Basic Mechanical Engineering

MCQ PDF Part 1

1) A flat surface can be produced by a lathe machine, if the cutting tool moves
_____

a. parallel to the axis of rotation of workpiece

b. perpendicular to the axis of rotation of workpiece
c. at an angle of 450
d. none of the above

ANSWER: perpendicular to the axis of rotation of workpiece

2) What is the function of cone pulley drive in lathe machines?

a. Drive the lead screw

b. Change the spindle speed
c. Drive the tail-stock
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Change the spindle speed

3) Which of the following is a mechanism for mechanized movements of the

carriage along longitudinal axis?

a. Cross-slide
b. Compound rest
c. Apron
d. Saddle

ANSWER: Apron

Basic Mechanical Engineering MCQ PDF Part 1

4) The function of taper turning process is to ____

a. reduce the diameter of a workpiece along its length

b. reduce the diameter by removing material about an axis offset from the axis of
workpiece
c. remove the material from end surface of a workpiece
d. all of the above

ANSWER: reduce the diameter of a workpiece along its length

5) The process of bevelling sharp ends of a workpiece is called as ________

a. knurling
b. grooving
c. facing
d. chamfering

ANSWER: chamfering

6) In an isolated system, ________ can be transferred between the system and

its surrounding.

a. only energy
b. only mass
c. both energy and mass
d. neither energy nor mass

ANSWER: neither energy nor mass

7) Which of the following is an extensive property?

a. Volume
b. Pressure
c. Viscosity
d. All of the above
ANSWER: Volume

Basic Mechanical Engineering MCQ PDF Part 1

8) How is absolute pressure measured?

a. Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure

b. Gauge pressure – Atmospheric pressure
c. Gauge pressure / Atmospheric pressure
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure

9) The extensive properties of a system, _______

a. are independent of the mass of the system

b. depend upon temperature of the system
c. depend upon the mass of the system
d. none of the above

ANSWER: depend upon the mass of the system

10) An isobaric process, has constant _____

a. density
b. pressure
c. temperature
d. volume

ANSWER: pressure

Basic Mechanical Engineering MCQ PDF Part 1

11) Which of the following energy conversion devices convert heat into work?
a. Electrical generators
b. I. C engines
c. Condensers
d. All of the above

ANSWER: I. C engines

12) Lancashire boilers are ______

a. externally fired boilers

b. internally fired boilers
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: internally fired boilers

Basic Mechanical Engineering MCQ PDF Part 1

13) Smoke tube boilers have large water to steam ratio, hence _____

a. have high evaporation rates

b. are slow in operations
c. temperature stresses inducing failure of feed water arrangement are maximum
d. all of the above

ANSWER: are slow in operations

14) Which of the following statements are false for reaction turbines?

1. Flow of water can be regulated without any losses

2. It works on the principle of impulse and reaction
3. They are suitable for low heads
4. Water flows at constant atmospheric pressure over the runner

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWER: 1 and 4

15) In four stroke cycle engine, cycle is completed in ______

a. two strokes of the piston

b. two revolutions of the crankshaft
c. three strokes of the piston
d. four revolutions of the crankshaft

ANSWER: two revolutions of the crankshaft

Basic Mechanical Engineering MCQ PDF Part 1

16) Which type of bearings are known as anti friction bearings?

a. Sliding contact bearings

b. Rolling contact bearings
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Rolling contact bearings

17) In roller bearings which type of rolling elements are used?

a. Cylindrical rollers
b. Taper rollers
c. Spherical rollers
d. All of the above

ANSWER: All of the above

18) Why is the load carrying capacity low in ball bearings?

1. Due to line contact between inner race and the ball
2. Due to greater axial dimensions
3. Due to less radial dimensions
4. Due to point contact between inner race and the ball

a. 1 and 3
b. only 1
c. only 4
d. 2 and 4

ANSWER: only 4

Basic Mechanical Engineering MCQ PDF Part 1

19) Cylindrical roller bearings have greater _____

a. axial load carrying capacity

b. thrust load carrying capacity
c. radial load carrying capacity
d. all of the above

ANSWER: radial load carrying capacity

20) Which of the following statements is/are true?

a. Jaw clutch is a positive clutch

b. The power transmitting
capacity of a friction clutch is inversely proportional to the
coefficient of friction between contacting surfaces
c. Driving and driven plates in friction clutches are held together due to radial
force applied by the helical springs
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Jaw clutch is a positive clutch

21) Determine torque transmitted on the pinion shaft if torque transmitted on
gear shaft is 20 Nm.
Consider Gear ratio = 4

a. 8 Nm
b. 5 Nm
c. 80 Nm
d. 16 Nm

ANSWER: 5 Nm

Basic Mechanical Engineering MCQ PDF Part 1

22) Which of the following statements is/are true for gear drives?

a. They can be used for long centre distances

b. They are used to transmit power between non-intersecting and parallel shafts
c. They cannot be used for high reduction ratios
d. All of the above

ANSWER: They are used to transmit power between non-intersecting and

parallel shafts

23) In which power transmitting drive polygon effect is observed?

a. Belt drive
b. Chain drive
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: Chain drive

24) What is meant by gear ratio?

a. The ratio of pinion speed and gear speed

b. The ratio of number of teeth on pinion and number of teeth on gear
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

ANSWER: The ratio of pinion speed and gear speed

Basic Mechanical Engineering MCQ PDF Part 1

25) Which gears are used to connect two intersecting shaft axes?

a. Crossed helical gear

b. Worm and worm wheel
c. Bevel gears
d. All of the above

ANSWER: Bevel gears

26) In stress-strain diagram, up to proportional limit ______

a. stress is inversely proportional to strain

b. force is directly proportional to displacement
c. stress is directly proportional to strain
d. strain is directly proportional to stress

ANSWER: stress is directly proportional to strain

27) Deformation per unit length is called as ________

a. strain
b. stress
c. modulus of elasticity
d. none of the above

ANSWER: strain

Basic Mechanical Engineering MCQ PDF Part 1

28) Which of the following materials do not have a well defined yield point?

a. Heat treated steel

b. Concrete
c. Carbon fiber
d. All of the above

ANSWER: All of the above

29) Factor of safety is the ratio of _________

a. working stress and ultimate strength

b. yield strength and endurance strength
c. ultimate strength and yield strength
d. yield strength and working stress

ANSWER: yield strength and working stress

30) The elongation of a bar is 0.5 mm, when a tensile stress of 200 N/mm2 acts
on it. Determine original length of a bar if modulus of elasticity is 150 x 103.

a. 375.93 mm
b. 300 mm
c. 360 mm
d. None of the above

ANSWER: 375.93 mm

Machine Design
1. The ultimate strength of steel in tension in comparison to shear is in the ratio
of
(a) 1 : l
(b) 2:1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 2 : 3
(e) 1 : 2
Ans: c2. The permissible stress for carbon steel under static loading is generally
taken as
(a) 2000-3000 kg/pm2
(b) 3000-4000 kg/cm2
(c) 4000-4500 kg/cm2
(d) 7500-10,000 kg/cm2
(e) 10,000-15,000 kg/cm2.
Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

3. The property of a material which enables it to resist fracture due to high impact
loads is known as
(a) elasticity
(b) endurance
(c) strength
(d) toughness
(e) resilience.

Ans: d

4. A hot short metal is

(a) brittle when cold
(b) brittle when hot
(c) brittle under all conditions
(d) ductile at high temperature
(e) hard when hot.

Ans: b

5. Guest’s theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials

(a) brittle
(b) ductile
(c) elastic
(d) plastic
(e) tough.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

6. Rankine’s theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials

(a) brittle
(b) ductile
(c) elastic
(d) plastic
(e) tough.

Ans: a

7. If an unsupported uniform cross sectional elastic bar is subjected to a

longitudinal impact from a rigid bob moving with velocity v, then a compressive
wave of intensity sc is propagated through the bar as follows
(a) vpE
(b) vVvF
(c) WpE/2
(d) IvHpE
(e) none of the above, where E = modulus of elasticity and p = mass density.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

8. Tensile strength of a mild steel specimen can be roughly predicted from

following hardness test
(a) Brinell
(b) Rockwell
(c) Vicker
(d) Shore’s sceleroscope
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a
9. Resilience of a material is important, when it is subjected to
(a) combined loading
(b) fatigue
(c) thermal stresses
(d) wear and tear
(e) shock loading.

Ans: e

10. In the case of an elastic bar fixed at upper end and loaded by a falling weight
at lower end, the shock load produced can be decreased by
(a) decreasing the cross-section area of’ bar
(b) increasing the cross-section area of bar
(c) remain unaffected with cross-section area
(d) would depend upon other factors
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

11. .Other method of reducing shock load in the above case can be
(a) to decrease length
(b) to increase length
(c) unaffected by length
(d) other factors would decide same
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

12. If a load W is applied instantaneously on a bar; then the stress induced in bar
will
(a) be independent of ratio of mass of load W to mass of bar (y)
(b) increase with increase in y
(c) decrease with decrease in y
(d) depend on other considerations
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

13. Brittle coating technique is used for

(a) determining brittleness
(b) protecting metal against corrosion
(c) protecting metal against wear and tear
(d) experimental stress analysis
(e) non-destructive testing of metals.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

14. Stress concentration is caused due to

(a) variation in properties of material from point to point in a member
(b) pitting at points or areas at which loads on a member are applied
(c) abrupt change of section
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

15. The endurance limit of a material with finished surface in comparison to

rough surface is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more or less depending on quantum of load
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: a

16. Plastic flow in ductile materials

(a) increases the seriousness of static load-ing stress concentration
(b) lessens the seriousness of static load¬ing stress concentration
(c) has no effect on it
(d) depends on other considerations
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

17. The maximum stress due to stress concentration in a bar having circular
transverse hole, as compared to its
static stress without hole will be
(a) same in both cases
(b) 2 times more
(c) 3 times more
(d) 4 times more
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: c

18. The fatigue life of a part can be improved by

(a) electroplating
(b) polishing
(c) coating
(d) shot peening
(e) heat treating.

Ans: d

19. Stress concentration in static loading is more serious in

(a) ductile materials
(b) brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both cases
(d) depends on other factors
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: b
Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

20. Stress concentration in cyclic loading is more serious in

(a) ductile materials
(b) brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both cases
(d) depends on other factors
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: a

21. Endurance limit or fatigue limit is the maximum stress that a member can
withstand for an infinite number of load applications without failure when
subjected to
(a) dynamic loading
(b) static loading
(c) combined static and dynamic loading
(d) completely reversed loading
(e) all of the above.

Ans: d

22. Pick up wrong statement. Fatigue strength can be increased by

(a) cold working
(b) shot peeing
(c) grinding and lapping surface
(d) hot working
(e) using gradual changes of section.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

23. Which of the following is not correct procedure to increase the fatigue limit
(a) cold working
(b) shot peening
(c) surface decarburisation
(d) under-stressing
(e) all of the above.

Ans: c

24. Coaxing is the procedure of increasing

(a) metal strength by cycling
(b) metal hardness by surface treatment
(c) metal resistance to corrosion by coating
(d) fatigue limit by overstressing the metal by successively increasing loadings
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

25. Which is correct statement ? Stress concentration in static loading is

(a) very serious in brittle materials and less serious in ductile materials
(b) very serious in ductile materials and less serious in brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both types of materials
(d) seriousness would depend on other factors
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

26. The notch angle of the Izod impact test specimen is

(a) 10°
(b) 20°
(c) 30°
(d) 45°
(e) 60°.

Ans: d
27. In Vicker’s hardness testing, the pyramid indentor apex is
(a) 40°
(b) 122°
(c) 136°
(d) 152°
(e) 161°.

Ans: c

28. Which is correct statement ? Stress concentration in cyclic loading is

(a) very serious in brittle materials and less serious in ductile materials
(b) very serious in ductile materials and less serious in brittle materials
(c) equally serious in both types of materials
(d) seriousness would depend on other factors
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

29. In testing a material for endurance strength, it is subjected to

(a) static load
(b) dynamic load
(c) impact load
(d) static as well as dynamic load
(e) completely reversed load.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

30. If a material fails below its yield point, failure would be due to
(a) straining
(b) fatigue
(c) creep
(d) sudden loading
(e) impact loading.
Ans: b

31. The fatigue limit of a material

(a) is greatly decreased by poor surface conditions
(b) remains same irrespective of surface conditions
(c) depends mainly on core composition
(d) is dependent upon yield strength of material
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

32. Cold working

(a) increases the fatigue strength
(b) decreases the fatigue strength
(c) has no influence on fatigue strength
(d) alone has no influence on fatigue strength
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

33. Yield point in fatigue loading as compared to static loading is

(a) same
(b) higher
(c) lower
(d) depends on other factors
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

34. Residual stress in materials

(a) acts when external load is applied
(b) becomes zero when external load is removed
(c) is independent of external loads
(d) is always harmful
(e) is always beneficial.

Ans: c

35. The building up of worn and uridersized parts, subjected to repeated loads by
electroplating is
(a) best method
(b) extremely hazardous
(c) has no effect as regards fatigue strength
(d) cheapest method
(e) all of the above.

Ans: a

36. In nitrated parts, the origins of the fatigue cracks will occur at
(a) surface
(b) just below the surface
(c) within the core
(d) could occur anywhere
(e) none of the above.

Ans: e

37. Which process will increase the fatigue duration of parts ?

(a) finishing and polishing
(b) shot-peening
(c) decarburisation
(d) electroplating
(e) all of the above”.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

38. Which is correct statement ?
(a) a member made of steel will generally be more rigid than a member of equal
load-carrying ability made of cast iron
(b) a member made of cast iron will generally be. more rigid than a member of
equal load carrying ability made of steel
(c) both will be equally rigid
(d) which one is rigid will depend on several other factors
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

39. Resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by

(a) Young’s modulus
(b) coefficient of elasticity
(c) elastic limit
(d) ultimate tensile strength
(e) endurance limit.

Ans: e

40. In most machine members, the damping capacity of the material should be
(a) low
(b) zero
(c) high
(d) could be anything
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

41. The ratio of endurance limit in shear to the endurance limit in flexure is
(a) 0.33
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.55
(e) 0.6
Ans: d

42. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to ultimate strength in
tension is
(a) same
(b) 1/2
(c) 1/3
(d) 1/4
(e) 2/3

Ans: e

43. The endurance limit in shear of carbon steel can be obtained by multiplying
the endurance limit in flexure by a factor of
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.45
(r) 0.55
(d) 0.65
(e)0.75.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

44. At low temperatures (say 75°C) the notched-bar impact value of steel
(a) increases markedly
(b) decreases markedly
(c) remains same
(d) depends on heat treatment carried out
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

45. A bolt
(a) has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the other
(b) has head at one end and other end fits into a tapped hole in the other part to
be joined
(c) has both the ends threaded
(d) is provided with pointed threads
(e) requires no nut.

Ans: a

46. The crest diameter of a screw thread is same as

(a) major diameter
(b) minor diameter
(c) pitch diameter
(d) core diameter
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

47. If d is the diameter of bolt hole then for a flanged pipe joint to be leak proof,
the circumferential pitch of the
bolts should be
(a) lOVZ
(b) 10VZtol5Vd
(c) 15Vdto20VZ
(d) 20Vdto30Vd
(e) 30V5″to40Vd.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

48. Maximum principal stress theory is applicable for

(a) ductile materials
(b) brittle materials
(c) elastic materials
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

49. The following type of nut is used with alien bolt

(a) alien nut
(b) hexagonal nut
(c) slotted nut
(d) castle nut
(e) any one of the above.

Ans: e

50. A stud
(a) has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the other
(b) has head at one end and other end fits into a tapped hole in the other part to
be joined
(c) has both the ends threaded
(d) has pointed threads
(e) requires locking nuts.

Ans: c

51. Shear stress theory is applicable for

(a) ductile fnaterials
(b) brittle materials
(c) elastic materials
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

52. A tap bolt

(a) has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the other
(b) has head at one end and other end fits into a tapped hole in the other part o
be joined
(c) has both the ends threaded
(d) has pointed threads
(e) requires locking devices.

Ans: b

53. For applications involving high stresses in one direction only the following
type of thread would be best suited
(a) ISO metric thread
(b) acme thread
(c) square thread
(d) buttress thread
(e) British Association thread.

Ans: d

54. The included angle in unified of American National threads is

(a) 60°
(b) 55°
(c) 47°
(d) 29°
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

55. The function of a washer is to

(a) provide cushioning effect
(b) provide bearing area
(c) absorb shocks and vibrations
(d) provide smooth surface in place of rough surface
(e) act as a locking device.

Ans: b
56. Cap screws are
(a) similar to small size tap bolts except that a greater variety of shapes of heads
are available
(b) slotted for a screw driver and generally used with a nut
(c) used to prevent relative motion be-tween parts
(d) provided with detachable caps
(e) similar to stud.

Ans: a

57. An alien bolt is

(a) self locking bolt
(b) same as stud
(c) provided with hexagonal depression in head
(d) used in high speed components
(e) provided with countersunk head.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

58. The deflection of a cantilever beam under load W is 8. If its width is halved,
then the deflection under load W will be
(a) 28
(b) 8/2
(c) 48
(d) 8/4
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

59. Ball bearing type screws are found in following application

(a) screw jack
(b) aeroplane engines
(c) crane
(d) steering mechanism
(e) bench vice.
Ans: d

60. Set screws are

(a) similar to small size tap bolts except that a greater variety of shapes of heads
are available
(b) slotted for a screw driver and generally used with a nut
(c) used to prevent relative motion be-tween parts
(d) similar to stud
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

61. A self locking screw has

(a) fine threads
(b) coarse threads
(c) coefficient of friction > tangent of load angle
(d) hole for inserting split pin
(e) two nuts for locking.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

62. The designation M 33 x 2 of a bolt means

(a) metric threads of 33 nos in 2 cm.
(b) metric threads with cross-section of 33 mm
(c) metric threads of 33 mm outside diameter and 2 mm pitch
(d) bolt of 33 mm nominal diameter having 2 threads per cm
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

63. Machine screws are

(a) similar to small size tap bolts except that a greater variety of shapes of heads
are available
(b) slotted for a screw driver and generally used with a nut
(c) used to prevent relative motion be-tween two parts
(d) similar to stud
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

64. Rivets are generally specified by

(a) thickness of plates to be riveted
(b) length of rivet
(c) diameter of head
(d) nominal diameter
(e) all of the above.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

65. The edges of a boiler plate are bevelled to an angle of

(a) 30°
(b) 45°
(c) 60°
(d) 80°
(e) 85°.

Ans: d

66. Which of the following is a permanent fastening ?

(a) bolts
(b) keys
(c) cotters
(d) rivets
(e) screws.

Ans: d
67. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at edge, the distance from the center line
of the rivet hole to the nearest edge of the plate in terms of dia. of rivet d should
be equal to
(a) d
(b) 1.25 d
(c) 1.5 d
(d) 1.75 d
(e) 2 d.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

68. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 75%, then the ratio of diameter of
rivet to the pitch is equal to
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.50
(d) 0.6
(e) 0.75.

Ans: b

69. Transverse fillet welded joints are designed for

(a) tensile strength
(b) compressive strength
(c) shear strength
(d) bending strength
(e) torsional strength.

Ans: a

70. Jam nut is a locking device in which

(a) one smaller nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against
smaller one by loosening, creating friction jamming
(b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut and then slot reduced by tightening a screw
(c) a hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as
the nut is screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip
(d) through slots are made at top and a cotter-pin is passed through these and a
hole in the bolt, and cotter spitted
and bent in reverse direction at other end
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

71. The pitch of threads on a Jock nut in comparison to pitch of nut is

(a) same
(b) coarser
(c) finer
(d) very coarse
(e) very fine.

Ans: a

72.Buttress threads are usually found on

(a) screw cutting lathes
(b) feed mechanisms
(c) spindles of bench vices
(d) screw jack
(e) railway carriage couplings.

Ans: e

73. In order to obtain bolt of uniform strength

(a) increase shank diameter
(b) increase its length
(c) drill an axial hole through head up to threaded portion so that shank area is
equal to root area of thread
(d) tighten die bolt properly
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

74. A key capable of tilting in a recess milled out in a shaft is known as

(a) wood-ruff key
(b) feather key
(c) flat saddle key
(d) gib head key
(e) hollow saddle key.

Ans: a

75. A key made from a cylindrical disc having segmental cross-section, is known
as
(a) wood-ruff key
(b) feather key
(c) flat saddle key
(d) gib head key
(e) hollow saddle key.

Ans: a

76. A tapered key which fits in a keyway in the hub and is flat on the shaft, is
known as
(a) wood-ruff key
(b) feather key
(c) flat saddle key
(d) gib head key
(e) hollow saddle key.

Ans: c

77. Fibrous fracture occurs in

(a) ductile material
(b) brittle material
(c) elastic material
(d) hard material
(e) all of the above.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

78.Turn buckle has

(a) right hand threads on bout ends
(b) left hand threads on both ends
(c) left hand threads on one end and right hand threads on other end
(d) no threads
(e) threads in middle portion.

Ans: c

79. Eye bolts are used for

(a) foundation purposes
(b) locking devices *
(c) absorbing shock and vibrations
(d) transmission of power
(e) lifting and transportation of machines and cubicles.

Ans: e

80. Elastic nut is a locking device in which

(a) one small nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against
smaller one by loosening, creating friction jamming
(b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut and then slot reduced by tightening a screw
(c) hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as the
nut is stewed on the bolt causing a tight grip
(d) through slots are made at top and a cotter-pin is passed through these and a
hole in the bolt, and cotter pin
splitted and bent in reverse direction at other end
(e) none of the above,
Ans: c

81. If d is the normal diameter of a bolt in mm, then the initial tension in kg in a
bolt used for making a fluid tight
joint as for steam engine cover joint is calculated by the relation
(a) 102 d
(b) 124 d
(c) 138 d
(d) 151 d
(e) 168 d.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

82. If threads on a bolt are left hand, threads on nut will be

(a) right hand with same pitch
(b) left hand with same pitch
(c) could be left or right hand
(d) right hand with fine pitch
(e) left hand with fine pitch.

Ans: b

83. Taper usually provided on cotter is

(a) 1 in 5
(b) 1 in 10
(c) 1 in 24
(d) 1 in 40
(e) 1 in 50.

Ans: c

84. Applications in which stresses are encountered in one direction only uses
following type of threads
(a) metric
(b) buttress
(c) acme
(d) square
(e) BSW.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

85. The draw of cotter need not exceed

(a) 3 mm
(b) 5 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 20 mm
(e) 25 mm.

Ans: a

86. A bench vice has following type of threads

(a) metric
(b) square
(c) buttress
(d) acme
(e) BSW.

Ans: d

87. The valve rod in a steam engine is connected to an eccentric rod by

(a) cotter joint
(b) bolted joint
(c) kunckle joint
(d) universal coupling
(e) gib and cotter joint.

Ans: c
88. Split nut is a locking device in which
(a) one smaller nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against
smaller one by loosening, creating friction jamming
(b) a slot is cut partly in middle of nut and then slot reduced by tightening screw
(c) a hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as
the nut is screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip
(d) through slots are made at top and a cotter-pin is passed through these and a
hole in the bolt, and cotter pin
splitted and bent in reverse direction at the other end
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

89. Taper on the cotter and slot is provided

(a) on both the sides
(b) on one side only
(c) on none of the sides
(d) may be provided anywhere
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

90. The function of cutting oil when threading a pipe is to

(a) provide cooling action
(b) lubricate the dies
(c) help remove chips
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

91. Silver-based solder is used for

(a) flaring
(b) brazing
(c) soft soldering
(d) fusion welding
(e) none of the above.’

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

92. For tight leakage joints, following type of thread is best suited
(a) metric
(b) buttress
(c) square
(d) acme
(e) NPT (national pipe threads).

Ans: e

93. In order to permit the thermal expansion/contraction of tubing, it should be

(a) crimped
(b) honed
(c) flared
(d) bent
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

94. A tube has the following advantage over pipe

(a) lighter and easier to handle
(b) greater shock absorption
(c) smoother inside walls
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

95. The strap end of a connecting rod of steam engine is joined by

(a) gib of cotter joint
(b) sleeve and cotter joint
(c) spigot socket cotter joint
(d) knuckle joint
(e) universal coupling.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

96. A backing ring is used inside the pipe joint when making a
(a) butt weld
(b) fillet weld
(c) sleeve weld
(d) socket weld
(e) tube weld.

Ans: a

97. The shear plane in case of bolts should

(a) be across threaded portion of shank
(b) be parallel to axis of bolt
(c) be normal to threaded portion of shank
(d) never be across the threaded portion
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

97. Castle nut is a locking device in which

(a) one smaller nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against
smaller one by loosening, creating friction jamming
(b) a slot is cut partly is middle of nut and then slot reduced by tightening a screw
(c) a hard fiber or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as
the nut is screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip
(d) through slots are made at top and a cotter pin is passed through these and a
hole in the bolt, and cotter pin spitted and bent in reverse direction at other end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

98. When a nut is tightened by plaping a washer below it, the bolt will be
subjected to following type of loads
(a) compression
(b) tension
(c) shear
(d) combined loads
(e) all of the above.

Ans: b

99. Gear box is used

(a) to produce torque
(b) for speed reduction
(c) to obtain variable speeds
(d) to increase efficiency of system
(e) to damp out vibrations.

Ans: c

100. The edges of the plates for cylindrical vessels are usually bevelled to an
angle of 80° for
(a) reducing stress concentration
(b) ease of manufacture
(c) safety
(d) fullering and caulking
(e) all of the above.

Ans: d

101. The piston rod of a steam engine is usually connected to the crosshead by
means of
(a) bolted joint
(b) kunckle joint
(c) cotter joint
(d) universal joint
(e) universal coupling.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

102. Which of the following pipe joints would be suitable for pipes carrying steam
(a) flanged
(b) threaded
(c) bell and spigot
(d) expansion
(e) compression.

Ans: d

103. Spring index is

(a) ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
(b) load required to produce unit deflection
(c) its capability of storing energy
(d) indication of quality of spring
(e) nothing.

Ans: a

104. The shearing stresses in the inner face as compared to outer face of the
wire in a heavy close coiled spring is
(a) larger
(b) smaller
(c) equal
(d) larger/smaller depending on diameter of spring coil
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: a
105. Form coefficient of spring is
(a) ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
(b) load required to produce unit deflection
(c) its capability of storing energy
(d) concerned With strength of wire of spring
(e) nothing

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

106. Spring stiffness is

(a) ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
(b) load required to produce unit deflection
(c) its capability of storing energy
(d) its ability to absorb shocks
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

107. When two springs are in series (having stiffness K), the equivalent stiffness
will be
(a) K
(b) K/2
(c) 2K
(d) KIA
(e) UK.

Ans: b

108. When a close coiled helical spring is compressed, its wire is subjected to
(a) tension
(b) shear
(c) compression
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

109. If a spring is cut down into two springs, the stiffness of cut springs will be
(a) half
(b) same
(c) double
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

110. Belt slip may occur due to

(a) heavy load
(b) loose belt
(c) driving pulley too small
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

111.Aircraft body is usually fabricated by

(a) welding
(b) precasting
(c) rivetting
(d) casting
(e) unconventional methods.

Ans: c

112. If two springs are in parallel then their overall stiffness will be
(a) half
(b) same
(c) double
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

113. In hydrodynamic bearings

(a) the oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
(b) the oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
(c) do not require external supply of lubricant
(d) grease is used for lubrication
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

114. Antifriction bearings are

(a) sleeve bearings
(b) hydrodynamic bearings
(c) thin lubricated bearings
(d) ball and roller bearings
(e) none of the above.

Ans: e

115. If p = bearing pressure on projected bearing area, z = absolute viscosity of

lubricant, and N = speed of journal, then the bearing characteristic number is
given by
(a) ZN/p
(b) p/ZN
(c) Z/pN
(d) N/Zp
(e) Zp/N.

Ans: a
Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

116. The usual clearance provided in hydrodynamic bearing per mm of diameter

of shaft is
(a) 0.01 micron
(b) 0.1 micron
(c) 1 micron
(d) 10 microns
(e) 25 microns.

Ans: c

117. In hydrostatic bearings

(a) the Oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
(b) the oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
(c) do not require external supply of lubricant
(d) grease is used for lubrication
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

118. Oil in journal bearing should be applied at the point where load is
(a) nil or lightest
(b) maximum
(c) average
(d) any one of the above
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

119. The rated life of a bearing varies

(a) directly as load
(b) inversely as square of load
(c) inversely as cube of load
(d) inversely as fourth power of load
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

120. In oilness bearings

(a) the oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
(b) the oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
(c) do not require external supply of lubricant
(d) grease required to be applied after some intervals
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

121. In V-belt drive, belt touches

(a) at bottom
(b) at sides only
(c) both at bottom and sides
(d) could touch anywhere
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

122. Three different weights fall from a certain height under vacuum. They will
take
(a) same time to reach earth
(b) times proportional to weight to reach earth
(c) times inversely proportional to weight to reach earth
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a
123. In cross or regular lay ropes
(a) direction of twist of wires in strands is opposite to the direction of twist of
strands
(b) direction of twist of wires and strands are same
(c) wires in two adjacent strands are twisted in opposite direction
(d) wires are not twisted
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

124. In standard taper roller bearings, the angle of taper of outer raceway is
(a) 5°
(b) 8°
(c) 15°
(d) 25°
(e) 40°.

Ans: d

125. In composite or reverse laid ropes

(a) direction of twist of wires in strands is opposite to the direction of twist of
strands
(b) direction of twist of wires and strands are same
(c) wires in two adjacent strands are twisted in opposite direction
(d) wires are not twisted
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

126. Whether any core is required in wire ropes

(a) yes
(b) no
(c) sometimes
(d) rarely
(e) very often.
Ans: a

127. If shearing stress in nut is half the tensile stress in a bolt, then nut length
should be equal to
(a) diameter of bolt
(b) 0.75 x diameter of bolt
(c) 1.25 x diameter of bolt
(d) 1.5 x diameter of bolt
(e) 0.5 x diameter of bolt.

