306 COMPUTER NETWORK

UNIT 3

MCQ Questions on Data Link Layer Design Issues

What is the primary function of the data link layer in the OSI model?

A) To provide end-to-end communication

B) To manage physical addressing and error detection

C) To route data packets

D) To handle application-level protocols

Answer: B) To manage physical addressing and error detection

Which of the following protocols operates at the data link layer?

A) TCP

B) IP

C) Ethernet

D) HTTP

Answer: C) Ethernet

What does the term "framing" refer to in the data link layer?

A) The process of addressing data packets

B) The process of converting data into bits

C) The method of defining the start and end of a data packet

D) The method of compressing data for transmission

Answer: C) The method of defining the start and end of a data packet

Which of the following is NOT a type of error detection technique used in the data link layer?
A) Parity Check

B) Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC)

C) Checksum

D) Encryption

Answer: D) Encryption

What is the purpose of flow control in the data link layer?

A) To ensure data integrity

B) To manage the rate of data transmission between sender and receiver

C) To provide physical addressing

D) To encrypt data for secure transmission

Answer: B) To manage the rate of data transmission between sender and receiver

Which protocol uses a method called "Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection"
(CSMA/CD)?

A) Token Ring

B) Wi-Fi (IEEE 802.11)

C) Ethernet (IEEE 802.3)

D) Frame Relay

Answer: C) Ethernet (IEEE 802.3)

What is the primary purpose of an address resolution protocol (ARP) at the data link layer?

A) To route packets to their destination

B) To resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses

C) To manage flow control

D) To encrypt data

Answer: B) To resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses

In which scenario is a "token" used in data link layer protocols?

A) When error detection is needed

B) To control access to a shared communication medium

C) For data encryption

D) To compress data

Answer: B) To control access to a shared communication medium

What does "error correction" mean in the context of the data link layer?

A) The ability to detect errors only

B) The process of retransmitting lost packets

C) The capability to identify and correct errors in transmitted data

D) The technique of compressing data for transmission

Answer: C) The capability to identify and correct errors in transmitted data

Which of the following is a common data link layer protocol used in wireless networks?

A) Ethernet

B) Token Ring

C) IEEE 802.11 (Wi-Fi)

D) PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol)

Answer: C) IEEE 802.11 (Wi-Fi)

What is a key characteristic of a "bridged" network at the data link layer?

A) It uses IP addressing for routing.

B) It connects multiple network segments and filters traffic.

C) It encrypts data for security.

D) It compresses data to save bandwidth.

Answer: B) It connects multiple network segments and filters traffic.

In which type of network topology is the data link layer most critical for managing collisions?

A) Star topology

B) Ring topology

C) Bus topology

D) Mesh topology

Answer: C) Bus topology

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the data link layer?

A) Frame synchronization

B) Routing of packets

C) Physical addressing

D) Error detection and correction

Answer: B) Routing of packets

What is the maximum frame size in Ethernet II frames?

A) 512 bytes

B) 1500 bytes

C) 9000 bytes

D) 64 bytes

Answer: B) 1500 bytes

Which method is typically used to prevent collisions in a wireless network?

A) CSMA/CD

B) Token passing

C) CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance)

D) Polling
Answer: C) CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance)

What does the term "bit stuffing" refer to in the data link layer?

A) The addition of extra bits to a data stream to ensure synchronization

B) The process of inserting redundant bits for error detection

C) The technique of compressing bits for transmission

D) The use of bits to represent data types

Answer: A) The addition of extra bits to a data stream to ensure synchronization

Which of the following is a characteristic of Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) at the data link
layer?

A) Connection-oriented and uses fixed-size cells

B) Connectionless and uses variable-size packets

C) Only suitable for voice communication

D) It does not support Quality of Service (QoS)

Answer: A) Connection-oriented and uses fixed-size cells

What is the role of the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer in the data link layer?

A) To manage physical addressing

B) To provide flow control and error management

C) To handle data framing

D) To provide interface to the network layer

Answer: D) To provide interface to the network layer

Which addressing method is used in Ethernet frames?

A) IP addressing

B) MAC addressing
C) Logical addressing

D) Port addressing

Answer: B) MAC addressing

What is the primary goal of implementing Quality of Service (QoS) at the data link layer?

A) To reduce latency and improve bandwidth utilization

B) To increase security of data transmission

C) To enhance data encryption

D) To simplify network design

Answer: A) To reduce latency and improve bandwidth utilization

MCQ Questions on Elementary Data Link Protocols

What is the primary purpose of elementary data link protocols?

A) To provide routing between networks

B) To ensure reliable communication over a single link

C) To encrypt data for secure transmission

D) To manage application layer protocols

Answer: B) To ensure reliable communication over a single link

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Stop-and-Wait protocol?

A) The sender waits for an acknowledgment after each frame.

B) It can lead to inefficient bandwidth usage.

C) It allows multiple frames to be in transit at the same time.

D) It is simple to implement.

Answer: C) It allows multiple frames to be in transit at the same time.

In the Go-Back-N protocol, what happens if an error is detected in a frame?

A) Only the erroneous frame is retransmitted.

B) All subsequent frames are retransmitted.

C) The sender continues to send frames without retransmission.

D) The receiver ignores the erroneous frame.

Answer: B) All subsequent frames are retransmitted.

What does the term "sliding window" refer to in data link protocols?

A) A method for controlling flow in data transmission

B) A technique for addressing frames

C) A mechanism for error detection

D) A strategy for frame synchronization

Answer: A) A method for controlling flow in data transmission

Which protocol allows the sender to send multiple frames before needing an acknowledgment?

A) Stop-and-Wait

B) Go-Back-N

C) Selective Repeat

D) All of the above

Answer: B) Go-Back-N

What is the main advantage of the Selective Repeat protocol over Go-Back-N?

A) Simplicity in implementation

B) Better bandwidth utilization by retransmitting only erroneous frames

C) Lower error detection capability

D) Higher latency

Answer: B) Better bandwidth utilization by retransmitting only erroneous frames

In the Stop-and-Wait ARQ protocol, what does ARQ stand for?

A) Automatic Repeat Request

B) Asynchronous Repeat Query

C) Automatic Return Query

D) Asynchronous Request Queue

Answer: A) Automatic Repeat Request

What happens in the Sliding Window protocol when the window size is increased?

A) The sender can transmit more frames before needing an acknowledgment.

B) The receiver processes frames more slowly.

C) It reduces the likelihood of errors.

D) It increases the complexity of the protocol.

Answer: A) The sender can transmit more frames before needing an acknowledgment.

Which of the following protocols uses a fixed window size?

A) Go-Back-N

B) Stop-and-Wait

C) Selective Repeat

D) All of the above

Answer: A) Go-Back-N

What is the primary function of the acknowledgment (ACK) in data link protocols?

