AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

6. Both Dinoflagellates and Euglenoids:
Botany - Section A 1. have stiff cellulosic cell wall
1. Though their main body is sporophyte, yet, free-living 2. have two flagella
photosynthetic gametophyte can be seen in: 3. can behave as heterotrophy when deprived of sunlight
1. Bryophytes 4. are mostly marine and photosynthetic
2. Pteridophytes
3. Gymnosperms 7. In Dianthus and Primrose, the ovules:
4. Angiosperms 1. are borne on a ridge along the ventral suture of the
ovary
2. Consider the two statements: 2. are attached to axial placenta in a multilocular ovary
I. Most of the water flow in the roots occurs via the 3. are borne on central axis and septa are absent
apoplast. 4. is single and attached to placenta at the base of the
II. The movement of water through the root layers is ovary
ultimately symplastic in the endodermis.
1. Only I is correct 8. Periderm and secondary phloem constitute:
2. Only II is correct 1. bark
3. Both I and II are correct 2. cork
4. Both I and II are incorrect 3. heart wood
4. sap wood
3. The number of ATP and NADPH molecules required to
make one molecule of glucose through the Calvin 9. Krebs cycle takes place in the part labeled:
pathway respectively is:
1. 6 and 6
2. 6 and 9
3. 12 and 15
4. 18 and 12

4. Match each item in Column I with the one in Column II

and select the correct match from the codes given:
COLUMN I COLUMN II
[Mineral] [Role in plant]
A Boron P Structure of chlorophyll
B Manganese Q Synthesis of auxin
C Magnesium R Pollen germination
D Zinc S Splitting of water in photosynthesis

Codes:
AB C D
1. P Q R S
2. R S P Q 1. 1
2. 2
3. Q S R P 3. 3
4. S R Q P 4. 4

10. Gynoecium is situated in the centre and other parts of

5. For each molecule of glucose, the number of molecules the flower are located on the rim of the thalamus almost at
of Acetyl CoA entering the Citric Acid Cycle is: the same level in:
1. 1 1. Mustard
2. 2 2. China rose
3. 3 3. Plum
4. 4 4. Guava

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 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
11. Consider the two statements: 18. Nitrogen-fixing bacterium that lives in symbiosis with
I. The water-splitting complex is located on the inner side actinorhizal plants in the genus Alnus is:
of the thylakoid membrane 1. Rhizobium
II. The NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stromal 2. Frankia
side of the thylakoid membrane 3. Azotobacter
1. Only I is correct 4. Azospirillum
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct 19. The relationship between incident light and carbon
4. Both I and II are incorrect dioxide fixation by photosynthetic plants, at low light
intensities, is a:
12. Nostoc: 1. Straight line relationship
1. is a green alga 2. Hyperbola relationship
2. is unicellular eukaryote capable of forming filamentous 3. Parabola relationship
colonies 4. Ellipse relationship
3. can fix atmospheric nitrogen
4. carry out anoxygenic photosynthesis 20. Match each item in Column I with the one in Column
II and select the correct match from the codes given:
13. The PGR ethylene does not: COLUMN I COLUMN II
1. promote senescence and abscission of plant organs [Family] [Floral character]
2. affect fruit ripening A Brassicaceae P Tetradynamous stamen
3. stimulate closure of stomata in times of water stress
4. help in initiating flowering in pineapple B Fabaceae Q Obliquely placed ovary
C Solanaceae R Epitepalous stamen
D Liliaceae S Vexillary aestivation
14. During complete aerobic respiration of one molecule
of glucose, there can be a net gain of: Codes:
1. 24 ATP
ABCD
2. 28 ATP
3. 33 ATP 1. S R Q P
4. 38 ATP 2. R Q S P
3. P Q S R
15. Identify the incorrect statement regarding 4. P S Q R
photosynthetic pigments in higher plants:
1. Chlorophyll a is the chief pigment associated with
photosynthesis.
2. In the chromatogram, carotenoids appear bright or blue 21. Identify the incorrect statement:
green. 1. Gymnosperms lack vessels in their xylem.
3. Accessory pigments protect chlorophyll a from photo- 2. In roots, the arrangement of primary xylem is endarch.
oxidation. 3. Gymnosperms lack sieve tubes and companion cells.
4. The maximum absorption of chlorophyll a is in blue 4. Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the
and green wavelength region of light. monocotyledons.

16. At the root tip, some of the epidermal cells form very 22. The initial carboxylation reaction:
fine and delicate, thread-like structures called root hairs in 1. occurs in mesophyll cells in C3 plants and in bundle
the region of: sheath cells in C4 plants
1. Root cap 2. occurs in bundle sheath cells in C3 plants and in
2. Meristematic activity mesophyll cells in C4 plants
3. Elongation
3. occurs in mesophyll cells in both C3 plants and in C4
4. Maturation
plants
17. Mycelium branched and septate, asexual spores 4. occurs in bundle sheath cells in both C3 plants and in
conidia produced exogenously and sexual spores produced C4 plants
endogenously are the features of fungi belonging to:
1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes
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 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
23. Column I shows characteristics of members of Red 27. Match each item in Column I with the one in Column
algae. Match each item in Column I with the one in II and select the correct match from the codes given:
Column II and select the correct match from the codes COLUMN I COLUMN II
given: [PGR] [Discovered by]
COLUMN I COLUMN II A Auxin P F. W. Went
A Pigment P Fucoxanthin B Gibberellic acid Q E. Kurosawa
B Stored food Q Phycoerythrin C Kinetin R Miller et al.
C Cell wall R Floridean starch D Ethylene S H. H, Cousins
D Flagella S Laminarin
T Polysulfate esters Codes:
U Algin ABCD
V 2-8. equal, apical 1. P Q R S
W Absent 2. Q P S R
3. R S Q P
Codes: 4. S R P Q
ABCD
1. Q R T W
2. P S U V 28. Which of the following is an activator of carboxylases
and alcohol dehydrogenase?
3. Q R U W
1. Magnesium
4. P S T V 2. Molybdenum
3. Zinc
4. Iron
24. What is not common to facilitated transport and active
transport? 29. In Australian acacia:
1. Requirement of special membrane proteins 1. The leaves are converted into spine for defence
2. Highly selective nature 2. The leaves are converted into tendrils for climbing
3. Saturation of transport 3. The petiole expands, becomes green, and
4. Uphill transport photosynthesizes food
4. The leaves become fleshy and store food
25. An example of a chemical used to remove the effect of
inhibitory chemicals, present in seeds and causing 30. Match each item in Column I with the one in Column
dormancy, is: II and select the correct match from the codes given:
1. Abscisic acid COLUMN I COLUMN II
2. Gibberellic acid [Kingdom] [Cell wall]
3. Para-ascorbic acid
A Monera P Absent
4. Phenolic acid
B Fungi Q Chitinous
26. How is a prion different from viroids, viruses, C Plantae R Polysaccharide + amino acid
bacteria, fungi, and parasites? D Animalia S Cellulosic
1. It is non-infectious Codes:
2. It is obligate intracellular parasite
ABCD
3. It is devoid of nucleic acids
4. It is a low molecular weight RNA molecule 1. R S Q P
2. R Q S P
3. Q S R P
4. P Q R S

