Custom Practice Test - 05-Nov

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics-Section-A 5. An alternating current is given by the

equation:
1. A transformer has an efficiency of 90% I =I1 cos ωt+I2 sin ωt

working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If The RMS current is given by:
the current in the secondary coil is 6 A, the 1. (I1 +I2 ) /√2
voltage across the secondary coil and the 2
2. (I1 +I2 ) / √2
current in the primary coil, respectively, are: 1/2
2 2

1. 300 V, 15 A (I1 +I2 )

2. 450 V, 15 A 3.
√2

3. 450 V, 13.5 A 1/2

1 2 2
4. 600 V, 15 A 4. 2
(I
1
+I
2
)

2. For the series LCR circuit shown in the

6. A standard filament lamp consumes 100 W
figure, what is the resonance frequency and the
when connected to 200 V AC mains supply. The
amplitude of the current at the resonating
peak current through the bulb will be:
frequency?
1. 0.707 A
2. 1 A
3. 1.414 A
4. 2 A

7. A household ac circuit has an applied voltage

of 220 V (RMS) and the current flowing through
the circuit is 2.2 A (RMS), the phase difference
between them being 60∘ . Then:
1. the impedance in the circuit is 100 Ω.
1. 2500 rad s-1 and 5√2 A 2. the resistance in the circuit is 200 Ω.
2. 2500 rad s-1 and 5 A 3. the power dissipated is 484 W.
5
3. 2500 rad s-1 and A 4. all the above are true.
√2

4. 25 rad s-1 and 5√2 A

8. The variation of an alternating current
3. A capacitor has a capacitance of C and I = I0 sin(ωt) with time (t) is shown in the
reactance of X. If both capacitance and figure below. The average value of current for
frequency are doubled, the new reactance will the half-cycle will be:
be:
1. 4X
2. X/2
3. X/4
4. 2X

4. The maximum power is dissipated for an AC

I0
in a/an: 1. π

1. resistive circuit 2. LC circuit 2.

I0

2
3. inductive circuit 4. capacitive circuit 2I0
3. π
I0
4. 2π

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 Custom Practice Test - 05-Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

9. For very high frequencies, the effective 12. A series RC circuit is connected to an
impedance of the circuit (shown in the figure) alternating voltage source. Consider two
will be: situations:
(1) When the capacitor is air-filled.
(2) When the capacitor is mica filled.
The current through the resistor is i and the
voltage across the capacitor is V then:
1. Va < Vb
2. Va > Vb
3. ia > ib
4. Va = Vb

1. 4 Ω 2. 6 Ω 13. An inductor (L = 200 mH) is connected to

3. 1 Ω 4.
3 Ω an AC source of peak emf 210 V and frequency
50 Hz. The peak current is:

1. 2.7 A
10. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H 2. 1.2 A
inductor, 80 μF capacitor and 40 Ω resistor is 3. 2.0 A
4. 3.3 A
connected to 230 V variable frequency AC
source. The angular frequencies of the source
14. Two coils A and B are connected in series
at which power transferred to the circuit is half
across a 240 V, 50 Hz supply. The resistance of
the power at the resonant angular frequency
A is 5 Ω and the inductance of B is 0.02 H. The
are likely to be:
power consumed is 3 kW and the power factor
1. 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
is 0.75. The impedance of the circuit is:
2. 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s 1. 0.144 Ω
3. 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s 2. 1.44 Ω
4. 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s 3. 14.4 Ω
4. 144 Ω

15. An alternating emf (ac) is applied across the

11. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an AB
circuit shown in the figure. Let VAX be the
voltage source are all connected in series.
voltage across the inductor L, and VXY be the
When L is removed from the circuit, the phase
voltage across the resistor R. Let the angular
difference between the voltage and the current
frequency be ω. The phase difference between
in the circuit is tan−1 √3. If instead, C is VXY and VAX :
removed from the circuit, the phase difference
is again tan−1 √3. The power factor of the
circuit is:
1. 1/2 2. 1/√2

3. 1 4. √3/2

ωL
1. depends on the ratio R

2. depends on the quantity √(ωL)2 + R

2

3. depends on L and R, but not on ω

4. is independent of L, R, ω

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 Custom Practice Test - 05-Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

16. Variations of a sinusoidal current with time 18. Two circuits: (1) an L-R circuit and (2) an
is shown in the graph below. The RMS value of R-C circuit are driven by the same alternating
the current from t = 0 to t = T is: current. The phase difference between the
current and the voltage is twice in the 1st case
with respect to the 2nd case and both the angles
∘
add up to 90 . The resistances are equal in both
cases. The ratio of their reactances (first:
second) is:
1. √3 : 1
2. 1 : √3

3. 3 : 1
1. i0
4. 2 : 1
i0
2.
√2

i0
19. A transformer has 100 turns in its primary.
3. 2 It has two secondary circuits: one with 10 turns
i and the other with 20 turns. The rms voltage
4.
0

2 √2 across the primary is 30 V. The secondaries are

connected to 10 Ω loads, as shown. Assuming
17. The impedance (Z) of three electrical no power loss, the rms current in the primary
components e1 , e2 and e3 has frequency (f ) is:
dependence as shown by the following three
curves:

1. 0.2 A 2. 0.15 A

3. 0.45 A 4. 0.9 A

The three components, e1 , e2 and e3 are

respectively:
1. R, L, C 20. The potential differences across the
2. R, C, L resistance, capacitance, and inductance are
80 V, 40 V and 100 V respectively in an LCR
3. L, R, C
circuit. The power factor of this circuit is:
4. C, R, L
1. 0.4
2. 0.5
3. 0.8
4. 1.0

21. An ac source is connected to a capacitor C .

Due to decrease in its operating frequency:
1. capacitive reactance remains constant
2. capacitive reactance decreases.
3. displacement current increases.
4. displacement current decreases.