A) To indicate the sender to stop sending frames

B) To confirm the successful receipt of a frame

C) To request retransmission of a lost frame

D) To synchronize the sender and receiver

Answer: B) To confirm the successful receipt of a frame

In the Go-Back-N ARQ protocol, if the sender's window size is N, what is the maximum number of
frames that can be sent without receiving an acknowledgment?

A) N-1

B) N

C) N+1

D) 2N

Answer: B) N

Which of the following statements about Selective Repeat ARQ is TRUE?

A) It requires less buffer space at the receiver than Go-Back-N.

B) It is simpler than Go-Back-N.

C) It can selectively acknowledge received frames.

D) It has higher latency than Stop-and-Wait.

Answer: C) It can selectively acknowledge received frames.

In the context of data link protocols, what does the term "frame" refer to?

A) A segment of data at the application layer

B) A fixed-size packet of data that includes header and payload

C) The entire data stream from sender to receiver

D) A data packet that has been encrypted

Answer: B) A fixed-size packet of data that includes header and payload

Which of the following is an example of a protocol that uses Stop-and-Wait ARQ?

A) HDLC

B) TCP
C) UDP

D) X.25

Answer: A) HDLC

What is a key disadvantage of the Stop-and-Wait protocol?

A) Complexity in implementation

B) Inefficient use of bandwidth, especially over long distances

C) High error detection capability

D) Low latency

Answer: B) Inefficient use of bandwidth, especially over long distances

In the context of data link protocols, what is a "timeout"?

A) The period in which a sender must wait for an acknowledgment

B) The duration for which a frame can exist in the network

C) The time taken to process a received frame

D) The maximum time before a connection is terminated

Answer: A) The period in which a sender must wait for an acknowledgment

What is the role of the sender in the Selective Repeat protocol when it receives a NAK (Negative
Acknowledgment)?

A) It stops sending frames.

B) It retransmits only the specified frame that was not acknowledged.

C) It retransmits all frames.

D) It ignores the NAK.

Answer: B) It retransmits only the specified frame that was not acknowledged.

Which of the following scenarios would likely benefit most from the use of the Sliding Window
protocol?
A) High-latency satellite communication

B) Local area network (LAN) communication

C) Low-bandwidth dial-up connections

D) Voice over IP (VoIP)

Answer: A) High-latency satellite communication

What is one of the main reasons for using a combination of protocols in a communication system?

A) To increase complexity

B) To achieve better error handling and flow control

C) To reduce the number of frames transmitted

D) To eliminate the need for buffering

Answer: B) To achieve better error handling and flow control

Which of the following is a primary concern of data link layer protocols?

A) Network congestion management

B) Error detection and correction

C) End-to-end communication

D) Data encryption

Answer: B) Error detection and correction

MCQ Questions on Error Detection and Correction - Hamming Code

What is the primary purpose of Hamming code?

A) To encrypt data

B) To detect and correct single-bit errors

C) To compress data

D) To transmit data more quickly

Answer: B) To detect and correct single-bit errors

How many parity bits are required for a Hamming code that can correct one-bit errors in a 7-bit data
word?

A) 2

B) 3

C) 4

D) 7

Answer: B) 3

In Hamming code, what is the relationship between the number of data bits (k) and the number of
total bits (n)?

A) n = k + r, where r is the number of parity bits

B) n = k × r

C) n = k - r

D) n = k^2

Answer: A) n = k + r, where r is the number of parity bits

What is the maximum number of errors that Hamming code can correct?

A) One-bit errors only

B) Two-bit errors

C) Three-bit errors

D) None

Answer: A) One-bit errors only

In a (7, 4) Hamming code, how many data bits are there?

A) 3

B) 4
C) 7

D) 11

Answer: B) 4

Which of the following statements is true regarding parity bits in Hamming code?

A) Parity bits are placed at even positions only.

B) Parity bits are used only for error detection, not correction.

C) Each parity bit checks a specific combination of data bits.

D) Parity bits are always equal to the data bits.

Answer: C) Each parity bit checks a specific combination of data bits.

How is the position of the parity bits determined in a Hamming code?

A) At every even position

B) At positions that are powers of two (1, 2, 4, 8, ...)

C) Randomly within the code

D) At odd positions only

Answer: B) At positions that are powers of two (1, 2, 4, 8, ...)

What is the syndrome in Hamming code?

A) A method for encoding data

B) A value that indicates the position of an error

C) The original data before encoding

D) A type of parity check

Answer: B) A value that indicates the position of an error

If a Hamming code has 7 bits total, how many bits are used for error correction?

A) 2
B) 3

C) 4

D) 1

Answer: B) 3

How can Hamming code correct an error?

A) By simply discarding the erroneous data

B) By using the syndrome to identify the error's position and flipping the bit

C) By requesting the sender to resend the data

D) By ignoring the parity bits

Answer: B) By using the syndrome to identify the error's position and flipping the bit

What is the maximum number of parity bits needed to correct errors in a block of k data bits?

A) r ≤ k

B) r ≤ log2(k + r + 1)

C) r = k/2

D) r = k + 1

Answer: B) r ≤ log2(k + r + 1)

Which of the following is an advantage of using Hamming code?

A) It can detect multiple-bit errors.

B) It can correct multiple-bit errors.

C) It requires fewer bits for error detection.

D) It can correct single-bit errors.

Answer: D) It can correct single-bit errors.

In Hamming code, what does the parity bit for position 1 check?
A) All bits

B) Bits in positions that have a binary representation with the least significant bit as 1

C) Only the first four bits

D) It does not check anything

Answer: B) Bits in positions that have a binary representation with the least significant bit as 1

If a received Hamming code word is determined to have an error at position 5, what action should be
taken?

A) Leave the code word unchanged

B) Change the bit in position 5 to its opposite value

C) Discard the entire code word

D) Request retransmission of the code word

Answer: B) Change the bit in position 5 to its opposite value

Which of the following represents a valid Hamming code for the data bits 1011?

A) 1110110

B) 1001100

C) 1101001

D) 0111010

Answer: A) 1110110

In Hamming codes, what does a "parity check matrix" do?

A) It generates data bits.

B) It helps in identifying and correcting errors.

C) It transmits the data bits.

D) It is used for encryption.

Answer: B) It helps in identifying and correcting errors.

What happens when two bits are in error in a Hamming code?

A) The error is corrected automatically.

B) The error is detected, but cannot be corrected.

C) The system ignores the errors.

D) The entire code is discarded.

Answer: B) The error is detected, but cannot be corrected.

Which type of error can Hamming code NOT correct?

A) Single-bit error

B) Two-bit error

C) Burst error

D) None of the above

Answer: B) Two-bit error

What is the significance of the number of parity bits in Hamming code?

