G11-PCB

Test Code: JS-AT-04-24

1. Types of Questions
All questions are Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) with a single correct answer.
2. Marking Scheme
Each correct answer will be awarded +4 marks.
Each incorrect answer will result in a deduction of 1 mark (-1).
No marks will be awarded or deducted for unattempted questions.
3. Answering Instructions
For MCQs, choose the one correct option from the given choices.
4. Subjects and Structure
The question paper consists of four subjects:
A) Physics
B) Chemistry
C) Biology (Botany and Zoology)
■ Physics and Chemistry:
Each subject contains a total of 50 questions, divided into two sections:
Section A: The first 40 questions are compulsory.
Section B: 10 questions, out of which at most 5 can be attempted.
■ Biology:
Contains a total of 100 questions:
Questions 101-180 are compulsory.
Questions 181-200: Out of these 20 questions, at most 10 questions can be attempted.
Duration: 180 minutes Total Marks: 720

Physics
Q1: The velocity-time graph for two bodies A and B are shown in the figure. Then, the acceleration of A and B
are in the ratio

A. sin 25 ∘
/sin 50
∘
B. tan 25 ∘
/tan 40
∘

C. cos 25 ∘
/cos 50
∘
D. tan 25 ∘
/tan 50
∘

Q2: A car moves from A to B with a speed of 30km/h and from B to A with a speed of 20km/h. What is the
average speed of the car?

A. 25km/h B. 24km/h
C. 50km/h D. 10km/h

Q3: A body starts from rest and moves with a constant acceleration for t sec. It travels a distance x in first half
1

of time and x in next half of time, then (if x > x )

2 2 1

A. x 2 = x1 B. x 2 = 2x 1

C. x 2 = 3x 1 D. x 2 = 4x 1

Q4: A person throws balls vertically upward into the air at regular intervals of time of one second each. The next
ball is thrown when the velocity of the ball thrown earlier becomes zero. The height to which the balls rise is
(Assume, g = 10ms ) −2

A. 20m B. 5m
C. 10m D. 7.5m

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Q5: Figure shows the displacement-time graph of a particle moving on a straight line.
The signs of velocity and acceleration of the particle respectively at time t are 1

_________

A. + ve, − ve B. + ve, + ve
C. − ve, + ve D. − ve, − ve

Q6: The ratios of the distance traversed in successive intervals of time by a body, falling from rest, are

A. 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : 9 :. . . . . . B. 2 : 4 : 6 : 8 : 10 :. . . . . .
C. 1 : 4 : 7 : 10 : 13 :. . . . . . D. None of these

Q7: A body A is thrown up vertically from the ground with a velocity v and another body B is simultaneously
0

dropped from a height H . They meet at a height , if v is equal to

H

2
0

A. √2gH B. √gH

C. 1

2
√ gH D. √
2g

Q8: A stone dropped from the top of a tower reaches ground in 4s. Height of the tower is _______ [Take
g = 10m/s ]
2

A. 20m B. 40m
C. 60m D. 80m

Q9: A small toy starts moving from the position of rest under a constant acceleration. If it travels a distance of
10 m the in t s, distance travelled by the toy in the next t s will be:

A. 10 m B. 20 m
C. 30 m D. 40 m

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Q10: For the velocity time graph shown in the figure below the distance covered by the body in the last two
seconds of its motion is what fraction of the total distance travelled by it in all the seven seconds?

A. 1

2
B. 1

C. 2

3
D. 1

Q11: The motion of particle is described by the equation x = a + bt , where a = 15 cm and b = 3 cm/sec . Its
2 2

instant velocity at time 3 sec will be

A. 36 cm/sec B. 9 cm/sec
C. 4.5 cm/sec D. 18 cm/sec

Q12: A car moves with uniform acceleration upto some distance. Initial and final velocities are u and v then
velocity at half way of the car will be:

A. 1

2
(u + v) B. 1

2
(u
2
+ v )
2

C. √ 1

2
(u 2 + v 2 ) D. 1

2
√ (u 2 + v 2 )

Q13:
A body starts from rest with uniform acceleration. Its velocity after 2n second in v . The displacement of the
0

body in last n seconds is :

A. B.
v 0 (2n−3) v0
(2n − 1)
6 4n

C. D.
3v 0 n 3v 0 n

4 2

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Q14: The velocity-time graph of a body is shown in figure. The slope of the line is 'm'. The distance travels by
body in time T :-

A. B.

C. 2mv02
D.

Q15: A particle is moving in straight line and velocity versus time graph is shown in figure.

Corresponding displacement-time graph is.

A. B.

C. D.

Q16: A car travels a distance S on a straight road in two hours and then returns to the starting point in the next three hours.
Its average velocity is.

A. S/5 B. 2S/5
C. S/2 + S/3 D. None of the above

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Q17: A scooter accelerates from rest for time t at constant rate a and then retards at constant rate a for time
1 1 2

t and comes to rest. The correct values of will be

t1
2
t2

A. B.
a 1 +a 2 a1

a1 a2

C. a2

a1
D. a 1 +a 2

a2

Q18: A particle moves along z-axis such that its z-coordinate as a function of time t is given as z = 5 + 2t − t 2
.

If v is speed, v→ is velocity and a

→ is acceleration when which of the following graphs is/are correct?

A. Only I B. Only I and II

C. Only I, II and IV D. All I, II, III, IV

Q19: Two cars of unequal masses use similar tyres. If they are moving at the same initial speed, the minimum
stopping distance :

A. is smaller for the heavier car B. is smaller for the lighter car
C. is same for both cars D. depends on the volume of the car.

Q20: The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in the figure.
Find the distance travelled by the body in 6 seconds.

A. 30 m B. 20 m
C. 10 m D. Zero

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Q21: In addition of two vectors A→ and B

→ , resultant vector is R
→ . Which of the following is correct.

A. R 2
= A
2
+ B
2
+ 2AB sin θ → = A→ + B
B. R →

C. α = β D. None

Q22: The solid angle (Ω) subtended by the intercepted area of 1 cm of spherical surface about center O of
2

radius 5 cm will be:

A. 4 × 10 −3
steradian B. 2 × 10 −2
steradian
C. 3 × 10 −2
steradian D. 4 × 10 −2
steradian

Q23: When vector A→ = 2^i + 3^j + 2k → , it gives a vector equal to 2^j. Then the magnitude
^ is subtracted from vector B

→ will be:
of vector B

A. √33 B. 3
C. √6 D. √5

Q24: Which one of the following statements is false?

A. A vector has only magnitude, whereas a scalar has B. Distance is a scalar quantity but displacement is a
both magnitude and direction vector quantity
C. Momentum, force and torque are vector quantities D. Mass, speed and energy are scalar quantities

Q25: The magnitude of component of vector (^i + j) along the vector (2^i + 3j) is

A. 13√5 B. √ 13

C. 5√13 D. 5

√ 13

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Q26:

For the vectors and shown in figure if A = 15 N, B = 15 N, then = ..........

