Final Exam notes:

iclicker:
1. T or F: The first living things on earth were proteinoid microspheres? FALSE

2. Which of the following is false: Photosynthetic autotrophs directly or indirectly provide the following
which are essential for life on earth.
a. Organic molecules
b. O2
c. UV protection
d. O3
e. All of the above

3. Growth that results in the thickening of stems originated from which 2 meristems?
a. Vascular cambium
b. Cork cambium
c. Lateral meristems
d. All 3 of the above are correct
e. None of the above are correct

4. T or F: Primary growth originated from apical meristems at the root and shoot tips. TRUE

5. Which of the following about secondary metabolites is FALSE?

a. They are found in all plant cells
b. Some function as chemical signals or in the defense of the plant against herbivores
c. They are frequently synthesized on one part of the plant cell and stored in another.
d. Some are produced only after the plant has encountered a pathogen.
e. Their concentration in a plant can vary greatly over a 24-hour period
6. What class of secondary metabolite is the following?
a. Terpinoiod
b. Phenoilic
c. Alkaloid
d. Hybrid
e. All of the above

7. Which of the following statements about glandular trichomes is TRUE?

a. They are specialized epidermal cells
b. Commonly secrete essential oils
c. Commonly manufacture and secrete defensive secondary metabolites
d. Secretory cells secrete large amounts of secondary metabolites and prevent self-toxicity
e. All of the above
8. Which of the following are distingusing features of plant cells:
a. Cell walls
b. Chloroplasts
c. Vacuoles
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

9. Which of the following provides strong evidence for endosymbiotic theory:

a. Chloroplasts have granum.
b. Chloroplasts have circular DNA that is similar to prokaryotes
c. Free living chloroplasts were found in rocks that date 3.4 billion years old
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

10. T or F: Photosystem 2 complexes are mainly located in the stroma thylakoids. FALSE

11. ATP synthesis in PHS is driven by proton transfer from ---- to ----.
a. Thylakoid lumen; stroma
b. Stroma; thylakoid lumen
c. Inner; outer chloroplast membrane
d. Outer; inner chloroplast membrane
e. Cytosol; to chloroplast

12. Which of the following together generate an electrochemical proton gradient that drives the synthesis of
ATP?
a. Cytochrome b6/f complex and PSI
b. PSII and pheophytin
c. Cytochrome b6/f complex an O2 evolving complex of PSII
d. PSI and ferredoxin
e. None of the above

13. T or F: The calvin cycle occurs in the stroma. TRUE

14. T or F: the Calvin cycle consumes ATP and NADPH. TRUE

15. T or F: the calvin cycle provides the building blocks for the biosynthesis of sugars amino acids and fatty
acids. TRUE

16. The binomial for poison ivy is Toxicodendron radicans. To what genus does this plant belong?
a. Toxicodendron
b. Radicans
c. Toxicodendron radicans
d. Poison Ivy
e. Toxicodendron radicans poison ivy

17. The binomial for the coast redwood is Sequoia sempervirens. What is the species name of this plant?
a. Sequoia
b. Sempervirens
c. Sequoia sempervirens
d. Coast redwood
e. Sequoia sempervirens coast redwood

18. What are the 5 kingdoms of living organisms?

a. Plant, animal, fungi, protists, monera
b. Plant, animal, fungi, protists, bacteria
c. Plant, animal, fungi, protists, archaea
d. Plant, animal, fungi, protists, turnera
e. Plant, animal, fungi, bacteria, monera

19. The term “phylum” is nomenclaturally equivalent to:

a. Class
b. Division
c. Order
d. Kingdom
e. Family

20. Which of the following lists the taxonomic categories in the correct order from most to least inclusivity?
a. class, phylum, order, family, genus, species
b. order, class, phylum, family, genus, species
c. phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
d. phylum, order, class, family, genus, species
e. order, phylum, family, class, genus, species

21. phylogeny refers to?

a. Naming of organisms
b. Placing of organisms into phyla
c. Nomenclature of species
d. Evolutionary history of organisms
e. Grouping of classes of organisms

22. A natural classification system differs from an artificial classification system in that a natural classification
system:
a. Reflects the evolutionary relationship among organisms
b. Is based on plant form: trees, shrubs, undershrubs, and herbs
c. Is based on number and arrangement of stamens in the flower
 d. Classifies organisms by means of one or a few characteristics
e. Classifies organisms primarily as an aid to identification

23. When the members of a taxon are all descendants of a common single ancestral species that taxon is said to be:
a. Phylogenetic
b. Paraphyletic
c. Monophyletic
d. Polyphyletic
e. Amphiphyletic

24. Synapomorphies are:

a. Shared derived characters
b. Outgroups used to root a tree
c. Ingroups used to root a tree
d. Types of sister groups
e. Branches on a vladogram

25. In a cladogram groups that terminate in adjacent branches are called?

a. Nodes
b. Derived groups
c. Synapomorphies
d. Sister groups
e. Outgroups

26. The rule of parsimony states that:

a. Analogous features should be given more importance that homologous features
b. Cladograms should be constructed in the least complicated way
c. Character states are distinguished from one another by comparison with outgroups
d. Adjacent branches should terminate in a node
e. Phylogenetic relationships should be based on ancestral character states

