PRACTICE PAPER

MOCK TEST - 1
Entrance Exam - NEET-UG
Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 720
General Instructions:
The test is of 3 hours and 20 minutes and it contains 200 questions. Internal choice is
given within the sections.
For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks.
For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
The maximum marks are 720.
PHYSICS (Section-A)
1. The dimensional formula of entropy is identical to that of the: [4]

a) coefficient of thermal b) Boltzmann’s constant

conductivity

c) universal gas constant d) Avogadro’s number

2. Gauss is a unit of which of the following quantities? [4]

a) H b) ϕ

c) I d) B

3. In the arrangement shown in the figure, if v1 and v2 are instantaneous velocities of [4]
masses m1 and m2 respectively, and angle ACB = 2θ at the instant, then:

a) θ = sin −1
b) θ = cos −1

v1 v1
( ) ( )
v2 2v2

c) θ = cos −1
d) θ = tan −1

v2 v1
( ) ( )
2v1 2v2

4. Select the statements which are not true regarding the vectors? [4]
 a) Two vectors having different b) Vectors obey the triangle law of
magnitudes cannot have their addition.
resultant zero.

c) Each component of a vector is d) The magnitude of a vector is

always scalar. always a scalar quantity.

5. The maximum height attained by a projectile is increased by 5%. Keeping the angle [4]
of projection constant, what is the percentage increase in horizontal range?

a) 5% b) 15%

c) 10% d) 20%

6. A skater of mass M = 120 kg is skating across a pond with uniform velocity v = 8 m/s. [4]
One of the skater's friends, who is standing at the edge of the pond, throws a
medicine ball of mass m = 20 kg with velocity u = 3 m/s to the skater, who catches
it. The direction of motion of the ball is perpendicular to the initial direction of
motion of the skater. What is the final speed of the skater? What is the final
direction of motion of the skater relative to his/her initial direction of motion?
Assume that the skater moves without friction.

a) 8.76 m/s, 8.35o b) 8.76 m/s, 5.38o

o o
c) 6.87 m/s, 8.35 d) 6.87 m/s, 3.58

7. A particle is placed at the origin and a force F = Kx is acting on it (where K is a [4]

positive constant). If U(O)= 0, the graph of U(x) versus x will be: (where U is the
potential energy function)

a) b)
 c) d)

8. Two springs A and B having spring constant KA and KB (2KA = KB) are stretched by [4]
applying forces FA and FB (FA = 2FB). If the energy stored in spring A is EA then
the energy stored in B will be

a) 4EA b) 2EA

c) EA
d) EA

4 8

9. Two blocks of masses 5 kg and 2 kg are placed on a frictionless surface and [4]
connected by a spring. An external kick gives a velocity of 14 m/sec to the heavier
block in the direction of lighter one. Velocities of two blocks in the centre of mass
frame just after the kick are respectively given by:

a) 10 m/s, -10 m/s b) 10 m/s, 4 m/s

c) 4 m/s, 10 m/s d) 4 m/s, -10 m/s

2
10. A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg-m about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate [4]
of 60 rpm about this axis. The torque which can stop the wheel’s rotation in one
minute would be:

a) π

18
N − m b) 2π
N − m
15

c) π

12
N − m d) π

15
N − m

11. If the radius of the earth shrinks by 1.5% (mass remaining same), then the value of [4]
acceleration due to gravity changes by

a) 4% b) 2%

c) 1% d) 3%

12. If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s modulus of steel and brass wires in the [4]
figure are a, b and c respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their
 lengths would be:

a) 3c
2
b) 3a
2
2ab 2b c

c) 2ac
2
d) 2
2a c

b b

13. Two identical vessels A and B contain water at 30°C and 50°C respectively so that [4]
the level of water in both are the same. 10 cc of water is transferred from A to B.
The water in B is mixed and 10 cc of it is transferred to A. Then:

a) level of water in A will be less b) level of water in both will

than that in B remain same

c) level of water in A will be more d) cannot be said from the given

than that in B data

14. If the height of Niagra fall is 50 m, the difference between the temperatures of [4]
water at the top and the bottom of the fall is:

a) 11.7°C b) 0.117°C

c) 1.17°C d) 117°C

th [4]
15. In a diesel engine the cylinder compresses air from S.T.P. to about 1

5
of the original
volume and a pressure of 25 atmosphere. The temperature of compressed air is
nearly

a) 135 K b) 1365 K

c) 580 K d) 853 K

16. A vessel contains a mixture of 8 g of oxygen and 22 g of carbon-dioxide at [4]

temperature 300 K. If the pressure of the mixture is 105 Pa, its density is (Take gas
constant, R = 25

3
J/mol K)

a) 1.0 kg/m3 b) 1.2 kg/m3

c) 1.6 kg/m3 d) 1.4 kg/m3

17. The length of a seconds pendulum at a height h = 2R from earth surface will be: [4]
(Given: R = Radius of earth and acceleration due to gravity at the surface of earth g
-2
= π m/s )
2

a) 4
m b) 1
m
9 9

c) 2

9
m d) 8
m
9

18. A pipe closed at one end has length 83 cm. The number of possible natural [4]
oscillations of air column whose frequencies lie below 1000 Hz are (velocity of
sound in air = 332 m/s):

a) 3 b) 6

c) 4 d) 5

19. A stone is dropped into a lake from a tower of 500 m height. The sound of the [4]
splash will be heard by the man after:

a) 11.5 sec b) 14 sec

c) 21 sec d) 10 sec

20. In free space, a particle A of charge 1 μC is held fixed at a point P. Another particle B [4]
of the same charge and mass 4 μg is kept at a distance of 1 mm from P. If Bis
released, then its velocity at a distance of 9 mm from P is [Take,
1

4πε0
9 2
= 9 × 10 N − m C
−2
]

3 4
a) 2.0 × 10 m/s b) 3.0 × 10 m/s
2
c) 1.0 m/s d) 1.5 × 10 m/s

21. A capacitor charged to 10 V is discharged by connecting the two plates at t = 0. If [4]

the potential difference across the plates drops to 1 volt at t = 5 ms, the potential
difference at t = 10 ms is:

a) 0.01 volt b) 0.1 volt

c) 0.02 volt d) 0.2 volt

22. Which statement is true? [4]

i. Kirchhoff ’s law is not equally applicable to both AC and DC.
ii. Semiconductors have a positive temperature coefficient of resistance.
 iii. Meter bridge is least sensitive when the resistance of all the four arms of the
bridge are of sartie order.
iv. The emf of a cell depends upon the size and area of electrodes.

