1.

Elite
11
(PMC)
Sample
Paper
This question paper is a model test paper.
Some of these questions may have appeared
in the previous years’ tests. The actual test
may have a different number of questions and
questions of different types. This paper is
meant only to provide an idea of the kind of
questions that may be asked in the test
 Elite 11 (PMC) Sample Paper

2. The number having no reciprocal is – Below 5 10

a) 2 Below 10 25
b) 0 Below 15 37
c) -1 Below 20 57
d) 1 Below 25 66
The sum of the lower limits of the median
3. In the given figure,  1 = 2 = 3. If AD = 5
class and the modal class is –
cm, DC = 4 cm and the perimeter of  BEC is
a) 14
13 cm, then the length of BE is –
b) 30
c) 25
d) 35
8. 9 sec 2 𝜃 − 9 tan2 𝜃 is equal to –
a) 1
b) -1
c) -9
d) 9
9. Which of the following is not a measure of
a) 4.1 cm central tendency?
b) 3.5 cm a) Mean
c) 2 cm b) Median
d) 5.3 cm c) Mode
4. The quadrilateral formed by joining the mid- d) Range
points of the sides of a quadrilateral PQRS, 10. The roots of the equation √2𝑥 2 + 7𝑥 +
taken in order, is a rectangle if – 5√2 = 0 are –
a) PQRS is a rectangle 5
a) √2,
√2
b) PQRS is a parallelogram 5
b) −√2,
c) Diagonals of PQRS are perpendicular √2
−5
d) Diagonals of PQRS are equal c) √2,
√2
−5
4. The graph of the equation 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 = 9 cuts d) −√2,
√2
𝑦-axis at the point – 11. The value of K for which the equation 𝑥 2 +
a) (0,3) 𝑘𝑟 + 64 = 0 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 + 𝑘 = 0 will have
b) (9/2,0) real roots is –
c) (0,𝑥) a) 14
d) (0,0 b) 14
5. All the angles of a convex quadrilateral are c) 16
congruent. However, not all its sides are d) 18
congruent. What type of quadrilateral is it? 12. If tan 𝐴 + cot 𝐴 = 4, then tan4 𝐴 + cot 4 𝐴 =
a) Rectangle a) 196
b) Square b) 194
c) Parallelogram c) 188
d) Trapezium d) 198
13. Four congruent rectangles and a square are
6. A bag contains 20 balls out of which x are
assembled without overlapping to form a
black. If 10 more black balls are put in the box,
large square, as shown. Each of the rectangles
the probability of drawing a black ball is
has a perimeter of 40 cm. The total area of the
double of what it was before. The value of x is
large square is –
a) 5
b) 0
c) 10
d) 40
7. Observe the Marks distribution table below –
Marks Number of Students

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 Elite 11 (PMC) Sample Paper

b) 0.36 cm2
c) 0.36 cm3
d) 0.34 cm3
19. Let (4, k) be any point on the line y = 6 – x. If
the vertical segment PQ is rotated about y-
axis, the volume of the resulting cylinder