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 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
31. In Electron Transport System in mitochondria, UQH2
passes electrons to: Botany - Section B
1. FMN 36. Assertion: The spread of living pteridophytes is
2. Cytochrome b limited and restricted to narrow geographical regions.
3. Fe-S Reason: Evolutionarily, pteridophytes are the first
4. FAD terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissue – xylem and
phloem.
32. Match each item in Column I with the one in Column 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
II regarding C4 plants and select the correct match from correct explanation of the assertion
the codes given: 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
COLUMN I the correct explanation of the assertion
COLUMN II 3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false
A Primary acceptor of carbon dioxide P RuBP
Cells in which Calvin cycle takes 37. Assertion: Some infections with gram-negative
B Q PEP
place bacteria can lead to life-threatening septic shock.
Primary carbon dioxide fixation Bundle Reason: Lipopolysaccharide layer in gram-negative
C R
product sheath bacteria can trigger an innate immune response.
D Example S Mesophyll 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
T PGA correct explanation of the assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
U OAA the correct explanation of the assertion
V Sorghum 3. Assertion is true but reason is false
W Wheat 4. Both assertion and reason are false

Codes: 38. Assertion: Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Trichoderma

are kept in the fungal class- Deuteromycetes.
ABC D
Reason: Asexual and vegetative phases in the life cycle of
1. Q S U V these fungi are not known.
2. P S T W 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
3. Q R U V correct explanation of the assertion
4. P R T W 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false
33. A modification of stem where a lateral branch with
short internodes and each node bearing a rosette of leaves 39. Assertion: The respiratory pathway is an amphibolic
and a tuft of roots is found in: pathway.
1. Mint and Jasmine Reason: The respiratory pathway is involved in both
2. Pistia and Eicchornia anabolism and catabolism.
3. Banana and Pineapple 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
4. Chrysanthemum and Strawberry correct explanation of the assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
34. Which of the following is not an anatomical feature of the correct explanation of the assertion
a dicot stem? 3. Assertion is true but reason is false
1. Hypodermis of collenchyma 4. Both assertion and reason are false
2. Endodermis, also called the starch sheath
3. Pericycle semilunar patches of parenchyma 40. Assertion: Spraying sugarcane crops with gibberellins
4. Vascular bundle – conjoint and closed increase the yield by as much as 20 tonnes per acre.
Reason: Sugarcane stores carbohydrates such as sugar in
35. 2, 4 – D, widely used to kill dicotyledonous weeds, is their stems.
a derivative of: 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
1. Auxin correct explanation of the assertion
2. Cytokinin 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
3. Gibberellin the correct explanation of the assertion
4. Abscisic acid 3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false
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 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
41. Assertion: Shoot apices modify themselves into 46. Assertion: During secondary growth in a dicot stem,
flowering apices prior to flowering. the amount of secondary phloem produced is more than
Reason: Shoot apices are the site of perception of secondary xylem.
light/dark in plants. Reason: The cambium is more active on the outer than on
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the the inner side.
correct explanation of the assertion 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not correct explanation of the assertion
the correct explanation of the assertion 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
3. Assertion is true but reason is false the correct explanation of the assertion
4. Both assertion and reason are false 3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false
42. Assertion: The reaction centres in both photosystems
in plants is the same. 47. Assertion: Cyclic photophosphorylation results in the
Reason: The reaction centres of both photosystems are synthesis of ATP but not of NADPH + H+.
formed by chlorophyll b molecules. Reason: The excited electron does not pass on to NADP+
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the but is cycled back to the PS I complex through the
correct explanation of the assertion electron transport chain.
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
the correct explanation of the assertion correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
4. Both assertion and reason are false the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
43. Assertion: Growth, at a cellular level, is measured by a 4. Both assertion and reason are false
variety of parameters such as increase in fresh weight, dry
weight, length, area, volume and cell number. 48. Assertion: Growth cannot be taken as a defining
Reason: Such parameters are more or less proportional to property of living organisms.
the increase in protoplasm which is primarily responsible Reason: A multicellular organism grows by cell division.
for growth at cellular level. 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
correct explanation of the assertion 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
the correct explanation of the assertion 3. Assertion is true but reason is false
3. Assertion is true but reason is false 4. Both assertion and reason are false
4. Both assertion and reason are false
49. Assertion: The membranes of chloroplasts and
44. Assertion: Water is often the limiting factor for plant mitochondria are not included in the endomembrane
growth and productivity in both agricultural and natural system of a eukaryotic cell.
environments. Reason: The presence of chloroplasts and mitochondria in
Reason: Plants have very high demands for water. eukaryotic cells is explained by endosymbiosis.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion correct explanation of the assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
the correct explanation of the assertion the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false 3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false 4. Both assertion and reason are false