a) (ii) and (iv) b) (iii) and (i)

c) (iii) and (iv) d) (i) and (iv)

23. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 Ω shows full scale deflection when a [4]
current of 1 A passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read
currents upto 5 A by:

a) putting in series a resistance of b) putting in parallel a resistance

15 Ω of 240 Ω

c) putting in series a resistance of d) putting in parallel a resistance

240 Ω of 15 Ω

24. A compass needle placed at a distance r from a short magnet in tan A position [4]
shows a deflection of 60o. If the distance is increased to r(3)1/3, then the deflection
of the compass needle is:

a) 60° × (3)3/3 b) 60° × (3)2/3

c) 60° × (3)1/3 d) 30°

25. Needles N1, N2 and N3 are made of ferromagnetic, paramagnetic, and diamagnetic [4]
substances respectively. A magnet, when brought close to them, will:

a) attract N1 and N2 strongly but b) attract N1 strongly, but repel N2

repel N3 weakly and N3 weakly

c) attract all three of them d) attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly

and repel N3 weakly

26. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4 A flows through it, the [4]
magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10-3 Wb. The self-
inductance of the solenoid is:

a) 2 H b) 4 H

c) 1 H d) 3 H

27. The armature of a DC motor has 20 Ω resistance. It draws a current of 1.5 amp when [4]
run by 220 volt DC supply. The value of back emf induced in it will be:
 a) 170 V b) 190 V

c) 180 V d) 150 V

28. The power factor in a circuit connected to an AC power supply has a value which is: [4]

a) unity when the circuit contains b) zero when the circuit contains
only inductance an ideal resistance only

c) unity when the circuit contains d) unity when the circuit contains
an ideal capacitance only only resistance

29. What is the order of energy of X-rays (EX), radio waves (ER) and microwaves (EM)? [4]

a) EX > EM > ER b) EM > ER > EX

c) EM < ER < EX d) EX < ER < EM

30. A plane mirror gives a real image when the incident beam is: [4]

a) Narrow b) Wide

c) Convergent d) Divergent

31. Figure shows a standard two slit arrangement with slits S1, S2, P1, P2 are the two [4]
minima points on either side of P. At P2 on the screen, there is a hole and behind P2
is a second 2-slit arrangement with slits S3, S4 and a second screen behind them:

a) There would be no interference b) There would be a regular two-

pattern on the second screen slit pattern on the second
but it would be lighted screen

c) The second screen would be d) There would be a single bright

totally dark point on the second screen

32. The time taken by a photoelectron to come out after the photon strikes, is [4]
approximately:

a) 10-1 sec b) 10-4 sec

c) 10-16 sec d) 10-10 sec

33. Match column I and column II and choose the correct combination from the given [4]
options:

Column I Column II
A. Threshold frequency (i) Release the photo-electrons
B. Threshold wavelength (ii) Light of suitable frequency
C. Thermionic emission (iii) Heating at high temperatures
D. Photoelectric emission (iv) Eject the photo-electron

a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv) b) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)

c) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii) d) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)

34. The ionisation potential of mercury is 10.39 volt. To gain energy sufficient enough to [4]
ionise mercury, an electron must travel in an electric field of 1.5 × 106 V m-1 a
distance of:

a) 10.39×1.6×10
−19

m b) 10.39
6
m
6 1.5×(10)
1.5×10

c) 10.39 × 1.5 × 106 m d) 10.39 × 1.6 × 10-19 m

35. The mass of an atomic nucleus is less than the sum of the masses of its constituents. [4]
The mass defect is:

a) converted into energy which b) converted into heat energy

binds the nucleons together

c) wasted d) converted into electric energy

PHYSICS (Section-B)
Attempt any 10 questions
36. A ball whose KE is E1, is thrown at an angle of 45° with the horizontal; its KE at the [4]
highest point of its flight will be:

a) E
b) E

√2 2

c) 0 d) E

37. Two blocks of equal mass are tied with a light string which passes over a massless [4]
pulley as shown in figure. The magnitude of acceleration of centre of mass of both
 the blocks is: (neglect friction everywhere)

a) g

2
b) (√–
3 − 1)g

c) ( √3−1
)g
d) ( √3−1
)g
4 √2 √2

38. A body of mass m is taken from the earth surface to the height h equal to the radius [4]
of the earth, the increase in potential energy will be:

a) mgR
1
b) mgR
2

c) mgR
1

4
d) 2mgR

39. The temperature of a room heated by a heater is 20oC when outside temperature is [4]
-20oC and it is 10oC when the outside temperature is -40oC. The temperature of
the heater is:

a) 40oC b) 100oC

c) 60oC d) 80oC

40. A stretched string of length L, fixed at both ends, can sustain stationary waves of [4]
wavelength λ, given by:
2

b) λ =
l
a) λ = 2L

n
2n

2
n
c) λ = 2ln d) λ= 2l

41. At which temperature will the speed of sound in hydrogen be same as that of speed [4]
o
of sound in nitrogen at 100 C?

a) -271.5oC b) -246.4oC

c) -148oC d) -249.7oC

42. A magnetic field can be produced by: [4]

a) both of moving charge and b) a changing electric field

changing electric field
 c) a stationery charge d) a moving charge

43. Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres at a distance d apart. A [4]
stationary charge Q is placed at P in between the gap of the two magnets at a
distance D from the centre O as shown in the figure.