Ans: a

128. Basic shaft is one

(a) whose upper deviation is zero
(b) whose lower deviation is zero
(c) whose lower as well as upper deviations are zero
(d) does not exist
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

129. Basic hole is one

(a) whose upper deviation is zero
(b) whose lower deviation is zero
(c) whose lower as well as upper deviations are zero
(d) does not exist
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

130. I.S. specifies following total number of grades of tolerances

(a) 18
(b) 16
(c) 20
(d) 22
(e) 14.

Ans: a

131. For standard coarse threads of nut, the threads will be as strong in failure by
shear as the bolt in tension, if the
height of nut (h) is approximately
(a) 0.4 times
(b) 0.6 times
(c) 0.7 times
(d) 0.8 times
(e) 0.9 times the normal diameter of bolt.

Ans: a

132. Allen bolts are

(a) self locking bolts
(b) designed for shock load
(c) used in aircraft application
(d) provided with hexagonal depression in head
(e) uniform strength bolts.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

133. The resultant axial load on a bolt depends on

(a) initial tension
(b) external load applied
(c) relative elastic yielding (springness) of the bolt and the connected member
(d) (a) and (b) above
(e) (a), (b) and (c) above.

Ans: e
134. The connecting rod bolts are tightened up so that tightening stress
(a) is just sufficient to hold parts together
(b) approaches yield point
(c) is 50% of yield point
(d) is about yield point divided by safety factor
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

135. The connecting rod bolts are tightened up with initial tension greater than
the external load so that
(a) joint may not open up
(b) bolts are weakest elements
(c) the resultant load on the bolt would not be affected by the external cyclic load
(d) bolts will not loosen during service
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

136. If an application calls for stresses on screw threads in one direction only,
then the following type of thread would be best suited
(a) square
(b) acme
(c) buttress
(d) BSW
(e) metric.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Machine Design

137. When a bolt is subjected to shock loading, the resilience of the bolt should
be considered in order to prevent
breakage at
(a) shank
(b) head
(c) in the middle
(d) at the thread
(e) anywhere in the bolt.

Ans: d

138. The shock absorbing capacity of a bolt can be increased by

(a) tightening it properly
(b) increasing shank diameter
(c) grinding the shank
(d) using washer
(e) making shank diameter equal to core diameter of thread.

Ans: e

Heat Transfer 1
1. Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is
(a) kcal/kg m2 °C
(b) kcal-m/hr m2 °C
(c) kcal/hr m2 °C
(d) kcal-m/hr °C
(e) kcal-m/m2 °C.
Ans: b
2. Unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. units is
(a) J/m2 sec
(b) J/m °K sec
(c) W/m °K
(d) (a) and (c) above
(e) (b) and (c) above.
Ans: e
ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1
3. Thermal conductivity of solid metals with rise in temperature normally
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
4. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amorphous solids with decrease in
temperature
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
5. Heat transfer takes place as per –
(a) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) first law of thermodynamic
(c) second law of the thermodynamics
(d) Kirchhoff law (e) Stefan’s law.
Ans: c
ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1
6. When heat is transferred from one particle of hot body to another by actual
motion of the heated particles, it is
referred to as heat transfer by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) conduction and convection
(e) convection and radiation.
Ans: a
7. When heat is transferred form hot body to cold body, in a straight line,
without affecting the intervening medium, it is referred as heat transfer by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) conduction and convection
(e) convection and radiation.
Ans: c8. Sensible heat is the heat required to
(a) change vapour into liquid
(b) change liquid into vapour
(c) increase the temperature of a liquid of vapour
(d) convert water into steam and superheat it
(e) convert saturated steam into dry steam.
Ans: c

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

9. The insulation ability of an insulator with the presence of moisture would

(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unaffected
(d) may increase/decrease depending on temperature and thickness of
insulation
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

10. When heat is Transferred by molecular collision, it is referred to as heat

transfer by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) scattering
(e) convection and radiation.

Ans: b

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

11. Heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place by

(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) conduction and convection
(e) convection and radiation.

Ans: b
12. Which of the following is the case of heat transfer by radiation
(a) blast furnace
(b) heating of building
(c) cooling of parts in furnace
(d) heat received by a person from fireplace
(e) all of the above.

Ans: d

13. Heat is closely related with

(a) liquids
(b) energy
(c) temperature
(d) entropy
(e) enthalpy.

Ans: c

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

14. Pick up tne wrong case. Heat flowing from one side to other depends
directly on
(a) face area
(b) time
(c) thickness
(d) temperature difference
(e) thermal conductivity.

Ans: c

15. Metals are good conductors of heat because

(a) their atoms collide frequently
(b) thier atoms-are relatively far apart
(c) they contain free electrons
(d) they have high density
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

16. Which of the following is a case of steady state heat transfer

(a) I.C. engine
(b) air preheaters
(c) heating of building in winter
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: e

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

17. Total heat is the heat required to

(a) change vapour into liquid
(b) change liquid into vapour
(c) increase the temperature of a liquid or vapour
(d) convert water into steam and superheat it
(e) convert saturated steam into dry steam.

Ans: d

18. Cork is a good insulator because it has

(a) free electrons
(b) atoms colliding frequency
(c) low density
(d) porous body
(e) all of the above.

Ans: d

19. Thermal conductivity of water in general with rise in temperature

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

20. Thermal conductivity of water at 20°C is of the order of

(a) 0.1
(b) 0.23
(c) 0.42
(d) 0.51
(e) 0.64.

Ans: d

21. Temperature of steam at around 540°C canbe measured by

(a) thermometer
(b) radiatiouv pyrometer
(c) thermistor
(d) thermocouple
(e) thermopile.

Ans: d

22. Thermal conductivity of air at room temperature in kcal/m hr °C is of the

order of
(a) 0.002
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.01
(d) 0.1
(e) 0.5.

Ans: b
23. The time constant of a thermocouple is
(a) the time taken to attain the final temperature to be measured
(b) the time taken to attain 50% of the value of initial temperature difference
(c) the time taken to attain 63.2% of the value of initial temperature difference
(d) determined by the time taken to reach 100°C from 0°C
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

24. Thermal conductivity of air with rise in temperature

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase or decrease depending on temperature
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

25. Heat flows from one body to other when they have
(a) different heat contents
(b) different specific heat
(c) different atomic structure
(d) different temperatures
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

26. The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in heat transfer
problems of
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) all the three combined
(e) conduction and comte_ction.
Ans: e

27. In heat transfer, conductance equals conductivity (kcal/hr/sqm/°C/cm)

divided by
(a) hr (time)
(b) sqm (area)
(c) °C (temperature)
(d) cm (thickness)
(e) kcal (heat).

Ans: d

28. The amount of heat flow through a body by conduction is

(a) directly proportional to the surface area of the body
(b) directly proportional to the temperature difference on the two faces of the
body
(c) dependent upon the material of the body
(d) inversely proportional to the thickness of the body
(e) all of the above.

Ans: e

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

29. Which of the following has least value of conductivity

(a) glass
(b) water
(c) plastic
(d) rubber
(e) air.

Ans: e

30. Which of the following is expected to have highest thermal conductivity

(a) steam
(b) solid ice
(c) melting ice
(d) water
(e) boiling water.

Ans: b

31. Thermal conductivity of glass-wool varies from sample to sample because of

variation in
(a) composition
(b) density
(c) porosity
(d) structure
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e32. Thermal conductivity of a material may be defined as the
(a) quantity of heat flowing in one second through one cm cube of material
when opposite faces ^re maintained at a temperature difference of 1°C
(b) quantity of heat flowing in one second through a slab of the material of
area one cm square, thickness 1 cm when its faces differ in temperature by 1°C
(c) heat conducted in unit time across unit area through unit thickness when a
temperature difference of unity is maintained between opposite faces
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

33. Which of the following has maximum value of thermal conductivity

(a) aluminium
(b) steel
(c) brass
(d) copper
(e) lead.

Ans: a

34. Moisture would find its way into insulation by vapour pressure unless it is
prevented by
(a) high thickness of insulation
(b) high vapour pressure
(c) less thermal conductivity insulator
(d) a vapour seal
(e) all of the above.

Ans: d

35. Heat is transferred by all three modes of transfer, viz, conduction,

convection and radiation in
(a) electric heater
(b) steam condenser
(c) melting of ice
(d) refrigerator condenser coils
(e) boiler.

Ans: e

36. According to Prevost theory of heat exchange

(a) it is impossible to transfer heat from low temperature source to t high
temperature source
(b) heat transfer by radiation requires no medium
(c) all bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
(d) heat transfer in most of the cases takes place by combination of
conduction, convection and radiation
(e) rate of heat transfer depends on thermal conductivity and temperature
difference.

Ans: c

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

37. The ratio of heat flow Q1/Q2 from two walls of same thickness having their
thermal conductivities as ATj – 2K2 will be
(a) I
(b) 0.5
(c) 2
(d) 0.25
(e) 4.0

Ans: c

38. Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends upon

(a) its temperature
(b) nature of the body
(c) kind and extent of its surface
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

39. Thermal diffusivity is

(a) a dimensionless parameter
(b) function of temperature
(c) used as mathematical model
(d) a physical property of the material
(e) useful in case of heat transfer by radiation.

Ans: d

40. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is .

(a) proportional of thermal conductivity
(b) inversely proportional to k
(c) proportional to (kf
(d) inversely proportional to k2
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

41. Unit of thermal diffusivity is

(a) m2/hr
(b) m2/hr°C
(c) kcal/m2 hr
(d) kcal/m.hr°C
(e) kcal/m2 hr°C.

Ans: a

43. Thermal conductivity of wood depends on

(a) moisture
(b) density
(c) temperature
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

44. In convection heat transfer from hot flue gases to water tube, even though
flow may be turbulent, a laminar flow region (boundary layer of film) exists close
to the tube. The heat transfer through this film takes place by
(a) convection
(b) radiation
(c) conduction
(d) both convection and conduction
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

45. Film coefficient is defined as Inside diameter of tube

(a) Equivalent thickness of film
(b) Thermal conductivity Equivalent thickness of film Specific heat x Viscosity
(c) Thermal conductivity Molecular diffusivity of momentum Thermal diffusivity
(d) Film coefficient x Inside diameter Thermal conductivity
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b
46. Heat conducted through unit area and unit thick face per unit time when
temperature difference between opposite faces is unity,is called
(a) thermal resistance
(b) thermal coefficient
(c) temperature gradient
(d) thermal conductivity
(e) heat-transfer.

Ans: d

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

49. The rate of energy emission from unit surface area through unit solid angle,
along a normal to the surface, is known as
(a) emissivity
(b) transmissive
(c) reflectivity
(d) intensity of radiation
(e) absorptivity.

Ans: d

50. Emissivity of a white polished body in comparison to a black body is

(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) depends upon the shape of body
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

51. A grey body is one whose absorptivity

(a) varies with temperature
(b) varies with wavelength of the incident ray
(c) is equal to its emissivity
(d) does not vary with temperature and. wavelength of the incident ray
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

53. Two balls of same material and finish have their diameters in the ratio of 2 :
1 and both are heated to same temperature and allowed to cool by radiation.
Rate of cooling by big ball as compared to smaller one will be in the ratio of
(a) 1 :1
(b) 2: 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 4 : 1
(e) 1 : 4.

Ans: c

55. A non-dimensional number generally associated with natural convection

heat transfer is
(a) Grashoff number
(b) Nusselt number
(c) Weber number
(d) Prandtl number
(e) Reynold number.

Ans: a

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

56. LMTD in case of counter flow heat exchanger as compared-to parallel flow
heat exchanger is
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) depends on the area of heat exchanger
(e) depends on temperature conditions.

Ans: a
57. In heat exchangers, degree of approach is defined as the difference between
temperatures of
(a) cold water inlet and outlet
(b) hot medium inlet and outlet
(c) hot medium outlet and cold water inlet
(d) hot medium outlet and cold water outlet
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

58. In counter flow heat exchangers

(a) both the fluids at inlet (of heat exchanger where hot fluid enters) are in
their coldest state
(b) both the fluids at inlet are in their hottest state
(c) both the fluids .at exit are in their hottest state
(d) one fluid is in hottest state and other in coldest state at inlet
(e) any combination is possible depending on design of heat exchanger.

Ans: b

59. A steam pipe is to be insulated by two insulating materials put over each
other. For best results
(a) better insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it
(b) inferior insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it
(c) both may be put in any order
(d) whether to put inferior OIL over pipe or the better one would depend on
steam temperature
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: a

61. Fourier’s law of heat conduction is valid for

(a) one dimensional cases only
(b) two dimensional cases only
(c) three dimensional cases only
(d) regular surfaces having non-uniform temperature gradients
(e) irregular surfaces.
Ans: a

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

62. According of Kirchhoff law,

(a) radiant heat is proportional to fourth power of absolute temperature
(b) emissive power depends on temperature
(c) emissive power and absorptivity are constant for all bodies
(d) ratio of emissive power to absorptive power is maximum for perfectly black
body
(e) ratio of emissive power to absorptive power for all bodies is same and is
equal to the emissive power of a perfectly black body.

Ans: e

63. All radiations in a black body are

(a) reflected
(b) refracted
(c) transmitted
(d) absorbed
(e) partly reflected and partly absorbed.

Ans: d

64. According to Kirchoff’s law, the ratio of emissive power to absorptivity for
all bodies is equal to the emissive power of a
(a) grey body
(b) brilliant white polished body
(c) red hot body
(d) black body
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

65. The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in case of heat
transfer by
(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) conduction and convection
(e) convection and radiation.

Ans: d

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

66. The unit of overall coefficient of heat transfer is

(a) kcal/m2
(b) kcal/hr °C
(c) kcal/m2 hr °C
(4) kacl/m hr °C
(e) kcal/m3 hr °C.

Ans: c

68. Joule sec is the unit of

(a) universal gas constant
(b) kinematic viscosity
(c) thermal conductivity
(d) Planck’s constant
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

69. The value of Portland number for air is about

(a) 0.1
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.7
(d) 1.7
(e) 10.5.

Ans: c
70. The value of the wavelength for maximum emissive power is given by
(a) Wien’s law
(b) Planck’s law
(c) Stefan’s law
(d) Fourier’s law
(e) Kirchhoff’s law.

Ans: a

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

72. Log mean temperature difference in case of counter flow compared to

parallel flow will be
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) depends on other factors
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

73. The energy distribution of an ideal reflector at higher temperatures is

largely in the range of
(a) shorter wavelength
(b) longer wavelength
(c) remains same at all wavelengths
(d) wavelength has nothing to do with it
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

74. Total emissivity of polished silver compared to black body is

(a) same
(b) higher
(c) more or less same
(d) very much lower
(e) very much higher.
Ans: d

75. According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, ideal radiators emit radiant energy at a

rate proportional to
(a) absolute temperature
(b) square of temperature
(c) fourth power of absolute temperature
(d) fourth power of temperature
(e) cube of absolute temperature.

Ans: c

76. Which of the following property of air does not increase with rise in
temperature
(a) thermal conductivity
(b) thermal diffusivity
(c) density
(d) dynamic viscosity
(e) kinematic viscosity.

Ans: c

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

77. The unit of Stefan Boltzmann constant is

(a) watt/cm2 °K
(b) watt/cm4 °K
(c) watt2/cm °K4
(d) watt/cm2 °K4
(e) watt/cm2 °K2.

Ans: d

78. In free con-vection heat transfer, Nusselt number is function of

(a) Grashoff no. and Reynold no.
(b) Grashoff no. and Prandtl no.
(c) Prandtl no. and Reynold no.
(d) Grashoff no., Prandtl no. and Reynold no.
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

79. Stefan Boltzmann law is applicable for heat transfer by

(a) conduction
(b) convection
(c) radiation
(d) conduction and radiation combined
(e) convection and radiation combined.

Ans: c

80. The thermal diffusivities for gases are generally

(a) more than those for liquids
(b) less than those for liquids
(c) more than those for solids
(d) dependent on the viscosity
(e) same as for the liquids.

Ans: a

81. The thermal diffusivity for solids are generally

(a) less than those for gases
(b) jess than those for liquids
(c) more than those for liquids and gases
(d) more or less same as for liquids and gases
(e) zerci.

Ans: c

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

83. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is
(a) directly proportional to thermal conductivity
(b) inversely proportional to density of substance
(c) inversely proportional to specific heat
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

85. The ratio of the emissive power and absorptive power of all bodies is the
same and is equal to the emissive power of a perfectly black body. This
statement is known as
(a) Krichoff’s law
(b) Stefan’s law
(c) Wien’ law
(d) Planck’s law
(e) Black body law.

Ans: a

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

86. According to Stefan’s law, the total radiation from a black body per second
per unit area is proportional to
(a) absolute temperature
(b) T2
(c) T5
(d) t
(e) l/T.

Ans: d

87. According to Wien’s law, the wavelength corresponding to maximum

energy is proportion to
(a) absolute temperature (T)
(b) I2
(c) f
(d) t
(e) 1/r.

Ans: a

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

88. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be white when

(a) p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b) p=l,T = 0anda = 0
(c) p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
(d) x = 0, a + p = 1
(e) a = 0, x + p = 1. where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, x = transmissivity

Ans: b

89. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be black when

(a) p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b) p= l,T = 0anda = 0
(c) p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
(d) x = 0, a + p = 0
(e) a = 0,x + p= 1. where a = absorptivity, p == reflectivity, X = transmissivity.

Ans: a

90. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be opaque when

(a) p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b) p=l,x = 0anda = 0
(c) p = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
(d) x – 0, a + p = 1
(e) a=0,x + p= 1. where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, X = transmissivity.

Ans: d

91. The total emissivity power is .defined as the total amount of radiation emitted
by a black body per unit
(a) temperature
(b) thickness
(c) area
(d) time
(e) area and time.

Ans: d

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

92. The ratio of the energy absorbed by the body to total energy falling on it is
called
(a) absorptive power
(b) emissive power
(c) absorptivity
(d) emissivity
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

93. 40% of incident radiant energy on the surface of a thermally transparent

body is reflected back. If the transmissivity of the body be 0.15, then the
emissivity of surface is
(a) 0.45
(b) 0.55
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.75
(e) 0.60.

Ans: a

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

94. The amount of radiation mainly depends on

(a) nature of body
(b) temperature of body
(c) type of surface of body
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

95. The e missive power of a body depends upon its

(a) temperature
(b) wave length
(c) physical nature
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

96. Two plates spaced 150 mm apart are maintained at 1000°C and 70°C. The
heat transfer will take place mainly by
(a) convection
(b) free convection
(c) forced convection
(d) radiation
(e) radiation and convection.

Ans: d

97. Absorptivity of a body will be equal to its emissivity

(a) at all temperatures
(b) at one particular temperature
(c) when system is under thermal equilibrium
(d) at critical temperature
(e) for a polished body.

Ans: c
98. In re generator type heat exchanger, heat transfer takes place by
(a) direct mixing of hot and cold fluids
(b) a complete separation between hot and cold fluids
(c) flow of hot and cold fluids alternately over a surface
(d) generation of heat again and again
(e) indirect transfer.

Ans: c

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

99. A perfect black body is one which

(a) is black in color
(b) reflects all heat
(c) transmits all heat radiations
(d) absorbs heat radiations of all wave lengths falling on it
(e) fully opaque.

Ans: d

100. Planck’s law holds good for

(a) black bodies
(b) polished bodies
(c) all colored bodies
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

101. If the temperature of a solid surface changes from 27°C to 627°C, then its
e missive power changes in the ratio of
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 27
(e) 81.

Ans: e

ME IMPORTANT MCQ Heat Transfer 1

102. Depending on the radiating properties, body will be transparent when

(a) p = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(b) p=l,x = 0, and a = 0
(c) p = 0, T= l, and a = 0
(d) X = 0, a + p = 1
(e) a = 0,x + p= 1.

Ans: c

103. A grey body is one whose absorptivity

(a) varies with temperature
(b) varies with the wave length of incident ray
(c) varies with both
(d) does not vary with temperature and wave length of the incident ray
(e) there is no such criterion.

Ans: d

Thermodynamics

1. Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect

gas
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) all of the above
(e) atomic mass.
Ans: d2. Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect
gas
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Charles’law
(c) Gay-Lussac law
(d) all of the above
(e) Joule’s law.Ans: d
Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is

(a) Centigrade
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) Kelvin
(e) Rankine.

Ans: d

4. The unit of mass in S.I. units is

(a) kilogram
(b) gram
(c) tonne
(d) quintal
(e) newton.

Ans: a

5. The unit of time in S.I. units is

(a) second
(b) minute
(c) hour
(d) day
(e) year.

Ans: a
6. The unit of length in S.I. units is
(a) meter
(b) centimeter
(c) kilometer
(d) millimeter.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

7. The unit of energy in S.I. units is

(a) watt
(b) joule
(c) joule/s
(d) joule/m
(e) joule m.

Ans: b

8. According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect gas, the absolute pressure of given
mass varies directly as
(a) temperature
(b) absolute
(c) absolute temperature, if volume is kept constant
(d) volume, if temperature is kept constant
(e) remains constant, if volume and temperature are kept constant.

Ans: c

9. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies

(a) more volume
(b) less volume
(c) same volume
(d) unpredictable behaviour
(e) no such correlation.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

10. General gas equation is

(a) PV=nRT
(b) PV=mRT
(d) PV = C
(c) PV=KiRT
(e) Cp-Cv = Wj

Ans: b

11. According to Dalton’s law, the total pressure of the mixture of gases is equal
to
(a) greater of the partial pressures of all
(b) average of the partial pressures of all
(c) sum of the partial pressures of all
(d) sum of the partial pressures of all divided by average molecular weight
(e) atmospheric pressure.

Ans: c

12. Which of the following can be regarded as gas so that gas laws could be
applicable, within the commonly encountered temperature limits.
(a) 02, N2, steam, C02
(b) Oz, N2, water vapour
(c) S02, NH3, C02, moisture
(d) 02, N2, H2, air
(e) steam vapours, H2, C02.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics
13. The unit of pressure in S.I. units is
(a) kg/cm2
(b) mm of water column
(c) pascal
(d) dynes per square cm
(e) bars

Ans: c

14. A closed system is one in which

(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(c) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(d) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(e) thermodynamic reactions take place.

Ans: a

15. Temperature of a gas is produced due to

(a) its heating value
(b) kinetic energy of molecules
(c) repulsion of molecules
(d) attraction of molecules
(e) surface tension of molecules.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

16. According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is

attained when
(a) volume of the gas is zero
(b) pressure of the gas is zero
(c) kinetic energy of the molecules is zero
(d) specific heat of gas is zero
(e) mass is zero.
Ans: c

17. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the molecules
are
(a) perfectly elastic
(b) perfectly inelastic
(c) partly elastic
(d) partly inelastic
(e) partly elastic and partly inelastic.

Ans: a

18. The pressure’of a gas in terms of its mean kinetic energy per unit volume E is
equal to
(a) E/3
(b) E/2
(c) 3E/4
(d)2E/3
(e) 5E/4.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

19. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature (T) is

proportional to
(a) T
(b) j
(c) J2
(d) Vr
(e) 1/Vr.

Ans: a

20. Superheated vapour behaves

(a) exactly as gas
(b) as steam
(c) as ordinary vapour
(d) approximately as a gas
(e) as average of gas and vapour.

Ans: d

21. Absolute zero pressure will occur

(a) at sea level
(b) at the center of the earth
(c) when molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
(d) under vacuum conditions
(e) at a temperature of – 273 °K

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

22. No liquid can exist as liquid at

(a) – 273 °K
(b) vacuum
(c) zero pressure
(d) centre of earth
(e) in space.

Ans: c

23. The unit of power in S.I. units is

(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) erg
(d) watt
(e) joule.

Ans: d
24. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e., absolute zero pressure can be attained
at
(a) a temperature of – 273.16°C
(b) a temperature of 0°C
(c) a temperature of 273 °K
(d) a negative pressure and 0°C temperature
(e) can’t be attained.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

25. Intensive property of a system is one whose value

(a) depends on the mass of the system, like volume
(b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
(c) is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
(d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
(e) remains constant.

Ans: b

26. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is equal to

(a) 0.17
(b) 0.21
(c) 0.24
(d) 1.0
(e) 1.41

Ans: c

27. Characteristic gas constant of a gas is equal to

(a) C/Cv
(b) Cv/Cp
(c) Cp – Cv
(d) Cp + Cv
(e) Cp x Cv
Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

28. The behaviour of gases can be fully determined by

(a) 1 law
(b) 2 laws
(c) 3 laws
(d) 4 laws

Ans: d

29. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to

(a) 0.17
(b) 0.24
(c) 0.1
(d) 1.41
(e) 2.71.

Ans: d

30. Boyle’s law i.e. pV = constant is applicable to gases under

(a) all ranges of pressures
(b) only small range of pressures
(c) high range of pressures
(d) steady change of pressures
(e) atmospheric conditions.

Ans: b

31. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of temperature
(a) Charles’ law
(b) Joule’s law
(c) Regnault’s law
(d) Boyle’s law
(e) there is no such law.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

32. The same volume of all gases would represent their

(a) densities
(b) specific weights
(c) molecular weights
(d) gas characteristic constants
(e) specific gravities.

Ans: c

33. Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant at all
temperatures and pressures
(a) Charles’ Law
(b) Joule’s Law
(c) Regnault’s Law
(d) Boyle’s Law
(e) there is no such law.

Ans: c

34. An open system is one in which

(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

35. According to which law, all perfect gases change in volume by l/273th of their
original volume at 0°C for every 1°C change in temperature when pressure
remains constant
(a) Joule’s law
(b) Boyle’s law
(c) Regnault’s law
(d) Gay-Lussac law
(e) Charles’ law.

Ans: e

36. Gases have

(a) only one value of specific heat
(b) two values of specific heat
(c) three values of specific heat
(d) no value of specific heat
(e) under some conditions one value and sometimes two values of specific heat.

Ans: b

37. According to Avogadro’s Hypothesis

(a) the molecular weights of all the perfect gases occupy the same volume under
same conditions of pressure and temperature
(b) the sum of partial pressure of mixture of two gases is sum of the two
(c) product of the gas constant and the molecular weight of an ideal gas is
constant
(d) gases have two values of specific heat
(e) all systems can be regarded as closed systems.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

38. Extensive property of a system is one whose value

(a) depends on the mass of the system like volume
(b) does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
(c) is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
(d) is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
(e) is always constant.
Ans: a

39. Work done in a free expansion process is

(a) + ve
(b) -ve
(c) zero
(d) maximum
(e) minimum.

Ans: c

40. The statement that molecular weights of all gases occupy the same volume is
known as
(a) Avogadro’s hypothesis
(b) Dalton’s law
(c) Gas law
(d) Law of thermodynamics
(e) Joule’s law.

Ans: a

41. To convert volumetric analysis to gravimetric analysis, the relative volume of

each constituent of the flue gases is
(a) divided by its molecular weight
(b) multiplied by its molecular weight
(c) multiplied by its density
(d) multiplied by its specific weight
(e) divided by its specific weight.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

42. If a gas is heated against a pressure, keeping the volume constant, then work
done will be equal to
(a) + v
(b) – ve
(c) zero
(d) pressure x volume
(e) any where between zero and infinity.

Ans: c

43. An isolated system is one in which

(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.

Ans: b

44. Properties of substances like pressure, temperature and density, in

thermodynamic coordinates are
(a) path functions
(b) point functions
(c) cyclic functions
(d) real functions
(e) thermodynamic functions.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

45. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) specific volume
(d) heat
(e) density.

Ans: d
46. According to Avogadro’s law, for a given pressure and temperature, each
molecule of a gas
(a) occupies volume proportional to its molecular weight
(b) occupies volume proportional to its specific weight
(c) occupies volume inversely proportional to its molecular weight
(d) occupies volume inversely proportional to its specific weight
(e) occupies same volume.

Ans: e

47. Mixture of ice and water form a

(a) closed system
(b) open system
(c) isolated system
(d) heterogeneous system
(e) thermodynamic system.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

48. Which of the following is the property of a system

(a) pressure and temperature
(b) internal energy
(c) volume and density
(d) enthalpy and entropy
(e) all of the above.

Ans: e

49. On weight basis, air contains following parts of oxygen

(a) 21
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 73
(e) 79.
Ans: b

50. Which of the following is not the intensive property

(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) heat
(e) specific volume.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

51. Which of the following items is not a path function

(a) heat
(b) work
(c) kinetic energy
(d) vdp
(e) thermal conductivity.

Ans: e

52. Work done in an adiabatic process between a given pair of end states
depends on
(a) the end states only
(b) particular adiabatic process
(c) the value of index n
(d) the value of heattransferred
(e) mass of the system.

Ans: a

53. Heat and work are

(a) point functions
(b) system properties
(c) path functions
(d) intensive properties
(e) extensive properties.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

54. Which of the following parameters is constant for a mole for most of the
gases at a given temperature and pressure
(a) enthalpy
(b) volume
(c) mass
(d) entropy
(e) specific volume.

Ans: b

55. The value of n = 1 in the polytropic process indicates it to be

(a) reversible process
(b) isothermal process
(c) adiabatic process
(d) irreversible process
(e) free expansion process.