a) 400 cm2
b) 200 cm2
c) 100 cm2
d) 800 cm2
14. In the adjoining figure O is the centre if the
circle with radius r. AB, CD and EF are the
diameters of the circle.  OAF =  OCB = 60o.
What is the area of the shaded region?
a) 32 π
b) 16 π
c) 45 π
d) 6 π
20. A train 270 m long is moving at a speed 25
km/h. It will cross a man coming from the
opposite direction at 2 km/h in –
𝑟2 3√3
a) 32 seconds
a) (𝜋 − ) b) 34 seconds
2 4
𝑟2 3√3 c) 24 seconds
b) (𝜋 − )
2 2 d) 36 seconds
𝑟2 3√3
c) (𝜋 − ) 21. In an examination students of a class are
3 4
𝑟2 3√3 made to sit in rows. If in each row, one
d) (𝜋 − )
4 4
student is increased, then the number of rows
15. If the equation (𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 )𝑥 2 − 2(𝑎𝑐 +
𝑏𝑑)𝑥 + (𝑐 2 + 𝑑 2 ) = 0 has equal roots, then – decreases by 2. If one student is less in each
a) 𝑎𝑏 = 𝑐𝑑 row, then there would be 3 additional rows.
b) 𝑎𝑑 = 𝑏𝑐 How many students are there in the class –
c) 𝑎𝑏 = √𝑏𝑐 a) 40
d) 𝑎𝑑 = √𝑐𝑑 b) 50
16. Two consecutive odd natural numbers, the c) 70
sum of whose squares is 202, are – d) 60
a) 15,17 22. If the numbers 909, 1633 and 3624 are
b) 11,13 divided by p, they leave the same remainder
c) 13,15 q, let p be greatest of all such numbers, then
d) 9,11 p+q = ?
17. The length of the longest pole that can be a) 186
kept in a room 5m long, 4m broad and 3m b) 295
high is – c) 15
a) 6√2 d) None
b) 7√2 23. How many linear equations are satisfied by
c) 5√2 𝑥 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦 = −3?
d) None of the above a) Only one
18. A medicine – capsule is in the shape of a b) Two
c) Three
cylinder of diameter 0.5 cm with two
d) Infinitely Many
hemispheres stuck to its ends. The length of 24. If log12 27 = 𝑎, then log 6 16 is –
the entire capsule is 2 cm. The capacity of the 4(3−a)
a)
capsule is – (3+a)
4(3+a)
a) 0.33 cm b)
(3−a)

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 Elite 11 (PMC) Sample Paper
(3−a) √3
c)
4(3+a)
a) (2 − 𝜋)𝑐𝑚2
2
9
d)
(3+a)
b) (2√3 − 𝜋)𝑐𝑚2
4(3−a) 2
9
25. An equilateral triangle ABC in inscribed in a c) (2√3 + 𝜋)𝑐𝑚2
2
circle with centre O. Then BOC measures – d)
√3
(2 + 𝜋)𝑐𝑚2
2
a) 120o
32. The value of cos1o cos2o cos30 … cos 179o is –
b) 140o
a) 1
c) 90o
b) -1
d) 60o
c) 0
26. In a cricket match, a batsman hits sixes 8
d) 3/4
times of 32 balls played. The probability that a
33. P is a prime number and (P2 + 3) is also a
six is not hit in a ball is –
prime number. The number of numbers that P
a) -0.25
b) 0.25 can assume is –
c) 0.75 a) 1
d) 0.50 b) 2
27. The current ages of Nilima and Sharad are in c) 3
the ratio 3:4. After how many years their ages d) 4
will be in the same ratio again? 34. Length of the shadow of a person is 𝑥 when
a) 3 years the angle of elevation of the sun is 45o. If the
b) Their ages will never be in the same ratio length of the shadow is increased by (√3 −
again. 1)𝑥, then the angle of elevation becomes –
c) 4 years a) 15o
d) 10 years b) 18o
28. The length of the diagonals of a rhombus are c) 25o
24 cm and 32 cm. The perimeter of the d) 30o
rhombus is – 35. A school has 20 teachers, one of them retires
a) 80 cm at the age of 60 years and a new teacher
b) 56 cm replaces him, this change reduces the average
c) 24 cm age of the staff by 2 years, the age of the new
d) 12 cm teacher is –
29. If 5 times the 5th term of an A.P is the same as a) 28 years
7 times the 7th term, then find its 12th term. b) 25 years
a) 11 c) 20 years
b) 0 d) 18 years
c) 14 36. The slope of velocity – time graph for motion
d) 18 with uniform velocity is equal to –
30. If a solid sphere of radius r is melted and cast a) Final velocity
into the shape of a sloid cone of height r, then b) Initial velocity
the radius of the base of the cone is – c) Zero
a) 2r d) None of the above
b) 5r 37. What is the effective resistance between the
c) 3r point A and B ?
d) 4r
31. If three equal circles of radius 3 cm each touch
each other, then the area of the shaded
portion is –

a) R/3
b) 4R/3
c) 2R/3
d) R/2
38. Watt is equal to –
a) AΩ

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 Elite 11 (PMC) Sample Paper

b) A2Ω A rotating device is shown in the fig. Observe

c) AΩ2 the figure and answer the questions 44 and 45
d) AΩ2s-1
39. Figure shows that bulbs B1, B2 and B3 are
connected to the mains. Suppose B4 is another
bulb added in parallel, then –