The force on the charge Q is:

a) zero b) directed along OP

c) directed along PO d) directed perpendicular to the

plane of paper

44. The mutual inductance of a pair of coils if a current of 3 amperes in one coil causes [4]
the flux in the second coil of 2000 turns to change by 6 × 10-4 weber per turn of
the secondary coil:

a) 4 henry b) 4 × 10-4 henry

c) 2 × 10-4 henry d) 0.4 henry

45. For high frequency, capacitor offers [4]

a) Less resistance b) More resistance

c) High resistance d) Zero resistance

46. The eye can be regarded as a single refracting surface. The radius of curvature of [4]
this surface is equal to that of the cornea (7.8 mm). This surface separates two
media of refractive indices 1 and 1.34. Calculate the distance from the refracting
surface at which a parallel beam of light will come to focus.

a) 3.1 cm b) 1 cm

c) 4.0 cm d) 2 cm

47. Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 60o as shown in figure. A ray of light [4]
incident on one mirror is parallel to the other. What will be the angle between the
 first incident ray and the last reflected ray?

a) 60o b) 120o

c) 30o d) 0o

48. G.P. Thomson experimentally confirmed the existence of matter waves by the [4]
phenomena:

a) polarisation b) diffraction

c) scattering d) refraction

49. An electron of a hydrogen like atom, having Z = 4, jumps from 4th energy state to [4]
2nd energy state. The energy released in this process, will be:
(Given Rch = 13.6 eV)
Where R = Rydberg constant, c = Speed of light in vacuum, h = Planck's constant

a) 3.4 eV b) 10.5 eV

c) 40.8 eV d) 13.6 eV

50. The mass defect in a particular nuclear reaction is 0.3 grams. The amount of energy [4]
liberated, in kilowatt hour is (velocity of light = 3 × 108 m/s):

a) 2.5 × 106 b) 1.5 × 106

c) 7.5 × 106 d) 3 × 106

CHEMISTRY (Section-A)
51. 3.2% W/W magnesium is present in the green pigment which is used by plants [4]
during photosynthesis. A number of magnesium atoms present in 5 g of that
pigment is ________.

a) 2.50 × 1021 atoms b) 1.59 × 1021 atoms

c) 1.59 × 1023 atoms d) 4.01 × 1021 atoms

52. Which of the following configuration is correct for iron? [4]

2 2 6 2 6 2 5 2 2 6 2 6 2 7
 a) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s2, 3d5 b) 1s2,2S2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s2, 3d7

c) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d5 d) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d6, 4s2

53. The pair of elements which on combination is most likely to form an ionic compound [4]
is:

a) Al and I2 b) O2 and Cl2

c) K and O2 d) Na and Ca

54. The compound containing co-ordinate bond is [4]

a) H 2 S O4 b) All of these

c) SO 3 d) O 3

55. Among the following, van der Waals’ forces are maximum in: [4]

a) AgBr b) LiBr

c) LiCl d) HBr

56. Which of the following structure is correctly drawn according to the fundamental [4]
idea of VSEPR theory?

a) b)

(θ = 90o) (θ = greater

than 109o28')

c) d)

(θ = 90o)
(θ = less than

90o)

57. When ice melts into water, entropy: [4]

a) increases b) becomes zero

c) decreases d) remains the same

1
58. Solubility of Hg2Cl2 in water is S mole litre-1. The Ksp of Hg2Cl2 is: [4]
4 2
a) 64 S b) 16 S

c) 4 S3 d) 16 S4

59. In the following change, [4]

3Fe + 4H2O ⟶ Fe3O4 + 4H2
If the atomic mass of iron is 56, then its equivalent mass will be:

a) 21 b) 42

c) 63 d) 84

60. 1 mole of ferric oxalate is oxidised by x mole of MnO in acidic medium. Hence the
−

4
[4]
value of x is:

a) 1.8 b) 1.5

c) 1.6 d) 1.2

61. Identify the formula of kernite. [4]

a) Be3Al2Si6O18 b) Na2B4O7⋅10H2O

c) Na3AlF6 d) Na2B4O7⋅4H2O

62. Which of the following linkages is NOT present in silicones? [4]

a) R-Si-R b) -O-Si-O-

c) R-O-R d) R-Si-O-

63. Give the correct order of decreasing basicity of the following compounds. [4]
I. C6H5NH2
II. (C6H5)2 NH
III. (C6H5)3 N
IV. C6H11NH2

a) I > II > III > IV b) IV > III > II > I

c) III > II > I > IV d) IV > I > II > III

64. Which of the following is incorrect for the below-given molecule? [Grey and orange [4]
spheres represent carbon and hydrogen atoms respectively.]
 a) θ 1 = θ2 b) θ 1 > θ3

c) θ 4 = θ2 d) θ 5 > θ4

65. The major product of the following reaction are [4]

a) b)

c) d)

66. Y g of the non-volatile organic substance of molar mass M is dissolved in 250 g [4]
benzene. The Molal elevation constant of benzene is Kb. Elevation in its boiling point
is given by:

a) M

Kb Y
b) Kb Y

c) Kb Y
d) 4Kb Y

4M M

67. van’t Hoff factor for a dilute solution of sodium argento cyanide is: [4]

a) 0.25 b) 3.0

c) 2 d) 0.50
68. When 0.1 mol MnO 2−

4
is oxidised, the quantity of electricity required to completely [4]
oxidised MnO 2−
4
to MnO is:
−
4

a) 9650 C b) 96.50 C

c) 96500 C d) 2 × 96500 C

69. For a certain reaction of order n the time for half change t1/2 is given by; [4]
1
2 − √2
t 1 =
K
× c
0
2
, where K is rate constant and c0 is initial concentration. The value of
2

n is:

a) 2 b) 1

c) 0 d) 0.5

70. The rate constant for a first-order reaction is 7.0 × 10-4 s-1. If initial concentration of [4]
reactant is 0.080 M, then the half-life of reaction is ________.

a) 12375 s b) 79.2 s

c) 9900 s d) 990 s

71. The highest oxidation state is exhibited by the transition metals with configuration: [4]

a) (n - 1)d8ns2 b) (n - 1)d5ns1

c) (n - 1)d3ns2 d) (n - 1)d5ns2

72. Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B. B when passed [4]
through Cu2+(aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the formula of C
from the following?

a) CuSO4 b) CuCO3⋅Cu(OH)2

c) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ d) Cu(OH)2

73. Given that the abundance of isotopes 54Fe, 56Fe and 57Fe is 5%, 90% and 5%, [4]
respectively. The atomic mass of Fe is

a) 55.85 b) 55.75

c) 55.95 d) 55.05

74. All the following complexes show a decrease in their weights when placed in a [4]
magnetic balance. Then which of these has square planar geometry?
 a) Na2[Zn(CN)4] b) Na3[Zn(CN)5]

c) K[AgF4] d) Ni(CO)4

75. The pair in which both species have same magnetic moment (spin only value) is [4]

a) [Cr(H2O)6]2+, [CoClJ2- b) [CoClJ2-, [Fe(H2O)6]2+

c) [Cr(H2O)6]2+, [Fe(H2O)6]2+ d) [Mn(H2O)6]2+, [Cr(H2O)6]2+

76. Which is not correct about SN2? [4]

a) Rate of SN2 increases as b) Rate of SN2 is directly

stability of carbocation proportional to the nature of
increases. leaving group.

c) Rate of SN2 inversely d) Role of SN2 is faster in polar

proportional to the steric aprotic solvents.
hindrance present in substrate.