Ans: b

56. Solids and liquids have

(a) one value of specific heat (ft) two values of specific heat
(c) three values of specific heat
(d) no value of specific heat
(e) one value under some conditions and two values under other conditions.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics
57. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double.
The final temperature is
(a) 54°C
(b) 327°C
(c) 108°C
(d) 654°C
(e) 600°C

Ans: b

58. Curve A in Fig. 1.1 compared to curves B and C shows the following type of
expansion
(a) pV”=C
(b) isothermal
(c) adiabatic
(d) free expansion
(e) throttling.

Ans: b

59. If value of n is infinitely large in a polytropic process pV” = C, then the

process is known as constant
(a) volume
(b) pressure
(c) temperature
(d) enthalpy
(e) entropy.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

60. The index of compression n tends to reach ratio of specific heats y when
(a) flow is uniform and steady
(b) process is isentropic
(c) process is isothermal
(d) process is isentropic and specific heat does not change with temperature
(e) process is isentropic and specific heat changes with temperature.

Ans: d

61. Change in enthalpy of a system is the heat supplied at

(a) constant pressure
(b) constant temperature
(c) constant volume
(d) constant entropy
(e) N.T.P. condition.

Ans: a

62. The term N.T.P. stands for

(a) nominal temperature and pressure
(b) natural temperature and pressure
(c) normal temperature and pressure
(d) normal thermodynamic practice
(e) normal thermodynamic pressure.

Ans: c

63. A heat exchange process in which the product of pressure and volume
remains constant is known as
(a) heat exchange process
(b) throttling process
(c) isentropic process
(d) adiabatic process
(e) hyperbolic process.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics
64. In an isothermal process, the internal energy of gas molecules
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase/decrease depending on the properties of gas
(e) shows unpredictable behaviour.

Ans: c

65. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

(a) deals with conversion of mass and energy
(b) deals with reversibility and irreversibility of process
(c) states that if two systems are both in equilibrium with a third system, they are
in thermal equilibrium with each
other
(d) deals with heat engines
(e) does not exist.

Ans: c

66. If a certain amount of dry ice is mixed with same amount of water at 80°C,
the final temperature of mixture will be
(a) 80°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 40°C
(d) 20°C
(e) 60°C.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

67. The basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature is given by

(a) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law of thermodynamics
(d) third law of thermodynamics
(e) Avogadro’s hypothesis.

Ans: a

68. One watt is equal to

(a) 1 Nm/s
(b) 1 N/mt
(c) 1 Nm/hr
(d) 1 kNm/hr
(e) 1 kNm/mt.

Ans: a

69. Work done is zero for the following process

(a) constant volume
(b) free expansion
(c) throttling
(d) all Of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

70. For which of the following substances, the gas laws can be used with
minimum error
(a) dry steam
(b) wet steam
(c) saturated steam
(d) superheated steam
(e) steam at atmospheric pressure.

Ans: d
71. In a non-flow reversible process for which p = (- 3V+ 15) x 105N/m2,V
changes from 1 m to 2 m3. The work done will be about
(a) 100 xlOO5 joules
(b) lxlO5 joules
(c) 10 xlO5 joules
(d) 10 xlO5 kilo joules
(e) 10xl04kiojoules.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

72. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic
constant for all the gases in M.K.S. unit is
(a) 29.27 kgfm/mol°K
(b) 8314kgfm/mol°K
(c) 848kgfm/mol°K
(d) 427kgfm/mol°K
(e) 735 kgfm/mol°K.

Ans: c

73. On volume basis, air contains following parts of oxygen

(a) 21
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 77
(e) 79.

Ans: a

74. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the molecular weight
of the gas and
(a) specific heat at constant pressure
(b) specific heat at constant volume
(c) ratio of two specific heats
(d) gas constant
(e) unity.

Ans: d

75. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic
constant for all the gases in S.I. units is
(a) 29.27 J/kmol°K
(b) 83.14J/kmol°K
(c) 848J/kmol°K
(d) All J/kmol °K
(e) 735 J/kmol °K.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

76. For which of the following substances, the internal energy and enthalpy are
the functions of temperature only
(a) any gas
(b) saturated steam
(c) water
(d) perfect gas
(e) superheated steam.

Ans: d

77. In a free expansion process

(a) work done is zero
(b) heat transfer is zero
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) work done is zero but heat increases
(e) work done is zero but heat decreases.

Ans: c
78. If a gas vapour is allowed to expand through a very minute aperture, then
such a process is known as
(a) free expansion
(b) hyperbolic expansion
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) parabolic expansion
(e) throttling.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

79. The specific heat of air increases with increase in

(a) temperature
(b) pressure
(c) both pressure and temperature
(d) variation of its constituents
(e) air flow

Ans: a

80. If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum through an orifice of large dimension,
then such a process is called
(a) free expansion
(b) hyperbolic expansion
(c) adiabatic expansion
(d) parabolic expansion
(e) throttling.

Ans: a

81. Which of the following processes are thermodynamically reversible

(a) throttling
(b) free expansion
(c) constant volume and constant pressure
(d) hyperbolic and pV = C
(e) isothermal and adiabatic.
Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

82. Which of the following processes is irreversible process

(a) isothermal
(b) adiabatic
(c) throttling
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

83. In order that a cycle be reversible, following must be satisfied

(a) free expansion or friction resisted expansion/compression process should not
be encountered
(b) when heat is being absorbed, temperature of hot source and working
sub¬stance should be same
(c) when beat is being rejected, temperature of cold source and working
sub-stance should be same
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

84. For a thermodynamic process to be reversible, the temperature difference

between hot body and working substance should be
(a) zero
(b) minimum
(d) maximum
(d) infinity
(e) there is no such criterion.

Ans: a
85. Minimum work in compressor is possible when the value of adiabatic index n
is equal to
(a) 0.75
(b) 1
(c) 1.27
(d) 1.35
(e) 2.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

86. Molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 x 103 N/m2 and 27°C will be
(a) 4.17m3/kgmol
(b) 400 m3/kg mol
(c) 0.15 m3/kg mol
(d) 41.7 m3/kg mol
(e) 417m3/kgmol.

Ans: a

87. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a movable piston to a volume one-half

its original volume. During the process 300 kJ heat left the gas and internal
energy remained same. The work done on gas in Nm will be
(a) 300 Nm
(b) 300,000 Nm
(c) 30 Nm
(d) 3000 Nm
(e) 30,000 Nm.

Ans: b

88. The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine is to

(a) increase higher temperature
(b) decrease higher temperature
(c) increase lower temperature
(d) decrease lower temperature
(e) keep lower temperature constant.

Ans: d

89. Entropy change depends on

(a) heat transfer
(b) mass transfer
(c) change of temperature
(d) thermodynamic state
(e) change of pressure and volume.

Ans: a

90. For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy is

(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) unpredictable
(e) negative.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

91. Isochoric process is one in which

(a) free expansion takes place
(b) very little mechanical work is done by the system
(c) no mechanical work is done by the system
(d) all parameters remain constant
(e) mass and energy transfer do not take place.

Ans: c

92. According to first law of thermodynamics

(a) work done by a system is equal to heat transferred by the system
(b) total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant
(c) internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain constant
(d) total energy of a system remains constant
(e) entropy of a system remains constant.

Ans: d

93. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one
form to other is inferred from
(a) zeroth low of thermodynamic
(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law to thermodynamics
(d) basic law of thermodynamics
(e) claussius statement.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

94. First law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between

(a) heat and work
(b) heat, work and properties of the system
(c) various properties of the system
(d) various thermodynamic processes
(e) heat and internal energy.

Ans: b

95. Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if the

reversible process takes place at constant
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) internal energy
(e) entropy.
Ans: a

96. In an isothermal process, the internal energy

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.

Ans: c

97. Change in internal energy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if

the reversible process takes place at
constant
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) internal energy
(e) entropy.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

98. According to first law of thermodynamics

(a) mass and energy are mutually convertible
(b) Carnot engine is most efficient
(c) heat and work are mutually convertible
(d) mass and light are mutually convertible
(e) heat flows from hot substance to cold substance.

Ans: c

99. Total heat of a substance is also known as

(a) internal energy
(b) entropy
(c) thermal capacity
(d) enthalpy
(e) thermal conductance.

Ans: d

100. First law of thermodynamics

(a) enables to determine change in internal energy of the system
(b) does not help to predict whether the system will or not undergo a change
(c) does not enable to determine change in entropy
(d) provides relationship between heat, work and internal energy
(e) all of the above.

Ans: e

101. Addition of heat at constant pressure to a gas results in

(a) raising its temperature
(b) raising its pressure
(c) raising its volume
(d) raising its temperature and doing external work
(e) doing external work.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

102. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for

(a) reversible engine
(b) irreversible engine
(c) new engine
(d) petrol engine
(e) diesel engine.

Ans: a
103. Measurement of temperature is based on
(a) thermodynamic properties
(b) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(c) first law of thermodynamics
(d) second law of thermodynamics
(e) joule’s law.

Ans: b

104. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon

(a) properties of the medium/substance used
(b) condition of engine
(c) working condition
(d) temperature range of operation
(e) effectiveness of insulating material around the engine.

Ans: d

105. Carnot cycle efficiency is maximum when

(a) initial temperature is 0°K
(b) final temperature is 0°K
(c) difference between initial and final temperature is 0°K
(d) final temperature is 0°C
(e) initial temperature is minimum possible.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

106. An engine operates between temperatures of 900°Kandr2 and another

engine between T2 and 400°K For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be
(a) 650°K
(b) 600°K
(c) 625°K
(d) 700°K
(e) 750°K.
Ans: a

107. If heat be exchanged in a reversible manner, which of the following property

of the working substance will change accordingly
(a) temperature
(b) enthalpy
(c) internal energy
(d) entropy
(e) all of the above.

Ans: d

108. If a system after undergoing a series of processes, returns to the initial state
then
(a) process is thermodynamically in equilibrium
(b) process is executed in closed system cycle
(c) its entropy will change due to irreversibility
(d) sum of heat and work transfer will be zero
(e) no work will be done by the system.

Ans: d

109. Which of the following represents the perpetual motion of the first kind
(a) engine with 100% thermal efficiency
(b) a fully reversible engine
(c) transfer of heat energy from low temperature source to high temperature
source
(d) a machine that continuously creates its own energy
(e) production of energy by temperature differential in sea water at different
levels.

Ans:

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics
110. An actual engine is to be designed having same efficiency as the Carnot
cycle. Such a proposition is
(a) feasible
(b) impossible
(c) possible
(d) possible, but with lot of sophistications
(e) desirable.

Ans: d

112. A manufacturer claims to have a heat engine capable of developing 20 h.p.

by receiving heat input of 400 kcal/mt and working between the temperature
limits of 227° C and 27° C. His claim is
(a) justified
(b) not possible
(c) may be possible with lot of sophistications
(d) cost will be very high
(e) theroretically possible.

Ans: b

113. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at

(a) constant pressure
(b) constant volume
(c) constant temperature
(d) constant enthaply
(e) any one of the above.

Ans: c

114. A diathermic wall is one which

(a) prevents thermal interaction
(b) permits thermal interaction
(c) encourages thermal interaction
(d) discourages thermal interaction
(e) does not exist.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

115. An adiabatic wall is one which

(a) prevents thermal interaction
(b) permits thermal interaction
(c) encourages thermal interaction
(d) discourages thermal interaction
(e) dos not exist.

Ans: a

116. The door of a running refrigerator inside a room was left open. Which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) The room will be cooled to the temperature inside the refrigerator.
(b) The room will be cooled very slightly.
(c) The room will be gradually warmed up.
(d) The temperature of the air in room will remain unaffected.
(e) any one of above is possible depending on the capacity.

Ans: c

117. Compressed air coming out from a punctured football

(a) becomes hotter
(b) becomes cooler1
(c) remains at the same temperature
(d) may become hotter or cooler depend-ing upon the humidity of the
surround¬ing air
(e) attains atmospheric temperature.

Ans: b

118. Water contained in a beaker can be made to boil by passing steam through
it
(a) at atmospheric pressure
(b) at a pressure below the firuosphejric pressure
(c) at a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure
(d) any pressure
(e) not possible.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

119. During throttling process

(a) heat exchange does not take place
(b) no work is done by expanding steam
(c) there is no change of internal energy of steam
(d) all of the above
(e) entropy decreases.

Ans: d

120. The energy of molecular motion appears as

(a) heat
(b) potential energy
(c) surface tension
(d) friction
(e) increase in pressure.

Ans: a

121. A sudden fall in the barometer reading is a sign of approaching

(a) fine weather
(b) rains
(c) storm
(d) cold wave
(e) hot wave.

Ans: c
122. The unit’of universal gas constant is
(a) watts/°K
(b) dynes/°C
(c) ergscm/°K
(d)erg/°K
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

123. Calorie is a measure of

(a) specific heat
(b) quantity of heat
(c) thermal capacity
(d)entropy
(e) work.

Ans: b

124. I kgf/cm2 is equal to

(a) 760 mm Hg
(b) zero mm Hg
(c) 735.6 mm Hg
(d) 1 mm Hg
(e) lOOmmHg.

Ans: c

125. Barometric pressure is equal to

(a) 760 mm Hg
(b) zero mm Hg
(c) 735.6 mm Hg
(d) 1 mm Hg
(e) 100mm Hg.
Ans: a

126. One barometric pressure or 1 atmospheric pressure is equal to

(a) 1 kgf/cnr2
(b) 1.033 kgf/cm2
(c) 0 kgf/cm2
(d) 1.0197 kgf/cm2
(e) 100 kgf/cm2.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

127. The first law of thermodynamics is the law of

(a) conservation of mass
(b) conservation of energy
(c) conservation of momentum
(d) conservation of heat
(e) conservation of temperature.

Ans: b

128. A perpetual motion machine is

(a) a thermodynamic machine
(b) a non-thermodynamic machine
(c) a hypothetical machine
(d) a hypothetical machine whose operation would violate the laws of
thermodynamics
(e) an inefficient machine.

Ans: d

129. Kelvin Planck’s law deals with

(a) conservation of heat
(b) conservation of work
(c) conversion of heat into work
(d) conversion fo work into heat
(e) conservation of mass.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

130. According to Clausis statement of second law of thermodynamics

(a) heat can’t be transferred from low temperature source to high temperature
source
(b) heat can be transferred for low temperature to high temperature source by
using refrigeration cycle.
(c) heat can be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source if
COP of process is more than unity
(d) heat can’t be transferred from low temperature to high temperature source
without the aid of external energy
(e) all of the above.

Ans: d

131. Thermal power plant works on

(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Joule cycle
(d) Rankine cycle
(d) Otto cycle
(e) Brayton cycle.

Ans: c

132. Which of the following is an irreversible cycle

(a) carnot
(b) Stirling
(c) ericsson
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

133. Otto cycle consists of following four processes

(a) two isothermals and two isentropic
(b) two isentropic and two constant volumes
(c) two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropic and two constant pressures
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

134. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on

(a) working substance
(b) design of engine
(c) size of engine
(d) type of fuel fired
(e) temperatures of source and sink.

Ans: e

135. For same compression ratio and for same heat added
(a) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
(b) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
(c) efficiency depends on other factors
(d) both Otto and Diesel cycles are equally efficient
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

136. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum for

(a) gas engine
(b) well lubricated engine
(c) petrol engine
(d) steam engine
(e) reversible engine.

Ans: e

137. Carnot cycle is

(a) a reversible cycle (ft) an irreversible cycle
(c) a semi-reversible cycle
(d) a quasi static cycle
(e) an adiabatic irreversible cycle.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

138. Diesel cycle consists of following four processes

(a) two isothermals and two isentropic
(b) two isentropic, and two constant volumes.
(c) two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropic and two constant pressures
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

139. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles operate within the same temperature
limits, then efficiency of Stirling cycle
as compared to Carnot cycle
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) depends on other factors
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c
140. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are
(a) reversible cycles
(b) irreversible cycles
(c) quasi-static cycles
(d) semi-reversible cycles
(e) adiabatic irreversible cycles.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

141. A cycle consisting of two adiabatics and two constant pressure processes is
known as
(a) Otto cycle
(b) Ericsson cycle
(c) Joule cycle
(d) Stirling cycle
(e) Atkinson cycle.

Ans: c

142. Reversed joule cycle is called

(a) Carnot cycle
(b) Rankine cycle
(c) Brayton cycle
(d) Bell Coleman cycle
(e) Dual cycle.

Ans: c

143. Brayton cycle consists’ of following four processes

(a) two isothermals and two isentropic
(b) two isentropic and two constant volumes
(c) two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropic and two constant pressures
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

144. Which of the following cycles is not a reversible cycle

(a) Carnot
(b) Ericsson
(c) Stirling
(d) Joule
(e) none of the above.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

145. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at
constant pressure is known as
(a) Dual combustion cycle
(b) Diesel cycle
(c) Atkinson cycle
(d) Rankine cycle
(e) Stirling cycle.

Ans: c

146. The efficiency of Diesei cycle with decrease in cut off

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.

Ans: a

147. Which of the following cycles has maximum efficiency

(a) Rankine
(b) Stirling
(c) Carnot
(d) Brayton
(e) Joule.

Ans: c

148. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle without regeneration with increase
pressure ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) increase/decrease depending on application
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

149. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle with regeneration, with increase in
pressure ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) increase/decrease depending on application
(e) unpredictable. ”

Ans: b

150. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration

(a) Brayton cycle
(b) Joule cycle
(c) Carnot cycle
(d) Bell-Coleman cycle
(e) Reversed-Brayton cycle.

Ans: e
151. Gas turbine cycle consists of
(a) two isothermals and two isentropic
(b) two isentropic and two constant volumes
(c) two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(d) two isentropic and two constant pressures
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Thermodynamics

152. The thermodynamic difference between a Rankine cycle working with

saturated steam and the Carnot cycle is that
(a) carnot cycle can’t work with saturated steam
(b) heat is supplied to water at temperature below the maximum temperature of
the cycle
(c) a rankine cycle receives heat at two places
(d) rankine cycle is hypothetical
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

Steam Boilers, Engines, Nozzles

and Turbines
1. For
water, at pressures below atmospheric,
(a) melting
point rises slightly and boiling point drops markedly
(b) melting
point rises markedly and boiling point drops markedly
(c) melting
point drops slightly and boiling point drops markedly
(d) melting
point drops slightly and boiling point drops slightly
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a2. At
very low temperature, the melting and boiling temperatures become equal. This
temperature is
(a) 373°K
(b) 273.16°K
(c) 303°K
(d) 0°K.
(e) 300°K.
Ans: b
3. The
critical pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation is zero is
(a) 225.65
kgf/cm2
(b) 273
kgf/cm2
(c) 100 kgf/cm2
(d) 1
kgf/cm2
(e) – 1 kgf/cm2.
Ans: a

4. The
latent heat of steam at pressures greater than atmospheric in comparison to
latent heat at atmospheric pressure is
(a) less
(b) more
(c) equal
(d) may
be less or more depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

5. The
saturation temperature of steam with increase in pressure increases
(a) linearly
(b) rapidly
first and then slowly
(c) slowly
first and then rapidly
(d) inversely
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

6. Carbonisation
of coal is the process of
(a) pulverising
coal in inert atmosphere
(b) heating
wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below 300°C
(c) strongly
heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed
vessel
(d) binding
the pulverised coal into brick-ettes
(e) enriching
carbon in the coal.
Ans: c

7. Coke
is produced by
(a) pulverising
coal in inert atmosphere
(b) heating
wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below 300GC
(c) strongly
heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the absence of air in a closed
vessel
(d) binding
the pulverised coal into brick-etts
(e) enriching
carbon in the coal.
Ans: c
8. Heating
of dry steam above saturation temperature is known as
(a) enthalpy
(b) superheating
(c) supersaturation
(d) latent heat
(e) super tempering.
Ans: b

9. Superheating
of steam is done at
(a) constant
volume
(b) constant
temperature
(c) constant
pressure
(d) constant
entropy
(e) constant
enthaply.
Ans: c

10. 1
kg.m is equal to
(a) 9.81 Joules
(b) All Joules
(c) 427 Joules
(d) 102 Joules
(e) 539 Joules.
Ans: a

11. If
partial pressure of air and steam be pa andps respectively in a condenser, then
according to Dalton’s law, the pressure in condenser is equal to
(a) Ps-Pa
(b) pa-ps
(C) Pa+P,
Ans: c

12. Equivalent
evaporation is the amount of water evaporated in a boiler from and at
(a) 0°C
(b) 100°C
(c) saturation
temperature at given pressure
(d) room
temperature
(e) 20°C.
Ans: b

13. The
specific volume of steam with increase in pressure decreases
(a) linearly
(b) slowly
first and then rapidly
(c) rapidly
first and then slowly
(d) inversely
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: c

14. The
equivalent evaporation of a boiler is a measure to compare
(a) the
given boiler with the model
(b) the
two different boilers of the same make
(c) two
different makes of boilers operat¬ing under the same operating conditions
(d) two
boilers of same make but operaing under different conditions
(e) any
type of boilers operating under any conditions.
Ans: e

15. The
coal requirement per kW hour generation in the thermal power plant is of the
order of
(a) 0.1 to 0.2 kg
(b) 0.2 to 0.4 kg
(c) 0.6 to 0.8 kg
(d) 1.0 to 1.5 kg
(e) 1.5 to 2 kg.
Ans: c

16. Sublimation
region is the region where
(a) solid
and vapour phases are in equi-librium
(b) solid
and liquid phases are in equilibrium
(c) liquid
and vapour phases are in equilibrium
(d) solid,
liquid and vapour phases are in equilibrium
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a

17. Stoichiometric
quantity of air is the
(a) air
present in atmosphere at NTP conditions
(b) air
required for complete combustion of fuel with no excess air
(c) air
required for optimum combustion so as to have reasonable excess air
(d) air
required to convert CO into C02
(e) air
required to form an explosive mixture.
Ans: b

18. One
kg of steam sample contains 0.8 kg dry steam; it’s dryness fraction is
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.8
(c) 1.0
(d) 0.6
(e) 0.5.
Ans: b

19. If
a steam sample is nearly in dry condition, then its dryness fraction can be
most accurately determined by
(a) throttling
calorimeter
(b) separating
calorimeter
(c) combined
separating and throttling calorimeter
(d) bucket
calorimeter
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a

20. If
xx and x2 be the dryess fractions obtained in separating calorimeter and
throttling
calorimeter respectively, then the actual dryness fraction of steam will be
(a) xxx2
(b) x, + x2
Ans: a
21. The
specific heat of superheated steam in kcal/kg is generally of the order of
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.3
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.8
(e) 1.0.
Ans: c

22. On
Mollier chart, flow through turbine is represented by ‘
(a) horizontal
straight line
(b) vertical
straight line
(c) straight
inclined line
(d) curved line
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

23. A
wet vapour can be completely specified by
(a) pressure
only
(b) temperature
only
(c) dryness
fraction only
(d) specific
volume only
(e) pressure
and dryness fraction.
Ans: e

24. On
Millier chart, the constant pressure lines
(a) diverge
from left to right
(b) diverge
from right to left
(c) are
equally spaced throughout
(d) first
rise up and then fall
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a

25. On
Mollier chart, free expansion, or throttling process from high pressure to
atmosphere is represented by
(a) horizontal
straight line
(b) vertical
straight line
(c) straight
inclined line
(d) curved
line
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a

26. The
bituminous coal is non-caking if its carbon content is
(a) 78-81%
(b) 81-85%
(c) 85-90%
(d) 90-95%
(e) 95-100%.
Ans: a
27. The
dry saturated steam at very low pressure, (5-10 kg/cm2) when throttled to
atmosphere will become
(a) wet
(b) superheated
(c) remain
dry satruated
(d) dry
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

28. Water at pressure of 4 kg/cm2 and 160°C temperature when exposed to

atmosphere will
(a) boil
(b) flash
i.e. get converted into steam
(c) remain
as it was
(d) cool
down
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: b

29. The
dry saturated steam at very high pressure (150-200 kg/cm2) when throttled to
atmosphere will become
(a) wet
(b) superheated
(c) remain
dry saturated
(d) dry
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

30. In
a throttling process
(a) steam temperature remaisn constant
(b) steam pressure remains constant
(c) steam
enthalpy remains constant
(d) steam
entropy remains constant
(e) steam
volume remains constant.
Ans: c

31. In
a throttling process
(a) heat
transfer takes place
(b) work
is done by the expanding steam
(c) internal
energy of steam changes
(d) all
of the above
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: e

32. The
pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation of water is zero, is
(a) below
atmospheric pressure
(b) 1
kg/cm2
(c) 100 kg/cm2
(d) 170
kg/cm2
(e) 225.6 kg/cm2.
Ans: e
33. Latent
heat of dry steam at atmospneric pressure is equal to
(a) 539 kcal/kg
(b) 539 BTU/lb
(c) 427
kcal/kg
(d) 100 kcal/kg
(e) 471
kcal/kg.
Ans: a

34. The
latent heat of steam with increase of pressure
(a) remains same
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) behaves
unpredictably
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: c

35. At
critical point, i.e. p=225.65 kg/cm2, the latent enthalpy of vaporisation is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) depends
on temperature also
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: c

36. At which pressure the properties of water and steam become identical
(a) 0.1 kg/cm2
(b) 1 kg/cm2
(c) 100 kg/cm2
(d) 225.6 kg/cm2
(e) it is never possible.
Ans: d

37. In
an experiment to determine dryness fraction of steam, the mass of water
separated was 1.2 kg in 15 mts and the mass of steam passed out in same time
was 4.8 kg. Dryness fraction is
(a) 40%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 80%
(e) 90%.
Ans: d

38. While
steam expands in turbines, theoretically the entropy
(a) remains
constant
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) behaves
unpredictably
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a

39. Heating
wet steam at constant temperature is heating it at constant
(a) volume
(b) pressure
(c) entropy
(d) enthalpy
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
40. Adiabatic
process is
(a) essentially
an isentropic process
(b) non-heat
transfer process
(c) reversible
process
(d) constant
temperature process
(e) constant
enthalpy process.
Ans: b

41. The
state of vapour under saturation condition is described by
(a) pressure
alone
(b) temperature
alone
(c) pressure
and temperature
(d) pressure and dryness fraction
(e) dryness fraction alone.
Ans: d

42. Pick
up the wrong statement about critical condition of steam
(a) latent
heat is zero
(b) liquid
directly becomes steam
(c) specific
volume of steam and liquid is same
(d) this
is the maximum pressure limit
(e) all
properties of liquid and steam are same.
Ans: d

43. Water
boils when its vapour pressure
(a) equals
that of the surroundings
(b) equals
760 mm of mercury
(c) equals
to atmospheric pressure
(d) equals
the pressure of water in the container
(e) boiling
has ^nothing to do with vapour pressure.
Ans: a

45. Mechanical equivalent of heat for 1 kcal or Joule’s equivalent is

equal to
(a) 421 kgm
(b) 421 kgm
(c) 539 kgm
(d) 102 kgm
(e) 75 kgm.
Ans: a

46. Equivalent
evaporation of water is the evaporation “for a feed water supply at 100°C
(a) and
its corresponding conversion into dry saturated steam at 100°C and 1.033
kg/cm2
(b) and
its corresponding conversion into dry steam at desired boiler pressure
(c) conversion
into steam at atmospheric condition
(d) conversion
into steam at the same pres-sure at which feed water is supplied
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a

47. The
evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C is called
(a) evaporative
capacity
(b) factor
of evaporation
(c) equivalent
evaporation
(d) one
boiler h.p.
(e) boiler
efficiency.
Ans: d

48. The
increase in pressure
(a) lowers
the boiling point of a liquid
(b) raises
the boiling point of a liquid
(c) .does
not affect the boiling point of a liquid
(d) reduces
its volume
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: b

49. During
polytropic process
(a) heat transfer takes place across cylinder walls
(b) work is done
(c) steam
may be wet, dry or superheated after expansion
(d) all
of the above
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: d

50. Hygrometery
deals with the
(a) Hygroscopic
substances
(b) water
vapour in air
(c) temperature
of air
(d) pressure
of air
(e) density
measurement.
Ans: b

51. Orsat
meter is used for
(a) gravimetric
analysis of the flue gases
(b) volumetric
analysis of the flue gases
(c) mass
flow of the flue gases
(d) measuring
smoke density of flue gases
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: b

52. Alkaline
pyrogallate is used in Orsat’s apparatus for absorption of
(a) C02
(b) CO
(c) 02
(d) N2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

53. An
ideal regenerative cycle is
(a) equal
to carnot cycle
(b) less
than carnot cycle
(c) more
than carnot cycle
(d) could
be anything
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: b

54. Efficiency
of rankine cycle can be increased by
(a) decreasing
initial steam pressure and temperature
(b) increasing
exhaust pressure
(c) decreasing
exhaust pressure
(d) increasing
the expansion ratio
(e) increasing
number of regenerative heaters.
Ans: a

55. Cochran
boiler is a
(a) horizontal
fire-tube boiler
(b) horizontal
water-tube boiler
(c) veritcal
water-tube boiler
(d) vertical
fire tube boiler
(e) forced
circulating boiler.
Ans: d

56. Lancashire
‘boiler is a
(a) stationary
fire tube boiler
(b) stationary
water tube boiler
(c) water
tube boiler with natural/forced circulation
(d) mobile
fire tube boiler
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a

57. Efficiency
of a thermal cycle increases by
(a) regeneration
(b) reheating
of steam
(c) both
(a) and (b)
(d) cooling
of steam
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: c

58. One
kilowatt-hour energy is equivalent to
(a) 1000 J
(b) 360 kJ
(c) 3600 kJ
(d) 3600 kW/sec
(e) 1000 kJ.
Ans: c

59. Which
of the following gases has the highest calorific value
(a) producer gas
(b) coal gas.
(c) water gas
(d) blast furnace gas
(e) coke oven gas.
Ans: b