A. 15 N B.

C. 30 N
D.

Q27: The dimensions of a × b in the relation E =

b−x

at
, where E is the energy, x is the displacement and t is
time are

A. M L 2
T B. M −1 2
L T

C. M L 2
T
−2
D. M LT −2

Q28: The radius of a ball is (5.4 ± 0.2)cm. the percentage error in the volume of the ball is :

A. 11% B. 4%
C. 7% D. 9%

Q29: Assertion: An exact number has infinite number of significant digits.

Reason: A number, which is not a measured value has infinite number of significant digits.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and the reason B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
is the correct explanation of the assertion. not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C. If assertion is true but reason is false D. If the assertion and reason both are false

Q30: Assertion: A dimensionless quantity may have unit.

Reason: Two physical quantities having same dimensions, may have different units.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and the reason B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
is the correct explanation of the assertion not the correct explanation of the assertion
C. If assertion is true but reason is false D. If the assertion and reason both are false

Q31: If energy E, volume V and time T are taken as fundamental units, the dimensional formula of the
force will be

A. [EV −1/3
T
0
] B. [EV −2
T]

C. [E 2
V
−1
T
−1
] D. [EV −1
T
0
]

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Q32:

Given that : where y and x are measured in the unit of length. Which of the following
statements is true ?

A. The unit of is same as that of x and A. B. The unit of is same as that of x but not of A.
C. The unit of c is same as that of D. The unit of (ct-x) is same as that of

Q33: Dimensional formula of internal energy of a gas is

A. [M 1 3
L T
−2
] B. [M 1 2
L T
−2
]

C. [M 2 4
L T
−4
] D. [M 0 0
L T
0
]

Q34: A length is measured as 2500 m by a meter scale. Which of the following statement is correct:

B. number of significant figure in given data is 2 and it

A. number of significant figure in given data is 2 only
should be written as 2.5 km
C. number of significant figure in given data is 4 but it D. number of significant figure in given data is 4 at
should be written as 2.500 × 10 m 3
all

Q35: If unit of length and force are increased 4 times. The unit of energy

A. is increased by 4 times B. is increased by 16 times

C. is increased by 8 times D. remains unchanged

3 2

Q36: A physical quantity Q is found to depend on observables, x, y and z obeying relation Q = . The
x y

percentage error in the measurements of x, y and z are 1%, 2% and 4% respectively. What is percentage error in
the quantity Q?

A. 4% B. 3%
C. 11% D. 1%

Q37:
If P, Q, R are physical quantities, having different dimensions, which of the following combinations can never be
a meaningful quantity ?

A. B. PQ – R

C. D.

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Q38: If surface tension (S), moment of inertia (I ) and Planck’s constant (h) were to be taken as the
fundamental units, the dimensional formula for linear momentum would be

A. S 3/2
I
1/2
h
0
B. S 1/2
I
1/2
h
−1

C. S 1/2
I
3/2
h
−1
D. S 1/2
I
1/2
h
0

Q39: Differentiation of x = t 2
− e
t
+ log t with respect to t is:

A. 2t − e B.
3
t 1 t t 1
+ − e +
t 3 t

C. t + e t
+ log t D. None

Q40: Given that y = 10

sin x+√ 3 cos x

. Minimum value of y is

A. zero B. 2
C. 5 D. [10/(1 + √3)]

Q41: What is the relationship between dyne and newton of force?

A. 1 dyne = 10 −5
newton B. 1 dyne = 10 −7
newton

C. 1 dyne = 10 5
newton D. 1 dyne = 10 7
newton

Q42: If a vector P→ making angles α, β & γ respectively with x, y, z axis then, sin 2
α + sin
2
β + sin
2
γ =

A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. 3

Q43: The sum of the magnitudes of two forces acting at a point is 18 and the magnitude of the resultant is 12. If
the resultant is at 90 with the force of smaller magnitude, what are the magnitudes of forces?
∘

A. 12, 5 B. 14, 4
C. 5, 13 D. 10, 8

Q44: 0.4^i + 0.8^j + ck

^
represents a unit vector when c is

A. −0.2 B. √0.2
C. √0.8 D. 0

→ B
Q45: If there are vectors A, → and C→ respectively satisfying the relation A→ ⋅ B
→ = 0 and A→ ⋅ C→ = 0 , then vector A→ is
parallel to

→
A. B → ⋅ C→
B. B
→ × C→
C. B D. C→

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 ∣
Q46: Given y = x

A. −5
C. −3

A. n
C. 2n

C. 1s
2

2
→
→ = 2|A|
C. |B|

Chemistry
=

2s 2p

2s
2
B
3
+ 3x
2
+ 45x + 30

Q48: Which of the following is smallest unit :

A. Light year
C. Fermi

Q49: The value of slope of the curve y = 4x

A. 1
C. −1

Q50: The sum of two vectors A→ and B

A. A→ →
→

4
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. At what value of x do we get a maxima?

− sin x + cos

→ is at right angles to their difference. Then

Q51: The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a quantum shell is

Q52: Which of the following configurations is not possible?

A. 1s 2 2 6

Q53: When an electron makes a transition from L shell to M shell

A. energy is emitted
C. X-rays are emitted

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B. 5
D. 3

Q47: There are two vectros A = 3î + 4ĵ B = −3î + 7ĵ. The are of triangle whose two sides are A and B are

A. 16.5 sq unit
C. 20.8 sq unit
B. 33 sq unit
D. 11 sq unit

B. Angstrom
D. Metre

2
x

B. 1/2
D. 2

B. |A|
at x = 0 is:

→ = 2|B|
→

D. A→ and B

B. n

B. 1s
D. 1s
2
→ have the same direction.

D. n(n + 1)

2
2
2s 2p

2
2s 2p

B. energy is absorbed
D. γ-rays are emitted
7

5
→ →

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Q54: Element has an atomic number of 13 and a mass number of 27. How many electrons will it have in its
valence shell?

A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 5

Q55: Two atoms of the same element are found to have different number of neutrons in their nuclei.
These two atoms are said to be

A. isomers B. isotopes
C. isobars D. isotones

Q56: Two electrons occupying the same orbital are distinguished by

A. azimuthal quantum number B. spin quantum number

C. principal quantum number D. magnetic quantum number

Q57: Which orbital has two angular nodal planes ?

A. 2s B. 2p
C. 3d D. 4f .

Q58: For which of the following species, Bohr's theory is not applicable?