77. In the following sequence of reactions, [4]

P Cl5
Alc. KOH

Z −−−→ X ⟶ Y
(i) conc. H2 S O4

−−−−−−−−−→ Z
(ii) H2 O, boil

Z is:

a) (CH3)3CCH2OH b) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

c) CH3CH2CH2OH d) CH3CHOHCH3

78. In a set of reactions, propionic acid yielded a compound (D). [4]

SOCl2 N H3 KOH

CH3CH2COOH −−−→ (B) −−−→ (C) −−−→ (D)

Br2

The structure of (D) would be:

a) CH3CH2NHCH3 b) CH3CH2CONH2

c) CH3CH2NH2 d) CH3CH2CH2NH2

79. In a reaction, a secondary amine forms Nitrosoamine (R2N-N=O), which on heating [4]
with phenol and conc H2SO4 gives a green colour solution which turns blue on
adding alkali. The reaction is called:

a) Fries reaction b) Perkin's reaction

 c) Libermann's nitroso reaction d) Etard's reaction

80. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of [4]

a) Vitamin B1 b) Vitamin B2

c) Vitamin B12 d) Vitamin B6

81. Glucose does not react with: [4]

a) C6H5NHNH2 b) HCN

c) H2N-OH d) NaHSO3

82. Which of the following is not a correct method of the preparation of benzylamine [4]
from cyanobenzene?

a) (i) HCl/ H2O (ii) NaBH4 b) H2/Ni

c) (i) LiAlH4 (ii) H3O+ d) (i) SnCl2 + HCl(gas) (ii) NaBH4

83. o - + 2+ [4]
The E for the reaction, 10Cl (aq) + 2MnO (aq) + 16H (aq) ⟶ 5Cl2(g) + 2Mn (aq)
−

+ 8H2O(l) is 0.15 V. The Kc for the reaction is:

a) 3.4 × 102 b) 1.2 × 105

c) 2.65 × 1025 d) 4.9 × 1012

84. In paper chromatography, [4]

a) both phases are liquids b) the mobile phase is a liquid and

the stationary phase is a solid

c) the mobile phase is a solid and d) both phases are solids

the stationary phase is a liquid

85. ________ increase the stability of lyophobic sols. [4]

a) Temperature b) Charge on colloidal particles

c) Solvation d) Nature of dispersion medium

CHEMISTRY (Section-B)
Attempt any 10 questions
86. The shape of IF is:−

6
[4]
 a) Pyramidal b) Octahedral

c) Square antiprism d) Trigonally distorted octahedron

87. The mass of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) required to prepare 550 mL of 0.40 N [4]
solution
i. assuming complete neutralisation of acid
ii. assuming reduction to H P O2−

3
are respectively:

a) 10.8 g, 10.8 g b) 7.19 g, 7.19 g

c) 10.8 g, 7.19 g d) 7.19 g, 10.8 g

88. In which of the following elements, the inner electronic configuration contains 14 f- [4]
electrons?

a) Al b) In

c) Ga d) TI

89. Metals generally melt at very high temperature. Amongst the following, the metal [4]
with the highest melting point will be

a) Cs b) Hg

c) Ga d) Ag

90. Pick out the isoelectronic structures from the following. [4]
i. CH3
+

ii. H3O+
iii. NH3
iv. CH3
−

a) i and ii b) ii, iii and iv

c) i and iv d) i and iii

91. Oxidation state of P in H4P2O5, H4P2O6, H4P2O7 are respectively: [4]

a) +5, + 4, +3 b) +5, +3, +4

c) +3, +4, +5 d) +3, +5, +4

92. Photochemical reactions have the following characteristics: [4]

 a) it is not necessary for an b) all of these
excited molecule to show
always chemical change

c) each molecule absorbs only one d) these requires photons to

photon to get itself excited interact with chemical species

93. On heating one end of a piece of a metal, the other end becomes hot because of: [4]

a) minor perturbation in the b) mobility of atoms in the metal

energy of atoms

c) energised electrons moving to d) resistance of the metal

the other end

94. Find the equilibrium constant for the reaction: In2+ + Cu2+ ⟶ In3+ + Cu+ at 298 K [4]
(given, E o
2+ +
= 0.15 V, E
In
o
3+ +
/In
= -0.42 V, E 0

In
2+ +
/In
= -0.40 V)
Cu /Cu

a) 1010 b) 10

c) 106 d) 108

95. The correct reaction profile diagram for a positive catalyst reaction. [4]

a) b)

c) d)

96. Which one of the following statements is incorrect for nitrogen in group 15 [4]
elements?
i. It has high ionization enthalpy.
ii. It is small in size.
iii. Its electronegativity is very high.
 iv. d-orbitals are available for bonding.

a) Option (iii) b) Option (iv)

c) Option (ii) d) Option (i)

97. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for HOClO? [4]

a) The oxidation state of Cl is +3. b) The oxidation state of O is − . 1

c) The oxidation state of O is -1. d) The oxidation state of Cl is -1.

98. Identify the incorrect statement from the following: [4]

a. Zirconium and Hafnium have identical radii of 160 pm and 159 pm, respectively as
a consequence of lanthanoid contraction.
b. Lanthanoids reveal only +3 oxidation state.
c. The lanthanoid ions other than the f0 type and the f14 type are all paramagnetic.
d. The overall decrease in atomic and ionic radii from lanthanum to lutetium is called
lanthanoid contraction.

a) Statement (a) is incorrect. b) Statement (c) is incorrect.

c) Statement (b) is incorrect. d) Statement (d) is incorrect.