60. 100% efficiency of a thermal cycle cannot be achieved because of

(a) frictional
losses
(b) it
is not possible to achieve 0°K temperature
(c) leakage
(d) non-availability
of ideal substance
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: b

61. For
burning 1 kg of carbon to CO as per chemically correct combusiton, amount of
air required is
(a) 1 kg
(b) 4/3kg
(c) 8/3kg
(d) 2 kg
(e) 16/3 kg.
Ans: b

62. The
diameter of Cornish boiler is of the order of
(a) 1-2 m
(b) 1.5-2.5 m
(c) 2-3 m
(d) 2.5-3.5 m
(e) 0.5 to 1 m.
Ans: a

63. The
lenght of Cornish boiler is of the order of
(a) 2-4 m
(b) 3-5 m
(c) 5-7.5 m
(d) 7-9 m
(e) 9-11 m.
Ans: c

64. The
diameter of fire tube of Cornish boiler compared to its shell is
(a) one half
(b) one third
(c) one-fifth
(d) two-fifth
(e) three-fifth.
Ans: a

65. Steam
engine operates on
(a) carnot cycle
(b) joule cycle
(c) Stirling cycle
(d) brayton cycle
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

66. The
change in internal energy in steam engines equals to
(a) work
done during the rankine cycle ;
(b) work
done during compression.
(c) work
done during adiabatic expansion
(d) change
in enthalpy
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a

67. Water
tube boilers are those in which
(a) flue
gases pass through tubes and water around it
(b) water
passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
(c) work
is done during adiabatic expansion
(d) change
in enthalpy
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: c

68. Locomotive
type’ boiler is
(a) horizontal
multitubular water tube boiler
(b) water
wall enclosed furnace type
(c) vertical
tubular fire tube type
(d) horizontal
multi-tubular fire tube type
(e) none
of the above types.
Ans: d

69. Lancashire
boiler is of
(a) stationary<fire
tube-type
(b) horizontal
type
(c) natural
cirulation type
(d) internally
fired type
(e) all
of the above.
Ans: e

70. Fire
tube boilers are those in which
(a) flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
(b) water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
(c) forced
circulation takes place
(d) tubes
are laid vertically
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a
71. Which
of the following substance will have same percentage in both proximate and
ultimate analysis
(a) ash
(b) volatile matter
(c) moisture
(d) hydrogen
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

72. The
number of flue tubes in Lancashire boiler is
(a) zero
(b) one
(c) two
(d) four
(e) many.
Ans: c

73. Which
of the following is a fire tube boiler
(a) locomotive boiler
(b) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
(c) Stirling
boiler.
(d) all
of the above
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a

74. Which
of the following is a water tube boiler
(a) locomotive
boiler
(b) Cochran
boiler
(c) Cornish
boiler
(d) Babcock
and Wilcox boiler
(e) Lancashire
boiler.
Ans: d

75. The
diameter of cylindrical shell of the Lancashire boiler is of the order of
(a) 1 tp 1.25m
(b) 1 to 1.75 m
(c) 2 to 4 m
(d) 1.75 to 2.75 m
(e) 2.25 to 4.5 m.
Ans: d

76.A
packaged boiler is one in which various parts like firing equipment, fans, feed
pumps and automatic controls are
(a) supplied
by same manufacturer loose and assembled at site
(b) supplied
mounted on a single base
(c) purchased
from several parties and packed together at site
(d) packaged
boiler does not exist
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: b

77. The
biggest size of thermal power unit operating in India is
(a) 30 MW
(b) 60 MW
(c) 100 MW
(d) 210 MW
(e) 500 MW.
Ans: e

78. Which
of the following coals has the highest calorific value
(a) anthracite coal
(b) bituminous coal
(c) lignite
(d) peat
(e) wood.
Ans: a

79. The
high pressure boiler is oiie producing steam at a pressure more than
(a) atmospheric
pressure
(b) 5
kg/cm2
(c) 10 kg/cm2
(d) 40
kg/cm2
(e) 75-80 kg/cm2.
Ans: e

80. The
crown of the fire box is made hemispherical in order to
(a) give
maximum space
(b) give
maximum strength
(c) withstand
pressure inside boiler ,
(d) resist
intense heat in fire box
(e) enable
easy,manufacture.
Ans: d

81. Which
of the following is steam dbal
(a) non-coking
bituminous coal
(b) brown
coal
(c) pulverised coal
(d) coking
bituminous coal
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a

82. The
fire tubes in, a Coarran and Scotish marine boiler are
(a) horizontal
(b) vertical
(c) inclined
(d) both
horizontal and vertical
(e) horizontal
and inclined.
Ans: a

83. The
diameter of internal flue tubes in a Lancashire boiler compared to its shell is
(a) one-half
(b) one-third
(c) one-fourth
(d) one-fifth
(e) two-fifth.
Ans: e
84. The
basic purpose of drum in boiler is to
(a) serve
as storage of steam
(b) serve
as storage of feed water for water wall
(c) remove
salts from water
(d) separate
steam from water
(e) control
level.
Ans: d

85. Duplex
feed pumps are used in small steam boilers. These operate on the principle of
(a) centrifugal
pump
(b) axial
flow pump
(c) gear
pump
(d) ejector
pump
(e) reciprocating
pump.
Ans: e

86. The
best suited coal for chain or travelling grate stoker boiler is
(a) coking
coal
(b) non
coking or free burning coal
(c) pulverised
coal
(d) high
sulphur coal
(e) least
ash content coal.
Ans: b

87. In
natural circulation type boiler,
(a) heating
takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the
mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
(b) water
is supplied in durm and through down-comers located in atmospheric conditon it
passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and
steam
(c) feed
pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(d) water
is converted into steam in one . pass without any recirculation
(e) water
is fed at atmospheric pressure.
Ans: a

88. Hard
coke is produced by carborisation of coal at
(a) atmospheric temperature
(b) 500-600°C
(c) 70O-850°C
(d) 95O-1100°C
(e) 120O-1500°C.
Ans: d

89.. Hard coke is used in

(a) cement
industry
(b) thermal
power plant
(c) blast
furnace
(d) domestic
use
(e) locomotives
Ans: c

90. Pick
up the correct statement as regards Cornish boiler and Lancashire boiler
(a) cornish
is fire tube and lancashire is water tube
(b) cornish
is water tube and lancashire is fire tube
(c) cornish
has two fire tubes and lancashire has one
(d) lancashire
has two fire tubes and cornish has one
(e) both
have two fire tubes.
Ans: d

91. In
locomotive boiler, maximum steam pressure is limited to
(a) 1 kg/cm2
(b) 5 kg/cm2
(c) 10 kg/cm2
(d) 18 kg/cm2
(e) 31 kg/cm2.
Ans: d

92. Locomotive
boiler is of the following type
(a) multitubular
(b) horizontal
(c) internally fired
(d) mobile
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e
93. The
shell diameter and length of locomotive boiler are
(a) 1.5 m, 4 m
(b) 1.5 m, 6 m
(c) 1 m, 4 m
(d) 2 m, 4 m
(e) 1.5 m, 8 m.
Ans: a

94. The
diameters of fire tubes and superheaer tubes in locomotive boiler are
(a) 47.5
mm, 130 mm
(b) 32.5
mm, 180 mm
(c) 65.5
mm, 210 mm
(d) 24.5
mm, 65 mm
Ans: a

95. The
water tubes in a babcock and wilcox boiler are
(a) horizontal
(b) vertical
(c) inclined
(d) horizontal
and inclined
(e) vertical
and inclined.
Ans: c

96. Which
of the following varieties of coals is mostly used in steam boilers
(a) non-coking
bituminous coal
(b) brown
coal
(c) peat
(d) coking
bituminous coal
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: e

97.The
diameter of tubes for natural circulation boiler as compared to controlled
circulation boilers is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) could
be more or less depending on other factors
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a

98.A
boiler in India should conform to safety regulations of
(a) DIN
(b) BS
(c) ASTM
(d) IBR
(e) GOST.
Ans: d

99. The
function of injector used in small steam plants is to
(a) create
vacuum in furnace
(b) create
vacuum at turbine exhaust
(c) pump
feed water
(d) dose
chemicals in feed water
(e) control
steam temperature by injecting water.
Ans: c

100. Which
of the following boilers is best suited to meet fluctuating demands
(a) babcock
and wilcox
(b) locomotive

(c) lancashire
(d) cochran
(e) comish.
Ans: b

101. The
difference between cornish boiler and lancashire boiler is that
(a) former
is fire tube type and latter is water tube type boiler
(b) former
is water tube type and latter is fire tube type
(c) former
contains one fire tube and latter contains two fire tubes
(e) none/of
the above.
Ans: c

102. In
accelerated circulation type boiler
(a) heating
takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the
mixture of stdam bubbles and hot water which rise to durm
(b) water
is supplied in drum and through downcomers” located in atmospheric
conditon it passes to the water wall and rises to durm in the from of mixture
of water and steam
(c) feed
pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(e) water is converted into steam in one pass without any
recirculation
(e) water is fed under high pressure and high velocity.
Ans: b

103. Pick
up the wrong statement about water tube boiler in comparison to fire tube
boilers
(a) former
generates steam at high pressure
(b) former
occupies less space for same power
(c) rate
of steam flow is more in former case
(d) former
is used for high installed capacity
(e) chances
of explosion are less in former case.
Ans: e

104. The
number of drums in Benson steam generator is
(a) one
(b) two
(c) one
steam drum and one water drum
(d) no
drum
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: d

105. A
fusible plug is fitted in small boilers in order to
(a) avoid
excessive build up of pressure
(b) avoid
explosion
(c) extinguish
fire if water level in the boiler falls below alarming limit
(d) control
steam dome
(e) remove
molten aslj.
Ans: c

106. The
fusible plug in small boilers is located
(a) in
the drum
(b) in
the fire tubes
(c) above
steam dome
(d) over
the combustion chamber
(e) at
the inlet of chimney.
Ans: d

107. Fusible plug for boilers is made of fusible metal containing tin,
lead, and
(a) bismuth
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) nickel
(e) iron.
Ans: a

108. Boiler H.P. is defined as the

(a) steam
evaporation rate per kg of fuel fired
(b) work
done in evaporating 1 kg of steam per hour from and at 100°C into dry saturated
steam
(c) the
evaporation of 15.65 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C into dry saturated
steam
(d) work
done by 1 kg of steam at saturation condition
(e) heat consumed in evaporating 1 kg water at 0°C to steam at
100°C and 1.033 kg/cm pressure.
Ans: c

109. In
forced recirculation type boiler,
(a) heating
takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the
mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
(b) water
is supplied in drum and through down-comers located in atmospheric condition it
passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and
steam
(c) feed
pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(d) water
is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
(e) heating
of water takes place in stages.
Ans: c

110. The
ratio of heat utilised to produce steam and the heat liberated in furnace is
known as
(a) boiler
effectiveness
(b) boiler
evaporative capacity
(c) factor
of evaporation
(d) equivalent
evaporation
(e) boiler
efficiency.
Ans: e

111. Steam
in water tube boiler as compared to fire tube boiler
(a) can
be raised rapidly
(b) is
raisd at slower rate
(c) is
raised at same rate
(d) could
be raised at fast/slow rate depending on design
(e) none of the above is true.
Ans: a

112. Thermal
efficiency of well maintained boiler will be of the order
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 50%
(d) 75%
(e) 90%.
Ans: e

113.Thermal
efficiency of a thermal power plant is of the order of
(a) 15%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 45%
(e ) 60%.
Ans: c

114. It
is required to produce large amount of steam at low pressure. Which boiler
should be used ?
(a) pulverised
fuel fired boiler
(b) cochran
boiler
(c) lancashire
boiler
(d) babcock
and wilcox boiler
(e) stoker
fired boiler.
Ans: c

115. The
overall efficiency of thermal power plant is
(a) boiler
efficiency, turhine efficiecny, generator efficiency
(b) all
the three above plus gas cycle efficiency
(c) carnot
cycle efficiency
(d) regenerative
cycle efficiency
(e) rankine
cycle efficiency.
Ans: a

116. Which
type of boiler can meet rapid changes of load
(a) vertical
fire tube type
(b) horizontal
fire tube type
(c) horizontal
water tube type
(d) vertical
water tube type
(e) forced
circulation type.
Ans: e

117. In
forced circulation type boiler
(a) heating
takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom gets converted into the
mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise to drum
(b) water
is supplied in drum and through down-comers located in atmospheric condition it
passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the form of mixture of water and
steam
(c) feed
pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water wall type furnace
(d) water
is converted into steam in one pass without any recirculation
(e) water
is heated in a large number of tubes.
Ans: d

118. Boiler
stays are used to
(a) prevent
flat surfaces under pressure from tearing apart
(b) take
care of failure in shear
(c) take
care of failure in compression
(d) provide
support for boiler
(e) provide
foundation of boiler.
Ans: a

119. The
radius of a dished head is taken approximately as
(a) one-fourth
(b) half
(c) one
(d) two
(e) three.
Ans: c

120. Size
of boiler tubes is specified by
(a) mean
diameter and thickness
(b) inside
diameter and thickness
(c) outside
diameter and thickness
(d) outside
diameter and inside diameter
(e) outside
diameter alone.
Ans: c

121. The
heat loss in a boiler takes place in the form of
(a) heat
carried away by flue gases
(b) heat
carried away by ash
(c) moisture
present in fuel and steam formed by combustion of hydrogen in fuel
(d) radiation
(e) all
of the above.
Ans: e

122.The
major axis of elliptical manholes on the shell should be provided
(a) longitudinally
(b) circumferentially
(c) on dished end
(d) anywhere
(e) vertically.
Ans: b

123.In
which of the following boilers, the draught in furnace is increased by
utilising exhaust steam from engine
(a) lancashire
boiler
(b) locomotive
boiler
(c) babcock
and wilcox boiler
(d) cochran
boiler
(e) benson
boiler.
Ans: b

124. With
increase in load, radiant superheater has
(a) drooping
characteristic
(b) lihear
characterisstic
(c) rising
characteristic
(d) flat characteristic
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

125. With
increase in load, convection superheater has
(a) drooping
characteristic
(b) linear
characterisstic
(c) rising
characteristic
(d) flat
characteristic
(c) none
of the above.
Ans: c

126. The
diameter of fire tubes in Cochran boiler is of the order of
(a) 2 cm
(b) 6 Cm ,
(C) 8 cm
(d) 12 cm
(e) 15
cm.
Ans: b

127. In
a recuperative air preheater, the heat is transferred
(a) from
a metal wall from one medium to another
(b) from
heating an itermediate material and then heating the air from this material
(c) by
direct mixing ,
(d) heat
is transferred by bleeding some gases from furnace
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a

128. A
safety valve in a locomotive starts leaking. The leaking medium will be
(a) water
(b) dry steam
(c) wet steam
(d) super heated steam
(e) supersaturated steam.
Ans: d

129. The
temperature of flue gases at air heater outlet should be
(a) 100°C
(b) above
dew-point temperature of flue gases
(c) below
dew-point temperature of flue gases
(d) less
than wet bulb temperature of flue gases
(e) above
wet bulb temperature of flue gases.
Ans: b

130. In
regenerative air preheater, the heat is transferred
(a) from
a metal wall from one medium to another
(b) from
heating an intermediateanaterial and then heating the air from this material
(c) by
direct mixing
(d) heat
is transferred by bleeding some gas from furnace
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: b

131. In
designing air preheater, the important design consideration is that
(a) approach
temperature should be as low as possible
(b) handling
and maintenance should be easier
(c) heat
transfer area should be optimum
(d) stack
gases should not be cooled to the dew point
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: d

132. The
pressure of reheat steam after passing through reheater compared to inlet
condition is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) may
be more or less depending on capacity of reheater
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: b

133. The
function of injector used in small capacity boilers is to
(a) create
vacuum
(b) inject
chemical solution in feed pump
(c) pump
water, similar to boiler feed pump
(d) add
make up water in the system
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: c

134.The
safety valve at superheater as compared to drum safety valve setting is set at
(a) higher value
(b) lower value
(c) same value
(d) any value
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

135. The
height of chimney in a power plant is governed by
(a) the
draft to be created
(b) limitation
of construction facilities
(c) control
of pollution
(d) quantity
of flue gases to be handled
(e) all
of the above.
Ans: c

136. Steam
exhaust from high pressure turbine is reheated in
(a) boiler drum
(b) superheater tubes
(c) economiser
(d) a separate coil
(e) a separate coil located in convection path.
Ans: e
137. Vacuum
for reciprocating steam engines compared to steam turbines is
(a) more
(b) equal
(c) less
(d) could
be more or less depending on the size of plant
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: c

138.Expanding
steam to a very low prseeure (high vacuum) in steam engines is
(a) desirable
(b) economical
(c) essential
(d) optional
(e) uneconomical.
Ans: e

139. In
locomotives, the draught is produced by
(a) chimney
(b) induced
draft fan
(c) both
combined (a) and (b)
(d) steam
jet draught
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: d

140.Reheating
of steam under ideal conditions takes place at constant
(a) entropy
(b) enthaply
(c) pressure
(d) temperature
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

141. The
maximum discharge through a chimney occurs when the height of chimney is
(a) infinitely long
(b) around 200 meters
(c) equal
to the height of the hot gas column producing draught
(d) outside
temperature is very low
(e) more
than the tallest building nearby.
Ans: c

142. Proximate
analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of
(a) carbon,
hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture
(b) fixed
carbon, ash, volatile matter, moisture
(c) higher
calorific value
(d) lower
calorific value
(e) rough
analysis.
Ans: b

143. Which
device is used in thermal power plants to reduce level of pollution
(a) induced
draft fan
(b) smoke
meter
(c) chimney
(d) precipitator
(e) pulveriser.
Ans: d

144. Bomb
calorimeter is used to determine
(a) Higher
calorific value at constant volume
(b) Lower
calorific value at constant volume ,
(c) Higher
calorific value at constant pressure
(d) Lower
calorific value at constant pressure
(e) None
of the above.
Ans: a

145. Ultimate analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of

(a) carbon,
hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture
(b) fixed
carbon, ash, volatile matter, moisture
(c) higher
calorific value
(b) lower calorific value
(e) best analysis.
Ans: a

146. For
combutsion of a fuel, following is essential
(a) correct
fuel air ratio
(b) proper
ignition temperature
(c) 02
to support combustion
(d) all
the three above
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: d

147. Spontaneous
combustion is a phenomenon in which
(a) all
the fuel burns instantaneously producing high energy release
(b) fuel
burns with less air
(c) coal
bursts into flame without any external ignition source but by itself due to
gradual increase in temperature as a result of heat released by combination of
oxygen with coal
(d) explosion
in furnace
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: c

148. The
economiser is used in boilers to
(a) increase
thermal efficiency of boiler
(b) economise
on fuel
(c) extract
heat from the exhaust flue gases
(d) increase
flue gas temperature
(e) to
heat feed water by bled steam.
Ans: a
149. An
economiser in a boiler
(a) increases
steam pressure
(b) increases
steam flow
(c) decreases
fuel consumption
(d) decreases
steam pressure
(e) increases
life of boiler.
Ans: c

150.02
content in atmospheric air on volume basis is
(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(d) 30%
(d) 40%
(e) 70%.
Ans: a

151.02
content in atmospheric air on weight basis is
(a) 21%
(b) 23%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
(e ) 70%.
Ans: b

152. Primary
air is the air used to
(a) provide
air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
(b) transport
and dry the coal
(c) convert
CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into C02 at higher zone
(d) air-delivered
by forced draft fan
(e) none
ot the above.
Ans: b

153. Sulphur
content of fuels is very important to the plant operators because it
(a) has
high heating value
(b) retards
electric precipitation
(c) promotes
complete combustion
(d) has
highly corrosive effect
(e) facilitates
ash removal.
Ans: d

154. Presence
of moisture in fuel oil would
(a) keep
the burner tips cool
(b) aid
in proper combustion
(c) cause
sputtering, possibly extinguish¬ing flame
(d) clean
the nozzles
(e) reduce
flame length.
Ans: c
155. Gusset
stays in a boiler are provided to
(a) prevent
the bulging of flat surfaces
(b) avoid
explosion in furnace
(c) prevent
leakage of hot flue gases
(d) support
furnace freely from top
(e) prevent
atmospheric air leaking into furnace.
Ans: a

156. Water
and sediment in fuel oil can be removed by
(a) heating
the oil in the settling tanks
(b) cooling
the oil in the settling tanks
(c) burning
the oil
(d) suspension
(e) filtering.
Ans: a

157. Pour
point of fuel oil is the
(a) lowest
temperature at which oil will flow under set condition
(b) storage
temperature
(c) temperature
at which fuel is pumped through burners
(d) temperature
at which oil is transported
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a

158. Secondary
air is the used to
(a) provide
air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
(b) transport
and dry the coal
(c) convert
CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into C02 at higher zone
(d) air
delivered by induced draft fan
(e) air
fed to pulverisers.
Ans: a

159. The
behaviour of coal in a furnace is determained by
(a) the
content of sulphur
(b) the
content of ash and heating value
(c) the
proximate analysis
(d) the
exact analysis
(e) its
type.
Ans: c

160. Pick up wrong statement about desired properties of a good fuel

(a) high
calorific value
(b) produce
minimum smoke and gases
(c) ease
in storing
(d) high
ignition point
(e) ecomomical
Ans: d

161. Sulphur
in coal results in
(a) causing
clinkering and slagging
(b) corroding
air heaters
(c) spontaneous
combustion during coal storage
(d) facilitating
ash precipitation
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

162. Caking
coals are those which
(a) form
lumps or masses of coke
(b) burn
freely
(c) show
little or no fusing action
(d) burn
completely
(e) do
not form ash.
Ans: a

163. Green
coal, in order to be burnt, must be
(a) heated
sufficiently
(b) burnt
in excess air
(c) heated
to its ignition point
(d) burnt
as powder
(e) burnt
as lumps.
Ans: c

164. The
ultimate analysis of fuel lists
(a) various
chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen etc, plus ash as per-cents by
volume
(b) various
chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, etc, plus ash as per-cents by
weight
(c) fuel
constituents as percents by volume of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(d) fuel
constituents as percents by weight of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(e) moisture
and ash free heating value.
Ans: b

165. The
proximate analysis of fuel lists
(a) various
chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen etc, plus ash as per-cents by
volume
(b) various
chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, etc, plus ash as per-cents by
weight
(c) fuel
constituents as percents by volume of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(d) fuel
constituents as percents by weight of moisture, volatile, fixed carbon and ash
(e) moisture
and ash free heating value.
Ans: d

166. Tertiary
air is the air used to
(a) provide
air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
(b) transport
and dry the coal
(c) cool
the scanners
(d) supply
air for ignitors
(e) convert
CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into C02 at higher zone.
Ans: e

167.The
safety valve on boiler drum compared to safety valve on superheater is set at
(a) same value
(b) higher value
(c) lower
value
(d) lower/higher
depending on steam flow
(e) unpredicatble.
Ans: b

168. Which
is not correct statement about pulverised fuel firing
(a) high
burning rate is possible
(b) heat
release can be easily controlled
(c) fuel
burns economically
(d) it
is the best technique for burning high ash content fuel having low fusion ash
(e) separate
mills are required to powder the coal.
Ans: d

169. The
three “Ts” for good combustion are
(a) temperature,
time, and turbulance
(b) total
air, true fuel, and turbulance
(c) thorough
mixing, total air, and temperature
(d) total
air, time, and temperature
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a

170. Which is not correct statement about the function of furnace

(a) to
provide proper conditions for con-tinuous complete combustion
(b) mix
fuel with air and ignite
(c) separate
ash from coal
(d) maintain
heat supply to prepare and ignite the incoming fuel
(e) to
minimise radiation losses.
Ans: c

171. Which is not correct statement about effect of sulphur in fuel

(a) it
has heating value
(b) it
helps in electrostatic precipitation of ash in flue-gases
(c) it
leads to corrosion of air heaters, ducting, etc. if flue gas exit temperature
is low
(d) it
erodes furnace walls
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: d

172. Heating value of fuel used is as on fired basis. If it is reported for dry
or moisture free fuel, then latter should be multiplied by the following factor
to correct for as fired value
(a) (1-
moisture content)
(b) (1
+ moisture content)
(c) 1 + moisture content
(d) 1 – moisture content
Ans: a

173. Gardually
increasing temperature of flue gases at inlet to chimney for given steam
outputs is an indication of
(a) higher
effectiveness of boiler
(b) high
calorific value coal being burnt
(c) fouling
of heat transfer surfaces
(d) raising of steam temperature
(e) leakage of air.
Ans: c

174. Incomplete
combustion can be best judged by
(a) smoky
chimney exit
(b) excess
air in flue gases
(c) measuring
carbon mono-oxide in flue gases
(d) measuring
temperature of flue gases at exit of furnace
(e) measuring
oxygen in flue gases.
Ans: c

175. The
capacity of induced draft fan compared to forced draft fan in a boiler is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) less
or more depending on size of boiler
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

176. Pulverised
fuel is used for
(a) better
burning
(b) more
calorific value
(c) less
radiation loss
(d) medium
sized units
(e) stoker
fired boilers.
Ans: a
177. Calorific
value of coal is of the order of
(a) 200-400
kcal/kg
(b) 800-1200
kcal/kg
(c) 2000-4000
kcal/kg
(d) 5000-8000
kcal/kg
(e) 8000-10,000
kcal/kg.
Ans: c

178. Evaporative
capacity of boiler is expressed as
(a) kg
of steam produced
(b) steam
pressure produced
(c) kg
of fuel fired
(d) kg
of steam produced per kg of fuel fifed
(e) kg
of water evaporated.
Ans: d

179. Boiler
parameters are expressed by
(a) tonnes/hr.
of steam
(b) pressure
of steam in kg/cm2
(c) temperature
of steam in °C
(d) all
of the above
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: d

180. The
condition of steam in boiler drum is always
(a) dry
(b) wet
(c) saturated
(d) supersaturated
(e) superheated.
Ans: b

181. The
balanced draft furnace is one using
(a) induced
draft fan and chimney
(b) induced
draft fan and forced draft fan
(c) forced
draft fan and chimney
(d) any
one of the above
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: b

182. In
ordetjo obtain superheated steam, a superheater is added in an existing boiler.
As as result, furnace vacuum will
(a) remain
unaffected
(b) improve
(c)
worsen
(d) may
improve/worsen depending on size
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

183. Maximum
energy loss in a boiler occurs due to
(a) unburnt
carbon in ash
(b) incomplete
combustion
(c) ash
content
(d) flue gases
(e) radiation losses.
Ans: d

184. Overfire
burning is the phenomenon of
(a) supply
of excess, air
(b) supply
of excess coal
(c) burning
CO and unburnts in upper zone of furnace by supplying more air
(d) fuel
bed firing
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: c

185. Which
is not the correct statement about moisture in coal
(a) inherent
moisture and surface mois¬ture are different things
(b) in
some coals moisture may be present upto 40%
(c) some
moisture in coal helps in better burning which is not possible with completely
dry coal
(d) it
increases thermal efficiency
(e) moisture
in coal is removed before firing by heating it with hot air.
Ans: d

186. Deaeration
of feed water is carried out because it reduces
(a) cavitation
of .boiler feed pumps
(b) corrosion
caused by oxygen
(c) heat
transfer coefficient
(d) pH
value of water
(e) weight
of water to be handled.
Ans: b

187. A
supercritical boiler is one that operates above the pressure and temperature of
following values
(a) 100
kg/cm2 and 540°C
(b) 1
kg/cm2 and 100°C
(c) 218
kg/cm2 abs and 373°C
(d) 218 kg/cm2 abs and 540°C
(e) 100 kg/cm2 abs and 373°C
Ans: c

188. Natural
water circulation, by convection in water tube boilers, with increase in
pressure of boiler
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains
unaffected
(d) first
increases and then decreases
(e) first
decreases and then increases.
Ans: b

189. The
steam temperature with increase in load in case of a boiler fitted with
radiation superheater
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains
unaffected
(d) first
increases and then decreases
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

190. During
storage, the heating value of coal
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains
constant
(d) may
increase or decrease depending upon the method of storage
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: b

191. The
relative heat absorption for successively added equal areas of boiler
convection heating surfaces
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains
unaffected
(d) first
increases and then decreases
(e) first
decreases and then increases.
Ans: b

192. Film
boling occurs at
(a) very
low pressure
(b) atmospheric
pressures
(c) medium
pressures
(d) very
high pressures
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: d

193.Fire
tube boilers are limited to a maximum design working pressure of
(a) 1 kg/cm
(b) 6 kg/cm
(c) 17 kg/cm2
(d) 100 kg/cm2
(e) 250 kg/cm2.
Ans: c

194.For
the same diameter and thickness of tube, a water tube boiler compared to a fire
tube boiler has
(a) more
heating surface
(b) less
heating surface
(c) equal
heating surface
(d) heating
surface depends on other parameters
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: a

195.In
water wall furnace, the heat is transferred to the water-walls by
(a) convection
(b) radiation
(c) conduction
(d) radiation
and conducton
(e) radiation
and convection.
Ans: b

196. Relative
percentage of heat absorbed through the heat transfer of
(i) furnace water wall,
(ii) boiler bank,
(Hi) superheater,
(iv) economiser,
(v) airheater of a typical boiler of 200 MW capacity would be of the order of
(a) 48:20:15:7:10
(b) 10:7:15:20:48
(c) 20:48:7:15:10
(d) 7:15:20:10:48
(e) 48:15:10:7:20.
Ans: a
197. The
feed check valve is used in order to
(a) regulate
flow of boiler water
(b) check
level of water in boiler drum
(c) recirculate
unwanted feed water
(d) allow
high pressure feed water to flow to drum and not allow reverse flow to take
place
(e) none
of the above.
Ans: d

198.The
size of a boiler drum in pulverised fuel fired boiler,as its size and capacity,
(steam pressure and flow ratings) increase
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains
unchanged
(d) increases/decreases
depending on steam temperature requirements
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

199. Feed
water conditioning in thermal power plants in done to
(a) reduce
hardness and for removal of solids
(b) increase
efficiency-of thermal power plant
(c) increase
*heat transfer rate
(d) increase
steam parameters
(e) all
of the above.
Ans: a

200. The
basic job of feed water treatment in boilers is to overcome the problem of
(a) corrosion
(b) scale
(c) carryover
(d) embitterment
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

Fluid Mechanics
1. Fluid is a substance that
(a) cannot be subjected to shear forces
(b) always expands until it fills any container
(c) has the same shear stress.at a point regardless of its motion
(d) cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
(e) flows.
Ans: d
2. Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to change of
(a) pressure
(b) flow
(c) shape
(d) volume
(e) temperature.
Ans: c3. Practical fluids
(a) are viscous
(b) possess surface tension
(c) are compressible
(d) possess all the above properties
(e) possess none of the above properties.
Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

4. In a static fluid
(a) resistance to shear stress is small
(b) fluid pressure is zero
(c) linear deformation is small
(d) only normal stresses can exist
(e) viscosity is nil.

