred Groves Associated State
1. Oran Rajasthan
2. Dev Van Himachal Pradesh
3. Lai Umang Manipur
4. Devarakadu Karnataka

Context:
A recent announcement by the Rajasthan government to notify Orans as deemed forest has sparked
fear among community residents in the state regarding the potential loss of access to forest resources
and their means of livelihood.
• Oran is the name of the sacred groove/conservation areas in Rajasthan, India.
• An Oran typically encompasses diverse elements like woodlots, pastures, orchards, and
various habitats, all strategically situated around water sources like natural springs, rivulets,
or man-made ponds.
• The villagers use gum, timber, forest produce and wild vegetables from orans for their livelihood
and daily use.
• The community has a close relationship with orans, which hold cultural and religious significance.

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Q40 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
A recent report by the World Health Organization (WHO) highlighted that the Resistance to the
dolutegravir (DTG) drug is increasing among HIV patients.
• Dolutegravir (DTG) is the World Health Organisation’s (WHO) recommended antiretroviral
drug preferred for first-line and second-line treatment of HIV/AIDS for all populations.
• It is more effective, easier to take, has fewer side effects than alternatives, and has a high genetic
barrier to developing drug resistance.
• HIV is the virus that causes Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS).

Q41 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently scientists unveiled the first in-depth study of a star dune, revealing the internal structure
of these geological features and showing how long it took for one of them to form.
• Star dunes are vaguely pyramid-shaped sand formations up to about 1,000 feet (300 meters)
tall with arms stretching out from a central peak to give them a star-like appearance when
viewed from above. Statement 1 is correct.
• Star dunes make up just under 10% of the dunes in Earth's deserts and are the tallest ones,
surpassing other types such as crescent-shaped barchan dunes and straight and lengthy linear dunes.
Statement 2 is incorrect.
• They also have been spotted on Mars and on Saturn's large moon Titan. Statement 4 is
correct.
• Earth's largest star dunes are found in the Badain Jaran desert in western China. Statement
3 is incorrect.
• Star dunes also are found in places including the Namib Sand Sea in Namibia, large sand seas in
Algeria such as the Grand Erg Oriental and Grand Erg Occidental, and Rub' al Khali in Saudi
Arabia. In North America, Great Sand Dunes National Park in Colorado contains a series of them.
• Lala Lallia – The recent study by the scientist focused on it.
• It is located a small sand sea called Erg Chebbi within the Sahara Desert in the eastern
Morocco, close to the border with Algeria.
• It rises about 330 feet above the surrounding dunes and is approximately 2,300 feet wide, containing
about 5.5 million metric tons of sand.
• Complex wind regimes – Star dunes are formed in areas with complex wind regimes.
• They are winds blowing from different directions, and net sand accumulation, points within the
desert where big piles of sand can be blown around to form giant dunes.

Q42 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
Venezuela has embarked a project to preserve its final glacier, La Corona, by deploying a geothermal
blanket recently.

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 Glacier Name Location and Feature
Lambert Fisher
Antarctica, the largest glacier of the world
Glacier
Alaska, a tidewater glacier and, despite global warming, is expanding.
Hubbard Glacier
Largest in N America.
Fedchenko Glacier Tajikistan, one of the largest non-polar glaciers, in Karakoram
Siachen Glacier India, highest, deadliest and costliest battlefield
Biafo Glacier Pakistan, Meltwater from the Biafo Glacier flows to the Indus River
Bruggen Glacier Chile, advanced about 5 kilometers, and cut Lake Greve from the sea
Baltoro Glacier Pakistan, source of the Shigar River
South Inylchek Kyrgyzstan and China, located in Central Tian Shan Mountains in the
Glacier Issyk-Kul Region
Jostedal Glacier Norway, 9th largest glacier in the world
Batura Glacier Pakistan, Gojal region of Gilgit-Baltistan
Margerie Glacier Alaska, Glacier Bay Park
Perito Moreno Glacier Argentina, third largest reserve of freshwater in the world.
Gangotri Glacier India and China, one of the largest glaciers of the Himalayas
Fox and Franz Josef New Zealand, descend from the Southern Alps to a temperate rainforest full
Glacier of greenery and lushness
Pasterze Glacier Austria, biggest glacier in Austria

Q43 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India said 30 banks are facilitating people to search their unclaimed
deposits/accounts through UDGAM portal.
About UDGAM Portal
• UDGAM refers to Unclaimed Deposits-Gateway to Access inforMation, which is an online
portal developed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
• It facilitates the registered users to search unclaimed deposits/accounts across multiple banks at one
place in a centralised manner.
• There are 30 banks, which are part of UDGAM portal, and they cover around 90% of unclaimed
deposits (in value terms) in Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund of RBI.
• All unclaimed deposits/accounts that are part of Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund
of RBI.
• This portal provides information related to both individuals and non-individuals category
unclaimed deposits
• It facilitates only the search of unclaimed deposits/accounts across multiple banks at one place and
provides information on claim/settlement process of each bank.
• The unclaimed deposits can be claimed only from the respective bank.

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 • After registration on the portal a person will get Unclaimed Deposit Reference Number (UDRN)
which is a unique number generated through Core Banking Solution (CBS) by banks and assigned
to each Unclaimed account/ deposit transferred to Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund
of RBI.
• This number is used so that the account holder or the bank branch where account is maintained,
cannot be identified by any third party.
• The UDRN enables the bank branches to seamlessly settle claims received from the
customers/depositors, who have made successful search in UDGAM portal.

Q44 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
The Supreme Court recently held that the conviction of the accused can be sustained solely based on
the dying declaration if the declaration made by the victim inspires the confidence of the court and
proves to be trustworthy.
About Dying Declaration:
• A Dying Declaration is a statement made by a person who is dead. It is dealt with under clause
(1) of Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act 1872. Statement 1 is correct.
• Generally, it relates to the cause of death of the declarant. It is admissible as evidence in all
proceedings, civil or criminal. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The reason behind this can be followed by the Latin maxim ‘Nemo Mariturus Presumuntur Mentri’
which means that “Man Will Not Meet His Maker with Lying on His Mouth.

Format:
• There is no specific format required for a dying declaration. It can be given orally, in writing,
through gestures or signs, by a thumb impression, or even in the form of a question and answer.
• However, the statement must clearly and assertively convey the person’s intention. Ideally, a
written declaration should be recorded using the exact words stated by the person making the
statement.
• In cases where a magistrate records the dying declaration, it is usually done in a question-and-
answer format. This allows the magistrate to gather maximum relevant information accurately.

Who can record a Dying Declaration?

• The best form of declaration of dying would be the one recorded by the Magistrate.
• However, according to the Supreme Court’s guidelines, anyone can record the dying statement.
• A dying statement can also be recorded by public servants or by a doctor as well, where the victim
is hospitalized.

Evidentiary Value:
• A dying declaration carries significant weight in legal proceedings and can serve as the sole
basis for a conviction without the need for additional corroborating evidence.
• However, the court must ensure that the statement of the deceased was not influenced, coached, or
a result of imagination.
• It must also ascertain that the deceased was of sound mind and had a clear opportunity to observe
and identify the assailants.
• If the person making the dying statement is likely to live, his statement is inadmissible as a
dying statement. Statement 3 is incorrect.

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Q45 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Context:
US envoy to Lebanon emphasised situation along the blue line has to change to guarantee peace and
security.
• The border between Israel and Lebanon, known as the "Blue Line," was set by the United
Nations in 2000 after Israel withdrew its military from southern Lebanon.
• It's not an official international border but a demarcation line.
• Originally, it was the boundary established by Britain and France in the 1920s, between
Lebanon, Syria and Palestine.
• Hezbollah is a Shia Islamist political party and militant group based in Lebanon. It emerged in the
1980s as a response to the Israeli occupation of southern Lebanon. It is also designated as a terrorist
organisation by several countries, including the United States and Israel.

Q46 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
The Union Cabinet have approved the new industrial development scheme, Uttar Poorva
Transformative Industrialization Scheme, 2024 (UNNATI – 2024).

• It is Central Sector Scheme. Statement 1 is correct.

• Objectives – To develop industries that will create productive economic activity in the
manufacturing and service sectors. Statement 2 is correct.
• To generate gainful employment, which will lead to the area's overall socio-economic development.
• Focus areas – States of North East Region.
• Financial Outlay – Rs.10, 037 crore. Statement 3 is correct.
o Part A – Incentives to the eligible units (Rs. 9737 crores), 60% to 8 NE states and 40% on First-In-
First-Out (FIFO) basis.
o Part B – For implementation and institutional arrangements for the scheme (Rs. 300 Crore).
• Nodal Agency – Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of
Commerce and Industry. Statement 4 is incorrect.

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• Targets – Direct employment opportunities of about 83,000 and a significant number of indirect
employments.
• Scheme period – 10 years from the date of notification and additional 8 years for committed
liabilities.
• Eligibility – All new Industrial units and Expanding units for the respective incentives.
• Districts are categorized in 2 zones
o Zone A (Industrially Advanced Districts)
o Zone B (Industrially Backward Districts)

Incentives under UNNATI-2024

• Capital Investment Incentive
o For both new & expanding units.
o For both GST and non-GST units

• Central Capital Interest Subvention

o For both new & expanding units.
o For both GST and non-GST units

• Manufacturing & Services linked incentive (MSLI)

o For New Units only
o For units linked to Net Payment of GST

Maximum Eligible benefits to one unit from all components of the scheme is Rs. 250 Cr.

Q47 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
The Union Cabinet approved the IndiaAI Mission with an outlay of Rs 10,372 crore for the next five
years.

• The IndiaAI Mission seeks to showcase to the international community the positive applications of
the revolutionary technology for societal benefit, thereby elevating India’s global competitiveness.
• It will establish a comprehensive ecosystem catalysing AI innovation through strategic
programmes and partnerships across the public and private sectors. Statement 2 is correct.
• Under the India AI Mission, to be implemented by the ‘IndiaAI’ Independent Business Division
(IBD) under Digital India Corporation (DIC), the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) will
look – To establish a computing capacity of more than 10,000 graphics processing units (GPUs).
Statement 1 is correct.
• The Union Cabinet approved the IndiaAI Mission with an outlay of Rs 10,372 crore for the next
five years.
• Of the total outlay (of Rs 10,372 crore), Rs 4,564 crore has been earmarked for building computing
infrastructure.

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Q48 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, Kerala declares man-animal conflict as a state-specific disaster, becoming the 1st state to
do.
State Specific Disaster Declared State
1. Snakebite Odisha
2. Lightning Assam
3. Coastal Erosion Kerala
4. Sunburn Kerala

State specific Disaster:

• Disasters within the local context in the State that are not included in the notified list of
disasters of the Ministry of Home Affairs
• Announced by – State Government
• Funding mechanism – State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF)
• Uses up to 10% of the funds available under the SDRF for providing immediate relief to the victims
• Responsible authority – State disaster management authority (SDMA) as per the Disaster
Management Act 2005
• State level – The Chief Minister is the ex officio chairman of the SDMA
• District level – The district disaster management authority (DDMA) is headed by the district
collector
• Powers – SDMA can take actions overriding other norms, including those under the Wildlife
Protection Act.
Disaster Management Act (2005):
• Section 71 of the DM Act – No court (except the Supreme Court or a High Court) shall have
jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of anything done by relevant authorities
in pursuance of any power conferred by this Act.
• Section 72 of the Act – The provisions of this Act will have an overriding effect on any other law
during the specific period.
• Coverage – Natural disasters like Cyclone, drought, earthquake, flood, human-animal conflicts like
snakebite etc.

Q49 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, a committee of scientists voted down a proposal to declare the start of the Anthropocene
(or the Human Epoch) in geologic time.
The Earth’s Geologic Time Scale:
• The geologic time scale provides the official framework for our understanding of Earth’s 4.5-
billion-year history.
• Geoscientists use the Geologic Time Scale (GTS) to measure the history of the planet. The GTS
(since the formation of Earth, roughly 4.54 billion years ago) is divided, in descending order of
duration, into Eons, Eras, Periods, Epochs and Ages.

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 • For example, we currently live in the Meghalayan Age. It’s part of the Holocene Epoch, which
began at the end of the last ice age 11,700 years ago, when ice caps and glaciers began retreating.
• The Holocene is part of the Quaternary Period, the most recent division of the Cenozoic Era, which
in turn is part of Phanerozoic Eon — which spans from 539 million years ago to the present.

Q50 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, former members of Google's DeepMind team, have introduced Haiper, a cutting-edge AI-
powered video generation tool.
About Haiper:
• It is an all-in-one visual foundation model that allows everyone, with or without technical
training, to generate high-quality video content with ease.
• According to Haiper, its model is a powerful perceptual foundation model-driven AI that has
been designed for a “new path towards AGI” (artificial general intelligence, an AI software
with human-like intelligence and the ability to self-learn).
• It offers tools such as text-to-video, animated static images, video repainting tools, etc. Users can
go on to the website, log in with their email addresses, and start generating videos for free by typing
in text prompts.
• At present, users can only generate HD video spanning 2 seconds, and a slightly lower-quality video
could go up to four seconds.

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Q51 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
• Exploration licences aim to create an enabling mechanism wherein the Junior Mining
Companies will bring in expertise from across the world in acquisition, processing and
interpretation of exploration data.
• They leverage the risk-taking ability in discovery of deep-seated mineral deposits through the
adoption of expertise and the latest technologies.
• The Exploration Licence holder will explore the blocks and identify the areas that can be
auctioned for mining lease. Statement 1 is correct.
• Rajasthan and Karnataka have launched India’s first exploration licence auction for critical
minerals. Statement 2 is correct.
• According to a Mines Ministry official, Karnataka has launched the auction of one block each of
gold, copper and lithium.
• Rajasthan launched an auction of three blocks – one each of REE (rare earth element), rare metals
and potash.

Q52 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs planned to collaborate with ISRO to deploy V-SAT stations
on a pilot basis for around 80 tribal villages in Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, and
Maharashtra to bring Internet services.
About the Very Small Aperture Terminal (V-SAT) Station
• It is a two-way satellite ground station with a dish antenna that is used to transmit
narrowband data or broadband data for the provision of satellite Internet access to remote
locations. Statement 1 is correct.
• It can be used in place of a large physical network as it bounces the signal from satellites instead
of being transported through physical means like an ethernet connection. Statement 2 is correct.

Significance
• It aims to bring connectivity to geographically remote villages with difficult terrain, and have
the potential to significantly address connectivity challenges in remote areas.
• It is a significant step towards achieving digital inclusivity.
• It can provide services such as Internet, medical, and educational connectivity, and to help with
e-governance in these remote areas.

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 Concerns
• Because the signal needs to bounce, there can be a latency issue that wouldn’t exist with a
physical network. Statement 3 is incorrect.
• It takes time for information to reach the dish and the station due to one part of the system being
way up in geosynchronous orbit above the earth.
• The signal quality can be affected by the weather and other environmental conditions.
Statement 4 is correct.

Q53 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
The Supreme Court, while denying the plea of juvenility preferred by a convict in a murder case,
observed that to determine age, the ossification test stands last in the order of priorities.
About Ossification Test:
• Ossification is the process of bone formation that occurs in humans from infancy until the
end of adolescence.
• During this time, various bones in the body undergo calcification, or hardening, as minerals such
as calcium and phosphorus are deposited in the bone matrix.
• As a person ages, the rate of bone formation slows down, and eventually, the bones become more
brittle and prone to fracture.
• Due to the predictable nature of this process, scientists have been able to develop methods for
estimating a person's age based on the degree of bone ossification in specific bones.
• One such method is the ossification test, also known as the epiphyseal fusion test.
• This test involves examining x-rays of certain bones in the body, specifically the clavicle, sternum,
and pelvis, to determine the degree of ossification.
• These bones are chosen because they tend to undergo the most dramatic changes in structure as a
person ages.
• Based on the degree of ossification, the professional can estimate the person's age within a certain
range.
Drawbacks:
• It only provides an individual’s ‘estimated’ age rather than their actual age.
• Even when testing several joints, the ossification test allows a buffer of at least six months on either
side. It occasionally displays a four-year fluctuation.
• There can be significant individual variation in the rate and pattern of bone ossification.
• Additionally, factors such as disease, injury, and malnutrition can all affect the degree of bone
ossification, making it more difficult to accurately estimate a person's age.

Q54 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI Aayog and Meta have announced the launch of
Frontier Technology Labs (FTLs).
• It is an advanced version of Atal Tinkering Lab.
• The initiative aims to advance the government’s agenda of digital inclusion, skilling and
growth. Statement 1 is correct.
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 • Collaboration: Atal Innovation Mission and Meta will partner to set up FTLs in schools of
strategic importance to ensure that students from diverse backgrounds across India will have
equal opportunities to learn and engage with frontier technologies. Statement 2 is correct.
• Funding: The FTLs will be funded by Meta and Atal Innovation Mission will be the
knowledge partner.
• It is equipped with state-of-the-art infrastructure, including all components of the Tinkering Lab to
empower students to innovate using technologies like Artificial Intelligence, Augmented & Virtual
Reality, Blockchain, Cybersecurity, Robotics, 3D Printing, and Internet of Things.
• The FTLs are a part of Meta’s Education to Entrepreneurship initiative, launched in September
2023, to seamlessly connect students, youth, workforce, and micro-entrepreneurs with futuristic
technologies, taking digital skilling to the grassroots.
• These labs will be managed by Meta’s partner 1M1B (One Million for One Billion).
• Significance: The labs support the Government’s focus on equipping youth with digital skills to
succeed in the evolving landscape of technology and the global economy.

Q55 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, Inflection AI company launched its latest LLM, Inflection 2.5, an upgrade to its model that
powers its friendly chatbot Pi personal assistant.
• It is an “upgraded in-house model that is competitive with all the world’s leading LLMs.
• The newly upgraded Large Language Model comes with its signature personality and
uniquely empathetic fine-tuning.
• It has made some stellar strides in areas of IQ such as coding and mathematics.
• With the new upgrade, Pi has now been endowed with world-class real-time web search capabilities
to ensure that users get access to high-quality and up-to-date information in real time.
• The new LLM, users are talking to the Pi chatbot about a wider range of topics including discussing
current events, getting local restaurant recommendations, studying for a biology exam, drafting
business plans, coding, and even fun discussions on hobbies.
What is PI chatbot?
• Pi is an AI chatbot with which one can have deep and meaningful conversations.
• To access the chatbot, one needs to log on to Inflection.AI, click on Meet Pi, and simply start talking
to the chatbot right away.
• It is more humane and has been promoted as a chatbot that has a personality.
• It is more like a companion to humans and is free to use.
• The chatbot comes with a voice, in six distinct voices, to choose from adding life to conversations.
• The chatbot has been shown billions of lines of text on the open web.
• This allows Pi to have conversations with users and answer a wide variety of questions, according
to the company.

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Q56 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context:
Scientists have discovered an exception to a 200-year-old Fourier’s Law that governs how heat
diffuses through solid materials.
About Fourier’s Law:
• Fourier’s law, or Law of Heat Conduction, describes how heat is transferred, or conducted,
through solid materials.
• As molecules vibrate and electrons shuttle about, the heat diffuses from the hotter end of an object
to the colder end.
• It states that the rate of heat conduction through a plane layer is proportional to the temperature
gradient across the layer and the heat transfer area of the layer.
• Basically, it is an empirical relation between the rate of heat conduction, heat transfer, and
temperature gradient in the direction of heat flow.
What is Conduction?
• Conduction is the process by which heat energy is transmitted through collisions between
neighbouring atoms or molecules.
• Conduction occurs more readily in solids and liquids, where the particles are closer together
than in gases, where particles are further apart.
• Anything that involves direct physical contact to transfer heat is an example of conduction.
Q57 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
• Established during the 45th G7 summit held in Biarritz, France, in August 2019. Statement 1
is correct.
• Aims to address gender disparities and promote women's empowerment globally. Statement
2 is correct.
Key Objectives:
• Advance gender equality in education, including access to quality education for girls.
• Promote women's entrepreneurship and economic empowerment, ensuring equal opportunities in
the workforce.
• Enhance women's participation and leadership in decision-making processes across various sectors.
• Combat gender-based violence and ensure access to justice and support for survivors.
• Improve sexual and reproductive health and rights, including access to healthcare services and
information.
• Strengthen legal frameworks and policies to protect and promote women's rights.
National commitments taken within the framework of the Biarritz Partnership
Individual actions of the G7:
• Canada
• European Union
• France
• Germany
• Italy
• Japan

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 • United Kingdom
• United States
Individual actions of G7 Biarritz partners joint the coalition:
• Australia
• Chile
• India
• Senegal
• Spain
• Ukraine

Q58 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Ministers of Health from African countries with the highest burden of malaria recently signed the
Yaounde Declaration with the objective of ending malaria deaths.
About Yaounde Declaration
• It was signed by the health ministers of 11 African countries with the highest burden of
malaria, committing to accelerated action to end deaths from the malaria disease.
• It was signed at the Yaoundé conference, co-hosted by the World Health Organization (WHO) and
the Government of Cameroon.
• The conference gathered Ministers of Health, global malaria partners, funding agencies, scientists,
civil society organizations, and other principal malaria stakeholders.
• The 11 countries that signed the declaration are: Burkina Faso, Cameroon, the Democratic
Republic of the Congo, Ghana, Mali, Mozambique, Niger, Nigeria, Sudan, Uganda and
Tanzania. These countries carry roughly 70% of the global malaria burden.
• They pledged to sustainably and equitably address the threat of malaria in the African region,
which accounts for 95% of malaria deaths globally.
• They committed to provide stronger leadership and increased domestic funding for malaria control
programmes; to ensure further investment in data technology; to apply the latest technical guidance
in malaria control and elimination; and to enhance malaria control efforts at the national and sub-
national levels.
• The ministers further pledged to increase health sector investments to bolster infrastructure,
personnel, and programme implementation; to enhance multi-sectoral collaboration; and to build
partnerships for funding, research, and innovation.

Q59 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
The most critical issue of the 2019 amalgamation of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) was that of
technology, systems and procedures, as different banks followed different systems and procedures
despite the same core banking platform, says a new book.

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About Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):
• RRBs are banks formed in collaboration by the Central Government, State Governments, and
Sponsoring Commercial Banks to give loans to rural areas.
• Their mission is to fulfill the credit needs of the relatively unserved sections in rural areas: small
and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers, and socio-economically weaker sections.
• The RRBs mobilize financial resources from rural / semi-urban areas and grant loans and advances
mostly to small and marginal farmers, agricultural labourers, and rural artisans.
Origin:
• The Narasimham Committee on Rural Credit (1975) recommended the establishment of
RRBs. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The establishment of RRBs finds its route in the ordinance passed on 26th September 1975,
and the RRB Act of 1976.
• Prathama Grameen Bank was the first RRB bank and was established on 2nd October 1975.
Statement 2 is correct.
• RRBs were configured as hybrid micro banking institutions, combining the local orientation and
small-scale lending culture of the cooperatives with the business culture of commercial banks.
RRBs perform various functions in the following heads:
• Providing banking facilities to rural and semi-urban areas.
• Carrying out government operations like the disbursement of wages of MGNREGA workers,
distribution of pension, etc.
• Providing Para-Banking facilities like locker facilities, debit and credit cards, mobile banking,
internet banking, UPI etc.
The RBI has set a Priority Sector Lending (PSL) target of 75% of total outstanding advances for
RRBs as against 40% for Scheduled Commercial Banks. Statement 3 is incorrect.
• Ownership: The shareholding pattern of RRBs among the three sponsoring entities is 50:35:15
among the central government, sponsoring bank, and state government, respectively.
• The area of operation of RRBs is limited to the area as notified by the Government of India,
covering one or more districts in the State.
• Regulation: Regional Rural Banks are regulated by the RBI and supervised by the National
Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). Statement 4 is incorrect.
• Sources of Funds: It comprise of owned funds, deposits, borrowings from NABARD, Sponsor
Banks and other sources, including SIDBI and the National Housing Bank.
• Management: The Board of Directors manages these banks, overall affairs, which consists of one
Chairman, three Directors as nominated by the Central Government, a maximum of two Directors
as nominated by the concerned State Government, and a maximum of three Directors as nominated
by the sponsor bank.

Q60 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
India signed a free trade agreement (FTA) with four European countries — Iceland, Liechtenstein,
Norway, and Switzerland, recently, with a goal of reaching $100 billion in investments in India and
one million jobs within 15 years.

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India-EFTA Pact: Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA)
• Signed on: March 10, 2024
• Involves: India and EFTA member states: Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland.
• Goal: Promote investments and exports, particularly in India’s IT, audio-visual sectors, and skilled
professional movement.
• Investment target: The EFTA states shall aim to increase FDI into India by $50 billion within 10
years, and another $50 billion in the five years thereafter.
• Additional provisions: For the first time, the FTA also included a chapter on commitments to human
rights and sustainable development.
• The agreement will come into force after ratification by the EFTA states, expected possibly by the
end of the year.

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Q61 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context:
Core inflation is likely to remain low, around 3% in the near term, owing to weak rural demand,
softness in housing inflation, and lower input cost pressures, according to economists.
About Core Inflation:
• It is the change in the costs of goods and services excluding the price variations in seasonal
elements, such as those related to food and energy. Statement 1 is correct.

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 • Food and energy prices are exempt from this calculation because their prices can be too volatile or
fluctuate wildly.
• Core inflation represents the long-term trend in the price level. Statement 2 is correct.
Why is it important?
• It is used to determine the impact of rising prices on consumer income. Statement 3 is correct.
• To deal with such situations, many central banks use measures of core inflation that are designed
to filter transitory price movements.
• If the increase in the price index is due to temporary shocks that could soon reverse themselves, it
may not require any monetary policy action.
• On the other hand, prices of other commodities do not fluctuate as regularly as those of food and
fuel: as such, increase in their prices could be taken relatively to be much more of a permanent
nature.
• It follows logically for Central Banks to target only core inflation, as it reflects the demand-side
pressure in the economy.
• Core inflation, by eliminating the volatile components from the headline helps in identifying the
underlying trend in headline inflation and is believed to predict future inflation better.
• It is a convenient guide to help the central bank achieve its objective of controlling total inflation.
• Whenever core inflation rises, Central Banks increase their key policy rates to suck excess liquidity
from the market, and vice versa. It is, therefore, a preferred tool for framing long-term policy.

Q62 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
The Prime Minister of India on 11th March will disburse around Rs 8,000 crore Bank loans to Self
Help Groups (SHGs) at subsidised interest rate through Bank Linkage Camps set up by Banks in
each district.
• It was launched by NABARD in 1992 which has blossomed into the world’s largest
microfinance project. Statement II is incorrect.
• It has evolved as a cost-effective mechanism for providing financial services to unreached and
underserved poor households. Statement I is correct.
The components of Self-Help Group (SHG) Bank linkage (BL) are as follows:
• Training and sensitization of Bank Branch Managers.
• Training and positioning of Bank Sakhis at Rural Bank Branches.
• Initiate Community Based Repayment Mechanism (CBRM) at Rural Bank Branches.
• Credit Linkage of SHGs.
What are Self-Help Groups?
• These are small, informal, and voluntary associations of individuals, usually from similar socio-
economic backgrounds, who come together to address common social and economic needs.
• SHGs are primarily focused on empowering their members, particularly women, through mutual
support, collective decision-making, and skill development.
• The SHGs which follow ‘Panchsutras’ viz. conduct of regular group meetings, regular savings
within the group, internal lending based on the demand of members, timely repayment of loan and
maintenance of proper books of accounts are considered to be of good quality and over years have
proved themselves to be good customers of Banks.
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Q63 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the strategically significant Sela Tunnel project
during his day-long visit to Arunachal Pradesh.
• The tunnel is situated at an altitude of 13,700 feet in West Kameng district on the road
connecting Tezpur to Tawang in Arunachal Pradesh.
• The project provides all-weather connectivity to the Tawang region, the part contested by China
which describes it as a part of the ancient territory.
• The tunnel will also reduce more than one hour of travelling time from Tezpur to Tawang.
Scientists have revealed that a drilling incident took place in Kazakhstan in 2023 was possibly the
2nd biggest man-made methane leak ever in history.
• The drilling incident took place at an exploration well in the Mangistau region of
southwestern Kazakhstan in 2023.
• It caused a fire that raged and released 127,000 tonnes of methane into the atmosphere.
Exercise Cutlass Express – 24 was held at Port Victoria, Seychelles.
• Exercise Cutlass Express is designed to improve regional cooperation, maritime domain awareness
and information sharing practices to increase capabilities between the United States of America
(U.S), East African and Western Indian Ocean nations to counter illicit maritime activity in the
Western Indian Ocean.
• The exercise aims to improve regional cooperation in support of the Djibouti Code of Conduct and
maritime domain awareness.
• Djibouti Code of conduct: It is also known as the Code of Conduct concerning the Repression of
Piracy and Armed Robbery against Ships in the Western Indian Ocean and the Gulf of Aden.
The Badwater Basin is known for being the lowest point in North America, with an elevation of 282
feet (86 meters) below sea level. Death Valley, where the Badwater Basin is located, experiences extreme
heat during the summer months, with temperatures often exceeding 120°F (48.9°C). In contrast, winter
temperatures in Death Valley can be relatively cool.