99. Consider the following complexes : [4]

2− 2− 0
[NiCl4 ] , [Ni(CN)4 ] , [Ni(CO)4 ]

What is the similarity in all three complexes?

a) Geometry and hybridisation b) Coordination number and type

of metal

c) Oxidation number and EAN of d) Magnetic nature and number of

metal σ bonds

100. Which statement is NOT correct for p-toluenesulphonyl chloride? [4]

a) On treatment with secondary b) It doesn’t react with tertiary

amine, it leads to a product, amines.
that is soluble in alkali.

c) It is used to distinguish primary d) It is known as Hinsberg’s

and secondary amines. reagent.

BOTANY (Section-A)
101. Biological name of wheat is: [4]

a) Timarendus indica b) Triticum aestivum

c) Mangifera indica d) Mangifera domestica

102. Amongst all the kingdoms, the only taxon that exists in nature as a biologically [4]
cohesive unit is the

a) kingdom b) genus

c) phylum or division d) species

103. When a bacterium is provided with flagella arising from two opposite ends, it is [4]
called?

a) Monotrichous b) Amphitrichous

c) Polytrichous d) Lophotrichous

104. In many bacteria, the cell membrane becomes invaginated and folded to form: [4]

a) Fimbrae b) Pili

c) Mesosomes d) Cristae

105. The number of meiotic divisions required for the formation of 50 functional [4]
megaspores is:

a) 50 b) 25

c) 100 d) 75

106. Which of the following occur in both well-lighted regions close to the surface of [4]
water and also at great depths in oceans where relatively little light penetrates?

a) All of these b) Red alga

c) Green alga d) Brown alga

107. Gametophytic generation in fern plant is: [4]

a) Prothallus b) Antheridium

c) Antherozoid d) Zygote
108. The given diagram is related to the result of double fertilization. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 are [4]
identified as:

a) 1-Egg, 2-Polar nuclei, 3-Male b) 1-Degenerating synergids, 2-

gamete, 4-Primary endosperm Zygote, 3-Primary endosperm
nucleus (PEN), 5-Zygote cell (PEC), 4-Primary
endosperm nucleus (PEN), 5-
Degenerating antipodal cells

c) 1-Degenerating synergids, 2- d) 1-Egg, 2-Degenerating

Egg, 3-Primary endosperm cell synergids, 3-Zygote, 4-Polar
(PEC), 4-Primary endosperm nuclei, 5-Degenerating
nucleus (PEN), 5-Zygote antipodal cell

109. Ruminate endosperm is commonly found in seeds of: [4]

a) Euphorbiaceae b) Compositae

c) Cruciferae d) Annonaceae (Areca nut)

110. The meristems which occur at the tips of roots and shoots and produce primary [4]
tissues are called:

a) Apical meristems b) Lateral meristems

c) Intercalary meristems d) All of these

111. A student was given a sample tissue to observe under the microscope. He observes [4]
the tissue and concludes that the tissue is a type of simple plant tissue and provides
mechanical support to young stem and petiole of leaf.
Identify the tissue.

a) Sclerenchyma b) Phloem fibres

c) Prosenchyma d) Collenchyma
112. T.S. of monocot leaf is given below, certain parts have been marked by alphabets (A [4]
to G). Which one is the option showing their correct labelling?

a) A-Adaxial epidermis, B-Xylem, b) A-Adaxial epidermis, B-Phloem,

C-Mesophyll, D-Sub-stomatal C-Mesophyll, D-Sub-stomatal
cavity, E-Abaxial epidermis, F- cavity, E-Abaxial epidermis, F-
Stoma, G-Phloem Xylem, G-Stoma

c) A-Adaxial epidermis, B-Xylem, d) A-Adaxial epidermis, B-Abaxial

C-Stoma, D-Substomatal cavity, epidermis, C-Xylem, D-Sub-
E-Abaxial epidermis, F-Phloem, stomatal cavity, E-Stoma, F-
G-Mesophyll Mesophyll, G-Phloem

[4]
113. in pedigree represents:

a) Dizygotic twins b) Sibling brothers

c) Monozygotic twins d) Either of two

114. Choose the incorrect statement regarding haemophilia. [4]

a. It is a sex-linked recessive disorder.
b. A simple cut in an affected individual will result in non-stop bleeding.
c. Affected individuals excrete phenyl pyruvic acid through urine.
d. Both (a) and (b)

a) Statement (c) is incorrect. b) Statement (a) is incorrect.

c) Statement (b) is incorrect. d) Statement (d) is incorrect.

115. The base pairs of DNA are correctly shown as: [4]

a) A ≡ T and C = G b) A = T and C = G

c) A = T and C ≡ G d) A ≡ T and C ≡ G
116. The codon that codes for the amino acid methionine are: [4]

a) ACG b) AUG

c) AGG d) AAG

117. The inner membrane of mitochondria is usually highly convoluted forming a series of [4]
infoldings known as:

a) Thylakoids b) Grana

c) Lamellae d) Cristae

118. How many statements are correct? [4]

i. Nucleus is the largest cytoplasmic organelle.
ii. Chloroplast is the largest protoplasmic organelle.
iii. Mitochondria is the largest cytoplasmic organelle of plants.
iv. Ribosome is the smallest membranous cell organelle.

a) None of these b) Three

c) Two d) One

119. Which group of drugs contains all hallucinogenic drugs? [4]

a) Atropa, Barbiturates, Heroin, b) LSD, Cannabis, Datura,

Charas , Ganja, Datura Amphetamins, Cocaine

c) Charas, Ganja, LSD, Tobacco, d) LSD, Ganja, Marijuana, Larger

Bhang, Atropa dose of Cocaine, Bhang

120. Polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified plastic, has proved to be a good [4]
material for:

a) use as a fertilizer b) construction of roads

c) making tubes and pipes d) making plastic sacks

121. In eggs or oocytes, active period of growth and metabolism is: [4]

a) Pachytene b) Zygotene

c) Leptotene d) Diplotene

122. Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found inside vegetative part of [4]
 a) Equisetum b) Pinus

c) Psilotum d) Cycas

123. Trophic levels are formed by: [4]

a) Only carnivores b) Only plants

c) Only animals d) Organisms linked in food chain

124. Which of the following is not correct about antibiotics? [4]

a) First antibiotic is discovered by b) Term antibiotic was given by

A. Fleming Salman Waksmann

c) Some persons are allergic for d) Every antibiotic works against

specific antibiotics only one type of germ

125. Ranthambhore national park is situated in which state: [4]

a) Gujarat b) Maharashtra

c) Rajasthan d) UP

126. Royal Bengal tiger is protected in: [4]

a) Kanha b) Sundervan

c) Gir forest d) Corbett National park

127. Consider the following statements (A-D) each with one or two blanks. [4]
A. Bears go into (1) during winter to (2) cold weather.
B. A conical age pyramid with a broad base represents (3) human population.
C. A wasp pollinating a fig flower is an: example of (4).
D. An area with high levels of species richness is know nasa (5).
Which one of the following options, gives the correct fillups for the respective
blank numbers from (I) to (5) in the statements?