Ans: d

5. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is

(a) incompressible
(b) inviscous
(c) viscous and incompressible
(d) inviscous and compressible
(e) inviscous and incompressible.

Ans: e

6. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following

(a) Newton’s law of motion
(b) Newton’s law of viscosity
(c) Pascal’ law
(d) Continuity equation
(e) Boundary layer theory.

Ans: d

7. If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance is known

as
(a) fluid
(b) water
(c) gas
(d) perfect solid
(e) ideal fluid.

Ans: e
Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

8. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is known as

(a) volumetric strain
(b) volumetric index
(c) compressibility
(d) adhesion
(e) cohesion.

Ans: c

9. Liquids
(a) cannot be compressed
(b) occupy definite volume
(c) are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
(d) are not viscous
(e) none of the above.

Ans: e

10. Density of water is maximum at

(a) 0°C
(b) 0°K
(c) 4°C
(d) 100°C
(e) 20°C.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

11. The value of mass density in kgsecVm4 for water at 0°C is

(a) 1
(b) 1000
(c) 100
(d) 101.9
(e) 91

Ans: d

12. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.

Ans: b

13. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid known as
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
(d) viscosity
(e) compressibility.

Ans: c

14. The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is known as
(a) compressibility
(b) surface tension
(c) cohesion
(d) adhesion
(e) viscosity.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

15. Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids are attracted
to each other is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.

Ans: a

16. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m”

(a) at normal pressure of 760 mm
(b) at 4°C temperature
(c) at mean sea level
(d) all the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

17. Specific weight of water in S.I. units is equal to

(a) 1000 N/m3
(b) 10000 N/m3
(c) 9.81 xlO3 N/m3
(d) 9.81 xlO6N/m3
(e) 9.81 N/m3.

Ans: c

18. When the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at every point,
then flow is said to be
(a) quasi static
(b) steady state
(c) laminar
(d) uniform
(e) static.

Ans: d
Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

19. Which of the following is demensionless

(a) specific weight
(b) specific volume
(c) specific speed
(d) specific gravity
(e) specific viscosity.

Ans: d

20. The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all directions at a point only if
(a) it is incompressible
(b) it has uniform viscosity
(c) it has zero viscosity
(d) it is frictionless
(e) it is at rest.

Ans: e

21. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all the directions when
the fluid is
(a) moving
(b) viscous
(c) viscous and static
(d) inviscous and moving
(e) viscous and moving.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

22. An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81kg on a spring balance. The value
of ‘g’ at this place is
(a) 10m/sec2
(b) 9.81 m/sec2
(c) 10.2/m sec
(d) 9.75 m/sec2
(e) 9 m/sec .

Ans: a

23. The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following property
(a) cohesion
(b) adhesion
(c) viscosity
(d) surface tension
(e) elasticity.

Ans: d

24. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature compared to that of

water is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more or less depending on size of glass tube
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

25. A perfect gas

(a) has constant viscosity
(b) has zero viscosity
(c) is in compressible
(d) is of theoretical interest
(e) none of the above.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

26. For very great pressures, viscosity of moss gases and liquids
(a) remains same
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) shows erratic behavior
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

27. A fluid in equilibrium can’t sustain

(a) tensile stress
(b) compressive stress
(c) shear stress
(d) bending stress
(e) all of the above.

Ans: c

28. Viscosity of water in comparison to mercury is

(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) higher/lower depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: a

29. The bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in pressure

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) increases first up to certain limit and then decreases
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: a
Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

30. The bulk modulus of elasticity

(a) has the dimensions of 1/pressure
(b) increases with pressure
(c) is large when fluid is more compressible
(d) is independent of pressure and viscosity
(e) is directly proportional to flow.

Ans: b

31. A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle

(a) law of gravitation
(b) Archimedes principle
(c) principle of buoyancy
(d) all of the above
(e) continuity equation.

Ans: d

32. The value of the coefficient of compressibility for water at ordinary pressure
and temperature in kg/cm is equal to
(a) 1000
(b) 2100
(c) 2700
(d) 10,000
(e) 21,000.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

33. The increase of temperature results in

(a) increase in viscosity of gas
(b) increase in viscosity of liquid
(c) decrease in viscosity of gas
(d) decrease in viscosity of liquid
(e) (a) and (d) above.

Ans: d

34. Surface tension has the units of

(a) newtons/m
(b) newtons/m
(c) new tons/m
(d) newtons
(e) newton m.

Ans: c

35. Surface tension

(a) acts in the plane of the interface normal to any line in the surface
(b) is also known as capillarity
(c) is a function of the curvature of the interface
(d) decreases with fall in temperature
(e) has no units.

Ans: a

36. The stress-strain relation of the newtoneon fluid is

(a) linear
(b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic
(d) inverse type
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

37. A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm2 and a

volume of 0.039 m3 at 150 kg/cm2. The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is
(a) 400 kg/cm2
(b) 4000 kg/cm2
(c) 40 x 105 kg/cm2
(d) 40 x 106 kg/cm2
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

38. The units of viscosity are

(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/metre
(c) newton-sec per metre2
(d) newton-sec per meter
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

39. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon

(a) pressure
(b) distance
(c) level
(d) flow
(e) density.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

40. Units of surface tension are

(a) energy/unit area
(b) distance
(c) both of the above
(d) it has no units
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c
41. Which of the following meters is not associated with viscosity
(a) Red wood
(b) Say bolt
(c) Engler
(d) Orsat
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

42. Choose the correct relationship

(a) specific gravity = gravity x density
(b) dynamicviscosity = kinematicviscosity x density
(c) gravity = specific gravity x density
(d) kinematicviscosity = dynamicviscosity x density
(e) hydrostaticforce = surface tension x gravity.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

43. Dimensions of surface tension are

(a) MlL°T2
(b) MlL°Tx
(c) MlL r2
(d) MlL2T2
(e) MlL°t.

Ans: a

44. For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having

(a) higher surface tension
(b) lower surface tension
(c) surface tension is no criterion
(d) high density and viscosity
(e) low density and viscosity.
Ans: a

45. If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of

mercury will be following cm of water
(a) 51 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 52 cm
(d) 52.2 cm
(e) 51.7 cm.

Ans: a

46. Choose the wrong statement. Alcohol is used in manometer, because

(a) its vapour pressure is low
(b) it provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
(c) its density is less
(d) it provides longer length for a given pressure difference
(e) it provides accurate readings.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

47. Increase in pressure at the outer edge of a drum of radius R due to rotation at
corad/sec, full of liquid of density p
will be
(a) pco2/?2
(b) pco2/?2/2
(c) 2pa2R2
(d) pa2R/2
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

48. The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called
(a) surface tension
(b) adhesion
(c) cohesion
(d) viscosity
(e) all of the above.

Ans: d

49. Choose the wrong statement

(a) fluids are capable of flowing
(b) fluids conform to the shape of the containing vessels
(c) when in equilibrium, fluids cannot sustain tangential forces
(d) when in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces
(e) fluids have some degree of comprehensibility and offer little resistance to
form.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

50. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at

(a) 0°C
(b) 0°K
(c) 4°C
(d) 20°C
(e) all temperature.

Ans: c

51. If w is the specific weight of liquid and k the depth of any point from the
surface, then pressure intensity at that
point will be
(a) h
(b) wh
(c) w/h
(d) h/w
(e) h/wh.
Ans: b

52. Choose the wrong statement

(a) Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the amount of its
resistance to a shearing force
(b) Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between fluid molecules
(c) Viscosity of liquids decreases with in-crease in temperature
(d) Viscosity of liquids is appreciably affected by change in pressure
(e) Viscosity is expressed as poise, stoke, or saybolt seconds.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

53. The units of kinematic viscosity are

(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/metre
(c) newton-sec per metre
(d) newton-sec per metre
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

54. The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as

(a) specific viscosity
(b) viscosity index
(c) kinematic viscosity
(d) coefficient of viscosity
(e) coefficient of compressibility.

Ans: c

55. Kinematic viscosity is equal to

(a) dynamic viscosity/density
(b) dynamicviscosity x density
(c) density/dynamic viscosity
(d) 1/dynamicviscosity x density
(e) same as dynamic viscosity.

Ans: a

56. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity

(a) pascal
(b) poise
(c) stoke
(d) faraday
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

57. A one dimensional flow is one which

(a) is uniform flow
(b) is steady uniform flow
(c) takes place in straight lines
(d) involves zero transverse component of flow
(e) takes place in one dimension.

Ans: d

58. Alcohol is used in manometers because

(a) it has low vapour pressure
(b) it is clearly visible
(c) it has low surface tension
(d) it can provide longer column due to low density
(e) is provides suitable meniscus.

Ans: d

59. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to

(a) 25 kN/m2
(b) 245 kN/m2
(c) 2500 kN/m2
(d) 2.5kN/m2
(e) 12.5 kN/m2.

Ans: b

60. Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water because it contains
(a) dissolved air
(b) dissolved salt
(c) suspended matter
(d) all of the above
(e) heavy water.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

61. If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, men 0.85 represents its
(a) specific weight
(b) specific mass
(c) specific gravity
(d) specific density
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

62. Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest possible area due to
force of
(a) surface tension
(b) viscosity
(c) friction
(d) cohesion
(e) adhesion.

Ans: a
63. A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is
suspended into water without touching sides of bucket from another support. The
spring balance reading will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase/decrease depending on depth immersion
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

64. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of

(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
(d) viscosity
(e) compressibility.

Ans: c

65. A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces as compared to cohesion
forces are
(a) less
(b) more
(c) equal
(d) less at low temperature and more at high temperature
(e) there is no such criterion.

Ans: b

66. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between

fluid and glass, then the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be
(a) higher than the surface of liquid
(b) the same as the surface of liquid
(c) lower than the surface of liquid
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

67. The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the
liquid may be taken to act is known as
(a) meta center
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) center of gravity
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

68. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with its
top 2 m surface being 0.5 m below the
water level will be
(a) 500 kg
(b) 1000 kg
(c) 1500 kg
(d) 2000 kg
(e) 4000 kg.

Ans: d

69. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the
weight of the fluid displaced by the body. This definition is according to
(a) Buoyancy
(b) Equilibrium of a floating body
(c) Archimedes’ principle
(d) Bernoulli’s theorem
(e) Metacentric principle.
Ans: c

70. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called
(a) upthrust
(b) buoyancy
(c) center of pressure
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of above is correct.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

71. The conditions for the stable equilibrium of a floating body are
(a) the meta-center should lie above the center of gravity
(b) the center of buoyancy and the center of gravity must lie on the same vertical
line
(c) a righting couple should be formed
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of the above is correct.

Ans: d

72. Poise is the unit of

(a) surface tension
(b) capillarity
(c) viscosity
(d) shear stress in fluids
(e) buoyancy.

Ans: c

73. Metacentric height is given as the distance between

(a) the center of gravity of the body and the meta center
(b) the center of gravity of the body and the center of buoyancy
(c) the center of gravity of the body and the center of pressure
(d) center of buoyancy and metacentre
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

74. The buoyancy depends on

(a) mass of liquid displaced
(b) viscosity of the liquid
(c) pressure of the liquid displaced
(d) depth of immersion
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

75. The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed
body is called
(a) meta-center
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) center of gravity
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

76. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific

gravity 13.6, what fraction of it volume is
under mercury?
(a) the metal piece will simply float over the mercury
(b) the metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
(c) whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at mercury
level
(d) metal piece will sink to the bottom
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

77. The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon

(a) the nature of the liquid and the solid
(b) the material which exists above the free surface of the liquid
(c) both of die above
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of die above.

Ans: c

78. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to smallest
possible area due to the
(a) force of adhesion
(b) force of cohesion
(c) force of friction
(d) force of diffusion
(e) none of die above.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

79. Rain drops are spherical because of

(a) viscosity
(b) air resistance
(c) surface tension forces
(d) atmospheric pressure
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

80. Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to..
(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) surface tension
(c) force of adhesion
(d) force of cohesion
(e) viscosity.

Ans: b

81. The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing water
is approximately
(a) 1 mm
(b) 5 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 20 mm
(e) 30 mm.

Ans: e

82. The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid drop is
(a)p = Txr
(b)p = T/r
(c) p = T/2r
(d)p = 2T/r
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

83. If the surface of liquid is convex, men

(a) cohesion pressure is negligible
(b) cohesion pressure is decreased
(c) cohesion pressure is increased
(d) there is no cohesion pressure
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c
84. To avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe line over the ridge is laid such
that it is not more than
(a) 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(b) 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(c) 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
(d) 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

85. To avoid an interruption in the flow of a syphon, an air vessel is provided

(a) at the inlet
(b) at the outlet
(c) at the summit
(d) ay nay point between inlet and outlet
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

86. The vapour pressure over the concave surface is

(a) less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(b) equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(c) greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(d) zero
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

87. The property by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between its
different layers is called
(a) surface tension
(b) co-efficient of viscosity
(c) viscosity
(d) osmosis
(e) cohesion.
Ans: c

88. The process of diffusion of one liquid into the other through a semi-permeable
membrane is called
(a) viscosity
(b) osmosis
(c) surface tension
(d) cohesion
(e) diffusivity.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

89. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are

(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/meter
(c) newton-sec per meter
(d) newton-sec2 per meter
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

90. The continuity equation is connected with

(a) viscous/unviscous fluids
(b) compressibility of fluids
(c) conservation of mass
(d) steady/unsteady flow
(e) open channel/pipe flow.

Ans: c

91. The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tensionwim increase
in size of tube will
(a) increase
(b) remain unaffected
(c) may increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
(d) decrease
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: d

92. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according to
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Archimedes principle
(c) Pascal’s law
(d) Newton’s formula
(e) Chezy’s equation.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

93. Capillary action is due to the

(a) surface tension
(b) cohesion of the liquid
(c) adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the surface of a solid
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

94. Newton’s law of viscosity is a relationship between

(a) shear stress anctthejiate of angular distortion
(b) shear stress and viscosity
(c) shear stress, velocity and viscosity
(d) pressure, velocity and viscosity
(e) shear stress, pressure and rate of angular distortion.

Ans: a
95. The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases
(a) linearly
(b) first slowly and then steeply
(c) first steeply and then gradually
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

96. Pressure of the order of 10″‘ torr can be measured by

(a) Bourdon tube
(b) Pirani Gauge
(c) micro-manometer
(d) ionisastion gauge
(e) McLeod gauge.

Ans: d

97. Operation of McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement is based on
the principle of
(a) gas law
(b) Boyle’s law
(c) Charle’s law
(d) Pascal’s law
(e) McLeod’s law.

Ans: b

98. An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01 m3 volume will be
completely submerged in a fluid having specific gravity of
(a) 1
(b) 1.2
(c) 0.8
(d) 0.75
(e) 1.25.
Ans: d

99. In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure

(a) decreases linearly with elevation
(b) remains constant
(c) varies in the same way as the density
(d) increases exponentially with elevation
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

100. Mercury is often used in barometer because

(a) it is the best liquid
(b) the height of barometer will be less
(c) its vapour pressure is so low that it may be neglected
(d) both (b) and (c)
(e) it moves easily.

Ans: d

101. Barometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) rain level.

Ans: b

102. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of a
submarine moving in deep sea
(a) Venturimeter
(b) Orifice plate
(c) hot wire anemometer
(d) rotameter
(e) pitot tube.

Ans: e

103. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of an
aeroplane
(a) Venturimeter
(b) Orifice plate
(c) hot wire anemometer
(d) rotameter
(e) pitot tube.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

104. Piezometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipe, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressures
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) flow.

Ans: c

105. Which of the following instruments is used to measure flow on the

application of Bernoulli’s theorem
(a) Venturimeter
(b) Orifice plate
(c) nozzle
(d) pitot tube
(e) all of the above.

Ans: e
106. The speed of sound in a ideal gas varies directly as its
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) modulus of elasticity
(e) absolute temperature,

Ans: e

107. Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with rise in temperature

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(a) remains unaffected
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

108. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in temperature

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

109. A metal with specific gravity of o floating in a fluid of same specific gravity a
will
(a) sink to bottom
(b) float over fluid
(c) partly immersed
(d) be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

110. Euler’s dimensionless number relates the following

(a) inertial force and gravity
(b) viscous force and inertial force
(c) viscous force and buoyancy force
(d) pressure force and inertial force
(e) pressure force and viscous force.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

111. Manometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) velocity.

Ans: a

112. Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity

(a) U-tube with water
(b) inclined U-tube
(c) U-tube with mercury
(d) micro-manometer with water
(e) displacement type.

Ans: d

113. In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube manometer, one leg is usually

inclined by angle 9. Sensitivity of
inclined tube to sensitivity of U-tube is equal to
(a) sin 9
(b) sin 9
(c) cas 9
(d) cos 9
(e) tan 9.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

114. Working principle of dead weight pressure gauge tester is based on

(a) Pascal’s law
(b) Dalton’s law of partial pressure
(c) Newton’s law of viscosity .
(d) Avogadro’s hypothesis
(e) Second law of thermodynamic.

Ans: a

115. The resultant of all normal pressures acts

(a) at e.g. of body
(b) at center of pressure
(c) vertically upwards
(d) at metacentre
(e) vertically downwards.

Ans: c

116. Center of pressure compared to e.g. is

(a) above it
(b) below it.
(c) at same point
(d) above or below depending on area of body
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b
117. Metacentric height is the distance between the metacentre and
(a) water surface
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of gravity
(d) center of buoyancy
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

118. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body due to its
tendency to uplift the sub-merged body is called
(a) upthrust
(b) reaction
(c) buoyancy
(d) metacentre
(e) center of pressure.

Ans: c

119. The center of pressure of a surface subjected to fluid pressure is the point
(a) on the surface at which resultant pressure acts
(b) on the surface at which gravitational force acis
(c) at which all hydraulic forces meet
(d) similar to metacentre
(e) where pressure equivalent to hydraulic thrust will act.

Ans: a

120. Buoyant force is

(a) the resultant force acting on a floating body
(b) the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
(c) equal to the volume of liquid displaced
(d) the force necessary to maintain equilibrium of a submerged body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

121. The horizontal component of buoyant force is

(a) negligible
(b) same as buoyant force
(c) zero

Ans: c

122. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the
(a) centroid of the volume of fluid vertically above the body
(b) centre of the volume of floating body
(c) center of gravity of any submerged body
(d) centriod of the displaced volume of fluid
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

123. Center of buoyancy is the

(a) centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
(b) center of pressure of displaced volume
(c) e.g. of floating ‘body
(d) does not exist
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

124.A body floats in stable equilibrium

(a) when its meatcentric height is zero
(b) when the metancentre is above e.g.
(c) when its e.g. is below it’s center of buoyancy
(d) metacentre has nothing to do with position of e.g. for determining stability
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

125.A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when submerged in
water. Its specific gravity is
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 6

Ans: d

126. The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by
the intensity of pressure at the centriod, if
(a) the area is horizontal
(b) the area is vertical
(c) the area is inclined
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

127. A square surface 3 m x 3 m lies in a vertical line in water pipe its upper edge
at water surface. The hydrostatic
force on square surface is
(a) 9,000 kg
(b) 13,500 kg
(c) 18,000 kg
(d) 27,000 kg
(e) 30,000 kg.

Ans: b

128. The depth of the center of pressure on a vertical rectangular gate 8 m wide
and 6 m high, when the water surface
coincides with the top of the gate, is
(a) 2.4 m
(b) 3.0 m
(c) 4.0 m
(d)”2.5 m
(e) 5.0 m.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

129. If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.2
kg/cm”, the pressure at a depth of 50 m below the oil surface will be
(a) 2 meters of water column
(b) 3 meters of water column
(c) 5 meters of water column
(d) 6 meters of water Column
(e) 7 meters of water column.

Ans: d

130. Metacentre is the point of intersection of

(a) vertical upward force through e.g. of body and center line of body
(b) buoyant force and the center line of body
(c) mid point between e.g. and center of buoyancy
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

131. Choose the wrong statement

(a) The horizontal component of the hydro-static force on any surface is equal to
the normal force on the vertical
projection of the surface
(b) The horizontal component acts through the center of pressure for the vertical
projection
(c) The vertical component of the hydrostatic force on any surface is equal to the
weight of the volume of the liquid above the area
(d) he vertical component passes through the center of pressure of the volume
(e) Center of pressure acts at a greater depth than center of gravity.

Ans: d

132. For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts
at
(a) bottom surface of the body
(b) e.g. of the body
(c) metacentre
(d) all points on the surface of the body
(e) all of the above.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

133. Choose the wrong statement

(a) any weight, floating or immersed in a liquid, is acted upon by a buoyant force
(p) Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
(c) The point through which buoyant force acts, is called the center of buoyancy
(d) Center of buoyancy is located above the center of gravity of the displaced
liquid v
(e) Relative density of liquids can be determined by means of the depth of
flotation of hydrometer.

Ans: d

134. According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially immersed in

a fluid will be lifted up by a force
equal to
(a) the weight of the body
(b) more than the weight of the body
(c) less than the weight of the body
(d) weight of the fluid displaced by the body
(e) weight of body plus the weight of the fluid displaced hy the body.
Ans: d

135. When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced slightly, it oscillates about

(a) e.g. of body
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) metacentre
(e) liquid surface.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

136. Buoyant force is

(a) resultant force acting on a floating body
(b) equal to the volume of liquid displaced
(c) force necessary to keep a body in equilibrium
(d) the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

137. Ratio of inertia force to surface Jension is known as

(a) Mach number
(b) Froude number
(c) Reynold’s number
(d) Weber’s number
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

138. A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic
similarity, at what velocity should a 1:25 model be towed through water ?
(a) 10 m/sec
(b) 25 m/sec
(c) 2 m/sec
(d) 50 m/sec
(e) 250 m/sec.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

139. A model of a reservior is drained in 4 mts by opening the sluice gate. The
model scale is 1: 225. How long should it take to empty the prototype ?
(a) 900 minutes
(b) 4 minutes
(c) 4 x (225)3/2 minutes
(d) 4 (225)1/3 minutes
(e) 4 x V225 minutes.

Ans: e

140. A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at a velocity of 25 m/sec. The

prototype is expected to attain a velocity of 5 m/sec. What model scale has been
used ?
(a) 1 : 5
(b) 1 : 2.5
(c) 1 :25
(d) 1:V5″
(e) 1 : 53/2

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

141. Ratio of inertia force to elastic force is known as

(a) Mach number
(b) Froude number
(c) Reynold’s number
(d) Weber’s number
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

142. For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, its metacentre should be

(a) below the center of gravity
(b) below the center of buoyancy
(c) above the center of buoyancy
(d) between e.g. and center of pressure
(e) above the center of gravity.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

143. For a floating body to be in equilibrium

(a) meta centre should be above e.g.
(b) centre of buoyancy and e.g. must lie on same vertical plane
(c) a righting couple should be formed
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

144. The two important forces for a floating body are

(a) buoyancy, gravity
(b) buoyancy, pressure
(c) buoyancy, inertial
(d) inertial, gravity
(e) gravity, pressure.

Ans: a

145. Choose the wrong statement

(a) The center of buoyancy is located at the center of gravity of the displaced
liquid
(b) For stability of a submerged body, the center of gravity of body must lie
directly below the center of buoyancy
(c) If e.g. and center of buoyancy coincide, the submerged body must lie at
neutral equilibrium for all positions
(d) For stability of floating cylinders or spheres, the e.g. of body must lie below
the center of buoyancy
(e) All floating bodies are stable.

Ans: e

146. Center of pressure on an inclined plane is

(a) at the centroid
(b) above the centroid
(c) below the centroid
(d) at metacentre
(e) at center of pressure.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

147. An open vessel of water is accelerated up an inclined plane. The free water
surface will
(a) be horizontal
(b) make an angle in direction of inclination of inclined plane
(c) make an angle in opposite direction to inclination of inclined plane
(d) any one of above is possible
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

148. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the centroid of the
(a) submerged body
(b) volume of the floating body
(c) volume of the fluid vertically above the body
(d) displaced volume of the fluid
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

149. Resultant pressure of the liquid in the case of an immersed body acts
through
(a) centre of gravity
(b) centre of pressure
(c) metacentre
(d) centre of buoyancy
(e) in between e.g. and centre of pressure.

Ans: b

150. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed
body is called
(a) centre of gravity
(b) centre of pressure
(c) metacentre
(d) centre of buoyancy
(e) centroid.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

176. Differential monometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) velocity in pipes

Ans: d

177. The pressure in the air space above an oil (sp. gr. 0.8) surface in a tank is
0.1 kg/cm”. The pressure at 2.5 m below the oil surface will be
(a) 2 metres of water column
(b) 3 metres of water column
(c) 3.5 metres of water column
(d) 4 m of water column
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

178. The time oscillation of a floating body with increase in metacentric height will
be
(a) same
(b) higher
(c) lower
(d) lower/higher depending on weight of body
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: c

179. In an immersed body, centre of pressure is

(a) at the centre of gravity
(b) above the centre of gravity
(c) below be centre of gravity
(d) could be above or below e.g. depending on density of body and liquid
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

180. The normal stress is same in all directions at a point in a fluid

(a) only when the fluid is frictionless
(b) only when the fluid is incompressible and has zero viscosity
(c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
(d) irrespective of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
(e) in case of an ideal fluid.
Ans: c

181. Select the correct statement

(a) Local atmospheric pressure depends upon elevation of locality only
(b) Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean local atmospheric pressure a*
sea level
(c) Local atmospheric pressure is always below standard atmospheric pressure
(d) A barometer reads the difference be-tween local and standard atmospheric
pressure
(e) Gauge piessure is equal to atmospheric pressure plus instrument reading.

Ans: b

184. For measuring flow by a venturimeter, if should be installed in

(a) vertical line
(b) horizontal line
(c) inclined line with flow downward
(d) inclined line with upward flow
(e) in any direction and in any location.

Ans: e

185. Total pressure on a lmxlm gate immersed vertically at a depth of 2 m below

the free water surface will be
(a) 1000 kg
(b) 4000 kg
(c) 2000 kg
(d) 8000 kg
(e) 16000 kg.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

186. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in gases
(b) liquid discharge
(c) pressure in liquids
(d) gas velocities
(e) temperature.

Ans: d

187. Rotameter is a device used to measure

(a) absolute pressure
(b) velocity of fluid
(c) flow
(d) rotation
(e) velocity of air.

Ans: c

18 Flow of water in a pipe about 3 metres in diameter can be measured by

(a) orifice plate
(b) venturi
(c) rotameter
(d) pitot tube
(e) nozzle

Ans: d

189. True one-dimensional flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the veiocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at
successive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point
in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline
pat-terns are identical in each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.

Ans: a
Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

190. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy

(a) Pascal law
(b) Newton’s law of viscosity
(c) boundary layer theory
(d) continuity equation
(e) Bernoulli’s theorem.

Ans: d

191. In the case of steady flow of a fluid, the acceleration of any fluid particle is
(a) constant
(b) variable
(c) zero
(d) zero under limiting conditions
(e) never zero.

Ans: c

193. Non uniform flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at
successive periods of time
(c) the magnitude aricf direction of the velocity do not change from point to point
in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline
pat-terns are identical in each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

194. During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the flow is

(a) steady
(b) unsteady
(c) uniform
(d) laminar
(e) free vortex type.

Ans: b

195. Uniform flow occurs when

(a) the flow is steady
(b) the flow is streamline
(c) size and shape of the cross section in a particular length remain constant
(d) size and cross section change uniformly along length
(e) flow occurs at constant fate.

Ans: c

196. Gradually varied flow is

(a) steady uniform
(b) non-steady non-uniform
(c) non-steady uniform
(d) steady non-uniform
(e) true one-dimensional.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

197. Steady flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at
successive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point
in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline
pat-terns are identical in each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: b

198. The flow which neglects changes in a transverse direction is known as

(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.

Ans: a

199. The flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and their paths do
not cross each other is called
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.

Ans: e

200. The flow in which conditions do not change with time at any point, is known
as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

201. The flow in which the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction
at every point, for any given instant, is known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.

Ans: b

202. The flow in which the particles of a fluid attain such velocities that vary from
point to point in magnitude and
direction as well as from instant to instant, is known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.

Ans: d

210. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is

(a) steady
(b) unsteady
(c) laminar
(d) vortex
(e) rotational.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

211. General energy equation holds for

(a) steady flow
(b) turbulent flow
(c) laminar flow
(d) non-uniform flow
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

212. A streamline is defined as the line

(a) parallel to central axis flow
(b) parallel to outer surface of pipe
(c) of equal yelocity in a flow
(d) along which the pressure drop is uniform
(e) which occurs in all flows.