Q64 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Blue Leaders High-Level Event on Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction was held
in Belgium.
• The Blue Leaders are an ambitious group of countries calling for urgent action to save the
global ocean in the face of the climate crisis, overfishing, pollution, and other threats.
Statement 1 is correct.
• The first Blue Leaders event took place in New York on the margins of the 2019 United Nations
General Assembly and the second in Madrid, Spain during the 2019 UN Climate Change
Conference, ‘The Blue COP.’
The Blue Leaders are committed to two major goals:
• Securing a new international target to protect at least 30% of the global ocean through a
network of highly and fully protected marine areas by 2030. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The rapid and successful conclusion of a new High Seas Treaty that provides for establishment of
fully and highly protected marine areas in the high seas and strengthens management of human
activities outside protected areas.
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 • Member countries: The group of Blue Leaders has 24 countries as its members.
• India is not a member of this group. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Q65 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
India recently successfully tested a new Agni-V missile with MIRV (Multiple Independently
Targetable Re-entry Vehicle) technology, capable of carrying multiple warheads and striking
multiple targets.
MIRV technology
• MIRV (Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle) technology is the capability that
allows multiple warheads to be loaded on a single missile delivery system and programmed
to hit different targets, thus greatly enhancing the missile’s destructive potential. Statement
1 is correct.
• They can all be made to hit the same location too, one after the other, thus ensuring complete
annihilation of the target. Statement 2 is correct.
• The technology was developed in the 1960s and first deployed in the 1970s by the United States
and the then Soviet Union.
• Over the years, France, the United Kingdom, and eventually China have developed this
technology. Pakistan too has claimed to have tested an MIRV-equipped missile called
Ababeel, first in 2017 and then in 2023.
• The number of warheads that a missile can carry depends on its design, weight, size, range and
other parameters. The one that India tested can carry three to four warheads.
• However, an MIRV-equipped missile has never been used so far in any conflict situation.
Statement 3 is correct. Arms control advocates argue that MIRV technology incentivises the urge
to strike first, thus increasing the risk from nuclear weapons.

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 • The integration of MIRV technology is a long-awaited upgrade for the Agni family of short,
medium and intercontinental range ballistic missiles indigenously developed by the DRDO.
• Agni missiles are the main land-based delivery systems for India’s nuclear weapons.
• Developed in the 1990s, the first-generation Agni missiles were deployed in the armed forces in
the mid-2000s.
• Agni-I to Agni-IV missiles have ranges between 700 to 3,500 km and can carry single payloads
weighing between 12 and 40 kilotons.
• Agni-V, the version that has been equipped with MIRV technology, can travel more than
5,000 km, and can potentially enter the intercontinental range as well, considered to be 5,500
km and above.
• Meanwhile, DRDO has also been developing Agni-P missiles, which are modernised versions of
the short-range Agni-1 and Agni-2 variety. There was the expectation that it would be integrated
with MIRV technology.
• The acquisition of MIRV technology by India was keenly awaited after China developed it in the
last decade. With Pakistan also claiming to have tested a missile with this technology, integrating
this in Agni missiles had become an imperative.
• The next generation Agni-VI missile, currently under development, is also expected to be equipped
with MIRV.

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Q66 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) notified the Rules under the Citizenship
(Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA-2019) called “the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2024”. It enables
the persons eligible under CAA-2019 to apply for grant of Indian citizenship.
• The CAA allows non-Muslim migrants from Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan to seek
Indian citizenship through naturalisation (not registration), provided they belong to the
Hindu, Sikh, Christian, Parsi, Jain, and Buddhist communities who entered India on or
before 31st December, 2014. Statement I is incorrect.
• Members of the designated communities under the Act are exempted from criminal cases
under the Foreigners Act, 1946, and the Passport Act, 1920, if they entered India before
December 31, 2014. Statement II is correct.
• The two Acts specify punishment for entering the country illegally and staying here on expired
visas and permits.
About Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019:
• The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) amends the Citizenship Act of 1955 to provide a path to
Indian citizenship for Hindus, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists, Jains, and Parsis who migrated from
neighbouring Muslim-majority countries such as Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Afghanistan, before
December 31, 2014.
• Under the CAA, migrants who entered India till December 31, 2014, and had suffered “religious
persecution or fear or religious persecution” in their country of their origin would be made eligible
for accelerated citizenship.
• It relaxed the residence requirement for naturalisation of these migrants from twelve years to just
six.
• The cut-off date for citizenship is December 31, 2014, which means the applicant should have
entered India on or before that date.
• The law exempts the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura as included in the
Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, including the tribal areas of Karbi Anglong in Assam, Garo
Hills in Meghalaya, Chakma district in Mizoram, and Tribal areas district in Tripura.
• It also includes a provision for the cancellation of Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) registration if
the OCI cardholder violates any provision of the Citizenship Act or any other applicable law.

Q67 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Gorsam Kora Festival was celebrated as ‘India-Bhutan Friendship & Shared Cultural
Heritage of Himalayan Buddhism’ in Tawang of Arunachal Pradesh.

Indian Festival Associated State

1. Gorsam Kora Festival Arunachal Pradesh
2. Myoko Festival Arunachal Pradesh
3. Kharchi Puja Tripura
4. Saga Dawa Sikkim

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Gorsam Kora Festival:
• It is an annual festival, celebrated in the scenic Zemithang Valley along the Nyanmjang Chu River
of Tawang district in Arunachal Pradesh, India.
• It is held at the Gorsam Chorten, a 93-foot-tall Stupa built during the 13th century AD by a local
monk, Lama Pradhar.
• This landmark is older than the Tawang Monastery, and is an icon for Himalayan Buddhism.
• It is observed during the last day of the first month of the Lunar calendar.
• It features a diverse array of events, including enthralling performances by local cultural troupes
and the Indian Army bands, and martial performances like Mallakhamb and Zanjh Pathaka.
• It symbolises the enduring friendship between India and Bhutan.
Historical Significance
• The 14th Dalai Lama found refuge upon his escape from Tibet in 1959 in Zemithang Valley.
• The Gorsam Chorten is modelled after the Boudhinath Stupa of Nepal and has a spiritual
companion, the Chorten Kora in Trashiyangtse of Bhutan, built in 1740.

Q68 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently the SheRNI Portal was launched by the University Grants Commission (UGC) to connect,
support women scientists and faculty members across India.
SheRNI – She Research Network in India.
• The objective of SheRNI is to create a national-level expert platform for women faculty members
and facilitate the exchange of expertise, insights and experiences across diverse fields.
• The SheRNI platform will connect more than 81,000 profiles of Indian women in science and
research across various domains.
• The platform was launched by the Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) of the
University Grants Commission (UGC).
• Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET) – Is an Autonomous Inter-University Centre
(IUC) of University Grants Commission.
• It is a major National Programme initiated by the UGC on February 1991 as a project under the
Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA).
• It became an independent Inter-University Centre on 16th May 1996.
• It is involved in modernizing university libraries in India using the state-of-art technologies for the
optimum utilisation of information.

Q69 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
The domestic sponge iron manufacturers fear a continuous shortage of iron ore may bring them to
the brink of collapse.
• Direct-reduced iron (DRI), also called sponge iron, is produced from the direct reduction of
iron ore (in the form of lumps, pellets, or fines) by a reducing gas produced from natural gas
or coal.

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 • This process of reducing the iron ore in solid form by reducing gases is called direct reduction.
Statement 1 is correct.
• The reducing gas is a mixture, the majority of which is hydrogen (H2) and carbon monoxide
(CO), which act as reducing agents. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Why is it called Sponge Iron?
• The process of sponge iron manufacturing involves the removal of oxygen from iron ore.
• When that happens, the departing oxygen causes micropores in the ore body, turning it porous.
• When the eventual product is observed under a microscope, it resembles a honeycomb structure,
which looks spongy in texture. Hence the name sponge iron.
India is the world’s largest producer of sponge iron, most of which is produced primarily through
the coal-based method of production. India produces 20% of the world’s sponge iron with over 200
plants. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Q70 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) has recently approved the project for the design and
development of India’s fifth-generation fighter jet, Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA).
• Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) will be India’s indigenous fifth-generation
stealth fighter aircraft. Statement 1 is correct.
• The Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) under the Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO) will be the nodal agency for executing the programme and designing the
aircraft.
• It will be manufactured by state-owned Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL).
• Features of AMCA – It is a 25-tonne twin-engine aircraft, which will be bigger than other
fighters in the Indian Air Force.
• It has a diverter-less supersonic inlet for controlling air flow into the engines and a serpentine air
intake duct to shield the engines from radar emission are likely to be part of the AMCA.
• Stealth features such as an internal weapons bay and a bigger internal fuel tank are part of
it.
• Engine – The AMCA Mk1 variant will have the US-built GE414 engine of the 90 kilonewton (kN)
class, while the more advanced AMCA Mk2 will fly on the more powerful 110kN engine.
• The AMCA Mk2 will be developed indigenously by DRDO’s Gas Turbine Research Establishment
(GTRE) in collaboration with a foreign defence major.
• The indigenous Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) Tejas is a 4.5-generation single-engine multirole
aircraft.
• Fifth-generation stealth fighter aircraft – At present, only USA, Russia and China have built
fifth-generation fighters. Statement 2 is correct.

Q71 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
The Mumbai bench of the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) recently observed that the assessee
was entitled to claim credit for Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) under the Vivad se Vishwas (VSV)
Scheme for the year under consideration.
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 • MAT is a tax mechanism intended to guarantee that businesses, particularly those who make
significant profits, pay the government a minimum amount of tax.
• It was implemented in India in 1987 as a component of the Income Tax Act, 1961, and is
applicable to all businesses operating in India or from other countries.
• The Finance Act, 1987 introduced MAT in the form of a tax on book profits in Section 115J
of Income Tax Act. Statement 1 is correct.
• This tax was implemented to make sure that no person with a significant amount of income would
be able to avoid paying taxes due to any exemptions.
All companies are required to pay corporate tax based on which is higher of the following:
• Normal Tax Liability: Tax computed as per the normal provisions of the Income-tax Law, i.e., by
applying the relevant tax rate to the taxable income of the company.
• Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT): Tax computed at 15% (previously 18.5%) on book profit
plus cess and surcharge.
• MAT is calculated on the “book profits” of a company, which is different from the taxable
profits computed under the regular provisions of the Income Tax Act.
• What is MAT credit? When the amount of MAT for a company is greater than its normal tax
liability, the difference between MAT and normal tax liability is called MAT Credit.
Statement 2 is correct.

Q72 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
The Central Government recently rolled out a Uniform Code for Pharmaceutical Marketing
Practices (UCPMP) for pharmaceutical companies.
About UCPMP 2024
• It has been implemented to control unethical practices in the pharma industry.
• The updated guidelines include drug endorsement, promotion, ethical conduct for medical
representatives, and maintaining relationships with healthcare professionals.
Important Provisions:
• It prohibits pharma companies from offering gifts and travel facilities to healthcare
professionals or their family members. Statement 1 is correct.
• The UCPMP mandates that medical representatives must not employ any inducement or subterfuge
to gain an interview, and they must not pay, under any guise, for access to a healthcare professional.
• It also holds companies responsible for the actions of the medical representatives.

• It also bans the supply of free samples to those who are not qualified to prescribe such a
product. Statement 2 is correct.
• Each pharma company also needs to maintain details such as product name, doctor name, the
number of samples given, date of supply of free samples to healthcare practitioners, etc., and the
monetary value of samples so distributed should not exceed two percent of the company's domestic
sales per year.
• All pharmaceutical associations must constitute an Ethics Committee for Pharmaceutical Marketing
Practices (ECPMP), set up a dedicated UCPMP portal on their website, and take further necessary
steps towards the implementation of this Code.
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 • It also lists in detail how the drug should be promoted, both in texts and in the audio-visual market.
• The information about drugs must be balanced, up-to-date, and verifiable, and must not mislead
either directly or by implication.
• The pharma companies should not make claims and comparisons of their drug's usefulness, and the
word "safe" must not be used without qualification.
• The word "new" must not be used to describe any drug which has been generally available or any
therapeutic intervention which has been generally promoted in India for more than a year.
• The responsibility for adherence to the code rests with the Chief Executive Officer of
pharmaceutical companies.
• It also detailed the penalties for violating the code and how complaints will be handled.
• Any violations of the code will be addressed by the ECPMP, ensuring accountability and oversight.
• It also regulates events, seminars and workshops involving the pharmaceutical industry and
healthcare professionals, permitting them to hold such events only under well-defined and
transparent circumstances.
• Besides, it requires all pharma companies to disclose details of such events, including
expenditure. Statement 3 is correct.

Q73 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
MIT chemists have designed a sensor that detects tiny quantities of perfluoroalkyl and
polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) chemicals found in food packaging, nonstick cookware and many
other consumer products.
About Per- and Polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS):
• These are a group of human-made chemicals that have been widely used in various industrial
and commercial applications.
• They were first used in the 1940’s and are now in hundreds of products.
Properties
• These compounds are also known as "forever chemicals" because they do not break down
naturally.
• Chemically, individual PFAS can be very different. However, all have a carbon-fluorine bond,
which is very strong and therefore, they do not degrade easily.
• These are known for their unique properties, such as high chemical stability and resistance to heat,
grease, and water.
Applications: These are used in stain- and water-resistant fabrics and carpeting, cleaning products,
paints, and fire-fighting foams.
Impacts:
• The widespread use of PFAS has resulted in increasing levels of contamination of the air,
water, and soil.
• Exposure to PFA attributes to variety of health risks including decreased fertility, developmental
effects in children, interference with body hormones, increased cholesterol levels and increased risk
of some cancers.

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Q74 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context:
The Prime Minister recently witnessed the tri-service exercise 'Bharat Shakti' in Pokhran,
Rajasthan.
About Exercise 'Bharat Shakti'
• It is an integrated tri-service firepower and manoeuvre exercise, showcasing the prowess of
indigenously manufactured defence equipment across the three services.
• Location: Pokhran, Rajasthan.
• The exercise involves the showcasing of the calibrated tactical employment of niche technology in
a tri-services environment against perceived threats.
• The exercise displays an array of indigenous weapon systems and platforms as a demonstration of
the prowess of the country, premised on the nation's Aatmanirbhar Bharat initiative.
• It will also simulate realistic, synergised, multi-domain operations displaying the integrated
operational capabilities of the Indian armed forces to counter threats across land, air, sea, cyber,
and space domains.
• It features indigenous weapon systems: T-90 (IM) Tanks, Dhanush and Sarang Gun Systems,
Akash Weapons System, Logistics Drones, Robotic Mules, ALH, and various unmanned
aerial vehicles from the Indian Army showcasing the advanced ground warfare and aerial
surveillance capabilities.
• The Indian Navy displays Naval Anti-Ship Missiles, Autonomous Cargo Carrying Aerial Vehicles,
and Expendable Aerial Targets.
• The Indian Air Force showcases indigenous aircraft: Light Combat Aircraft Tejas, Light Utility
Helicopters, and Advanced Light Helicopters.

Q75 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Article 341 of the Indian Constitution authorises the President to declare certain castes and classes
as Scheduled Castes in a state or a union territory. Statement I is correct.
It also states that the Parliament can include or exclude any caste or tribe from the list.
However, it does not explicitly grant authority to state governments to decide on the division of SC
quotas. Statement II is incorrect.
The determination of the SC quota division is primarily governed by central legislation and policies, often
in consultation with state governments, but the final authority typically rests with the central government.
EV Chinnaiah vs. State of Andhra Pradesh.
• The Chinnaiah judgement had held that any ‘sub-classification’ of the scheduled castes would
violate Article 14 (right to equality) of the Constitution.
• The 2004 verdict had stated that only Parliament, and not state legislatures, can exclude
castes deemed to be SC from the Presidential List under Article 341 of the Constitution.
Recently, a SC bench was hearing 23 petitions, including the lead one filed by the Punjab government
challenging the 2010 verdict of the Punjab and Haryana High Court.
• The high court had struck down Section 4(5) of the Punjab Scheduled Castes and Backward
Classes (Reservation in Services) Act, 2006 which provided 50 per cent quota and the first
preference to ‘Valmikis’ and ‘Mazhabi Sikhs’ castes in public jobs within the SC quota.

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Q76 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
The Majuli Masks of Assam:
• These are handmade masks traditionally used to depict characters in ‘Bhaonas’, or theatrical
performances with devotional messages under the neo-Vaishnavite tradition.
• These are made of bamboo, clay, dung, cloth, cotton, wood, and other materials available in the
riverine surroundings of their makers.
• It depicts gods, goddesses, demons, animals, and birds etc.
• It was introduced by the 15th-16th century reformer saint Srimanta Sankardeva.
• Categories:
o Mukha Bhaona: It covers the face;
o Lotokoi: Bigger in size extends to the chest; and,
o Cho Mukha: It is a head and body mask.
• Cultural Significance: The masks are an integral part of the Sankardev tradition, used in traditional
performing arts such as Borgeet (Songs), Sattriya (Dance), and Bhaona (Theatre), which are
practised in the Sattras.

Q77 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Karnataka bans harmful dyes in Gobi Manchurian, cotton candy, imposing imprisonment of up to
seven years and fines of up to Rs 10 lakh for violators.

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Some permitted synthetic colors include:
• Red: Ponceau 4R, Carmoisine, and Erythrosine
• Yellow: Tartrazine and Sunset Yellow FCF
• Blue: Indigo Carmine and Brilliant Blue FCF
• Green: Fast Green FCF
The FSSAI also approves the following colors, which are safe for consumption in any food article-
Caramel, Riboflavin (Lactoflavin), Saffron, Annatto, Curcumin (Turmeric).
Allowed natural food colours
• Carotene and carotenoids (yellow, orange),
• Chlorophyll (green),
• Riboflavin (yellow),
• Caramel, Annatto (orange-red, derived from the seed of an American tree).
• Saffron, and circumin (yellow, from turmeric).

Q78 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently the Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has mandated an immediate
stop to sales of broad-spectrum antibiotic combination of meropenem and disodium EDTA
injections.
• Meropenem (antibacterial agent) is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that works by inhibiting the
synthesis of cell walls in bacteria.
• Disodium EDTA binds with calcium and some heavy metals in the body and is used to treat calcium
overload and irregular heartbeats caused by certain medications like digoxin or digitoxin.
• This combination is administered via intravenous injection over a specific period, depending on the
dosage prescribed by a healthcare professional.
• The combination of Meropenem and Disodium EDTA as an injection is used to treat various
bacterial infections.
• The bacterial infections include pneumonia, urinary tract infections, intra-abdominal infections,
gynaecological infections, skin infections, meningitis and sepsis.
• It has been classified as a 'New Drug,' and has not secured the necessary regulatory approval.
• Common side effects may include headache, stomach pain, increased platelet count, diarrhoea, and
allergic reactions like skin rash or swelling.
• The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) has mandated an immediate stop to
sales of broad-spectrum antibiotic combination of meropenem and disodium EDTA injections.
• No new drug shall be manufactured for sale unless it is approved by the licensing authority as
defined in Rule 3 of New Drugs and Clinical Trials Rules, 2019.
• Anyone who intends to manufacture new drug, either as an active pharmaceutical ingredient (API)
or a pharmaceutical formulation, for sale or distribution must apply to the Central Licence
Approving Authority for permission.

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Q79 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
As the world rushes to make use of the latest wave of AI technologies, one piece of high-tech
hardware has become a surprisingly hot commodity: the graphics processing unit, or GPU.
• It is a computer chip that renders graphics and images by performing rapid mathematical
calculations.
• GPUs are used for both professional and personal computing. Originally, GPUs were responsible
for the rendering of 2D and 3D images, animations and video.
• Like a central processing unit (CPU), a GPU is also a chip component in computing devices.
Statement 1 is correct.
• One important difference, though, is that the GPU is specifically designed to handle and accelerate
graphics workloads and display graphics content on a device such as a PC or smartphone.
• GPUs work by using a method called parallel processing, where multiple processors handle
separate parts of a single task. Statement 2 is correct.
• A GPU will also have its own RAM to store the data it is processing. This RAM is designed
specifically to hold the large amounts of information coming into the GPU for highly intensive
graphics use cases.
• For graphics applications, the CPU sends instructions to the GPU for drawing the graphics content
on screen. The GPU executes the instructions in parallel and at high speeds to display the content
on the device — a process known as the graphics or rendering pipeline.

Q80 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
Digital Arrest cyber fraud is causing widespread terror in India.
• Digital Arrest is a new form of Cyber Threats.
• Digital Arrest: Impersonating law enforcement officers and coercing victims into believing
their digital assets have been unlawfully used and extorting money from them.
• The impostors impersonating law enforcement officers deceive the victims into believing that
their bank account, SIM card, Aadhaar card, or bank card has been used unlawfully.
• They coerce victims into paying them money.
• Digital Arrest involves the virtual restraint of individuals. These suspensions can vary from
restricted access to the account(s), and digital platforms, to implementing measures to
prevent further digital activities or being restrained on video calling or being monitored
through video calling.

Q81 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
The protocol for establishment of Joint Economic and Trade Committee (JETCO) between India
and Dominican Republic was signed at the Ministry of Foreign Affairs (MIREX) of Dominican
Republic at Santo Domingo recently.
The agreement, signed in the 25 years of establishment of diplomatic relations between the two countries,
is an important step to elevate the existing economic and commercial relations further.
The Dominican Republic is located in the Caribbean, shares its borders with only one nation: Haiti.
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Additionally, it has maritime borders with several other countries and territories:
• Colombia
• Venezuela
• Aruba (Netherlands)
• Curaçao (Netherlands)
• Puerto Rico (United States)
• Turks and Caicos Islands (United Kingdom)

Q82 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
The union government recently announced Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme (EMPS) 2024 to
promote the sale of electric two- and three-wheelers.
• Electric Mobility Promotion Scheme, 2024 is a fund limited scheme for faster adoption of electric
two-wheeler (e-2W) and three-wheeler (e-3W).
• It aims to provide further impetus to the green mobility and development of electric vehicle
(EV) manufacturing eco-system in the country. Statement 1 is correct.
• The programme also aims to spur localisation of EV components while also driving sales up.
• The scheme is valid for 4 months from April 1 onwards.
• It is applicable only to the electric two-wheeler and three-wheeler. Statement 2 is correct.
Eligible EV categories
1. Two Wheelers (electric) (e-2W)
2. Three-wheeler (electric) including registered e-rickshaws & e-carts and L5 (e-3W)
• Scheme will be applicable mainly to those e-2W and e-3Ws registered for commercial purposes.
• Further, in addition to commercial use, privately or corporate owned registered e-2W will also be
eligible under the scheme.
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 • It is an initiative of The Ministry of Heavy Industries, in collaboration with the Department
of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance. Statement 3 is correct.
• Under the scheme, financial support of Rs10,000 per two-wheeler and Rs50,000 for three-wheeler
will be provided.

Q83 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Operation ‘Rising Sun’
• It is a pan-India operation of Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) against the smuggling
of foreign-origin gold.
• The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) is the apex anti-smuggling agency of India, working
under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes & Customs (CBIC), Ministry of Finance.
Functions:
• Detecting and curbing smuggling of contraband, including drug trafficking and illicit international
trade in wildlife and environmentally sensitive items
• Combating commercial frauds related to international trade and evasion of Customs duty.

Q84 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
Prime Minister has recently inaugurated the 3rd land port in Sabroom, Tripura
• Land Port Sabroom is strategically located in Tripura along the international border between
India and Bangladesh.
• It will be constructed by the Land ports authority of India.
• Sabroom is directly connected to Chittagong port of Bangladesh through Maitree bridge on River
Feni.
• Land ports is an area on an international border that includes parts of highways, railways, and other
roads.

Q85 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
In a recent visit to India, the Belarus Foreign Minister stated that India is considering signing Free
Trade Agreements (FTA) with Eurasian Economic Union.
• The Member states of the Eurasian Economic Union (EAEU) are: Armenia, Belarus,
Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia.
• The Eurasian Economic Union is an economic union of five post-Soviet states located in Eurasia
that came into existence on 1st January 2015.
• The EAEU has an integrated single market.
• EAEU provides for free movement of goods, services, capital, and labour within its borders.
• Each year, a Member State is elected chairman to head the Union.
• Chairmanship is passed from country to country in alphabetical order in the Russian language.
• Armenia currently holds the chairmanship.

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Q86 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context:
NITI Aayog recently launched the 'Vocal for Local' initiative under its Aspirational Blocks
Programme.
About ‘Vocal for Local’ Initiative:
• It is an initiative of NITI Aayog under its Aspirational Blocks Programme to encourage a
spirit of self-reliance among the people and propel them towards sustainable growth and
prosperity. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• As a part of this initiative, local products from 500 aspirational blocks have been mapped and
consolidated under the Aakanksha brand. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Aakanksha is an umbrella brand, which could be supplemented into multiple sub-brands that have
the potential to create an international market.
• In order to encourage these products, a dedicated window for the Aspirational Blocks
Programme under the brand name Aakanksha has been established on the Government e-
Marketplace (GeM) portal.
• The partners will also provide technical and operational support for the facilitation of e-commerce
onboarding, establishing linkages, financial/digital literacy, documentation/certification, and skill
enhancement, among others.

Q87 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
The treacherous Darien Gap route that spans parts of Central and South America has seen an
increasing number of people attempting to pass on their way to claiming asylum in the US.

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About Darien Gap
• It is a stretch of densely forested jungle across northern Colombia and southern Panama.
Roughly 60 miles (97 kilometres) across, the terrain is muddy, wet and unstable.
• It has become a major route for global human migration.
• It is the geographic region of the easternmost Isthmus of Panama that extends into northwestern
Colombia, around the Gulf of Urabá (a section of the Gulf of Darién).
• It forms the physiographic link between Central and South America.
• A hot, humid area typified by tropical rainforests, mangrove swamps, and low mountain ranges
with cloud forest vegetation, Darién has always been sparsely populated.

Q88 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently 'core loading' process began at the Kalpakkam Fast Breeder reactor which marks a critical
milestone in the country's 3-stage nuclear power programme.
• Fast Breeder Reactor (FBRs) are a type of nuclear reactor which can create more fissile
material (fuel) than they consume.
• This is achieved by converting fertile material into fissile material through a process called
nuclear transmutation.

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 • India's nuclear power program – Is a three-stage plan designed to utilize the country's thorium
reserves for generating electricity.
• The second stage, which recently achieved a milestone with the core loading of the Kalpakkam
FBR, plays a crucial role in creating more fuel for the third stage.
India has adopted a “closed fuel cycle” approach.
• Closed Fuel Cycle Approach – It involves the reprocessing of spent fuel to separate the useful
plutonium (Pu) 239 and Uranium (U) 233 isotopes from U238 and Thorium (Th) 232.
Core loading is the process of placing nuclear fuel assemblies inside the core of a nuclear reactor.
The 3 Stages of India's Nuclear Power Program:
Stage 1 – Setting up Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) that use natural uranium as fuel.
(Currently operational)
Stage 2 (Current Stage) – Introduce Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) like the Kalpakkam FBR.
• FBRs use Pu239 (extracted from spent fuel of PHWRs) to generate electricity.
• Surround the reactor core with a fertile material blanket (U238).
• Fast neutrons from the core convert U238 in the blanket to more Pu239, breeding new fuel.
Stage 3 (Future Stage) – Utilize Thorium (abundant in India) for power generation.
• Thorium itself is not fissile, but can be converted to fissile Uranium-233 (U233) in FBRs.
Significance of the FBR – The successful operation of the FBR marks a critical step towards achieving
the third stage.
• By breeding Pu239, FBRs create more fuel for future reactors, including those that will eventually
use thorium.
• They are crucial for India's long-term energy security, especially in harnessing thorium resources
effectively.
• Thorium reserves in India — Is found in coastal and inland placer sands on the beaches of Kerala,
Tamil Nadu, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat.
• It is also found in the inland riverine sands of Jharkhand and West Bengal.