45. Assertion: The maximum concentration of alcohol in 50. Assertion: Excess of manganese may induce
beverages that are naturally fermented with yeast is about deficiency of calcium.
13%. Reason: Manganese competes with calcium for uptake.
Reason: In alcohol fermentation, yeast converts pyruvic 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
acid to ethanol and carbon dioxide. correct explanation of the assertion
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
correct explanation of the assertion the correct explanation of the assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not 3. Assertion is true but reason is false
the correct explanation of the assertion 4. Both assertion and reason are false
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false
Page: 5
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
56. Consider the given statements regarding Sponges.
Zoology - Section A I. They have a cellular level of organisation
51. Which of the following stages of Meiosis is not II. Digestion is intracellular
correctly matched with event of cell division? III. Fertilization is external and development is direct
Metaphase
1. Bivalent align on the equatorial plate 1. Only I and II are correct
I
2. Only I and III are correct
Anaphase 3. Only II and III are correct
2. Splitting of centromere
I 4. I, II and III are correct
Prophase
3. Nuclear membrane disappears by the end
II 57. Consider the given two statements:
Microtubules from the opposite poles of I. When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, i.e.,
Metaphase
4. the spindle get attached to the kinetochores resting, the axonal membrane is
II
of sister chromatids comparatively more permeable to potassium ions (K+ )
and nearly impermeable to sodium ions (Na+).
II. Similarly, the membrane is permeable to negatively
52. Match each item in Column I with the one in column charged proteins present in the axoplasm.
II and select the correct match from the codes given:
Column I Column II 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
A Cephalochordata P Swim bladder 3. Both I and II are correct
B Cyclostomata Q Notochord – head to tail 4. Both I and II are incorrect
C Chondrichthyes R Males bear claspers on pelvic fins
Marine but migrate to freshwater 58. In Cardiac muscle tissue:
D Osteichthyes S I: Cell junctions fuse the plasma membranes of cardiac
for spawning
muscle cells
II. Communication junctions allow the cell to contract as a
Codes:
unit
ABCD 1. Only I is correct
1. S Q P R 2. Only II is correct
2. P Q R S 3. Both I and II are correct
3. Q S R P 4. Both I and II are incorrect
4. R P S Q 59. At 40 mm Hg partial pressure of oxygen, the
percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen is
expected to be about:
53. Specific receptors of the vestibular apparatus 1. 50 %
responsible for maintenance of balance of the body and 2. 75 %
posture are called: 3. 95 %
1. Utricle and Saccule 4. 99 %
2. Crista and Macula
3. Macula and Fovea 60. What can act as a competitive inhibitor of enzyme
4. Organ of Corti and Sterocilia Succinic dehydrogenase?
1. ATP
54. Aldosterone acts mainly at renal tubules and 2. FADH2
stimulates the: 3. Malonate
1. Reabsorption of Na+ and K+ 4. Pyruvate
2. Excretion of Na+ and K+
3. Excretion of K+ and phosphate ions 61. Identify the incorrect statement:
1. Arrangement of axonemal microtubules in cilia and
4. Reabsorption of Na+ and phosphate ions
flagella is described as 9 + 2
2. Arrangement of microtubules in centriole is described
55. The thick filaments in the ‘A’ band are also held
as 9 + 0
together in the middle of this band by a thin fibrous
3. Centrosome is involved in spindle formation in plant
membrane called:
cell division
1. I-band
4. Centrioles form the basal body of cilia and flagella
2. Z-line
3. M-line Page: 6
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
62. Match each item in Column I with the one in Column 67. What feature on ECG represents the return of
II and select the correct match from the codes given: ventricles from excited to normal state?
Column I Column II 1. P wave
Between carpal and metacarpal of 2. R wave
A Pivot joint P 3. S wave
thumb
4. T wave
B. Saddle joint Q Between atlas and axis vertebrae
Gliding
C R Between carpal bones
joint 68. At a place where a ‘diffusion boundary’ is present in
D Hinge joint S Humero-ulnar joint the human body, you are most likely to find
1. Simple squamous epithelium
Codes 2. Cuboidal brush bordered epithelium
3. Columnar ciliated epithelium
AB CD
4. Compound epithelium
1. P Q RS
2. Q P SR 69. Match each item in Column I with the one in Column
3. Q P RS II and select the correct match from the codes given:
4. P Q SR Column I Column II
A Plasma P 45 % of blood
B. Formed elements Q 55 % of blood
63. The medulla oblongata contains centres which control C Neutrophils R 60-65 % of total WBCs
all the following except:
D Lymphocytes S 20-25 % of total WBCs
1. respiration
2. cardiovascular reflexes
3. gastric secretions Codes
4. body temperature ABCD
1. P Q R S
64. Which of the following glands do not secrete a protein 2. Q P S R
hormone?
1. Pancreas 3. Q P R S
2. Thyroid 4. P Q S R
3. Adenohypophysis
4. Gonads
70. A diploid cell has a chromosome number of 8 and
65. A person has the following values of respiratory DNA content as 8 units. At the end of the S phase, the
volumes: number of chromosomes and the DNA content
Tidal Volume 400 ml respectively will be:
Expiratory reserve volume 1000 ml 1. 8 and 8
2. 16 and 8
Inspiratory reserve volume 2500 ml 3. 8 and 16
Residual volume 1000 ml 4. 16 and 16

His functional residual capacity and vital capacity 71. The bile released into the second part of the duodenum
respectively are: does not contain:
1. 2000 ml and 3900 ml 1. Bile slats
2. 2000 ml and 4900 ml 2. Bile pigments
3. 1400 ml and 3900 ml 3. Cholesterol
4. 1400 ml and 4900 ml 4. Lipases

66. In Chordates 72. Sphincter of Oddi guards the opening of:

I. Heart is dorsal 1. Small intestine into the caecun
II. Central nervous system is ventral 2. Common hepato-pancreatic duct into duodenum
III. A post-anal tail is present 3. Lower end of oesophagus into stomach
1. Only I and II are correct 4. Pylorus into the first part of duodenum
2. Only III is correct
3. Only II is correct
4. Only I and III are correct Page: 7
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
73. What is correct regarding the atrial natriuretic factor? 80. In cockroach:
1. It causes vasodilation and reduces blood pressure I. 100 – 150 hepatic cecae are present at the junction of
2. It acts on the atrial wall of our heart and reduces cardiac foregut and midgut
output II. 6 – 8 malpighian tubules are present at the junction of
3. It stimulates angiotensin leading to vasoconstriction midgut and hindgut
4. It acts on the distal tubule and lead to diuresis. 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
74. Identify the incorrect statement regarding human eye: 3. Both I and II are correct
1. The diameter of the pupil is regulated by the muscle 4. Both I and II are incorrect
fibres of iris.
2. The choroid layer is thin over the posterior two-thirds 81. Head of Periplaneta americana is formed by the fusion
of the eye ball, but it becomes thick in the anterior part to of:
form the ciliary body. 1. 3 segments
3. Retina contains three layers of neural cells – from 2. 4 segments
outside to inside – ganglion cells, bipolar cells and 3. 6 segments
photoreceptor cells. 4. 10 segments
4. The fovea is a thinned-out portion of the retina where
only the cones are densely packed and where the visual 82. To increase renal medullary interstitial osmolality,
acuity (resolution) is the greatest. NaCl passes to the interstitium from:
1. The thick segment of ascending limb of the loop of
75. Which of the following is not a feature of animals Henle
belonging to Phylum Annelida? 2. The collecting tubule
1. Metameric segmentation 3. Descending limb of vasa recta
2. An open circulatory system 4. The Proximal Convoluted Tubule
3. Nephridia for osmoregulation and excretion
4. Bilateral symmetry 83. Which of the following animals is not matched to its
correct scientific name?
76. Which of the following is not a function of adrenaline 1. Penguin: Aptenodytes
and noradrenaline? 2. Tortoise: Testudo
1. Piloerection 3. Platypus: Macropus
2. Pupilary constriction 4. Angel fish: Pterophyllum
3. Increase in strength of heart contraction
4. Breakdown of glycogen, lipids, and proteins. 84. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
1. Radula – Molluscs
77. Graves’ disease is not characterized by: 2. Malpighian tubules– Insects
1. Enlargement of the thyroid gland 3. Choanocytes– Sponges
2. Protrusion of eyeballs 4. Cnidocytes – Ctenophora
3. Increased BMR and weight loss
4. Metal retardation 85. All the following are functions of lymph in the human
body except:
78. To maintain the pH and ionic balance of the body 1. Helps in digestion of fats
fluids, the proximal convoluted tubule selectively secretes 2. Returns proteins and excess interstitial fluid to the
all the following into the filtrate except: bloodstream
1. Hydrogen ion 3. Transports nutrients and hormones
2. Potassium ion 4. Helps in immunity against disease-causing agents
3. Ammonia
4. Bicarbonate ion