A) They increase the size of the data packet.

B) They help identify the number of data bits.

C) They determine how many errors can be detected or corrected.

D) They are not significant.

Answer: C) They determine how many errors can be detected or corrected.

In Hamming code, if the total number of bits is 15, how many data bits can be accommodated?

A) 8

B) 7

C) 11

D) 12

Answer: C) 11 (In a (15, 11) Hamming code)

MCQ Questions on Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC)

What does CRC stand for in data communication?

A) Circular Redundancy Check

B) Cyclic Redundancy Check

C) Cyclic Redundant Code

D) Circular Redundant Code

Answer: B) Cyclic Redundancy Check

What is the primary purpose of CRC?

A) To encrypt data

B) To compress data

C) To detect errors in transmitted data

D) To speed up data transmission

Answer: C) To detect errors in transmitted data

Which mathematical concept does CRC utilize for error detection?

A) Modular arithmetic

B) Prime factorization

C) Binary division

D) Boolean algebra

Answer: C) Binary division

In CRC, what is the role of the generator polynomial?

A) To generate the data packet

B) To specify the error-checking algorithm

C) To determine the CRC value by polynomial division

D) To encode the data for transmission

Answer: C) To determine the CRC value by polynomial division

How is the CRC value appended to the data?

A) Before the data

B) After the data

C) It is not appended; it replaces part of the data

D) It is encrypted before being appended

Answer: B) After the data

What is the length of the CRC code determined by?

A) The length of the data

B) The length of the generator polynomial

C) The total number of bits in the packet

D) The number of errors that need to be corrected

Answer: B) The length of the generator polynomial

What happens if the CRC value calculated at the receiver does not match the appended CRC?

A) The data is considered correct

B) The data is corrupted and needs to be retransmitted

C) The CRC value is ignored

D) The receiver automatically corrects the error

Answer: B) The data is corrupted and needs to be retransmitted

Which of the following is a common use case for CRC?

A) Error detection in file transfers

B) Data encryption

C) Data compression

D) Network routing

Answer: A) Error detection in file transfers

In a CRC check, what is the remainder?

A) The original data

B) The data after polynomial division

C) The calculated CRC value

D) The generator polynomial

Answer: C) The calculated CRC value

Which of the following statements is true about CRC?

A) CRC can detect all possible errors.

B) CRC can detect burst errors more effectively than single-bit errors.

C) CRC cannot be used in real-time systems.

D) CRC is a method of data compression.

Answer: B) CRC can detect burst errors more effectively than single-bit errors.

What is the minimum length of a CRC code for error detection?

A) One bit

B) Two bits

C) The length of the generator polynomial minus one

D) The length of the data

Answer: C) The length of the generator polynomial minus one

Which of the following CRC polynomial is commonly used for Ethernet?

A) CRC-8

B) CRC-16

C) CRC-32

D) CRC-4

Answer: C) CRC-32

What is a key advantage of using CRC over simple parity checks?

A) CRC can detect single-bit errors only.

B) CRC is simpler to implement.

C) CRC can detect multiple-bit and burst errors.

D) CRC requires less overhead.

Answer: C) CRC can detect multiple-bit and burst errors.

In a CRC calculation, the data is usually treated as which type of number?

A) Decimal

B) Binary

C) Hexadecimal

D) Octal

Answer: B) Binary

How does the generator polynomial affect the CRC?

A) It determines the size of the data packet.

B) It defines the error detection capability of the CRC.

C) It must be known only by the sender.

D) It changes for every data packet.

Answer: B) It defines the error detection capability of the CRC.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using CRC?

A) High error detection capability

B) Simplicity in implementation

C) Ability to correct errors

D) Efficiency in overhead

Answer: C) Ability to correct errors

When using CRC, how are bits shifted during the calculation?

A) Left-shifted

B) Right-shifted

C) Circularly shifted

D) Randomly shifted

Answer: A) Left-shifted

If a received message has a non-zero CRC value, what does that indicate?

A) The message is valid.

B) The message has an error.

C) The message is compressed.

D) The CRC calculation failed.

Answer: B) The message has an error.

In the context of CRC, what is a "burst error"?

A) An error that affects only one bit

B) An error that affects two bits in a sequence

C) An error that affects multiple bits in a contiguous block

D) An error that affects the CRC bits only

Answer: C) An error that affects multiple bits in a contiguous block

How is the generator polynomial typically represented in CRC calculations?

A) As a binary number

B) As a hexadecimal number

C) As a decimal number

D) As a string of characters

Answer: A) As a binary number

MCQ Questions on Parity

What is the primary purpose of using parity in data communication?

A) To compress data

B) To detect errors in data transmission

C) To encrypt data

D) To increase transmission speed

Answer: B) To detect errors in data transmission

Which of the following describes even parity?

A) The number of 1s in the data is even.

B) The number of 1s in the data is odd.

C) Only the last bit is checked.

D) Parity is calculated based on even-positioned bits only.

Answer: A) The number of 1s in the data is even.

In odd parity, what is added to a data set with an even number of 1s?

A) 0
B) 1

C) The data is unchanged.

D) A checksum is added.

Answer: B) 1

How does parity checking detect errors?

A) By comparing data with a previous version

B) By checking if the number of 1s matches the expected parity

C) By ensuring all bits are transmitted in sequence

D) By using a separate error-correction code

Answer: B) By checking if the number of 1s matches the expected parity

What is the main limitation of parity checking?

A) It requires too much processing power.

B) It can only detect single-bit errors.

C) It cannot detect an even number of bit errors.

D) It slows down the data transmission rate.

Answer: C) It cannot detect an even number of bit errors.

Which of the following statements about parity bits is true?

A) Parity bits can be added at any position in the data.

B) Parity bits are always included at the beginning of the data.

C) Parity bits are used only for error correction.

D) Parity bits help to maintain the integrity of the data during transmission.

Answer: D) Parity bits help to maintain the integrity of the data during transmission.

What type of error can parity checking NOT detect?

A) Single-bit error

B) Double-bit error

C) Burst error

D) None of the above

Answer: B) Double-bit error

In a data packet of 8 bits, if the number of 1s is 5, what would be the even parity bit?

A) 0

B) 1

C) The data remains unchanged.

D) A checksum is added.

Answer: B) 1

If a system uses even parity and receives the data 1101001, what does it assume about the
transmission?

A) The data is error-free.

B) The data has an error.

C) The parity is invalid.

D) The data needs to be resent.

Answer: B) The data has an error.

Which of the following scenarios would require the use of parity checking?

A) Transmitting audio data

B) Sending video files

C) Sending simple text messages

D) None of the above

Answer: C) Sending simple text messages

What happens in a parity check when the received data has an incorrect parity bit?