Q89 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Supreme Court of India stops Assam’s move to withdraw notification of Pobitora wildlife sanctuary.
• De-notified Area – Areas that cannot be protected with legally defined dos and don’ts like notified
areas.
• Process for de-notification – It is governed by the provisions of Wildlife (Protection), Act 1972.
• The proposals submitted by States/UTs for alteration of the boundaries of protected areas
are examined by the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wild Life (NBWL).
De-notifying a sanctuary or National Park
• Recommendation of National Board for Wildlife
• Approval by the Supreme Court (no specific time limit)
De-notifying a tiger reserve
• Recommendation of National Tiger Conservation Authority
• Approval of National Board for Wildlife

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Protected areas
About – Areas where human occupation or at least the exploitation of resources is limited.
Protected areas in India – 4 categories constituted under the provisions of the Wildlife (Protection)
Act, 1972:
1. National Parks
2. Wildlife Sanctuaries
3. Conservation Reserves
4. Community Reserves
Apart from above protected areas, India also has the following:
• Biodiversity Reserves
• Tiger Reserves
• Elephant Reserves
• Marine Protected Areas

Q90 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Sebi recently decided to repeal certain circulars that provided relaxation in cases involving the
allotment of securities through a private placement route.
About Private Placement
• A private placement is the sale of stock shares or bonds to pre-selected investors and
institutions rather than publicly on the open market.
• Investors invited to participate in private placement programs include wealthy individual investors,
banks and other financial institutions, mutual funds, insurance companies, and pension funds.
• One advantage of a private placement is its relatively few regulatory requirements.
• By opting for private placements, companies can maintain closer relations with investors, negotiate
flexible terms, and potentially retain greater control over the company’s direction and growth
strategies.
• There are two kinds of private placement: preferential allotment and qualified institutional
placement.
Preferential allotment:
• It is a method of private placement where a company issues new shares to a select group of
existing shareholders or to a specific group of investors, often at a price lower than the
prevailing market price.
• Purpose: This method is especially common when the company wants to reward or retain existing
shareholders, such as promoters, by offering them the opportunity to purchase additional shares.
• SEBI regulations and the Companies Act govern preferential allotment in India.
• A company must take permission from its shareholders to carry on with preferential allotment.
Qualified Institutional Placement (QIP):
• QIP is a private placement exclusively available to listed companies.
• Under QIP, a listed company can issue shares or other securities to qualified institutional buyers
(QIBs), such as mutual funds, banks, insurance companies, and foreign institutional investors,
without making a public offering.

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 • Purpose: Companies use QIP to raise capital from institutional investors quickly and efficiently.
Companies choose this option when they require funds for expansion, reducing debt, or other
corporate purposes.
• SEBI has established guidelines for QIP issuances in India.

Q91 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
The Prime Minister of India recently launched the ‘Pradhan Mantri Samajik Utthan and Rozgar
Adharit Jankalyan’ (PM-SURAJ) national portal.
PM-SURAJ portal:
• Parent ministry: The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
• Aim: To economically empower people belonging to socially backward classes, scheduled castes,
tribes and other disadvantaged sections of the society.
• It will serve individuals from disadvantaged communities, including Scheduled Castes, Backward
Classes, and Safai Karamcharis (sanitation workers).
• Objective: The portal streamlines the process of applying for financial assistance schemes offered
by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
Significance:
• Direct Benefit Transfer: Cuts out middlemen and ensures funds reach beneficiaries directly
through bank accounts.
• Reduced Hassle: Simplifies the application process by offering a centralized online platform.
• Economic Upliftment: Aims to empower marginalized communities by providing capital to start
or expand businesses.
• Social Upliftment: Furthermore, it will also empower these classes not only economically but also
socially.

Q92 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
The first phase of India’s Atmospheric Research Testbed in Central India (ART-CI) was
inaugurated in Sehore district, Madhya Pradesh. Statement I is correct.
About
• It is funded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and will house 25 high-end meteorological
instruments.
• The Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, is in charge of the operations.
• It will study vital cloud processes associated with the monsoons over central India’s Monsoon Core
Zone (MCZ).
Atmospheric Research Testbed (ART)
• The ART is an open-field, focused observational and analytical research programme.
• Aim: To conduct ground-based observations of weather parameters like temperature, wind speeds,
etc. and in-situ (on-site) observations of the transient synoptic systems – like low-pressure areas
and depressions that form in the Bay of Bengal – during the southwest monsoon season from June
to September.

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 • Application of the Study: Studying these systems will be used to generate high volumes of data
over a long period.
• It will be compared with the existing weather models so that improvements can be made to obtain
accurate rainfall predictions.
• The setup at ART will also be used for calibrating and validating various satellite-based
observations, part of weather predictions and forecasting.
• First Phase: Under the first phase, remote sensing-based and in-situ measurements using 25
meteorological instruments have commenced.
• In the second phase, ART will deploy instruments such as a radar wind profiler and balloon-bound
radiosonde, and soil moisture and temperature measuring equipment.
Why is ART Established in Madhya Pradesh?
• The ART has been established at Silkheda, a location that falls directly in line with the path of
major rain-bearing synoptic systems. This will facilitate direct monitoring and tracking.
• The locality is pristine and free of anthropogenic and other pollutants, making it the best site
in central India for setting up sensitive, high-end meteorological instruments and
observatories for recording data. Statement II is correct and also the correct explanation for
Statement I.
Significance of Data about Monsoons over Central India
• Rainfall Forecasts: The India Meteorological Department (IMD) issues rainfall forecasts for the
country’s four homogeneous regions – north, west, east and south peninsular India.
o In addition, it issues a special rainfall forecast for the Monsoon Core Zone (MCZ), which
is considered India’s food bowl.
o However, there is still limited understanding about the role of these synoptic systems,
their associated cloud physics, cloud properties and their overall role in enhancing the
monsoon rainfall.
• Natural Laboratory: Central India, therefore, acts as a natural laboratory for scientists and
meteorologists to perform a study of the Indian monsoons.

Q93 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
Pandavula Gutta, a geological marvel older than the Himalayan hills, has been officially recognised
as the sole Geo-heritage site in Telangana.
Geo-Heritage Sites Located in
1. Pandavula Gutta Telangana
2. Ramgarh Crater Rajasthan
3. Chabimura Tripura
4. Mawmluh Cave Meghalaya

About Pandavula Gutta

• They are older than the Himalayas, famous for ancient rock paintings which depict animals like
bison, antelope, tiger, and leopard, along with geometric designs and symbols like swastikas,
circles, and squares.
• The presence of these paintings suggests the area was inhabited from the Mesolithic period (around
12,000 to 6,000 BCE) up to medieval times.
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About Geo-heritage Sites
• Geo-heritage refers to the geological features which are inherently or culturally significant offering
insight into earth’s evolution or history to earth science or that can be utilized for education.
• In India, the Geological Survey of India (GSI) identifies these special places and designates them
as Geo-Heritage Sites (GHS). This helps protect them. It’s similar to how UNESCO safeguards
world heritage sites around the globe.

Q94 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
A new study led by Bharat Ratna Professor C N R Rao highlights how the atoms within lead iodide
perovskites shift and rearrange during changes in temperature and pressure.
About
• Hybrid perovskites: They are an exciting new class of semiconductor that combine the
advantages of both organic (low cost, solution processable, flexible) and inorganic
semiconductors (high performance, electrical conductivity).
o Lead iodide perovskites are a specific type of hybrid perovskite material with lead (Pb) and
iodide (I) as key components.
o It has good optoelectrical properties which make them excellent solar cell materials. Their energy
conversion efficiency can be higher than even that of commercial silicon-based solar cells.
• A major concern with lead iodide perovskites is their stability. Lead is a toxic element, and the materials
can degrade over time, especially when exposed to moisture or heat.
• The lead iodide perovskite is used in solar cells, LEDs, X-ray shielding, and Energy Storage
Systems.

Q95 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) recently released the report ‘Breaking the
gridlock: Reimagining cooperation in a polarised world’. (Based on data of 2022)
India has moved up a rank on the global Human Development Index (HDI), according to the report.
• While India ranked 135 in 2021, it had moved up to 134 in 2022. Statement 1 is incorrect.
India’s southern neighbour Sri Lanka has been ranked much ahead at 78, while China is ranked 75,
both categorised under the High Human Development category.
• India also ranks below Bhutan that stands at 125 and Bangladesh, which is in the 129th
position. Statement 2 is correct.
• India, Bhutan and Bangladesh are all in the Medium Human Development category.
• Switzerland has been ranked number one.
• Nepal (146) and Pakistan (164) have been ranked lower than India.
India’s life expectancy at birth has slightly improved from 67.2 years in 2021 to 67.7 years in 2022.
Statement 3 is correct.
There is an overall increase (5.88%) in expected years of schooling (EYS) from 11.9 years to 12.6
years, leading to an improvement of 18 places when the EYS aspect was considered. Statement 4 is
correct.

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Q96 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the union Minister of Commerce & Industry joined the Indo-Pacific Economic Framework
for Prosperity (IPEF) Virtual Ministerial Meeting.
About Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity
• It is a regional arrangement to build cooperation and economic integration in the Indo-Pacific
region.
• It was launched in May 2022. Statement 1 is correct.
• This framework is intended to advance resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness, economic growth,
fairness, and competitiveness for member economies.
• IPEF will seek to complement and build on existing regional architecture and support the global
rules-based trading system.
• Member countries: It has 14 regional partners – Australia, Brunei, Fiji, India, Indonesia,
Japan, the Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand,
the United States, and Vietnam.
• The economic framework broadly rests on four pillars: Trade, Supply chain resilience, Clean
Energy, Decarbonization, and Infrastructure Taxes and anti-corruption measures. Statement
2 is correct.
• The IPEF is not a Free Trade Agreement (FTA), but it allows members to negotiate the parts they
want to.
India and IPEF:
• India has been actively participating in the IPEF, but not in all pillars.
• India has decided to opt out of the trade pillar of the IPEF as most issues promoted by the
IPEF do not align with India's trade policies.

Q97 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, SIDBI gets $24.5 million from Green Climate Fund for its Avaana Sustainability Fund.
Avaana Sustainability Fund (ASF)
• ASF is first anchored fund of the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). ASF
is a venture Capital fund.
• Aim: To invest in early-stage climate technology companies
• Project Value: $120 million ASF's strategies include:
o Investing in low-carbon and climate-resilient businesses,
o Adding value for climate and sustainability leaders etc.
About Green Climate Fund
• Formation: The Green Climate Fund (GCF) was formed under the United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change.
o It works as a Financial Mechanism entity, focusing on developing nations’ efforts to adapt
to and mitigate the effects of climate change.
• Headquarters: Incheon, South Korea.

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 • Purpose: To help developing countries reduce greenhouse gas emissions and strengthen their
capacity to respond to climate change.
• Target Countries: The GCF primarily assists developing nations most susceptible to climate
change, such as Least Developed nations (LDCs), Small Island Developing States (SIDS), and
African States.

Q98 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
• Lepidolite is a rare lithium-rich mica mineral that is usually pink, red or purple in colour.
Statement 1 is correct.
• It is the most common lithium-bearing mineral and serves as a minor ore of lithium metal,
with rubidium and caesium sometimes being by-products. Statement 2 is correct.
• It is a member of the common mica group and economically important as a major source of lithium.
• It is a hard rock ore that is relatively expensive for producing lithium.
• Since it contains appreciable amounts of rubidium, it is useful in determining geological age
according to strontium–rubidium ratios.

Q99 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently Finland joined the DIANA Initiative of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO).
DIANA – Defence Innovation Accelerator for the North Atlantic.
• It aims to address future challenges in defence and security by harnessing technological solutions.
• It is an initiative of North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO).
• It seeks to accelerate the development and deployment of innovative solutions with applications in
both civil and defence sectors.
• DIANA has a network of more than 200 affiliated accelerator sites and test centres.
• All NATO nations are members of DIANA.
• The DIANA Board of Directors is responsible for governance and comprises representatives from
every Allied country.
• DIANA accelerator programme – Aimed at helping companies and countries develop deep
technologies and innovations applicable to both commercial and defence sectors.

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Q100 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
US Army ships have sailed from Virginia with equipment to build a floating pier on the Gaza coast
to deliver humanitarian aid to the enclave.
Joint Logistics Over-the-Shore (JLOTS):
• JLOTS – It is the project to build the floating pier on the Gaza coast.
• Pier is a large wooden or metal structure that is built out into the sea from the land.
• Boats can stop at piers so that people or goods can be taken on or off.
• JLOTS is the American solution to deal with hunger and an impending famine in Gaza.
• JLOTS capabilities are used to transport cargo by sea when one or more ports cannot be operated
or are not available for loading or unloading.
• Usually, JLOTS is part of a military campaign or exercise, such operations usually involve
joint operations by the forces.
• The navy transports the goods and provides protection, the army or other agencies are involved in
building the last mile bridge, delivery, etc.
• The floating pier in Gaza will be built with no US boots on the ground.
• The US will take the help of the private company Fogbow, which is run by former military and
intelligence officials.

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 April 2024 & April 2023 Current Affairs Multiple Choice Questions
1. What does the Saffir-Simpson scale, recently seen in news, primarily measure?
a) Earthquake intensity
b) Volcanic eruption magnitude
c) Hurricane strength
d) None of the above
2. Consider the following statements regarding Election Commission's guidelines for carrying cash
during Model Code of Conduct:
1. Unexplained cash over Rs 50,000 can be confiscated by the authority.
2. If the individual can provide valid documents and declare that the seized items are not related
to the elections, they will be returned.
3. If the seized cash amount exceeds Rs 10 lakh, it will be forwarded to the Income Tax
Department for further investigation.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
3. Consider the following statements regarding Organic Electrochemical Transistor:
1. It is a device capable of simultaneously controlling the flow of electronic and ionic currents.
2. It can be used to create biosensors, wearable devices, and neuromorphic systems.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. What does a Punnett Square, sometimes seen in news, illustrate?
a) Genetic variation within a population.
b) Patterns of inheritance for a specific trait.
c) Evolutionary relationships among species.
d) Chromosomal abnormalities in offspring.
5. Consider the following statements regarding water regulatory bodies and their primary role:
1. Central Ground Water Board (CGWB): It aims to regulate and control development and
management of ground water resources in the country.
2. Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA): It is entrusted with the responsibilities of providing
scientific inputs for management of ground water resources of the country.
3. Central Water Commission (CWC): It Initiates and coordinates the schemes introduced by the
Ministry of Jal Shakti.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) All three d) None

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6. Consider the following statements regarding Swell Waves:
1. A swell is the formation of long wavelength waves on the sea's surface.
2. They generally occur due to the presence of local winds.
3. In India early warning systems like the Swell Surge Forecast System launched by the Indian
National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) in 2020.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
7. Consider the following statements regarding State Borrowings:
1. Article 293 mentions how a state can borrow money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. The executive power of a state extends to borrowing within the territory of India upon the
security of the state's Consolidated Fund.
3. Article 293(3) requires states to obtain the Centre's consent to borrow if the state is indebted
to the Centre.
4. Every state is currently indebted to the Centre and all require the Centre's consent to borrow.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
8. Clean Energy Transitions Programme, recently seen in news is an initiative of which of the following
organization?
a) International Energy Agency (IEA).
b) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
c) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
d) International Solar Alliance (ISA).
9. Recently, 'Hume AI' was in the news. What distinguishes Hume AI among other artificial intelligence
systems?
a) Its ability to create complex visual artworks based on user input.
b) Being the first AI to achieve self-awareness through continuous learning.
c) Providing real-time emotional analysis and responses to live audio input.
d) Specializing in natural language processing for legal document analysis.
10. Consider the following:
GI Tag products Associated State
1. Sarthebari Maharashtra
metal craft
2. Matabari Peda Tripura
3. Larnai Black Gujarat
Pottery
4. Pani Meteka Assam
craft

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 How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
11. Consider the following rivers:
1. Pennar
2. Pampa
3. Palar
4. Periyar
5. Ponnaiyar
How many of the above given rivers are East flowing?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
12. Consider the following statements regarding National Information System for Climate and
Environment Studies (NICES) programme:
1. It envisages realisation of national level climate database generation.
2. It is operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Department of Space.
3. It works under the framework of the National Action Plan on Climate Change to invite Indian
researchers to join in combating climate change.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
13. What is the term "bridge fuel" commonly associated with in energy discussions?
a) A type of renewable energy derived from wind and solar sources.
b) Fossil fuels that are heavily subsidized by governments for energy production.
c) A type of fuel used exclusively in the construction industry for bridge building projects.
d) None of the above
14. Consider the following statements regarding Negative leap second:
1. It is a second that is subtracted from our clocks to keep them in sync with the Earth's rotation.
2. Till date no negative leap second has introduced.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. Consider the following statements regarding Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT):
1. It was first introduced in India in the 2014 Lok Sabha elections.
2. VVPAT can be accessed by the polling officials, but not by the voters.
3. Recently, the Supreme Court has directed the Election Commission to count the VVPAT slips
from all the polling booths.
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 How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
16. Recently the term "Zero FIR" (First Information Report) was in news. What does it refer to in the
context of law enforcement?
a) An FIR filed without delay in any police station regardless of the jurisdiction of the crime.
b) A legal provision allowing individuals to file multiple FIRs for the same incident in different
jurisdictions.
c) A protocol followed by law enforcement agencies for handling cases with no evidence or
witnesses.
d) None of the above.
17. The Reserve Bank of India is considering bringing 'Digital India Trust Agency' for which one of the
following purposes?
a) To promote digital payment in small cities
b) To subsidies UPI and RuPay payment methods
c) To promote Digital literacy
d) To combat cyber fraud and illegal lending apps
18. Consider the following statements regarding Tornadoes:
1. It is caused by the collision of warm and moist air with dry and cool air in the presence of a
low-pressure system.
2. It occurs most commonly on continents in the mid-latitudes between 20 and 60 degrees north
and south.
3. Tornadoes are the most common in the United States, Argentina and Bangladesh.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
19. Consider the following statements regarding Tidally locked planet:
Statement I - On a tidally locked planet, one side is always facing a star while the other is cloaked
in perpetual darkness.
Statement II - It happens when the rotation period of the planet around its own axis becomes equal
to its revolution period around the star.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-l is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

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20. Consider the following statements regarding Carbon fibre:
1. It is a material consisting of thin, strong crystalline filaments of carbon.
2. It has high-temperature tolerance with special resins and consists of low thermal expansion.
3. At present India is one of the largest producers of carbon fibre.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
21. People of Indus Valley Civilization were involved in foreign trade. Consider the following trade centres
with which they exchanged products and goods:
Places Located in
1. Tepe Yahya Iran
2. Umm-an-Nar UAE
3. Mundigak Pakistan
4. Bampur Valley Afghanistan
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
22. Consider the following statements regarding Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021:
1. The couple is deemed eligible if they have been married for ten years, the wife is aged between
23-50 years and the husband is between 26-55 years.
2. A surrogate mother must not have any relation to the couple and she should be a married
woman having a child of her own.
3. The Centre and State governments will constitute a National Surrogacy Board (NSB) and State
Surrogacy Boards (SSB).
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
23. India's Pratyush Telescope is among the telescopes that astronomers are considering to put around
the moon. What is the purpose of the PRATUSH Telescope?
a) To observe the Earth's atmosphere and weather patterns.
b) To study the geological features of the Moon's surface.
c) To investigate the reionization of the universe using signals from hydrogen.
d) To monitor space debris and asteroids near Earth's orbit.

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24. For what are Azotobacter, Beijerinckia, and Clostridium known?
a) They are known for their ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form for plants.
b) They are known as causative agents of foodborne illnesses.
c) They are known for their role in decomposition and recycling of organic matter.
d) They are known for their production of antibiotics.
25. Recently, the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platforms (C-CAMP) in Bengaluru has developed a
new platform called OptiDrop. In this context consider the following statements regarding OptiDrop
Platform:
1. It is an innovative microfluidic chip-based platform that simplifies and reduces the cost of
studying single cells.
2. It has potential applications in diagnostics, therapeutics, agriculture, and animal health.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Nuclear Power Reactors:
1. Nuclear power reactors emit huge amounts of Greenhouse Gasses (GHGs) and Liquid wastes
while operating.
2. The volumes of liquid waste generated at boiling-water reactors (BWRs) are significantly higher
than at pressurised water reactors (PWRs).
3. Bituminization technique is widely used to manage liquid waste generated at nuclear power
plants.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
27. Consider the following:
1. Sulu Sea
2. East China Sea
3. Yellow Sea
4. South China Sea
5. Luzon Strait
How many of the above given water bodies surround Taiwan?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five

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28. Recently, Paira cropping system was in news. Which of the following best describes it?
a) Single-crop cultivation.
b) Sequential cropping of two or more crops in a repeated pattern.
c) Crop rotation within a single season.
d) Intercropping without any specific pattern.
29. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission's power of 'allotment of
election symbols to political parties':
1. The Election Commission of India provides election symbols to National parties for their
exclusive nationwide use.
2. According to the Election Emblems (Reservation and Allotment) Order of 1968, parties are
prohibited from using emblems with religious or communal overtones.
3. Rule 10B of the Symbols Order provides that the concession of a common free symbol shall be
available to a registered unrecognised party for two general elections.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
30. Which of the following statements accurately describes Project Akashteer?
a) It is a project aimed at enhancing naval surveillance systems.
b) It focuses on improving agricultural practices in rural areas.
c) It is an initiative designed to automate air defence control and reporting processes.
d) It aims to develop advanced communication technologies for space exploration.
31. Recently, 'S.A.R.A.H (Smart AI Resource Assistant for Health)' system was unveiled by which one
of the following?
a) Doctors Without Borders
b) European Union
c) World Health Organization (WHO)
d) Indian Council of Medical Research
32. Consider the following statements regarding the Exchange Traded Currency Derivatives (ETCDs):
1. It is a standardized financial contract that is traded in stock exchanges in a regulated manner.
2. They are subject to the rules framed by Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
33. Consider the following statements regarding Well known Trademarks:
1. Well-known trademarks are governed under the purview of separate executive order unlike
other trademarks which are governed by the Trademarks Act, 1999.
2. They can only be licensed and not franchised to others.
3. The Registrar of Trade Marks maintains a list of well-known trademarks of only Indian
trademarks.

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 How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
34. Consider the following statements regarding Essential Medicines:
1. Essential medicines are those that satisfy the priority healthcare needs of the majority of the
population.
2. In India, The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare prepared the first National List of Essential
Medicines (NLEM) in 1996.
3. Drug Price Control Order, 2013 was issued by the Department of Pharmaceuticals under
Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers for fixing the ceiling price of medicines included in NLEM.
4. The first country in the world to compose its Essential Medicines List was Tanzania in 1970.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
35. Consider the following statements regarding Agni-Prime Ballistic Missile:
1. It is a two-stage, surface-to-surface and liquid-fuelled medium-range ballistic missile.
2. It was successfully flight-tested by the Strategic Forces Command (SFC) along with the DRDO.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
36. Consider the following countries:
1. Poland
2. Slovakia
3. Hungary
4. Moldova
5. Bulgaria
How many of the above shares a land boundary with Romania?
a) Only two b) Only three
c) Only four d) All five
37. Recently, the term 'Electroencephalogram (EEG)' was in news. For which of the following purpose
is it primarily used?
a) Monitoring heart rate.
b) Assessing lung function.
c) Measuring brain electrical activity.
d) Analysing muscle movements.

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38. Which of the following best describes the term 'Arrokoth', recently seen in news?
a) A newly discovered species of deep-sea fish.
b) A volcanic island in the Pacific Ocean.
c) An asteroid located in the asteroid belt.
d) None of the above.
39. Consider the following statements regarding Lunar time:
1. As there is less gravity on the Moon, time ticks slightly faster there relative to the time on the
Earth.
2. On Moon, an Earth-based clock loses on average 58.7 microseconds per Earth Day.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Post offices in Antarctica:
1. In 1984 India established its first-ever post office at Dakshin Gangotri.
2. In 1990 a new post office branch was opened at India's Maitri research station in Antarctica.
3. Both fell under the purview of the Goa Postal Division.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
41. Recently terms like 'deposition', 'lithography', 'etching' and 'ionisation' were in news. These are
related to the manufacturing process of which of the following?
a) Optical fibres
b) Semiconductor chip
c) Liquid-mirror telescope
d) Carbon fibre
42. Which of the following best describes the term "gape limitation", sometimes seen in news?
a) The maximum size of an organism's mouth opening.
b) The minimum distance between individuals in a population.
c) The amount of food a predator can consume in one feeding session.
d) The range of habitats an organism can occupy.
43. Consider the following statements regarding Onion production in India:
1. India is the second largest onion-growing country in the world.
2. Indian onions have one crop cycle which starts from November to January.
3. Karnataka is the highest onion producing state of India.
4. As per 2022-23 data major export destinations include Bangladesh, Malaysia, UAE, Sri Lanka,
Nepal and Indonesia.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) Only three d) All four
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44. Consider the following:
Tribes Associated State/UT
1. Changpa Arunachal Pradesh
Tribe
2. Jenu Kuruba Gujarat
Tribe
3. Siddi Tribe Himachal Pradesh
4. Tharu Tribe Uttar Pradesh
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
45. Consider the following statements regarding Oceanic Nino Index:
1. It tracks the running 6-month average sea surface temperatures in the east-central tropical
Pacific near the International Dateline.
2. Index values of +0.5 or higher indicate El Nino and values of -0.5 or lower indicate La Nina.
Which of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. Glycaemic Index (GI), recently seen in news, used to measure which of the following?
a) The amount of glucose in a food item.
b) The level of insulin response to a food item.
c) The rate at which a food raises blood sugar levels.
d) The energy content of a food item.
47. Consider the following statements regarding Electronic Trading Platforms (ETP):
1. In India no entity operates an ETP without obtaining prior authorisation of SEBI under The
Electronic Trading Platforms Directions, 2018.
2. ETPs authorised shall host transactions only in instruments approved by the Reserve Bank of
India.
3. An entity seeking authorisation as an ETP operator shall maintain a minimum net-worth of
Rs.5 crore.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

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48. Consider the following statements regarding impact of Earth's Polar Vortex on weather patterns:
1. When it is strong, the polar jet stream tends to stay farther south with more meandering.
2. A strong vortex can result in extreme cold snaps, snowstorms, and other winter weather events
in areas like North America, Europe, and Asia.
3. When it weakens it allows warm air to flood into the Arctic.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are incorrect ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
49. Consider the following statements regarding the peace clause under the World Trade Organization
(WTO):
Statement I - It was established at the Bali ministerial meeting in December 2013.
Statement II - Under the clause, developing nations face legal action from other members if they
exceed the 10 per cent ceiling on subsidy programs.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I.
c) Statement-I correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
50. Consider the following statements regarding U.N. Membership Process:
1. Any recommendation for admission must receive the affirmative votes of 9 of the 15 members
of the Security Council and none of its P5 members have voted against the application.
2. If the Council recommends admission, the recommendation is presented to the General
Assembly for consideration.
3. A two-thirds majority vote is necessary in the Assembly for admission of a new State.
How many of the above given statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
51. Consider the following:
Historic Buddhist Associated
Site State
1. Phanigiri Chhattisgarh
2. Sannati Karnataka
3. Sankisa Madhya Pradesh
4. Lalitgiri Bihar
How many of the above given pair(s) is/are incorrectly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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52. Recently, 'TSAT-1A' satellite was in the news for which one of the following reasons?
a) It is the first Indian satellite to be launched by a private company's rocket.
b) It is the first military spy satellite to be made by a private company in India.
c) It is the first positioning satellite to be launched for a private company in India.
d) It is the first satellite to be launched for research purposes by any research institute in India.
53. Recently C-Dome was in news. Which of the following best describes it?
a) A marine conservation initiative aimed at protecting coral reefs.
b) An advanced missile defence system.
c) A satellite navigation system for commercial aircraft.
d) A deep-sea exploration submarine designed for scientific research.
54. Consider the following countries:
1. Angola
2. South Africa
3. Namibia
4. Kenya
5. Zimbabwe
How many of the above given countries share the land boundary with Botswana?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
55. Consider the following countries:
1. Iran
2. Iraq
3. Russia
4. Georgia
How many of the above countries border Azerbaijan?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
56. With reference to Akash weapon system, consider the following statements:
1. AKASH is a Short Range Air to Air Missile system.
2. It was planned and developed as part of India's Integrated Guided-Missile Development
Program (IGMDP).
3. AKASH Weapon System can simultaneously engage Multiple Targets in Group Mode or
Autonomous Mode.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