a) The brightness of B1 will increase

b) The brightness of B3 will increase
c) The brightness of both B1 and B2 will
increase
d) The brightness of both B1 and B2 will fall 44. The device shown in the figure is –
40. An atom bomb is an example of – a) DC motor
a) Fusion reaction b) AC motor
b) Controlled fission reaction c) AC Generator
c) Uncontrolled fission reaction d) DC Generator
d) All of the above 45. The direction of force acting on arm AB is –
41. Two copper spheres of the same radius, one a) Leftwards
solid and the other hollow, are charged to the b) Outwards (out of the paper)
same potential. Which will have more charge? c) Inwards (into the paper)
a) Solid sphere d) No force will act on AB
b) Hollow Sphere
46. Tesla is the SI unit of –
c) Both will have equal charge
a) Electric field
d) Nothing can be decided
b) Pole strength
42. A ray of light passes through four transparent
c) Current
media with refractive indices µ1, µ2, µ3 and µ4 d) Magnetic Field
as shown in the figure. The surfaces of all 47. What is the minimum resistance which can be
media are parallel. If the emergent ray CD is made using five resistors each of 1/5 Ω?
parallel to the incident ray AB, we must have – a) 1/5 Ω
b) 25 Ω
c) 1/10 Ω
d) 1/25 Ω
48. The force between two charges when placed
in free space in 5 N. If they are in a medium of
relative permittivity 5, the force between
them will be –
a) 1 N
a) µ1 = µ2 b) 2 N
b) µ2 = µ3 c) 25 N
c) µ3 = µ4 d) 2.5 N
d) µ4 = µ1 49. A person cannot see a distinctly object kept
43. The electric potential of earth is taken as – beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by
a) Zero using a lens of power –
b) Infinity a) +0.5 D
c) One b) -0.5 D
d) None of these
c) +0.2 D
d) -0.2 D

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 Elite 11 (PMC) Sample Paper

50. The speed-time relation of a car whose weight

is 1500 kg is as shown in the given graph. How 𝑀1 𝑀2 𝑔
b)
𝑀1 + 𝑀2
much braking force has been applied at the
end of 7 sec. to stop the car in 2 sec? 𝑀2 𝐹
c)
𝑀1 + 𝑀2

d) None of these
56. Consider two spring balances hooked as
shown in the figure. We pull them in opposite
directions. If the reading shown by A is 1.5 N,
the reading shown by B will be –

a) 1.5 N
b) 2.5 N
a) 9000 N c) 3.0 N
b) 2000 N d) Zero
c) 1200 N 57. If the kinetic energy of a body increases by
d) 4800 N 0.1%, then the percent increase in its
51. The ratio of one micron to one nanometre is – momentum would be –
a) 10-3 a) 10%
b) 10-6 b) 1%
c) 106 c) 0.1%
d) 103 d) 0.05%
52. A bullet loses 1/20 of its velocity after 58. A motor cycle is moving along a straight
penetrating a plank. How many planks are horizontal road with a speed u. If the
required to stop the bullet? coefficient of friction between the tyres and
a) 9 the road is µ, the minimum distance in which
b) 11 the car can be stopped is –
c) 7 𝑢2
a)
d) 5 µg
53. The line joining the places on earth having the 2𝑢2
b) µg
same values of g are called –
𝑢2
a) Isobars c) 2µg
b) Isotherms
𝑢 2
c) Isogams d) (µg)
d) None of these
59. If AB = BC in the below ray diagram following
54. Rate of change of weight near the earth’s
surface varies with height h as – assertions are made:
a) h0
b) h-1
c) h1/2
d) h-2
55. A single horizontal force F is applied to a block
of mass M1, which is in contact with another
block of mass M2. If the surfaces are
[1] B is the focus of the mirror
frictionless, the force between the block is –
[2] A is the centre of the curvature
[3] C is the pole of the mirror
Then which of the assertions are correct –
a) [1] & [2] only
b) [2] & [3] only
c) Only [1] is correct
𝑀1 𝐹 d) [1], [2] & [3] are correct
a) 𝑀2

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 Elite 11 (PMC) Sample Paper