A) The data is accepted without change.

B) The data is flagged as potentially corrupted.

C) The system automatically corrects the error.

D) The data is stored for later review.

Answer: B) The data is flagged as potentially corrupted.

What is the overhead associated with adding a parity bit to a data packet?

A) It increases the data packet size by 1 bit.

B) It increases the data packet size by 2 bits.

C) It has no effect on the data size.

D) It reduces the effective data transmission rate.

Answer: A) It increases the data packet size by 1 bit.

What is the best use case for parity checking?

A) Critical financial transactions

B) High-speed data transfers

C) Simple error detection in low-error environments

D) Real-time streaming applications

Answer: C) Simple error detection in low-error environments

In a scenario using odd parity, what should the parity bit be for the data 011011?

A) 0

B) 1

C) The data remains unchanged.

D) A checksum is added.

Answer: A) 0
Which parity scheme is more reliable for error detection?

A) Even parity

B) Odd parity

C) Both are equally reliable

D) Neither is reliable

Answer: C) Both are equally reliable (as they can only detect single-bit errors).

What is the maximum number of errors that can be detected using parity checking?

A) 1 error

B) 2 errors

C) Any number of errors

D) None

Answer: A) 1 error (but not if there’s an even number of errors).

Which method can be combined with parity to enhance error detection capabilities?

A) Hamming code

B) Data compression

C) Encryption

D) None of the above

Answer: A) Hamming code

What is a common use of parity bits in computer systems?

A) Data storage in RAM

B) Error detection in data packets

C) Data encryption

D) Data compression
Answer: B) Error detection in data packets

If a system uses even parity and the original data is 1010, what will the transmitted data be including
the parity bit?

A) 1010

B) 10101

C) 10100

D) 10010

Answer: C) 10100

Which statement best describes the effectiveness of parity bits?

A) They provide a guaranteed error correction method.

B) They can only detect single-bit errors in data.

C) They are a foolproof method of data verification.

D) They are primarily used for data compression.

Answer: B) They can only detect single-bit errors in data.

MCQ Questions on Checksum

What is the primary purpose of a checksum?

A) To encrypt data

B) To compress data

C) To detect errors in data transmission

D) To increase transmission speed

Answer: C) To detect errors in data transmission

How is a checksum typically calculated?

A) By adding all the bits of data together

B) By XORing the data bits

C) By taking the average of data values

D) By applying a hash function

Answer: A) By adding all the bits of data together

Which of the following is a common use case for checksums?

A) Data encryption

B) Error detection in file transfers

C) Data compression

D) Network routing

Answer: B) Error detection in file transfers

What happens if the calculated checksum does not match the transmitted checksum?

A) The data is accepted as correct.

B) The data is flagged as potentially corrupted.

C) The system automatically corrects the error.

D) The checksum is ignored.

Answer: B) The data is flagged as potentially corrupted.

What is the simplest form of checksum?

A) XOR checksum

B) One's complement checksum

C) Two's complement checksum

D) CRC checksum

Answer: B) One's complement checksum

In a one’s complement checksum, what does the checksum value represent?

A) The sum of the data bits

B) The bitwise NOT of the sum of the data bits

C) The average of the data bits

D) The maximum value of the data bits

Answer: B) The bitwise NOT of the sum of the data bits

Which of the following statements about checksums is true?

A) Checksums can always correct errors.

B) Checksums can only detect errors, not correct them.

C) Checksums are not reliable for error detection.

D) Checksums require significant processing power.

Answer: B) Checksums can only detect errors, not correct them.

What type of errors can checksums detect?

A) Single-bit errors only

B) Multiple-bit errors only

C) Random errors

D) None of the above

Answer: C) Random errors

Which checksum method is commonly used in Internet protocols, such as TCP/IP?

A) Simple addition checksum

B) XOR checksum

C) One’s complement checksum

D) CRC
Answer: C) One’s complement checksum

What is a limitation of using checksums for error detection?

A) They are slow to compute.

B) They cannot detect all types of errors.

C) They require a lot of memory.

D) They are too complex.

Answer: B) They cannot detect all types of errors.

Which of the following checksum algorithms is used in file integrity checks?

A) CRC

B) MD5

C) SHA-256

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

In the context of checksums, what does "endian-ness" refer to?

A) The speed of checksum computation

B) The order of byte arrangement in multi-byte data

C) The method used to compute the checksum

D) The type of checksum used

Answer: B) The order of byte arrangement in multi-byte data

What is the main advantage of using checksums over parity bits?

A) Checksums can correct errors.

B) Checksums provide a higher error detection capability.

C) Checksums are simpler to implement.

D) Checksums are faster to compute.

Answer: B) Checksums provide a higher error detection capability.

What is the checksum for the data 11010011 in one’s complement?

A) 00101100

B) 00101101

C) 11010010

D) 00000000

Answer: A) 00101100

What is the typical size of a checksum in network protocols?

A) 4 bits

B) 8 bits

C) 16 bits

D) 32 bits

Answer: C) 16 bits

How are checksums typically used in the TCP protocol?

A) To encrypt the data

B) To ensure data integrity by verifying received data

C) To compress data before transmission

D) To authenticate users

Answer: B) To ensure data integrity by verifying received data

What does a checksum of 0000 indicate when received?

A) The data is corrupted.

B) The data is correct.

C) The data requires retransmission.

D) The checksum is invalid.

Answer: B) The data is correct.

What is a common method for calculating checksums in network packets?

A) Using a hash function

B) XORing the bits

C) Adding up the values of all bytes and taking the complement

D) Comparing with a pre-defined checksum value

Answer: C) Adding up the values of all bytes and taking the complement

Why might a checksum not be sufficient for all error detection needs?

A) It is too complex to implement.

B) It can be fooled by certain patterns of errors.

C) It takes too long to compute.

D) It is only useful for small data sizes.

Answer: B) It can be fooled by certain patterns of errors.

What kind of checksum is used in Ethernet frames?

A) CRC checksum

B) One’s complement checksum

C) MD5 checksum

D) XOR checksum

Answer: A) CRC checksum

MCQ Questions on Switch Working

What is the primary function of a network switch?

A) To route data between different networks

B) To connect devices within the same network and manage data traffic

C) To amplify network signals

D) To encrypt data packets

Answer: B) To connect devices within the same network and manage data traffic

How does a switch determine where to forward incoming data frames?

A) By using IP addresses

B) By using MAC addresses

C) By using port numbers

D) By using DNS records

Answer: B) By using MAC addresses

What is a MAC address?

A) A unique identifier assigned to a network interface for communications

B) A protocol used for data encryption

C) An address used for routing data across the Internet

D) A method of checking data integrity

Answer: A) A unique identifier assigned to a network interface for communications

In which layer of the OSI model does a switch operate?