79. Platyhelminthes, rotifers and lancelets:

1. are pseudocoelomates
2. have protonephridia as excretory structure
3. do not reproduce by sexual method
4. possess remarkable powers of true regeneration

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 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
91. Assertion: Hemichordates are not chordates.
Zoology - Section B Reason: They do not have a notochord.
86. Assertion: Post-menopausal women are at higher risk 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
to develop osteoporosis. correct explanation of the assertion
Reason: Levels of oestrogen in post-menopausal women 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
are decreased. the correct explanation of the assertion
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the 3. Assertion is true but reason is false
correct explanation of the assertion 4. Both assertion and reason are false
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
the correct explanation of the assertion 92. Assertion: Fatty acids and glycerol cannot be absorbed
3. Assertion is true but reason is false into the blood.
4. Both assertion and reason are false Reason: They are transported into the lymph vessels in the
villi.
87. Assertion: Rh incompatibility related complication 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
does not arise in first pregnancy even if an Rh negative correct explanation of the assertion
mother is carrying an Rh positive foetus. 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
Reason: Rh antigens are proteins. the correct explanation of the assertion
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the 3. Assertion is true but reason is false
correct explanation of the assertion 4. Both assertion and reason are false
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
the correct explanation of the assertion 93. Assertion: Damage to parietal or oxyntic cells in
3. Assertion is true but reason is false gastric mucosa can cause anaemia.
4. Both assertion and reason are false Reason: Parietal or oxyntic cells in gastric mucosa secrete
HCl.
88. Assertion: Oxytocin helps in parturition and causes 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
milk ejection from the mammary glands. correct explanation of the assertion
Reason: Oxytocin acts on the smooth muscles of our body 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
and stimulates their contraction. the correct explanation of the assertion
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the 3. Assertion is true but reason is false
correct explanation of the assertion 4. Both assertion and reason are false
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
the correct explanation of the assertion 94. Assertion: Meiosis conserves specific chromosome
3. Assertion is true but reason is false number of each species across generations in sexually
4. Both assertion and reason are false reproducing organisms.
Reason: Meiosis, per se, results in reduction of
89. Assertion: Lipids are macromolecules. chromosome number by half.
Reason: They have a molecular weight range of ten 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
thousand Daltons and above. correct explanation of the assertion
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
correct explanation of the assertion the correct explanation of the assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not 3. Assertion is true but reason is false
the correct explanation of the assertion 4. Both assertion and reason are false
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false 95. Assertion: The sino-atrial node is normally the
pacemaker of the human heart.
90. Assertion: The filtrate gets concentrated as it moves Reason: It is the only autoexcitable part of the nodal tissue
down the descending limb of loop of Henle in the human of the human heart.
nephron. 1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
Reason: The descending limb of loop of Henle is correct explanation of the assertion
impermeable to water but allows transport of electrolytes 2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
actively or passively. the correct explanation of the assertion
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the 3. Assertion is true but reason is false
correct explanation of the assertion 4. Both assertion and reason are false
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false
Page: 9
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
96. Assertion: Living state is a non-equilibrium steady
state. Chemistry - Section A
Reason: Living organisms work continuously. 101. In a nitrating mixture (HNO3 + H2SO4), H2SO4 can
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the act as
correct explanation of the assertion 1. Acid
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not 2. Base
the correct explanation of the assertion 3. Neither acid nor base
3. Assertion is true but reason is false 4. Both acid as well as base
4. Both assertion and reason are false
102. The heats of combustion of C, H2 and C2H6 are -94
97. Assertion: Dietary proteins are the source of essential
amino acids. Kcal, -68 Kcal and -372 Kcal, respectively. The enthalpy
Reason: All essential amino acids are aromatic. of formation of C2H6 will be
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the 1. +20 K cal
correct explanation of the assertion 2. -40 K cal
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not 3. -20 K cal
the correct explanation of the assertion 4. +40 K cal
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false 103. The most stable free radical, amongst the following,
is
98. Assertion: The amount of carbon dioxide that can 1. Allyl
diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference 2. Benzyl
in partial pressure is much higher compared to that of 3. Vinyl
oxygen. 4. Phenyl
Reason: The solubility of carbon dioxide is 20 – 25 times
lower than that of oxygen. 104. An organic compound contains C=40%, H=6.66%,
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the and rest oxygen. The vapour density of this compound is
correct explanation of the assertion 30. The molecular formula of this compound is
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not 1. CH2O
the correct explanation of the assertion 2. C2H4O2
3. Assertion is true but reason is false 3. C3H8O
4. Both assertion and reason are false
4. CO3
99. Assertion: Vertebrochondral ribs are called as true
ribs. 105. The formal charge on nitrogen in N O is
−

Reason: Vertebraochondral ribs are attached to the 1. -1

thoracic vertebrae dorsally and are ventrally connected to 2. +1
the sternum. 3. +5
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the 4. -3
correct explanation of the assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not 106. The correct representation for the formation of
the correct explanation of the assertion CH4(g) is-
3. Assertion is true but reason is false 1. C(diamand) + 2H2 (g) ⟶ CH4 (g)
4. Both assertion and reason are false
2. C(graphite) + 4H(g) ⟶ CH4 (g)

100. Assertion: Low temperature destroys enzymatic 3. C(graphite) + 2H2 (g) ⟶ CH4 (g)

activity. 4. C(diamand ) + 4H(g) → CH4 (g)