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57. Consider the following countries:
1. Russia
2. China
3. India
4. Kyrgyzstan
5. Pakistan
6. Uzbekistan
How many of the above are part of SCO?
a) Only three
b) Only four
c) Only five
d) All six
58. Consider the following Ramsar sites and their locations:
1. Ropar: Punjab
2. Sur sarovar: Gujrat
3. Pong dam lake: Jammu and Kashmir
How many of the above statements is/are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
59. With reference to National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), consider the following statements:
1. It was constituted "for the purpose of special response to a threatening disaster situation or
disaster" under the Disaster Management Act, 2005.
2. It comes under the Ministry of Defence.
3. The Chairman of the NDMA is the President.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
60. Consider the following statements regarding the International Day of Zero Waste:
1. It was celebrated on 30th April, 2023.
2. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and UN Human Settlements Programme
(UN-Habitat) established the day in response to the worsening impacts of waste on human
health, the economy and the environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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61. Consider the following tiger reserves:
1. Kamlang
2. Pakke
3. Manas
4. Kaziranga
5. Namdapha
6. Dampa
How many of the above tiger reserves are found in Arunachal Pradesh?
a) Only three
b) Only four
c) Only five
d) All six
62. Consider the following statements regarding the rare earth elements:
1. Rare earth elements are a set of twenty-seven metallic elements in the periodic table.
2. They are characterized by high density, high melting point, high conductivity, and high thermal
conductance like cerium (Ce), dysprosium (Dy), erbium (Er), etc.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
63. With reference to NATO, consider the following statements:
1. NATO is a Western defensive military alliance led by the United States.
2. Recently, Finland became its 32nd member.
3. It follows the collective defence principles and routinely undertakes exercises to strengthen its
territorial, naval, and air forces.
How many of the above statements is/are correct ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
64. With reference to UN Statistical Commission, consider the following statements:
1. It is the highest body of the global statistical system bringing together the Chief Statisticians
from member states from around the world.
2. The term of office of members is five years.
3. India is a member.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

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65. Cognyte term is sometimes seen in the news. What is it related to?
a) Spyware
b) Anti- warfare system
c) Drone technology
d) None of these
66. Consider the following countries:
1. India
2. USA
3. South Africa
4. Turkey
5. Argentina
6. Mexico
How many of the above are a part of G20 group?
a) Only three
b) Only four
c) Only five
d) All six
67. Consider the following statements regarding the Reusable Launch Vehicle Autonomous Landing
Mission:
1. ISRO's RLV-TD looks like an aircraft and consists of a fuselage, a nose cap, double delta wings,
and twin vertical tails.
2. The RLV-TD will be used to develop technologies like hypersonic flight (HEX), autonomous
landing (LEX), return flight experiment (REX) and powered cruise flight.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
68. Consider the following countries:
1. Romania
2. Russia
3. Bulgaria
4. Turkey
5. Ukraine
6. Moldova
How many of the above countries border the Black Sea?
a) Only three b) Only four
c) Only five d) All six
69. Consider the following tiger reserves:
1. Bandipur
2. Nagarhole
3. Dandeli Anshi
4. Kawal
5. Amrabad

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 How many of the above are found in Karnataka?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
70. Consider the following:
Statement I: India is not a part of Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific
Partnership.
Statement II: India did not join as it seeks to place greater labor and environmental standards on
its other partners and CPTPP draft includes narrowly detailed qualifications on standards for
investment protection.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both statements I and II are correct, and statement II is the correct explanation for statement
I
b) Both statements I and II are correct, and statement II is not the correct explanation for
statement I
c) Statement I is correct, and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement II is correct, and Statement I is incorrect
71. Consider the following GI Tags:
1. Chak hai- Manipur
2. Kandhamal Haldi- Odisha
3. Telia Rumai- Telangana
4. Kolhapuri chappal- Maharashtra
How many of the above pairs is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
72. Consider the following statements regarding the Mahila Samman Savings Certificate:
1. It is a one-time small savings scheme for women to commemorate celebrations of 75 years of
Independence.
2. It will be made available for a three-year period up to March 2025.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
73. SNAP-10A is sometimes seen in the news. What is it related to ?
a) Nuclear reactor in space
b) Anti- warfare submarine
c) Cruise missile
d) Cyber attack

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74. Consider the following countries:
1. Bolivia
2. Brazil
3. Argentina
How many of the above countries is are a part of the Lithium triangle?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of these
75. Consider the following statements:
1. It is located in the Eravikulam and Idukki districts of Kerala.
2. It hosts South India's highest peak, Anamudi.
3. It is famous for Nilgiri tahr.
The above-mentioned statements refer to which one of the following National Park in India?
a) Eravikulam National Park
b) Silent valley National Park
c) Mudumalai National Park
d) None of these
76. Consider the following statements regarding the GSAT-7B satellite:
1. It is a remote sensing satellite deployed for the Indian army
2. It is a geostationary satellite.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
77. Consider the following statements regarding the Prepaid payment instruments:
1. PPIs are instruments that facilitate purchase of goods and services, conduct of financial
services, enable remittance facilities, etc., against the value stored therein.
2. Prepaid payment instruments' examples include smart cards, online accounts, online wallets,
stripe cards, paper vouchers, etc.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
78. Consider the following joint exercises conducted by the Indian army?
1. Shakti- France
2. Ekuverin- Maldives
3. Surya kiran- Nepal
4. Indra- Russia

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 How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) Only three d) All four
79. With reference to seed banks, consider the following statements:
1. Seed banks are important repositories of plant genetic resources.
2. They store seeds of different plant varieties, which are conserved to maintain their genetic
diversity and to preserve their ability to adapt to changing environmental conditions.
3. The aim of the seed bank is to supply native saplings for the city and reintroduce species that
have become rare or hard to locate.
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
80. Consider the following:
1. Vembanad lake
2. Kayamkulam lagoon
3. Ashtamudi lake
4. Paravur lake
Which of the following is the correct north to south arrangement of the above?
a) 2-4-3-1
b) 2-4-1-3
c) 1-2-3-4
d) 1-2-4-3
81. Consider the following GI tags:
1. Nagri Dubraj Rice: Chattisgarh
2. Basohli Painting: Jammu
3. Banarasi paan: UP
4. Langda mango: UP
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
82. Amogha-III is sometimes seen in the news. What is it related to?
a) Indigenous missile
b) Underwater Submarine
c) Radar system
d) None of these
83. With reference to National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA), consider the following statements:
1. It works under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
2. Its Objective is to continuously improve the quality of all corporate financial reporting in India.
3. It recommends accounting and auditing policies and standards to be adopted by companies for
approval by the Central Government.

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 How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
84. With reference to Organisation of Islamic Cooperation, consider the following statements:
1. It is the second largest intergovernmental organization after the United Nations (UN).
2. It has a membership of 57 states.
3. India is a member of OIC.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
85. Consider the following countries:
1. Iran
2. Saudi Arabia
3. Iraq
4. India
5. USA
6. Venezuela
How many of the above are the part of OPEC+?
a) Only three
b) Only four
c) Only five
d) All six
86. Consider the following:
1. Subansiri
2. Dinang
3. Lohit
4. Manas
How many of the above are the tributaries of Brahmaputra?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) Only three d) All four
87. World Energy Transitions Outlook report is released by which of the following International
Organisation?
a) International Renewable Energy Agency
b) World Meteorological Organisation
c) World Economic Forum
d) United Nations

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88. Consider the following regarding India Justice Report 2022:
1. It was initiated by Tata Trusts in 2019.
2. This report is based on overall data of 4 pillars of justice delivery namely Police, Judiciary,
Prisons, and Legal Aid.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
89. With reference to International Conference on Disaster Resilient Infrastructure 2023, consider the
following statements:
1. It is the annual conference of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) and its
partners.
2. It is hosted by India in 2023.
3. It brings together member Countries, organizations, institutions and infrastructure actors and
stakeholders to strengthen the global discourse on disaster and climate-resilient
infrastructure.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
90. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary: Goa
2. Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary: Rajasthan.
3. Chilka Lake Bird Sanctuary: Odisha.
4. Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary: Kerala
How many of the above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
91. Consider the following passes:
1. Nathula
2. Jelep la
3. Bomdi la
4. Bum la
How many of the above passes are in Sikkim?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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92. Consider the following statements regarding the first-ever significant anti-spyware declaration:
1. The declaration seeks to realize the importance of stringent domestic and international controls
on the proliferation and use of anti-spyware technology.
2. India is a part of this declaration.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
93. Consider the following organizations:
1. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
2. International Development Association (IDA)
3. International Finance Corporation (IFC).
4. Multilateral Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
5. International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)
How many of the above are part of the World Bank group?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five
94. Which of the following Tiger Reserves are correctly matched?
1. Parambikulam tiger reserve: Tamil nadu
2. Bor tiger reserve: Maharashtra
3. Sanjay dhubri: Madhya pradesh
4. Anamalai: Kerala
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Only one b) Only two
c) Only three d) All four
95. Senkaku islands are sometimes seen in the news. They are in conflict between which two countries?
a) Russia and Japan
b) China and Japan
c) South Korea and North Korea
d) None of these
96. Consider the following statements regarding gravitational waves:
1. When two massive objects collide, they create a ripple in space and time called gravitational
waves which propagate in all directions away from the source.
2. Predicted in Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, they travel at the speed of light, carrying
with them information about their origins.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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97. Consider the following countries:
1. Brazil
2. Russia
3. China
4. Saudi Arabia
How many of the above countries are a part of BRICS?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four
98. With reference to the Extended Range Anti-Submarine Rocket (ER-ASR), consider the following
statements:
1. It is designed by DRDO.
2. It is designed to intercept submarines at specific depths.
3. ER-ASR can be fired in single or in salvo mode depending on the tactical mission requirements.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None
99. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian space policy 2023:
Statement I: It seeks to institutionalize the private sector participation in the space sector, with
ISRO focusing on research and development of advanced space technologies.
Statement II: The policy will allow the private sector to take part in end-to-end space activities that
include building satellites, rockets and launch vehicles, data collection and dissemination.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
a) Both statements I and II are correct, and statement II is the correct explanation for statement
I
b) Both statements I and II are correct, and statement II is not the correct explanation for
statement I
c) Statement I is correct, and Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement II is correct, and Statement I is incorrect
100. Chukha, Kurichhu and Tala Hydroelectric projects are sometimes seen in the news. India has
constructed these projects in which of the following country?
a) Nepal b) Myanmar
c) Bhutan d) Vietnam

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 April 2024 & April 2023 Current Affairs Key and Explanations
Q1 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
• The Saffir-Simpson (SS) hurricane wind scale is the most widely used metric for warning the
public about the dangers of tropical cyclones introduced in 1970.
• The SS hurricane wind scales are categorised by the maximum sustained wind speed at a
height of 10 metres.
Categories
• 74-95 mph: Very dangerous winds will produce some damage
• 96-110 mph: Extremely dangerous winds will cause extensive damage
• 111-129 mph: Devastating damage will occur
• 130-156 mph: Catastrophic damage will occur
• 157 mph or higher: Catastrophic damage will occur
This scale does not take into account other potentially deadly hazards such as storm surge, rainfall
flooding, and tornadoes.

Q2 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
What are EC's guidelines for carrying cash during MCC?
• All movement of Indian currency or foreign exchange should be effected by the person(s)
authorised who should carry the supporting documents while moving the cash. The movement
should be on the basis of requisition made by the receiver and to the address of the destination.
• The poll body advised people not to carry cash of Rs 50,000 and more without supporting
documents.
• Unexplained cash over Rs 50,000 will be confiscated by the authority
• Seizures over Rs 10 lakh will be referred to the Income Tax Department (IT).
• If the cash is being moved from the office/branch of the Authorised Person (AP); it should leave
the place only after it has been recorded in the books of accounts of the AP.
• Similarly, if the destination point of movement of the currency is the office/branch of the AP, it
should be recorded in the books of accounts of the AP, on the same day or on the date of receipt.
• Transfer of foreign currency between branches of the same AP should be accounted as stock
transfer and not as sale so that double counting is avoided.
• The movement of cash should be in sync with the documents.
• According to the Election Commission of India (ECI), any individual found carrying cash
exceeding Rs 50,000 or new items worth over Rs 10,000 will be seized. This measure has been
put in place to prevent the misuse of cash for electoral influence. Statement 1 is correct.
• If the individual can provide valid documents and declare that the seized items are not related
to the elections, they will be returned. Statement 2 is correct.
• However, if the seized cash amount exceeds Rs 10 lakh, it will be forwarded to the Income
Tax Department for further investigation. Statement 3 is correct.

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Q3 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
Researchers at Northwestern University recently outlined a new strategy to fabricate high-density
and mechanically flexible Organic Electrochemical Transistor (OECTs).
About Organic Electrochemical Transistor:
• It is an emerging class of transistor based on organic superconducting materials known for
their ability to modulate electrical current in response to small changes in the voltage applied
to their gate electrode.
• It is a device capable of simultaneously controlling the flow of electronic and ionic currents.
Statement 1 is correct.
• Advantages: They have various notable advantages, including promising amplification and sensing
capabilities, low power consumption, low driving voltages and a versatile structure.
• Applications: They can be used to create biosensors, wearable devices, and neuromorphic
systems. Statement 2 is correct.
What is a transistor?
• It is a semiconductor device for amplifying, controlling, and generating electrical signals.
• It is the active components of integrated circuits, or “microchips,” which often contain billions of
these minuscule devices etched into their shiny surfaces.
There are three terminals for transistor as mentioned below:
1. Base: To activate the transistor
2. Collector: It is a positive lead of transistor
3. Emitter: It is a negative lead of transistor
Types of Transistors
• Bipolar Junction Transistor: It is considered one of the most common types of transistors and it can
be either NPN or PNP.
o It can able to amplify the electrical signal by joining all three layers into one. In current flow,
there are two types of electrical charges involved i.e., electrons and holes.
• Field effect transistor: It is a three-terminal semiconductor device. Its operation is based on a
controlled input voltage.
o It uses an electric field to control the field of electric current in a semiconductor.
o They are also known as unipolar transistors since they contain single-carrier-type operations.

Q4 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context:
Punnett squares are a way to predict the possible genetic outcomes of the offspring when two
individuals with known genotypes are crossed.
About:
• The Punnett Square is named after British geneticist Reginald Punnett.
• Along the top and side of the grid, the possible genetic traits of one parent on one side and the other
parent on the other side are listed. Then these squares are filled by combining the traits from each
parent.

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 • Each square effectively represents a possible combination of traits that their offspring could inherit.
It’s a simple way to visualise the probabilities of different traits showing up in the offspring.
• A Punnett Square is a useful tool that helps predict the variations and probabilities resulting
from cross-breeding.

Q5 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context:
There is only enough water to fill 23% of the holding capacity in all of South India’s reservoirs,
Central Water Commission data.
Central Water Commission (CWC)
• CWC was earlier known as Central Waterways, Irrigation and Navigation Commission (CWINC).
• It was established in 1945 by the Government on the advice of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Member in
Viceroy’s Executive Council.
• The organization currently functions as an office attached to the Ministry of Jal Shakti, under the
Department of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation.
The work of the Commission is divided among 3 wings namely:
• Designs and Research (D&R) Wing
• River Management (RM) Wing
• Water Planning and Projects (WP&P) Wing
Role – Initiate and Coordinate the schemes introduced by the Ministry of Jal Shakti. Statement 3 is
correct.
Functions –
• Technical Appraisal of Irrigation Projects.
• Management and Control of Floods.
• Checking Financial Feasibility and Economic Viability of Different Irrigation Projects.
Central Groundwater Board (CGWB)
• Central Ground Water Board (CGWB) is the National Apex Agency, a subordinate office of the
Ministry of Water Resources, Government of India.
• It is entrusted with the responsibilities of providing scientific inputs for management,
exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation and regulation of ground water resources
of the country. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Central Ground Water Board was established in 1970 by renaming the Exploratory Tube wells
Organization under the Ministry of Agriculture, Government of India.
• It was merged with the Ground Water Wing of the Geological Survey of India during 1972.
• Central Ground Water Board is a multi-disciplinary scientific organization consisting of
Hydrogeologists, Geophysicists, Chemists, Hydrologists, Hydro meteorologists and Engineers.
• Headquarters – Haryana.
Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA)
• Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment
(Protection) Act, 1986.
• CGWA aims to regulate and control development and management of ground water
resources in the country. Statement 2 is incorrect.

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Activities –
• Macro/micro level groundwater management studies.
• Exploratory drilling programme.
• Monitoring of groundwater levels and water quality through.
• Implementation of demonstrative schemes for artificial recharge and rainwater harvesting for
recharge augmentation.

Q6 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, swell waves inundated coastal areas in central and southern districts of Kerala.
About Swell Waves
• A swell is the formation of long wavelength waves on the surface of the seas. These are
composed of a series of surface gravity waves. Statement 1 is correct.
Formation:
• They occur not due to the local winds, but rather due to distant storms like hurricanes, or
even long periods of fierce gale winds. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• During such storms, huge energy transfer takes place from the air into the water, leading to the
formation of very high waves. Such waves can travel thousands of kilometres from the storm centre
until they strike shore.
Features
• Swells have a narrower range of frequencies and directions than locally generated wind
waves, because swell waves have dispersed from their generation area, have dissipated and
therefore lost an amount of randomness, taking on a more defined shape and direction.
• These waves can propagate in directions that differ from the direction of the wind, in contrast
to a wind sea.
• Their wavelengths may rarely exceed more than 150 m. Swell wavelength, also, varies from event
to event. Occasionally, swells which are longer than 700 m occur as a result of the most severe
storms.
• It occurs without precursors or any kind of local wind activity and as a result.
In India early warning systems like the Swell Surge Forecast System launched by the Indian National
Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) in 2020. Statement 3 is correct.

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Q7 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context:
On Monday, the Supreme Court refused to give Kerala relief in its case against the Centre over net
borrowing limits.
• Article 293 mentions how a state can borrow money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Statement 1 is correct.
• The executive power of a State extends to borrowing within the territory of India upon the
security of the Consolidated Fund of the State within such limits and to the giving of
guarantees within such limits, if any, as may be so fixed.” Statement 2 is correct.
• Article 293(3) of the Constitution requires states to obtain the Centre’s consent to borrow if
the state is indebted to the Centre over a previous loan. Statement 3 is correct.
• In practice, the Centre has been exercising this power in accordance with the recommendations of
the Finance Commission. Every state is currently indebted to the Centre, and thus, all require
the Centre’s consent to borrow. Statement 4 is correct.

Q8 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the International Energy Agency (IEA) launched the Clean Energy Transitions
Programme annual report 2023.
Clean Energy Transitions Programme
• It is the IEA’s flagship initiative launched in 2017 for accelerating progress toward a global
net zero energy system.
• It leverages the insights and influence of the world’s leading energy authority to accelerate clean
energy transitions, particularly in emerging and developing economies.
• Its goals are in line with the objectives of the 2015 Paris Agreement and the Sustainable
Development Goals established by the United Nations.
International Energy Agency (IEA)
• It is an autonomous inter-governmental organisation within the OECD framework.
• It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all.
• It was founded in 1974 to ensure the security of oil supplies.
• It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers
pushed prices to historic levels and exposed the vulnerability of industrialised countries to
dependency on oil imports.
• It consists of 31 member countries and eleven association countries.
• A candidate country to the IEA must be a member country of the Organisation for Economic Co-
operation and Development (OECD).

Q9 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, a New York-based research lab and technology company Hume, has introduced what can
be called the ‘first conversational AI with emotional intelligence’.

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About Hume AI:
• It is the world’s first emotionally intelligent voice AI. It accepts live audio input and returns
both generated audio and transcripts augmented with measures of vocal expression.
• It is essentially an API that is powered by its proprietary empathic large language model (e-LLM).
This e-LLM reportedly understands and emulates tones of voices and word emphasis to optimise
human-AI conversations.
• It is trained on human reactions to optimize for positive expressions like happiness and satisfaction.
EVI will continue to learn from users’ reactions.
• By processing the tune, rhythm and timbre of speech, EVI unlocks a variety of new capabilities,
like knowing when to speak and generating more empathic language with the right tone of voice.

Q10 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Over 60 products from across India earn GI tags. This is the first time such a large number of
Geographical Indication (GI) Tags have been given at a go.
Sarthebari metal craft: Assam. Pair 1 is incorrect.
• Sarthebari is home to the bell metal industry, the second largest handicraft of Assam.
• Bell metal is an alloy of copper and tin and utensils made from it are used for domestic and religious
purposes.
Pani Meteka craft: Assam. Pair 4 is correct.
• It is crafted from Water Hyacinth.
• Water hyacinth is a free-floating perennial aquatic plant (hydrophyte).
GI Tags from Tripura:
• Pachra-Rignai; Matabari Peda. Pair 2 is correct.

GI Tags from Meghalaya

• Meghalaya Garo Textile; Meghalaya Chubitchi; Meghalaya Larnai Black Pottery. Pair 3 is
incorrect.

Q11 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:

Perennial Rivers
West-flowing East-flowing
Ghaggar- Hakra Subarnarekha
Luni Damodar
Sabarmati Brahmani
Mahi Mahanadi
Narmada Godavari

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 Tapti Krishna
Mandovi Pennar
Kali Palar
Sharavati Ponnaiyar
Periyar Kaveri
Pampa Vaigai
Thamirabarani

Q12 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
National Information System for Climate and Environment Studies (NICES) programme
• Aim – It envisages realisation of national level climate database generation. Statement 1 is
correct.
• The data base will be derived from Indian and other Earth Observation satellites from polar and
geostationary missions for climate change impact assessment and mitigation.
• Incepted in – 2012, developed and made accessible over 70 geophysical variables related to
Terrestrial, Ocean, and Atmospheric conditions.
• Operated by - Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Department of Space
along with other ministries and institutions. Statement 2 is correct.
• It works under the framework of the National Action Plan on Climate Change to invite Indian
researchers to join in combating climate change. Statement 3 is correct.

Q13 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
Natural gas has been called a ‘bridge fuel’ for countries looking to transition away from coal and oil
dependency, and as they pursue a pathway towards renewables and electrification.
About Bridge Fuel
• Bridge fuel is a commonly-used term for a fuel that will power society with the least
environmental cost while we deploy non-polluting, renewable energy.
• The goal of using a bridge fuel is to replace the bulk of today’s fossil-fuel-dependent energy
sources as we transition to a cleaner and more renewable energy economy that is free of
greenhouse gas emissions.
• The length of the bridge and the energy source used to build the bridge are both topics of debate.
• Many people consider natural gas a bridge fuel because it produces less greenhouse gas during the
combustion process.
• However, additional considerations for a bridge fuel include whether it increases national energy
independence while reducing pollution-related costs.

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Key Facts about Natural Gas:
• Natural gas is a fossil fuel. Like all fossil fuels, it is a non-renewable resource.
• It is a mixture of gases which are rich in hydrocarbons.
• It is a colourless and odourless gas composed of 70-90% methane (CH4). Its other ingredients
include ethane (C2 H6) and propane (C3 H8).
• Possible impurities include carbon dioxide (CO2), hydrogen sulphide (H2S), and nitrogen (N).

Q14 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
A recent study highlighted that due to factors like climate change and geological shifts, Earth's
changing rotation may prompt clocks to skip a second, potentially necessitating a "negative leap
second" around 2029.
About Leap Second
• It is used as a measure to combat the long-term slowdown in the Earth’s rotation which is
caused by the constant melting and refreezing of ice caps.
• It is added every now and then to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) in order to synchronize
a clock worldwide with the Earth’s ever slowing rotation.
• The system of leap seconds was introduced in the early 1970s. So far, 27 positive leap seconds
have been added.
• UTC consists of a time scale that combines the output of more than 300 highly precise atomic
clocks worldwide. Atomic clocks are very accurate and are stable within 1 second over a period of
millions of years.
• On the other hand, the Astronomical Time known as Universal Time (UT1) refers to the Earth's
rotation around its own axis and determines the length of a day.
• Reason for addition: The Earth's rotation around its own axis is not regular, as sometimes it speeds
up and sometimes it slows down, due to various factors including the moon’s gravitational Earth-
braking forces that often results in ocean tides.
• As a result, Astronomical Time (UT1) gradually falls out of synch with atomic time (UTC), and as
and when the difference between UTC and UT1 approaches 0.9 seconds, a “Leap Second” is added
to UTC through Atomic clocks worldwide.
• A leap second is normally inserted either on June 30 or December 31.
What is Negative Leap second?
• It is a second that is subtracted from our clocks to keep them in sync with the Earth's rotation.
Statement 1 is correct.
• Till date no negative leap second was introduced because, in the last few decades the Earth's
rotation has generally been a bit slow. Statement 2 is correct.
• The International Earth Rotation and Reference Systems Service (IERS) monitors the Earth's
rotation, and takes decisions on when to add or subtract a leap second.
• Since Earth is spinning faster than usual recently, timekeepers had thought of using negative leap
seconds for the first time.

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Q15 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context:
The Supreme Court recently sought responses from the Election Commission of India (ECI) and the
Centre on a plea seeking a comprehensive count of Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)
slips in elections.
About Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)
• It was first introduced in India in the 2014 Lok Sabha elections. Statement 1 is correct.
• It is an independent system that consists of two parts, namely, a VVPAT Printer and VVPAT Status
Display Unit (VSDU) attached to the Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs), that allow the voters to
verify that their votes are cast as intended.
• When a vote is cast, a slip is printed containing the serial number, name, and symbol of the
candidate and remains exposed through a transparent window for 7 seconds.
• Thereafter, this printed slip automatically gets cut and falls into the sealed drop box of the VVPAT.
How is VVPAT used for verification?
• The results of EVMs can be verified using the slips kept in the drop boxes of VVPAT machines.
• VVPAT can be accessed by the polling officials, but not by the voters. Statement 2 is correct.
• The paper slips are deemed to be more authoritative than EVM tallies in cases where VVPAT slips
are utilised to verify votes.
• Voter verification, however, is only done in extreme circumstances, such as when there are
accusations of fraud or miscalculation.
• The ECI has the authority to request that votes be verified using VVPAT slips in response to such
complaints.
• At the moment, the VVPAT slips are counted in a randomly-selected polling station in each
Assembly constituency or Parliamentary constituency, depending upon the nature of the
elections being held. Statement 3 is incorrect.

Q16 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, police registered a zero FIR case against a former minister of Telangana for allegedly
making objectionable comments against the Telangana Chief Minister.
About Zero FIR
• It refers to a First Investigation Report (FIR) that is registered irrespective of the area where
the offense is committed.
• The police in such a case can no longer claim that they have no jurisdiction.
• It is later transferred to the police station that has the actual jurisdiction so that the
investigation can begin.
• It was introduced on the recommendation of the Justice Verma Committee formed at the backdrop
of the brutal Nirbhaya gang rape in Delhi in 2012.
• This puts a legal obligation on the police to begin an investigation and take quick action without
the excuse of the absence of jurisdiction.
• Objective: It is to ensure the victim doesn’t have to run from pillar to post to get a police complaint
registered. The provision is meant to provide speedy redressal to the victim so that timely action
can be taken after the filing of the FIR.
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What is an FIR?
• It is information recorded by a police officer on duty given either by the aggrieved person or any
other person to the commission of an alleged offence.
• It is not defined in the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973,
or in any other law.
• In police regulations or rules, information recorded under Section 154 of CrPC is known as First
Information Report (FIR).
Q17 ANSWER: (d)
Explanation:
Context:
The Reserve Bank of India is considering establishing a Digital India Trust Agency (DIGITA) to
combat cyber fraud and illegal lending apps.
About Digital India Trust Agency:
• It will be responsible for stopping illegal lending apps from popping up. It will enable the
verification of these digital lending apps and will maintain a public register of these verified
applications.
• Any app which will not carry the “verified” tag of DIGITA, will be considered unauthorised.
• Significance: This will create an important and much-needed checkpoint in the fight against
online financial fraud.
What is digital lending?
• It is a remote and automated lending process, largely by use of seamless digital technologies. It
generally involves three parties – a lender, a lending service provider (including a digital lending
platform) and a borrower.
• It involves lending through web platforms or mobile apps, utilising technology in customer
acquisition, credit assessment, loan approval, disbursement, recovery and associated customer
service.
• It includes products like Buy Now, Pay Later (BNPL), which is a financing option (or simply a
short-term loan product). It allows one to buy a product or avail a service without having to worry
about paying for it immediately.

Q18 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, a deadly tornado struck the Mainaguri area of Jalpaiguri district of West Bengal for 10
minutes and killed five people and injured over a 100.
About Tornado
• It is a land-based vertical column of violently rotating air that forms from a thunderstorm to
the ground. It can have wind speeds in the range of 105-322 kilometres per hour.
• The rotating column is physically connected to the cloud base or wall cloud and is often visible as
a cloud-filled "condensation funnel". If the air is dry enough, the tornado may only appear as a swirl
of dirt on the ground without a visible connection to the cloud above.
• The tornado over the sea is called waterspouts.
• Formation: Any collision of warm, moist air with dry, cool air in the presence of a low-
pressure system like a trough causes thunderstorms and tornadoes. Statement 1 is correct.