27. According to the serial endosymbiotic theory chloroplasts evolves from;

a. Bacteria
b. Protists
c. Fungi
d. Plasmids
e. Portions of the plasma membrane

28. T or F: according to the endosymbiotic theory the evolution of the cytoskeleton and a flexible plasma membrane
proceeded the evolution of mitochondria and chloroplasts:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
29. How is the HW equilibrium important in the context of evolution?
a. It provides a basis from which we can calculate the effects of natural selection on genotypes in a population
b. It provides an equation that accurately represents genotype frequency in a natural population
c. It indicates the direction of evolution by indicating what genotypes are most prevalent
d. It indicates what factors are disturbing allele frequencies of a population
e. None of the above

30. Bryophytes are a group of organisms at transition between:

a. Brown algae and algae
b. Fungi and plants
c. Green algae and vascular plants
d. Non vascular and vascular plants
e. Aquatic and terrestrial plants

31. Which of the following about bryophytes is FALSE?

a. They lack xylem and phloem
b. The cell walls of their water conducting cells are lignified
c. They exhibit alternating heteromorphic generations
d. The sporophyte is usually nutritionally dependent on the genotype
e. The gametophyte is usually larger than the sporophyte

32. An evolutionary feature that enabled the tall erect growth of vascular plants is relatively dry environments was:
a. Branching
b. Lignin
c. Turgor pressure
d. Hadrom
e. All of the above

33. Which of the following about vascular plants is FALSE?

a. The eggs are …
b. The gametophyte is structurally more complex than the sporophyte
c. They reproduce by the union of mobile male and immobile female gametes
d. There is an alternation of heteromorphic generations
e. The sporophyte is the dominant phase of the plant life cycle

34. Is this flower complete?

a. YES
b. NO

35. T or F: The microsporangium produces pollen and is located in the gynoecium. FALSE

36. The fertile parts of a flower are the:

a. Sepals and petals
b. Sepals and stamens
c. Petals and stamens
d. Sepals and carpels
e. Carpels and stamens

37. T or F: Pollen are multicellular microspores. FALSE

38. ---- are found at the chalazal end of the embryo sac
a. Polar nuclei
b. Synergids
c. Eggs
d. Ovules
e. Antipodals
39. Which of the following is NOT a component of a mature polygonum embryo sac:
a. Eight nuclei
b. Seven cells
c. 2 synergids
d. 3 polar nuclei
e. 1 egg cell

40. In most angiosperms the primary endosperm nucleus is:

a. N
b. 2n
c. 3n
d. 4n
e. 5n

41. The function of the endosperm is to provide ---- for the embryo.
a. Support
b. Oxygen
c. Food
d. Water
e. Protection

42. Double fertilization involves:

a. Two pollen and one embryo sac
b. Two embryo sacs and one pollen
c. One pollen and one embryo sac
d. 2 sperm and 3 embryo sacs
e. None are correct

43. Angiosperms first appear in the fossil record in the --- period
a. Devonian
b. Carboniferous
c. Triassic
d. Cretaceous
44. Angiosperms currently represent ~ ----- percent of all plants
a. 10
b. 20
c. 40
d. 60
e. 80

45. The monocots and eudicots comprise approximately ---- percent of living angiosperms
a. 97
b. 63
c. 50
d. 10
e. 3

46. The most prominent flower-visiting animals in angiosperm evolution are:

a. Bees
b. Birds
c. Beetles
d. Bats
e. Moths and butterflies

47. Which of the following is NOT an example of coevolution of bees and flowers?
a. Bees have body parts adapted to collect and carry nectar
b. Bees have body parts adapted to collect an carry pollen
c. Flowers pollinated by bees are usually red
d. Flowers pollinated by bee have distinctive markings
e. Flowers pollinated by bees have showy

48. A plants body's plan consists of a --- and a ----- pattern

a. Apical radial; basal
b. Apical basal; radial
c. Basal radial; apical
d. Apical; basal
e. Radial; apical

49. When the zygote first divides the 2 daughter cells are the – cell and the – cell
a. Micropylar; chalazal
b. Root; shoot
c. Apical; basal
d. Proembryo
e. Axis; proembryo

50. PIN proteins establish – auxin gradients to promote asymmetrical cellular divisions
a. Intra and inter cellular
b. Intercellular
 c. Intracellular
d. Basal
e. Apical
51. The procambium is the precursor of the:
a. Apidermis
b. Ground tissues
c. Protoderm
d. Xylem and phloem
e. Primary meristems

52. In Arabidopsis embryonic development is thought to be coordinated by at least ---- distinct genes
a. 50
b. 150
c. 350
d. 550
e. 750

53. Which of the following methods have identified genes involved in plant tissue formation?
a. DNA insertion mutagenesis
b. EMS mutagenesis
c. Transcriptomics of specific cell types that were isolated by laser capture microdissection
d. Transcriptomics of specific cell types that were isolated by flow cytometry
e. All of the above

54. A quiescent seed is different from a dormant seed in that a quiescent seed will germinate:
a. When hydrated
b. Under anaerobic conditions
c. In the presence of growth inhibitors
d. Under suboptimal temperature conditions

55. Embryo dormancy would typically be caused by:

a. Unfavorable external conditions
b. The seed coat prevents the release of abscisic acid
c. An increase in gibberellic concentrations
d. A decrease in abscisic acid concentrations
e. An increase in abscisic acid concentrations