Reason: Proteins are denatured when exposed to low

temperatures.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the 107. Which, of the following, compounds has the highest
correct explanation of the assertion lattice energy?
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not 1. LiCl
the correct explanation of the assertion 2. BeO
3. Assertion is true but reason is false 3. LiF
4. Both assertion and reason are false 4. MgO

Page: 10
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
108. The bond order of B2 is one. The type of bond and 115. Which, of the following, has greatest number of
magnetic behavior of B2, respectively, are atoms at NTP?
1. 1 ml N2
1. σ and diamagnetic
2. π and diamagnetic 2. 1 ml CH4
3. σ and paramagnetic 3. 1 ml H2O
4. π and paramagnetic 4. 1 ml NH3

109. For which of the following equations, ΔH > ΔE

116. The IUPAC name of 'Ekamercury' is
?
1. Ununquadium
1. N2 (g) + 3H2 ( g) ⟶ 2NH3 (g)
2. Ununbiium
2. H2 (g) +
1
O2 ( g) ⟶ H2 O(l) 3. Unniloctium
2
4. Unnilquadium
3. PCl5 (g) → PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)

4. H2 ( g) + I2 ( g) → 2HI(g)
117. On adding inert gas at constant volume, which, of the
following, equilibrium shifts in forward direction?
110. The electrophile used in the sulphonation of benzene
1. N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2N H3 (g)
is
1. +SO3H 2. P Cl5 (g) ⇌ P Cl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)

2. SO3 3. H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2H I (g)

3. SO2 4. N one of these

4. +SO3

111. For a particular real gas, highest and lowest 118. How many peroxide linkages are present in HNO5?
temperature, respectively, is 1. zero
1. Boyle temperature and Critical temperature 2. 1
2. Inversion temperature and Boyle temperature 3. 2
3. Critical temperature and inversion temperature 4. 3
4. Inversion temperature and Critical temperature
119. Equal volumes of pH=4 and pH =6 solutions are
112. Clean water has Biochemical oxygen Demand (BOD) mixed together. The pH of the resulting solution will be
value of 1. 4.3
1. 10 ppm 2. 4.7
2. less than 5ppm 3. 5.3
3. 17 ppm 4. 5.7
4. 14 ppm
120. The molecular formula C4H10O can show
113. 1-Butyne and 2-Butyne can be distinguished by the 1. Chain isomerism
use of 2. Position isomerism
1. Na/NH3 3. Metamerism
2. Ammoniacal silver nitrate 4. All of these
3. Cl2
4. H2 and Lindlar's catalyst 121. But-1-en-3-yne contains
1. 6σ and 3π bonds
2. 7σ and 2π bonds
114. Which, of the following, elements can form a
3. 7σ and 3π bonds
hydride?
4. 5σ and 3π bonds
1. Cr
2. Mn
122. When gypsum is heated at 200°C then the product
3. Fe
formed is
4. Co
1. Plaster of paris
2. Burnt Plaster
3. CaSO4.H2O
4. CaSO 4
.
1

2
H2 O

Page: 11
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
123. 2-Butyne is hydrogenated in presence of Lindlar's 128. The nonaromatic species, amongst the following, is
catalyst, The major product formed will be
1. Cis-but-2-ene
2. Trans-but-2-ene
3. 1-Butyne
4. Butane 1.

124. Assertion: The boiling point of neopentane is less

than isopentane
Reason: Higher is the branching, the lesser will be the 2.
boiling point of a compound.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not 3.
the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false.

125. When borax is red heated then a transparent glassy 4.

solid is formed. The composition of this glassy solid is
1. B2O3
2. NaBO2 + B2O3
129.
3. Na2B4O7 xCl2 + y NaOH ⟶ zNaCl + a NaClO3 + bH2 O
4. NaBO2 x+y
The ratio of z+a+b
will be
126. The correct relation for the work done in isothermal 1. 1
expansion will be 2. 2
1. wreversible < wirreversible 3. 2.5
4. 3
2. wreversible > wirreversible
3. wreversible = wirreversible 130. The solubility of AgCl is minimum in
4. All of the above 1. 0.01 M NaCl
2. 0.02 M CaCl2
127. ψ3,2,0 is the representation of the orbital 3. 0.05 M AgNO3
1. 3px 4. 0.01 M NH4OH
2. 3dxy
3. 3dz2 131. For the following compound, IUPAC name is
CH2 - CH - CH2
4. 3dx2-y2
| | |
COOH COOH COOH
1. 3- Carboxypentan-1,5-dioic acid
2. 1,2,3-tricarboxypropane
3. Propane-1,2,3-tricarboxylic acid
4. All of these

132. In P4O10, the number of P-O and P=O bonds,

respectively, are
1. 8, 4
2. 10, 4
3. 12, 4
4. 16, 0

Page: 12
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
133. The aqueous solution of NaHCO3 is 139. Classical smog and photochemical smog behave,
1. Acidic respectively, as
2. Alkaline 1. Oxidizing agent and reducing agent
3. Slightly alkaline 2. Oxidizing agent and oxidizing agent
4. Slightly acidic 3. Reducing agent and oxidizing agent
4. Reducing agent and reducing agent
134. Which, of the following, ions has the highest
ionisation potential? 140. The volume strength of 1.5 M H2O2 will be
1. 33.6
1. F - 2. 22.4
3. 16.8
2. Cl-
4. 8.4
3. Br-
4. I- 141. At high temperature, the Van der Waal's gas equation
for one mole of gas is
135. When diborane is heated with NH3, a crystalline
a
compound is formed. On red heating this crystalline 1. 1 − RT V

compound, B3N3H6 (inorganic benzene) is formed. In 2. 1 + Pb

RT
B3N3H6 , the hybridized state of B and N, respectively, a
3. 1 +
are RT V

Pb
4. 1 −
1. sp2 and sp2 RT

2. sp2 and sp3

3. sp3 and sp2
4. sp3 and sp3
142. Which element does not react with nitrogen to form a

Chemistry - Section B nitride?