A) Physical Layer

B) Data Link Layer

C) Network Layer

D) Transport Layer

Answer: B) Data Link Layer

What is the purpose of the switch's MAC address table?

A) To store IP addresses

B) To map MAC addresses to switch ports for efficient data forwarding

C) To track user login credentials

D) To manage the network bandwidth

Answer: B) To map MAC addresses to switch ports for efficient data forwarding

What happens when a switch receives a frame with an unknown destination MAC address?

A) It drops the frame.

B) It sends the frame to all ports (broadcast).

C) It queues the frame for later processing.

D) It forwards the frame to the router.

Answer: B) It sends the frame to all ports (broadcast).

How do switches improve network performance compared to hubs?

A) By forwarding data to all ports

B) By creating separate collision domains for each connected device

C) By using only one port for all traffic

D) By storing all data packets in a central location

Answer: B) By creating separate collision domains for each connected device

What is the process called when a switch learns the MAC addresses of devices on the network?

A) Filtering

B) Learning

C) Flooding

D) Routing
Answer: B) Learning

What is the maximum number of devices that can be connected to a switch?

A) Limited by the number of ports on the switch

B) 255 devices

C) Unlimited

D) Determined by network topology

Answer: A) Limited by the number of ports on the switch

Which switching method allows a switch to start forwarding a frame as soon as it receives the
destination address?

A) Store-and-Forward Switching

B) Cut-Through Switching

C) Fragment-Free Switching

D) Virtual Switching

Answer: B) Cut-Through Switching

What is the main disadvantage of cut-through switching?

A) Increased latency

B) Increased chances of forwarding corrupted frames

C) Higher cost

D) Limited number of ports

Answer: B) Increased chances of forwarding corrupted frames

In a managed switch, what features can be configured?

A) VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks)

B) Quality of Service (QoS)

C) Port mirroring

D) All of the above

Answer: D) All of the above

What does VLAN stand for, and what is its purpose?

A) Virtual Local Area Network; to segment network traffic for better management

B) Variable Local Area Network; to change bandwidth dynamically

C) Visual Local Area Network; to improve network visibility

D) Virtual Link Area Network; to create links between different networks

Answer: A) Virtual Local Area Network; to segment network traffic for better management

How does a switch handle broadcast frames?

A) It ignores them.

B) It sends them to a single device.

C) It forwards them to all connected devices.

D) It sends them to the router.

Answer: C) It forwards them to all connected devices.

What is port security in a switch?

A) A feature that allows only authorized devices to connect to specific ports

B) A method to encrypt data transmitted through switch ports

C) A configuration to increase port speed

D) A firewall feature for protecting the switch

Answer: A) A feature that allows only authorized devices to connect to specific ports

Which type of switch is typically used in larger networks for traffic management?

A) Unmanaged switch
B) Layer 2 switch

C) Layer 3 switch

D) Hub

Answer: C) Layer 3 switch

What is the difference between a Layer 2 switch and a Layer 3 switch?

A) Layer 2 switches operate only on MAC addresses; Layer 3 switches can route based on IP
addresses.

B) Layer 2 switches are more expensive than Layer 3 switches.

C) Layer 2 switches can manage multiple VLANs; Layer 3 switches cannot.

D) There is no difference.

Answer: A) Layer 2 switches operate only on MAC addresses; Layer 3 switches can route based on IP
addresses.

What is Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) used for in a network?

A) To increase the speed of data transmission

B) To prevent loops in a network topology

C) To assign IP addresses automatically

D) To provide a secure connection between devices

Answer: B) To prevent loops in a network topology

What is the purpose of link aggregation in switches?

A) To reduce the cost of network infrastructure

B) To combine multiple network connections for higher bandwidth and redundancy

C) To isolate network segments

D) To simplify network configuration

Answer: B) To combine multiple network connections for higher bandwidth and redundancy

What does the term "broadcast storm" refer to in networking?

A) A large data packet causing delays

B) Excessive broadcast traffic flooding the network, causing performance issues

C) A network failure due to a power outage

D) An attack on network devices

Answer: B) Excessive broadcast traffic flooding the network, causing performance issues

MCQ Questions on ALOHA and Multiple Access Protocols

What is the primary purpose of multiple access protocols?

A) To encrypt data

B) To allow multiple users to share a communication medium

C) To compress data

D) To route data packets

Answer: B) To allow multiple users to share a communication medium

ALOHA is a type of which kind of access protocol?

A) Controlled access

B) Random access

C) Token-based access

D) Time-division access

Answer: B) Random access

In which environment is ALOHA typically used?

A) Wired networks only

B) Wireless networks
C) Optical networks

D) Fiber optic networks

Answer: B) Wireless networks

What is the main disadvantage of ALOHA?

A) High cost

B) Complexity

C) Low throughput due to collisions

D) Limited range

Answer: C) Low throughput due to collisions

What are the two main types of ALOHA?

A) Simple and Complex ALOHA

B) Pure ALOHA and Slotted ALOHA

C) Random and Controlled ALOHA

D) Digital and Analog ALOHA

Answer: B) Pure ALOHA and Slotted ALOHA

How does Pure ALOHA work?

A) Users transmit whenever they have data, without waiting for a time slot

B) Users transmit only during designated time slots

C) Users take turns transmitting based on a token

D) Users alternate transmissions in a round-robin fashion

Answer: A) Users transmit whenever they have data, without waiting for a time slot

What is the maximum theoretical throughput of Pure ALOHA?

A) 18.4%
B) 36.8%

C) 50%

D) 100%

Answer: A) 18.4%

How does Slotted ALOHA improve upon Pure ALOHA?

A) By allowing for multiple channels

B) By dividing time into discrete slots for transmission

C) By increasing the maximum packet size

D) By implementing a token-passing mechanism

Answer: B) By dividing time into discrete slots for transmission

What is the maximum theoretical throughput of Slotted ALOHA?

A) 18.4%

B) 36.8%

C) 50%

D) 100%

Answer: B) 36.8%

In ALOHA systems, what happens when a collision occurs?

A) The data is successfully transmitted.

B) The data is lost permanently.

C) The transmitting stations wait a random amount of time before retransmitting.

D) The network shuts down temporarily.

Answer: C) The transmitting stations wait a random amount of time before retransmitting.

What mechanism can be used to reduce collisions in ALOHA protocols?

A) Increasing transmission power

B) Using more frequency bands

C) Implementing carrier sensing

D) Using a token ring system

Answer: C) Implementing carrier sensing

In a scenario using Slotted ALOHA, if the time slot duration is too long, what might occur?

A) Increased throughput

B) Decreased collision probability

C) Increased latency and reduced efficiency

D) Improved data integrity

Answer: C) Increased latency and reduced efficiency

Which of the following is a key characteristic of ALOHA?