56. Embryo dormancy would typically be released by:

a. Gibberellic acid biosynthesis inhibiting abscisic acid biosynthesis
b. Abscisic acid biosynthesis inhibiting gibberellic acid biosynthesis
c. Environmental conditions that promote the degradation and export of abscisic acid from embryo cells
d. Environmental conditions that promote the degradation and export of gibberellic acid from embryo cells
e. None of the answers are correct

57. Seed coat imposed dormancy is caused by:

 a. Mechanical constraint of the radical
b. Impermeability to oxygen and water
c. Export of ABA from the seed coat
d. Import of ABA into embryo cells
e. All of the answers are correct

58. Which of the following statements about the shoot and root apical meristems is FALSE?
a. They are perpetually young tissues or cells
b. They are established during embryogenesis
c. It is through their activity that most plant development occurs
d. They lose the potential to divide soon after embryogenesis is complete
e. They generate cells that give rise to roots stems leaves and flowers

59. When a botanist uses the word “indeterminate” she is referring to the:
a. Ability of seeds to germinate under any conditions
b. Secondary growth of the plant body
c. Unlimited growth of apical meristems
d. Developmental plasticity of the plant
e. Ability of plants to modify their relationships with the environment

60. Plant development involves what 3 processes?

a. Growth differentiation and tissue expansion along 3-dimensional
b. Dedifferentiation differentiation and tissue expansion along 3 dimensional planes
c. Growth tissue expansion along 3 dimensional planes and organ abscission
d. Maturation of organs
e. None of the above are correct

61. The 3 tissue systems of vascular plants

a. The dermal vascular and ground tissue systems
b. Protoderm procambium and ground meristems
c. Parenchyma collenchyma and sclerenchyma
d. Epidermis periderm and protoderm
e. Xylem phloem and epidermis

62. In phloem differentiation a single mother cell undergoes asymmetric division to give rise to 2 cell types:
a. Companion cell and tracheary element
b. Companion cell and sieve tube element
c. Sieve tube element and tracheary element
d. Primary meristem cells
e. None are correct

63. All of the following are plant hormones except:

a. Brassinosteriods
b. Abscisic acid
c. Ethylene
 d. Gibberellins
e. Phytoalexins

64. Which of the following hormones has a major role in promoting leaf abscission:
a. Brassinosteroids
b. Abscisic acid
c. Ethylene
d. Gibberellins
e. Auxin

65. Which of the following hormones stimulates adventitious root growth in cuttings:
a. Brassinosteroids
b. Abscisic acid
c. Ethylene
d. Gibberellins
e. Auxin

66. All plant hormones:

a. Are equally effective in free and bound forms
b. Act in the tissues where they are produced
c. Are stimulatory
d. Are active in large quantities
e. Communicate information

67. Cytokinin’s are synthesized in ---- and transported from there to all other parts of the plants
a. Stems
b. Shoot apical meristems
c. Leaves
d. Roots
e. Fruits

68. A relatively high concentration of cytokinin to auxin in tissue culture promotes the formation of:
a. Stems
b. Shoot apical meristems.
c. Leaves
d. Roots
e. Fruits

69. Which of the following are not mechanisms by which plant hormones exert their effects at the molecular levels.
a. Transmembrane receptor protein phosphorylates a protein
b. Stimulating or inhibiting proteasomal degeneration
c. Activating transcription factors
d. Activating ion channels
e. Binding DNA
70. T or F: Sister chromatids separate during Anaphase I. FALSE

71. T or F: At prophase I a diploid is 2n but has four copies of DNA. TRUE

72. T or F: crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between the sister chromatids of a chromosome. FALSE

73. If the allele for red flower is dominant over the allele for white flower color which of the following represents a
cross between a white-flowered plant and a plant heterozygous for flower color?
a. RR x RR
b. RR x Rr
c. RR x rr
d. Rr x Rr
e. Rr x rr

74. If 2 genes are linked then by definition they:

a. Are alleles of the same gene
b. occur on the same chromosome
c. Occur on different chromatids of the same chromosome
d. Will segregate independently

75. Suppose that a plant has 2 genes that are linked with Ab on one homologous pair of chromosomes and aB on the
other homolog. What gametes could the plant produce if crossing over occurred between these genes during
meiosis.
a. Ab and aB only
b. AB and ab only
c. Aa and Bb only
d. Ab aB AB and ab only
e. Ab aB AB ab Aa and Bb only

76. When the phenotype of a heterozygote is intermediate between the phenotypes of its homozygous parents the
condition is known as:
a. Pleiotropy
b. Aneuploidy
c. Epistasis
d. Polygenic inheritance
e. Incomplete dominance

77. When the phenotypes of one gene is dependent on the allele of another gene this is an example of:
a. Pleiotropy
b. Aneuploidy
c. Epistasis
d. Polygenic inheritance
e. Incomplete dominance
78. T or F: at a single replication fork each DNA strand serves as a template for synthesis of both leading and lagging
strands. FALSE

79. T or F at a single replication bubble each DNA strand serves as a template for synthesis of both leading and
lagging stands. TRUE