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Geographical distribution:
• It occurs most commonly on continents in the mid-latitudes (between 20 and 60 degrees north
and south), where they are frequently associated with thunderstorms that develop in regions
where cold polar air meets warm tropical air. Statement 2 is correct.
• Tornadoes are the most common in the United States, Argentina and Bangladesh. Statement
3 is correct.
The Enhanced Fujita scale is used to measure tornado strength. It is used to assign a tornado a 'rating'
based on estimated wind speeds and related damage.

Q19 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, an international team of astronomers and astrophysicists has confirmed the first known
observance of a tidally locked super-Earth exoplanet.
About Tidally locked Planet:
• A tidally-locked planet in its orbit around a star keeps the same face towards the star. This happens
when the rotation period of the planet around its own axis becomes equal to its revolution
period around the star. Statement II is correct and is also the correct explanation of
Statement I.
• On a tidally locked planet, one side is always facing a star while the other is cloaked in
perpetual darkness. The dark side could be so cold that water and would-be atmospheric
components (e.g., carbon dioxide, nitrogen, or methane) are frozen, certainly an inhospitable
environment for life. Statement I is correct.
Examples of Tidal Locking:
• The Moon is tidally locked to the Earth because it rotates in exactly the same time as it takes to
orbit the Earth. That is why we only see one side of the Moon.
• Pluto-Charon system: Here both bodies are of comparable size and are close together, both bodies
can be tidally locked to each other
Tidal locking does influence how a planet moves, because tidal locking slows down its spin.
This phenomenon of tidal locking can happen with other bodies in space too, as astronomers often say that
binary stars or star systems that have two stars at their centre, are most likely tidally locked to each other.

Q20 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
India is planning to manufacture carbon fibre for use in aerospace, civil engineering and defence as
an alternative to metal which will help the country get around a proposed European Union carbon
tax on steel, alloy and metal products
About Carbon Fibre
• It is a material consisting of thin, strong crystalline filaments of carbon, essentially carbon
atoms bonded together in long chains. Statement 1 is correct.
Properties
• It has a high stiffness and stiffness-to-weight ratio.
• It has high tensile strength and strength-to-weight ratio.
• It has high-temperature tolerance with special resins.
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 • It consists of low thermal expansion. Statement 2 is correct.
• It also has high chemical resistance.
• The fibres are extremely stiff, strong, and light, and are used in many processes to create excellent
structural materials.
Currently, India does not produce any carbon fibre, relying entirely on imports from countries such
as the US, France, Japan and Germany. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Applications
• It is essential for various applications such as fighter planes’ noses, civilian airplanes, drone frames,
car chassis and fire-resistant building material.
• It is a critical material in technical textiles and is known for its high strength and lightweight
properties.

Q21 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Places Located in
1. Tepe Yahya Iran
2. Umm-an-Nar UAE
3. Mundigak Afghanistan
4. Bampur Valley Iran

Context:
A human skeleton, along with pottery artifacts and animal bones has been found on the slope of a
hillock in a Gujarat village.
About
• Archaeologists excavated a site called Padta Bet, it was 1.5 km from the mass burial ground of Juna
Khatiya, an Early Harappan necropolis.
• In 2018, archeologists had unearthed a mass burial site with 500 graves on the outskirts of Khatiya
village in Gujarat’s Kutch district which raised the questions of whose graves are these?
• The latest find bolsters the theory that the graveyard site may have served as a common facility for
a cluster of several such smaller settlements.
• The Archaeologists also found semi-precious stone beads made of carnelian and agate, terracotta
spindle whorls, copper, lithic tools, cores and debitage, grinding stones and hammer stones.

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Q22 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Context:
Restricted by surrogacy laws, Indians are going abroad to become parents.
Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021
What is surrogacy?
• The Act defines surrogacy as a practice where a woman gives birth to a child for an intending
couple with the intention to hand it over to them after the birth.
• It is permitted only for altruistic purposes or for couples who suffer proven infertility or disease.
• Surrogacy is prohibited for commercial purposes including for sale, prostitution or any other forms
of exploitation.
Abortion: Abortion of such a foetus is allowed only with the consent of the surrogate mother and the
authorities and must adhere to the provisions of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act.
Eligibility and Conditions for Couples: A couple should procure certificates of eligibility and essentiality
in order to have a child via surrogacy.
• The couple is deemed ‘eligible’ if they have been married for five years, the wife is aged
between 23-50 years and the husband is between 26-55 years. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The couple must not have any living child (biological, adopted or surrogate.)
• A child with mental or physical disabilities, or one suffering from a life-threatening disorder has
been exempted from the above criterion.
• The couple can get an ‘essential’ certificate if suffering from proven infertility of either partner
certified by a District Medical Board.
• They must also have insurance coverage for 16 months for the surrogate mother, covering any
postpartum complications.
Eligibility to be a surrogate: A surrogate mother has to be a close relative of the couple, a married
woman with a child of her own, aged between 25-35 years, who has been a surrogate only once in her
life. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• She must also possess a certificate of medical and psychological fitness for surrogacy.
Regulation: The Centre and State governments will constitute a National Surrogacy Board (NSB)
and State Surrogacy Boards (SSB) respectively. Statement 3 is correct.
• This body is tasked with enforcing standards for surrogacy clinics, investigating breaches and
recommending modifications.
Offences: Offences under the Act include commercial surrogacy, selling of embryos, exploiting,
abandoning a surrogate child etc.
• These may invite up to 10 years of imprisonment and a fine of up to Rs. 10 lakhs.

Q23 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
About PRATUSH Telescope:
• Probing ReionizATion of the Universe using Signal from Hydrogen (PRATUSH) is a radio
telescope to be sited on the moon’s far side.
• It is being built by the Raman Research Institute (RRI) in Bengaluru with active collaboration from
the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).

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 • Initially, ISRO will place PRATUSH into orbit around the earth. After some fine-tuning, the space
agency will launch it moon wards.
• Main roles: It will be to detect signals from the first stars and galaxies, reveal the cosmic dawn
of the universe, answering the question when the first stars formed, the nature of the first
stars and what was the light from the first stars.
• It will carry a wideband frequency-independent antenna, a self-calibrating analog receiver and a
digital correlator to catch radio noise in the all-important signal from the Dark Ages.
• The target instrument sensitivity is at the level of a few millikelvin without being limited by any
systematic features.

Q24 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, researchers have discovered nitrogen-fixing symbiotic organisms exhibiting behaviours
similar to organelles.
About Nitrogen-Fixing Bacteria
• These are prokaryotic microorganisms that are capable of transforming nitrogen gas from the
atmosphere into “fixed nitrogen” compounds, such as ammonia, that are usable by plants.
Types: There are two main types of nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
1. Symbiotic or mutualistic: These species live in root nodules of certain plants. Plants of the pea
family, known as legumes which are some of the most important hosts for nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
• Examples: Rhizobium, which is associated with plants in the pea family and various Azospirillum
species, which are associated with cereal grasses.
2. Other nitrogen-fixing bacteria are free-living and do not require a host. They are commonly
found in soil or in aquatic environments.
• Examples: Cyanobacteria Anabaena and Nostoc and genera such as Azotobacter,
Beijerinckia, and Clostridium.
Significance
• Nitrogen is a component of proteins and nucleic acids and is essential to life on Earth. Although
nitrogen is abundant in the atmosphere, most organisms cannot use it in that form.
• Nitrogen-fixing bacteria accomplish more than 90 percent of all nitrogen fixation and thus play an
important role in the nitrogen cycle.
Q25 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
About OptiDrop Platform:
• It is an innovative microfluidic chip-based platform that simplifies and reduces the cost of
studying single cells. Statement 1 is correct.
• It employs a novel approach that enables precise and cost-effective analysis of single cells
encapsulated in droplets.
• The platform’s unique features include live data visualisation, a smaller data footprint, and a
‘closed’ system design that prevents external contamination.
• This research was supported by the Biotechnology Industry Research Council (BIRAC), the
Department of Science and Technology (DST), and the Ministry of Human Resource Development
(MHRD).
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Applications:
• This cutting-edge technology has potential applications in diagnostics, therapeutics,
agriculture, and animal health. Statement 2 is correct.
• It helps in studying the impact on individual cells during a drug screen, environment control
(water contamination counter), detection and sorting of CAR-T cells in immuno-onco
therapeutics, selection of CRISPR-modified single cells and selection of high-efficiency clones
in single-cell genomics
What is C-CAMP?
• It is an initiative supported by the Department of Biotechnology, Govt of India is a catalyst
of cutting-edge research and innovation in the life sciences since 2009.
• It is mandated to promote entrepreneurship and innovation. It has created and fostered an
entrepreneur-friendly culture in and around the Academic/Research environment through its
involvement in Seed Funding Schemes for Startups.
What is a Microfluidic chip?
• It is referred to as lab-on-a-chip devices, which are miniature platforms that manipulate and
analyse small volumes of fluids.
• These chips integrate various functions, such as mixing, pumping, and sensing, onto a compact
substrate, enabling precise control over minute amounts of liquids.

Q26 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
According to a study conducted by IIM-A, nuclear energy makes up only 1.6% of India’s energy
mix.
• Unlike fossil fuel-fired power plants, nuclear reactors do not produce air pollution or carbon
dioxide while operating. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Some radioactive wastes are produced such as uranium mill tailings, spent (used) reactor fuel, and
other radioactive wastes which are removed during refuelling or maintenance.
• Reactors cooled and moderated by water generate more liquid waste than those cooled by
gas.
• Hence, the volumes of liquid waste generated at boiling-water reactors (BWRs) are
significantly higher than at pressurised water reactors (PWRs). Statement 2 is correct.
• The most frequently applied methods for treating the liquid waste generated by nuclear
reactors are cementation, bituminization, or incorporation into polymers.
• Bituminization is a hot process which allows the wet stream to be dried off before being
immobilized and packaged. Statement 3 is correct.
• This technique is widely used for conditioning of radioactive waste at nuclear power plants in the
USA, Japan, Sweden, USSR, Switzerland, and other countries.

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Q27 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:

• Taiwan is an archipelago of small islands featuring Taiwan Island as the dominate landmass
• Located off the East coast of China and administrated by the Chinese government
• Surrounding bodies of water include the Taiwan Strait off the West, the East China Sea off the
North, the Philippine Sea off the East and the South China Sea off the South
• The plains and lowlands of the Western half house most of the population
• Mountains abound in the Eastern half.
Q28 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context:
A unique conservation agricultural practice, Paira cropping system has dwindled in recent years due
to climate change.
About Paira cropping system:
• The utera/paira is a type of cropping which is commonly practiced in Bihar, Eastern Uttar Pradesh,
West Bengal Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
• It is a kind of relay method of sowing in which lentil/ lathyrus/ urdbean/ mungbean seeds are
broadcast in the standing crop of rice about 2 weeks before its harvest.
• This system does not allow agronomic intervention such as tillage, weeding, irrigation and
fertilizer However, rice variety decides the productivity of pulses in this system.
Advantages:
• This practice enables us to use better soil moisture available at the time of harvesting of rice crops,
which could otherwise be lost quickly.
• Experimental evidence showed that paira cropping produced more yield of lentil than planting with
tillage after harvesting of the rice crop.
• This is an efficient way of utilising resources for sustainable crop intensification and boosting land
productivity.

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What is the Relay cropping method?
• It is a method of multiple cropping where one crop is seeded into standing second crop well
before harvesting of second crop.
• It can solve a number of conflicts such as inefficient use of available resources, controversies in
sowing time, fertilizer application and soil degradation.

Q29 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
• The Election Commission can identify political parties and assign symbols according to the
Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968. A political party is assigned a
standard emblem known as an electoral or election symbol.
• It was suggested in the 1960s that the Symbol Order, a statute of Parliament, be used to regulate,
reserve, and allot election emblems.
• In response to this suggestion, the ECI declared that the allotment of symbols and the recognition
of political parties are subject to the terms of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment)
Order, 1968.
• If a party is recognised as a `National Party’, it is entitled to exclusive allotment of its reserved
symbol to the candidates set up throughout India. Statement 1 is correct.
• The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 prohibits parties from using
emblems with religious or community implications. Statement 2 is correct.
• Rule 10B of the Symbols Order provides that the concession of a common free symbol shall
be available to a ‘registered unrecognised party’ for two general elections. Statement 3 is
correct.
• Furthermore, a party shall be eligible for a common symbol in any subsequent general election if it
had secured at least 1% of votes polled in the State on the previous occasion when the party availed
of this facility.

Q30 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Project Akashteer
• It is a cutting-edge initiative designed to automate air defence control and reporting processes
by digitising the entire process.
• The project aimed at enhancing the operational efficiency and integration of the Army's air defence
mechanisms.
• Developed by - Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) as part of the 'Atmanirbhar Bharat'
initiative.
• Indian Army has declared the year 2024 as the "Year of Tech Absorption'.

Q31 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
World Health Organization unveils a digital health promoter prototype S.A.R.A.H harnessing
generative Artificial Intelligence (AI) for public health.

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About S.A.R.A.H.:
• Smart AI Resource Assistant for Health (S.A.R.A.H.) is a digital health promoter prototype
with enhanced empathetic response powered by generative artificial intelligence (AI).
• It is launched by the World Health Organisation (WHO). It aims to provide an additional
tool for people to realize their rights to health, wherever they are.
Features:
• It is trained to provide information across major health topics, including healthy habits and mental
health
• It has the ability to support people in developing better understanding of risk factors for some of
the leading causes of death in the world, including cancer, heart disease
• It can help people access up-to-date information on quitting tobacco, being active, eating a healthy
diet and de-stressing among other things.
• It can engage users 24 hours a day in 8 languages on multiple health topics, on any device. It is now
powered by generative AI rather than a pre-set algorithm or script helping her to provide more
accurate responses in real-time.

Q32 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
RBI defers Exchange Traded Currency Derivatives (ETCDs) norms.
• ETCD is a standardized financial contract that is traded in stock exchanges in a regulated
manner. Statement 1 is correct.
• They are subject to the rules framed by market regulators such as Securities and Exchange
Board of India (SEBI) in India. Statement 2 is correct.
• ETCD are essentially contracts, deriving values from the price fluctuation of their underlying assets.
Types of Derivatives – They are two types of derivatives:
• One that is subject to standardized terms and conditions, and hence being traded in the stock
exchanges.
• Second type being traded between private counter-parties, in the absence of a formal intermediary.
• The first type is known as Exchange Traded Derivatives (ETDs), the second is known as Over the
Counter (OTC) derivatives.
• Types of ETDs – Stock ETDs, Index ETDs, Currency ETDs, Commodity ETDs, and Bond ETDs.
Working – Exchange-traded currency contracts work on the same principle of buying at a low price and
selling at a higher price.
However, exchange-traded currency contracts are always bought in pairs:
1. Indian Rupee vs United States Dollar (USD-INR)
2. Indian Rupee vs Euro (EUR-INR)
3. Indian Rupee vs Great Britain Pound (GBP-INR)
4. Indian Rupee vs Japan’s Yen (JPY-INR)

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Q33 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context:
Delhi High Court declared Haldiram and its oval-shaped logo as well-known trademark for food
items, restaurants, and eateries under the Trade Marks Act, 1999.
• The Trade Marks Act, 1999, provides protection to well-known trademarks to prevent misuse
and obligates the Registrar to safeguard them against similar trademarks. Statement 1 is
incorrect.
• Once a mark is declared well-known, the owner can prevent others from registering or using
identical or similar marks for different goods and services.
• A well-known mark adds value to a brand and increases its reputation in the market.
• License – A well-known mark can be licensed or franchised to others. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Criteria – The Indian Trademarks Act provides several factors that can be considered when
determining whether a trademark is well-known, including:
• The degree of knowledge or recognition of the mark in the relevant section of the public in India.
• The duration, extent, and geographical area of any use of the mark in India.
• The duration, extent, and geographical area of any promotion of the mark in India.
• The degree of inherent or acquired distinctiveness of the mark.
• The extent to which the mark has been registered in India or in other countries.
Registrar of Trade Marks – The Registrar of Trade Marks maintains a list of famous trademarks in
India. This list includes both Indian and foreign trademarks. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Some of the well-known marks in India include, Amul, Coca-Cola, Bisleri, Google, Pepsi, Nestle,
McDonald’s, Samsung, LG, Nike, BMW, Mercedes-Benz, Sony, Nokia, and Adidas.

Q34 ANSWER (d)

Explanation:
Context:
The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) has hiked the price of essential medicines
including painkillers, antibiotics and anti-infectives.
• NPPA was set up under the Department of Pharmaceuticals is an independent regulatory
agency that controls the prices of pharmaceutical drugs in India.
About
• Essential medicines are those that satisfy the priority healthcare needs of the majority of the
population. Statement 1 is correct.
• The essential medicines list needs to be country specific addressing the disease burden of the nation
and the commonly used medicines at primary, secondary and tertiary healthcare levels.
• The first country in the world to compose its EML was Tanzania in 1970. Statement 4 is
correct.
• In India, The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare prepared the first National List of
Essential Medicines (NLEM) in 1996. Subsequently, the list has been revised. Statement 2 is
correct.
• Drug Price Control Order, 2013 was issued by the Department of Pharmaceuticals under
Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers for fixing the ceiling price of medicines included in
NLEM. Statement 3 is correct.

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Q35 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the new generation ballistic missile Agni-Prime was successfully flight-tested by the
Strategic Forces Command (SFC) along with the DRDO from the Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Island off
the coast of Odisha. Statement 2 is correct.
About the Agni-Prime
• It is a two-stage, surface-to-surface, canister-launched, road-mobile, and solid-fueled
medium-range ballistic missile. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Agni-Prime is equipped with a dual redundant navigation and guidance system.
• It has a range between 1000 to 2000 km.
• The missile is lighter than all the earlier Agni series of missiles.
• It features significant upgrades to the composite motor casing, a manoeuvrable reentry vehicle
(MaRV), along with improved propellants, navigation, and guidance systems.
Strategic Forces Command (SFC)
The Strategic Forces Command (SFC), sometimes called Strategic Nuclear Command, forms part of
India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA).
• The Nuclear Command Authority comprises a Political Council and an Executive Council.
The Political Council is chaired by the Prime Minister. It is the sole body which can authorise
the use of nuclear weapons.
• The Executive Council is chaired by the National Security Advisor. It provides inputs for
decision making by the Nuclear Command Authority and executes the directives given to it by the
Political Council.
• It is responsible for the management and administration of the country’s tactical and strategic
nuclear weapons stockpile.

Q36 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Research centre in Romania has developed the world’s most powerful laser.
About Romania
• It is located in the geographic centre of Europe.
• Its neighbour to the North of Ukraine, to the East on the Republic of Moldova, Ukraine, and the
Black Sea, to the South on Bulgaria, to the South-West on Serbia, and to the West on Hungary.
• Bucharest, the capital city.
• The Black Sea forms the border of Romania in the south-east along 245 km.
• Geographical Features: Romania’s relief is very diverse and complex. 31% of the area is covered
by mountains, 36% by hills and tablelands, and the rest of 33% by plains.
o In the centre lies the Plateau of Transylvania, surrounded by the chains of the Carpathians
Mountains
o the highest elevation in Romania being the Moldoveanu Peak.
o The Danube River travels through Romanian territory.

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Q37 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
A century after the electroencephalogram (EEG) was discovered, it remains a crucial tool for
understanding the brain.
About Electroencephalogram (EEG):
• An EEG is a recording of brain activity.
• It is a test that detects abnormalities in your brain waves, or in the electrical activity of your
brain.
Procedure:
• The procedure may be short, often just a 30-minute recording.
• During the procedure, electrodes consisting of small metal discs with thin wires are pasted onto
your scalp.
• The electrodes detect tiny electrical charges that result from the activity of your brain cells.
• The charges are amplified and appear as a graph on a computer screen or as a recording that may
be printed out on paper.
• The EEG procedure is usually carried out by a highly trained specialist, called a clinical
neurophysiologist.
Applications:
The EEG is used to evaluate several types of brain disorders. Examples:
• When epilepsy is present, seizure activity will appear as rapid spiking waves on the EEG.
• People with lesions of their brain, which can result from tumours or strokes, may have unusually
slow EEG waves, depending on the size and location of the lesion.
• The EEG may also be used to determine the overall electrical activity of the brain (for example, to
evaluate trauma, drug intoxication, or extent of brain damage in comatose patients).
• The EEG may also be used to monitor blood flow in the brain during surgical procedures.

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Q38 ANSWER (d)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, scientists proposed a model to explain Arrokoth’s ice core.
• Arrokoth is one of thousands of ‘icy worlds” in the Kuiper Belt, or the outer zone of the solar
system that lies beyond Neptune.
• It is the farthest object in space that has been explored by a human space-craft.
Discovery and Naming
• Arrokoth was discovered on June 26, 2014, by astronomers using the Hubble Space Telescope
as part of the New Horizons KBO Search (NHATS) program.
• Originally known as (486958) 2014 MU69, it was informally called Ultima Thule until its
official naming.
• The name "Arrokoth" was chosen in November 2019.
• It is a Native American term meaning "sky" in the Powhatan/Algonquian language.
Characteristics:
• Arrokoth is located approximately 44 astronomical units (AU) from the Sun, meaning it's about 44
times farther from the Sun than Earth.
• It is a cold, dark, and ancient relic of the early Solar System, believed to have formed over 4.5
billion years ago.
• Arrokoth is an elongated binary object composed of two lobes, informally referred to as "Ultima"
and "Thule". Each lobe is roughly spherical in shape, and they are joined by a narrow neck.
• Its dimensions are approximately 36 kilometers by 20 kilometers for the larger lobe (Ultima) and
21 kilometers by 19 kilometers for the smaller lobe (Thule).
• The surface of Arrokoth is covered in reddish material, likely organic compounds that have been
altered by radiation from the Sun over billions of years.
Q39 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the US White House officially directed the National Aeronautics and Space Administration
(NASA) to create a time standard for the Moon, which different international bodies and private
companies can use to coordinate their activities on the lunar surface.
About Coordinated Lunar Time (LTC)
• It will provide a time-keeping benchmark for lunar spacecraft and satellites that require extreme
precision for their missions.
• It will also synchronise the communication between satellites, astronauts, bases and the Earth.
• A unified time standard would be essential for coordinating operations, ensuring the reliability of
transactions and managing the logistics of lunar commerce.
Why there is need of LTC?
• As there is less gravity on the Moon, time ticks slightly faster there relative to the time on the
Earth. Statement 1 is correct.
• In other words, for someone on the Moon, an Earth-based clock will appear to lose on average
58.7 microseconds per Earth Day with “additional periodic variations. Statement 2 is correct.
• It can create problems for situations such as a spacecraft seeking to dock on the Moon, data
transferring at a specific time, communication, and navigation.
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How does Earth’s time standard work?
• Most of the clocks and time zones of the world are based on Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) which
is essentially an internationally agreed upon standard for world time.
• It is set by the International Bureau of Weights and Measures in Paris, France.
• It is tracked by a weighted average of more than 400 atomic clocks placed in different parts of the
globe.
o Atomic clocks measure time in terms of the resonant frequencies — the natural frequency of
an object where it tends to vibrate at a higher amplitude — of atoms such as cesium-133.
o In atomic time, a second is defined as the period in which a caesium atom vibrates 9,192,631,770
times. As the vibration rates at which atoms absorb energy are highly stable and ultra-accurate,
atomic clocks make for an excellent device for gauging the passage of time.
o To obtain their local time, countries need to subtract or add a certain number of hours from
UTC depending on how many time zones they are away from 0-degree longitude meridian,
also known as the Greenwich meridian.
o If a country lies on the west of the Greenwich meridian, it has to subtract from the UTC, and
if a country is located on the east of the meridian, it has to add.

Q40 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Chief Postmaster General Maharashtra Circle inaugurated the Bharati Branch Post
Office at Bharati Station of Antarctica accompanied by the introduction of a new PIN code, MH-
1718.
Brief History of Post Offices in Antarctica
• In 1984, shortly after the inaugural expedition to Antarctica, India established its first-ever
post office at Dakshin Gangotri — the pioneering scientific base. Statement 1 is correct.
• The eventual submersion of Dakshin Gangotri under ice during the late 1980s, leading to its
decommissioning.
• On January 26, 1990, a new post office branch emerged at India’s Maitri research station in
Antarctica. Statement 2 is correct.
Maitri and Bharati Post Offices:
• These are research bases of India in Antarctica spanning a distance of 3,000 kms.
• They stand as a testament to the nation’s enduring presence in the polar landscape, both
falling under the purview of the Goa Postal Division. Statement 3 is correct.
• In practical terms, letters intended for Antarctica find their way to the National Centre for Polar and
Ocean Research (NCPOR) in Goa, the pivotal hub for India’s polar endeavours.
India and Antarctica
• India’s engagement with Antarctica, the southernmost continent and site of the South Pole, traces
back to 1981.
• It marked the initiation of the Indian Antarctic Programme, a multi-disciplinary, multi-
institutional programme under the control of the NCPOR, Ministry of Earth Sciences.
• It gained global acceptance with India’s signing of the Antarctic Treaty and subsequent construction
of the Dakshin Gangotri (in 1983), Maitri (in 1989), Bharati (in 2012) were commissioned.
• Currently, India has two operational research stations in Antarctica: Maitri and Bharati.

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Q41 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context:
With supply chain disruptions during the pandemic and recent geopolitical tensions, many countries,
including India, have realised the importance of investing in chip manufacturing infrastructure.
About the Semiconductor Chip
• A semiconductor has properties between a conductor, which conducts electricity, and an insulator,
which does not.
• In its purest form, a semiconductor is a very weak conductor of electricity.
• However, its electrical properties can be changed by adding small amounts of certain substances
called ‘dopants’.
• By taking a pure semiconductor and carefully injecting certain parts with specific dopants, complex
circuits can be ‘printed’ on the semiconductor.
The Manufacturing Process:
It involves several critical steps like deposition, photoresist, lithography, etch, ionisation, and
packaging.
Deposition: It begins with a silicon wafer. Wafers are sliced from a salami-shaped bar of 99.99% pure
silicon (known as an ‘ingot’) and polished to extreme smoothness.
• Thin films of conducting, isolating, or semiconducting materials are deposited on the wafer to enable
the first layer to be printed on it.
Photoresist Coating: The wafer is then covered with a light-sensitive coating called ‘photoresist’, or
‘resist’ for short.
• Positive Resist: The areas exposed to ultraviolet light change their structure and are made more soluble
– ready for etching and deposition.
Lithography: It is a crucial step in the chipmaking process, because it determines just how small the
transistors on a chip can be.
• During this stage, the chip wafer is inserted into a lithography machine where it’s exposed to deep
ultraviolet (DUV) or extreme ultraviolet (EUV) light.
Etching: It refers to any technology that will selectively remove material from a thin film on a substrate
(with or without prior structures on its surface) and by this removal create a pattern of that material on the
substrate.

Q42 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
In ecology, ‘gape limitation’ stands for the idea that a predator can only eat things that fit in its
mouth.
About
• Researchers pay attention to the concept because it specifies which animals can eat which other
animals.
o For example, small predators can only eat small prey, while bigger predators can eat bigger prey.
• Gape limitations also influence how animals evolve over time.
o Prey animals might get faster or grow bigger to avoid being eaten by predators with smaller mouths.
o On the other hand, predators may evolve larger mouths to eat larger prey.

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• Significance: Understanding gape limitations is essential to predicting how changes in predator or prey
populations, changes in habitats, and/or environmental disturbances could affect the structure and
function of ecosystems.

Q43 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Underpriced onion export to UAE, yielding windfall profits for selected importers, has aggrieved
Indian farmers and traders.
About:
• The onion is an herb that belongs to the lily family. It is an important horticultural commodity grown
worldwide for their culinary purposes and medicinal values.
• Indian onions have two crop cycles, first harvesting which starts from November to January and
the second harvesting from January to May. Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Major varieties found in India: Agrifound Dark Red, Agrifound Light Red, NHRDF Red, Agrifound
White, Agrifound Rose and Agrifound Red, Pusa Ratnar, Pusa Red, and Pusa White Round.
• Major Producer: India is the world's second-largest onion producer. Statement 1 is correct.
• Maharashtra, Karnataka, Orissa, Uttar Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu are the major
onion-producing states.
• Maharashtra ranks first in Onion production with a share of 42.53% followed by Madhya
Pradesh with a share of 15.16% in 2021-22 (3rd Advance Estimate). Statement 3 is incorrect.
• Major Export Destinations (2022-23): Bangladesh, Malaysia, United Arab Emirates, Sri Lanka,
Nepal and Indonesia. Statement 4 is correct.