60. A mirror produces magnified erect image of b) Sphere B

an object. The nature of the mirror is – c) Sphere C
a) Concave d) None of the above
b) Convex 66. A lamp is marked 60 W, 220V. If it operates at
c) Plane 200 V, the rate of consumption of energy will
d) None of the above a) Decrease
61. When light passes through a prism, the colour b) Increase
which deviates the most? c) Remains unchanged
a) Red d) First increase then decrease
67. What is the time period of a second’s
b) Blue
pendulum at the centre of the earth?
c) Green a) 1 second
d) Violet b) 2 seconds
62. Superconductors are materials that appear to c) Zero
exhibit no resistance. Therefore, electrons d) Infinity
passing through a superconductor will – 68. A conductor with rectangular cross-section
a) generate no current has dimensions (a × 2a × 4a) as shown in
b) generate no heat figure. Resistance across AB is x, across CD is y
c) increase the current’s power and across EF is z. Then –
d) decrease the electrons’ charge
63. Six equal resistances, each of 1 Ω, are joined
to form a network as shown in the figure,
Then the resistance between any two corners
is –

a) x > z > y
b) x = z = y
c) x > y > z
a) 0.5 Ω d) y > z > x
b) 2 Ω 69. The rate of change of momentum represents
c) 1 Ω a) Pressure
d) 1.5 Ω b) Force
64. The spring of a winding knob of a watch has – c) Work
a) Mechanical energy d) Kinetic energy
b) Only Kinetic Energy 70. The graph below shows the position of a body
c) Only Mechanical Energy at different times. The velocity of body is
d) None of the above
maximum for part –
65. The diagram below shows the arrangement of
three charged hollow metal spheres, A, B, and
C. The arrows indicate the direction of the
electric forces acting between the spheres. At
least two of the spheres are positively
charged. Which sphere, if any, could be
negatively charged?

a) CD
b) AB
c) BC
a) Sphere A d) AC

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 Elite 11 (PMC) Sample Paper

71. Which of the given elements A, B, C, D and E 77. The figure shows a simplified diagram of a cell
with atomic number 2, 3, 7, 10 and 30 used in chlor-alkali process. What are the
respectively belong to the same period? products of chlor-alkali process?
a) A, B, C
b) B, C, D
c) A, D, E
d) B, D, E
72. Barium Chloride on reacting with ammonium
sulphate forms barium sulphate and
ammonium chloride. Which of the following
correctly represents the type of the reaction
involved?
[1] Displacement Reaction
[2] Precipitation Reaction a) NaCl, Cl2 and H2
[3] Combination Reaction b) H2, Cl2 and NaOH
[4] Double Displacement Reaction c) Cl2, Na2CO3 and H2O
a) [1] and [2] d) NaOH, Cl2 and HCl
b) [2] only 78. Which of the following pairs are members of a
c) [4] only
Homologous series?
d) [2] and [4]
73. At STP, 2 gm of helium gas occupies a volume a) CH3OCH3 ; CH3CH2–OH
of – b) CH3–CHO ; CH3CHO
a) 11.2 L c) CH3CH2COOH ; CH3COOCH3
b) 22.4 L d) CH3–CHO ; CH3CH2CHO
c) 5.6 L 79. As electron moves away from the nucleus, its
d) 2 L potential energy –
74. If Na2CO3 is added to the solution of H2CO3, a) Increases
the pH of H2CO3 solution – b) Decreases
a) Decreases c) Remains constant
b) Increases d) None of these
c) Remains constant 80. P-orbital can accommodate a maximum of
d) Cannot be predicted ______ electrons –
75. An element exists in only two isotopic forms in a) 2
nature, one having 8 neutrons and other 10. b) 6
Both of them have eight protons each. If the c) 8
average atomic weight of the element is 16.2 d) 10
u then % abundance of isotope with 8 81. Element A has electronic configuration 2,7. B
has configuration 2,8,6. C has configuration
neutrons is –
2,8,8 while D has 2,8,7. Which elements will
a) 10% show similar chemical properties?
b) 80% a) A and C
c) 20% b) A and D
d) 90% c) B and C
76. How many moles of ferric alum d) B and D
82. Variable valency, in general is exhibited by –
(NH4)2SO4.Fe2(SO4)3.24H2O can be made from
a) Gaseous elements
the sample of Fe containing 0.0056 gm of it.
b) S – block elements
(Atomic mass of Fe = 56u) c) Non – metals
a) 10-4 mol d) Transition elements
b) 0.33 x 10-4 mol 83. Which amongst the following contains double
c) 2 x 10-4 mol covalent bond –
d) 0.5 x 10-4 mol a) C2H2
b) C2H6
c) C2H4
d) C3H8