80. What sequence is on the opposite strand of DNA as 5’ – ATTTT-3’?

a. 5’-TTTTA-3’
b. 5’- AAAAT-3’
c. 5’-TAAAA-3’
d. 5’-ATTTT-3’
e. 3’-TTTTT-5’

81. A codon consists of ---- nucleotides in an ---- molecule.

a. 2;DNA
b. 3; DNA or RNA
c. 4; DNA
d. 3; amino acid
e. 4; amino acids

82. When scientists describe the genetic code as redundant they mean that:
a. It becomes disorganized overtime
b. Generally a single amino acid is encoded by more than one codon
c. Generally a single codon codes for more than one amino acids
d. Some codons specify stop signals
e. It is concerved with in organisms with few acceptions

83. Which is a ribonucleotide?

a. A
b. B

84. ------------- Specify the start sites of DNA replication whereas ----- specify the start sites of transcription
a. DNA primers; RNA primers
b. RNA primers; DNA primers
c. RNA primers; transcription factors
d. Transcription factors; RNA primers
e. DNA primers; transcription factors
85. T or F: Acetylation of histones is a pre requisite for the transcription of most plant genes. TRUE

86. In regards to translation --- specifies what tRNA is bonded to what amino acid.
a. tRNA
b. ribosome
c. aminoacyl tRNA synthase
d. mRNA
e. eRNA

87. Which of the following statements concerning restriction enzymes is FALSE?

a. They are a type of endonuclease.
b. They recognize DNA sequences typically 4 to 6 nucleotides long
c. They recognize single stranded DNA sequences.
d. Some make straight cuts in the DNA
e. They recognize specific palindromic sequences

88. T or F: all plasmids are vectors but not all vectors are plasmids. TRUE

89. A sticky-ended fragment can anneal to another DNA fragment only if that fragment:
a. Has been cut with the same restriction enzyme
b. Has been cut with the same ligase
c. Is palindromic
d. Is part of a plasmid
e. Has sticky ends that are reverse complementary to the other fragment

90. DNA ligase would most likely be used in recombinant DNA technology to:
a. Function as a vector
b. Identify recombinant plasmids
c. Stimulate a transformed cell to divide
d. Cut DNA into fragments with sticky ends
e. Join DNA fragments together.

91. Agrobacterium genetically transforms plants by transferring the --------- part of the ---- plasmid into the host
plant's nuclear DNA.
a. CG; CG-DNA
b. O; R-DNA
c. C; C-DNA
d. Ti; T-DNA
e. T-DNA;Ti

92. In the Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens the onc region contains genes that code for enzymes in:
a. Auxin synthesis only
b. Opine synthesis only
 c. Cytokinin synthesis only
d. auxin and cytokinin synthesis
e. auxin and opine synthesis

93. which of the following is involved in biolistics for plant transformation:

a. nanoparticles
b. Ti plasmids
c. Heavy metal particles
d. Left and right borders of T-DNA
e. Vir genes

94. One aspect of structural genomics is:

a. Determining the function of genes
b. Determining the function of gene products
c. Preparing physical maps
d. Preparing knockout meds
e. Comparing evolutionary relationships

95. The transcriptome refers to all of the:

a. Proteins encoded by the genome
b. Glycoproteins transcribed by the genome
c. Nucleotides present in a cells DNA
d. Nucleotides present in a cells RNA
e. RNA molecules transcribed by the genome

Practice Midterm Questions:

1. T or F: The calvin cycle occurs in the stroma and consumes ATP and NADPH to produce sugars. TRUE

2. Which of the following statements about stromatolites is FALSE?

a. They contain layers of microorganisms.
b. They contain sediment.
c. They are fossil structures, with none alive today.
d. They can be formed by cyanobacteria.
e. They provide information about the earliest forms of life.

3. Which of the following statements about proteinoid microspheres is FALSE?

a. They are thought to be the first forms of life.
b. They grow by the accumulation of additional proteinoid material.
c. They are cell-like structures.
d. They are assemblages of organic molecules.
e. They can be produced in the laboratory.
4. Which of the following statements concerning primitive cells is FALSE?

a. They used organic molecules to satisfy their energy requirements.

b. They constructed new cells from organic molecules made via photosynthesis.
c. They acquired the ability to grow.
d. They acquired the ability to reproduce.
e. They acquired the ability to pass on their characteristics to subsequent generations

5. Chlorophyll absorbs light principally in the ______ wavelengths.

a. blue and green

b. green and violet
c. blue and violet
d. violet and green
e. green and red

6. The O2 evolved in photosynthesis comes from:

a. carbon dioxide.
b. water.
c. glucose.
d. (CH2O).
e. (C3H3O3).

7. The primary function of ______ is as an anti-oxidant.

a. chlorophyll a
b. carotenoids
c. phycobilins
d. bacteriochlorophyll
e. chlorobium chlorophyll

8. Which of the following statements about an antenna complex is FALSE?

a. It is part of a photosystem.
b. It “funnels” energy to the reaction center.
c. It contains chlorophyll molecules.
d. It contains carotenoid pigments.
e. It converts light energy into chemical energy.

9. What are the 3 domains of life?

- Bacteria
- Archaea
- Eukarya

10. In the hierarchical taxonomy name the categories from most to least encompassing
- Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
- King Phillip calls off fighting giant snakes

11. When the members of a taxon are all descendants of a common single ancestral species, the taxon is said to be:
a. phylogenetic.
b. paraphyletic.
c. monophyletic.
d. polyphyletic.
e. amphiphyletic.