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 Custom Practice Test - 05-Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

22. I1 , I2 , I3 and I4 are the respective rms 25. In an AC-circuit, the current i1 flows into
values of the time-varying currents as shown in node-A and currents i2 and i3 flow out. The
the four cases I, II, III and IV. current i2 = (12 A) sin ωt while
i3 = (5 A) cos ωt, where ω is the angular

frequency. The peak value of i1 is:

Identify the option that captures the correct 1. 17 A 2. 7 A

relation: 3. 8.5 A 4. 13 A
II = I2 = I3 = I4 I3 > I1 = I2 > I4
1. 2.

3. I3 > I4 > I2 = I1 4. I3 > I2 > I1 > I4 26. A current π

I = I0 sin(ωt − ) flows in an
2
AC circuit. If the potential of E = E0 sin ωt has
23. In the circuit shown below, what will be the been applied, then the power consumption P in
reading of the voltmeter and the ammeter the circuit will be:
respectively? E0 I 0
1. P =
√2

EI
2. P =
√2

E0 I 0
3. P =
2
4. P = zero

1. 800 V, 2 A

2. 300 V, 2 A

3. 220 V, 2.2 A

4. 100 V, 2 A

24. A small-signal voltage V (t) = V0 sin(ωt) is

applied across an ideal capacitor C : Find the
correct statement from the options given
below:
over a full cycle, the capacitor C does not
1. consume any energy from the voltage
source.
2. current I (t) is in phase with voltage V (t).
3. current I (t) leads voltage V (t) by 180 .
∘

4. current I (t), lags voltage V (t) by 90 .

∘

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 Custom Practice Test - 05-Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

27. In a purely resistive AC circuit, which of the 30. An alternating voltage of peak value 300 V
following sketches represents the variation of and a frequency 50 Hz is applied across an
the current amplitude I0 with the frequency ω? inductor L = 2 mH in a circuit. The induced
voltage across the inductor has the peak value:
1. equal to 300 V
2. less than 300 V
1. 2. 3. greater than 300 V
4. zero

31. The net impedance of circuit (as shown in

the figure) will be:
3. 4.

28. A 12 V, 60 W lamp is connected to the

secondary of a step down transformer, whose 1. 25 Ω
primary is connected to ac mains of 220 V.
2. 10√2 Ω
Assuming the transformer to be ideal, what is
3. 15 Ω
the current in the primary winding?
1. 0.37 A 4. 5√5 Ω
2. 0.27 A
3. 2.7 A 32. Given below are two statements:
4. 3.7 A In a purely inductive circuit, the
Statement I: average power consumed is very
29. A series LCR circuit with inductance 10 H, high.
capacitance 10 μF, resistance 50 Ω is In a purely inductive circuit
Statement II:
connected to an AC source of voltage, only, resonance can be achieved.
V = 200 sin(100t) volt . If the resonant
frequency of the LCR circuit is ν0 and the Both Statement I and Statement II are
1.
frequency of the AC source is ν , then: correct.
100 Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
1. ν = 100 Hz; ν0 = Hz 2.
π
correct.
2. ν0 = ν = 50 Hz Statement I is correct and Statement II is
3.
50
incorrect.
3. ν0 = ν = Hz Both Statement I and Statement II are
π 4.
incorrect.
50
4. ν0 = Hz, ν = 50 Hz
π

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 Custom Practice Test - 05-Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics-Section-B
33. An AC source given by V = Vm sin(ωt) is
connected to a pure inductor L in a circuit and
Im is the peak value of the AC current. The 36. In a LCR circuit 100 Ω resistance is
instantaneous power supplied to the inductor connected to an a.c. source of 200 V and
is: angular frequency 300 rad/s. If only the
Vm I m capacitance is removed, the voltage leads the
1. sin(2ωt)
2 current by phase angle ϕ. If only the inductance
Vm I m is removed the current leads the voltage by
2. − sin(2ωt)
phase angle ϕ. The power dissipated in the LCR
2
2
3. Vm Im sin (ωt) circuit is:
4. −Vm Im sin (ωt)
2 1. 500 W
2. 400 W
3. 300 W
34. A light bulb and an inductor coil are
4. 200 W
connected to an AC source through a key as
shown in the figure below. The key is closed
37. The primary to secondary turns-ratio
and after some time an iron rod is inserted into N
P
the interior of the inductor. The glow of the = 10, for a transformer. If a primary AC
N
light bulb: S

voltage of 100 V rms is applied at the primary,

the AC output voltage at secondary will be
(rms):

1. decreases
2. remains unchanged
3. will fluctuate
4. increases 1. 100 V 2. 1000 V

3. 10 V 4. 4
10 V

35. The peak voltage of the AC source is equal

to:
1. 1/√2 times the rms value of the AC source.
2. the value of voltage supplied to the circuit.
3. the rms value of the AC source.
4. √2 times the rms value of the AC source.