a) (3) - stable (4) - commensalism, b) (3) - expanding, (4) -

(5) marsh commensalism, (5) -
biodiversity park

c) (1) - hibernation, (2) - escape, d) (1) - aestivation, (2) - escape, (3)

(3) - expanding (5) - hot spot - stable, (4) - mutualism
128. The cell division was first studied by: [4]

a) Farmer and Moore b) W. Flemming

c) Wini Warter d) Strasburger

129. Meiosis results in diploid organisms: [4]

a) Reduction in the number of b) Production of gametes

chromosomes

c) All of these d) Introduction of variation

130. Choose the wrong statement: [4]

A. In PS-II; pigment has absorption maximum at 680 nm; and is called P680
B. Cyclic photophosphorylation also occurs when only light of wavelengths beyond
700 nm
C. The NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the membrane
D. In Calvin cycle, the first product identified was 3 - phosphoglyceric acid

a) D b) C

c) A d) B

131. P680 and P700 are the forms of [4]

a) xanthophyll b) chlorophyll a

c) carotene d) chlorophyll b

132. The scientists who demonstrated that green plant parts play a role in purifying the [4]
noxious air only in the presence of sunlight is

a) Engelmann b) Priestley

c) Sachs d) Ingenhousz

133. NADPH is produced during [4]

a) non-cyclic b) xanthophyll
photophosphorylation

c) cyclic photophosphorylation d) Calvin cycle

134. Respirometer is an instrument used to measure [4]

 a) Both of these b) respiratory quotient.

c) Heart rate d) rate of respiration.

135. In Glycine max, the product of biological nitrogen fixation is transported from the [4]
root nodules to other parts as

a) ureides b) nitrates

c) ammonia d) glutamate

BOTANY (Section-B)
Attempt any 10 questions
136. Which of the following taxonomic category is being described by the statements [4]
given below (i-iii)?
i. It is the basic unit of classification.
ii. It is defined as the group of individuals which resemble in their morphological and
reproductive characters and interbreed amongst themselves and produce fertile
off springs.
iii. Human beings belong to the sapiens which is grouped in the genus Homo.

a) Kingdom b) Family

c) Species d) Genus

137. Read the statements carefully and select incorrect match with respect to position of [4]
organisms in different kingdom system :

a) Musca, Nostoc, and spirogyra - b) Paramecium and bacteria -

Protista in Whittaker system Protista in Haeckel system

c) Puffball, pink mould, and d) Bacillus, diatoms, and

mushroom - Kingdom fungi in cyanobacteria - Plantae in
Whittaker system Linnaeus system

138. A prothallus is : [4]

a) A sporophytic free-living b) A structure in pteridophytes

structure formed in formed before the thallus
pteridophytes develops
 c) A primitive structure formed d) A gametophyte free-living
after fertilization in structure formed in
pteridophytes pteridophytes

139. Which one of the following statements regarding post-fertilization development in [4]
flowering plants is incorrect?

a) Ovary develops into fruit b) Central cell develops into

endosperm

c) Zygote develops into embryo d) Ovules develop into

embryo sac

140. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of Fig encloses a number of [4]

a) mericarps b) samaras

c) achenes d) berries

141. Amino acid substituted in sickle-cell anaemia is: [4]

a) Valine for glutamic acid in alpha b) Valine for glutamic acid in beta
chain chain

c) Glutamic acid for valine in beta d) Glutamic acid for valine in alpha
chain chain

142. Given figure represent the DNA double helix modle as proposed by Watson and [4]
Crick (1953). Select the option that shows correct measurement of A and B.

a) o
b) (A) - 34 nm, (B) - 20 nm
(A) - 0.34 nm, (B) - 2 A
 c) (A) - 3.4 nm, (B) - 2 nm d) o o

(A) - 3.4 A , (B) - 20 A

143. Which one is the mismatched pair? [4]

a. Largest isolated - Egg of an ostrich single cell
b. Golgi apparatus - Discovered by Altman
c. Mitochondria - Name was given by Benda
d. Lysosomes - Discovered by de Duve

a) Option b is correct. b) Option d is correct.

c) Option c is correct. d) Option a is correct.

144. A nitrogen fixing microbe associated with Azolla in rice fields is: [4]

a) Anabaena b) Tolypothrix

c) Frankia d) Spirulina

145. Identify X, Y and Z: [4]

X Y Z
(a) GTP NADH2 CO2
(b) FADH2 NADH2 GTP
(c) NADH2 FADH2 GTP
(d) CO2 NADH2 ADP

a) Only d b) Only b
 c) Only a d) Only c

146. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of rice by using which of the [4]
following biofertilizer:

a) Mycorrhizae b) Bacillus thuringiensis

c) legume-Rhizobium symbiosis d) Azolla pinnata

147. Gross primary productivity is: [4]

a) Rate at which organic molecules b) Rate at which organic

are used up by an autotroph. molecules are transferred to
next higher trophic level.

c) Storage of organic molecules in d) Rate at which organic

the body of an autotroph. molecules are formed in an
autotroph.