12. How many alleles of a single-copy gene are in a population of 1000 triploid plants?
a. Six
b. three
c. two thousand
d. three thousand
e. nine

13. In a population of 500 individuals 320 are homozygous dominant. What population is heterozygous
500 individuals  320/500 = 0.64 = p2 = 0.8 for p  p+q=1 = q=0.2  2pq = 0.32 x 100 = 32%

14. A linkage map is different from a physical map in that a linkage map is:
a. Used to determine genes functions
b. Based on rates of recombination
c. Used to determine which genes are inactive
d. Based on direct DNA sequencing
e. Based on evolutionary relationships

15. Which of the follwouig statements concerning vectors is FALSE?

a. Vectors are used to transform cells
b. Vectors function as DNA carriers
c. A virus can be a vector
d. A plasmid can be a vector
e. A host cell can be a vector

16. T or F: A bacillus has a spherical shape. FALSE

17. T or F: The purple and green bacteria are photosynthetic bacteria. TRUE

18. T or F: wind pollinated flowers often have feathery outgrowths for intercepting pollen grains. TRUE

19. T or F: the monocots and eudicots each had a common ancestor. TRUE

20. T or F: the magnoliids were the first lineage to diverge within the Mesangiospermae. TRUE

21. ------ tissue is composed of cells having unevenly thickened primary walls
a. Collenchyma
b. Xylem
c. Parenchyma
d. Phloem
 e. Sclerechyma

22. The developmental fate of a plant cell is determined mostly by:

a. Its growth rate
b. Its developmental plasticity
c. Its final position
d. Whether it is an inita or derivative
e. Whether it is determinate or indeterminate

23. T or F: The radial pattern of embryogenesis consists of concentrically arranged tissue systems. TRUE

24. T or F: The root and shoot apical meristems are 2 of the primary meristems TRUE

25. Consider the 2 traits seed shape and seed color. R represents the allele for round seeds r is for the wrinkled seeds.
Y is for yellow seeds and y for green seeds. Which of the following indicates a cross between a plant
heterozygous for both traits and a plant homozygous recessive for both traits?
a. Ry x ry
b. Rryy x rryy
c. Rryy x Rryy
d. RrYy x Rryy
e. RrYy x rryy

Quizlet Questions:

1. T or F: Active transport is the movement of materials from a high concentration to a low concentration requiring
the use of energy from the dephosphorylation of ATP molecules. FALSE

2. T or F: Osmosis is a type of diffusion. TRUE

3. T or F: phospholipids require the presence of a nucleic acid to spontaneously form a phospholipid bilayer. FALSE

4. T or F: the hydrophilic portion of a phospholipid is the polar head which generally consists of a glycerol molecule
linked to a phosphate group. TRUE

5. Features that eukaryotic cells have but prokaryotic cells do not:

- Mitochondrion
- Nucleus
- Endoplasmic reticulum

6. The endoplasmic reticulum is continuous with the nuclear envelope. TRUE

7. T or F: Bacteria reproduce via mitosis. FALSE

8. T or F: The central cell in the photo is undergoing cytokinesis. TRUE

9. T or F: A haploid organism has one pair of homologous chromosomes. FALSE

10. Meiosis I produces ---- cells each of which is -----.

a. 1; haploid
b. 2; haploid
c. 1; diploid
d. 2; diploid
e. 4; diploid

11. Meiosis II typically produces ---- cells each of which is ----.

a. 2; haploid
b. 3; haploid
c. 4; haploid
d. 2; diploid
e. 4; diploid

12. T or F: Bacteria undergo meiosis. FALSE

13. T or F: Cellular respiration is more efficient at producing ATP than fermentation. TRUE

14. During the electron transport chain energy from the molecules ---- is used to pump hydrogen ions into the ----.
a. NADH and FADH2; intermembrane space
b. NADH and FADH2; intramembrane space
c. ATP and NADH; intermembrane space
d. ATP and NADH; intramembrane space

15. ------ has a longer wavelength than ----.

a. blue; green
b. green; violet
c. blue; violet
d. violet; green
e. red; green

16. T or F: ATP is generated during the light reactions. TRUE

17. T or F: Dominant alleles are one that are common in a population of organisms. FALSE

18. How is a lipid different from a carbohydrate?

- Lipids are nonpolar

19. All of the cellular transport mechanisms that could move an object across a cell membrane that is too large to pass
freely across the phospholipid bilayer
- Pintocytosis
- Exoxytosis
 - Contransport
- Facilitated diffusion

20. RNA provides the genetic blueprint to produce a protein at which cellular structure
- Ribosome

21. What 2 things does a plant cell have that an animal cell does
- Chloroplast
- Cell wall

22. What features do eukaryotic cells have that prokaryotic don’t?

- Mitochondrion
- Nucleus
- Endoplasmic reticulum

23. Events in order:

- DNA synthesized via transcription
- Mature RNA leaves the nucleus through nuclear pore
- RNA is translated into a ribosome in the rough ER
- Protein leaves the rough ER in a transport vesicle
- Protein gets processed in the Golgi apparatus