A) Predictable access patterns

B) Simple implementation

C) High efficiency in channel utilization

D) Low delay

Answer: B) Simple implementation

What is the primary reason for using random access protocols like ALOHA?

A) To guarantee data delivery

B) To simplify network design

C) To accommodate variable and bursty traffic

D) To eliminate the need for networking hardware

Answer: C) To accommodate variable and bursty traffic

What is the typical application of ALOHA protocols?

A) Telephone networks

B) Satellite communication

C) Fiber optic networks

D) Local area networks

Answer: B) Satellite communication

In which situation would you prefer using ALOHA over other multiple access protocols?

A) When low latency is critical

B) When the number of users is fixed and known

C) When the traffic is sporadic and unpredictable

D) When data integrity is the highest priority

Answer: C) When the traffic is sporadic and unpredictable

Which of the following best describes a "collision" in ALOHA?

A) A successful transmission

B) Simultaneous transmissions from multiple users

C) A failure to transmit data

D) A method to increase throughput

Answer: B) Simultaneous transmissions from multiple users

What is the primary challenge faced by ALOHA protocols in a crowded network?

A) High power consumption

B) Data encryption difficulties

C) Increased collision rates leading to decreased throughput

D) Complicated implementation procedures

Answer: C) Increased collision rates leading to decreased throughput

Which of the following statements is true about the ALOHA protocol?

A) It guarantees that all data will be transmitted successfully.

B) It requires complex synchronization between users.

C) It allows users to transmit data anytime, leading to potential collisions.

D) It is only suitable for wired networks.

Answer: C) It allows users to transmit data anytime, leading to potential collisions.

Which access protocol is often compared to ALOHA for its efficiency?

A) CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection)

B) Token Ring

C) Frame Relay

D) TDM (Time Division Multiplexing)

Answer: A) CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection)

MCQ Questions on CSMA and CSMA/CD

What does CSMA stand for?

A) Carrier Sense Multiple Access

B) Centralized System Multiple Access

C) Collision Sense Multiple Access

D) Circuit Switching Multiple Access

Answer: A) Carrier Sense Multiple Access

What is the primary purpose of CSMA?

A) To manage routing in networks

B) To allow multiple devices to share a communication channel

C) To encrypt data packets

D) To compress data for transmission

Answer: B) To allow multiple devices to share a communication channel

In CSMA, what does a device do before transmitting data?

A) It waits for a specific time slot.

B) It listens to the channel to check if it is free.

C) It sends a request to transmit.

D) It checks for error rates.

Answer: B) It listens to the channel to check if it is free.

What is the main disadvantage of CSMA?

A) High cost

B) Potential for collisions

C) Complexity of implementation

D) Low transmission speed

Answer: B) Potential for collisions

What happens in CSMA/CD when a collision is detected?

A) All devices stop transmitting immediately.

B) The devices involved in the collision retransmit their data.

C) Only the device that detects the collision retransmits.

D) The network switches to a different protocol.

Answer: B) The devices involved in the collision retransmit their data.

What does CD stand for in CSMA/CD?

A) Collision Detection
B) Collision Domain

C) Circuit Design

D) Channel Division

Answer: A) Collision Detection

Which layer of the OSI model does CSMA/CD operate in?

A) Physical Layer

B) Data Link Layer

C) Network Layer

D) Transport Layer

Answer: B) Data Link Layer

How does CSMA/CD improve network efficiency?

A) By allowing simultaneous transmissions

B) By detecting and managing collisions

C) By encrypting data packets

D) By increasing bandwidth

Answer: B) By detecting and managing collisions

Which network technology primarily uses CSMA/CD?

A) Wi-Fi

B) Ethernet

C) Token Ring

D) Bluetooth

Answer: B) Ethernet

What happens if two devices transmit simultaneously in a CSMA/CD network?

A) Their data is transmitted successfully without issues.

B) A collision occurs, and both devices must retransmit.

C) The network crashes.

D) Only one device's data is sent, while the other is ignored.

Answer: B) A collision occurs, and both devices must retransmit.

In a CSMA/CD system, after a collision is detected, what method is commonly used to wait before
retransmitting?

A) Fixed time delay

B) Random backoff time

C) Immediate retransmission

D) Scheduled time slots

Answer: B) Random backoff time

What is the maximum theoretical efficiency of CSMA/CD?

A) 18.4%

B) 36.8%

C) 66.7%

D) 100%

Answer: C) 66.7%

How does the random backoff mechanism work in CSMA/CD?

A) Devices wait for a fixed period before attempting to retransmit.

B) Devices select a random time from a range before retransmitting.

C) Devices transmit their data immediately after detecting a free channel.

D) Devices transmit in a round-robin fashion.

Answer: B) Devices select a random time from a range before retransmitting.

What is the effect of increased network load on CSMA/CD?

A) Increased efficiency

B) Decreased collisions

C) Higher collision rates and lower throughput

D) Enhanced data integrity

Answer: C) Higher collision rates and lower throughput

Which scenario would likely cause a CSMA/CD network to perform poorly?

A) A small number of connected devices

B) All devices are transmitting at the same time

C) Devices are listening before transmitting

D) Devices are properly spaced out

Answer: B) All devices are transmitting at the same time

What happens when a CSMA/CD device successfully transmits data?

A) It stops listening to the channel.

B) It resets its backoff counter.

C) It waits for an acknowledgment from the receiver.

D) It begins to transmit immediately again.

Answer: C) It waits for an acknowledgment from the receiver.

What improvement does CSMA/CA provide over CSMA/CD?

A) Allows for full-duplex communication

B) Prevents collisions by using a channel reservation method

C) Increases the maximum throughput

D) Reduces the cost of network devices

Answer: B) Prevents collisions by using a channel reservation method

Which of the following is a key characteristic of CSMA protocols?

A) High collision rates

B) Simple and efficient data transmission

C) Fixed time slots for each device

D) Requires a central controller

Answer: B) Simple and efficient data transmission

What is the primary reason for the decline in the use of CSMA/CD in modern networks?

A) Incompatibility with wireless devices

B) Shift to faster technologies and switched Ethernet

C) High implementation costs

D) Complexity of configuration

Answer: B) Shift to faster technologies and switched Ethernet

What is a major advantage of using CSMA/CD in a network?

A) Simplified network management

B) Effective handling of large amounts of data

C) High tolerance for collisions

D) Fair access to the network for all devices

Answer: D) Fair access to the network for all devices

MCQ Questions on Random Access Protocols

What is a random access protocol?

A) A method where devices take turns accessing the channel

B) A technique that allows devices to transmit whenever they have data

C) A protocol that requires synchronization before transmission

D) A method for fixed time-slot allocation

Answer: B) A technique that allows devices to transmit whenever they have data

Which of the following is a key characteristic of random access protocols?