A. H B. H e 2+

C. Li 2+
D. Be 3+

Q59: When the azimuthal quantum number has the value of 2 , the number of orbitals possible are

A. 3 B. 0
C. 7 D. 5

Q60: The correct order of increasing energy of atomic orbitals is:

A. 5p < 4f < 6s < 5d B. 5p < 6s < 4f < 5d

C. 4f < 5p < 5d < 6s D. 5p < 5d < 4f < 6s

Q61: The two electrons have the following sets of quantum numbers:
1 1
P = 3, 2, −2, + , Q = 3, 0, 0, +
2 2

Which of the following statements is true?

A. P has greater energy than Q. B. P and Q represent same electron.

C. P and Q have same energy. D. P has lesser energy than Q.

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Q62: The number of photons of light having wave number ′ ′

x in 2 J of energy source is

A. 2hcx B. hc

2x

C. hcx
2
D. 2x

hc

Q63: The wave number of the spectral line in the emission spectrum of hydrogen will be equal to 8

9
times the
Rydberg’s constant, if the electron jumps from

A. n 2 = 3 to n 1 = 1 B. n 2 = 10 to n 1 = 1

C. n 2 = 9 to n 1 = 1 D. n 2 = 2 to n 1 = 1

Q64: Electromagnetic radiations of frequency ‘ν ’ consist of a stream of particles called photons. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are true about photons?

A. As the frequency increases, the number of photons B. As the number of photons in the beam increase, the
in the beam increases intensity of light decreases
C. The number of photons in the beam are D. The number of photons in the beam are
independent of frequency independent of the intensity of light

Q65: If the shortest wavelength of H atom in Lyman series is x, then longest wavelength in Balmer series of
He is:
+

A. 9x

5
B. 36x

C. x

4
D. 5x

Q66: Which one is a wrong statement?

A. The electronic configuration of N atom

B. An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers
while an electron in an atom is designated by four
quantum numbers
is
C. Total orbital angular momentum of electron in 's'
D. The value of m for d is zero 2

orbital is equal to zero

z

Q67: Total number of lines emitted in infrared region when electron de-excited from 5 th
excited state to ground
state in hydrogen atom is

A. 3 B. 4
C. 5 D. 6

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Q68:
Assertion : In one mole of H SO , 7 × 6.023 × 10 number of atoms are present.
2 4
23

Reason : 1 mole of H SO contains 7 mole of atoms.

2 4

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. If assertion is true but reason is false
D. If both assertion and reason are false.

A. A B. B
C. C D. D

Q69: The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium atom (Z = 37) is :

A. 5, 0, 0, + 1

2
B. 5, 0, 1, + 1

C. 5, 1, 0, + 1

2
D. 5, 1, 1, + 1

E. I don't know

Q70: Which of the following does not contain number of neutrons equal to that of 40
18
Ar ?

A. 41
19
K B. 43
21
Sc

C. 40
21
Sc D. 42
20
Ca

Q71: Which state of the triply ionized Beryllium (Be 3+

) has the same orbit radius as that of the ground state of
hydrogen atom?

A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4

Q72: Potential energy of electron is −27.2 eV in 2nd orbit of H e +

. Then total energy of electron in first excited
state of Hydrogen atom will be:

A. −3.4 eV B. −13.6 eV
C. 3.4 eV D. 13.6 eV

Q73: Calculate the energy associated with photon of light having a wavelength 6000 Å.
−27
[h = 6.624 × 10 erg-sec]

A. 5.5 × 10 −11
erg B. 6.6 × 10 −10
erg

C. 3.3 × 10 −12
erg D. 1.1 × 10 −14
erg

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Q74: How many times does the electron go around the first Bohr's orbit of hydrogen in one second?

A. 7.19 × 10 16
B. 5.19 × 10 24

C. 6.59 × 10 15
D. 4.59 × 10 12

Q75: The wave number of first line of Balmer series of hydrogen atom is 15200 cm −1
. What is the wave number
of first line of Balmer series of Li ion : 2+

A. 15200 cm −1
B. 13680000 m −1

C. 76000 cm −1
D. 13680 cm −1

Q76: The frequency of radiation emitted when the electron falls from n = 2 to n = 1 in a hydrogen atom will be
−34
(h = 6.625 × 10 J s)

A. 2.46 × 10 15
s
−1
B. 2.00 × 10 15
s
−1

C. 1.54 × 10 15
s
−1
D. 1.03 × 10 15
s
−1

Q77: A helium molecule is moving with a velocity of 2.40 × 10 2

ms
−1
at 300 K . The de-Broglie wave length is
about

A. 0.416 nm B. 0.83 nm
C. 803 Å D. 8000 Å

Q78: The mass of a particle is 10 g and its radius is 2 × 10 cm. If its velocity is 10
−10 −4 −6
cm sec
−1
with 0.0001%
uncertainty in measurement, the uncertainty in its position is :

A. 5.2 × 10 −8
m B. 5.2 × 10 −7
m

C. 5.2 × 10 −6
m D. 5.2 × 10 −9
m

E. I don't know

Q79: 1.0 g of hydrogen contains 6×10 23

atoms. The atomic weight of helium is 4. It follows that the number of
atoms in 1 g of H e is :

A. 1

4
× 6 × 10
23
B. 4 × 6 × 10 23

C. 6 × 10 23
D. 12 × 10 23

Q80: The empirical formula of a compound of molecular mass 120 is CH 2

O . The molecular formula of the
compound is :

A. C 2
H4 O2 B. C 4
H8 O4

C. C 3
H6 O3 D. all of these

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Q81: Volume of CO obtained at STP by the complete decompoisition of 9.85 g.

2 BaCO 3 is –
(At. wt. of Ba = 137)

A. 2.24lit B. 1.12lit
C. 0.84lit D. 0.56lit

Q82: 20 gm. CaCO on decomposition gives CO at STP if yield of reaction is 75% only
3 2

A. 3.36 litre B. 22.4 litre

C. 2.24 litre D. None of these

Q83: When 100 g of ethylene polymerises entirely to polyethene, the weight of polyethene formed as per the
equation
n(C H ) → (−CH − CH −) is:
2 4 2 2 n

A. (n/2) g B. 100 g
C. (100/n)g D. 100 ng

Q84: If the atomic mass of Sodium is 23, the number of moles in 46 g of sodium is :

A. 1 B. 2
C. 2.3 D. 4.6

Q85: 16 g of an ideal gas SO occupies 5.6 L. at STP. The value of x is

x

A. x = 3 B. x = 2
C. x = 4 D. none of these

Q86: The percentages of C, H and N in an organic compound are 40% , 13.3% and 46.7%. The empirical
formula of this compound is

A. CH 2N B. CH 4N

C. CH 5N D. C 3 H9 N3 .

Q87: For the complete combustion of 4 litre ethane, how much oxygen is required ?