What is Windfall Profit?

• Windfall profit is an unexpected gain in income which could be due to winning a lottery, unforeseen
inheritance or shortage of supply.
• Windfall gains are transitory in nature.

Q44 ANSWER (a)

Explanation:
Context:
Climate activist Sonam Wangchuk and Leh Apex Body (LAB) decided to call off the Pashmina
border march aimed at highlighting the plight of the Changpa nomadic tribes.
Tribes Associated State/UT
1. Changpa Tribe Ladakh
2. Jenu Kuruba Tribe Karnataka
3. Siddi Tribe Goa
4. Tharu Tribe Uttar Pradesh

About Changpa Tribe:

• The Changpa, or Champa, are semi-nomadic people found mainly in the Changtang plateau
of southeastern Ladakh. They share linguistic and cultural affinities with Tibetans.
• All Changpa families profess Tibetan Buddhism as their religion. They are high-altitude
pastoralists, raising mainly yaks and goats.
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 • They can be identified by their conical yak-skin tents called reboo.
• Each reboo invariably accommodates the family deity, and a picture of their spiritual head, in most
cases, the Dalai Lama.
About Jenu Kuruba Community:
• Jenu in Kannada means honey and kuruba is the caste. As the name suggest Jenu Kurubas are honey
gatherers.
• They are a traditional honey gathering tribe, and are among the original inhabitants of the
forests of the Western Ghats that stretch over three states – Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil
Nadu.
• They live in small settlements called Hadi.
• Occupation: The main occupation used to be food gathering in the forests, collection of minor forest
produces in the forests, collection of minor forest produce including honey
• They practice shifting cultivation, leading to a nomadic lifestyle.
• Social life: People of this community live a semi-nomadic lifestyle which is not maintained by
rulers, police, centralized visible forces or religious monasteries; but by the technique of its own
discipline and diffused power.
About Siddi Tribe:
• The Siddis, an ethnic group in India, are said to have descended from the Bantu peoples of the East
African region.
• They are included in the list of Scheduled Tribes (ST) in Karnataka.
• Karnataka, Gujarat and Hyderabad are the main population centres of the Siddi community
in India.
About Tharu Tribe:
• The Tharu people are an ethnic group indigenous to the Terai in southern Nepal and northern India.
• They speak Tharu languages. They are recognized as an official nationality by the Government of
Nepal.
• In the Indian Terai, they live foremost in Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. The
Government of India recognizes the Tharu people as a scheduled tribe.

Q45 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration has predicted an 83%
probability of the Oceanic Niño Index (ONI) transitioning to a neutral range by April-June 2024.
About Oceanic Niño Index:
• It is the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration’s (NOAA) primary indicator for
monitoring the ocean part of the seasonal climate pattern called the El Niño-Southern Oscillation,
or “ENSO”.
• The ONI tracks the running 3-month average sea surface temperatures in the east-central
tropical Pacific between 120°-170°W, near the International Dateline, and whether they are
warmer or cooler than average. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Index values of +0.5 or higher indicate El Niño and values of -0.5 or lower indicate La Niña.
Statement 2 is correct.

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What are El Nino and La Nina?
• El Nino and La Nina are two opposing climate trends that deviate from the normal conditions and
normally run nine to twelve months, but can often extend.
• These events occur every two to seven years on average (El Nino is more frequent than La Nina),
but not on a regular basis and together are referred to as the El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO)
cycle by scientists.
• El Nino is typically known as the warm phase (a band of warmer water spreading from west to east
in the equatorial Pacific Ocean) and La Nina is identified as the cold phase (a band of cooler water
spreads east-west) of ENSO.
• Both El Nino and La Nina can have global effects on weather, wildfires, ecosystems and economics.

Q46 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
The findings of an international study suggest that consuming low glycaemic index and low
glycaemic load diets might prevent the development of type 2 diabetes.
About Glycaemic Index
• It ranks carbohydrate-containing foods based on the blood glucose response, post-prandial or after
a meal. The higher the blood sugar reading, the higher will be the GI.
• It shows how quickly each food affects your blood sugar (glucose) level when that food is eaten
on its own.
• Foods are ranked on a scale of 0 to 100, with pure glucose (sugar) given a value of 100.
• The lower a food's glycaemic index, the slower blood sugar rises after eating that food. In general,
the more processed a food is, the higher its GI, and the more fibre or fat in a food, the lower it's GI.
What is Glycaemic load?
• It is both the quality and quantity of carbohydrate in a specific food, and is the product of the GI
and the amount of carbohydrate available in a serving.
Key facts about Diabetes
• It is a chronic disease that occurs when the pancreas can no longer make insulin, or the body cannot
make good use of the insulin it produces.
• Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose.
• Not being able to produce or use insulin effectively leads to raised glucose levels in the blood,
known as hyperglycaemia.
• Over the long-term high glucose levels are associated with damage to the body and failure of
various organs and tissues.
Type of Diabetes
• Type 1 diabetes: It is a condition in which your immune system destroys insulin-making cells in
your pancreas. These are called beta cells.
• When you have type 1 diabetes, your body produces very little or no insulin.
• It requires daily administration of insulin to maintain blood glucose levels under control. It is
usually diagnosed in children and young people, so it used to be called juvenile diabetes.
• Type 2 diabetes: It results from the body’s ineffective use of insulin that it produces. This type of
diabetes is largely the result of excess body weight and physical inactivity.

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Q47 ANSWER (a)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor raised concerns over unauthorised forex
trading platforms and asked banks to maintain vigil against such illegal activities.
About Electronic Trading Platforms:
• These are electronic systems, other than a recognised stock exchange, on which transactions in
eligible instruments like securities, money market instruments, foreign exchange instruments,
derivatives, etc. are contracted.
• In India no entity shall operate an ETP without obtaining prior authorisation of RBI under
The Electronic Trading Platforms (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2018. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Resident persons operating ETPs without authorisation from RBI, collecting and
effecting/remitting payments directly/indirectly outside India shall render themselves liable for
penal action, including the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and the Prevention of Money
Laundering Act, 2002.
• ETPs authorised by the Reserve Bank shall host transactions only in instruments approved
by the Reserve Bank. Statement 2 is correct.
Criteria for authorization of ETPs
• The entity shall be a company incorporated in India.
• An entity seeking authorisation as an ETP operator shall maintain a minimum net-worth of
Rs.5 crore (Rupees five crore only) and shall continue to maintain the minimum net-worth
prescribed herein at all times. Statement 3 is correct.
• The existing entities operating ETPs with a net-worth lower than the prescribed net-worth
requirement shall achieve the minimum net-worth of Rs.5 crores within one year from the date of
authorisation by the Reserve Bank.
• Banks seeking authorisation to operate ETP shall earmark a minimum capital of Rs.5 crore for the
purpose.

Q48 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the atmospheric scientists have noticed the development of the polar vortex and
characterised it as one of the biggest events in the last four decades.
About the Earth’s Polar Vortex:
• It is a large area of low pressure and cold air that surrounds both of the Earth’s poles.
• It exists near the poles throughout the year, but it weakens in summer and strengthens in
winter.
• It is located in the polar stratosphere, above the layer of the atmosphere (the troposphere) where
most weather, including the jet stream, occurs.
• The Stratospheric Polar Vortex forms in the winter hemisphere when the Earth’s pole is pointed
away from the sun.
• The term ‘vortex’ refers to the counterclockwise flow of air that helps keep the colder air near the
Poles.

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Impact on Weather Patterns
• It significantly influences winter weather.
• When the Polar Vortex is especially strong, the polar jet stream tends to stay farther north
and exhibits a more zonal flow, with less meandering. Statement 1 is incorrect.
• At the surface, it is often associated with an even colder than usual Arctic, and milder-than-usual
weather in the mid-latitudes.
• Conversely, when the Polar Vortex weakens, shifts, or splits, the polar jet stream often
becomes extremely wavy, allowing warm air to flood into the Arctic and polar air to sink
down into the mid-latitudes. Statement 3 is correct.
• It can result in extreme cold snaps, snowstorms, and other winter weather events in areas like
North America, Europe, and Asia. Statement 2 is incorrect.

Q49 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
India has invoked the peace clause at the World Trade Organization (WTO) for the fifth consecutive
time for the marketing year 2022-23 (October-September) due to breaching the prescribed subsidy
limit for rice offered to its farmers.
• While India’s rice production was valued at $52.8 billion in 2022-23, farmers received a subsidy
worth $6.39 billion during the year.
• Thus, the rice subsidy was 12 percent of the value of production, thereby breaching the 10 per cent
domestic support ceiling, which is in accordance with global trade rules.
• It was established in 2013 under the Bali Agreement. Statement I is correct.
• It permits developing nations to exceed the 10 per cent ceiling without facing legal action by
other members temporarily. Statement II is incorrect.

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About Peace Clause
• Under the Peace Clause, WTO members refrain from challenging any breach in the prescribed
subsidy ceiling given by a developing nation at the dispute settlement forum of the WTO.
• Subsidies over and above the prescribed ceiling are seen as trade-distorting.
• Subsidy ceiling: Under the global trade norms, a WTO member country's food subsidy bill
should not breach the limit of 10 percent of the value of production based on the reference
price of 1986-88.
• India has been seeking amendments to the formula for calculating this food subsidy cap.
• As an interim measure, the WTO members at the Bali ministerial meeting in December 2013 agreed
to put in place a mechanism popularly called the Peace Clause and committed to negotiating an
agreement for a permanent solution.
• This clause will be there till a permanent solution is found to the food stockpiling issue.
• While the ‘peace clause’ allows developing countries to breach the 10% ceiling without
invoking legal action by members, it is subject to onerous notification requirements and
numerous conditions such as not distorting global trade and not affecting food security of
other members.

Q50 ANSWER (c)

Explanation:
Context:
UN Security Council refers Palestinian application to become full UN member to committee.
• Open to – UN full membership is open to all peace-loving States that accept the obligations
contained in the United Nations Charter and are able to carry out these obligations.
• States are admitted to membership in the United Nations by a decision of the General Assembly
upon the recommendation of the Security Council.
The procedure –
• The State submits an application to the Secretary-General and a letter formally stating that it accepts
the obligations under the Charter.
• The Security Council considers the application.
• Any recommendation for admission must receive the affirmative votes of 9 of the 15 members
of the Council, provided that none of its five permanent (P5) members have voted against the
application. Statement 1 is correct.
• P5 members – China, France, the Russian Federation, the United Kingdom of Great Britain and
Northern Ireland and the United States of America.
• If the Council recommends admission, the recommendation is presented to the General
Assembly for consideration. Statement 2 is correct.
• A two-thirds majority vote is necessary in the Assembly for admission of a new State.
Statement 3 is correct.
• Membership becomes effective the date the resolution for admission is adopted.
• It should be noted that the normal change of Governments, as through a democratic election, does
not raise any issues concerning the credentials of the representative of the State concerned.

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Q51 ANSWER (c)
Explanation:
Context:
Recently, the Department of Archaeology and Museums have unearthed a coin hoard at the
Phanigiri in Suryapet district, Telangana.
About Phanigiri
• It is a famous Buddhist site located 110 km away from Hyderabad.
• This site derived its name from the shape of the hillock, which appears to be like a snake hood. The
word Phani in Sanskrit means snake and Giri means hillock.
• It is believed to be one of the important Buddhist monasteries strategically located on the ancient
trade route (Dakshinapatha) connecting the west and the east coast of the Deccan.
Other findings of the excavation
• Coins: Lead coins with elephant symbol on one side and Ujjain symbol on the other side are found.
• According to the archaeologists, the coins belong to the Ikshvaku period dated between 3rd century
and 4th century Common Era.
• Also, stone beads, glass beads, shell bangle fragments, stucco motifs, broken limestone sculptures,
a wheel of a toy cart, final nails and pottery are excavated.
• Mahastupa, apsidal Chaityagrihas, Votive stupas, pillared congregation halls, Viharas, platforms
with staircases at various levels, octagonal stupa chaitya, 24-pillared mandapam, circular chaitya,
and cultural materials that included terracotta beads, semi-precious beads, iron objects, Brahmi
label inscriptions and holy relic casket are also excavated.
• All the cultural material is datable from the 1st century BCE to 4th century CE.
About Sannati Buddhist site:
• It is the ancient Buddhist site on the bank of Bhima River near Kanaganahalli (forming part
of Sannati site) in Kalaburagi district, Karnataka. It is also popular among tourists for the
Chandrala Parameshwari Temple.
Major findings in this site:
• It is believed to have been developed in three constructional phases – Maurya, Early Satavahana
and Later Satavahana periods stretching from 3rd Century B.C. to 3rd Century A.D.
• Ranamandala area of Sannati offers a unique chronological scale from prehistoric to early historic
times.
• An inscription written in the Prakrit language using the Brahmi script is also found here.
• The excavation also recovered another precious stone of historical importance – a stone sculpture
portraying Mauryan Emperor Ashoka. The emperor is seen surrounded by his queens and female
attendants in this rare sculpture. The sculpture had the words “Raya Asoko” etched on it in Brahmi
script leaving little scope for mistaking the identity of the man featured in it.
• The recoveries included around 60 dome slabs with sculptural renderings of selected Jataka stories,
main events in the life of the Master, portraits of Shatavahana monarchs and certain unique
depictions of Buddhist missionaries sent by Ashoka to different parts
Sankisa, Uttar Pradesh
• It is thought to be the location where Buddha descended from heaven after giving teachings
to his mother.
• Sankisa is famous for a Bisari Devi shrine and an unearthed Ashoka elephant pillar.
• There is a Buddha Temple, which is said to be where Lord Buddha descended from heaven.
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 • Temple of Maya Devi, which has Buddhist sculptures dating back to the Mahayana period on its
walls; and the Shiva Linga, a massive Shiva Linga that is also a draw for Hindu worshippers.
Lalitgiri, Odisha
• It is a large Buddhist complex in the Indian state of Odisha that includes huge stupas,
‘esoteric’ Buddha statues, and monasteries (viharas), and is one of the region’s oldest sites.
• Lalitgiri is part of Puspagiri University, which is located on top of the same-named hills as Ratnagiri
and Udayagiri.
• The “Diamond Triangle” refers to the three complexes.
• At this location, Tantric Buddhism was practiced.

Q52 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
Context:
Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) recently announced the successful deployment in space of
its sub-metre resolution optical satellite, TSAT-1A, by SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket.
About TSAT-1A:
• It is an optical sub-metre-resolution Earth observation satellite.
• It was built by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) in collaboration with Latin American
company Satellogic Inc, following a collaboration agreement between the two companies in late
2023.
• TSAT-1A was assembled in TASL's Assembly, Integration, and Testing (AIT) plant at its Vemagal
facility in Karnataka.
• It was launched by SpaceX's Falcon 9 rocket from the Kennedy Space Center, Florida, in the
US.
Features:
• TSAT-1A's core strength lies in its ability to capture military grade imagery of Earth's
surface with sub-meter resolution.
• It is equipped with both multispectral and hyperspectral imaging capabilities. This technology
allows TSAT-1A to collect data across a wide range of wavelengths within the electromagnetic
spectrum, providing a deeper and more nuanced understanding of land, water, and various natural
resources.
• TSAT-1A boasts greater collection capacity, a wider dynamic range (the ability to capture detail in
both very bright and very dark areas), and low-latency delivery of data.
This satellite will be used by Indian defence forces to gather discreet information, and this information will
be shared with friendly nations.
It can enable defence forces to enhance their preparedness, response capabilities, and strategic decision-
making.
While India has a few military spy satellites built by ISRO, this is the first such initiative in the private
sector.

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Q53 ANSWER (b)
Explanation:
Context:
Israel for the first time used a seaborne missile defence system to shoot down a drone approaching
from the Red Sea that had set off sirens in the port city of Eilat, the military said on Tuesday.
More on news:
• Eilat has been a frequent target for launches by Iran-backed Houthis in Yemen as a show of support
for Hamas, the Palestinian group that rules Gaza and is also backed by Iran.
• Israel positioned missile boats in the Red Sea after the start of the war in Gaza, the military said.
One of those missile boats shot down the drone with the new system called the C-Dome.

About C-Dome:
• The C-Dome is a naval variant of the Iron Dome of Israel.
• C-Dome, according to Israeli defence contractor Rafael, uses the same interceptors as the
land-based Iron Dome that counters shorter range shorter-range rockets and drones.
• It bookends Israel’s multi-tier air defence array opposite Arrow-3, which is designed to intercept
ballistic missiles outside the earth’s atmosphere.

Q54 ANSWER (b)

Explanation:
• Botswana, officially the Republic of Botswana, is a landlocked country in Southern Africa.
• Botswana is topographically flat, with approximately 70 percent of its territory being the Kalahari
Desert.
• It is bordered by South Africa to the south and southeast, Namibia to the west and north, and
Zimbabwe to the northeast.
• It is connected by the Kazungula Bridge to Zambia, across the world's shortest border
between two countries.

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Q55. Answer (c )
Explanation:

Additional information: What is the Nagorno-Karabakh Conflict?

● Nagorno-Karabakh, known as Artsakh by Armenians, is a landlocked mountainous area in the
Caucasus region (the transcontinental region between the Black Sea and the Caspian Sea).
○ It is internationally recognised as part of Azerbaijan but its inhabitants are predominantly
ethnic Armenians.
○ They have their own government which has enjoyed close links to Armenia's but has not
been officially recognised by Armenia or any other country.
● The conflict dates back to the late 1980s when the region declared its independence from Azerbaijan
as the Soviet Union collapsed.
○ The first war erupted between Armenia and Azerbaijan over the territory, which ended with
a ceasefire in 1994, leaving Nagorno-Karabakh and some surrounding areas under
Armenian control.
○ The ceasefire was frequently violated by both sides, and several attempts to negotiate a
peaceful settlement failed.
● In 2020, Azerbaijan launched the Second Karabakh War, winning a resounding victory and retaking
seven surrounding districts and about a third of Nagorno-Karabakh.
○ Russia brokered a peace deal after the Second Karabakh War in 2020 and provided for up
to 1,960 Russian peacekeepers stationed in the region.

Q56. Answer (a)

Explanation:
About Akash Weapon System:-
● AKASH is a Short Range Surface Air Missile system. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
● It is a Russian-made missile system.

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 ● It was planned and developed as part of India’s Integrated Guided-Missile Development Program
(IGMDP). Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
● The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) created it, and Bharat Dynamics
Limited (BDL). produced it
● It can track aeroplanes up to 50–80 kilometres away and at altitudes of 18,000 metres.
● It can destroy aerial targets such as fighter jets, cruise missiles, and air-to-surface missiles, as well
as ballistic
● It is to protect vulnerable areas and vulnerable points from air attacks.
● AKASH Weapon System can simultaneously engage Multiple Targets in Group Mode or
Autonomous Mode. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
● It has built-in Electronic Counter-Counter Measures (ECCM) features.
● The entire weapon system has been configured on mobile platforms.
● AKASH Weapon Systems has been inducted and is operational with the Indian Air Force (IAF) as
well as the Indian Army (IA).

Q57. Answer (d)

Explanation:

What is Shanghai Cooperation Organization?

● About:
○ SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organization.
○ It’s a political, economic and military organization aiming to maintain peace, security and
stability in the region.
○ It was created in 2001.
○ The SCO Charter was signed in 2002 and entered into force in 2003.

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 ● Objectives:
○ Strengthening mutual trust and neighborliness among the member states.
○ Promoting effective cooperation in -politics, trade & economy, research & technology and
culture.
○ Enhancing ties in education, energy, transport, tourism, environmental protection, etc.
○ Maintain and ensure peace, security and stability in the region.
○ Establishment of a democratic, fair and rational new international political & economic
order.
● Structure:
○ Heads of State Council: The supreme SCO body which decides its internal functioning and
its interaction with other States & international organisations, and considers international
issues.
○ Heads of Government Council: Approves the budget, considers and decides upon issues
related to economic spheres of interaction within SCO.
○ Council of Ministers of Foreign Affairs: Considers issues related to day-to-day activities.
○ Rats: Established to combat terrorism, separatism and extremism.
● SCO Secretariat:
○ Based in Beijing to provide informational, analytical & organizational support.
● Official language:
○ The official working language of the SCO Secretariat is Russian and Chinese.

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Q.58 Answer (a)
Explanation:
Ramsar sites in India:-

About Salt Marshes:-

● These are types of wetlands.
○ Wetlands: Lands transitional between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems where the water
table is usually at or near the surface or the land is covered by shallow water.
● These are periodically saturated, flooded, or ponded with water.
● They are characterized by herbaceous (non-woody) vegetation adapted to wet soil conditions.
● They are further characterized as tidal marshes and non-tidal marshes.

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Marshes are often divided into:-
Freshwater Swamps
● These are often found hundreds of kilometres from the coast.
● These are dominated by grasses and aquatic plants.
● These marshes often develop around lakes and streams.
Saltwater Marshes
● These are some of the richest ecosystems for biodiversity.
● They are dominated by grasses.
● They provide food and shelter for algae, fungi, shellfish, fish, amphibians, and reptiles.
● A few mangrove trees may dot saltwater marshes, but they are dominated by grasses and a layer of
algae called an algal mat.
● This algal mat is home to many insects and amphibians.
Wetlands in India
● Globally, wetlands cover 4 percent of the geographical area of the world
● The ‘Convention on Wetlands’ is called the Ramsar convention.
○ It was signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971.
○ It is an intergovernmental treaty which provides the framework for national action and
international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.

Q59. Answer (b)

Explanation:

About the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF):-

● It is an Indian specialized force .
● It was constituted “for the purpose of special response to a threatening disaster situation or disaster”
under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
● It comes under Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
● It is the only dedicated disaster response force in the world
● The Apex Body for Disaster Management in India is the National Disaster Management Authority
(NDMA).
● The Chairman of the NDMA is the Prime Minister. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
● The head of the NDRF is designated as Director General.
○ The Director Generals of NDRF are IPS officers on deputation from Indian police
organisation.
○ Director General is a three-star officer.
Working of NDRF:-
● The responsibility of managing disasters in India is that of the State Government.
● When ‘calamities of severe nature’ occur, the Central Government is responsible for providing aid
and assistance to the affected state, including deploying, at the State’s request, of Armed Forces,
Central Paramilitary Forces, National Disaster Response Force (NDRF),and such communication,
air and other assets, as are available and needed.

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Composition:-
● National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) is a force of 12 battalions, organized on para-military
lines, and manned by persons on deputation from the para-military forces of India.
● These include:-
○ three Border Security Force
○ three Central Reserve Police Force
○ two Central Industrial Security Force
○ two Indo-Tibetan Border Police and
○ two Sashastra Seema Bal.

Q60 Answer (b)

Explanation:
About
● The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and UN Human Settlements Programme
(UN-Habitat) established the day in response to the worsening impacts of waste on human health,
the economy and the environment. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
● The day calls upon all stakeholders — including governments, civil society, businesses, academia,
communities, women and youth — to engage in activities that raise awareness of zero-waste
initiatives.
● On 14 December 2022, the United Nations General Assembly adopted a resolution at its seventy-
seventh session to proclaim 30 March as International Day of Zero Waste, to be observed
annually.
Significance
● The waste crisis is undermining the Earth’s ability to sustain life. Waste costs the global economy
billions of dollars each year.
● Waste generation has increased massively around the world in recent decades, and there are no
signs of it slowing down. By 2050, worldwide municipal solid waste generation is expected to have
increased by roughly 70 per cent to 3.4 billion tonnes.
● Promoting zero-waste initiatives can help advance all the goals and targets in the 2030 Agenda for
Sustainable Development, including Sustainable Development Goal 11 on making cities and human
settlements inclusive, safe, resilient and sustainable and UN-mandated Sustainable Development
Goal 12 on ensuring sustainable consumption and production patterns
India’s initiatives in Waste management
● The Government of India has undertaken multiple large-scale national initiatives such as ‘Swachh
Bharat Mission’, ‘National Water Mission’ and ‘Waste to Wealth Mission ‘ as a part of its
commitment to effective waste & pollution management in India.
● To promote and support the goals of the Swachh Bharat Unnat Bharat Abhiyan, the Solid Waste
Management (SWM) Rules 2016, Plastic Waste Management (PWM) Rules, 2016 and the E-waste
(Management) Rules, 2016 have been notified.
● In February 2022, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi, inaugurated Asia’s biggest municipal solid
waste based GOBARdhan plant in Indoreaiming to generate 19,000 kg bio-CNG gas.

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 ● Under Swachh Bharat Mission-Urban 2.0, the bio-methanation plants linked to the GOBARdhan
and SATAT schemes will produce Bio-CNG as a renewable energy.

Q61. Answer (a)

Explanation:

About Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary:-

● Dibang Wildlife Sanctuary is located nearby Anini district, Arunachal Pradesh.
● It has been named after the Dibang river, a tributary of the Brahmaputra river.
● It occupies part of the Eastern Himalayas.
● Flora: the two main categories of vegetation are temperate broad-leaved forest and temperate
conifer forest (Rhododendron, Bamboo, Gregaria, Tsuga etc).
○ Alpine vegetation occurs at higher altitudes with herbs, stunted trees and dwarf bushes.
● Fauna: Mishmi takin, Asiatic black bear, tigers, gongshan muntjac, red panda, red goral and musk
deer.

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About Idu Mishmis:-
● It is a sub-tribe of the larger Mishmi group in Arunachal Pradesh and neighbouring Tibet.
● They primarily live in Mishmi hills bordering Tibet.
● They are believed to have migrated from the Mongoloid race.
○ Mongoloid race: belong to the Tibeto-Burman family.
● Their language (also called Idu Mishmi) is considered endangered by UNESCO.
● They follow a strict belief system of myths and taboos like ‘iyu-ena’.
○ Iyu-ena: restrict them from hunting many animals, including a complete prohibition on
killing tigers.

Q62. Answer (a)

Explanation:

● Rare earth elements are a set of seventeen metallic elements in the periodic table. Hence, Statement
1 is incorrect.
● The 17 Rare Earths are cerium (Ce), dysprosium (Dy), erbium (Er), europium (Eu), gadolinium
(Gd), holmium (Ho), lanthanum (La), lutetium (Lu), neodymium (Nd), praseodymium (Pr),
promethium (Pm), samarium (Sm), scandium (Sc), terbium (Tb), thulium (Tm), ytterbium (Yb),
and yttrium (Y).
● They are characterized by high density, high melting point, high conductivity, and high thermal
conductance. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
● They do not occur in a free state rather are found in mineral oxide ores.
● They occur abundantly but are often not concentrated enough to undertake viable extraction.
Uses of Rare earth elements:-
● They are widely used in high technology owing to their luminescent and catalytic properties.
● Neodymium, is a critical component for permanent.
● Aerospace and Defence: it is used in precision-guided munitions in missiles, high-power sonar on
ships and submarines, stealth helicopters, etc.
● Health care: are used in medical imaging devices, such as MRIs, and modern surgical machines.
● Clean Energy: is used in wind turbines, electric car batteriesand energy-efficient lights (LEDs and
CFLs).
● Nuclear Energy: these are useful for controlling nuclear reactionsand are used in control rods.
● Electronics: Used as phosphors in cathode ray tubes, fluorescent lamps and X-ray intensifying
screens.
● Chemicals, Oil Refining, and manufacturing: Make the refining of crude oil into gasoline more
efficient and are used in many speciality metal alloys.
● Europium is necessary for LED bulbs and colour television screens.
● Samarium is used in optical lasers.
India’s situation:-
● India is almost 100% import-dependent for most rare earth.
● However, India possesses the 5th highest reserves of rare earth in the world

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 ● In India, rare earth minerals like ilmenite, sillimanite, garnet, zircon, monazite, and rutile,
collectively are found and these are called Beach Sand Minerals (BSM).
● Monazite is the principal source.
○ It is mainly found in Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, West Bengal, and
Jharkhand.
International situation:-

● China holds the leading position among producers of rare earth oxides.
● Other major producers are Myanmar, Australia, the USA, Russia and Malaysia.
● Concentrated/partially-processed intermediate products are further processed at many locations in
Europe, the USA, Japan and China.