1. Mg
136. The number of unpaired electrons in Ni and Ni2+, 2. Na
respectively, are (Z of Ni = 28) 3. Li
1. 2, 2 4. Ba
2. 2, 4
3. 2, 0 143. The strongest conjugate base is
4. 4, 2 −
1. CH3 COO

137. Volume of N/5 NaOH required to neutralise 2. Cl

−

CH3COOH which is produced from hydrolysis of 4.4 gm −

3. N O
CH3COOC2H5 is 3

−
1. 125 ml 4. H SO
4

2. 250 ml
3. 500 ml 144. ClO
−
contains three π bonds. The type of these
4
4. 1000 ml π bonds are
1. 3dπ-pπ
138. The specific heats of a gas at constant pressure and at 2. 2dπ-pπ and 1pπ-pπ
constant volume, respectively, are 0.125 cal/g and 0.075 3. 1dπ-pπ and 2pπ-pπ
cal/g. The molecular weight of the gas is 40. The 4. 3pπ-pπ
atomicity of the gas will be
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Page: 13
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
145. 148. The hyperconjugation effect is a permanent effect in
CH2 = CH − C ≡ CH + H Br → A(M ajor), which localization of σ electrons of the C-H bond of an
alkyl group directly attached to an atom of the unsaturated
(1M ole)
system or to an atom with an unshared p orbital takes
The compound 'A', in the above reaction, is place.
Hydrogen attaches to alpha carbon in an allylic compound
1. and alpha carbon of carbon-containing positive charge
CH3 − CH − C ≡ CH
show hyperconjugation. The orbital diagram showing
| hyperconjugation in ethyl cation is as follows:
Br

2.
CH2 = CH − C = CH2

Br
In general, greater the number of alkyl groups attached to
3. CH 2 = CH − CH = CH − Br
a positively charged carbon atom, greater is the
4. hyperconjugation interaction and stabilization of the
CH2 − CH2 − C ≡ CH
cation. More the hyperconjugation in the structure, more
| is the stability.
Br
The most stable carbocation is
146. The number of geometrical isomers of CH3-CH
=CH-CH=CH-CH3 are
1.
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. Zero 2.

147. Assertion: PCl3Br2 has zero dipole moment.

Reason: Br atom occupies axial position while Cl atom 3.
occupy equatorial position.
1. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion
2. Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not 4.
the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false
4. Both assertion and reason are false
149. Based on the hyperconjugation effect described
above:

In which of the following compounds is the double bond

longest?
1. CH3- CH = CH - CH3
2. (CH3)3 C-CH = CH2
3. CH3-CH = CH-CH(CH3)2
4. CH2 = CH- CH2 -CH3

Page: 14
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
150. Based on the hyperconjugation effect described 153. A liquid of density ρ is forced out through a small
above: hole by means of a piston of cross-section 'A', on which a
force F is applied. The flow is streamline. The liquid
Which of the following alkenes has the smallest heat of stream strikes the ground at a distance 'x' in front of the
hydrogenation? hole. The hole is in the middle of the right face and its
1. But-1-ene height is 'h' above the ground. The expression for x is:
2

2. 2,3-dimethyl but-2-ene
3. But-2-ene
4. Pent-2-ene

Physics - Section A
151. When the logarithm of the temperature difference
between a body and its surroundings is plotted as a
function of time, the graph is a 4F h

1. straight line with positive slope. 1. Aρg

2. straight line with negative slope. 2. 2F h

3. exponentially decaying curve. Aρg

4. parabola. 3.
Fh

Aρg

Fh

152. The acceleration of the 4 kg block is: 4. 2Aρg

154. The average momentum of the molecules in a sample

of H - gas at temperature 300 K has a magnitude p and
2 1

that for He-gas at the same temperature has the magnitude

p . Then,
2

1. p > p
1 2

2. p > p
2 1

3. p = p
1 2

4. the relationship between p and p depends on

1 2

pressure.

Hint: Momentum is a vector.

155. If the absolute temperature increases by 1%, the

3 g frequency of an organ pipe will:
1. down. 1. increase by 1%.
5

2.
6g
down. 2. decrease by 1%.
5
g 3. increase by 0.5%.
3. 5
down. 4. decrease by 0.5%.
11 g
4. down.
5 156. A particle is projected with a speed u so that it has
the maximum horizontal range under gravity. The speed is
increased to v (without changing the direction of its
projection), so that, after projection, it passes above its
previous point of impact but at a height which is equal to
its previous maximum height. Then,
1. 2u = v
2. 3u = 2v
3. 2u = √3v
4. 3u = √2v

Page: 15
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
157. A 100 cm wire of mass 40 g is fixed at both ends. A 160. The dimension of which group of quantities is the
tuning fork, vibrating at a frequency of 50 Hz, sets the same?
wire into resonance in its fundamental mode. Then, the h : Planck's constant, K : kinetic energy,
tension in the wire is: ω : angular speed/frequency, F : force, L : inductance,

1. 400 N i : current, q : charge, t : time, x: distance

2. 100 N 1. h, F tx, Liq

3. 25 N 2. K, hω, ωLi
4. 1600 N 3. F x, Li , Kω
2

Fx

158. A ball is released with a velocity (2^ı + 2^ ȷ ) m/s

4. , Kx, ht
t

on the rectangular pool table from the point (3, 0) m. All

161. A uniform rod is pivoted at one of its ends, so that it
the collisions of the ball are elastic.
can rotate freely in a vertical plane. Initially, it hangs
vertically as shown in the figure. A sharp impulse is
delivered to the rod at its lowest end B, towards the right.
An impulse is exerted by the pivot at A, due to the
constraint. The impulse at A acts

After 4 seconds of being released, the location of the ball

will be:
1. (2, 2) m
2. (0, 1) m 1. to the right.
3. (2, 1) m 2. to the left.
4. (3, 2) m 3. upward.
4. downward.
159. Two particles of masses m , m are placed on the
1 2
162. A glass vessel of volume V contains a liquid which
axis of a uniform circular ring of mass M and radius R, 0

fills 20% of its volume. When the temperature of the

on opposite sides of the center of the ring. The distances system is raised by 10°C, the volume of the unfilled
of m , m from the center of the ring are x , x
1 2 1 2 portion is found to remain constant. If the coefficient of
respectively, and x1 x2 ≪ R. The net force on the ring linear expansion of glass is α , the coefficient of
vanishes. Then, expansion of the liquid is
1. 5α
2. 3α

5
5α
3. 3

4. 15α

m1 m2
1. x1
=
x2
m1 m2
2. 2
= 2
x x
1 2
m1 m2
3. 3
= 3
x x
1 2

4. m1 x1 = m2 x2

Page: 16
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
163. Two identical blocks are connected by an ideal spring 165. The pendulum OA has a length L. The bob A is
and the system is allowed to oscillate, when undergoing given an initial velocity towards right when it is at its
horizontal displacements in opposite directions, with the lowest position. Thereafter it moves in a circular path and
centre-of-mass at rest. O is the mid-point of the spring, A collides with the hard surface (at 60°) losing 50% of the
is left end point, B is the right end-point. The motion of A kinetic energy it had just before the collision. The
is described by: x = A sin ωt (displacement is taken
A 0 pendulum rebounds and it reaches a height of
3L
above
4
to be positive rightward). its lowest point A. In the absence of the hard surface, it
Then, motion of the point B is described by: would have risen to a height of