A. 14 litre B. 4 litre
C. 8 litre D. 12 litre

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Q88: The equation :

2Al(S) +
3

2
O 2 (g) → Al 2 O 3 (S) shows that

A. 2 mole of Al reacts with 3

2
mole of O to produce
2
7

2
B. 2g of Al reacts with 3

2
g of oxygen to produce 1 mole
mole of Al O 2 3 of Al O 2 3

C. 2 mole of Al reacts with 3

2
litre of O to produce 2
2 D. 2 mole of Al reacts with 3

2
mole of O to produce 1
2

mole of Al 2 O3 mole of Al 2 O3

Q89: X g of Ag was dissolved in H N O and the solution was treated with excess of N aCl. When 2.87 g of AgCl
3

was precipeted the value of X is

A. 1.08 g B. 2.16 g
C. 2.70 g D. 1.62 g

Q90: If V ml of the vapours of substance at NTP weight W g. Then molecular weight of substance is :

A. (W /V )×22400 B. V

W
× 22.4

C. (W–V) × 22400 D. W ×1

V ×22400

Q91: The ratio of masses of oxygen and nitrogen in a particular gaseous mixture is 2 : 7. The ratio of number of
their molecules is:

A. 1 : 8 B. 3 : 16
C. 1 : 4 D. 7 : 32

Q92:
Assertion : Molecular mass = 2× vapour density.
Reason : Vapour density is the mass ratio of 1 mole of vapour to that of hydrogen.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. If assertion is true but reason is false
D. If both assertion and reason are false.

A. A B. B
C. C D. D

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Q93:
Assertion : When a concentrated solution is diluted by adding more water, molarity of the solution unchanged.
Reason : Number of moles of a solute divided by volume is equal to the normality.

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. If assertion is true but reason is false
D. If both assertion and reason are false.

A. A B. B
C. C D. D

Q94: In Haber process 30L, of dihydrogen and 30L of dinitrogen were taken for reaction which yielded only
50% of the expected product. What will be the composition of the gaseous mixture under the aforesaid

conditions in the end ?

A. 20L N H 3. 25 L N2 and 20 L H 2 B. 10 L N H 3, 25 L N 2 and 15 L H 2

C. 10 L N H 3, 10 L N 2 and 30 L H 2 D. 20 L N H 3, 25 L N 2 and 15 L H 2

Q95: 10g of hydrogen and 64g of oxygen were allowed to react in a steel vessel. Amount of water produced in
this reaction will be

A. 1mol B. 2mol
C. 3mol D. 4mol

Q96: 1 gram of a carbonate (M 2

CO 3 ) on treatment with excess H Cl produces 0.01186 moles of CO The molar 2

mass of M CO in g mol is:

2 3
−1

A. 118.6 B. 11.86
C. 1186 D. 84.3

Q97: If 10 21
molecules are removed from 200 mg of CO , then the number of moles of CO left will be
2 2

A. 2.87 ×10 −3
mol B. 1.66 ×10 −3
mol

C. 4.54 ×10 −3
mol D. 1.66 ×10 −2
mol

Q98: How many moles of magnesium phosphate, M g 3

(P O 4 ) 2 , will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms?

A. 3.125 × 10 −2
B. 1.25 × 10 −2

C. 2.5 × 10 −2
D. 0.02

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Q99: If 30 mL of H and 20 mL of O reacts to form water at same temperature and pressure, what is left at the
2 2

end of the reaction?

A. 10 mL of H 2 B. 5 mL of H 2

C. 10 mL of O 2 D. 5 mL of O 2

Q100: Which of the following statements is incorrect?

B. 12 g of the C − 12 isotope contains 1 mole carbon

A. 1 mole always contains 6.022×10 23
entities
atom
C. 1 amu is the mass of 1 mole of hydrogen atoms D. None of the above

Biology
Q101: Fill in the blanks (a) and (b) using the correct option.
Kingdom → Phylum → (a) → Order → (b)

A. (a) - Genus; (b) - Species B. (a) - Family; (b) - Class

C. (a) - Class; (b) - Family D. (a) - Species; (b) - Division

Q102: Statement A : Species is the basic unit of classification.

Statement B : Two plants can be said to belong to the same species if they can reproduce freely with each other
and form seeds.

A. Statement B is true but Statement is false. B. Both the statement are false.
C. Statement A is true but Statement B is false. D. Both the statement are true.

Q103: Solanum, Panthera, Homo are examples of :

A. Family B. Division
C. Genera D. Species epithet

Q104: ICBN stands for :

A. Indian Congress of Biological Names B. International Code of Botanical Nomenclature

C. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature D. International Congress of Biological Names

Q105: Taxonomic hierarchy refers to

A. step-wise arrangement of all categories for B. a group of senior taxonomists, who decide the
classification of plants and animals nomenclature of plants and animals
C. a list of botanists or zoologists, who have worked on
D. classification of a species based on fossil record
taxonomy of a species or group

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Q106: ''Taxon'' differs from ''Taxa'' due to.

A. Taxa is a higher taxonomic category than taxon. B. Taxa is lower taxonomic category than taxon.
C. Taxa is the plural of taxon. D. Taxa is the singular of taxon.

Q107:
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II regarding taxonomic categories of humans and choose
your answer from the codes given below:

Column I Column II
I. Family 1. Primata
II. Order 2. Hominidae
III. Class 3. Chordata
IV. Phylum 4. Mammalia

A. I - 1; II - 2; III - 3; IV - 4 B. I - 2; II - 1; III - 4; IV - 3
C. I - 2; II - 1; III - 3; IV - 4 D. I - 1; II - 2; III - 4; IV - 3

Q108: Study the four statements (I-IV) given below and select the two correct ones out of them:
I. Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr.
II. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants.
III. Binomial nomenclature system was given by RH Whittaker.
IV. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth.
The two correct statements are

A. II and III B. III and IV

C. I and IV D. I and II

Q109: Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column I Column II
A. Panthera tigris (i) Mango
B. Mangifera indica (ii) Common Indian frog
C. Musca domestica (iii) Cockroach
D. Periplaneta americana (iv) Tiger
E. Rana tigrina (v) House fly

A. A - (ii), B - (v), C - (i), D - (iii), E - (iv) B. A - (iv), B - (i), C - (v), D - (iii), E - (ii)
C. A - (ii), B - (v), C - (iii), D - (i), E - (iv) D. A - (iv), B - (i), C - (v), D - (ii), E - (iii)

Q110: Assertion : Systematics is the branch of biology that deals with classification of living organisms.
Reason : The aim of classification is to group the organisms.

A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
the correct explanation of Assertion. not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false. D. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

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Q111: Assertion : Taxon and category are the same things.

Reason : Taxon shows hierarchical classification of an organism.

B. Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but

A. Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and
reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion
reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(A).
C. Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false. D. Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Q112: Match Column I with Column II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes
given below:

Column I Column II
A. Family P. Diptera
B. Order Q. Arthropoda
C. Class R. Muscidae
D. Phylum S. Insecta

A. A - R, B - P, C - S, D - Q B. A - R, B - Q, C - S, D - P
C. A - S, B - R, C - Q, D - P D. A - S, B - Q, C - P, D - R

Q113: Consider the following statements.

I. In binomial nomenclature, the name of an organism consists of two components.
II. The first name of organism represents the specific name and the second name is generic name.
Choose the correct option.

A. I is true, but II is false B. Both I and II are false

C. I is false, but II is true D. Both I and II are true

Q114: Assertion (A) Consciousness or response to stimuli is a defining property of living organism.
Reason (R) Human being is the only creature to possess self-consciousness.

A. If both A and R are true and R is the correct B. If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A. explanation of A.
C. If A is true, but R is false. D. If A is false, but R is true.

Q115: Read the given statements and select the correct option.

Statement 1: Potato and brinjal are two different species but both belong to different genera
Statement 2: Petunia and Datura are placed in the family Solanaceae

A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are B. Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is

incorrect correct
C. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is
D. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
incorrect

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Q116: Identify the correct statements.

a. Potato and brinjal are two different species but both belong to the same genus
b. The order Carnivora includes families like Felidae and Canidae
c. In plants, classes with a few similar characters are assigned to a higher category called Phylum
d. Each genus may have one or more than one specific epithet representing different organisms, but having
morphological similarities
e. Family has a group of related genera with still less number of similarities as compared to genus and
species

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. (a), (b), (d) and (e) only B. (b), (d) and (e) only
C. (a), (b) and (e) only D. (a), (c), (d) and (e) only

Q117: Read the given statements and select the correct option.

Statement 1: Biological names are generally in Greek and written in italics

Statement 2: In biological names, the name of the author appears before the specific epithet

A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are B. Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is

incorrect correct
C. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is
D. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
incorrect

Q118: Which two points are known as the twin characteristics of growth?
(1) Increase in mass
(2) Metabolism
(3) Increase in the number of individuals
(4) Sense of environment

A. (1) and (2) B. (1) and (4)

C. (2) and (3) D. (1) and (3)

Q119: Choose the wrong statement:

I. Reproduction can not be an all-inclusive defining characteristic of living organisms

II. No non-living object is capable or replicating itself
III. Reaction in test tube is Metabolism
IV. Metabolism is a defining feature of all living organism

A. I, II and II B. I, II and IV
C. III D. All of these

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Q120: 'X' being a high category is the assemblage of families which exhibit a few 'Y' characters. The 'Z'
characters are less in a number as compared to different genera included in a family. Identify 'X', 'Y' and 'Z'.

A. X - Order; Y - Similar; Z - Similar B. X - Genus; Y - Similar; Z - Different

C. X - Species; Y - Different; Z - Similar D. X - Class; Y - Different; Z - Different

Q121: Which of the following statements are not correct?

i. Lower the taxon, more the characteristics that the members within the taxon share.
ii. Order is the assemblage of genera which exhibit a few similar characters.
iii. Cat and dog are included in the same family Felidae.
iv. Binomial nomenclature was introduced by Carolus Linnaeus.

A. (i), (ii) and (iii) B. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

C. (i) and (iv) D. (ii) and (iii)

Q122: How many features are incorrect for lichens?

(a) Slow growing annual plants.
(b) Water pollution indicator.
(c) Predominant phycobionts as green algae.
(d) Autotrophic partner may be prokaryotes or eukaryotes.
(e) Major fungal partner as club fungi.

A. (b) and (e) only B. (a), (b) and (e)

C. (b), (c) and (e) D. (b) and (d)

Q123: Viruses do not find any position in the five kingdom system because of
(a) infectious nature.
(b) non-cellular structure.
(c) obligate parasitism.
(d) nucleio-protein structure.
(e) multiplication inside the host.

A. (a), (b) and (c) B. (a), (c) and (e)

C. (b), (c) and (e) D. Only (b)

Q124: Which of the following options incorrectly distinguishes the kingdoms monera and protista?

B. Monera - Membrane bound cell

A. Monera - Includes unicellular prokaryotes Protista
organelles Protista - Membrane bound cell organelles
- Includes multicellular eukaryotes
are present are absent
C. Monera - Cell wall when present, made up of D. Monera - Flagella, when present, comprise of
peptidoglycans Protista - Cell wall, if present, protein flagellin Protista - Flagella and cilia when
contains cellulose present, made up of protein tubulin

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Q125: Find out the total number of false statements from the following.
(a) Cyanobacteria have chlorophyll a similar to green plants.
(b) Bacteria which oxidize various inorganic substances such as nitrites and ammonia and use the released
energy for ATP production are chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria.
(c) Heterotrophic bacteria are less in abundance in nature.
(d) Majority of heterotrophic bacteria are decomposers.
(e) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play important role in recycling of nutrients like nitrogen. phosphorus,
iron and sulphur.

A. One B. Two
C. Three D. Four

Q126: Match Column-I with Column-II.

Column I Column II
A. Saprophyte i) Symbiotic association of fungi with plant roots
B. Parasite ii) Decomposition of dead organic materials
C. Lichens iii) Living on living plants or animals
D. Mycorrhiza iv) Symbiotic association of algae and fungi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A - ii); B - iii); C - iv); D - i) B. A - i); B - ii); C - iii); D - iv)

C. A - iii); B - ii); C - i); D - iv) D. A - ii); B - i); C - iii); D - iv)

Q127: Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.
Statement II : Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is

incorrect. correct.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Q128: What is true for archaebacteria?

A. All archaebacteria are halophiles. B. All archaebacteria are photosynthetic.

C. All archaebacteria are dead fossils. D. Archeabacteria are oldest living beings.

Q129: Which one of the following statements about viruses is correct?

A. Viruses possess their own metabolic system. B. Viruses contain either DNA or RNA.
C. Viruses are facultative parasites. D. Viruses are readily killed by antibiotics.

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Q130: Protists are

A. single-celled eukaryotes. B. multicellular eukaryotes.

C. single-celled prokaryotes. D. single-celled akaryote

Q131: Plasmogamy is the fusion of

A. two haploid cells including their nuclei. B. two haploid cells without nuclear fusion.
C. sperm and egg. D. sperm and two polar nuclei.

Q132: Difference between virus and viroid is

A. absence of protein coat in viroid but presence in B. presence of low molecular weight RNA in virus but
virus. absence in viroid.
C. both (A) and (B). D. none of these.

Q133: Read the given statements and select the correct option.

Statement 1: A viroid is a free DNA molecule

Statement 2: A prion is an abnormally folded RNA molecule

A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are B. Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is

incorrect correct
C. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is
D. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
incorrect

Q134: Match the organisms in Column I with habitats in Column II.