148. Dormin is a: [4]

a) Auxin b) Abscisic acid

c) Growth promotor d) Indole-3-acetic acid

149. Dr. F. Went noted that if coleoptile tips were removed and placed on agar for one [4]
hour, the agar would produce a bending when placed on one side of freshly-cut
coleoptile stumps. Of what significance is this experiment?

a) Dr. F. Went isolated auxin from b) It supports the hypothesis that

Avena coleoptile tip. His IAA is auxin
experiment demonstrated the
polar movement of auxins, i.e., it
showed that the plants grow
towards light in response to a
signal generated in the tip of
coleoptile by a plant hormone
auxin.

c) It demonstrated the polar d) It is the basis for the

movement of auxins quantitative determination of
small amounts of growth-
promoting substances
150. Quinones are: [4]

a) Enzymes of Krebs b) aromatic compounds

c) Enzymes of oxidative d) Mobile electron carrier

phosphorylation

ZOOLOGY (Section-A)
151. Flame cells present in platyhelminths, are specialised in [4]

a) respiration and absorption b) respiration and excretion

c) osmoregulation and excretion d) osmoregulation and circulation

152. Which of the following is a connecting link between invertebrates and non- [4]
invertebrates?

a) Balanoglossus b) Crocodile

c) Sycon d) Sphenodon

153. What is left, when bath-sponges dries up? [4]

a) Spicules b) Holdfast

c) Tentacles d) Spongin fibres

154. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific [4]
direction. In humans, these cells are mainly present in:

a) Eustachian tube and Salivary b) Bile duct and Bronchioles

duct

c) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes d) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic

duct

155. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because: [4]

a) the cockroach does not have b) the head holds a small

nervous system proportion of the nervous
system while the rest is situated
along the ventral part of its
body

c) the head holds a 1

rd of a d) the supra-oesophageal ganglia
3

nervous system while the rest is of the cockroach are situated in

 situated along the dorsal part of central part of the abdomen
its body

156. Reduction the pH of blood will: [4]

a) Release bicarbonate ions by the b) Decrease the affinity of

liver haemoglobin with oxygen

c) Reduce the blood supply to the d) Reduce the rate of heart beat
brain

157. Given graph represents: [4]

a) CO2 ,O2 dissociation curve b) Oxygen dissociation curve

c) CO2 dissociation curve d) Myoglobin dissociation curve

158. Which of the following changes occurs in diaphragm and intercostal muscles when [4]
expiration of air takes place?

a) External intercostal muscles and b) External intercostal muscles

diaphragm contract. and diaphragm relax.

c) External intercostal muscles d) External intercostal muscles

contracts and diaphragm relax and diaphragm contracts.
relaxes.

159. Which of the following changes usually tends to occur in plain dwellers when they [4]
move to the high altitudes?
1. Increased breathing rate.
2. Increased RBC production.
3. Increased WBC Production.
4. Increased thrombocyte count.
Choose the correct option.
 a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iii)

c) (i) and (iv) d) (iii) and (iv)

160. In which of the following condition oxygen dissociation curve shifts to right side? [4]

a) Reduced pH b) Reduced temperature

c) Reduced CO2 concentration d) Reduced acidity

161. Match the column: [4]

Embryonic structure
A. Development of heart
B. Well developed limbs and external genital organ
C. Development of limbs and digits
D. The first movement of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head
E. The body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids separate and eye-lashes are formed
Embryonic period
1. End of first month
2. End of second month
3. End of first trimester (End of 12 weeks)
4. During fifth month
5. End of second trimester (End of 24 weeks)

a) A B C D E / 2 1 4 3 5 b) A B C D E / 2 1 3 4 5

c) A B C D E / 1 2 3 4 5 d) A B C D E / 1 3 2 4 5

162. Menstrual cycle is controlled by: [4]

a) Estrogen and progesterone b) LH only

c) Estrogen only d) FSH only

163. Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is contributed by: [4]
i. Seminal vesicle
ii. Prostate
iii. Urethra
iv. Bulbourethral gland
 a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) b) (i) and (iv) only

c) (i), (ii) and (iv) d) (i) and (ii)

164. Which of the following statements is wrong regarding medical termination of [4]
pregnancy (MTP)?

a) It needs the assistance of b) MTPs are considered to be

qualified medical practitioners. relatively safe during the first
trimester.

c) In India, it is legal up to the 20th d) MTPs cannot be done without

week of pregnancy. surgery.

165. Select the correct pair. [4]

a. In vitro fertilisation - GIFT
b. Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection - IUT
c. In vivo fertilisation - AIT
d. In vitro fertilisation - GIFT and In vivo fertilisation - AIT

a) Option b is correct pair. b) Option d is correct pair.

c) Option c is correct pair. d) Option a is correct pair.

166. Lamarck's concept of inheritance of acquired characters was discarded by [4]

i. Mendel's laws of inheritance.
ii. Theory of natural selection.
iii. Mutational theory.
iv. Theory of continuity of germplasm.
Choose the correct combination of the given options to complete the given
statement.

a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iv)

c) (iii) and (iv) d) (ii) and (iii)

167. Which of the following statement is/are correct? [4]

i. Increase in melanised moths after industrialisation in Great Britain is a proof for
natural selection.
ii. When more individuals of a population acquire a mean character value, it is called
disruption.
 iii. Changes in allelic frequency in a population will lead to Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium.
iv. Genetic drift changes the existing gene or allelic frequency in future generations.

a) (i) and (iii) b) (i) and (iv)

c) Only (iv) d) Only (ii)

168. Why terrestrial organisms excrete lesser toxic nitrogenous waste? [4]

a) For maintaining osmolarity b) To facilitate simple diffusion

c) It is easy to excrete less toxic d) For conservation of water

substances.

169. Which of the following influences the activity of kidney? [4]

a) Thyroxin b) ADH

c) Vasopressin and Aldosterone d) Adrenalin

170. The maximum amount of electrolytes and water (70 - 80 percent) from the [4]
glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed in which part of the nephron?

a) Proximal convoluted tubule b) Descending limb of loop of

Henle

c) Ascending limb of loop of Henle d) Distal convoluted tubule

171. Feeling of fatigue after running fast for some time is due to: [4]

a) Accumulation of lactic acid in b) Formation of succinic acid

muscles

c) Formation of biuret crystals d) Loss of energy

172. Which of the following is the contractile protein of a muscle? [4]

a) Myosin b) All of these

c) Tropomyosin d) Tubulin

173. Which one of the following statement is incorrect? [4]

A. Heart muscles are striated and involuntary.
B. The muscles of the hands and legs are striated and voluntary.
 C. The muscles located in the inner walls of the alimentary canal are striated and
involuntary.
D. Muscles located in the reproductive tracts are unstriated and involuntary.

a) Only A b) Only D

c) Only B d) Only C

174. Saltatory conduction of impulse occurs in [4]

a) myelinated nerve fibres. b) non-myelinated nerve fibres.

c) Both liver cells and non- d) liver cells

myelinated nerve fibres.