1. xB = A0 sin ωt

2. xB = A0 cos ωt

3. xB = A0 sin(ωt + π)

4. xB = A0 cos(ωt + π)

164. A particle is released from the top of a smooth

hemisphere of radius R, and it slides down along its
R 1. 3L

surface. After it slides down a height 5

, its acceleration 2

will be a, where 2. 5L

3. 2L

4. L

166. Assertion (A):

If two particles move with uniform accelerations in
different directions, then their relative velocity changes in
direction.
2g
1. a <
5
2g 3g Reason (R):
2. 5
< a <
5 Since the acceleration are in different directions, there is a
3.
3g
< a < g relative acceleration and hence the relative velocity
5
changes.
4. a = g

1. (A) is true but (R) is false.

2. (A) is false but (R) is true.

3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).

4. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).

Page: 17
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
167. A uniform rod AB of mass m and length L is 170. Assertion (A):
replaced by three particles – two particles of masses m 1 The center-of-mass of an isolated system of particles
each at the ends and another particle of mass m at its
2 remains at rest if it is initially at rest.
centre. The new system of particles has the same total
mass, the same center-of-mass and the same moment of Reason (R):
inertia about an axis through its C.M. and perpendicular to Internal forces, acting within a system, cannot change the
AB. velocity of the center of mass; which is proportional to the
If the moment of inertia of the new system of particles is total momentum of the system.
measured about an axis passing through the end A, and
perpendicular to AB then it is found to be I . For the rod, 1. (A) is true but (R) is false.
2

the same quantity is found to be I . Then

1
2. (A) is false but (R) is true.

3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).

4. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
1. I1 = 2I2

2. I2 = 2I1 171. A thin spherical metallic vessel of radius R contains

3. I = I
1 2
water, the mass of water being equal to the mass of the
4. I = 3I
vessel that contains it. A hole is made in the bottom so
1 2
that the water begins to flow out. When the vessel is half-
168. A particle is projected vertically upwards with a empty the centre of mass is at a distance d from the
speed u and moves under the force of gravity. The centre of the vessel
distance travelled by the particle during its entire motion
(until it returns) is d . If the force of gravity were to be
1

switched off, and the particle travelled for the same length
of time, then the distance travelled is d . Then,
2

1. d = d
2 1

2. d = 2d
2 1

3. d = 3d
2 1

4. d2 = 4d1

3R

169. A uniform rod of mass m, having cross-section A is 1. d =

16

pushed along its length (L) by means of a force of 2. d =

R

2
magnitude, F . There is no friction anywhere. Ignore the R
3. d =
weight of the rod. The longitudinal stress in the rod, at a 4
R
L
distance from the left end, is: 4. d =
8
3

172. The current passing through a certain device doubles

when the temperature rises by 10°C, in the temperature
range from 0°C to 500°C. This effect is used to measure
1. Tensile,
F the temperature of a sample. The current is measured to be
3A
F
5 mA at 15°C and then the next measurement shows a
2. Compressive, 3A
current of 50 mA. The temperature of the new
3. Tensile,
2F measurement is nearly (take log 2 ≃ 0.3, if required)
10
3A

2F
1. 150°C
4. Compressive, 3A
2. 50°C
3. 450°C
4. 25°C

Page: 18
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
173. A block of ice floats in water, in a beaker at 0°C, 177. A Carnot engine having an efficiency of 25% is
nearly. The ice melts slowly until the beaker is full of driven in reverse, so to act as a refrigerator. The
water. As a result, the pressure at the bottom coefficient of performance of the refrigerator is
1. increases slowly. 1. 3
2. decreases slowly. 2. 4
3. first increases and then decreases. 3. 5
4. remains constant. 4. 8

174. A wooden block floats submerged at the interface of 178. A block is suspended from a spring and causes an
two liquids, the upper one of specific gravity 0.4 and the extension of 2 cm. It is now imparted a kinetic energy E
lower one being water (density: 1 g/cc) It is observed that so that the block rises up by exactly 2 cm. If the block
the block has of its volume in water and of it in the
1 2
were to be given the same kinetic energy upward, without
3 3
being attached to a spring, it would rise up by
upper liquid. The density of the block is:
1. 1 cm
1. 0.5
2. 2 cm
2. 0.6
3. 4 cm
3. 0.8
4. 8 cm
4. 0.9
179. When the temperature difference between a body and
175. If the ends of the meter stick are maintained at θ °C
1
its surroundings is 20°C, it loses heat to the surroundings
and θ °C, the temperatures measured at the 25 cm and 80
2
at a rate of 40 W. If the temperature difference increases to
cm marks are observed to be 35°C and 68°C respectively.
25°C, the rate of loss of heat is
Then the temperatures of the left end (θ °C) and the right
1
1. 45 W
end (θ °C) are:
2
2. 50 W
1. θ = 0, θ = 90
1 2
3. 60 W
2. θ = 10, θ = 85
1 2
4. 80 W
3. θ = 20, θ = 80
1 2

4. θ = 30, θ = 100
1 2 180. A uniform cylinder of mass M , radius R and height
3R is placed upright on a horizontal surface. A particle of
176. A 3 kg-block is pressed against a vertical wall with a mass m is placed on the top of the cylinder at its edge. For
coefficient of friction, μ = . What minimum force what minimum value of m will the cylinder topple?
3

should be applied to the block in order to prevent it from

2
falling down? Take g = 10 m/s

1. m = 3M
M
2. m =
3

3. m = 3M

4. No value of m will cause the cylinder to topple.

3
1. 4
× 30 N
4
2. 3
× 30 N

3. 3

5
× 30 N

4. 4

5
× 30 N

Page: 19
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
181. The system is at rest initially, due to the force of 185. Suppose that the average kinetic energy (translational
friction acting on A. If the string connecting the & rotational) of random molecular motion of helium (H e)
lower blocks is cut, the accelerations of the blocks A, B, C at temperature T is equal to that of hydrogen (H ) at
He 2

will be, respectively, temperature T . Then, H2

1. T = T
H2 He
TH
TH e
2.
2

=
2 4

3. 5TH2 = 3TH e
TH T
He
4.
2
=
5 3

Physics - Section B
186. A source of sound moves with a constant velocity.
An observer standing close to the line of motion finds the
frequency of sound to be 1100 Hz when the source is
1.
g
to left, g upward, g downward. approaching and 900 Hz when it is receding from him.
3
The frequency of the source is:
2. zero, zero, g downward.
1. 1000 Hz
3. zero, g upward, g downward.
2. 950 Hz
4. g to right, zero, g downward. 3. 990 Hz
4. 1010 Hz
182. A particle starts to move along a straight line under a
force that delivers constant power P , starting from rest. 187. A ball is released with a velocity (2^ ı + 2^ ȷ ) m/s
The velocity of the particle, v varies with time t, as:
1. v ∝ t on the rectangular pool table from the point (3, 0) m. All

the collisions of the ball are elastic.