Column I Column II
I Methanogens 1 Hot springs
II Thermoacidophiles 2 Extreme salty areas
III Cyanobacteria 3 Freshwater/marine
IV Halophiles 4 Gut of ruminants

Select the correct answer from the options given below.

A. I → 3; II → 1; III → 4; IV → 2 B. I → 4; II → 1; III → 3; IV → 2
C. I → 4; II → 3; III → 1; IV → 2 D. I → 4; II → 1; III → 2; IV → 3

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Q135: Consider the following statements and select the correct option.
(a) Viroid was discovered in 1971.
(b) Viruses are acellular organisms.
(c) n + n stage occurs in lower fungi.

A. (c) is correct but (a) and (b) are wrong. B. (a) is correct but b) and (c) are wrong.
C. (a) and (b) are correct but (c) is wrong. D. (a) and (c) are correct but (b) is wrong.

Q136: Members of phycomycetes are found

(a) in aquatic habitat.
(b) on decaying wood.
(c) on moist and damp places.
(d) as obligate parasite on plants.

A. (a) and (b) B. (a) and (d)

C. (b) and (c) D. All of these

Q137: Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct options.

Column I Column II
a) Rhizopus i) Deuteromycetes
b) Aspergillus ii) Basidiomycetes
c) Puccinia iii) Ascomycetes
d) Alternaria iv) Phycomycetes

A. a) - i); b) - ii); c) - iii); d) - iv) B. a) - iv); b) - iii); c) - i); d) - ii)

C. a) - iv); b) - iii); c) - ii); d) - i) D. a) - i); b) - iii); c) - ii); d) - iv)

Q138: Statement 1: Yeast is a multicellular fungus.

Statement 2: Penicillium is a unicellular fungus.
Statement 3: Albugo is a parasitic fungus on mustard.

A. Only statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. B. All the above statements are incorrect.
C. Only statement 3 is correct. D. Both statement 1 and statement 3 are correct.

Q139: Following features belong to

(a) Complete lack of cell wall
(b) Anaerobic
(c) Smallest living cell
(d) Many of them are pathogenic to plant and animals

A. Chrysophytes B. Prions
C. Viroids D. Mycoplasma

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Q140: Identify the labels in the following figures:

A. (a) Cell wall; (b) Cell membrane; (c) Heterocyst; (d) B. (a) Cell wall; (b) Cell membrane; (c) DNA;
DNA; (e) Mucilagenous sheath (d) Heterocyst; (e) Mucilagenous sheath
C. (a) Mucilogenous sheath; (b) Cell membrane; D. (a) Cell membrane; (b) Cell wall; (c) DNA; (d)
(c) DNA; (d) Heterocyst; (e) Cell wall Heterocyst; (e) Mucilagenous sheath

Q141: Choose the wrong statement.

A. Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms. B. Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation.
C. Penicillium is multicellular and produces D. Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical
antibiotics. genetics.

Q142: In the five kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in

A. protista B. algae
C. plantae D. monera

Q143: Consider the following statements and select the correct option, starting which one is true (T) and which
one is false (F)?

I. Blue green algae are the photosynthetic monerans.

II. Genetic material in eukaryotes is circular, double stranded, helical DN A not enclosed by nuclear envelope.
III. Sexual reproduction in Rhizopus is oogamous and the mode of sexual fusion is gametangial contact type.
IV. The fungal component of lichen is called phycobiont and the algal component is called mycobiont.

A. I → T; II → F; III → F; IV → F B. I → T; II → F; III → F; IV → T
C. I → T; II → F; III → T; IV → T D. I → F; II → F; III → F; IV → F

Q144: The mycelium of Basidiomycetes is:

A. Branched and septate B. Unbranched and aseptate

C. Branched and coenocytic D. Unbranched and coenocytic

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Q145: Select the incorrect statement regarding mycoplasma:

A. Mycoplasmas are the smallest living cells B. Mycoplasmas are facultative aerobes
C. Mycoplasmas are pathogenic to plants and
D. Mycoplasmas lack a cell wall
animals

Q146: Match the following and select the correct combination from the options given.

Column-I Column-II
a. Chrysophytes i. Paramecium
b. Dinoflagellates ii. Euglena
c. Euglenoids iii. Gonyaulax
d. Protozoans iv. Diatoms

A. a - i; b - iii; c - ii; d - iv B. a - iv; b - iii; c - ii; d - i

C. a - iv; b - ii; c - iii; d - i D. a - iii; b - iv; c - i; d -ii

Q147: The given figure shows some labelled structure as A, B, C and D. In which structure the
protein coat that encloses the nucleic acid is present ?

A. A - Protein coat B. B - Collar

C. C - Sheath D. D - Tail fibres

Q148: Consider the following statements with respect to characteristic features of the kingdom.

i. In animalia, the mode of nutrition is autotrophic.

ii. In monera, the nuclear membrane is present.
iii. In protista,the cell type is prokaryotic.
iv. In plantae, the cell wall is present.

Of the above statements, which one is correct?

A. (i) only B. (ii) only

C. (iii) only D. (iv) only

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Q149: Choose the correct names of the different bacteria according to their shapes.

I.

II.

III.

IV.

A. I- Cocci, II- Bacilli, III- Spirilla, IV- Vibrio B. I- Bacilli, II- Cocci, III- Spirilla, IV- Vibrio
C. I- Spirilla, II- Bacilli, III- Cocci, IV- Vibrio D. I-Spirilla, II- Vibrio, III- Cocci, IV- Bacilli

Q150: The megaspore mother cell in gymnosperms is differentiated from:

A. Integument B. Embryo sac

C. Nucellus D. Endosperm

Q151: Endosperm in gymnosperms is formed

A. at the time of fertilisation. B. before fertilisation.

C. after fertilisation. D. along with development of embryo.

Q152: Secondary nucleus is fertilized by male gamete to form

A. Endosperm B. Embryo
C. Seed D. Zygote

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Q153: Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column-I Column-II

i. Single cell protein, used as food supplements by

a. Agar
space travellers

b. Algin ii. Red algae

c. Carrageen iii. Brown algae

d. Chlorella and
iv. Gelidium, Gracilaria
Spirullina

A. a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv B. a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

C. a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - iv D. a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iv

Q154: Floridean starch is found in

A. chlorophyceae. B. rhodophyceae.
C. myxophyceae. D. cyanophyceae.

Q155: Agar-agar is obtained from

A. Fucus B. Gelidium
C. Gracillaria D. All of these

Q156: Which of the following groups of plants is being described by the given statements?

I. The plant body is thalloid

II. Asexual reproduction takes place by fragmentation of thalli, by formation of specialized structures called
gemmae
III. The sporophyte is differentiated into a foot, seta and capsule
IV. They grow usually in moist and shady habitats

A. Liverwort B. Moss
C. Fern D. Gymnosperm

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Q157: Why rhodophyta exhibit a red colour?