Q63. Answer (b)

Explanation:

About North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO):-

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 ● NATO is a Western defensive military alliance led by the United States. Hence, Statement 1 is
correct.
● The NATO headquarters are located in Brussels, Belgium.
○ The headquarters of Allied Command Operations is near Mons, Belgium.
○ India is not a member.
Background:-
● It came into being after World War II as a counter to the Soviet Union’s possible expansion attempts
in Europe.
● Then-US President Harry S Truman signed the 12-member treaty on April 4, 1949.
● After the collapse of the USSR in 1991, several eastern European nations previously members of
the Soviet Union joined NATO.
● It has 32 Members now:-
○ Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway,
Portugal, the United Kingdom, the United States, Greece, Turkey, Germany, Spain,
Czechia, Hungary, Poland, Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Romania, Slovakia,
Slovenia, Albania, Croatia, Montenegro, and North Macedonia,Finland,Sweden.
Core duties:-
● It follows the collective Defence principles and routinely undertakes exercises to strengthen its
territorial, naval, and air forces. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
● NATO members also arm themselves to face evolving methods of attacks like cybercrimes.
● They also have participated in military operations in Bosnia and Herzegovina, Kosova,
Afghanistan, Iraq, Libya and Syria, among others.

Q64. Answer (a)

Explanation:

About UN Statistical Commission:-

● The United Nations Statistical Commission was established in 1947.
● Headquarters: New York
● It is the highest body of the global statistical system bringing together the Chief Statisticians from
member states from around the world. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
● It is the highest decision-making body for international statistical activities, responsible for setting
statistical standards and the development of concepts and methods, including their implementation
at the national and international levels.
● The Statistical Commission oversees the work of the United Nations Statistics Division (UNSD),
and it is a Functional Commission of the UN Economic and Social Council.
● Sessions: The 54th session of the United Nations Statistical Commission was held on 28 February
– 3 March 2023.

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Mandate:-
● The Statistical Commission was established by the Economic and Social Council.
● Commission shall assist the Council:-
○ In promoting the development of national statistics and the improvement of their
comparability;
○ In the coordination of the statistical work of specialized agencies;
○ In the development of the central statistical services of the Secretariat
Membership:-
● The Commission consists of 24 member countries of the United Nations elected by the United
Nations Economic and Social Council on the basis of an equitable geographical distribution
according to the following pattern:
○ Five members from African States
○ Four members from Asia-Pacific States
○ Four members from Eastern European States
○ Four members from Latin American and Caribbean States
○ Seven members from Western European and other States
● The term of office of members is four years. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
● India is a member. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Q65. Answer (a)

Explanation:

● The firm in question is Cognyte Software Ltd, which faces a class action lawsuit in the U.S. from
investors.
About Cybersecurity:

● Cybersecurity or information technology security are the techniques of protecting computers,

networks, programs, and data from unauthorized access or attacks that are aimed for exploitation.
● Cyber security is concerned with making cyberspace safe from threats, namely cyber-threats.
Significance of Cybersecurity: The concept of cybersecurity can be applied in various contexts, from
general business operations to firewall technologies, but it can be divided into a few general categories.
● Information security – to protect and secure the privacy and integrity of data at rest or at movement.

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 ● Network security – to secure a computer network from bad actors that might be a targeted attack or
malicious malware.
● Operational security – to create and maintain the processes, procedures and decision making for
treatment and protecting data assets.
● Application security – to concentrate on maintaining the safety of software and devices clear of
threats.
● Business continuity and disaster recovery – to decide how an organization responds to a
cybersecurity incident or breach of data.
○ These are the policies and procedures that dictate how the organization re-establishes
control of its operations and information to the same level prior to the event because
resources may be lacking post event.
● Risk Management – to manage organizational risk in the company’s information security program
itself, which offers an operative framework for setting the risk appetite and security controls for
systems.
● Security Awareness training – to address the education of people who often cause security
vulnerabilities based on their actions or lack thereof.
○ People can unintentionally introduce a virus or malware to an otherwise secure system if
they are not knowledgeable of security best practices, such as deleting suspicious
attachments in emails, refrain from inserting unidentified USB drives, etc.
Reasons for increasing cyber-attacks:

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 ● Increasing dependency on technology: As we grow faster, more and more systems are being shifted
to virtual space to promote access and ease of use.
● Lack of robust law enforcement mechanisms: India’s approach to cyber security has so far been ad
hoc and unsystematic.
● Lack of International Coordination: International cooperation and consensus is missing in this field.
● Adverse relations with China: China is considered one of the world leaders in information
technology.
○ Therefore, it is expected to have capabilities to disable or partially interrupt the information
technology services in another country.
Challenges in Ensuring Cyber Security:
● Widespread digital illiteracy
● Use of Substandard devices
● Rampant use of unlicensed software and underpaid licenses also make them vulnerable.
● Lack of adoption of new technology
● Lack of uniform standards
● Import dependence
● Lack of adequate infrastructure and trained staff
● Anonymity
● Lack of coordination among various agencies working for cyber security
Government of India Initiatives:
● The Government of India (GoI) has taken several technical, institutional, and legislative steps to
tackle issues related to cybersecurity, including the National Cyber Security Policy (2013) and
enactment of the Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000.
● The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) was founded by the Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) as the national bureau for event response,
including evaluation, prediction and alerts for cybersecurity breaches.
● The Cyber Swachhta Kendra(Botnet Cleaning and Malware Analysis Centre) (CSK), a constituent
of the Digital India initiative of the GoI under MeitY, works to create a secure cyberspace by
identifying botnets.
● Cyber and Information Security (C&IS) division of Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) deals with
issues relating to Cyber Crime, Cyber Security, National Intelligence Grid (NATGRID) and
National Information Security Policy & Guidelines (NISPG).
● Cyber Crime Prevention against Women and Children (CCPWC) Scheme is established by MHA
to give the states/UTs financial support of USD 11.99 million for the establishment of cyber
forensic-cum-training laboratories.
● National Cyber Coordination Centre (NCCC) and National Critical Information Infrastructure
Protection Centre (NCIIPC) are some other initiatives undertaken by the government concerning
cybersecurity.
Way Forward:
Thus, the governments, both at the state and central level as well as policymakers need to play an active
role in spreading awareness and training individuals. A large part of India’s population is digitally literate
but unaware about basic security measures.

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With the introduction of 5G and the arrival of quantum computing, the potency of malicious software, and
avenues for digital security breaches would only increase. India’s cybersecurity strategy would do well not
to overlook these actualities and trends.
The G-20 summit this year in India is a rare opportunity to bring together domestic and international
engagement groups across the spectrum, and steer the direction of these consultations.

Q66. Answer (d)

Explanation:

What is G20?
The G20 countries together account for 85% of the global GDP, over 75% of global trade, and about 2/3rd
of the world population.
● It is an international forum that brings together the world's leading industrialised and emerging
economies.
● Launch- Established in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis as a regular forum for Finance Ministers
and Central Bank Governors.
● Aim- To study, review, and promote high level discussion of policy issues pertaining to
international financial stability.
● Objectives-
○ Policy coordination between its members in order to achieve global economic stability,
sustainable growth;
○ To promote financial regulationsthat reduce risks and prevent future financial crises; and
○ To create a new international financial architecture
● Member- It comprises of 19 countries (Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, UK, US, Russia,
Australia, Canada, Saudi Arabia, India, South Africa, Turkey, Argentina, Brazil, Mexico, China
and Indonesia) and European Union.

● The group does not have permanent secretariat.

● Presidency- The President is chosen by a rotation system amongst the member countries.
○ India holds the Presidency of the G20 from December 2022 to 30 November 2023.
● Troika- It comprises of the past, present, and future presidents.
○ Troika 2023 includes Indonesia, India, and Brazil.
● Guest- Every year, the host country chooses other guests.
● Spain always participates in the G20 summits.

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 ● Working structure-
○ Finance track- Meets 4 times in a year.
○ Sherpa track- Established after the inception of G20 Leaders’ Summit in 2008. It covers
non-financial issues.
○ Engagement groups- An unofficial track comprising non-government participants from
each member country.

Q67 Answer (d)

Explanation:

Recently, ISRO and its partners successfully demonstrated a precise landing experiment for a Reusable
Launch Vehicle at theAeronautical Test Range (ATR), Chitradurga, Karnataka.
● An Indian Air Forces (IAF) Chinook helicopter was used to drop the RLV-TD from a 4.5 km
altitude and ISRO executed the landing experiment of the RLV-TD as planned.

What is ISRO’s RLV Project?

● About:
○ According to ISRO, the series of experiments with the winged Reusable Launch Vehicle-
Technology Demonstration (RLV-TD) are part of efforts at“developing essential
technologies for a fully reusable launch vehicle to enable low-cost access to space”.
○ In the future, this vehicle will be scaled up to become the first stage of India’s reusable two-
stage orbital (TSTO) launch vehicle.
● Features and Application:
○ ISRO’s RLV-TD looks like an aircraft. It consists of a fuselage, a nose cap, double delta
wings, and twin vertical tails. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
○ The RLV-TD will be used to develop technologies like hypersonic flight (HEX),
autonomous landing (LEX), return flight experiment (REX) and powered cruise flight.
Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

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 ● Significance:
○ With the costs acting as a major deterrent t o space exploration, a reusable launch vehicle
is considered a low-cost, reliable, and on-demand mode of accessing space.
■ By using RLVs the cost of a launch can be reduced by nearly 80% of the present
cost.
● Other Previous Experiment:
○ ISRO had earlier demonstrated the re-entry of its winged vehicle RLV-TD in the HEX
mission in May 2016.
○ In HEX, the vehicle landed on a hypothetical runway over the Bay of Bengal. Precise
landing on a runway was an aspect not included in the HEX mission.
■ The LEX mission achieved the final approach phase that coincided with the re-entry
return flight path exhibiting an autonomous, high speed (350 kmph) landing.

Q68. Answer (c)

Explanation:

Key Points
● Geographical Location of Black Sea:

○ The Black Sea, also known as the Euxine Sea, is one of the major water bodies and a famous
inlandsea of the world.
○ This marginal sea of the Atlantic Ocean, located between Eastern Europe and Western Asia.
○ It is surrounded by the Pontic, Caucasus, and Crimean Mountains in the south, east and
north respectively.
○ The Turkish straits system - the Dardanelles, Bosporus and Marmara Sea - forms a
transitional zone between the Mediterranean and the Black Sea.
○ The Black Sea is also connected to the Sea of Azov by the Strait of Kerch.
○ The bordering countries of Black Sea are: Russia, Ukraine, Georgia, Turkey, Bulgaria and
Romania.

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 ● Anoxic Water:
○ There is a significant absence of oxygen in the water.
○ The Black Sea happens to be the largest water body with a meromictic basin, which means
the movement of water between the lower and upper layers of the sea is a rare phenomenon
to find anywhere in the world.
○ The anoxic condition is also caused due to the presence of the process of eutrophication in
the sea.

Q69. Answer (b)

Explanation:

What are the Key Points of Bandipur Tiger Reserve?

● About:
○ It lies in one of the richest biodiversity areas of our country representing western ghats
Mountains Biogeography Zone”,surrounded by mudumalai tiger reserve (Tamil Nadu) in
the South, Wayanad wildlife sanctuary (Kerala) in the Southwest & on the North West Side
the Kabini Reservoir separates the Bandipur and Nagarhole tiger reserve.
○ The reserve is recognized as one of the Mega Biodiversity Areas in the country and is home
to rich floral and faunal diversity.
● Establishment:
○ It was established in 1973 under Project Tiger. In 1985, by including adjacent areas from
Venugopala Wildlife Park, it was enlarged and named Bandipur National Park.
● Location:
○ It is situated in two contiguous districts (Mysore and Chamarajanagar) of Karnataka and is
located at the tri-junction area of the States Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
● Biosphere Reserve:
○ The Bandipur Tiger Reserve is part of the Mysore Elephant Reserve and is an important
component of the country’s first biosphere reserve, the Nilgiri biosphere reserve.
○ The landscape spanning Bandipur, Nagarahole, Mudumalai, and Wayanad complex is home
not only to the highest number of tigers in the country – about 724, but also to the largest
asian elephant population.
● Rivers and the Highest Point:
○ The park is located between the Kabini river in the north and the Moyar river in the south.
The Nugu river runs through the park. The highest point in the park is on a hill called
Himavad Gopalaswamy Betta.
● Other Tiger Reserves in Karnataka:
○ Bhadra Tiger Reserve
○ Nagarhole tiger reserve
○ Dandeli anshi tiger reserve
○ Biligiriranganatha Swamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve

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Q70. Answer (a)

Explanation:

What is CPTPP?
● About:
○ The CPTPP is a FTA between Australia, Brunei Darussalam, Canada, Chile, Japan,
Malaysia, Mexico, Peru, New Zealand, Singapore and Vietnam.
○ The CPTPP was signed by the 11 countries on 8 March 2018 in Santiago, Chile.

● Background:
○ In 2005, a trade agreement between a small group of Pacific Rim countries comprising
Brunei, Chile, New Zealand, and Singapore led to the formation of Trans Pacific Partnership
(TPP) consisting of 12 nation-states.
○ After the withdrawal of the US, the remaining eleven signatories, known as the TPP-
11,continued talks and their efforts led to the formation of CPTPP.
● Significance:
○ CPTPP removes 99% of tariffs on goods and services, just like the original TPP did, all the
member countries have agreed to cut down on wildlife trafficking. That helps elephants,
rhinoceroses, and marine species the most.
○ It prevents environmental abuses, such as unsustainable logging and fishing. Countries that
don't comply will face trade penalties.

What are the Benefits of the CPTPP for the U.K.?

● More than 99% of British exports, including key markets such as cheese, cars, chocolate,
machinery, gin, and whisky, will have zero tariffs.
● The deal is expected to add GBP 1.8 billion (USD 2.2 billion) annually to the U.K. economy in the
long run, a modest boost of 0.08% to GDP.
● The CPTPP is a "gateway" to the Indo- pacific region which is expected to account for a majority
(54%) of global economic growth in the future.

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 ● As a CPTPP member, the U.K. will have a veto on whether China joins the treaty. U.K. firms will
not need to establish a local office or be resident to provide services and will be able to operate on
a par with firms in host countries.

What is India's stand on CPTPP?

● India did not join as it seeks to place greater labor and environmental standards on its other partners
and CPTPP draft includes narrowly detailed qualifications on standards for investment protection,
provisions to protect the host state’s right to regulate, and the imposition of detailed transparency
requirements. Hence, Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

Q71. Answer (d)

Explanation:

What is a Geographical Indication (GI) tag Tag?

● About:
○ A GI tag is a name or sign used on certain products that correspond to a specific
geographical location or origin.
○ The GI tag ensures that only the authorised users or those residing in the geographical
territory are allowed to use the popular product name.
■ It also protects the product from being copied or imitated by others.
○ A registered GI is valid for 10 years.
○ GI registration is overseen by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

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 ● Legal Framework and Obligations:
○ The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 seeks to
provide for the registration and better protection of geographical indications relating to
goods in India.
○ It is governed and directed by the WTO Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual
Property Rights (TRIPS).
■ Furthermore, the significance of protecting industrial property and geographical
indications as integral components of intellectual property is acknowledged and
emphasised in Articles 1(2) and 10 of the Paris Convention.

About Kangra tea:-

● In 1849, Dr Jameson, then superintendent of the Botanical Tea Gardens, pronounced the region
ideal for tea cultivation.
● Being one of India’s smallest tea regions makes Kangra green and black tea all the more exclusive.
● While the black tea has a sweet lingering aftertaste, the green tea has a delicate woody aroma.
● It is hand-plucked and processedwith traditional methods to bring out its full potential.
● It is exported to Kabul and Central Asia via Peshawar.
● Kangra tea is a registered Geographical Indication (GI).
● Tea Attributes: The first flush of Kangra tea is known for its quality, unique aroma and tinge of
fruity flavour.
● A little milder than Darjeeling tea in terms of flavour.
● It has more body and liquor.
● Elevation: Teas are grown at elevations ranging from 900 to 1400 metres above sea level.
● Annual Rainfall: 270 to 350cm.

Q72. Answer (b)

Explanation:
About Mahila Samman Savings Certificate (MSSC) 2023:-
● It is a one-time small savings scheme for women to commemorate celebrations of 75 years of
Independence. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
● It will be made available for a two-year period up to March 2025. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
● It will be under the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
● The small saving certificate will have a fixed interest rate of 7.5% for two years.
● The deposit can be made in the name of a woman or a girl child.
● The maximum deposit amount has been kept at ₹2 lakhs and the scheme will have a partial
withdrawal facility as well.
Eligibility:-
● Application for opening an account under the scheme can be made by a woman for herself or by
the guardian on behalf of a minor girl.
Deposit limit:-
● Any number of MSSC accounts can be opened by a woman, or in the name of a minor girl by the
guardian, subject to the maximum limit of Rs 2 lakh.

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Interest Rate:-
● The Government has notified 7.5% interest on deposits in an MSSC account.
● The interest will be compounded on a quarterly basis and credited to the account.
Maturity and Payment:-
● The notification said that the deposit shall mature on completion of two years from the date of the
deposit.
● The eligible balance may be paid to the account holder on an application in Form-2 submitted to
the accounts office on maturity.
Partial Withdrawal:-
● An MSSC accountholder will be allowed to withdraw a maximum of up to 40% of the eligible
balance once after the expiry of one year from the date of opening of the account but before the
maturity of the account.
● The notification further said that in case of an account opened on behalf of a minor girl, the guardian
may apply for the withdrawal for the benefit

Q73. Answer (a)

Explanation:

About nuclear reactors: A class of devices that contain and control sustained nuclear chain reactions, these
systems are at the heart of any nuclear power plant.

Nuclear Reactor in Earth orbit:

• The U.S.’ first and only known space nuclear reactor, the SNAP-10A was the result of the government-
sponsored System for Nuclear Auxiliary Power (SNAP) programme, also known as SNAPSHOT for Space
Nuclear Auxiliary Power Shot.

• The SNAP reactors had liquid sodium-potassium alloy as the coolant. A thermoelectric enriched uranium
fuel with zirconium hydride as a moderator converter was used to directly convert heat from the reactor
into electricity.

• Russia has sent quite a few of them, including one that crashed and scattered radioactive debris over
Canada in 1978.

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Q74. Answer (b)
Explanation:

Key Points
● Properties of Lithium:
○ It is a chemical element with the symbol Li.
○ It is a soft, silvery-white metal.
○ Under standard conditions, it is the lightest metal and the lightest solid element.
○ It is highly reactive and flammable, and must be stored in mineral oil.
○ It is an alkali metal and a rare metal.
■ The alkali metals consist of the chemical elements lithium, sodium, potassium,
rubidium, caesium, and francium. Together with hydrogen they constitute group 1,
which lies in the s-block of the periodic table.
■ Rare Metals (RM) include Niobium (Nb), Tantalum (Ta), Lithium (Li), Beryllium
(Be), Cesium (Cs) etc. and Rare Earths (RE) include Lanthanum (La) to Lutetium
(Lu) besides Scandium (Sc) and Yttrium (Y).

■ These metals are strategic in nature with wide application in the nuclear and other
high tech industries such as electronics, telecommunication, information technology,
space, defense etc.
● Uses:

■ Lithium metal is used to make useful alloys.

For example, with lead to make ‘white metal’ bearings for motor engines, with
aluminium to make aircraft parts, and with magnesium to make armour plates.
○ In Thermonuclear reactions.

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 ○ To make electrochemical cells. Lithium is an important component in electric vehicles,
Laptops etc.
● Countries with Largest Reserves:

○ Chile> Australia> Argentina

● Lithium in India:

○ Researchers at the Atomic Minerals Directorate (under India’s Atomic Energy

Commission) have estimated lithium reserves of 14,100 tonnes in a small patch of land
surveyed in southern Karnataka’s mandya district recently.

■ Also to be India’s first ever Lithium deposit site found.

● Other Potential Sites in India:

○ The major mica belts in Rajasthan, Bihar, and Andhra Pradesh.

○ Pegmatite (igneous rocks) belts in Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
○ Brines of Sambhar and Pachpadra in Rajasthan, and Rann of Kachchh in Gujarat.
● Related Government Initiative:

○ India, through a newly state-owned companyKhanij Bidesh India Ltd, had signed an
agreement with an Argentinian firm to jointly prospect lithium in Argentina.

■ Khanij Bidesh India Ltd has a specific mandate to acquire strategic mineral assets
such as lithium and cobalt abroad.

Q75 Answer (a)

Explanation:

About Eravikulam National Park:-

● It is located in the Eravikulam and Idukki districts of Kerala.
● It is located in the High Ranges (Kannan Devan Hills).
● It hosts South India’s highest peak, Anamudi.
● It is famous for Nilgiri tahr.
● Another speciality of Eravikulam national park is the Neelakurinji flower that blooms every 12
years.
● In 1975 the government declared the region as Eravikulam Wildlife Sanctuary.
● In 1978 the region was declared a National park.
● Vegetation: Grasslands, Shrub Land, and Shola Forests are the three major plant species present.
● It serves as a catchment area for both east-flowing rivers (tributaries of the Pambar) and west-
flowing rivers (tributaries of the Periyar and Chalakkudy).
● Fauna: Lion-tailed macaques, Indian muntjac, gaur and sambar deer are the other animals found in
the national park.
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 ● Flora: The Park contains three major types of plant communities namely grasslands, shrublands,
and woods.
About Ferns:-
● A fern is a member of a group of vascular plants.
○ Vascular plants: plants with xylem and phloem.
● They reproduce via spores.
● They have neither seeds nor flowers.
● They have specialized tissues that conduct water and nutrients and in having life cycles in which
the sporophyte is the dominant phase.
● They have complex leaves called megaphylls.
Significance:-
● They are used for food, medicine, and as biofertilizers.
● They are used as ornamental plants and for remediating contaminated soil.
● They have been the subject of research for their ability to remove some chemical pollutants from
the atmosphere.
● Some fern species, such as bracken (Pteridiumaquilinum) and water fern (Azollafiliculoides) are
significant weeds worldwide.
● Some fern genera, such as Azolla, can fix nitrogen and make a significant input to the nitrogen
nutrition of rice paddies.
● They also play certain roles in folklore.

Q76. Answer (a)

Explanation:

About GSAT-7B satellite:-

● It is a communication satellite. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
● It is a part of the GSAT-7 series.
● It is the first-ever in the five-tonne category that will be designed indigenously by the ISRO.
● GSAT 7 series satellites are advanced communication satellites developed by the Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO) to meet the communication needs of the defence services.
● The GSAT 7B will primarily fulfil the communication needs of the Indian Army.
● It is a geostationary satellite. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
● It will considerably enhance the communication capability of the Indian Army.

Q77. Answer (c)

Explanation:

● The NPCI has recently introduced interchange fees of up to 1.1 per cent on merchant UPI
transactions done using prepaid payment instruments (PPIs) from April 1, 2023.
Key highlights of the changes:
Applicability:
● The new NPCI guidelines on wallet interoperability establish interchange fee for wallet usage,
which will be paid to issuers of wallets such as Paytm, PhonePe and Google Pay, among others.
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 ● They also include charges for UPI-wallet-loading that will be paid by wallet issuers to remitter
banks or the bank accounts from which the amount is being debited.
Benefit for wallet players:
● The inter-operability norms will enable universal acceptance of wallets across all UPI QR codes
and devices, thus increasing the salience or relevance of wallets.
● It will also ensure uniformity and parity by clearly defining the interchange fees on wallet payments
as against the current practice of bilateral agreements between wallet issuers and payment
platforms.
Interchange fees:
● The interchange rates vary according to merchant category codes, in the range of 0.5 per cent to 1.1
per cent.
● Categories such as fuel, education, agriculture and utility payments attract a lower interchange of
0.5-0.7 per cent; convenience stores across food shops, specialty retail outlets and contractors, have
the highest charge of 1.1 per cent.
Wallet transactions:
● The interchange fees are paid by merchants to wallets or card issuers and are usually absorbed by
merchants.
● Smaller merchants and shopkeepers are unlikely to be impacted as it is applicable only on payments
of over Rs. 2,000.
● MDR or merchant discount rate is applicable on wallets-on-UPI in certain cases and this move may
lead to higher MDRs imposed on merchants, depending on payment companies’ ability and
willingness to pass on the interchange.
Impact on Customers:
● The norms are expected to increase the appeal, scope, role and usability of wallets as they can now
be used to make UPI payments across QR codes and devices, increasing payments alternatives for
customers.
● Consumers will also be able to load their wallets from anywhere including credit or debit cards,
BNPL (Buy Now Pay Later) and net banking, among others, thus creating a mechanism to use any
instruments for UPI transactions, albeit directly or indirectly.
● Currently, MDR for bank-to-bank UPI transactions is zero.
About Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs):
● PPIs are instruments that facilitate purchase of goods and services, conduct of financial services,
enable remittance facilities, etc., against the value stored therein. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
● Prepaid payment instruments’ examples include smart cards, online accounts, online wallets, stripe
cards, paper vouchers, etc. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
● The primary objective of these instruments is to get access to the amount already prepaid.
○ So, one can purchase the required goods without any physical exchange of cash or card.
Digital Transactions in India
● Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY),Digital Economy & Digital Payment
Division has been entrusted with the responsibility of leading this initiative on “Promotion of
Digital Transactions including Digital Payments”.

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 ● MeitY is coordinating with multiple stakeholders including Banks, Payment Service Providers,
Central Ministries/Departments and States/UTs, for promotion of digital payments across the
country.
● Major digital payment modes:Bharat Interface for Money-Unified Payments Interface (BHIM-
UPI), Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), and National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) have
undergone significant growth in the last five years.

Q78. Answer (d)

Explanation:

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Q79. Answer (d)

Explanation:

What is the Project?

● About:
○ The project, which started in 2015, is being implemented jointly by the Forest Department
and the (BNHS).
○ The nursery at Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary is growing more than 100 species of native
grasses, plants, and trees, and provides saplings for plantation by agencies in the city.
● Aim:
○ The aim of the seed bank is to supply native saplings for the city and reintroduce species
that have become rare or hard to locate. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
○ The seed bank also aims to create awareness around the trees that are disappearing in Delhi,
have these trees available for people to be able to grow them, and map where they are.
○ The plan is to raise production to around 10 lakh saplings every year.
What is Seed Bank?
● About:
○ Seed banks are important repositories of plant genetic resources. Hence, Statement 1 is
correct.
○ They store seeds of different plant varieties, which are conserved to maintain their genetic
diversity and to preserve their ability to adapt to changing environmental conditions. Hence,
Statement 2 is correct.
○ Seed banks also serve as important resources for research, agriculture, and conservation.
● India’s Seed Bank:
○ India has established its own seed storage facility at Chang La in Ladakh, Jammu and
Kashmir.
■ It has been built jointly by the Defence Institute of High-Altitude Research (DIHAR)
and the National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) in 2010 under the
aegis of Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
■ It stores over 5,000 seed accessions (one accession consists of a set of seeds of a
particular species collected from different geographical and demographic locations).
● World’s Largest Seed Vault:
○ Svalbard Global Seed Vault or Doomsday Vault is the world’s largest seed storage facility
situated at Norway.
Asola-Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary
● Asola-Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary covering 32.71 sq. km area on the Southern Delhi Ridge of
Aravalli hill range on Delhi-Haryana border lies in Southern Delhi as well as northern parts of
Faridabad and Gurugram districts of Haryana state.
● It is also part of the Sariska-Delhi Wildlife Corridor, which runs from the Sariska Tiger Reserve in
Rajasthan to Delhi Ridge.

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Q80. Answer (c )

Explanation:

What are the Key Points Related to the Discovery?

● About: It belongs to the skipper butterfly family of Lepidoptera (moths and butterflies).
○ It is the first documented subspecies of the Bromus swift ( Caltoris bromus) butterfly in the
western ghats and Peninsular India.
● Number of Butterfly Species: The discovery of Caltoris bromus sadasiva brings the count of
butterfly species in the Western Ghats to 336 and the count of skipper butterflies to 83, with the
last skipper butterfly discovery being almost 75 years ago.
● Caltoris: Caltoris, an Indo-Australian genus has over 15 species distributed across south-east Asia.
Caltoris bromus, one of them, has two other subspecies Caltoris bromus bromus and Caltoris
bromus yanuca.

What are the Key Facts about Vembanad Lakes?

● This is the largest lake in Kerala and the longest Lake in India.
● Vembanad Lake is also known as Vembanad Kayal, Vembanad Kol, Punnamada Lake (in
Kuttanad) and Kochi Lake (in Kochi).
● The lake has its source in four rivers, Meenachil, Achankovil, Pampa and Manimala.

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 ● It is separated from the Arabian Sea by a narrow barrier island and is a popular backwater stretch
in Kerala.
● In 2002, it was included in the list of wetlands of international importance, as defined by theRamsar
Convention.
○ It is the second-largest Ramsar sites in India only after the Sundarbans in West Bengal.