2. v ∝ 1

3. v ∝ √t

4. v ∝
1

√t

183. Two identical springs are joined end-to-end to form a

single spring and a block is suspended from the
combination. The time period of oscillation is T . 1

Alternatively, if the springs were joined in parallel, the

time period is T . Then 2

1. T = T 1 2

2. T = 2T
After the 4th collision with the edges of the board, the
1 2

3. T = 2T2 1
location and velocity of the ball will be:
4. none of the above is true.
1. (3, 0) m and (2^ ı + 2^ ȷ ) m/s

184. A block of mass 1 kg moving with a velocity of 4 2. (0, 2) m and (2^ ı − 2^ ȷ ) m/s

m/s strikes a second block of mass 2 kg at rest. The first 3. (1, 0) m and (2^ ı + 2^ ȷ ) m/s

block is brought to rest by the collision. The coefficient of 4. (2, 2) m and (−2^ ı − 2^ ȷ ) m/s

restitution is:
1. 1

2. 1

3. 2

4. 1

Page: 20
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
188. A simple pendulum is made with a thin wire 192. A uniform rod AB of mass m and length L is
(length: l, area: A, Young's modulus: Y ) attached to a replaced by three particles – two particles of masses m 1

heavy bob of mass M . The pendulum is released from the each at the ends and another particle of mass m at its
2

rest with the bob at the same level as the point of centre. The new system of particles has the same total
suspension and swings down in a circular arc. The mass, the same center-of-mass and the same moment of
elongation in the wire when the bob reaches the lowest inertia about an axis through its C.M. and perpendicular to
point is: AB.

1.
3M gl
Which of the following is true?
AY

2M gl
2. AY
3M gl
3. 2AY
M gl
4. AY

189. The quantity "Action" (S ) is defined by the m m

1. m1 = , m2 =
equation: 3
m
3
m
t 2. m1 = , m2 =
S = ∫ (K − U )dt 4 2
0 m

where K is the kinetic energy, U is the potential energy 3. m1 = , m2 =

2m

6 3

and the integral is over the time, t during the motion. 4. m1 =

m
, m2 =
3m

The proper unit of action will be 5 5

1. kg - m/s
193. Which of the following statements is true about the
2. kg-m2 motion depicted in the diagram?
3. kg-m2-s
4. kg-m2/s

190. The gravitational potential energy of a particle of

mass m increases by mgh, when it is raised through a
height h in a uniform gravitational field "g". If a particle
of mass m is raised through a height h in the earth's
gravitational field (g: the field on the earth's surface) then
the increase in gravitational potential energy is U . Then,
1. U > mgh
2. U < mgh 1. The acceleration is constant and non-zero.
3. U = mgh 2. The velocity changes suddenly during the motion.
4. any of the above may be true depending on the value of 3. The velocity is positive throughout.
h, considered relative to the radius of the earth.
4. All of the above are true.

191. There is no friction anywhere, and the string and the 194. In the figure, the coefficient of friction between the
pulley are ideal. Assume that m < m .The acceleration block (mass m) and the horizontal surface is μ. The block
1 2

of m down the plane is a. Then, is given an initial velocity to the left compressing the
2
spring by x . The block 'rebounds' and then the spring
1

gets extended - the maximum extension being x . 2

μmg

m1 1. x1 + x2 =
1. as m2
→ 1, a → 0 . k
μmg

m1 2. x1 − x2 =
2. as m2
→ 0, a → g . k

2μmg

3. a varies linearly with

m1
. 3. x1 + x2 =
k
m2
2μmg
4. all the above are true. 4. x1 − x2 =
k

Page: 21
 AIIMS Level Test (24-Apr) Part Syllabus
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718
195. Two identical blocks are connected by an ideal spring 198. The moment of inertia of a uniform solid cube of
and the system is allowed to oscillate, when undergoing mass M and edge L, about an axis passing through one of
horizontal displacements in opposite directions, with the its edges is
centre-of-mass at rest. O is the mid-point of the spring, A 1.
ML
2

is left end point, B is the right end-point. The motion of A 6

2
ML
is described by: x = A sin ωt (displacement is taken
A 0
2. 3

to be positive rightward). 3.
ML
2

Call the mid-point of O and B as C and its x-coordinate 2

2
2M L
as x . Then, the motion of point C of the spring is
C
4. 3

described by:
199. During an experiment, an ideal gas is observed to
obey the law: pV = constant, as the process is
3

conducted. If the volume of the gas doubles during this

process, the absolute temperature of the gas changes from
T to
​ 1. 2T
π T
1. xC = A0 sin(ωt +
2
) 2. 2

A0 3. 4T
2. xC = sin ωt T
2
A0
4. 4
π
3. xC =
2
sin(ωt +
2
)

A0 200. A uniform hollow cylindrical shell has an outer

4. xC = sin(ωt + π)
2 radius R and inner radius R . If its mass be m then its
1 2

rotational inertia about its axis is equal to

196. A piece of alloy of mass 250 g (specific heat capacity 1. m (R − R )
1 2 2

= 0.1 × that of water) is placed in a furnace and then put 2 2 1

into a calorimeter containing 240 g of water at 20°C. The 2. m (R + R )

1 2 2

2 2 1

water equivalent of the calorimeter is 10 g. The final R −R

3 3

temperature of the mixture is 50°C. The temperature of 3. m

1 2 1

2 R2 −R1

the furnace is (nearly) R −R

5 5

4. m 1 2 1

1. 250°C 2 R −R
3
2
3
1

2. 350°C
3. 600°C
4. 800°C
Fill OMR Sheet*
197. As water flows out slowly from a tap, under gravity,
it is observed that the cross-section of the stream *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link from
decreases as it falls down (figure). This effect is due to where you got the pdf and fill OMR from there

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1. viscosity of water.
2. surface tension of water. days of ANY NEETprep
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4. increase in atmospheric pressure at lower levels. course

Page: 22