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 Custom Practice Test - 05-Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

38. The end ′ B′ of the circuit is earthed 40. In an LCR circuit, 100 Ω resistance is
(VB = 0) while a sinusoidal voltage is applied connected to an ac source of 200 V and an
at ′ A′ ; VA = V0 sin ωt. The rms voltage across angular frequency of 300 rad/s. If only the
the capacitor C equals that across the upper capacitance is removed, the voltage leads the
resistor R (as shown in the figure). What is the current by phase angle ϕ. If only the
phase difference between the current through inductance is removed the current leads the
the capacitor and the voltage across the voltage by phase angle ϕ the rms value of the
capacitor when no current flows out at X? current in LCR circuit is:
1. 2 A
2. 4 A
3. 1.2 A
4. 5 A

41. An AC source of emf 100 V and frequency

50
f =
π
Hz has an internal resistance 100 Ω. A
load resistance RL is connected across the
source. Maximum power is dissipated in the
load, when:
∘
1. 0
∘
2. 45
1. RL = 100√2 Ω
3. 90
∘
4. 180
∘

2. RL =
100
Ω
√2

3. RL = 100 Ω

39. The end ′ B′ of the circuit is earthed 4. RL = 200 Ω

(VB = 0) while a sinusoidal voltage is applied

at ′ A′ ; VA = V0 sin ωt. The rms voltage across 42. A common transistor radio set requires
12 V (D.C.) for its operation. The D.C. source is
the capacitor C equals that across the upper
resistor R (as shown in the figure). What constructed by using a transformer and a
voltage should be applied at X (VX ) so that the rectifier circuit, which are operated at 220 V
(A.C.) on standard domestic A.C. supply. If the
current flowing into both the resistors is
number of turns of secondary coil are 24, then
equal?
the number of turns of primary are:
1. 110
2. 330
3. 440
4. 550

V0
1. VX =
2
sin ωt

V0
2. VX =
2
cos ωt

3. VX = Vo (sin ωt + cos ωt)

4. VX = 0

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 Custom Practice Test - 05-Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

43. Exactly identical voltages are imposed on 46. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of
the system at X, Y , and Z : Vm sin ωt. The capacitance C and a resistor of resistance R
peak voltage at O is Vo . Then: are connected in series to an AC source of
potential difference V volts as shown in Figure.
The potential difference across L, C and R is
40 V, 10 V and 40 V, respectively. The
amplitude of the current flowing through the
LCR series circuit is 10√2 A. The impedance

of the circuit will be:

1. Vo = Vm
2. Vo < Vm
3. Vo > Vm
4. any of the above can be possible.

44. An incandescent electric bulb rated at

100 W for a 220 V-AC household supply is

connected to 220 V DC supply. Treating the

1. 4 Ω 2. 5 Ω
filament as a pure resistance, the bulb should:
5
1. glow brighter 3. 4 √2 Ω 4. Ω

2. glow dimmer √2

3. glow the same

4. first glow brighter, then dims gradually
47. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 μF, and
a resistor 40 Ω are connected in series across a
45. For the given, LCR series circuit: source of emf V = 10sin340t. The power loss
XL = 130 Ω, XC = 80 Ω and R = 80 Ω. The
in the AC circuit is:
value of the power factor of the circuit is: 1. 0.67 W 2. 0.76 W
3. 0.89 W 4. 0.51 W

48. The graph (a) and (b) gives the dependence

of two reactive impedances X1 and X2 on the
frequency of AC voltage applied across them.
We can say that:

√54
1. 9
8
2.
√89

8
3. 13
7
4. 9

1. X1 is an inductor, X2 is a capacitor
2. X1 is a resistor, X2 is a capacitor
3. X1 is a capacitor, X2 is an inductor
4. X1 is a capacitor, X2 is a resistor

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 Custom Practice Test - 05-Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

49. In an LCR series circuit, the potential 53. What would happen when a solution of
difference across each element is initially 60 V. potassium chromate is treated with an excess of
Now the value of resistance alone is doubled, dilute nitric acid ?
then the potential drops across R, L and C , 1. Cr3+ and Cr2 O7
2−

respectively are:
2. Cr2 O2− and H2O are formed
1. 60 V, 30 V, 30 V 7

3. Cr2 O2− is reduced to +3 state of Cr

2. 60 V, 120 V, 120 V 4

4. None of the above

3. 30 V, 120 V, 120 V

4. 60 V, 100 V, 80 V 54. The colourless ion from among the

following is:
1. Mn2+
50. A circuit consists of an inductor, 2. Cu+
H and a capacitor C = 20 μF
−3