Q81. Answer (d)

Explanation:
About Nagri Dubraj Rice:-
● It is known as the Basmati of Chhattisgarh because of its fragrance.
● It is produced by a women’s self-help group “Maa Durga Swasahayata Samuh“.
● The grain finds reference in Valmiki Ramayana.
● It is an indigenous variety and has small grains, is very soft to eat after cooking.
About Basohli Painting:-
● Basohli painting belongs to the Kathua district of Jammu.
● It belongs to the Pahari School of Paintings.
● It has a unique style of miniature paintings that have a fusion of mythology and traditional folk art.
● The characteristic features of these paintings were the use of bright and bold colours like red,
yellow, and blue in the borders, as well as for the generally flat background.
● The other distinguishing part was the facial features- a prominent nose and lotus-shaped eyes.
● The female figures can be categorised into three typesaccording to their attire.
About Banarasi Paan:-
● It is made in Banaras, UP.
● It is known for its delicious taste.
● It is made using special ingredients in a unique way.
● It is an exotic combination of areca nuts, catechu (kattha) of fresh betel leaf, tobacco, and slaked
lime.
● Other ingredients like rose petals (gulkand), silver foil (Parekh) etc.are added to it.
About Langda mango:-
● Langra aam is believed to have originated in Banaras (now Varanasi).
● It maintains its green colour after it gets ripe, while other mangoes change into yellow-reddish
colour.
● This pulpy fruit is cultivated in mid-season in states including Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Gujarat,
Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Punjab, West Bengal and
Rajasthan
About GI Tag:-
● It is used for products which have specific geographical origins or have qualities that can be
attributed specifically to the region.
● The GI tags are issued as per the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection)
Act, of 1999.
● It is a part of the intellectual property rights that comes under the Paris Convention for the
Protection of Industrial Property.
● This tag is valid for a period of 10 years following which it can be renewed.

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Q82. Answer (a)
Explanation:

About Amogha-III:-
● Amogha-III is an indigenous missile.
● It is developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
● It has a fire-and-forget capability.
○ Fire-and-forget capability:meaning it does not require external intervention after launch.
● The missile features dual-mode Imaging Infra-Red (IIR) Seeker systems with a range of 200 to
2500 meters.
● It showcases a tandem warhead, consisting of two separate explosive charges that are detonated in
sequence.
● The first charge, known as the precursor charge, penetrates the target’s armour, creating a hole.
● The second charge or the main charge then detonates inside,maximizing damage inflicted on the
target.
● One of the unique features of the missile is it has both top and direct attack modes.

Q83. Answer (d)

Explanation:

About The National Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA):-

● It was constituted in 2018 under section 132 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013.
● It is an independent regulator.
● It works under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
● Objective: to continuously improve the quality of all corporate financial reporting in India. Hence,
Statement 2 is correct.
Composition:-
● Chairperson: a Chartered Accountant and a person of eminence having expertise in accountancy,
auditing, finance or the law (appointed by the Central Government) and a maximum of 15 members.
Functions and Duties:-
● It recommends accounting and auditing policies and standards to be adopted by companies for
approval by the Central Government. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
● It monitors and enforcescompliance with accounting standards and auditing standards
● It oversees the quality of serviceof the professions associated with ensuring compliance with such
standards and suggests measures for improvement in the quality of service.
Powers:-
● It has the same powers as the Civil Court.
○ To debar the member/firm from practice as a member of ICAI between 6 months to 10 years
as may be decided.
○ To investigate matters of professional or other misconduct.

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Jurisdiction:-
● Companies listed in India
● Unlisted Companies whose:
○ Net worth ≥ Rs. 500 crore; or
○ Paid up Capital ≥ Rs. 500 crore; or
○ Annual turnover ≥ Rs. 1000 crore (As on 31st March of the preceding financial year); OR
● Companies whose securities are listed outside India.

Q84. Answer (b)

Explanation:

About the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC):-

● It was established upon a decision of the historical summit which took place in Rabat, Kingdom of
Morocco in 1969.
● Headquarters: Jeddah, Saudi Arabia.
● It is the second largest intergovernmental organization after the United Nations (UN). Hence,
Statement 1 is correct.
● It has a membership of 57 states. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

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 ● Objectives:-
○ It is the collective voice of the Muslim world.
○ It endeavours to safeguard and protect the interests of the Muslim world.
○ It aims to promote international peace and harmony among various people of the world.
● India is not a member of the OIC. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Q85. Answer (b)

Explanation:
What is OPEC+?
● OPEC: Established in 1960 by founding members Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela,
OPEC has since expanded and now has 13 member states.
○ Member countries are: Algeria, Angola, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, Iran, Iraq,
Kuwait, Libya, Nigeria, Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, Venezuela.
■ Headquarter: Vienna, Austria.
○ OPEC produces about 40% of the world’s crude oil and its members’ exports make up
around 60% of global petroleum trade.
● OPEC+: In 2016, with the addition of another 10 allied major oil-producing countries, the OPEC
is known as OPEC+.
○ OPEC+ countries include 13 OPEC member countries and Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei,
Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan and Sudan.
● Objective:
○ The objective of the organisation is to“coordinate and unify the petroleum policies of its
Member Countries and ensure the stabilisation of oil markets in order to secure an efficient,
economic and regular supply of petroleum to consumers, a steady income to producers and
a fair return on capital for those investing in the petroleum industry.
Q86. Answer (d)
Explanation:

What is the Subansiri Lower Hydroelectric Project?

● About SLHEP:
○ SLHEP is an under-construction gravity dam(nearly 90% of the work completed) with
capacity 2000 MW (8x250 MW).

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 ○ It is the biggest hydroelectric project undertaken in India so far and is a run of river scheme
on river Subansiri.
■ A run-of-river dam is one in which the flow of water in the river downstream of the
dam is the same as the flow of water upstream of the dam.
■ In other words, the dam doesn't hold back/store water behind it; it runs with the river.
○ The construction of SLHEP is being undertaken by National Hydroelectric Power
Corporation (NHPC) Limited.
● About Subansiri River:
○ Subansiri, or “Gold River” is the largest tributary of the Upper brahmaputra river.
○ It originates from the Tibetan Himalayas and makes its way to India via (Miri Hills)
Arunachal Pradesh.
● Controversy regarding SLHEP: The project had been kept pending due to local agitation over
several dam safety and administrative issuesinvolved in the implementation of the project like:
○ SLHEP contravenes the 1980 Brahmaputra Board Act by transferring the work of Water
Resources Department of Subansiri Basin from the Brahmaputra Board to the public and
private sector.
○ As assessed by IIT-Roorkee, there is also the issue of increased seismic threat levels to the
dam.

Q87. Answer (a)

Explanation:

About World Energy Transitions Outlook report:-

● It is taken out by International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA).
● The World Energy Transitions Outlook outlines a vision for the transition of the energy landscape
to meet the goals of the Paris Agreement.
● It presents a pathway for limiting global temperature rise to within 1.5°C of pre-industrial levels
and bringing CO2 emissions to net zero by mid-century.
● It outlook charts an evolving pathway to achieving a climate-safe future in line with the goals of
the Paris Agreement.
● Its 1.5°C pathway offers a roadmap for accelerating the global energy transition by positioning
electrification and efficiency as key drivers of change, backed by renewables, hydrogen and
sustainable biomass.
● This Preview presents high-level insights from the forthcoming 2023 report, which builds on two
of IRENA’s key scenarios to capture global progress toward meeting the 1.5°C climate goal: the
Planned Energy Scenario (PES) and the 1.5°C Scenario.
● International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA):-
○ It is an intergovernmental organisation.
○ It was officially founded in Bonn, Germany, in 2009.
○ It has 167 members and India is the 77th Founding Member of IRENA.
○ It has its headquarters in Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates.

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Q88. Answer (d)

Explanation:

About India Justice Report 2022:-

● It was initiated by Tata Trusts in 2019. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
● This is the third edition.
● The foundation’s partners include the Centre for Social Justice, Common Cause, Commonwealth
Human Rights Initiative, DAKSH, TISS-Prayas, Vidhi Centre for Legal Policy and How India
Lives, IJR’s data partner.
● This report is based on overall data of 4 pillars of justice delivery namely Police, Judiciary, Prisons,
and Legal Aid. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
● It also separately assesses the capacity of the 25 State Human Rights Commissions in the country.
Findings of the report:-
Few number of judges:
● High courts: As of December 2022, against a sanctioned strength of 1,108 judges, the High Courts
were functioning with only 778 judges.
● Subordinate courts: The subordinate courts were found functioning with 19,288 judges against a
sanctioned strength of 24,631 judges.
Rising pendency:
● The number of cases pending per judge is rising in most States over the past five years.
● At High Court level: Uttar Pradesh has the highest average pendency – cases remain pending for
an average of 11.34 years,
○ West Bengal for 9.9 years.
○ The lowest average High Court pendency is in Tripura (1 year), Sikkim (1.9 years) and
Meghalaya (2.1 years).
Number of cases per judge:
● The number of cases a judge has to deal with has steadily increased.
● Between 2018 and 2022, the caseload per judge increased in 22 States and Union Territories.
Case clearance rate:
● The case clearance rate (CCR), or the number of cases disposed of in a year measured against the
number filed in that year, is a common metric used to determine the rate at which cases are disposed
of.
● The report found that the High Courts are clearing more cases annually than the subordinate courts.
● Between 2018-19 and 2022, the national average improved by six percentage points (88.5% to
94.6%) in High Courts, but declined by 3.6 points in lower courts (93% to 89.4%).
● Tripura is the only State where the CCR in district courts remained above 100%, with the exception
of 2020 — the year of the pandemic.
Number of court halls:
● Nationally, the number of court halls appears sufficient for the number of actual judges.
● However, that space will become a problem if all the sanctioned posts are filled.

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Caste based reservation:
● Though caste-based reservations vary from State to State, at the district court level, no State or
Union Territory could fully meet all its Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward
Classes quotas.
● State-wise data on caste diversity in High Courts remains unavailable.
Representation of Women:
● There are more women judges at the district court level than at the High Court level, with 35% of
the total number of judges at the district court level and only 13% of judges in the High Courts
across the country being women.
● Goa, with 70%, has the highest percentage of women judges at subordinate courts, followed by
Meghalaya and Nagaland at 63% each.
● Among the High Courts, Sikkim, with a total strength of just three judges, has the highest national
average at 33.3% of women judges.
● Bihar, Tripura, Manipur, Meghalaya, and Uttarakhand Continued to have no women judges in their
High Courts.
Q89. Answer (c)
Explanation:
About International Conference on Disaster Resilient Infrastructure 2023:-
● It is the annual conference of the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) and its
partners. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
● International Conference on Disaster Resilient Infrastructure 2023 is being hosted by India. Hence,
Statement 2 is correct.
● The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI):-
○ It is a multi-stakeholder global partnership of national governments, UN (United Nations)
agencies and programmes, multilateral development banks and financing mechanisms, the
private sector, and knowledge institutions.
○ The Prime Minister of India launched CDRI during his speech at the UN Climate Action
Summit in 2019.
○ It aims to promote the resilience of new and existing infrastructure systems to climate and
disaster risks in support of sustainable development.
○ Members: 30 countries and 8 organizations.
○ The CDRI Secretariat is based in New Delhi, India.
● It brings together member Countries, organizations, institutions and infrastructure actors and
stakeholders to strengthen the global discourse on disaster and climate-resilient infrastructure.
Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
● The ICDRI 2023 will focus on charting these solutions and pathways to Shaping Resilient
Infrastructure.
● It aims at delving into practices of creating risk-informed systems, resilient infrastructure assets
and innovative financing to deliver infrastructure needs.
● The conference will feature the progress of the Biennial Report on Global Infrastructure Resilience,
the collaborative delivery mechanism of IRIS with SIDS, and the operationalization of IRAF.
○ IRAF: multi-partner trust fund for DRI, and feature the launch of the DRI Academic
Network and Partnership.

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Objectives of ICDRI 2023 are:-
● To provide a platform for Member Countries to engage and contribute to DRI solution pathways.
● To bring together infrastructure actors for building partnerships, knowledge sharing and fostering
complementarity on DRI solutions.
● To convene DRI stakeholders for enhanced collective action on infrastructure resilience.
Thematic Focus:-
● Pillar 1: Delivering Resilient Infrastructure
○ Inclusive and Risk-Informed Systems
● Pillar 2: Delivering Resilient Infrastructure
○ Providing Reliable Services through Resilient Infrastructure Assets
● Pillar 3: Delivering Resilient Infrastructure
○ Realising Finance and Investments for Infrastructure Resilience

Q90. Answer (d)

Explanation:

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About Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary:-

● It is located in South Eastern Goa.

● Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary is the largest sanctuary in Goa and probably the most bio-diverse.
● It constitutes one of the vital corridors of the Western Ghats.
● Netravali or Neturli is an important tributary of River Zuari, which originates in the sanctuary.
● It has two important waterfalls namely, Savari and Mainapi.
● It has some of the finest yet relatively unexplored forests in the state.
● The typical forest here is mixed deciduous to semi-evergreen with a good network of streams and
tabletop grasslands.
● Fauna: Leopard, Giant Squirrel, Mouse Deer, Nilgiri Wood Pigeon and Ceylon Frogmouth.

Q91. Answer (b)

Explanation:

About Avalanche:-
● It is a mass of snow, rock, ice, soil, and other material sliding swiftly down a mountainside.
● Avalanches of rocks or soil are often called landslides.
● Snow slides are the most common kind of avalanche.
○ It can sweep downhill faster than the fastest skier.
● A snow avalanche begins when an unstable mass of snow breaks away from a slope.
● It occurs as layers in a snowpack slide off.
○ A snowpack is simply layers of snow that build up in an area, such as the side of a mountain.
● There are two main types of snow avalanches:
○ Sluff avalanches: occur when the weak layer of a snowpack is on top.
○ A sluff: is a small slide of dry, powdery snow that moves as a formless mass.
● Sluffs are much less dangerous than slab avalanches.
● A slab avalanche occurs when the weak layer lies lower down in a snowpack.

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About important passes in Sikkim:-

Nathu La (Pass)-Nathu La
● It is a mountain pass in the Himalayas in the East Sikkim district.
● It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China’s Tibet Autonomous Region.
● Nathu means “listening ears” and La means “pass” in Tibetan.
Jalep La (Pass)-Jelep La or Jelep Pass
● It is at an elevation of 4,267 m or 13,999 ft.
● It is a high mountain passbetween East Sikkim District, Sikkim, India, and Tibet Autonomous
Region, China.
● It is on a route that connects Lhasa to India.

Note:- Bomdi la and bum la passes are in Arunachal Pradesh.

Q92. Answer (b)

Explanation:

First-ever significant anti-spyware declaration:-

Aim: The declaration seeks to realize the importance of stringent domestic and international controls on
the proliferation and use of this technology. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Need for this declaration: Threat posed by the misuse of commercial spyware e.g., Israeli software Pegasus,
Hermit spyware

Countries involved: Australia, Canada, Costa Rica, Denmark, France, New Zealand, Norway, Sweden,
Switzerland, the United Kingdom, and the United States

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What is a Spyware?
Spyware is software with malicious behaviour that aims to gather information about a person or
organization and send it to another entity in a way that harms the user—for example, by violating their
privacy or endangering their device’s security.

Q93. Answer (d)

Explanation:

What are the Major Highlights of the World Bank Report?

● India:
○ Growth Rate:
■ India's growth rate has been downgraded to 6.3% for FY 2023-24 ,and the report
cites high borrowing costs and slower income growth as the primary reasons for this
downgrade.
■ The female labour force participation rate and the size and productivity of
the informal sector are also concerns in India.
■ However, the services sector and the construction sector are the fastest-growing
industries in India, with strong investment growth and high business confidence.
■ India's growth rate is expected to grow at 6.4% in FY 2024-25, which is an upgrade
of 0.3 % points from the previous forecast.

What is World Bank?

● About:
○ It was created in 1944, as the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(IBRD) along with theIMF. The IBRD later became the World Bank.
○ The World Bank Group is a unique global partnership of five institutions working for
sustainable solutions that reduce poverty and build shared prosperity in developing
countries.
○ The World Bank is one of the United Nations specialized agencies.
● Members:
○ It has 189 member countries.
○ India is also a member country.
● Its Five Development Institutions:
○ International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
○ International Development Association (IDA)
○ International Finance Corporation (IFC).
○ Multilateral Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
○ International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)
■ India is not a member of ICSID.

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Q94. Answer (b)
Explanation:

About Parambikulam Tiger Reserve:-

● Parambikulam Tiger Reserve is located in the Palakkad and Thrissur districts of Kerala, South
India.

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 ● It includes the former Parambikulam Wildlife Sanctuary, which was established in part in 1973
and 1984.
● It stood 7th in the country in terms of Management Effectiveness in the 2018 Assessment (among
50 Tiger Reserves in the country).
● The area was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2010.
● A total extent of 643.66 sq km, out of which an extent of 390.89 km2 has been declared as the core
or critical tiger habitat and 252.77 km2 as the buffer zone of the Tiger Reserve.
● Parambikulam is a well-protected part of the Nelliampathy – Anamalai sub-unit of the Western
Ghat.
○ Nelliampathy: Anamalai sub-unit of the Western Ghats.
● Habitat: evergreen forests, moist and dry deciduous forests and grasslands.
○ Other unique habitats like montane grasslands and marshy grasslands (locally known as
‘vayals’) are extensively found.
● Parambikulam has one of the highest densities of the Gaur population in Southern India.
● It is also home to four different tribes of indigenous peoples, including the Kadar, Malasar,
Muduvar, and Mala Malasar,settled in six colonies.
● The only South Indian wild goat, the nilgiri tahr is also found

Q95. Answer (b)

Explanation:
What is the Senkaku Island Dispute?
● About:
○ The Senkaku Island dispute concerns a territorial dispute over a group of uninhabited islands
known as:
■ Senkaku Islands in Japan,
■ Diaoyu Islands in China, and
■ Tiaoyutai Islands in Taiwan.
○ Both Japan and China claim ownership of these islands.
● Location:
○ Eight uninhabited islands lie in the East China Sea. They have a total area of about 7 sq
kmand lie northeast of Taiwan.

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 ● Strategic Importance:
○ Islands are close to strategically important shipping lanes, offer rich fishing grounds and are
thought to contain oil deposits.
● Japan's Claim:
○ After World War II, Japan renounced claims to a number of territories and islands including
Taiwan in the 1951 treaty of San Francisco.
○ But under the treaty, the Nansei Shoto islands came under USA trusteeship and were then
returned to Japan in 1971.
○ Japan says that Senkaku islands are part of the Nansei Shoto islands and hence they also
belong to Japan.
○ Besides, China raised no objections to the San Francisco deal.
○ Only since 1970s, when the issue of oil resources in the area emerged, Chinese and
Taiwanese authorities began pressing their claims.
● China's Claim:
○ These Islands have been part of its territory since ancient times, serving as important fishing
grounds administered by the province of Taiwan.
○ When Taiwan was returned in the Treaty of San Francisco, China said the islands as part of
it – should also have been returned.
● Taiwan Claims:
○ Taiwan claims the islands but has forged agreements with Japan to avoid any conflict as
Japan maintains close defence ties with Taipei.
○ Despite the ongoing dispute, Japan maintains close defence ties with Taiwan.

Q96. Answer (d)

Explanation:

LIGO-India will be built by the Department of Atomic Energy and the Department of Science and
Technology with an MoU with the U.S. National Science Foundation.

The observatory will be the third of its kind. It is made to the exact specifications of the twin LIGO, in
Louisiana and Washington in the U.S.

A fourth detector in Kagra, Japan, is in the pipeline.

Four comparable detectors need to be operating simultaneously around the globe to localise a source of
gravitational waves anywhere in the sky.
● About LIGO:
LIGO currently consists of two interferometers, each with two km long arms arranged in the shape of an
L. These instruments act as antennae to detect gravitational waves.It comprises stable high-power lasers,
precisely figured mirrors, etc.

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 ● About Gravitational Waves GW: When two massive objects collide, they create a ripple in space
and time in such a way that waves sciof undulating space-time would propagate in all directions
away from the source. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Predicted in Einsteins General Theory of Relativity They travel at the speed of light, carrying with them
information about their origins. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Q97. Answer (c )

Explanation:

What is BRICS?
● BRICS is an acronym for the grouping of the world’s leading emerging economies, namely Brazil,
Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
● In 2001, the British Economist Jim O’Neill coined the term BRIC to describe the four emerging
economies of Brazil, Russia, India, and China.
● The grouping was formalized during the first meeting of BRIC Foreign Ministers in 2006.
● South Africa was invited to join BRIC in December 2010, after which the group adopted the
acronym BRICS.
○ The Johannesburg declaration,2023 issued after the summit, said Argentina, Egypt,
Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates (UAE) had been invited to
become full members from January 1, 2024.
● The BRICS (prior to expansion) represented 41% of the global population, 24% of the global GDP,
and 16 % of the global trade.
● Since 2009, its summits are held annually.

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Q98. Answer (d)

Explanation:

About Extended Range Anti Submarine Rocket:-

● The ER-ASR was designed by the Pune-based Armament Research and Development
Establishment (ARDE) and the High Energy Materials Research Laboratory (HEMRL) of the
DRDO. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
● It is designed to intercept submarines at specific depths. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
● Its rocket system will be deployed in anti-submarine operations.
○ It will be fired from an indigenised rocket launcher mounted onboard various Indian naval
ships.
● ER-ASR can be fired in single or in salvo mode depending on the tactical mission requirements.
Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
● The maiden successful test from the ship is a step towards enhancing the capability of the Indian
Navy in anti-submarine warfare and towards achieving ‘Atma Nirbharta’ in defence.
● ER-ASR has been designed to replace the existing Russian-origin Rocket Guided Bombs (RGBs)
which are already fitted in ships.
○ While the RGB has a range of five kilometres, the ER-ASR can achieve a range of over
eight kilometres.

Q99. Answer (a)

Explanation:

About Indian Space Policy 2023:

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 ● It seeks to institutionalise the private sector participation in the space sector, with ISRO focusing
on research and development of advanced space technologies.
○ The policy will allow the private sector to take part in end-to-end space activities that
include building satellites, rockets and launch vehicles, data collection and dissemination.
● The Indian Space Policy-2023, also delineated the roles and responsibilities of ISRO, space sector
PSU NewSpace India Limited (NSIL) and Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization
Centre (IN-SPACe).
○ Strategic activities related to the space sector will be carried out by NSIL, a public sector
undertaking under the Department of Space, which will work in a demand-driven mode.
● The INSPACe, created recently, will be the interface between Indian Space Research Organisation
and non-governmental entities.
● The policy also spells out the framework for the private sector to use ISRO facilities for a small
charge and encourages them to invest in creating new infrastructure for the sector.
○ ISRO will not do any operational and production work for the space sector and focus its
energies on developing new technologies, new systems and research and development.
● The operational part of ISRO’s missions will be moved to the NewSpace India Limited, a public
sector undertaking under the Department of Space.

Q100. Answer (c )
Explanation:

About India-Bhutan Bilateral Relations:

Strategic Importance of Bhutan

● Bhutan is important to India as a buffer state as it acts as a defence against China by protecting the
chicken neck corridor.
● The Siliguri Corridor, or Chicken’s Neck, is a narrow stretch of land of about 22 kilometres.
● It is located in the Indian state of West Bengal, which connects India’s north-eastern states to the
rest of India, with the countries of Nepal and Bangladesh lying on either side of the corridor.
● The Doklam stand-off re-established the strategic significance of Bhutan for India.

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Trade and Economic Ties:
● India is Bhutan’s largest trading partner.
● In 2020, bilateral trade accounted for 6% of Bhutan’s total trade.
● Imports from India accounting for more than 77.1% of Bhutan’s total imports.
● Bhutan’s exports to India constituted 90.2 % of its total exports.
● The revised Bilateral Agreement on Trade, Commerce and Transit between India and Bhutan came
into effect in 2017, and would be valid for ten years.
● In line with our ‘Neighbourhood First Policy’, new market access has been opened for five Agri-
commodities from Bhutan to India (Areca nut, Mandarin, Apple, Potato, and Ginger), and three
commodities from India to Bhutan (Tomato, Onion, and Okra).
● India allows 16 entry and exit points for Bhutanese trade with other countries (the only exception
being China) and has agreed to develop and import a minimum of 10,000 megawatts of electricity
from Bhutan by 2021.
Hydel Power Cooperation:
● Government of India has constructed three Hydroelectric Projects (HEPs) in Bhutan totalling 1416
MW, which are operational and exporting surplus power to India.
○ Hydropower exports provide more than 40% of Bhutan’s domestic revenues and constitute
25% of its GDP.
● The ongoing cooperation between India and Bhutan in the Hydropower sector is covered under the
2006 Agreement on Cooperation in Hydropower and the Protocol to the 2006 agreement signed in
March, 2009.
○ Under this Protocol, Government of India has agreed to assist Royal Government of Bhutan
in developing a minimum of 10,000 MW of hydropower and import the surplus electricity
from this to India by the year 2020.
● In April 2014, an Inter-Governmental Agreement was signed between India and Bhutan for
development of four more HEP’s of capacity 2120 MW.
● India has constructed three Hydroelectric Projects (HEPs) in Bhutan:
○ Chukha HEP,
○ Kurichhu HEP
○ Tala HEP which is operational and exporting surplus power to India.
● Recently, India completed a 720 MW Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Power Project and both sides are
in process of expediting the completion of other ongoing projects including the 1200MW
Punatsangchhu-1 & 1020MW Punatsangchhu-2.
Multilateral Partnership and Defence:
● Both India and Bhutan are founding members of SAARC that deals with economic, social and
cultural development of South Asian Region.
● Both of them also share other multilateral forums such as BBIN(Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, and
Nepal), BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi Sectoral Technical and Economic
Cooperation)
● Apart from defence ties governed through Friendship Treaty, the Eastern Army Command and the
Eastern Air Command both have integrated protection of Bhutan into their role.
● The Indian Military Training Team (IMTRAT), headed by a Major General, plays a critical role in
training Bhutanese security personnel.

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Q101. Answer (c )
Explanation:

About Kaushambi Mahotsav-2023:-

● Kaushambi Mahotsav-2023 is asports festival.
● It is organized by the Member of Parliament.
● These Khel Mahotsavs give platforms to young players to showcase their talent
● About 16000 youths online applied to participate in the ‘Sansad Khelkood Spardha’
○ Sansad Khelkood Spardha: started by the Members of Parliament.
About Durga Bhabhi:-
● Durga Devi was a freedom fighter from Kaushambi.
● She was fondly called ‘Durga Bhabhi’.
● She was married to Bhagwati Charan Vohra.
● She had spent her savings ₹5,000 given by her husband on revolutionary works and in support of
Indian revolutionaries fighting against British imperialism.
● She was a woman revolutionary and spy.
● She gave shelter to Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru after the assassination of Assistant
Superintendent of Police John Saunders and later rescued them out of Lahore by agreeing to
introduce herself as Bhagat Singh’s wife to save him from the British police.
● She met several Bengali revolutionaries and even learned bomb-making.
● She was an active member of the Naujawan Bharat Sabha.
● On 8 October 1930, she fired on a British sergeant and his wife near the police station in South
Bombay’s Lamington Road, before escaping.
○ The shooting was to avenge the death sentence awarded to Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and
Rajguru.
● She was finally arrested in September 1932.
● In 1935, she moved to Ghaziabad and started teaching in a school.
● Later, she opened a school in Lucknow for poor children.
○ Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru even visited the school once,

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About Mahajanpadas:-

● The Mahjanapadas were sixteen oligarchic republics or kingdomsthat existed in ancient India.
● It existed from the sixth to the fourth century BCE.
● There were sixteen of such Mahajanapadas: Kasi, Kosala, Anga, Magadha, Vajji, Malla, Chedi,
Vatsa, Kuru, Panchala, Machcha, Surasena, Assaka, Avanti, Gandhara and Kamboja.
● The strongest and most influential Mahajanapada was Magadha.
● When the tribes (Janas) of the late Vedic period made the decision to establish their own territorial
communities.
● It resulted, in new and long-lasting regions of settlement known as “states” or “janapadas”
○ Janapadas: small kingdoms known that eventually gave rise to Mahajanapadas.

The 16 Mahajanapadas were:-

Mahajanpadas Capital
Anga Champa
Magadha Rajagriha
Kasi Kasi
Vatsa Kaushambi
Kosala Shravasti (northern), Kushavati (southern)
Shurasena Mathura
Panchala Ahichchhatra and Kampilya
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Kuru Indraprastha
Matsya Viratanagara
Chedi Sothivathi
Avanti Ujjaini or Mahishmati
Gandhara Taxila
Kamboja Poonch
Asmaka Potali/Podana
Vajji Vaishali
Malla Kusinara

Q102. Answer (b)

Explanation:

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