24. What does a homologous pair of chromosomes consists of during prophase?

- 2 chromosomes and 4 chromatids

25. What is the difference between a chromatid and a chromosome?

- A chromatid is one half of a replicated chromosome whereas a chromosome consists of DNA wrapped
around in a highly organized manner

26. When are the chromosomes replicated?

- The S phase

27. When do chromosomes first become visible?

- Prophase

28. When do sister chromatids break apart and begin moving to ooposite poles of the cell?
- Anaphase

29. Which stage of mitosis do haploid cells contain 2 sister chromatids?

- Telophase I
 30. What is an advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
- Sexual reproduction avoids the transmission of harmful alleles to offspring

31. Some steps of cellular respiration

- Glycolysis
- Citric acid cycle
- Electron transport chain

32. Plants in the tropical rainforest in brazil are mostly likely ---- plants
- C3

33. Where is water used in photosynthesis?

- The light dependent reaction

34. Why does a leaf appear green when you look at it?
- The chlorophyll pigments absorb all wavelengths of light except the green spectrum which it reflects

35. How are C4 plants different from C3 and CAM plants?

- C4 plants transfer fixed carbon dioxide from light reactions to different cells in which the calvin cycle occurs

LECTURES:
Origin of life – Botany
- Organic molecules were formed by the action of heat/ energy on gases
 Energy from lighting, rain, thermal vents and sun
 Accumulated in the oceans
- Abiogenesis – the natural process by which life has arisen from non living matter such as simple organic
compounds
- 1st cell like structures were aggregations of molecules
 Proteinoid microspheres
 Collected molecules for synthesis into complex molecules
- 1st cells used organic molecules for metabolism
 Primitive cells could do chemical conversions
 Eventually they could do more complicated tasks such as grow and reproduce pass on their
characteristics
 These properties and cellular organization characterize all living things on earth
- 3.5 billion years ago  microfossils aka STROMATOLITES
  Layers of sedimentary formations that are created mainly by photosynthetic microorganisms such
as cyanobacteria.
 Eukaryotes 1.5 bill years later
- The universal genetic code  all organisms use the same genetic code to translate DNA into proteins
 Strongly suggests that life emerged once
 64 codons 20 amino acids
 One common ancestor
- Heterotrophs: dependent on outside molecules for food
- Autotrophs: dependent on themselves to make own food
 Fundamental role in todays biospheres
- Photosynthesis and the atmosphere
 Produces O2
 Made a blanket of ozone (O3) protects from UV
 Enabled respiration – efficient way to breakdown organic molecules to produce ATP
- Prokaryotes: lack nuclear envelope, genetic material not organized into complex chromosomes
- Eukaryotes: cells with nuclear envelope, complex chromosomes and organelles such as mitochondria (sites
of respiration) and chloroplast (sites of photosynthesis) surrounded by membranes
- Apical meristems – growth region in plants found within the root tips of the new shoots
 Involved with the extension of the plant body
- Primary growth – growth that originates from apical meristems
- Secondary growth – growth that results in a thickening of stems and roots originating from 2 lateral
meristems the vascular cambium and the cork cambium
- Ecosystem – a biological community of interacting organisms and their physical environment
 The interaction of living and nonliving things in an environment
- Biomes – a large naturally occurring of flora and fauna occupying a major habitat
 A specific geographic area notable for the species living there

Metabolites Photosynthesis

- Primary metabolites: occur in all plant cells

 simple sugars amino acids proteins and nucleic acids
 Enter synthetic pathways that produce many different kinds of molecules that have roles that
were not always understood
- Secondary metabolites: secondary compounds have restricted distribution and only occur in some cells and
species
 May act as signals that enable the plant to respond to environmental cues or have antiherbivore
and other defensive or dispersal roles
  Alkaloids: alkaline nitrogenous compounds  amine group always present, shown to have a
defensive function, is allelopathic so it prevents seed germination of other species and reduces
interspecific competition (morphine, caffeine, nic, cocaine and atropine)

 Terpenoids: made of isoprene units, largest class of secondary compounds, the hydrocarbon
isoprene is the simplest, synthesized in the chloroplasts from CO2, monoterpenoids (2 isoprene
units) and sesquiterpenoids (3 isoprene units) are essential oils, many monoterpenoids are
synthesized and stores in glandular hairs or trichomes outgrowths of the epidermis, may be both
defensive and allelopathic, flower fragrance terpenoids attract pollinators (rubber is the largest
terpenoid)

 Phenolics: include flavonoids tannins lignins and salicylic acid, broad range of compounds with a
hydroxyl group (-OH) attached to an aromatic ring of 6 carbons with a double bond, universally
present in all plants in some form. Flavonoids – some are important pigments. Tannins are
astringent. Lignins – 2nd most abundant organic compound on earth after cellulose

- Lignins – are deposited in the cell wall rather in the vacuole, are polymers formed from 3 kinds of monomers,
lignification stiffens the cell allows it to grow taller and supports large surfaces, waterproofs the cell and is
deposited around injuries and sites of mechanical penetration, prevents fungal spore enzyme activity.
- Phytoalexins – secondary metabolites synthesized in response to pathogens, defensive role, broadly toxic to
microbial pathogens.
- Plant cell – eukaryotic, some prokaryotes can also photosynthesize, has cell walls chloroplasts and vacuoles,
cell wall makes mitosis different.
- Chloroplasts