Ans: c

213. Two dimensional flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at
successive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point
in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline
pat-terns are identical in each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

215. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity

13.6. What fraction of its volume is under mercury ?
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.515
(d) 0.5
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c
216. A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in water with 60% of its volume
under the liquid. The specific gravity
of wood is
(a) 0.83
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.3
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

218. The velocity of jet of water travelling out of opening in a tank filled with water
is proportional to
(a) head of water (h)
(b) h2
(c) V/T
(d) h2
(e) h3/1.

Ans: c

219. In a free vortex motion, the radial component of velocity everywhere is

(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) non-zero and finite
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: c

220. In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) non-zero finite
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: d

221. The region between the separation streamline and the boundary surface of
the solid body is known as
(a) wake
(b) drag
(c) lift
(d) boundary layer
(e) aerofoil section.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

222. For hypersonic flow, the Mach number is

(a) unity
(b) greater than unity
(c) greater than 2
(d) greater than 4
(e) greater than 10.

Ans: d

223. The upper surface of a weir over which water flows is known is
(a) crest
(b) nappe
(c) sill
(d) weir top
(e) contracta.

Ans: c
224. Normal depth in open channel flow is the depth of flow corresponding to
(a) steady flow
(b) unsteady flow
(c) laminar flow
(d) uniform flow
(e) critical flow.

Ans: d

226. Uniform flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid paiticles, at any point, is the same at
successive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point
in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline
pat-terns are identical in each pleasure
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

227. Pitot tube is used for measurement of

(a) pressure
(b) flow
(c) velocity
(d) dsscharge
(e) viscosity.

Ans: c

22 Hydrometer is used to determine

(a) specific gravity of liquids
(b) specific gravity of solids
(c) specific gravity of gases
(d) relative humidity
(e) density.

Ans: a

229. The total energy of each particle at various places in the case of perfect
incompres sible fluid flowing in
continuous sream
(d) keeps on increasing
(b) keeps on decreasing
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase/decrease
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: c

230. According to Bernoulli’s equation for steady ideal fluid flow

(a) principle of conservation of mass holds
(b) velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
(c) total energy is constant throughout
(d) the energy is constant along a stream-line but may vary across streamlines
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

231. The equation of continuity holds good when the flow

(a) is steady
(b) is one dimensional
(c) velocity is uniform at all the cross sections
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d
232. Mach number is significant in
(a) supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings,
nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of
dis-continuity, gravity force, and wave making
effects, as with ship’s hulls
(d) all of fhe above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

233. Froude number is significant in

(a) supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings,
nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of
dis-continuity, gravity forces, and wave making effect, as with ship’s hulls
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

234. All the terms of energy in Bernoulli’s equation have dimension of

(a) energy
(b) work
(c) mass
(d) length
(e) time.

Ans: d

235. Reynolds number is significant in

(a) supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings,
nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of
dis-continuity, gravity forces, and wave making effect, as with ship’s hulls
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

236. The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are
(a) gravity, pressure and viscous
(b) gravity, pressure and turbulent
(c) pressure, viscous and turbulent
(d) gravity, viscous and turbulent
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

237. A large Roynold number is indication of

(a) smooth and streamline flow
(b) laminar flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) highly turbulent flow.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

239. For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Roynolds number is

(a) less than 2000
(b) between 2000 and 4000
(c) more than 4000
(d) less than 4000
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a
240. In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the
differential pressure between these points must be more than
(a) frictional force
(b) viscosity
(c) surface friction
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

241. At the center line of a pipe flowing under pressure where the velocity
gradient is zero, the shear stress will be
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
(d) negative value
(e) could be any value.

Ans: e

242. The pressure in Pascals at a depth of 1 m below the free surface of a body
of water will be equal to
(a) 1 Pa
(b) 91 Pa
(c) 981 Pa
(d) 9810 Pa
(e) 98,100 Pa.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

244. Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the following
quantites are same
(a) friction loss and flow
(b) length and diameter
(c) flow and length
(d) friction factor and diameter
(e) velocity and diameter.

Ans: a

245. For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when Reynolds number is

(a) less than 2000
(b) between 2000 and 4000
(c). more than 4000
(d) less than 4000
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

246. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of

(a) mass
(b) momentum
(c) energy
(d) work
(e) force.

Ans: c

247. A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It is
required to lift a weight of 1 tonne. The force required on plunger is equal to
(a) 10 kg
(b) 100 kg
(c) 1000 kg
(d) 1 kg
(e) 10,000 kg.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Fluid Mechanics

248. Cavitation is caused by
(a) high velocity
(b) high pressure
(c) weak material
(d) low pressure
(e) low viscosity.

Ans: d

249. Cavitation will begin when

(a) the pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure equal to the
saturated vapour pressure of the liquid
(b) pressure becomes more than critical pressure
(c) flow is increased
(d) pressure is increased
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

250. Principle of similitude forms the basis of

(a) comparing two identical equipments
(b) designing models so that the result can be converted to prototypes
(c) comparing similarity between design and actual equipment
(d) hydraulic designs
(e) performing acceptance tests.

Ans: b

251. For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to prototype,

the following in both cases should
also be equal
(a) ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
(b) ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
(c) ratio of inertial force to force due to surface tension
(d) all the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity, gravitation, sur-face
tension, and elasticity
Ans: d

IC Engines
1. The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following
number of revolutions of crankshaft
(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
(e) 8.
Ans: c
2. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by
(a) spark
(b) injected fuel
(c) heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
(d) ignition
(e) combustion chamber.

Ans: c

3. Scavenging air in diesel engine means

(a) air used for combustion sent under pressure
(b) forced air for cooling cylinder
(c) burnt air containing products of combustion
(d) air used for forcing burnt gases out of engine’s cylinder during the exhaust
period
(e) air fuel mixture.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

4. Supercharging is the process of

(a) supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density
of the surrounding atmosphere
(b) providing forced cooling air
(c) injecting excess fuel for raising more load
(d) supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully
(e) raising exhaust pressure.

Ans: a

5. Does the supply of scavenging air at a density greater than that of atmosphere
mean engine is supercharged ?
(a) yes
(b) no
(c) to some extent
(d) unpredictable
(e) depends on other factors.

Ans: b

6. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air standard cycle
efficiency is called
(a) net efficiency
(b) efficiency ratio
(c) relative efficiency
(d) overall efficiency
(e) cycle efficiency.

Ans: c

7. Compression ratio of LC. engines is

(a) the ratio of volumes of air in cylinder before compression stroke and after
compression stroke
(b) volume displaced by piston per stroke and clearance volume in cylinder
(c) ratio of pressure after compression and before compression
(d) swept volume/cylinder volume
(e) cylinder volume/swept volume.

Ans: a
Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

8. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle compared to diesel cycle for the
given compression ratio is
(a) same
(b) less
(c) more
(d) more or less depending on power rating
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: c

9. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is expressed in terms of

(a) kcal
(b) kcal/kg
(c) kcal/m2
(d) kcal/n?
(e) all of the above.

Ans: d

11. If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine increases, its efficiency will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) unpredictable
(e) depend on other factors.

Ans: b

12. All heat engines utilize

(a) low heat value of oil
(b) high heat value of oil
(c) net claorific value of oil
(d) calorific value of fuel
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

13. An engine indicator is used to determine the following

(a) speed
(b) temperature
(c) volume of cylinder
(d) m.e.p. and I.H.P.
(e) BHP.

Ans: d

14. Fuel oil consumption guarantees for I .C. engine are usually based on
(a) low heat value of oil
(b) high heat value of oil
(c) net calorific value of oil
(d) calorific value of fuel
(e) all of the above.

Ans: b

17. If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is increased from
5 to 7, the %age increase in efficiency will be
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 8%
(d) 14%
(e) 27%.

Ans: d

18. In case of gas turbines, the gaseous fuel consumption guarantees are based
on
(a) high heat value
(b) low heat value
(c) net calorific value
(d) middle heat value
(e) calorific value.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

19. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine the inlet valve
(a) opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 35° after the bottom dead
center
(b) opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center
(c) opens at 10° after top dead center and closes 20° before the bottom dead
center
(d) may open or close anywhere
(e) remains open for 200°.

Ans: a

20. The pressure and temperature at the end of compression stroke in a petrol
engine are of the order of
(a) 4 – 6 kg/cm2 and 200 – 250°C
(b) 6 – 12 kg/cm2 and 250 – 350°C
(c) 12 – 20 kg/cm2 and 350 – 450°C
(d) 20 – 30 kg/cm2 and 450 – 500°C
(e) 30 – 40 kg/cm2 and 500 – 700°C.

Ans: b

21. The pressure at the end of compression in the case of diesel engine is of the
order of
(a) 6 kg/cm
(b) 12kg/cmz
(c) 20 kg/cmz
(d) 27.5 kg/cmz
(e) 35 kg/cm
Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

22. The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of
(a) 500- 1000°C
(b) 1000- 1500°C
(c) 1500-2000°C
(d) 2000-2500°C
(e) 2500-3000°C

Ans: d

23. The thermal efficiecny of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio, with
increase in cut-off ratio will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) be independent
(d) may increase or decrease depending on other factors
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

24. Pick up the wrong statement

(a) 2-stroke engine can run in any direction
(b) In 4-stroke engine, a power stroke is obtained in 4-strokes
(c) thermal efficiency of 4-stroke engine is more due to positive scavenging
(d) petrol engines work on otto cycle
(e) petrol engines occupy more space than diesel engines for same power
output.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

25. Combustion in compression ignition engines is
(a) homogeneous
(b) heterogeneous
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) laminar
(e) turbulent.

Ans: b

26. The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of

(a) 5-10 kg/cm2
(b) 20-25 kg/cm2
(c) 60-80 kg/cm2
(d) 90-130 kg/cm2
(e) 150-250 kg/cm2

Ans: d

27. The specific fuel consumption per BHP hour for diesel engine is
approximately
(a) 0.15 kg
(b) 0.2 kg
(c) 0.25 kg
(d) 0.3 kg
(e) 0.35 kg.

Ans: b

28. The temperature of interior surface of cylinder wall in normal operation is not
allowed to exceed
(a) 80°C
(b) 120°C
(c) 180°C
(d) 240°C
(e) 320°C.

Ans: c
Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

30. Crankcase explosion in I.C. engines usuall occurs as

(a) first a mild explosion followed by a bi explosion
(b) first a big explosion followed by a mil explosion
(c) both mild and big explosions occi simultaneously
(d) never occurs
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: a

31. Compression loss in I.C engines occurs duto

(a) leaking piston rings
(b) use of thick head gasket
(c) clogged air-inlet slots
(d) increase in clearance volume caused b bearing-bushing wear
(e) all of the above.

Ans: e

32. The specific fuel consumption per BH hour for a petrol engine is
approximately
(a) 0.15 kg
(b) 0.2 kg
(c) 0.25 kg
(d) 0.3kg
(e) 0.35 kg.

Ans: c

33. The air requirement of a petrol engine during starting compared to theoretical
airequired for complete combustion is
(a) more
(b) loss
(c) same
(d) may be more or less depending on engine capacity
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

34. The inlet value of a four stroke cycle I.C engine remains open for nearly
(a) 180°
(b) 125°
(c) 235°
(d) 200°
(e) 275°.

Ans: c

35. Which of the following is not an interns combustion engine

(a) 2-stroke petrol engine
(b) 4-stroke petrol engine
(c) diesel engine
(d) gas turbine
(e) steam turbine.

Ans: e

36. Pick up the false statement

(a) Thermal efficiency of diesel engine i about 34%
(b) Theoretically correct mixture of air am petrol is approximately 15 : 1
(c) High speed compression engines operate on dual combustion cycle
(d) Diesel engines are compression ignition engines
(e) S.I. engines are quality-governed engines.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

37. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the others, then for
that cylinder the
(a) exhaust will be smoky
(b) piston rings would stick into piston grooves
(c) exhaust temperature will be high
(d) engine starts overheating
(e) scavenging occurs.

Ans: e

38. The output of a diesel engine can be increased without increasing the engine
revolution or size in following way
(a) feeding more fuel
(b) increasing flywheel size
(c) heating incoming air
(d) scavenging
(e) supercharging.

Ans: e

39. It the temperature of intake air in IC engines is lowered, then its efficiency will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase upto certain limit and then decrease
(e) decrease upto certain limit and then in-crease.

Ans: a

40. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine

(a) compression starts at 35° after bottom dead center and ends at top dead
center
(b) compression starts at bottom dead center and ends at top dead center
(c) compression starts at 10° before bottom dead center and, ends just before
top dead center
(d) may start and end anywhere
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a
Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

41. For the same compression ratio

(a) Otto cycle is more efficient than the Diesel
(b) Diesel cycle is more efficient’than Otto
(c) both Otto and Diesel cycles are, equally efficient
(d) compression ratio has nothing to do with efficiency
(e) which is more efficient would depend on engine capacity.

Ans: a

42. The precess of breaking up or a lipuid into fine droplets by spraying is called
(a) vaporisation
(b) carburetion
(c) ionisation
(d) injection
(e) atomisation.

Ans: e

43. As a result of detonation in an I.C. engine, following parameter attains very

high value
(a) peak pressure
(b) rate of rise of pressure
(c) rate of rise of temperature
(d) peak temperature
(e) rate of rise of horse-power.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

44. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) All the irreversible engines have same efficiency
(b) All the reversible engines have same efficiency
(c) Both Rankine and Caront cycles have same efficiency between same
temperature limits
(d) All reversible engines working between same temperature limits have
same-efficiency
(e) Between same temperature limits, both petrol and diesel engines have same
efficiency.

Ans: d

45. Most high speed compression engines operate on

(a) Diesel cycle
(b) Otto cycle
(c) Dual combustion cycle
(d) Special type of air cycle
(e) Carnot cycle.

Ans: c

48. The accunmulation of carbon in a cylinder results in increase of

(a) clearance volume
(b) volumetric efficiency
(c) ignition time
(d) effective compression ratio
(e) valve travel time.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

49. Which of the following medium is compressed in a Diesel engine cylinder

(a) air aione
(b) air and fuel
(c) air and lub oil
(d) fuel alone
(e) air, fuel and lub oil.

Ans: a
54. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by
(a) fuel pump
(b) governor
(c) injector
(d) carburettor
(e) scavenging.

Ans: d

55. In a typical medium speed, 4-stroke cycle diesel engine

(a) fuelinjection starts at 10° before to dead center and ends at 20° after tor dead
center
(b) fuel injection starts at top dead center and ends at 20° after top dead center
(c) fuel injection starts at just before top dead center and ends just after top deac
center
(d) may start and end anywhere
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

56. Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is

(a) less difficult to ignite
(b) just about the same difficult to ignite
(c) more difficult to ignite
(d) highly ignitable
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

57. In diesel engine the diesel fuel injected into cylinder would burn instantly at
about compressed air temperature of
(a) 250°C
(b) 500°C
(c) 1000°C
(d) 150CPC
(e) 2000°C.

Ans: c

58. When crude oil is heated, then which of the following hydrocarbon is given off
first.
(a) kerosene
(b) gasoline
(c) paraffin
(d) diesel
(e) natural gas.

Ans: e

59. The rating of a diesel engine, with increase in airintlet temperature, will
(a) increase linearly
(b) decrease linearly
(c) increase parabolically
(d) decrease parabolically
(e) first decrease linearly and then increase parabolically.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

60. A 75 cc engine has following parameter as 75 cc

(a) fuel tank capacity
(b) lub oil capacity
(c) swept volume
(d) cylinder volume
(e) clearance volume.

Ans: c
61. A heat engine utilises the
(a) calorific value of oil
(b) low heat value of
(c) high heat value of oil
(d) mean heat value of oil
(e) all of the above.

Ans: c

62. Gaseous-fuel guarantees are based on

(a) calorific value of oil
(b) low heat value of oil
(c) high heat value of oil
(d) mean heat value of oil
(e) all of the above.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

63. Fuel consumption of diesef engines is not guaranteed at one quarter load
because at such low loads
(a) the friction is high
(b) the friction is unpredictable
(c) the small difference in cooling water temperature or in internal friction has a
disproportionate effect
(d) the engine is rarely operated
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

64. Polymerisation is a chemical process in which molecules of a compound

become
(a) larger
(b) slowed down
(c) smaller
(d) liquid
(e) gaseous.

Ans: a

65. The term scavenging is generally associated with

(a) 2-stroke cycle engines
(b) 4-stroke cycle engines
(c) aeroplane engines
(d) diesel engines
(e) high efficiency engines.

Ans: e

66. In diesel engine, the compression ratio in comparison to expansion ratio is

(a) same
(b) less
(G) more
(d) variable
(e) more/less depending on engine capacity.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

67. The cam shaft of a four stroke I.C. engine running at 1500 rmp will run at
(a) 1500 rpm
(b) 750 rpm
(c) 3000 rpm
(d) any value independent of engine speed
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

68. Engine pistons ‘are usually made of aluminium alloy because it

(a) is lighter
(b) wears less
(c) absorbs shocks
(d) is stronger
(e) does not react with fuel and lub oil.

Ans: a

69. Most high speed compression engines operate on

(a) Otto cycle
(b) Diesel cycle
(c) Dual cycle
(d) Carnot cycle
(e) Two stroke cycle.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

70. The specific fuel consumption of a petrol engine compared to diesel engine of
same H.P. is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) less or more depending on operating conditions
(e) unpredictable.

Ans: b

71. A diesel engine as compared to petrol engine (both running ar rated load) is
(a) more efficient
(b) less efficient
(c) equally efficient
(d) unperdictable
(e) other factors will decide it.

Ans: a
72. The size of inlet valve of.an engine in comparison to exhaust valve is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more/less depending on capacity of engine
(e) varies from design to design.

Ans: b

74. In a cycle, the spark lasts roughly for

(a) 1 sec
(b) 0.1 sec
(c) 0.01 sec
(d) 0.001 sec
(e) 0.0001 sec.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

75. Which of the following is false statement:

Excess quantities of sulphur in diesel fuel are Objectionable because it may
cause the following
(a) piston ring and cylinder wear
(b) formation of hard coating on piston skirts
(c) oil sludge in the engine crank case
(d) detonation
(e) forms corrosive acids.

Ans: d

76. Which of the following is false statement. Some of the methods used to
reduce diesel smoke are as follows
(a) using additives in the fuel
(b) engine derating i.e. reducing the maxi-mum flow of fuel
(c) increasing the compression ratio
(d) adherence to proper fuel specification
(e) avoidance of overloading.

Ans: c

77. The fuel air ratio in a petrol engine fitted with suction carburettor, operating
with dirty air filter as compared to
clean filter will be
(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) remain unaffected
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

78. Pick up the wrong statement about supercharging

(a) supercharging reduces knocking in diesel engines
(b) there can be limited supercharging in petrol engines because of detonation
(c) supercharging at high altitudes is essential
(d) supercharging results in fuel economy
(e) supercharging is essential in aircraft engines.

Ans: d

79. The actual volume of fresh charge admitted in 4-stroke petrol engine is
(a) equal to stroke volume
(b) equal to stroke volume and clearance volume
(c) less than stroke volume
(d) more than stroke volume
(e) more than cylinder volume.

Ans: c
Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

80. The magneto in an automobile is basically

(c) transformer
(b) d.c. generator
(c) capacitor
(d) magnetic circuit
(e) a.c. generator.

Ans: b

81. The reason for supercharging in any engine is to

(a) increase efficiency
(b) increase power
(c) reduce weight and bulk for a given out-put
(d) effect fuel economy
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

82. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is
known as
(a) scavenging
(b) turbulence
(c) supercharging
(d) pre-ignition
(e) dissociation and carburretion of fuel.

Ans: c

83. Supercharging is essential in

(a) diesel engines
(b) gas turbines
(c) petrol engines
(d) aircraft engines
(e) marine engines.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

84. The minimum cranking speed in case of petrol engine is about

(a) half the operating speed
(b) one-fourth of operating speed
(c) 250-300 rpm
(d) 60-80 rpm
(e) 10-20 rpm

Ans: d

85. In a typical medium speed 4 stroke cycle diesel engine

(a) exhaust valve opens at 35° before bot-tom dead center and closes at 20°
after top dead center
(b) exhaust valve opens at bottom ‘dead center and closes at top dead center
(c) exhaust valve opens just after bottom dead center and closes just before top
dead center
(d) may open and close anywhere
(e) none of the above is true.

Ans: a

86. Flash point of fuel oil is

(a) minimum temperature to which1 oil is heated in order to give off inflammable
vapours in sufficient quantity to ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a
flame
(b) temperature at which it solidifies or congeals
(c) temperature at which it catches fire without external aid
(d) indicated by 90% distillation temperature, i.e. when 90% of sample oil has
distilled off
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

87. The mean effective pressure obtained from engine indicator indicates the
(a) maximum pressure developed
(b) minimum pressure
(c) instantaneous pressure at any instant
(d) exhaust pressure
(e) average pressure.

Ans: e

88. For the same power developed in I.C. engines, the cheaper system is
(a) naturally aspirated
(b) supercharged
(c) centrifugal pump
(d) turbo charger
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

89. Installation of supercharger on a four-cycle diesel engine can result in the

following percentage increase in
power
(a) upto 25%
(b) upto 35%
(c) upto 50%
(d) upto 75%
(e) upto 100%.

Ans: e

90. Scavenging is usually done to increase

(a) thermal efficiency
(b) speed
(c) power output
(d) fuel consumption
(e) all of the above.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

91. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel
(a) diesel
(b) kerosene
(c) fuel oil
(d) gasoline
(e) lub oil.

Ans: d

92. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio for petrol engine is of the order of
(a) 6 : 1
(b) 9 : 1
(c) 12 : 1
(d) 15 : 1
(e) 20 : 1.

Ans: d

93. Air fuel ratio for idling speed of a petrol engine is approximately
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 5 : 1
(c) 10:1
(d) 15 : 1
(e) 20 : 1.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

94. Air fuel ratio at which a petrol engine can not work is
(a) 8 : 1
(b) 10 : 1
(c) 15 : 1
(d) 20 : 1 and less
(e) will work at all ratios.

Ans: d

95. For maximum power generation, the air fuel ratio for a petrol engine for
vehicles, is of the order of
(a) 9 : 1
(b) 12 : 1
(c) 15 : 1
(d) 18 : 1
(e) 20: 1.

Ans: b

96. The following volume of air is required for consuming 1 liter of fuel by a four
stroke engine
(a) 1 m3
(b) 5 m3
(c) 5-6 m3
(d) 9-10 m3
(e) 15-18 m3.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

97. Pour point of fuel oil is the

(a) minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable
vapours in sufficient quantity to
ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame
(b) temperature at which it solidifies or congeals
(c) it catches fire without external aid
(d) indicated by 90% distillation temperature i.e., when 90% of sample oil has
distilled off
(e) temperature at which it flows easily.

Ans: b

98. A 5 BHP engine running at full load would consume diesel of the order of
(a) 0.3 kg/hr
(b) 1 kg/hr
(c) 3 kg/hr
(d) 5 kg/hr
(e) 10 kg/hr.

Ans: b

99. Diesel engine can work on very lean air fuel ratio of the order of 30 : 1. A
petrol engine can also work on such a lean ratio provided
(a) it is properly designed
(b) best quality fuel is used
(c) can not work as it is impossible
(d) flywheel size is proper
(e) engine cooling is stopped.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

100. A diesel engine has

(a) 1 valve
(b) 2 valves
(b) 3 valves
(d) 4 valves
(e) no valve.

Ans: c
101. A hmh flame speed is obtained in diesel engine when air fuel ratio is
(a) uniform throughout the mixture
(b) chemically correct mixture
(c) about 3-5% rich mixture
(d) about 10% rich mixture
(e) about 10% lean mixture.

Ans: d

102. The knock in diesel engine occurs due to

(a) instantaneous and rapid burning of the first part of the charge
(b) instantaneous atuo iginition of last part of charge
(c) delayed burning of the first part of the charge
(d) reduction of delay period
(e) all ot the above.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

103. The air-fuel ratio in petrol engines-is controlled by

(a) controlling valve opening/closing
(b) governing
(c) injection
(d) carburettion
(e) scavenging and supercharging.

Ans: d

104. Volatility of diesel fuel oil is

(a) minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable
vapours in sufficient quantity to
ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame
(b) temperature at which it solidifies or congeals
(c) it catches fire without external aid
(d) indicated by 90% distillation temperature, i.e., when 90% of sample oil has
distilled off
(e) temperature at which it flows easily.

Ans: d

105. Which is more viscous lub oil

(a) SEA 30
(b) SAE 4£
(c) SAE 50
(d) SAE 70
(e) SAE 80.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

106. In the opposed piston diesel engine, the combustion chamber is located
(a) above the piston & below the piston
(c) between the pistons
(d) any where
(e) there is no such criterion.

Ans: c

107. A stoichiometric air-fuel ratio is

(a) chemically correct mixture
(b) lean mixture
(c) rich mixture for idling
(d) rich mixture for over loads
(e) the ratio used at full rated parameters.

Ans: a

108. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the air is supplied by

(a) a supercharger
(b) a centrifugal blower
(c) a vacuum chamber
(d) an injection tube
(e) forced chamber

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-IC Engines

109. In loop scavenging, the top of the piston is

(a) flat
(b) contoured
(c) slanted
(d) depressed
(e) convex shaped.