3. Cr3+
L = 2 × 10

connected in series. An alternating voltage

4. Fe2+
V (t) = V0 sin ωt is applied. V0 = 300 V, and
−1
ω = 2500 s
55. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in
Column II
and select the correct match:
Column I Column II
A. Co3+ i. √8 B.M.
B. Cr3+ ii. √35 B.M.
C. Fe3+ iii. √15 B.M.
The reactance (XC ) of the capacitance, which
is inversely proportional to the frequency, is: D. Ni2+ iv. √24 B.M.
1. 5 Ω 2. 10 Ω
A B C D
3. 20 Ω 4. 40 Ω
1. iv iii ii i
2. i ii iii iv
3. iv i ii iii
Chemistry-Section-A 4. iii iv i ii
51. Select the element with the highest second
ionization enthalpy from the following options.
1. Mn 56. The factors that may be regarded as the
2. Fe main cause of lanthanoid contraction among
3. Cr the following is:
4. V Greater shielding of 5d electron by 4f
1.
electrons
52. Poorer shielding of 5d electron by 4f
The incorrect statement among the following 2. electrons
regarding interstitial compounds is:
Effective shielding of one of the 4f electrons
1. They are chemically reactive. 3.
by another in the sub-shell
2. They are much harder than the pure metal.
3. They have a higher melting point than pure 4. Poor shielding of one of the 4f electrons by
metals. another in the sub-shell
4. They retain metallic conductivity.

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 Custom Practice Test - 05-Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

57. 60. What is the outer electronic configuration of

In dichromate ion, all the Cr – O Gadolinium (Gd) with atomic number 64?
Assertion (A):
bond lengths are equal. 1. 4f 3 5d 5 6s2
The chromate ion is tetrahedral, 2. 4f 8 5d 0 6s2
whereas the dichromate ion 3. 4f 4 5d 4 6s2
Reason (R):
consists of three tetrahedral 4. 4f
7
5d
1
6s
2

units.
61. SO2 is passed through an acidified
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1. K2Cr2O7 solution.
correct explanation of (A).
The correct statement among the following
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the regarding the above experiment is:
2.
correct explanation of (A). 1. The solution gets decolorized.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 2. SO2 gets reduced.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 3. Green coloured Cr2(SO4)3 gets formed.
4. The solution turns blue.

58. The correct statement(s) among the 62.

following is or are: F rCr2 O4 + N a2 CO3 + Air → (A) + F e2 O3 + CO2

I: Cr2+ and Mn3+ have the same electronic

(A) + (B) → C
configuration.
2+ 3+ C + KCl → D
II: Cr is a reducing agent, while Mn is an
oxidising agent. (Orange)

2+ 3+ C and D are strong oxidizing agents. D is used

III: Cr is an oxidising agent, while Mn is a as the primary standard in volumetric analysis.
reducing agent.
On the basis of the above paragraph.
IV: Both Cr and Mn are oxidising agents.
The incorrect statement among the following is:
1. C is more soluble in water than D.
1. I,III,IV
2. I,II D consists of two tetrahedral sharing one
2.
3. I,II,IV corner with a Cr-O-Cr bond angle of 126°.
4. I,IV 3. Aqueous solution of A is yellow colored.
4. The oxidation state of Cr in D is +3.
59. Identify the incorrect statement.
The transition metals and their compounds
are known for their catalytic activity due to 63. Identify the incorrect statement from the
1.
their ability to adopt multiple oxidation following:
states and to form complexes. Zirconium and Hafnium have identical radii
Interstitial compounds are those that are 1. of 160 pm and 159 pm, respectively as a
2. formed when small atoms like H, C or N are consequence of lanthanoid contraction.
trapped inside the crystal lattices of metals. 2. Lanthanoids reveal only +3 oxidation state.
The oxidation states of chromium in CrO42– The lanthanoid ions other than the f0 type
3. 3.
and Cr2O72– are not the same. and the f14 type are all paramagnetic.
Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent than The overall decrease in atomic and ionic
4. 4. radii from lanthanum to lutetium is called
Fe2+(d6) in water.
lanthanoid contraction.

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 Custom Practice Test - 05-Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

64. The decrease in size from left to right in the 69. Which of the following exhibits only a +3
actinoid series is greater and more gradual oxidation state?
than that in the lanthanoid series due to: 1. Th 2. Ac
1. 4f orbitals are penultimate 3. Pa 4. U
2. 4f orbitals have a greater shielding effect
3. 5f orbitals have a poor shielding effect
4. 5f orbitals have a greater shielding effect 70. Read the following statements and choose
the correct option:
Potassium dichromate is used in
Statement I:
65. The general electronic configuration for the volumetric analysis.
2nd-row transition series is: K2Cr2O7 is more soluble in water
1-10 2 1-10 1-2 Statement II:
1. [Ne]3d 4s 2. [Ar]3d 4s than in Na2Cr2O7.
3. [Kr]4d1-10 5s1-2 4. [Xe]5d1-10 5s1-2
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct
66. The reason for a greater range of oxidation 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are
states in actinoids is attributed to: incorrect
1. Actinoid contraction 3. Statement I is correct and Statement II is
2. 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable incorrect
energies. 4. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
3. 4f and 5d levels being close in energies. correct
4. The radioactive nature of actinoids
71. An incorrect statement among the following
67. In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, is :
KM nO4 oxidises iodide into iodate. The 1. La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
change in oxidation state of manganese in this In Lanthanide series, ionic radius of
reaction is from: 2.
Ln+3 ions decreases.
1. +6 to +5 2. +7 to +4 La is an element of a transition and not
3.
3. +6 to +4 4. +7 to +3 of Lanthanide series.
The atomic radius of Zr and Hf are the same
4.
because of Lanthanide contraction.
68.
In any transition series, the
magnetic moment of the 72. The spin-only magnetic moment of the
Assertion (A): 2+
M ion first increases and then [ZCl4]²⁻ complex is 3.87 Bohr Magnetons (BM).
decreases. Identify the metal ion represented by Z.
In any transition series, the 1. Co
number of unpaired electrons 2. Ni
Reason (R): 3. Mn
first increases and then
decreases. 4. Cu