Systematics – The science of biological diversity

- Systematics – the scientific study of biological diversity and its evolutionary history
- Taxonomy – the identification naming an classification of species
- Linnaeus created taxonomy
- Hierarchical kingdoms: ANIMAL, PLANT, FUNGI, PROTIST, MONERA
- Scientific naming: Genus species
- Phylogeny – study of relationships among different groups of organisms with respect to their evolutionary
development.
- Phylogenetic tree – a diagram that represents evolutionary relationships among organisms (2 components:
branching order and branch length)
- Cladograms – a diagram that represents evolutionary relationships among organisms
  Only shows the relationships between groups (clades) their common ancestors does not consider
evolutionary times
- Monophyletic clade – group containing both the common ancestor and all of its descendants
- Polyphyletic – taxa contain members descended from more than one ancestral line
- Paraphyletic – taxa contain a common ancestor but not all of its descendants
- Synapomorphies – shared derived characteristics
- nucleic acid sequencing provides the underpinnings for three domains of life: archaea, bacteria and eukarya
- archaea and eukarya share a common evolutionary pathway, independent of the lineage of “true” bacteria
based on ribosomal RNA sequencing
- Bacteria – no chloroplasts thylakoids are not membrane bound and lack their own DNA
- Archaea – single cell prokaryotes generally live in anaerobic environments
- Phagocyte = eating cell

Evolution

- Population – a localized group of individuals

- Species – a group of populations that can interbreed in nature
- Gene pool – the sum total of all alleles of the genes of all the individuals in the population
- Natural selection – individuals with higher reproduction will have a proportional increase in the
numbers of alleles in the next generation
- Calculating frequency - pink (A) and white (a) flower = 500 flowers 20 are white (aa)
 320 (AA) and 160 (Aa) what is the frequency of A
 Total alleles = 500 x 2 = 1000
 How many A? (AA = 320 x 2 = 640 + Aa is 160 x 1 = 160 = 640 + 160 = 800)
 800/1000 = 0.8  total of a is 1 – 0.8 = 0.2
 Probability of picking 2 A alleles is 0.8 x 0.8 = 0.64
 Probability of picking 2 a alleles is 0.2 x 0.2 = 0.04
 Probability of picking 1 a and 1 A is 0.2 x 0.8 = 0.16 (same for reverse)
 Values added up = 0.64 + 0.16 + 0.16 + 0.04 = 1
- Calculating alleles = p2+ 2pq + q2 = 1
- Hardy Weinberg – non-evolving, stays constant unless acted upon by specific agents
- Corrections for H-W to be correct
 Population size has to be very large
 Isolation from other populations
 No mutations of the alleles
 Random mating
  No natural selection
- Microevolution – is the change in allele frequencies that occurs over time within a population,
change do to mutation etc
- The bottleneck effect – large-scale disturbance reducing population size in an unselective way
- Cline – a gradual change in the characteristics of populations of an organism along an environment
gradient
- Species – organisms that can interbreed and produce viable offspring.
- Morphological species concept – most species recognized by taxonomists have been designated as
distinct species based on anatomical and morphological criteria.
- Phylogenetic species concepts – 1) can define species based on shared/distinct characters (can be
molecular instead of just anatomical and morphological) or 2) define species in terms of historical
relationships or ancestry
- Allopatry – physical isolation of species
- Sympatry – where there is no physical isolation but polyploidy
- Autopolyploidy – is when there are multiple copies of chromosomes. This happens within
individual when cytokinesis does not follow meiosis or when gametes fuse
- Allopolyploidy – is when 2 different species cross producing an interspecific hybrid
- Apomixis – a kind of asexual reproduction where a seed can develop from an unfertilized ovule. The
seedlings are clones of the mother plant
- Phyletic gradualism – a model of evolution that theorizes that most speciation is slow uniform and
gradual

Bryophytes

- Bryophytes – a paraphyletic group of plant species that reproduce via spores.

 Some have conducting tissues
- 6 shared characteristics of bryophytes
 The presence of male and female gametangia called antheridia and archegonia
respectively with a protective layer called a sterile jacket layer
 Retention of both the zygote and the developing multicellular embryo or young
sporophyte within archegonium or the female gametophyte
 The presence of a multicellular diploid sporophyte which can result in an increased
number of meiosis and an amplification of the number of spores that can be produced
following each fertilization event.
  Multicellular sporangia consisting of a sterile jacket layer and internal spore producing
tissue
 Meiospores with walls containing sporopollenin which resists decay and drying
 Tissues produced by an apical meristem
- 3 phyla of bryophytes
 Marchantiophyta (liverworts)
 Bryophyta (the mosses)
 Anthocerotophyta (hornworts)
- Rhizoids – the gametophytes of both thalloid and leafy bryophytes are generally attached to the
substrate such as soil by rhizoids

Seedless Vascular plants

- Lignin - enabled a strong erect structure and with vasculature could grow very large in drier
environments
 Early plants stood by turgor pressure so it limited how tall they could get and where they
could grow
 Major step in evolution of plants
- Homosporous – produces one kind of spore develops into bisexual gametophyte
- Heterosporous – produce 2 kinds of spores (micro and megaspores) and can produce unisexual
gametophytes