A. Since most rhodophyta grow at great depths, the B. The wavelengths of light that are absorbed by the
chlorophyll can only absorb light in the red area of the chlorophyll are passed to phycoerythrin (a red
spectrum. pigment).
D. The light reaching the greatest depth in water is in
C. Red pigment of rhodophyta absorbs all the light
the blue-green region of the spectrum, is absorbed by
waves.
phycoerythrin.

Q158: The common characteristic between bryophytes and pteridophytes is:

A. Vascularisation B. Terrestrial habitat

C. Water for fertilization D. Independent sporophyte

Q159: V olvox, U lothrix, spirogyra, Chara, Ectocarpus, Laminaria, Sargassum, P orphyra and P olysiphonia,
etc., are the examples of green plants. Number of organism which having chlorophyll a and chlorophyll c are

A. Three B. Four
C. Seven D. Five

Q160: Read the following statements:

Assertion (A): The members of Chlorophyceae are commonly called green algae
Reason (R): They are usually grass-green due to the dominance of pigments chlorophyll a and c

Choose one of the correct alternatives given below.

B. Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct

A. A is true but R is false
explanation of A
C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
D. A is false but R is true
explanation of A

Q161: Selaginella and Salvinia are considered to represent a significant step towards evolution of seed habit
because:

A. Megaspores possess endosperm and embryo B. Embryo develops in female gametophyte which is
surrounded by seed coat retained on parent sporophyte
C. Female gametophyte is free and gets dispersed like
D. Female gametophyte lacks archegonia
seeds

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Q162: Mosses are ecologically important because they

I. are the first organism to colonise bare rocks.

II. decompose rocks making suitable for growth of higher plant.
III. form dense mats on soil.
IV. reduce impact of falling rain and soil erosion.

A. Only I B. Only II
C. III and IV D. All of these.

Q163: Examine the figures (a), (b), (c), (d). In which one of the four options of all the items are correctly
identified?

A. (a) - Porphyra; (b) - Fucus; (c) - Dictyota; (d) - B. (a) - Polysiphonia; (b) - Porphyra; (c) - Dictyota;
Polysiphonia (d) - Fucus
C. (a) - Fucus; (b) - Dictyota; (c) - Porphyra; (d) D. (a) - Porphyra; (b) - Polysiphonia; (c) - Fucus; (d)
- Polysiphonia - Dictyota

Q164: Read the following five statements (I to V) and select the option with all correct statements.

I. Mosses and Lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock.
II. Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte.
III. Coralloid roots in Cycas have Mycorrhiza.
IV. Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic.
V. In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on sporophyte

A. I, IV and V B. II, III and V

C. I, III and IV D. II, III and IV

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Q165: Read the given table carefully and fill in the blanks w.r.t. algae

Class Pigments Cell wall Example

Chlorophyll
A. Chlorophyceae Cellulose __C __
a & b

B. Phaeophyceae ___A ___ Cellulose, Algin Fucus

Chlorophyll
C. Rhodophyceae __B __ __D __
a & b

A. A - Phycobilin B - Algin B. C - Sargassum D - Sphagnum

D. B - Cellulose and Polyphosphate ester D -
C. A - Fucoxanthin C - Chara
Ectocarpus

Q166: Examine the figure given and select the correct option giving all the four parts (I to IV) rightly identified.

B. I-Antheridiophore; II-Male thallus; III-Globules;

A. I-Seta; II-Sporophyte; III-Protonema; IV-Rhizoids
IV-Roots
C. I-Archegoniophore; II-Female thallus; III-Gemma D. I-Archegoniophore; II-Female thallus; III-Bud; IV-
cup; IV-Rhizoids Foot

Q167: The male and female gametophytes do not have an independent free-living existence in:

A. Bryophytes and pteridophytes B. Algae and bryophytes

C. Ferns and liverworts D. Gymnosperms and angiosperms

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Q168:
Identify the plants (A, B, C and D) and choose their correct name
from the options given below.

A. A-Equisetum, B-Ginkgo, C-Selaginella, D- B. A-Selaginella, B-Equisetum, C-Salvinia, D-

Lycopodium Ginkgo
C. A-Funaria, B-Adiantum, C-Salvinia, D-Riccia D. A-Chara, B-Marchantia, C-Fucus, D-Pinus

Q169: Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

I. In rhodophyceae, food is stored in the form of mannitol and laminarin.

II. The ovules of gymnosperms are not enclosed by ovary wall.
III. Salvinia is heterosporous.
IV. In the diplontic life-cycle, the free living gametophyte represents the dominant phase.

A. II and III are correct but I and IV are incorrect. B. II and IV are correct but I and III are incorrect.
C. III and IV are correct but I and II are incorrect. D. I and II are correct but III and IV are incorrect.

Q170: Read the following statements (I-V) and answer question that follows them.

I. In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free-living.

II. Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous.
III. Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is oogamous.
IV. The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses.
V. Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. One B. Two
C. Three D. Four

Q171: Which of the following are correct for gymnosperms?

I. They have adventitious root system.

II. The leaves in gymnosperms can withstand extreme of temperature, humidity and wind.
III. Microspores are produced in microsporangia.
IV. They include medium or tall sized trees and shrubs.

A. I and III B. I, II and III

C. II, III and IV D. I and IV

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Q172: Read the following statements.

I. Gymnosperms are heterosporous.

II. Bryophytes have well developed vessels and sieve tubes.
III. Strobili is found in the main plant body of Equisetum.
IV. Antheridia are absent but archegonia are present in female storobili of gymnosperms.

Choose the correct option.

A. All of these B. I, III and IV

C. Only I D. II and III

Q173: Select the correct options; Pteridophytes are ____

I. majorly homosporous and produce only one kind of spores.

II. aquatic in nature.
III. heterosporous and produce small and large spores.
IV. restricted to narrow geographical zone because of specific requirement of water.

A. I and II B. II and III

C. III and IV D. IV and I

Q174: Identify the A, B, C and D showing in this figure?

A. A-Holdfast, B-Air bladder, C-Midrib, D-Frond B. A-Frond, B-Midrib, C-Air bladder, D-Holdfast
C. A-Air bladder, B-Midrib, C-Holdfast, D-Frond D. A-Frond, B-Holdfast, C-Midrib, D-Air bladder

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Q175: Identify the A, B and C showing in this figure

A. A-Gametophyte (n), B-Zygote (2n), C- B. A-Zygote (2n), B-Gametophyte (n), C-

Gametogenesis Gametogenesis
C. A-Zygote (2n), B-Gametogenesis, C-Gametophyte D. A-Gametogenesis, B-Zygote (2n), C-Gametophyte
(n) (n)

Q176: Consider the following four statements whether they are correct or wrong.