175. GABA (gamma aminobutyric acid) is a: [4]

a) coagulant b) Inhibitory neuro hormone

c) Anti coagulant d) Transmittery neuro humo

176. Blind spot in vertebrate eye is the place where [4]

a) retina is absent. b) there are no cones.

c) there are neither rods nor d) there are no rods.

cones.

177. Which one of the following hormones never reaches to cytoplasm? [4]

a) Testosterone b) FSH

c) Progesterone d) Oestrogen

178. The disappearance of which gland by late middle age is the primary cause of [4]
ageing:

a) Posterior pituitary b) Thyroid

c) Parathyroid d) Thymus

179. Tricuspid valve are present between: [4]

a) left atrium and left ventricle b) left atrium and right ventricle.

c) Right atrium and right ventricle d) right atrium and left ventricle
180. Hepatic portal system starts from: [4]

a) Liver to heart b) Kidney to liver

c) Digestive system to liver d) Liver to kidney

181. Oxygenated blood to the lungs is carried by: [4]

a) Bronchial artery b) Phrenic artery

c) Pulmonary artery d) Pulmonary vein

182. In recombinant DNA technology, antibiotics are used [4]

a) as selectable markers. b) to detect alien DNA.

c) to keep medium bacteria-free. d) to impart disease resistance to

the host plant.

183. Consider the following statements. [4]

i. A soil inhabiting plant bacterium, Agrobacterium tumefaciens, is a pathogen of
several dicot plants and is able to transfer a piece of DNA known as T-DNA.
ii. The T-DNAcauses tumours.
iii. Tumour formation induced by Ti plasmid.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) (i) and (ii) b) (i) and (iii)

c) (ii) and (iii) d) (i), (ii), and (iii)

184. Probiotics are: [4]

a) cancer inducing microbes. b) safe antibiotics.

c) new kind of food allergens. d) live microbial food supplement.

185. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein. This [4]
protein:

a) Binds with epithelial cells of b) Is activated by acid pH of the

midgut of the insect pest foregut of the insect pest
ultimately killing it

c) Is coded by several genes d) Does not kill the carrier

including the gene cry bacterium, which is itself
 resistance to its toxin

ZOOLOGY (Section-B)
Attempt any 10 questions
186. Choose the wrong statement/s for the symmetry of animals. [4]
i. Sponges are mostly asymmetrical
ii. When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the
organism into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry.
iii. Coelenterates, ctenophores and echinoderms have bilateral symmetry.
iv. Animals like annelids, arthropods, etc., have radial symmetry.
v. The body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only one plane,
exhibit bilateral symmetry.

a) (iii) and (iv) b) (iii), (iv) and (v)

c) (ii), (iv) and (v) d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

187. Which of the following is a wrong statement? [4]

i. The smooth muscle fibers taper at both ends.
ii. The smooth muscle fibers are fusiform.
iii. The smooth muscle is a non-striated muscle.
iv. The wall of internal organs such as the blood vessels, stomach, and intestine
contain skeletal muscles.
v. Smooth muscles are voluntary in nature.
vi. Skeletal muscles are voluntary muscles.

a) (i), (ii) and (v) b) (iv) and (v)

c) (i), (iii) and (v) d) (iii), (iv) and (v)

188. Where does the impulse of heart beat originate? [4]

a) SA node b) Vagus nerve

c) AV node d) Cardiac nerve

189. Mark incorrect statement in the following. [4]

a) Diffusion membrane is made up b) High cone, of hydrogen ions

of 3-major layers. favours oxyhaemoglobin
formation.
 c) Breathing volumes are d) Solubility of CO2 is higher than
estimated by spirometer. O2 by 25 times.

190. Select the incorrect statement for oogonia. [4]

a) They start division and get b) Unequal meiotic division

arrested at prophase-I of
meiotic division.

c) They are formed throughout d) They are a couple of million in

the life of female. each foetal ovary.

191. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human reproductive system get [4]
blocked, the gametes will not be transported from:

a) Epididymis to vas deferens b) Vagina to uterus

c) Testes to epididymis d) Ovary to uterus

192. Growth of the human population in geometrical progression and an increase in the [4]
quantity of food occurs in arithmetic proportion. The law was given by:

a) de Vries b) Lamarck

c) Malthus d) Darwin

193. An osmoreceptor is a sensory receptor primarily found in the hypothalamus of most [4]
homeothermic organisms that detects changes in osmotic pressure. Osmoreceptors
are also found in the kidneys where they also modulate osmolality. Osmoreceptors
in the body is activated by the changes in which of the following conditions?
i. Blood volume
ii. Body fluid volume
iii. Ionic concentration

a) Only (iii) b) (i) and (ii)

c) (iii) and (ii) d) (i) and (iii)

194. A synovial joint is found between: [4]

a) Two skull bones b) Two vertebrae

c) Tail vertebrae d) Humerus and ulna

195. Vagus is a cranial nerve, its number is: [4]

a) 7th b) 9th

c) 10th d) 5th

196. Epinephrine increases: [4]

a) Respiration rate b) Both Heartbeat and Blood

pressure

c) Blood pressure d) Heartbeat

197. When the B.R is high and over loading of heart is present then which hormone is [4]
released for compensating this mechanism?

a) Renin b) Atri-natriuretic factor

c) ADH d) Aldosterone

198. Persons with AB blood group are called as Universal recipients. This is due to [4]

a) absence of antibodies, anti-A b) absence of antigens A and B on

and anti-B, in plasma. the surface of RBCs.

c) presence of antibodies, anti-A d) absence of antigens A and B in

and anti-B, on RBCs. plasma.

199. Which organism can be used as a cloning vector? [4]

a) Bacteriophage b) Bacteriophage and Plasmid

c) Plasmid d) Animal cell

200. An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice [4]

a) does not require chemical b) gives high yield and is rich in

fertilisers and growth vitamin A.
hormones.

c) gives high yield but has no d) is completely resistant to all

characteristic aroma. insect pests and diseases of
paddy.