Eusporansium development Leptosporangium development

- Parent cells are located at surface of - Parent cell is located beneath
the sporophyll sporophyll surface
- Develop from a group of initial cells - Develops from a single initial cell
- Inner cells produce spore mother - Single initial produces all spore
cells that undergo meiosis to mother cells that undergo meiosis to
produce spores produce spores
- Outer cell layer produces sporangial - Tapetum dehisces and material is
wall deposited around the spores creating
- Produces 100s to 1000s of spores spines
- Dehiscence of sporangium
facilitated through the annulus
 - Phytoremediation – transports arsenic from contaminated soil through its roots to its fronds

Angiosperms

- Came in the Cretaceous/mesozonic period

- Carpel = stigma + style + ovary
- Gynoecium = one or more cluster of carpels
- Complete flower – has a gynoecium and androecium
- Monoecious plant – has male and female flowers on same plant
- Dioecious plant – has male and female flowers on separate plants
- Microsporogenesis – pollen mother cells inside the 4 pollen sacs of the anther undergo meiosis to
produce unicellular haploid spores. It forms microspores within the microsporangia or pollen sacs of
the anther.
- Microgametogenesis – the unicellular haploid spores then undergo mitosis to produce 2-3 cell
pollen. Later development of the microgametophyte by mitosis to the 2-3 cell ctage.
- Tapetum – adds a lipid-rich coat to the pollen grain
- Vegetative cell – non-reproductive will form pollen tube upon germination.
- Generative cell – reproductive divides to form the 2 sperm cells.
- Some of the functions of megagametophyte cells:
 Antipodals – feeds growing embryo
 Synergids – produce the attractant that guides the pollen tube to the female gametophyte
 Mature one is only 7 cells
- Double fertilization – one sperm nucleus from the pollen tube and one egg producing a zygote
- Monocots – grass and flowers
- Eudicots – trees shrubs and herbs
- Flavonoid flower pigment
 Naringenin – absorbs UV
 Quercetin – absorbs UV
 Cyanindin – red color (cyan is color like red)
- 3 primary meristems (apical)
 Protoderm – formed by periclinical divisions or outer most cells
 Procambium – precursor of the vascular tissues
 Ground meristems – precursor of ground tissue surrounds the procambium
 - Seed maturation
 Embryo cell division ceases
 Massive buildup of food reserves
 Desiccation
 Seed coat hardens
 Quiescence or dormancy

Cells and tissues

- Meristems – populations of cells that retain the potential to divide long after embryogenesis is over.
- Growth – increase in size by cell division and cell enlargement.
- Morphogenesis – how a tissue or organ assumes a particular shape by division and tissue expansion
along 3 dimensional planes.
- Differentiation – when a cell becomes different compared to its meristematic parent cell
- Cell differentiation – positional information determines the path of differentiation for plant stems
cells
- 3 tissue systems
 Ground tissue – comprises the majority of a young plant it is any tissue that lies between
the vascular and dermal tissues
 Parenchyma – photosynthesis in the leaves and storage in the roots and secretion.
Its soft and plays an important role in regeneration and wound healing.
 Collenchyma – shoot in areas of active growth. Is beneath the epidermis in stems
and petioles. Develops thick walls of cellulose and pectin.
 Sclerenchyma – shoot support in areas where growth has ceased. Lacks
protoplasts, thick lignified secondary cell walls.
 Vascular tissue – a complex conducting tissue composed primarily of xylem and
phloem.
 Dermal tissue – protects the inner tissues of the plants and controls interactions with the
plants surroundings.
 Pavement and guard cells
 Trichome

Plant Hormones
 - 6 major classes
 Auxin – in leaf
 Cytokinin – in roots
 Ethylene - in tissues
 Gibberellins – in leaves and roots
 Abscisic acid – in tissues of the shoots and developing seeds
 Brassinosteroids – throughout plant
- Ethylene signaling - ethylene inactivated receptor ETR1  inactivates CTR1 activates EIN2 
EIN3 transcription factor activated  activates expression of ERF1 transcription factors
- ABA signaling – can be inactivated by conjugation to glucose

Sexual reproduction and heredity

- PMAT
- Gregor Mendel discovered heredity
- Kinds of mutation
 Substitutions
 Deletions
 Insertion
 Transposition
 Inversions
 Repeats
 **IS DIRT**

Chemistry of Heredity

- The genetic code – DNA  Transcription  RNA  Translation  Protein

- 64 possible codons  3 stop codons and 61 sense codons

Last chapter

- Selection – bacteria that have taken up circular DNA containing the antibiotic resistance gene will
replicate that DNA
- Amplification – bacteria will make many copies of the circular DNA with high fidelity.
- Genomics: sub areas – 1) structural 2) functional 3) comparative
- Genetic maps - provide a rough appox of the locations of genes relative tho those of other known
genes as determined by rates of recombination
- Physical maps - provide exact location of genes based on sequencing information. Gives greater
resolution and accuracy than the previous genetic map
- Linkage – is a map of chromosomes?
- Functional genomics – figures out what the gene sequences mean it determines which genes are
expressed and their function
- Comparative genomics – compares the genomes of different organisms. Provides important
information about evolutionary relationships.