Ans: b

110. In the crankcase method of scavenging, the air pressure is produced by

(a) supercharger
(b) centrifugal pump
(c) natural aspirator
(d) movement of engine piston
(e) reciprocating pump.
Ans: d

Nuclear Power Plants

Mechanical Engineering Nuclear Power Plants

1. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparison to a

conventional thermal power plant is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) may be less or mote depending on size
 (e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
2. Isotopes of same elements have
(a) same atomic number and different masses
(b) same chemical properties but different atomic numbers
(c) different masses and different atomic numbers
(d) different chemical properties and same atomic numbers
(e) same chemical properties and same atomic numbers.
Ans: b
3. Atomic number of an element in the periodic table represents the
numbers of
(a) protons in the nucleus
(b) electrons in me nucleus
(c) neutrons in the nucleus
(d) electrons in the atom
(e) neutrons in the atom.
Ans: a
4. The mass number of a substance represents the sum of total number
of
(a) protons and neutrons in an atom
(b) protons and electrons in an atom
(c) neutrons and electrons in an atom
(d) protons and neutrons in a nucleus
(e) protons and electrons in a nucleus.
Ans: d
5. Which is not identical for an atom and an isotope
(a) mass number
(b) atomic number
(c) chemical properties
(d) position in periodic table
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a
6. Amongst the following, the fissionable materials are
(a) U233andPu239
(b) U23iandPu233
(c) U235andPu235
(d) U238andPu239
 (e) U243andPu235
Ans: a
7. A nuclear unit becoming critical means
(a) it is generating power to rated capacity
(b) it is capable of generating much more than rated capacity
(c) there is danger of nuclear spread
(d) chain reaction that causes automatic splitting of the fuel nuclei
has been established
(e) it generates no heat.
Ans: d
8. Moderator in nuclear plants is used to
(a) reduce temperature
(b) extract heat from nuclear reaction
(c) control the reaction
(d) cause collision with the fast moving neutrons to reduce their
speed
(e) moderate the radioactive pollution.
Ans: d
9. The most commonly used moderator in nuclear plants is
(a) heavy water
(b) concrete and bricks
(c) graphite and concrete
(d) deutrium
(e) graphite.
Ans: e
10. The nuclear energy is measured as
(a) MeV
(b) curie
(c) farads
(d) MW
(e) kWhr.
Ans: a
11.The total energy released in fission of U is
(a) 5 MeV
(b) 10 MeV
(c) 199 MeV
(d) 168 MeV
 (e) 11 MeV.
Ans: c
12. Breeder reactor has a conversion ratio of
(a) unity
(b) more than unity
(c) less than unity
(d) zero
(e) infinity.
Ans: b
13. Boiling water reactor employs
(a) boiler
(b) direct cycle of coolant system
(c) double circuit system of coolant cycle
(d) multi pass system
(e) single circuit system.
Ans: b
14. Fast breeder reactor uses
(a) boiler
(b) direct cycle of coolant system
(c) double circuit system of coolant cycle
(d) multi pass system
(e) single circuit system.
Ans: c
15. One gram of uranium will produce energy equivalent to
approximately
(a) 1 tonne of high grade coal
(b) 4.5 tonnes of high grade coal
(c) 10 tonnes of high grade coal
(d) 100 tonnes of high grade coal
(e) 1000 tonnes of high grade coal.
Ans: b
16. Which of the following nuclear reactor does not need a heat
exchanger for generation of steam
(a) gas cooled
(b) liquid metal cooled
(c) pressurised water
(d) boiling water
 (e) none of the above.
Ans: d
17. The number of isotopes of hydrogen are
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) U
(c) 3
(e) 0
Ans: c
18. The commonly used material for shielding is
(a) lead or concrete
(b) lead and tin
(c) graphite or cadmium
(d) thick galvanised sheets
(e) black carbon papers.
Ans: a
19. The main interest of shielding in nuclear reactor is protection
against
(a) X-rays
(b) infra-red rays
(c) a, P, and y rays
(d) neutrons and gamma rays
(e) electrons.
Ans: d
20. Reflector in nuclear plants is used to
(a) return the neutrons back into the core
(b) shield the radioactivity completely
(c) check polllution
(d) conserve energy
(e) is not used.
Ans: a
21. The energy required to be applied to a radioactive nucleus for the
emission of a neutron is
(a) 1 MeV
(b) 2.4 MeV
(c) 4.3 MeV
(d) 7.8 MeV
 (e) 20 MeV.
Ans: d
22. Which of the following are ferrite materials
(a) U233andPu239
(b) U
(c) U238andPu239
(d) U238andTh239
(e) none of the above
Ans: b
23. Ferrite material is
(a) the most fissionable material
(b) the basic fuel for nuclear paints
(c) basic raw material for nuclear plants
(d) the material which absorbs neutrons and undergoes spontaneous
changes leading to the formation of fissionable material
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
24. Enriched uranium is one in which
(a) %age of U235 has been artificially in-creased
(b) %age of U has been artificially increased
(c) %age of U234 has been artificially in-creased
(d) extra energy is pumped from outside
(e) all impurities have been removed.
Ans: a
25. Which of the following particles is the lightest
(a) nucleus
(b) electron
(c) proton
(d) meson
(e) neutron.
Ans: b
26. Which of the following is the heaviest
(a) neutron
(b) proton
(c) atom
(d) electron
 (e) nucleus.
Ans: c
27. In fast breeder reactors
(a) any type of moderator can be used
(b) graphite is used as the moderator
(c) heavy water is used as the moderator
(d) moderator may or may not be used
(e) moderator is dispensed with.
Ans: e
28. In nuclear fission each neutron that causes fission releases
(a) no new neutron
(b) at least one new neutron
(c) one new neutron
(d) more than one new neutrons
(e) many-fold neutrons.
Ans: d
29. The breeding gain in case of thermal breeder reactor as
compared to fast breeder reactor is
(a) same
(b) lower
(c) higher
(d) unity
(e) higher/lower depending on the size of reactor.
Ans: b
30. Gas cooled reactor uses following materials as moderator, and
coolant
(a) graphite, C02
(b) graphite, air
(c) heavy water, C02
(d) lead, H2
(e) concrete, N2.
Ans: a
31. A nuclear fission produces energy of following order in MeV
(a) 20
(b) 200
(c) 2000
(d) 20,000
 (e) 2 x 105.
Ans: b
32. The process by which a heavy nucleus is splitted into two light
nuclei is known as
(a) splitting
(b) fission
(c) fusion
(d) disintegration
(e) chain reaction.
Ans: b
33. A nuclear fission is initiated when the critical energy as compared
to neutron binding energy of the atoms is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) there is no such criterion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
34. The fast breeder reactor uses the following moderator
(a) demineralised water
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) heavy water
(d) graphite
(e) no moderator is used.
Ans: e
35. The first unclear power plant in India is located at
(a) Kota
(b) Kalapakkam
(c) Tarapur
(d) Baraeilly
(e) Kerala.
Ans: c
36. The nuclear power plant at Tarapur has the following reactor
(a) fast breeder
(b) pressurised water
(c) boiling water
(d) sodium graphite
 (e) none of the above.
Ans: c
37. Boiling water reactor uses the following as moderator, coolant and
working fluid
(a) ordinary fluid
(b) heavy water
(c) molten lead
(d) hydrogen gas
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
38. Ideally the neutron flux in reactor should be
(a) maximum in center and zero at side
(b) maximum at side and zero in center
(c) uniform throughout
(d) zero throughout
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
39. Enriched uranium may contain fissionable contents of the order of
(a) 1-99%
(b) 1-25%
(c) 1-50%
(d) 1-75%
(e) 1-90%.
Ans: a
40. U235 will undergo fission by
(a) high energy (fast) neutrons alone
(b) low energy (slow) neutrons alone
(c) either fast or slow neutrons
(d) medium energy neutrons
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
41. U238 will undergo fission by
(a) high energy (fast) neutrons alone
(b) low energy (slow) neutrons alone
(c) either fast or slow neutrons
(d) medium energy neutrons
 (e) none of the above.
Ans: a
42. A reactor capable of converting a ferrite material into fissile
isotopes is called
(a) regenerative reactor
(b) fast breeder reactor
(c) breeder reactor
(d) boiling water reactor
(e) ferrite reactor.
Ans: a
43. Hydrogen is preferred as better coolant in comparison to C02
because former
(a) is lighter
(b) is inert
(c) has high specific heat
(d) is a good conductor
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c
44. Natural uranium is made up of
(a) 99.282% U238, 0.712% U235, 0.006% U234
(b) 99.282% U235, 0.712% U238, 0.06%’ U234
(c) 99.282% U234, 0.712% U238, 0.006% U235
(d) 99.282% U235, 0.712% U234, 0.006% U238
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
45. The risk of radioactive hazard is greatest in the turbine with
following reactor
(a) pressurised water
(b) boiling water
(c) gas cooled
(d) liquid metal cooled
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b
46. Plutonium is produced
(a) as basic raw material
(b) by neutron irradiation of Uz
(c) by neutron irradiation of throium
 (d) artificially
(e) in high capacity furnace.
Ans: b
47. Electron-volt is the unit of
(a) atomic power
(b) energy
(c) voltage
(d) radio activity
(e) there is no such unit.
Ans: b
48. Pick up the wrong statement
(a) In a heterogeneous or solid-fuel reactor, the fuel is mixed in a
regular pattern within moderator.
(b) Slow or thermal neutrons have energy of the order or 0.025 eV
(c) Fast neutrons have energies above 1000 eV
(d) Fast reactor uses moderator
(e) Most serious drawback in using water as coolant in nuclear plants
is its high vapour pressure.
Ans: d
49. The unit of radio-activity is
(a) electron-volt
(b) electron-ampere
(c) curie
(d) MeV
(e) AMU.
Ans: c
50. Pick up the wrong statement Fast breeder reactors
(a) operate at extremely high power densities.
(b) are liquid-metal cooled
(c) produce more fuel than they consume
(d) are unmoderated
(e) use water as coolant.
Ans: e
51. Uranium-233 is produced
(a) as basic raw material
(b) by neutron irradiation of Uz
(c) by neutron irradiation of thorium
 (d) artificially
(e) in high capacity furnaces.
Ans: c
52. Plutonium-239 is produced
(a) as basic raw material
(b) by neutron irradiation of IT*
(c) by neutron irradiation of thorium
(d) artificially
(e) in high capacity furnaces.
Ans: b
53. Which of the following type of pump is used in liquid metal cooled
reactor for circulation of liquid metal
(a) centrifugal
(b) axial
(c) reciprocation
(d) electromagnetic
(e) diaphragm.
Ans: d
54. Which of the following is the primary fuel
(a) Ulii
(b) U
(c) U238
(d) Pu:
(e) Pu
Ans: b
55. Which of the following is secondary fuel
(a) Th232andU238
(b) U233andPu239
(c) U233andPu238
Ans: c
56. A pressurised water reactor employs pressuriser for the following
application
(a) to maintain constant pressure in primary circuit under varying load
(b) to Supply high pressure steam
(c) to increase pressure of water in primary circut
(d) to provide subcooled water at high pressure
 (e) all of the above.
Ans: a
57. Which of the following can be used as a coolant in nuclear plant
(a) light or heavy water
(b) molten lead
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) freon
(e) carbon tetrachloride.
Ans: a
58. Reactors for propulsion applications use
(a) natural uranium
(b) molten lead
(c) any form of uranium
(d) thorium
(e) plutonium.
Ans: b
59. The function of control rods in nuclear plants is to
(a) control temperature
(b) control readioactive pollution
(c) control absorption of neutron
(d) control fuel consumption
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
60. Breeder reactors employ liquid metal coolant because it
(a) acts as good moderator
(b) produces maximum steam
(c) transfers heat from core at a fast rate
(d) breeds neutrons
(e) increases rate of reaction in core.
Ans: c
61. In triggering fission, which type of neutrons are more effective
(a) fast
(b) slow
(c) in bulk
(d) static
(e) activated.
Ans: b
62. For economical operation of a nuclear plant
(a) used fuel should be reprocessed
(b) moderator should be used
(c) coolant should be employed
(d) control rods should be used
(e) reflector should be used.
Ans: a
63. The size of the reactor is said to be critical when
(a) chain reaction can be initiated
(b) it becomes uncontrollable
(c) it explodes
(d) it produces no power
(e) it produces tremendous power.
Ans: a
64. When a reactor becomes critical, then the production of neutrons
is
(a) infinite
(b) zero
(c) exactly balanced by the loss of neutrons through leakage
(d) initiated
(e) stopped.
Ans: c
65. In the breeder reactors the generation of new fissionable atom is
(a) at the lower rate than the consumption
(b) at a higher rate than the constuption
(c) at an equal rate of the consumption
(d) depends on other considerations
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: b
66. The energy produced by a thermal reactor of same size as a
breeder reactor is
(a) almost same
(b) slightly more
(c) slightly less
(d) much less
(e) much more.
Ans: d
67. Reactors designed for propulsion applications are designed for
(a) natural uranium
(b) enriched uranium
(c) pure uranium
(d) any type of uranium
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
68. Supertheated steam is generated in following reactor
(a) boiling water
(b) gas cooled
(c) pressurised water
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
69. Solid- fuel for nuclear reactions may be fabricated into various
small shapes such as
(a) plates
(b) pallets
(c) pins
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
70. Which of the following is more appropriate for a moderator. One
which
(a) does not absorb neutrons
(b) absorbs neutrons
(c) accelerates neutrons
(d) eats up neutrons
(e) regenerates neutrons.
Ans: a
71. A fission chain reaction in uranium can be developed by
(a) slowing down fast neutrons so that Uz fission continues by slow
motion neutrons
(b) accelerating fast neutrons
(c) absorbing all neutrons
(d) using moderator
 (e) enriching U235.
Ans: a
72. In triggering fission, the following types of neutrons are desirable
(a) fast moving
(b) slow moving
(c) critical neutrons
(d) neutrons at rest
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
73. Effective moderators are those materials which contain
(a) light weight atoms
(b) heavy weight atoms
(c) critical atoms
(d) zero weight atoms
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: a
74. In a fission process, maximum %age of energy is released as
(a) kinetic energy of neutrons
(b) kinetic energy of fission products
(c) instantaneous release of gamma rays
(d) gradual readioactive decay of fission products
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
75. The following present serious difficulty in designing reactor shield
(a) alpha particles
(b) beta particles
(c) thermal neutrons
(d) fast neutrons and gamma rays
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
76. In nuclear fission
(a) the original elements change into completely different elements
(b) the electrons of the element change
(c) the molecules rearrange themselves to form other molecules
(d) none of the above.
Ans: a
77. In order to have constant clain reaction to produce a constant rate
of heat output, the value of ratio of the number of neutrons in one
generation to the number of neutrons in the immediately preceding
generation must be
(a) greater than 1.0
(b) less than 1.0
(c) equal to zero
(c) equal to 1.0
(e) equal to infinity.
Ans: d
78. Each fission of U235 produces following number of fast neutrons
per fission
(a) 1 neutron
(b) 1 — neutrons
(c) 1 – 2 neutrons
(d) 2 — neutrons
(e) infinite.
Ans: d
79. A fast breeder reactor uses following as fuel
(a) enriched uranium
(b) plutonium
(c) thorium
(d) U235
(e) natrual uranium.
Ans: d
80. A boiling water reactor uses following as fuel
(a) enriched uranium
(b) plutonium
(c) thorium
(d) U
(e) natural uranium.
Ans: a
81. A fast breeder reactor
(a) uses graphite rods as moderator
(b) has powerful moderator
(c) has no moderator
(d) uses ferrite material as moderator
 (e) uses pressurised water as moderator.
Ans: c
82. Artificial radioactive isotopes find application in
(a) power generation
(b) nucleonic devices
(c) nuclear fission
(d) nuclear fusion
(e) medical field.
Ans: e
83. A fast breeder reactor uses
(a) 90% U-235
(b) U-238
(c) U-235
(d) Pu-239
(e) U-239.
Ans: a
84. Half life of a radioactive isotope corresponds to the time required
for half of the following to decay
(a) electrons
(b) protons
(c) neutrons
(d) nulceus
(e) atom.
Ans: e
85. Pressurised water reactor isdesigned
(a) for boiling pi water in the core
(b) to use liquid sodium metal as coolant
(c) to use intermediate coolant
(d) to prevent the water coolant from boiling in the core
(e) to eliminate the coolant loop of the pressurised water.
Ans: d
86. The coolant used in boiling water reactor is
(a) Co2
(b) pressurised water
(c) mixture of water and steam
(d) liquid metal
 (e) mercury.
Ans: c
87. In boiling water reactor, moderator is
(a) coolant itself
(b) ferrite rod
(c) graphite rod
(d) liquid sodium metal
(e) blanket of thorium.
Ans: a
88. The most practical fuel for a thermo-nuclear reactor, both from
econocical and nuclear consideration is
(a) plutonium
(b) uranium
(c) deuterium
(d) thorium
(e) lithium.
Ans: c
89. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparison to
conventional and nuclear consideration is
(a) higher cost of nuclear fuel
(b) high initial cost
(c) high heat rejection in condenser
(d) lower temperature and pressure condi-tions
(e) nuclear hazard risk.
Ans: d
90. The presence of reflector in nuclear power plants results in
(a) increased production of neutrons
(b) complete absorption of neutrons
(c) controlled production of neutrons
(d) decreased leakage of neutrons
(e) decrease of speed of neutrons.
Ans: d
91. The fuel needed, with reflector in nuclear power plant, in order to
generate sufficient neutrons to sustain a chain reaction, would be
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
 (d) zero
(e) negative, i.e. fuel would be generated.
Ans: b

Hydraulic Machines
1. Reciprocating pumps are no more to be seen in industrial applications (in
comparison to centrifugal pumps)
because of
(a) high initial and maintenance cost
(b) lower discharge
(c) lower speed of operation
(d) necessity of air vessel
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a2. In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water leaving the impeller, is
(a) rectilinear flow
(b) radial flow
(c) free vortex motion
(d) forced vortex
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

3. Head developed by a centrifugal pump depends on

(a) impeller diameter
(b) speed
(c) fluid density
(d) type of casing
(e) (a) and (b) above.

Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

4. For starting an axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be

(a) closed
(b) open
(c) depends on starting condition and flow desired
(d) could be either open or closed
(e) partly open and partly closed.

Ans: b

5. The efficiency of a centrifugal pump is maximum when its blades are

(a) straight
(b) bent forward
(c) bent backward
(d) bent forward first and then backward
(e) bent backward first and then forward.

Ans: c

6. In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water leaving the

(a) radial
(b) radial
(c) centrifugal
(d) rectilinear
(e) vortex.

Ans: e

7. Centrifugal pump is started with its delivery valve

(a) kept fully closed
(b) kept fully open
(c) irrespective of any position
(d) kept 50% open
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

8. Axial flow pump is started with its delivery valve
(a) kept fully closed
(b) kept fully open
(c) irrespective of any position
(d) kept 50% open
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

9. When a piping system is made up primarily of vertical lift and very little pipe
friction, the pump characteristics should be
(a) horizontal
(b) nearly horizontal
(c) steep
(d) first rise and then fall
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

10. One horsepower is equal to

(a) 102 watts
(b) 75 watts
(c) 550 watts
(d) 735 watts
(e) 33000 watts.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

11. Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to obtain

(a) high discharge
(b) high head
(c) pumping of viscous fluids
(d) high head and high discharge
(e) high efficiency.
Ans: b

12. When a piping system is made up primarily of friction head and very little of
vertical lift, then pump characteristics should be
(a) horizontal
(b) nearly horizontal
(c) steep
(d) first rise and then fall
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

13. In a single casing, multistage pump running at constant speed, the capacity
rating is to be slightly lowered. It
can be done by
(a) designing new impeller
(b) trimming the impeller size to the required size by machining
(c) not possible
(d) some other alterations in the impeller
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

14. If a pump is handling water and is discharging a certain flow Q at a constant

total dynamic head requiring a
definite B.H.P., the same pump when handling a liquid of specific gravity 0.75 and
viscosity nearly same as of water would discharge
(a) same quantity of liquid
(b) 0.75 Q
(c) Q/0.75
(d) 1.5 Q
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

15. The horse power required in above case will be
(a) same
(b) 0.75 B.H.P.
(c) B.H.P./0.75
(d) 1.5 B.H.P.
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

16. Low specific speed of a pump implies it is

(a) centrifugal pump
(b) mixed flow pump
(c) axial flow pump
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

17. The optimum value of vane exit angle for a centrifugal pump impeller is
(a) 10-15°
(b) 20-25°
(c) 30-40°
(d) 50-60°
(e) 80-90°.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

18. In a centrifugal pump, the liquid enters the pump

(a) at the top
(b) at the bottom
(c) at the center
(d) from sides
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

19. For small discharge at high pressure, following pump is preferred

(a) centrifugal
(b) axial flow
(c) mixed flow
(d) propeller
(e) reciprocating.

Ans: e

20. In centrifugal pumps, maximum efficiency is obtained when the blades are
(a) straight
(b) bent forward
(c) bent backward
(d) radial
(e) given aerofoil section.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

21. Motion of a liquid in a volute casing of a centrifugal pump is an example of

(a) rotational flow
(b) radial
(c) forced spiral vortex flow
(d) forced cylindrical vortex flow
(e) spiral vortex flow.

Ans: e

22. For very high discharge at low pressure such as for flood control and
irrigation applications, following type of pump is preferred
(a) centrifugal
(b) axial flow
(c) reciprocating
(d) mixed flow
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

23. Medium specific speed of a pump implies it is

(a) centrifugal pump
(b) mixed flow pump
(c) axial flow pump
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

24. High specific speed of a pump implies it is

(a) centrifugal pump
(b) mixed flow pump
(c) axial flow pump
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

25. Indicator diagram of a reciprocating pump is a graph between

(a) flow vs swept volume
(b) pressure in cylinder vs swept volume
(c) flow vs speed
(d) pressure vs speed
(e) swept volume vs speed.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

26. Low specific speed of turbine implies it is
(a) propeller turbine
(b) Francis turbine
(c) impulse turbine
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

27. Any change in load is adjusted by adjusting following parameter on turbine

(a) net head
(b) absolute velocity
(c) blade velocity
(d) flow
(e) relative velocity of flow at inlet.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

28. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is

(a) full load speed
(b) the speed at which turbine runner will be damaged
(c) the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without load and
with the wicket gates wide open
(d) the speed corresponding to maximum overload permissible
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

29. The maximum number of jets generally employed in impulse turbine without
jet interference is
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 12
(e) 16.
Ans: b

30. Medium specific speea of turbine implies it is

(a) propeller turbine
(b) Francis turbine
(c) impulse turbine
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

31. High specific speed of turbine implies it is

(a) propeller turbine
(b) Francis turbine
(c) impulse turbine
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

32. The specific speed of turbine is defined as the speed of a unit

(a) of such a size that it delivers unit dis-charge at unit head
(b) of such a size that it delivers unit dis-charge at unit power
(c) of such a size that it requires unit power per unit head
(d) of such a size that it produces unit horse power with unit head
(e) none of the above.

Ans: d

33. Puck up the wrong statement about centrifugal pump

(a) discharge a diameter
(b) head a speed2
(c) head a diameter
(d) Power a speed3
(e) none of the above is wrong.

Ans: a

34. A turbine pump is basically a centrifugal pump equipped additionally with

(a) adjustable blades
(b) backward curved blades
(c) vaned diffusion casing
(d) inlet guide blades
(e) totally submerged operation facility.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

35. Casting of a centrifugal pump is designed so as to minimize

(a) friction loss
(b) cavitation
(c) static head
(d) loss of kinetic energy
(e) starting time.

Ans: d

36. In reaction turbine, draft tube is used

(a) to transport water downstream without eddies
(b) to convert the kinetic energy to flow energy by a gradual expansion of the flow
cross-section
(c) for safety of turbine
(d) to increase flow rate
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b
37. Guide angle as per the aerofoil theory of Kaplan turbine blade design is
defined as the angle between
(a) lift and resultant force
(b) drag and resultant force
(c) lift and tangential force
(d) lift and drag
(e) resultant force and tangential force.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

38. Francis turbine is best suited for

(a) medium head application from 24 to 180 m
(b) low head installation up to 30 m
(c) high head installation above 180 m
(d) all types of heads
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

39. The flow rate in gear pump

(a) increases with increase in pressure
(b) decreases with increase in pressure
(c) more or less remains constant with in-crease in pressure
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

40. Impulse turbine is generally fitted

(a) at the level of tail race
(b) little above the tail race
(c) slightly below the tail race
(d) about 2.5 m above the tail race to avoid cavitation
(e) about 2.5 m below the tail race to avoid cavitation.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

41. Francis, Kaplan and propeller turbines fall under the category of
(a) Impulse turbines
(b) Reaction turbines
(c) Axial flow turbines
(d) Mixed flow turbines
(e) Reaction-cum-impulse turbines.

Ans: b

42. Reaction turbines are used for

(a) low head
(b) high head
(c) high head and low discharge
(d) high head and high discharge
(e) low head and high discharge.

Ans: e

43. The discharge through a reaction turbine with increase in unit speed
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) first increases and then decreases
(e) first decreases and then increases.

Ans: b

44. The angle of taper on draft tube is

(a) greater than 15°
(b) greater than 8°
(c) greater than 5°
(d) less than 8°
(e) less than 3°.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

45. Specific speed for reaction turbines ranges from

(a) 0 to 4.5
(b) 10 to 100
(c) 80 to 200
(d) 250 to 300
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

46. In axial flow fans and turbines, fluid enters and leaves as follows
(a) radially, axially
(b) axially, radially
(c) axially, axially
(d) radially, radially
(e) combination of axial and radial.

Ans: c

47. Which place in hydraulic turbine is most susceptible for cavitation

(a) inlet of draft rube
(b) blade inlet
(c) guide blade
(d) penstock
(e) draft tube exit.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

48. Air vessels in reciprocating pump are used to
(a) smoothen flow
(b) reduce acceleration to minimum
(c) increase pump efficiency
(d) save pump from cavitation
(e) increase pump head.

Ans: b

49. Saving of work done and power by fitting an air vessel to single acting
reciprocating pump is of the order of
(a) 39.2%
(b) 49.2%
(c) 68.8%
(d) 84.8%
(e) 91.6%.

Ans: d

50. Saving of work done and power by fitting an air vessel to double acting
reciprocating pump is of the order of
(a) 39.2%
(b) 49.2%
(c) 68.8%
(d) 84.8%
(e) 91.6%.

Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

51. According to fan laws, for fans having constant wheel diameter, the air or gas
capacity varies
(a) directly as fan speed
(b) square of fan speed
(c) cube of fan speed
(d) square root of fan speed
(e) none of the above.

Ans: a

52. According to fan laws, for fans having constant wheel diameter, the pressure
varies
(a) directly as fan speed
(b) square of fan speed
(c) cube of fan speed
(d) square root of fan speed
(e) none of the above.

Ans: b

53. According to fan laws, for the fans having constant wheel diameters, the
power demand varies
(a) directly as fan speed
(b) square of fan speed
(c) cube of fan speed
(d) square root of fan speed
(e) none of the above.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

54. According to fan laws, at constant speed and capacity, the pressure and
power vary
(a) directly as the air or gas density
(b) inversely as square root of density
(c) inversely as density
(d) as square of density
(e) as square root of density.

Ans: a
55. According to fan laws, at constant pressure, the speed capacity and power
vary
(a) directly as the air or gas density
(b) inversely as square root of density
(c) inversely as density
(d) as square of density
(e) as square root of density.

Ans: b

56. According to fan laws, at constant weight of air or gas, the speed, capacity
and pressure vary
(a) directly as the air or gas density
(b) inversely as square root of density
(c) inversely as density
(d) as square of density
(e) as square root of density.

Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

57. Pressure intensifier increases the pressure in proportion to

(a) ratio of diameters
(b) square of ratio of diameters
(c) inverse ratio of diameters
(d) square of inverse ratio of diameters
(e) fourth power of ratio of diameters.

Ans: b

58. A hydraulic accumulator normally consists of

(a) two cylinders, two rams and a storage device
(b) a cylinder and a ram
(c) two co-axial rams and two cylinders
(d) a cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve
(e) special type of pump with storage device and a pressure regulator.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

59. A hydraulic intensifier normally consists of

(a) two cylinders, two rams and a storage device
(b) a cylinder and a ram
(c) two co-axial rams and two cylinders
(d) a cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve
(e) special type of pump with storage device and a pressure regulator.

Ans: c

60. Hydraulic accumulator is used for

(a) accumulating oil
(b) supplying large quantities of oil for very short duration
(c) generally high pressures to operate hydraulic machines
(d) supplying energy when main supply fails
(e) accumulating hydraulic energy.

Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Hydraulic Machines

61. Maximum impulse will be developed in hydraulic ram when

(a) waste valve closes suddenly
(b) supply pipe is long
(c) supply pipe is short
(d) ram chamber is large
(e) supply pipe has critical diameter,

Ans: a

Engineering Materials
Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials
Ductility of a material can be defined as
(a) ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
(b) ability to recover its original form
(c) ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

Malleability of a material can be defined as

(a) ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
(b) ability to recover its original form
(c) ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

In compression, a prism of brittle material will break

(a) by forming a bulge (l>) by shearing along oblique plane
(c) in direction perpendicular to application of load
(d) by crushing into thousands of pieces
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

The ability of a material to resist softening at high temperature is known as

(a) creep
(b) hot tempering
(c) hot hardness
(d) fatigue
(e) superhardening.
Ans: c

Mild steel belongs to the following category

(a) low carbon steel
(b) medium carbon steel
(c) high carbon steel
(d) alloy steel
(e) special steel.
Ans: a

The ultimate tensile strength of low carbon steel by working at a high strain rate
will
(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain constant
(d) first increase and then decrease
(e) first decrease and then increase.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Slow plastic defomiation of metals under a constant stress is known as

(a) creep
(b) fatigue
(c) endurance
(d) plastic deformation
(e) non-plastic deformation.
Ans: a

The ultimate tensile strength and yield strength of most of the metals, when
temperature falls from 0 to l00°C will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) first increase and then decrease
(e) show unpredictable behaviour.
Ans: a

The number of electrons in 1 cm3 of metal would be of the order of

(a) 1010
(b)TO16
(c) 1022
(d) 1040
(e) 1052
Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Stress relaxation is- the phenomenon

(a) in which parts are not loaded
(b) in which stress remains constant on in-creasing load
(c) in which deformation tends to loosen the joint and produces a stress reduced
(d) stress reduces on increasing load
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

The elastic stress strain behaviour of rubber is

(a) linear
(b) non-linear
(c) plastic
(d) no fixed relationship
(e) unpredictable behaviour.
Ans: b

Isotropic materials are those which have the same

(a) elastic properties in all directions
(b) stresses induced in all directions
(c) thermal properties in all directions
(d) electric and magnetic properties in all directions
(e) density throughout.
Ans: a

Recrystallization temperature is one

(a) at which crystals first start forming from molten metal when it is cooled
(b) at which new spherical crystals first begin to form from the old deformed one
when a strained metal is heated
(c) at which change of allotropic form takes place
(d) at which crystals grow bigger in size
(e) at which crystals are destroyed on heating.
Ans: b
Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Points of arrest for iron correspond to

(a) stages at which allotropic forms change
(b) stages at which further heating does not increase temperature for some time
(c) stages at which properties do not change with increase in temperature
(d) there is nothing like points of arrest
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

Delta iron occurs at temperature of

(a) room temperature
(b) above melting point
(c) between 1400°C and 1539°C
(c) between 910°C and 1400°C
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

A material is known as allotropic or polymorphic if it

(a) has a fixed structure under all conditions
(b) exists in several crystal forms at different temperatures
(c) responds to heat treatment
(d) has its atoms distributed in a random pattern
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Super conduction by metals is observed in the temperature range of

(a) below 10°K
(b) above 100°K
(c) around 0°C
(d) around 100°C
(e) above 1000°C.
Ans: a
Which of the following constituents of steels is softest and least strong
(a) austenite
(b) pearlite
(c) ferrite
(d) cementlte
(e) bainite.
Ans: c

Which of the following represents the allotropic forms of iron

(a) alpha iron, beta iron and gamma iron
(b) alpha iron and beta iron
(c) body centred cubic a-iron and face centred cubic a-iron
(d) alpha iron, gamma from and delta iron
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

The following types of materials are usually the most ductile

(a) face-centred cubic lattice
(b) body-centred cubic lattice
(c) hexagonal close-packed lattice
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

Pure iron is the structure of

(a) ferrite
(b) pearlite
(c) anstenite
(d) ferrite and cementite
(e) ferrite and pearlite.
Ans: a

The temperature at which ferromagnetic alpha iron transforms to paramagnetic

alpha iron is
(a) 770°C
(b) 910°C
(c) 1050°C
(d) below recrystallisation temperature
(e) above recrystallization temperature.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Gamma iron exits at following temperature

(a) room temperature
(b) near melting point
(c) between 1400°C and 1539°C
(d) between 910°C and 1400°C
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in temperature range of

(a) below 723°C
(b) 770 – 910°C
(c) 910-1440°C
(d) 1400-1539°C
(e) above 1539°C.
Ans: a

Paramagnetic alpha iron changes to gamma iron at

(a) 770°C
(b) 910°C
(c) 1440°C
(d) 1539°C
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

A reversible change in the atomic structure of steel with corresponding change in

the properties is known as
(a) molecular change
(b) physical change
(c) allotropic change
(d) solidus change
(e) atomic change.
Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

The molecules in a solid move

(a) in a random manner
(b) in a haphazard way
(c) in circular motion
(d) back and forth like tiny pendulums
(e) do not move.
Ans: d

The crystal structure of gamma iron is

(a) body centred cubic
(b) face centred cubic
(c) hexagonal close packed
(d) cubic structure
(e) orthorhombic crystal.
Ans: b

The crystal of alpha iron is

(a) body centred cubic
(b) face centred cubic
(c) hexagonal close packed
(d) cubic structure
(e) orthorhombic crystal.
Ans: a