A) High predictability in data transmission

B) Possibility of collisions

C) Guaranteed data integrity

D) Controlled access to the medium

Answer: B) Possibility of collisions

What happens when two devices transmit simultaneously in a random access protocol?

A) Data is successfully transmitted by both.

B) A collision occurs, leading to data loss.

C) Only one device's data is transmitted.

D) The network resets.

Answer: B) A collision occurs, leading to data loss.

Which of the following is an example of a random access protocol?

A) Token Ring

B) ALOHA

C) Time Division Multiple Access (TDMA)

D) Frame Relay

Answer: B) ALOHA

What is the primary goal of random access protocols?

A) To minimize latency

B) To maximize throughput

C) To allow multiple users to share the same communication channel efficiently

D) To ensure data security

Answer: C) To allow multiple users to share the same communication channel efficiently

What technique does CSMA/CD use to manage collisions?

A) Immediate retransmission

B) Random backoff time

C) Priority queuing

D) Time slot allocation

Answer: B) Random backoff time

What is the maximum theoretical throughput of Pure ALOHA?

A) 18.4%

B) 36.8%

C) 50%

D) 100%

Answer: A) 18.4%

Which protocol variant improves the efficiency of Pure ALOHA by introducing time slots?

A) Slotted ALOHA

B) CSMA

C) CSMA/CD

D) Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)

Answer: A) Slotted ALOHA

In random access protocols, what typically happens after a collision is detected?

A) The network is reset.

B) The devices stop transmitting permanently.

C) Devices wait for a random amount of time before retransmitting.

D) The devices switch to a different protocol.

Answer: C) Devices wait for a random amount of time before retransmitting.

What is one disadvantage of random access protocols?

A) They require complex hardware.

B) They cannot be used in wired networks.

C) They can lead to high collision rates under heavy load.

D) They offer no flexibility in data transmission.

Answer: C) They can lead to high collision rates under heavy load.

Which of the following situations is most suitable for random access protocols?

A) Continuous data streaming

B) Sporadic data transmission

C) Constant heavy traffic

D) Real-time applications requiring low latency

Answer: B) Sporadic data transmission

What is a primary advantage of using random access protocols in networks?

A) Guaranteed delivery of packets

B) Simplicity and flexibility for bursty traffic

C) Higher bandwidth utilization

D) Centralized control over data transmission

Answer: B) Simplicity and flexibility for bursty traffic

In which layer of the OSI model do random access protocols primarily operate?

A) Application Layer

B) Transport Layer

C) Network Layer

D) Data Link Layer

Answer: D) Data Link Layer

Which protocol uses a "listen before talk" strategy?

A) ALOHA

B) CSMA/CD

C) Token Ring

D) TDM

Answer: B) CSMA/CD

What is the main purpose of implementing a backoff algorithm in random access protocols?

A) To reduce the chance of future collisions

B) To increase transmission speed

C) To ensure all devices can access the medium simultaneously

D) To eliminate the need for data packets

Answer: A) To reduce the chance of future collisions

Which of the following is a disadvantage of ALOHA protocols compared to CSMA?

A) Simplicity of implementation

B) Lower collision probability

C) Higher throughput efficiency

D) More complex error detection

Answer: C) Higher throughput efficiency

What type of traffic pattern is most efficiently handled by random access protocols?

A) Constant and predictable traffic

B) Bursty traffic

C) Large file transfers

D) Voice and video streaming

Answer: B) Bursty traffic

How does Slotted ALOHA differ from Pure ALOHA?

A) Slotted ALOHA allows for multiple access points.

B) Slotted ALOHA has designated time slots for transmissions.

C) Slotted ALOHA requires more complex hardware.

D) Slotted ALOHA does not allow for retransmission.

Answer: B) Slotted ALOHA has designated time slots for transmissions.

In which application scenario might you prefer using a random access protocol?

A) A large corporate network with constant data transfer

B) A satellite communication system with sporadic user data

C) A real-time gaming server

D) A dedicated point-to-point link

Answer: B) A satellite communication system with sporadic user data

What is the primary reason for the decline in the use of ALOHA in modern networks?

A) High complexity

B) Limited scalability

C) Shift to more efficient protocols like CSMA/CD

D) Increased hardware costs

Answer: C) Shift to more efficient protocols like CSMA/CD

MCQ Questions on Controlled Access Protocols

What is the primary purpose of controlled access protocols?

A) To allow multiple devices to transmit simultaneously

B) To prevent collisions and ensure orderly access to the medium

C) To maximize data throughput

D) To encrypt data during transmission

Answer: B) To prevent collisions and ensure orderly access to the medium

Which of the following is an example of a controlled access protocol?

A) ALOHA

B) CSMA/CD

C) Token Ring

D) Frequency Division Multiple Access (FDMA)

Answer: C) Token Ring

In a Token Ring network, how is access to the medium controlled?

A) Devices transmit based on a random selection.

B) A token circulates, granting the holder the right to transmit.

C) Each device is assigned a fixed time slot.

D) The network controller manages all transmissions.

Answer: B) A token circulates, granting the holder the right to transmit.

What happens to the token in a Token Ring network after a device transmits data?

A) The token is destroyed.

B) The token is passed to the next device in the ring.

C) The token is kept by the transmitting device.

D) The token is reset to the beginning.

Answer: B) The token is passed to the next device in the ring.

Which of the following methods is commonly used in polling protocols?

A) Random access

B) Token passing

C) Centralized polling by a master device

D) Carrier sensing

Answer: C) Centralized polling by a master device

What is a disadvantage of using polling protocols?

A) High efficiency with bursty traffic

B) Increased latency due to waiting for the poll

C) Simplicity of implementation

D) Elimination of collisions

Answer: B) Increased latency due to waiting for the poll

In a polling system, how does the master device determine which slave device can transmit?

A) By random selection

B) By sequentially polling each device

C) By analyzing channel conditions

D) By priority levels set for each device

Answer: B) By sequentially polling each device

What happens if the token is lost in a Token Ring network?

A) The network stops functioning.

B) A new token is generated to restore communication.

C) Devices continue to transmit without control.

D) The network resets automatically.

Answer: B) A new token is generated to restore communication.

Which type of network topology is typically associated with controlled access protocols like Token
Ring?

A) Star topology

B) Bus topology

C) Ring topology

D) Mesh topology

Answer: C) Ring topology

What is the main benefit of using controlled access protocols in networks?

A) Higher complexity leads to better security.

B) Guaranteed access to the medium without collisions.

C) Allows for faster data transmission rates.

D) Reduces the need for hardware resources.

Answer: B) Guaranteed access to the medium without collisions.

Which of the following describes a scenario where controlled access protocols are most beneficial?