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the 73. The calculated spin only magnetic moment
1. of Cr2+ ion is:
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the 1. 4.90 BM
2. 2. 5.92 BM
correct explanation of (A).
3. 2.84 BM
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. 3.87 BM
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.

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 Custom Practice Test - 05-Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

74. The manganate and permanganate ions are 77. Match the statement given in Column I with
tetrahedral, due to: the corresponding element given in Column II
The π-bonding involves the overlap of d- and mark the appropriate choice.
1. orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of Column I Column II
manganese. An element that can show +8
(A) (i) Ce
The π-bonding involves the overlap of p- oxidation state
2. orbitals of oxygen with d-orbitals of An element with +7 as the
manganese. (B) most stable oxidation state (ii) Pm
3. Absence of π-bonding. in its oxides
The π-bonding involves the overlap of p- (C) Radioactive lanthanoid (iii) Os
4. orbitals of oxygen with p-orbitals of Lanthanoid which shows +4
manganese. (D) (iv) Mn
oxidation state
1. (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv)
2. (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
75. Read the statements and mark the correct 3. (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iii)
option: 4. (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (ii), (D) → (i)
Eu
2+
behaves as a reducing
Assertion (A):
agent. 78.
+3 oxidation state of F eCr2 O4 + N a2 CO3 + Air → (A) + F e2 O3 + CO2
Reason (R):
lanthanoids is more common. (A) + (B) → C

C + KCl → D
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1. (Orange)
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the In the given reactions, C and D are strong
2. oxidising agents. D is used as the primary
correct explanation of (A).
standard in volumetric analysis.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
In an acidic medium, D oxidises iodides into:
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 1. I O−
2. I2
−
3. I O3
76. Four successive members of the first-row −
4. I O4
transition elements are listed below with their
atomic numbers. Choose the element that is
expected to have the highest third ionization 79. Zinc can be coated on iron to produce
enthalpy. galvanised iron, but the reverse is not possible
1. Vanadium (Z = 23) 2. Chromium (Z = 24) because:
3. Iron (Z = 26) 4. Manganese (Z = 25) 1. Zinc is lighter than iron.
2. Zinc has a lower melting point than iron.
Zinc has a lower negative reduction potential
3.
than iron.
Zinc has a higher negative reduction
4.
potential than iron.

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 Custom Practice Test - 05-Nov
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

80. The change in the oxidation state of Mn in 84. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. It’s atomic
the following reaction is: number is 64. Which of the following is the
acidic medium
correct electronic configuration of gadolinium?
KM nO4 +KI − −− −− −−−− →
1. [Xe]4 f 8 6d 2
1. 4
2. 5 2. [Xe]4 f 9 5s1
3. 6 3. [Xe]4 f 7 5d 1 6s2
4. 7 4. [Xe]4 f 6 5d 2 6s2

81. 85. The main reason for a larger number of

Cuprous ion (Cu ) is colorless
+
oxidation states exhibited by the actinoids than
Assertion (A): whereas cupric ion (Cu2+ ) is the corresponding lanthanoids is:
blue in the aqueous solution. The lesser energy difference between 5f and
1.
Cuprous ion (Cu+ ) has 6d orbitals than 4f and 5d orbitals
unpaired electrons Larger atomic size of actinoids than the
Reason (R): 2.
whereas cupric ion (Cu2+ ) lanthanoids
does not. More energy difference between 5f and 6d
3.
orbitals than between 4f and 5d orbitals
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the Greater reactive nature of the actinoids than
1. 4.
correct explanation of (A). the lanthanoids
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Chemistry-Section-B
86. The complex ion with zero 'd' electrons in
the central metal atom is:
82. A pair of ions that have the same electronic (At. No. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27)
configuration among their constituent species 1. [MnO4 ] 2. [Co(NH3 )6 ]3+
−

is: 3. [Fe(CN)6 ]3− 4. [Cr(H2 O)6 ]3+

1. Sr , Cr
3+ 3+

2. F e3+ , M n2+
3. F e3+ , Co3+ 87.
4. Cr3+ , F e3+ 5f electrons can participate in
Assertion
bonding to a greater extent as
(A):
83. When neutral or faintly alkaline KM nO4 is compared to 4f electrons.
treated with potassium iodide, iodide ion is The angular part of the wave
converted into 'X'. 'X' is: function is similar for both 5f and
1. I2 Reason
4f orbitals, but the 5f orbitals are
(R):
2. I O−4
not as deeply buried as the 4f
3. I O − orbitals.
3