I. The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses.

II. Salvinia is heterosporous.
III. The life-cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic.
IV. In Pinus, male and female cones are borne on different trees.

The two wrong statements together are

A. I and III B. I and IV

C. II and III D. I and II

Q177: Peat moss is used as a packing material for sending flowers and live plants to distant places because:

A. It is hygroscopic (water holding) B. It reduces transpiration

C. It serves as a disinfectant D. It is easily available

Q178: Match the organisms in column I with habitats in column II.

Column I Column II
(a) Halophiles (i) Hot springs
(b) Thermoacidophiles (ii) Aquatic environment
(c) Methanogens (iii) Guts of ruminants
(d) Cyanobacteria (iv) Salty areas
Select the correct answer from the options given below:

A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) B. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(i) D. (a)-(ii). (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

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Q179: Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in

A. cell membrane structure B. mode of nutrition

C. cell shape D. mode of reproduction.

Q180: The shell of diatoms is made up of ________________.

A. Silica B. Magnesium pectate

C. Calcium carbonate D. Cellulose

Q181: Which of the following classes is known as imperfect fungi in the kingdom Fungi?

A. Ascomycetes B. Basidomycetes
C. Deutromycetes D. Phycomycetes

Q182: The given figure shows the structure of filamentous blue green algae, Nostoc with a structure
marked as 'X'. Select the option which shows the correct identification of the 'X' with its feature.

A. Spores - Reproduction B. Heterocysts - Nitrogen fixation

C. Pellicle - Recycling of nutrition D. Mucilaginous sheath - Photosynthesis

Q183: Which of the following group of kingdom Protista is being described by the statements given below ?

i. This group includes diatoms and golden algae.

ii. They are microscopic and float passively in water currents (plankton).
iii. Most of them are photosynthetic.
iv. They have deposits in their habitat; this accumulation over billion of years is referred to as 'diatomaceous
earth'.

A. Dinoflagellates B. Chrysophytes
C. Euglenoids D. Slime moulds

Q184: Which of the following does not contain chlorophyll?

A. Fungi B. Algae
C. Bryophyta D. Pteridophyta

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Q185: The order generally ends with

A. ales B. aceae
C. eae D. none of these

Q186: Read the given statements and select the correct option.

Statement 1: In the taxonomic hierarchy, order is a higher category than family

Statement 2: Felidae and Canidae are examples of order

A. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are B. Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is

incorrect correct
C. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is
D. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
incorrect

Q187: Match the following and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
A) Family i) Tuberosum
B) Kingdom ii) Polemoniales
C) Order iii) Solanum
D) Species iv) Plantae
E) Genus v) Solanaceae

A. D-(i), C-(ii), E-(iii), B-(iv), A-(v) B. E-(i), D-(ii), B-(iii), A-(iv), C-(v)
C. D-(C), E-(ii), B-(iii), A-(iv), C-(v) D. E-(i), C-(ii), B-(iii), A-(iv), D-(v)

Q188: Which of the following is false about deuteromycetes?

A. They reproduce only by asexual spores (conidia). B. Mycelium is branched and septate.
C. They have only parasite forms. D. They have no sexual stage (perfect stage).

Q189: Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement A: Bacterial endospores can easily tolerate a temperature of ± 100 ∘
C.

Statement B: Endospores have thick wall, low water content.

A. Both statements A and B are correct and statement B. Both statement A and B are correct but statement B
B is the correct explanation of statement A. is not the correct explanation of statement A.
C. Statement A is correct but statement B is
D. Both statements A and B are incorrect.
incorrect.

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Q190: Assertion: In lichens, mycobiont and phycobiont are symbiotically associated with each other.
Reason: Mycobiont provides food and phycobiont provides anchorage and absorption of water and minerals.

A. If both A and R are true and R is the correct B. If both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A explanation of A
C. If A is true but R is false D. If both A and R are false.

Q191: Choose the correct statements (i - v) regarding Mycoplasma

i. Mycoplasma has no cell wall.

ii. Mycoplasma is the smallest living organism.
iii. Mycoplasma cannot survive without O . 2

iv. Mycoplasma are pathogenic in animals and plants.

v. A sort of sexual reproduction occurs in bacterium by adapting a primitive DNA transfer from one
bacterium to the other.

A. Only (iii) B. (i), (iii), and (v)

C. (i), (ii), (iv), and (v) D. all of the above

Q192: Select the correct combination of statements (a)-(d) regarding the characteristics of certain organisms.
(a) Methanogens are archaebacteria which produce methane in marshy areas.
(b) Nostoc is a filamentous blue-green algae which fixes atmospheric nitrogen.
(c) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria synthesize cellulose from glucose.
(d) Mycoplasma lacks a cell wall and can survive without oxygen.

A. All except B. All except (c)

C. Only (b) and (c) D. All except (d)

Q193: Refer to the given figure and select the incorrect statement regarding it.

A. It lacks a definite cellulose cell wall and cells are B. It possesses a single large nucleus which exhibits a
covered by a thin membrane called pellicle. different sort of nuclear division.
C. It contains the photosynthetic pigments chlorophyll
D. It stores carbohydrates as starch.
a, chlorophyll b, β-carotene and xanthophylls.

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Q194: Two unequal and laterally arranged flagella are a characteristic of

A. green algae. B. brown algae.

C. red algae. D. Any of these.

Q195: Which of the following algae is likely to be found in the deepest waters?

A. Green B. Brown
C. Red D. All are found at equal depths

Q196: Match the classes of pteridophytes given in column I with their examples given in column II and choose
the correct option.

Column-I (Classes of pteridophytes) Column-II (Examples)

a. Psilopsida i. Selaginella

b. Lycopsida ii. Psilotum

c. Sphenopsida iii. Dryopteris

d. Pteropsida iv. Equisetum

A. a - ii, b -i, c - iv, d - iii B. a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - iv

C. a - ii, b - iii, c - i, d - iv D. a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii

Q197:
Which of the following is not a feature of pteridophytes?

A. Water is required for transfer of antherozoids B. Independent sporophyte

C. Undifferentiated vascular tissue D. True roots

Q198: Which of the following is without exception in angiosperms?

A. Presence of vessels B. Autotrophic nutrition.

C. Secondary growth D. Double fertilization

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Q199: Statement 1: Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of angiosperms.

Statement 2: Double fertilization involves two fusions.

A. Both statement- 1 and statement- 2 are true and B. Both statement- 1 and statement- 2 are true but
statement- 2 is the correct explanation of statement- statement- 2 is not the correct explanation of
1. statement- 1.
C. Statement- 1 is true and statement- 2 is false. D. Statement- 1 is false and statement- 2 is true.

Q200: Select the correct statement.

B. The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to

A. Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
extremes of climate

C. Gymnosperms are both homosporous and

heterosporous D. Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms

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