A) Environments with unpredictable and bursty data traffic

B) Networks requiring strict timing and order of access

C) Systems with minimal data transfer needs

D) Peer-to-peer networks with no centralized control

Answer: B) Networks requiring strict timing and order of access

What is a major drawback of Token Ring networks compared to Ethernet?

A) Higher collision rates

B) More complex hardware requirements

C) Slower transmission speeds

D) Inability to connect multiple devices

Answer: B) More complex hardware requirements

In controlled access protocols, what is a common way to resolve contention for the medium?

A) Allowing random access

B) Assigning fixed time slots

C) Using a token or polling mechanism

D) Increasing transmission power

Answer: C) Using a token or polling mechanism

Which type of access method does not require a token?

A) Token Ring

B) Polling

C) CSMA/CA

D) Token Bus

Answer: C) CSMA/CA

What happens during a polling cycle in a polling protocol?

A) All devices transmit simultaneously.

B) The master device checks each device one by one.

C) The channel is open for any device to transmit.

D) Data is transmitted at scheduled intervals.

Answer: B) The master device checks each device one by one.

How does a controlled access protocol ensure fairness among devices?

A) By allowing devices to transmit at any time

B) By granting access based on priority levels

C) By providing each device with a chance to transmit in an orderly manner

D) By using a random number generator

Answer: C) By providing each device with a chance to transmit in an orderly manner

Which protocol might be used in a network where devices need to share a medium without
collisions?

A) Ethernet

B) Token Ring

C) ALOHA

D) CSMA/CD

Answer: B) Token Ring

In a controlled access environment, what typically happens to network efficiency during high traffic?

A) Efficiency increases due to controlled access.

B) Efficiency decreases due to increased waiting times.

C) Efficiency remains constant.

D) Efficiency is irrelevant in this scenario.

Answer: B) Efficiency decreases due to increased waiting times.

What mechanism does a Token Bus network use to control access?

A) Random access

B) Polling

C) Token passing

D) Carrier sensing

Answer: C) Token passing

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of controlled access protocols?

A) High predictability in data transmission

B) Possibility of collisions

C) Organized access to the medium

D) Reduced chances of data loss

Answer: B) Possibility of collisions

MCQ Questions on Ethernet Protocol

What does the Ethernet protocol primarily operate at?

A) Network Layer

B) Data Link Layer

C) Transport Layer

D) Application Layer

Answer: B) Data Link Layer

Which of the following is a standard Ethernet frame format?

A) Preamble, Destination MAC, Source MAC, Type/Length, Data, CRC

B) Source IP, Destination IP, Type, Data, Checksum

C) Header, Body, Footer

D) Address, Control, Data

Answer: A) Preamble, Destination MAC, Source MAC, Type/Length, Data, CRC

What is the maximum length of a standard Ethernet frame (IEEE 802.3)?

A) 1518 bytes

B) 1024 bytes

C) 2048 bytes

D) 4096 bytes

Answer: A) 1518 bytes

What mechanism does Ethernet use to detect collisions?

A) Token passing

B) Acknowledgment messages

C) Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)

D) Polling

Answer: C) Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)

In an Ethernet network, what happens when a collision is detected?

A) The transmitting devices stop transmitting.

B) The network resets.

C) The devices immediately retransmit.

D) The devices wait for a random backoff time before retransmitting.

Answer: D) The devices wait for a random backoff time before retransmitting.

Which Ethernet standard supports speeds of 10 Mbps?

A) 100BASE-T

B) 10BASE-T
C) 1000BASE-T

D) 10GBASE-T

Answer: B) 10BASE-T

What is the main function of the Ethernet header?

A) To store the data being transmitted

B) To provide addressing and control information

C) To encrypt the data

D) To verify the integrity of the data

Answer: B) To provide addressing and control information

Which of the following is NOT a type of Ethernet cabling?

A) Cat5e

B) Fiber optic

C) Coaxial

D) HDMI

Answer: D) HDMI

What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?

A) To identify the sender

B) To synchronize the transmission

C) To indicate the type of data

D) To check for errors

Answer: B) To synchronize the transmission

In Ethernet, what is the significance of the MAC address?

A) It identifies the network layer.

B) It identifies the device on the local network.

C) It specifies the type of data being transmitted.

D) It controls access to the medium.

Answer: B) It identifies the device on the local network.

What is the difference between half-duplex and full-duplex Ethernet?

A) Half-duplex allows simultaneous two-way communication, while full-duplex does not.

B) Full-duplex allows simultaneous two-way communication, while half-duplex does not.

C) Both modes allow only one-way communication.

D) Both modes require a token for access.

Answer: B) Full-duplex allows simultaneous two-way communication, while half-duplex does not.

Which of the following Ethernet standards supports speeds of up to 1 Gbps?

A) 10BASE-T

B) 100BASE-T

C) 1000BASE-T

D) 10GBASE-T

Answer: C) 1000BASE-T

What is the function of the CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check) in an Ethernet frame?

A) To determine the MAC address

B) To synchronize the transmission

C) To check for errors in the transmitted data

D) To encrypt the data

Answer: C) To check for errors in the transmitted data

What topology does a traditional Ethernet network use?

A) Ring topology

B) Star topology

C) Bus topology

D) Mesh topology

Answer: C) Bus topology (though modern Ethernet typically uses star topology with switches)

What is the role of a switch in an Ethernet network?

A) To amplify signals

B) To connect devices and manage data traffic

C) To serve as a router

D) To provide wireless access

Answer: B) To connect devices and manage data traffic

In which scenario would you typically use a crossover cable in an Ethernet network?

A) To connect a computer to a switch

B) To connect two switches together

C) To connect two similar devices directly, like two computers

D) To connect a computer to a router

Answer: C) To connect two similar devices directly, like two computers

What feature distinguishes 10GBASE-T from previous Ethernet standards?

A) It uses fiber optic cabling exclusively.

B) It supports 10 Gbps speeds over twisted pair cabling.

C) It only works in half-duplex mode.

D) It requires special connectors not used in other standards.

Answer: B) It supports 10 Gbps speeds over twisted pair cabling.

Which Ethernet protocol variant allows for the use of VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks)?
A) 10BASE-T

B) 802.1Q

C) CSMA/CD

D) 1000BASE-SX

Answer: B) 802.1Q

What is the main purpose of using VLANs in an Ethernet network?

A) To increase speed

B) To enhance security and manageability

C) To eliminate the need for switches

D) To connect different networks directly

Answer: B) To enhance security and manageability

In Ethernet networks, what does the term "collision domain" refer to?

A) The area where data is stored

B) The range within which devices can communicate without interference

C) The portion of the network where packet collisions can occur

D) The physical connections between devices

Answer: C) The portion of the network where packet collisions can occur