4. I O−
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

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88. Which lanthanide among the following 91. Match the isolated gaseous ions given in
readily forms stable divalent ions? column I with the number of unpaired
1. Tb electrons given in column II and assign the
2. Dy correct code:
3. Er Column I Column II
4. Eu (A) Cr 3+
(P) 2

89. Which of the following lanthanoid ions is (B) Fe

3+
(Q) 3
diamagnetic? (C) Ni
2+
(R) 4
(At. No. Ce = 58, Sm = 62, Eu = 63, Yb = 70) (D) Mn
3+
(S) 5
2+
1. Ce
2+
2. Sm A B C D
2+
3. Eu 1. R P Q S
4. Yb2+ 2. Q S P R
3. Q S R P
90. Which of the following statements is
INCORRECT? 4. S Q R P
All the transition metals except scandium
A.
form MO oxides which are ionic.
92. Given below are two statements:
The highest oxidation number
corresponding to the group number Ionisation enthalpies of early
B. on transition metal oxides is attained in Assertion (A): actinoids are lower than for
Sc2O3 to Mn2O7. early lanthanoids.
Electrons are entering 5f
Basic character increases from V2O3 to
C. orbitals in actinoids which
V2O4 to V2O5. Reason (R):
experience greater shielding
D. V O dissolves in acids to give VO . 3- from nuclear charge.
2 4 4
E. CrO is basic but Cr2O3 is amphoteric.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
Choose the correct answer from the options 1.
correct explanation of (A).
given below:
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
1. B and C only 2. A and E only 2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. B and D only 4. C and D only
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

93. Which element among the following has the

highest melting point?
1. Cr
2. Fe
3. Cu
4. Mo

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94. 99. Reason for lanthanoid contraction is:

Ionization enthalpy increases 1. Negligible screening effect of 'f' orbitals
along each series of transition 2. Increasing nuclear charge
Assertion (A): elements from left to right. 3. Decreasing nuclear charge
However, small variations 4. Decreasing screening effect
occur.
There is a corresponding 100. Ce3+ , La3+ , Pm3+ and Yb3+ have ionic
increase in nuclear charge radii in the increasing order as:
Reason (R): which accompanies the filling 1. La3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+
of electrons in the inner d- 2. Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+
orbitals. 3. La3+ = Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+
4. Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+
1. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
2. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

3.
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the Biology-I-Section-A
correct explanation of (A) 101. Predators:
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not act as conduits for energy transfer across
4. 1.
the correct explanation of (A) trophic levels
do not include herbivores in broad
2.
ecological context
95. A set of coloured ions among the following 3. indiscriminately kill their prey
is: 4. have a very high biotic potential
3+ 4+ 3+
1. Sc , Ti , Mn
3+ 2+ 2+
2. Sc , Zn , Ni
3+ 2+
3. V , V , Fe
3+
102. What process from the ones given below
3+ 4+
4. Ti , Ti , Ni
2+ will lead to an increase in population size?
I: Natality
96. The reason why zinc does not exhibit II: Mortality
variable oxidation states is: III: Immigration
1. inert pair effect. IV: Emigration
2. completely filled 3d sub-shell.
3. completely filled 4s sub-shell. 1. Only I and II
4. common ion effect. 2. Only I and III
3. Only III and IV
97. The radius of La3+ (Atomic number of La 4. Only II and IV
=57) is 1.06 Å. Which one of the following given
values will be closest to the radius of Lu3+ 103. Consider the two statements:
(Atomic number of Lu = 71)? In ecology, the term “niche” describes the
1. 1.60 Å I:
role an organism plays in a community.
2. 1.40 Å A species’ niche encompasses both the
3. 1.06 Å physical and environmental conditions it
4. 0.85 Å II:
requires and the interactions it has with
other species.
98. Eu2+ and Ce4+ behave, respectively, as:
1. I is correct; II is correct
1. Reducing agent and Reducing agent 2. I is correct; II is incorrect
2. Oxidising agent and Reducing agent 3. I is incorrect; II is correct
3. Reducing agent and oxidising agent 4. I is incorrect; II is incorrect
4. Oxidising agent and oxidising agent

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104. The term that describes the maximum 109. A phenomenon where organisms within
number of individuals a population can sustain an ecosystem divide up resources to avoid
in a given environment is: competing for the same ones is often described
1. Carrying capacity as:
2. Biotic potential 1. Gause ‘s competitive exclusion principle
3. Limiting factor 2. Connell’s competitive release hypothesis
4. Environmental resistance 3. MacArthur’s resource partitioning hypothesis
4. Humboldt’s species – area relationship
105.
The female anopheles mosquito 110. Which symbiotic relationship is best
Assertion (A): defined as a process in which the fitness of one
is not considered a parasite
The bite of the female species (measured in terms of its ‘r’, the
anopheles mosquito injects intrinsic rate of increase) is significantly lower
Reason (R): in the presence of another species?
infective stage of malarial
parasite into human blood 1. Competition 2. Amensalism
3. Commensalism 4. Mutualism
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the 111. Niche of an organism includes:
2. I: range of conditions that it can tolerate
correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is True but (R) is False II: diversity in the resources it utilises
4. Both (A) and (R) are False its distinct functional role in the ecological
III:
system