The metallic structure of mild steel is

(a) body centred cubic
(b) face centred cubic
(c) hexagonal close packed
(d) cubic structure
(e) orthorhombic crystal.
Ans: a
For the allotropic forms of iron, the points of arrest are
(a) the points where no further change oc-curs
(b) constant for all metals
(c) the points where there is no further flow of metal
(d) the points of discontinuity
(e) the points where major changes take place.
Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

The percentage of carbon in pig iron varies from

(a) 0.1 to 1.2%
(b) 1.5 to 2.5%
(c) 2.5 to 4%
(d) 4 to 4.5%
(e) 4.5 to 6.3%.
Ans: d

The percentage of carbon in grey iron castings usually varies between

(a) 0.5 to 1%
(b) 1 – 2%
(c) 2.5 to 4.5%
(d) 5 – 7%
(e) 7-9%.
Ans: c

Pig iron is the name given to

(a) raw material for blast furnace
(b) product of blast furnace made by reduction of iron ore
(c) iron containing huge quantities of carbon
(d) iron in molten form in the ladles
(e) iron scrap.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

The unique property of cast iron is its high
(a) malleability
(b) ductility
(c) surface finish
(d) damping characteristics
(e) hardness.
Ans: d

Cast iron is characterised by minimum of following %age of carbon

(a) 0.2%
(b) 0.8%
(c) 1.3%
(d) 2%
(e) 6.3%.
Ans: d

In grey cast iron, carbon is present in the form of

(a) cementite
(b) free carbon
(c) flakes
(d) spheroids
(e) nodular aggregates of graphite.
Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

In nodular iron, graphite is in the form of

(a) cementite
(b) free carbon
(C) flakes
(d) spheroids
(e) nodular aggregates of graphite.
Ans: d

In malleable iron, carbon is present in the form of

(a) cementite
(b) free carbon
(c) flakes
(d) spheroids
(e) nodular aggregates of graphite.
Ans: e

Wrought iron is
(a) hard
(b) high in strength
(c) highly resistant to corrosion
(d) heat treated to change its properties
(e) least resistant to corrosion.
Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Sulphur in pig iron tends to make it

(a) hard’
(b) soft
(c) ductile
(d) tough
(e) malleable.
Ans: a

Pick up wrong statement about wrought iron

(a) It contains carbon of the order of 0 to 0.25%
(b) It melts at 1535°C
(c) It is very soft and ductile
(d) It can be easily forge welded
(e) It is made by adding suitable percent¬age of carbon to molten iron and
subjecting the product to repeated hammering and rolling.
Ans: e

Iron is
(a) paramagnetic
(b) ferromagnetic
(c) ferroelectric
(d) dielectric
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

A reversible change in the atomic structure of the steel with a corresponding

change in the properties is known as
(a) allotropic change
(b) recrystallisation
(c) heat treatment
(d) precipitation
(e) austempering.
Ans: a

Chilled cast iron has

(a) no graphite
(b) a very high percentage of graphite
(c) a low percentage of graphite
(d) graphite as its basic constituent of composition
(e) none of the above is true.
Ans: a

Cast iron has

(a) high tensile strength
(b) its elastic limit close to the ultimate breaking strength
(c) high ductility
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

White cast iron contains carbon in the form of

(a) free carbon
(b) graphite
(c) cementite
(d) white carbon
(e) ferrite.
Ans: c
Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

In mottled cast iron, carbon is available in

(a) free form
(b) combined form
(c) nodular form
(d) flat form
(e) partly in free and partly in combined state.
Ans: e

An important property of high silicon (12 – 18%) cast iron is the high
(a) tenacity
(b) brittleness
(c) plasticity
(d) corrosion resistance
(e) hardness.
Ans: e

An important property of malleable cast iron in comparison to grey cast iron is the
high
(a) compressive strength
(b) ductility
(c) carbon content
(d) hardness
(e) surface finish.
Ans: b

Steel contains
(a) 80% or more iron
(b) 50% or more iron
(c) alloying elements like chromium, tungsten nickel and copper
(d) elements like phosphorus, sulphur and silicon in varying quantities
(e) high quantities of sulphur.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Carbon steel is
(a) made by adding carbon in steel
(b) refined from cast iron
(c) an alloy of iron and carbon with varying quantities of phosphorus and sulphur
(d) extensively used for making cutting tools
(e) extremely brittle.
Ans: c

Annealing of white cast iron results in production of

(a) malleable iron
(b) nodular iron
(c) spheroidal iron
(d) grey iron
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

‘Killed steels’ are those steels

(a) which are destroyed by burning
(b) which after their destruction are recycled to produce fresh steel
(c) which are deoxidised in the ladle with silicon and aluminium
(d) in which carbon is completely burnt
(e) which have poor properties due to improper manufacturing.
Ans: c

Hardness of steel depends on

(a) amount of carbon it contains
(b) the shape and distribution of the car-bides in iron
(c) method of fabrication
(d) contents of alloying elements
(e) the quality of ore from which it is made.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Maximum percentage of carbon in ferrite is
(a) 0.025%
(b) 0.06%
(c) 0.1%
(d) 0.25%
(e) 0.8%.
Ans: a

Maximum percentage of carbon in austenite is

(a) 0.025%
(b) 0.26%
(c) 0.8%
(d) 1.25%
(e) 1.7%.
Ans: e

Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by addition of

(a) chromium and nickel
(b) sulphur, phosphorus, lead
(c) vanadium, aluminium
(d) tungsten, molybdenum, vanadium, chromium
(e) zinc.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

In which of the following cases, consideration of creep is important

(a) flywheel of steam engine
(b) cast iron pipes”
(c) cycle chains
(d) gas turbine blades
(e) piston I.C. engine.
Ans: d

The most effective inhibitor of grain growth, when added in small quantities is
(a) carbon
(b) vanadium
(c) manganese
(d) cobalt
(e) copper.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Depth of hardness of steel is increased by addition of

(a) nickel
(b) chromium
(c) tungsten
(d) vanadium
(e) ell of the above.
Ans: b

Railway rails are normally made of

(a) mild steel
(b) alloy steel
(c) high carbon
(d) tungsten steel
(e) cast iron steel.
Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Pick up the wrong statement

(a) aluminium in steel results in excessive grain growth
(b) manganese in steel induces hardness
(c) nickel and chromium in steel help in raising the elastic limit and improve the
resilience and ductility
(d) tungsten in steels improves magnetic properties and hardenability
(e) sulphur, phosphorous and lead im¬prove machining properties of steel.
Ans: a

Pick up the wrong statement Nickel and chromium in steel help in

(a) providing corrosion resistance
(b) improving machining properties
(c) providing high strength at elevated temperatures
(d) raising the elastic limit
(e) improving the resilience and ductility.
Ans: b

Machining properties of steel are improved by adding

(a) sulphur, lead, phosphorous
(b) silicon, aluminium, titanium
(c) vanadium, aluminium
(d) chromium, nickel
(e) lubricants.
Ans: a

Eutectoid steel contains following percentage of carbon

(a) 0.02%
(b) 0.3%
(c) 0.63%
(d) 0.8%
(e) 1.2%.
Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

The basic constituents of Hastelloy are

(a) aluminium, copper etc.
(b) nickel, molybdenum etc.
(c) nickel, copper, etc.
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

Basic constituents of Monel metal are

(a) nickel, copper
(b) nickel, molybdenum
(c) zinc, tin, lead
(d) nickel, lead and tin
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

German silver is an alloy of

(a) silver and some impurities
(b) refined silver
(c) nickel, copper and zinc
(d) nickel and copper
(e) silver and gold.
Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Surveying tapes are made of a material having low coefficient of expansion and
enough strength. The alloy used is
(a) silver metal
(b) duralumin
(c) Hastelloy
(d) monel metal
(e) invar.
Ans: e

A cold chisel is made of

(a) mild steel
(b) cast iron
(c) H.S.S.
(d) high carbon
(e) german silver.
Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

An engineer’s hammer is made of

(a) cast iron
(b) forged steel
(c) mild steel
(d) high carbon steel
(e) H.S.S.
Ans: d

Inconel is an alloy of
(a) nickel, chromium and iron
(b) nickel, copper
(c) nickel, chromium
(d) nickel, zinc
(e) nickel, lead.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

By severely deforming a metal in a particular direction it becomes

(a) ductile
(b) malleable
(c) homogeneous
(d) isotropic
(e) anisotropic.
Ans: e

Solder is an alloy consisting of

(a) tin, antimony, copper
(b) tin and copper
(c) tin and lead
(d) lead and zinc
(e) lead and copper.
Ans: b

Cyaniding is the process of

(a) dipping steel in cyanide bath
(b) reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
(c) adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface
hardness
(d) obtaining cyanide salts
(e) making corrosion resistant steel.
Ans: c
Induction hardening is the process of
(a) hardening surface of workpiece to ob-tain hard and wear resistant surface
(b) heating and cooling rapidly
(c) increasing hardness throughout
(d) inducing hardness by continuous process
(e) hardening core.
Ans: a

The loss of strength in compression with simultaneous gain in strength in tension

due to overloading is known as
(a) hysteresis
(b) creep
(c) visco elasticity
(d) Boeschinger effect
(e) inelasticity.
Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Process of austempering results in

(a) formation of bainite structure
(b) carburised structure
(c) martenistic structure
(d) lamellar layers of carbide distributed throughout the structure
(e) relieving of stresses throughout a component.
Ans: a

The surface hardness of the following order is achieved by nitriding operation

(a) 600 VPN
(b) 1500 VPN
(c) 1000 to 1100 VPN
(d) 250 VPN
(e) 2000 VPN.
Ans: c

Hardness of martensite is about

(a) RC 65
(b) RC 48
(c) RC 57
(d) RC 80
(e) RC 32.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Weld decay is the phenomenon found with

(a) cast iron
(b) mild steel
(c) non-ferrous materials
(d) wrought iron
(e) stainless steel.
Ans: e

Materials after cold working are subjected to following process to relieve stresses
(a) hot working
(b) tempering
(c) normalising
(d) annealing
(e) special heat treatment.
Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Hardness of upper bainite (acicular structure) is about

(a) RC 65
(b) RC 48
(c) RC 57
(d) RC 80
(e) RC 32.
Ans: b

Carbon in iron is an example of

(a) substitutional solution
(b) interstitial solid solution
(c) intermetallic compounds
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

Brass (alloy of copper and zinc) is an example of

(a) substitutional solid solution
(b) interstitial solid solution
(c) intermetallic compounds
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

Which is false statement about annealing.

Annealing is done to
(a) relieve stresses
(b) harden steel slightly
(c) improve machining characteristic
(d) soften material
(e) permit further cold working.
Ans: b

Argentite is the principal ore or raw material for

(a) aluminium
(b) tin
(c) zinc
(e) lead
(e) silver.
Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Hardness of lower bainite (tempered martensite) is about

(a) RC 65
(b) RC 48
(c) RC 57
(d) RC 80
(e) RC 32.
Ans: c

Which is false statement about normalizing. Normalizing is done to

(a) refine grain structure
(b) reduce segregation in casting
(c) improve mechanical properties
(d) induce stresses-
(e) relieve internal stresses.
Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Vanadium in high speed steels

(a) promotes decarburisation
(b) provides high hot hardness
(c) forms very hard carbides and thus in-creases wear resistance
(d) promotes retention of austenite
(e) increases toughness.
Ans: c

Amorphous material is one

(a) in which atoms align themselves in a geometric pattern upon solidification
(b) in which there is no definite atomic structure and atoms exist in a random
pattern just as in a liquid
(c) which is not attacked by phosphorous
(d) which emits fumes on melting
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Dislocations in materials refer to the following type of defect

(a) point defect
(b) line defect
(c) plane defect
(d) volumetric defect
(e) chemical defect.
Ans: b

An example of amorphous material is

(a) zinc
(b) lead
(c) silver
(d) glass
(e) brass.
Ans: d

Which is false statement about tempering.

Tempering is done to
(a) improve machinability
(b) improve ductility
(c) improve toughness
(d) release stresses
(e) reduce hardness and brittleness.
Ans: a

Which is false statement about case hardening. Case hardening is done by

(a) electroplating
(b) cyaniding
(c) induction hardening
(d) nitriding
(e) flame hardening.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Which of the following is the binding material in cemented carbides

(a) cobalt
(b) nickel
(c) vanadium
(d) iron
(e) carbon.
Ans: a
Chromium in steel
(a) improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness
(b) refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves
corrosion and heat resistant properties
(c) improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability
(d) gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anticorrosion properties
(e) makes steel hard.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Manganese in steel increases its

(a) tensile strength
(b) hardness
(c) ductility
(d) fluidity
(e) malleability.
Ans: a

Cemented carbide tools are not found to be suitable for cutting

(a) brass
(b) cast iron
(c) aluminium
(d) steel
(e) non-ferrous alloys.
Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Sulphur in steel
(a) acts as deoxidiser
(b) reduces the grain size
(c) decreases tensile strength and hardness
(d) lowers the toughness and transverse ductility
(e) increases hardness.
Ans: d
Tungsten in steel
(a) improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness
(b) refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves
corrosion and heat resistant properties
(c) improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability
(d) gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anticorrosion properties
(e) raises its melting point.
Ans: b

Tungsten in high speed steel provides

(a) hot hardness
(b) toughness
(c) wear resistance
(d) sharp cutting edge
(e) cold hardness.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Which of the following is not the correct method of increasing fatigue limit
(a) shot peening
(b) nitriding of surface
(c) cold working
(d) surface decarburisation
(e) under-stressing.
Ans: d

Connecting rod is usually made of

(a) aluminium
(b) low carbon steel
(c) medium carbon steel
(d) high carbon steel
(e) cast iron.
Ans: c

Which of the following pipes is least corrosion resistant

(a) brass
(b) mild steel
(c) cast iron
(d) wrought iron
(e) copper.
Ans: d

Tensile strength of steel can be safely in-creased by

(a) adding carbon up to 2.8%
(b) adding carbon up to 6.3%
(c) adding carbon up to 0.83%
(d) adding small quantities of copper
(e) adding copper and carbon.
Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

High carbon steel carries carbon %age c

(a) 0.1 to 0.3%
(b) 0.3 to 0.6%
(c) 0.6 to 0.8%
(d) 0.8 to 1.5%
(e) 1.5 to 2.5%.
Ans: d

Cobalt in steel
(a) improves wear resistance, cuttinability and toughness
(b) refines grain size and produces les tendency to carburisation, improve
corrosion and heat resistant proper ties
(c) improves cutting ability and reduce hardenability
(d) gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti corrosion property:
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

The percentage of carbon in low carbon steel is

(a) 0.05%
(b) 0.15%
(c) 0.3%
(d) 0.5%
(e) 0.7%.
Ans: b

The hardness of steel increases if it contains

(a) austenite
(b) martensite
(c) pearlite
(d) cementite
(e) all of the above.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Grey cast iron

(a) contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in free state and is obtained by the slow cooling
of molten cast iron
(b) is also known as chilled cast iron am is obtained by cooling rapidly. It i: almost
unmachinable
(c) is produced by annealing process. I is soft, tough and easily machinec metal
(d) is produced by small additions o magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle Graphite
is in nodular or spheroida form and is well dispersed throughout the material
(e) none of the above is true.
Ans: a

Nodular iron has

(a) high maehinability
(b) low melting point
(c) high tensile strength
(d) good fluidity
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

Nickel in steel
(a) improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness
(b) refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves
corrosion and heat resistant proper¬ties
(c) improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability
(d) gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anticorrosion properties
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

Which of the following elements does not impart hardness to steel

(a) copper
(b) chromium
(c) nickel
(d) silicon
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

The presence of sulphur in pig iron makes

(a) it easily machinable
(b) it brittle
(c) it hard
(d) the casting unsound
(e) increases the fluidity.
Ans: d

Melting point of iron is

(a) 1539°C
(b) 1601°C
(c) 1489°C
(d) 1712°C
(e) 1131°C.
Ans: a

Compressive strength of grey cast iron in tonnes/cm is of the order of

(a) 3- 5
(b) 5-7
(c) 7-10
(d) 10-15
(e) 15-22.
Ans: b

Blast furnace produces following by reduction of iron ore

(a) cast iron
(b) pig iron
(c) wrought iron
(d) malleable iron
(e) white iron.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Cupola produces following material

a) cast iron
(b) pig iron
(C) wrought iron
(d) malleable iron
(e) white iron.
Ans: a

The machinability of steel is increased by

(a) silicon and sulphur
(b) phosphorous, lead and sulphur
(c) sulphur, graphite and aluminium
(d) phosphorous and aluminium
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

The following element can’t impart high strength at elevated temperature

(a) manganese
(b) magnesium
(c) nickel
(d) silicon
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Which of the following element results in presence of free graphite in C.I.

(a) carbon
(b) sulphur
(c) silicon
(d) manganese
(e) phosphorous.
Ans: c

White cast iron

(a) contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in free state and is obtained by the slow cooling
of molten cast iron
(b) is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is
almost unmachinable
(c) is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machined metal
(d) is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle.
Graphite is in nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the
material
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Cold rolled steel sheets contain carbon of the following order

(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.2%
(c) 0.4%
(d) 0.6%
(e) 0.8%.
Ans: a

Pipes for bicycle frames are made of

(a) cold rolled steel
(b) hot rolled steel
(c) forged steel
(d) cast steel
(e) carbon-chrome steel.
Ans: a

Large forgings, crank shafts, axles normally contain carbon up to

(a) 0.05 to 0.20%
(b) 0.20 to 0.45%
(c) 0.45 to 0.55%
(d) 0.55 to 1.0%
(e) 1.0 to 1.2%.
Ans: c

Heavy duty leaf and coil spring* contain carbon of the following order
(a) 0.2%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 0.8%
(d) 1.0%
(e) 1.5%.
Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Taps, dies and drills contain carbon

(a) below 0.5%
(b) below 1%
(c) above 1%
(d) above 2.2%
(e) nil.
Ans: c

Drop forging dies contain carbon of the order of

(a) 0.1 to 0.2%
(b) 0.25 to 0.5%
(c) 0.6 to 0.7%
(d) 0.7 to 0.9%
(e) 1.0 to 1.2%.
Ans: c
Which is the false statement about wrought iron. It has
(a) high resistance to rusting and corrosion
(b) high ductility
(c) ability of hold protective coating
(d) easily weldable characteristics
(e) uniform strength in all directions.
Ans: e

The tensile strength of wrought iron is maximum

(a) along the lines of slag distribution
(b) perpendicular to lines of slag distribution
(c) uniform in all directions
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Balls for ball bearings are made of

(a) cast iron
(b) mild steel
(c) stainless steel
(d) carbon-chrome steel
(e) high carbon steel.
Ans: d

Malleable cast iron

(a) contains l.7 to 3.5% carbon in free state and is obtained by the slow cooling of
molten cast iron
(b) is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is
almost unmachinable
(c) is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough, and easily machined metal
(d) is produced by small additions of magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle.
Graphite is in the nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the
material
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c
Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Preheating is essential in welding

(a) cast iron
(b) high speed steel
(c) all non-ferrous materials
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

The hardness of steel primarily depends on

(a) %age of carbon
(b) %age of alloying elements
(c) heat treatment employed
(d) method of manufacture
(e) shape of carbides and their distribution in iron.
Ans: e

Steel made from phosphatic iron is

(a) brittle
(b) hard
(c) ductile
(d) tough
(e) malleable.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Ductile cast iron

(a) contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in free state and is obtained by the slow cooling
of molten cast iron
(b) is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is
almost unmachinable
(c) is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machined metal
(d) is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle.
Graphite is in nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout the
material
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

Brass contains
(a) 70% copper and 30% zinc
(b) 90% copper and 10% tin
(c) 85-92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
(d) 70-75% copper and rest tin
(e) 70% copper and 30% tin.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

The crystal structure of brass is

(a) F.C.C.
(b) B.C.C.
(c) H.C.P.
(d) Orthorhombic crystalline structure
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

The composition of silver solder is

(a) silver, copper, zinc
(b) silver, tin, nickel
(c) silver, lead, zinc
(d) silver, copper, aluminium
(e) silver, lead, tin.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Which one of the following metals would work-harden more quickly than the
others?
(a) copper
(b) brass
(c) lead
(d) silver
(e) aluminium.
Ans: b

A specimen of aluminium metal when observed under microscope shows

(a) B.C.C. crystalline structure
(b) F.C.C. crystal structure
(c) H.C.P. structure
(d) a complex cubic structure
(e) orthorhombic crystalline structure.
Ans: b

The usual composition of a soldering alloy is

(a) tin, lead and small percentage of antimony
(b) tin and lead
(c) tin, lead and silver
(d) tin and copper
(e) tin, copper and lead.
Ans: a

Admiralty brass used for steam condenser tubes contains copper and zinc in the
following ratio
(a) 50 : 50
(b) 30 : 70
(c) 70 : 30
(d) 40 : 60
(e) 60 : 40.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding

(a) chromium and nickel
(b) nickel and molybdenum
(c) aluminium and zinc
(d) tungsten and sulfur
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
Corrundum contains more than 95%
(a) steel
(b) A1203
(c) Si02
(d) MgO
(e) german silver.
Ans: b

Alnico, an alloy used extensively for permanent magnets contains iron, nickel,
aluminium and cobalt in the following ratio
(a) 50 : 20 : 20 : 10
(b) 40 : 30 : 20 : 10
(c) 50 : 20 : 10 : 20
(d) 30 : 20 : 30 : 20
(e) 50 : 10 : 20 : 20.
Ans: a

If a refractory contains high content of silicon, it means refractory is

(a) acidic
(b) basic
(c) neutral
(d) brittle
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

Bell metal contains

(a) 70% copper and 30% zinc
(b) 90% copper and 10% tin
(c) 85-92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
(d) 70-75% copper and rest tin
(e) 70-75% copper and rest zinc and tin.
Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Which of the following is used for bearing liner

(a) gun metal
(b) bronze
(c) bell metal
(d) babbit metal
(e) brass.
Ans: d

The correct sequence for descending order of machinability is

(a) grey cast iron, low carbon steel, wrought iron
(b) low carbon steel, grey cast iron, wrought iron
(c) wrought iron,low carbon steel, grey cast iron
(d) wrought iron, grey cast iron, low carbon steel
(e) grey cast iron, wrought iron, low carbon steel.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Structural steel contains following principal alloying elements

(a) nickel, chromium and manganese
(b) tungsten, molybdenum and phosphorous
(c) lead, tin, aluminium
(d) zinc, sulphur, and chromium
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

Aluminium bronze contains aluminium and copper in the ratio of

(a) 50 : 50
(b) 40 : 60
(c) 60 : 40
(d) 10 : 90
(e) 90 : 10.
Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Bronze contains
(a) 70% copper and 30% zinc
(b) 90% copper and 10% tin
(c) 85-92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
(d) 70-75% copper and rest tin
(e) 90% copper and 10% zinc.
Ans: b

Muntz metal contains copper and zinc in the ratio of

(a) 50 : 50
(b) 40 : 60
(c) 60 : 40
(d) 20 : 80
(e) 80 : 20.
Ans: c

Gun metal contains

(a) 70% copper and 30% zinc
(b) 90% copper and 10% tin
(c) 85-92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
(d) 70-78% copper and rest tin
(e) 85-92% copper and rest zinc.
Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Perminvar alloy having constant permeability is an alloy of

(a) nickel, copper and iron
(b) nickel, copper and zinc
(c) copper, nickel and antimony
(d) iron, zinc and bismuth
(e) antimony, copper and zinc.
Ans: a

The alloy used for making electrical resistances and heating elements is
(a) nichrome
(b) invar
(c) magnin
(d) elinvar
(e) peiminvar.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Monel metal contains

(a) 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper
(b) 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc
(c) alloy of tin, lead and cadmium
(d) malleable iron and zinc
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

Permalloy is a
(a) kind of stainless steel
(b) none ferrous alloy
(c) polymer
(d) cutting tool material
(e) nickel and iron alloy having high permeability.
Ans: e

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Phosphor bronze contains

(a) 0.5% of phosphorous
(b) 1% phosphorous
(c) 2.5% phosphorous
(d) 5% phosphorous
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

Free cutting steels

(a) are used where ease in machining is the criterion
(b) contain carbon in free form
(c) require least cutting force
(d) do not exist
(e) can be cut freely even under adverse conditions.
Ans: a

Delta metal is an alloy of

(a) copper, zinc and iron
(b) iron, nickel and copper
(c) iron, lead and tin
(d) iron, aluminium and magnesium
(e) copper, zinc and antimony.
Ans: a

Admiralty gun metal contains

(a) 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper
(b) 88% copper, 10% tin and rest zinc
(c) alloy of tin, lead and cadmium
(d) iron scrap and zinc
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Which of the following alloys does not contain tin

(a) white metal
(b) solder admiralty
(c) fusible metal
(d) phosphor bronze
(e) gun metal.
Ans: a

Which is false statement about properties of aluminium

(a) modulus of elasticity is fairly low
(b) wear resistance is very good
(c) fatigue strength is not high
(d) creep strength limits its use to fairly low temperatures
(e) corrosion resistance is good.
Ans: b
Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Addition of copper to aluminium results in

(a) improvement of casting characteristics
(b) improvement of corrosion resistance
(c) one of the best known age and precipitation-hardening systems
(d) improving machinability
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

Addition of manganese to aluminium results in

(a) improvement of casting characteristics
(b) improvement of corrosion resistance
(c) one of the best known age and precipitation-hardening systems
(d) improving machinability
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Elinvar, an alloy used in precision instruments, hair springs for watches, etc.
contains the following element as principal alloying element
(a) iron
(b) copper
(c) aluminium
(d) zinc
(e) nickel.
Ans: e

Which of the following alloys does not have copper as one of the constituents
(a) delta metal
(b) monel metal
(c) constantan
(d) nichrome
(e) silicon bronze.
Ans: d
Addition of lead and bismuth to aluminium results in
(a) improvement of casting characteristics
(b) improvement of corrosion resistance
(c) one of the best known age and precipitation-hardening systems
(d) improving machinability
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

Addition of silicon to aluminium results in

(a) improvement of casting characteristics
(b) improvement of corrosion resistance
(c) one of the best known age and precipitation-hardening systems
(d) improving machinability
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Constantant an alloy used in thermocouples is an alloy of

(a) copper and tin
(b) copper and zinc
(c) copper and iron
(d) copper and nickel
(e) copper and chromium.
Ans: d

White metal contains

(a) 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper
(b) 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc
(c) alloy of tin, lead and cadmium
(d) silver and chromium
(e) malleable cast iron and silver.
Ans: c

German silver contains

(a) 1% silver
(b) 2.5% silver
(c) 5% silver
(d) 10% silver
(e) 100% silver.
Ans: c

Which of the following has highest specific strength of all structural materials
(a) magnesium alloys
(b) titanium alloys
(c) chromium alloys
(d) magnetic steel alloys
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Dow metal contains

(a) 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
(b) 92.5% aluminium and, 4% copper, 2% nickel and 1.5% Mg
(c) 90% aluminium and 90% copper
(d) 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper
(e) 90% magnesium and 10% tin.
Ans: d

Foundry crucible is made of

(a) mild steel
(b) german silver
(c) lead
(d) cast iron
(e) graphite.
Ans: e

Age-hardening is related with

(a) stainless steel
(b) gun metal
(c) german silver
(d) duralumin
(e) cast iron.
Ans: d

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Aluminium bronze contains

(a) 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
(b) 92.5% aluminium, 4% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg
(c) 10% aluminium and 90% copper
(d) 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper
(e) 10% aluminium and 90% tin.
Ans: c

Babbit metal is a
(a) lead base alloy
(b) tin base alloy
(c) copper base alloy
(d) all of the above
(e) (a) and (c) above.
Ans: e

The correct composition of Babbit metal is

(a) 87.75% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 0.25% Bi
(b) 90% Sn, 2% Cu, 4% Sb, 2% Bi, 2% Mg
(c) 87% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 1% Al
(d) 82% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 3% Al, 3% Mg
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

DuraJomin contains
(a) 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
(b) 92.5% aluminium, 40% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg
(c) 10% aluminium and 90% copper
(d) 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper
(e) 94% aluminium and 6% tin.
Ans: a
Neutral solution is one which has pH value
(a) greater than 7
(b) less than 7
(c) equal to 7
(d) pH value has nothing to do with neutral solution
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Acidic solution is one which has pH value

(a) greater than 7
(b) less than 7
(c) equal to 7
(d) pH value has nothing to do with neutral solution
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

Basic solution is one which has pH value

(a) greater than 7
(b) equal to 7
(c) less than 7
(d) pH value has nothing to do with basic solution
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

Following elements have face-centred cubic structure

(a) gamma iron (910° to 1400°C), Cu, Ag, Au, Al, Ni, Pb, Pt
(b) Mg, Zn, Ti, Zr, Br, Cd
(c) a iron (below 910°C and between 1400 to 1539°C), W
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Recrystallisation temperature can belowered by
(a) purification of metal
(b) grain refinement
(c) working at lower temperature
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

Pearlite is a combination of
(a) ferrite and cementite
(b) cementite and gamma iron
(c) ferrite and austenite
(d) ferrite and iron graphite
(e) pearlite and ferrite.
Ans: a

Mechanical Engineering-Engineering Materials

Austenite rs a combination of
(a) ferrite and cementite
(b) cementite and gamma iron
(c) ferrite and austenite
(d) ferrite and iron graphite
(e) pearlite and ferrite.
Ans: b

The transistor is made of

(a) silver
(b) gold
(c) copper
(d) germanium
(e) german silver.
Ans: d

Lead is poured into the joint between two pipes. These pipes may be made of
(a) cast iron
(b) vitrified clay
(c) asbestos cement
(d) concrete
(e) mild steel.
Ans: a