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 Elite 11 (PMC) Sample Paper

84. Which of the following statements is c) 1, 1, 1 and 3

INCORRECT? d) 2, 1, 4 and 2
a) The conjugate base of H2PO4- is HPO42+ 89. Which of the following is used as “clean fuel”
b) H3PO3 is a tribasic acid a) Petrol
c) The pH of 1 M HCl is 0 b) Mineral oil
c) Methane
d) The concentration of H+ ions in pure
d) LPG
water is 10-7 mol L-1 at 298 K. 90. Four identical flasks are filled with hydrogen,
85. In an attempt to demonstrate electrical oxygen carbon dioxide and chlorine ar the
conductivity through an electrolyte, the same temperature and pressure. The flask
following apparatus was set up. with the greatest mass will be the one
containing –
a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon Dioxide
d) Chlorine
91. An atom has an atomic number 13 and mass
number 27. How many electrons will it have in
its valence shell?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
Which statement(s) is (are) correct? d) 5
(i) Bulb will not glow because electrolyte is not 92. Upto which element the law of octaves was
acidic. found to be applicable?
(ii) Bulb will not glow because NaOH is a a) Oxygen
strong base and furnishes ions for conduction. b) Calcium
c) Cobalt
(iii) Bulb will not glow because it the circuit is
d) Potassium
incomplete.
93. Based on the table below, what can you say
(iv) Bulb will not glow because it depends
about Co and Ni?
upon the type of electrolytic solution.
Atomic Atomic
a) (i) and (iii) Number Mass
b) (ii) and (iv) Co 27 59
c) (ii) only Ni 28 59
d) (iv) only a) They have the same number of protons.
86. The process of reduction involves – b) They have the same number of neutrons.
a) Removal of hydrogen c) They have the same number of electrons.
b) Gain of electrons d) None of these is possible.
c) Addition of oxygen
94. 5.85 grams of NaCl was treated with
d) Loss of electrons
concentrated H2SO4 and the gas evolved was
87. How many isomers are possible for an alkane
passed into a solution of silver nitrate. The
with molecular formula C4H10?
white precipitate obtained was filtered, dried
a) 2
and weighed. Assuming complete reaction,
b) 3
how many grams of precipitate was obtained?
c) 4
[Atomic mass of Ag = 108 u, Na = 23 u & Cl =
d) 5
35.5 u]
88. aMnO2 + bHCl →cMnCl2 + dH2O + eCl2
a) 10.8 grams
pC2H5OH + qO2 → rCO2 + sH2O b) 14.35 grams
a, c, q and r in the above chemical equations c) 35.5 grams
respectively are – d) 3.65 grams
a) 2, 4, 2 and 1 95. The normality of 0.3 M phosphoric acid is-
b) 4, 2, 2 and 1 a) 0.9
b) 0.1

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 Elite 11 (PMC) Sample Paper

c) 0.3
d) 0.6
96. How many grams of SbF3 are needed to
produce a gram of Freon – 12 CCl2F2,
according to the reaction :
CCl4 + SbF3 → CCl2F2 + SbCl3
Substance Molar Mass
SbF3 179 g mol–1
CCl2F2 121 g mol–1
a) 0.667 gm
b) 0.986 gm
c) 1.50 gm
d) 2.22 gm
97. Which of the following elements form
amphoteric oxides?
a) Beryllium
b) Aluminium
c) Zinc
d) All
98. An example of a soap is –
a) CH3COONa
b) C17H35COONa
c) CH3ONa
d) C17H35COOC2H5
99. Which of the following is NOT a valid
electronic structure –
a) 2,8,4
b) 2,6
c) 2,9,1
d) 2,8,8,2
100. A hydrocarbon contains carbon and hydrogen
in the molar ratio of 1:1.5. The correct
molecular formula of the compound is –
a) C2HO3
b) C4H6
c) CH3
d) Data is not sufficient

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