106. What would be true for an orchid growing 1. Only I 2. Only III
as an epiphyte on a mango plant? 3. Only II and III 4. I, II and III
I: It grows on mango for physical support
II: It affects mango negatively
1. Only I 112. If 4 individuals in a laboratory population
2. Only II of 40 fruitflies are added through reproduction
3. Both I and II during a week, the death rate in the population
4. Neither I nor II during that period is:
1. 4 individuals per fruitfly per week.
107. The principle of competitive exclusion was 2. 0.4 individuals per fruitfly per week.
stated by? 3. 40 individuals per fruitfly per week.
1. C. Darwin 4. 0.1 individuals per fruitfly per week.
2. G. F. Gause
3. MacArthur
4. Verhulst and Pearl

108. The human liver fluke:

I: is a member of Platyhelminthes.
depends on two intermediate hosts (a snail
II:
and a fish) to complete its life cycle.
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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113. Consider the given two statements: 116. When population density is plotted against
Statement time, the exponential growth curve is:
Predators in nature are ‘prudent’.
I: 1. S shaped 2. Straight line
Prey species have evolved various 3. J shaped 4. Hyperbola
Statement
defenses to lessen the impact of
II:
predation.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is 117. Consider the given two statements:
correct When resources in a habitat are unlimited,
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is I:
populations undergo exponential growth.
incorrect Resources are always unlimited for plants
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is II:
but never for animals.
correct 1. I is correct; II is correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 2. I is correct; II is incorrect
incorrect 3. I is incorrect; II is correct
4. I is incorrect; II is incorrect
114. What process from the ones given below
will lead to a decrease in population size? 118. Which of the following is an example of
I: Natality mutualism?
II: Mortality 1. Cuckoo laying eggs in nest of a crow
III: Immigration 2. Cattle Egret and grazing cattle
IV: Emigration 3. Sea Anemone and Clownfish
4. Female wasp and fig species
1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III 119. Imagine a land area is getting newly
3. Only III and IV colonized by humans for the first time. The
4. Only II and IV population in this area will primarily be
decided by:
115. The number of correct statements amongst 1. Natality 2. Mortality
the given is: 3. Immigration 4. Emigration
Parasitism has evolved in many
Statement I: taxonomic groups from plants
to higher vertebrates. 120. Where N = Population density at time t, r =
Many parasites have evolved to Intrinsic rate of natural increase and K =
Statement II: be host-specific and both tend to Carrying capacity, what happens when K
co-evolve. becomes equal to N?
All parasites have only one the population grows in an exponential or
1.
Statement III: primary and one intermediate geometric fashion
host. the population grows in an arithmetic
2.
Only a few of the parasites fashion
Statement IV: 3. the population stops growing in size
harm their hosts.
4. the population declines in size
1. 1 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4
121. Natality refers to:
1. Death rate
2. Birth rate
3. Number of individuals leaving the habitat
4. Number of individuals entering the habitat

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122. Nicotine, caffeine, quinine and opium 126. Consider the given two statements:
produced by plants are actually: The Abingdon tortoise in
1. Primary metabolites needed in reproduction Galapagos Islands became
2. Secondary metabolites needed for growth Assertion(A): extinct within a decade of
3. Alkaloids that are present in seeds introduction of
goats on the island.
4. Defenses against grazers and browsers
Introduction of goats also
Reason (R): introduced a new parasite that
killed Abingdon tortoise.
123. In the logistic growth of a population, the
acceleration phase is followed by a/an:
1. Lag phase 2. Deceleration phase Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
1.
explains (A).
3. Asymptote 4. Sudden crash phase
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
2.
correctly explain (A).
124. Which of the following is least likely to 3. (A) is True; (R) is False
affect the size of a population? 4. Both (A) and (R) are False
1. Competition 2. Brood parasitism
3. Commensalism 4. Predation
127. You can see a concave shape in the upper
part of the population pyramid shown in the
125. Consider the given two statements: given figure. This might signify:
The tiger census in our national
parks and tiger reserves is often
Assertion (A):
based on pug marks and fecal
pellets.
For ecological investigations, it
is mandatory to know the
Reason (R):
absolute population densities in
all instances.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly 1. High birth rates
1. 2. Low birth rates
explains (A).
2. (A) is True but (R) is False 3. High life expectancy
4. Rapid population decline
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not 128. A population with finite resources shows a
4.
correctly explain (A). logistic growth curve where the correct
sequence of events will be:
Stationary phase → Acceleration phase →
1.
Lag phase → Asymptote
Acceleration phase → Deceleration →
2.
Asymptote
Acceleration phase → Leg phase →
3.
Stationary phase
Lag phase → Acceleration phase →
4.
Deceleration → Asymptote

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 Custom Practice Test - 05-Nov
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129. Which of the following is/are example of 132. Match each item in Column I with one in
commensalism? Column II and select the correct match from the
I: The cattle egret and grazing cattle. codes given:
Sea anemone that has stinging tentacles and Column I
II: Column II
the clown fish that lives among them. [Population
[Example]
1. Only I is correct Interaction]
2. Only II is correct An orchid growing as
3. Both I and II are correct A Mutualism P an epiphyte on a mango
4. Both I and II are incorrect branch
Chthamalus and
B Commensalism Q
130. A feature of ‘r’ strategists would be: Balanus
1. few offspring 2. little parental care Fig trees and wasp
C Parasitism R
sigmoid growth a longer generation species
3. 4.
curves time Cuscuta growing on
D Competition S
hedge plants
Codes:
131. Consider the given two statements: A B C D
When resources in the habitat 1. R P Q S
are unlimited, the population
Assertion (A): 2. R P S Q
grows in an exponential or
geometric fashion. 3. P R S Q
When resources in the habitat 4. P R Q S
are unlimited, each species has
Reason (R): the ability to realise fully its
innate potential to grow in 133. Predators play very important roles in an
number. ecosystem that include:
I: They act as conduit of energy
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly II: They keep prey population under check
1.
explains (A). They maintain species diversity in a
III:
2. (A) is True but (R) is False community
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
1. Only I and II
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
4. 2. Only I and III
correctly explain (A).
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

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134. Consider the following statements: 137. What ecological principle has been
When certain exotic species are paraphrased in the maxim "complete
introduced into a geographical area, they competitors cannot coexist"?
I: 1. Competitive release
become invasive because the invaded land
does not have its natural predators. 2. Exploitative competition
Competition is best defined as a process in 3. Interference competition
which the fitness of one species is 4. Competitive exclusion
II:
significantly lower in the presence of
another species. 138. The process of individuals of the same
species that have come into the habitat from
Biological control methods adopted in
elsewhere during the time period under
agricultural pest control are based on the
III: consideration is referred as:
ability of the predator to regulate the prey
1. Association
population.
2. Emigration
Which of the above statements are true? 3. Competition
4. Immigration
1. I and II only 2. I and III only
139. Consider the two statements:
3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III
The evolutions of the flower
Assertion (A): and its pollinator species are
tightly linked with one another.
135. A keystone species in a biological
community: Plants need the help of animals
1. is the primary producer. Reason (R): for pollinating their flowers
and dispersing their seeds.
2. has no significant impact on the community.
plays a crucial role in maintaining
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
community structure. 1.
correct explanation of (A).
is a rare species that must be preserved
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
immediately. 2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Biology-I-Section-B
136. Consider the given two statements:
The female Anopheles mosquito 140. To evolve the desired traits, natural
Assertion (A): selection operates at the level of:
is considered a parasite.
1. Organism
The female Anopheles depends
Reason (R): 2. Population
on humans for food and shelter.
3. Species
4. Biological community
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of the (A) 141. Which of the following will not be an
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the attribute of a population but will be an
2.
correct explanation of the (A) attribute of an individual?
3. (A) is True but (R) is False 1. Birth rate
4. Both (A) and (R) are False 2. Death
3. Death rate
4. Sex ratio

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142. Most birds and mammals: 146. Consider the given two statements:
breed many times during their lifetime and Predators in nature are
Assertion (A):
1. produce a small number of large-sized ‘prudent’.
offspring. Predators keep prey
Reason (R):
breed only once during their lifetime and populations under control.
2. produce a small number of large-sized
offspring. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
1.
breed many times during their lifetime and explains (A)
3. produce a large number of small-sized Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
offspring. 2.
correctly explain (A)
breed only once during their lifetime and 3. (A) is True, (R) is False
4. produce a large number of small-sized 4. (A) is False, (R) is True
offspring.

147. An association of individuals of different

143. Mediterranean Orchid is pollinated in a species living in the same habitat and having
unique way as it employs: functional interactions is known as:
1. Production of foul odour
1. Ecological niche 2. Biotic community
2. Sexual deceit
3. Batesian mimicry 3. Ecosystem 4. Population
4. Aposematic colouration

144. Which of the following will represent a 148. Consider the given two statements:
higher Darwinian Fitness? The logistic growth model is
1. Low r value considered a more realistic one
Assertion (A):
2. High r value for a population growing in a
3. Low carrying capacity natural habitat.
4. High carrying capacity No population of any species in
nature has at its disposal
Reason (R):
145. Consider the given two statements: unlimited resources to permit
Predators help in maintaining exponential growth.
Assertion (A): species diversity in a
community. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
1.
Predators reduce the intensity explains the (A)
Reason (R): of competition among Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
competing prey species. 2.
correctly explain the (A)
3. (A) is True, (R) is False
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly 4. (A) is False, (R) is True
1.
explains (A)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
2.
correctly explain (A) 149. Cuscuta [dodder]:
3. (A) is True, (R) is False is a parasitic plant that is commonly found
I:
4. (A) is False, (R) is True growing on hedge plants
has lost its chlorophyll and leaves in the
II:
course of evolution.
1. only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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 Custom Practice Test - 05-Nov
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150. The given age pyramid represents a:

Fast expanding Slowly expanding

1. 2.
population population
3. Stable population 4. Declining population

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