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COMMON ENTRANCE TEST 2022

SIAC, PITCS, YASHADA, BARTI & PCMC
General Studies and CSAT
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

Exam. Seat No.:

INSTRUCTIONS
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Questions
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Questions
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Questions
Note: If a question is left blank, i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
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require minimum of 33 marks in CSAT paper to qualify. Your final selection will be based on
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Space for ROUGH WORK
 SECTION I be a nullity. It is the soul of the Constitution
and very heart of it.
Q 1.Consider the following statements: A) Article 21
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the B) Article 32
Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article C) Article 14
108 of the constitution. D) Article 226
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and
Q4. The framers of the Constitution of India
Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of borrowed the Idea of Directive Principal of

Indian parliament was held to pass the Banking State Policy from Irish Constitution which had
copied it from the Constitution of _____
Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which of these statements are correct? A) Canada

A) 1 and 2 B) Weimar Constitution of Germany

C) Spain
B) 2 and 3
D) Australia
C) 1 and 3
D) 1, 2 and 3
Q5 With reference to the Constitution of India,

Q 2. Match List-1 with List -2. consider the following statement:

List 1 List 2 Article 168 deals with abolition or creation of

A. Third 1. Allocation of seats in the Legislative Council.

Schedule Upper house 1. Article 168 deals with abolition or creation of

B. Ninth 2. Validation of certain acts the Legislative Council.

Schedule 2. The maximum strength of legislative council is

C. Seventh 3. Language fixed at half of the total strength of Assembly.

Schedule 3. One-third members of the Legislative Council

D. Fourth 4. Forms of Affirmation is elected by the members of local bodies in the

Schedule state like municipalities, district board, etc.

5. Allocation of powers Which of the statement(s) given above is/are

between Union & States correct?

A) A-5, B-3, C-2, D-1 A) Only 1 and 3

B) A-4, B-2, C-5, D-1 B) Only 2 and 3

C) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-5 C) Only 3

D) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 D) 1, 2 and 3

Q 3 Dr. Ambedkar called this Article of the Q 6. A new All India Services can be created by:

Constitution of India as the most important A) A Resolution of the Rajya Sabha

Article, without which this constitution would B) An act of the Parliament

Page 1 of 34
C) An order of the President Q 10. Who wrote the book ‘ Tomb of Sand’ ?
D) A resolution of the UPSC A) Amitav Ghosh
B) Arundhati Roy
Q 7. Consider the following statements with
C) Namita Gokhale
reference to the Directorate of Enforcement (ED):
D) Geetanjali Shree
1. It is a multi-disciplinary organisation
mandated with investigation of offence of Q11. The term ‘Pink Tide’ mentioned in news
money laundering and violations of foreign recently is related to:
exchange laws. A) Current Political situation in Latin American
2. It is part of Department of Revenue, Ministry countries.
of Finance. B) Women Rights movement in Arabic countries.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are C) Arab Spring 2.0.
correct? D) An event in ocean, due to algal bloom.
A) 1 only
Q 12. The term ‘Troika’ often heard in the news
B) 2 only
corresponds to which of the below organisation:
C) Both 1 and 2
A) International Labour Organization
D) Neither 1 nor 2
B) United Nations
Q 8 With reference to ‘Partners in Blue Pacific C) G20
Initiative’, consider the following statements: D) World Trade Organization
1. It is a five-nation informal mechanism to
Q 13. Patient-Provider Support Agency (PPSA)
support Pacific Islands and to boost diplomatic
model, recently in news, is linked to control of
and economic ties in the region.
which of the following disease?
2. India is one of the members of this initiative.
A) Anaemia
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
B) Diabetes
correct?
C) Cancer
A) 1only
D) Tuberculosis
B) 2 only
C) Both 1 and 2 Q 14. Which of the following countries are
D) Neither 1 or 2 considered as a part of ‘Lithium Triangle’ ?
1. Argentina
Q 9. International Cheetah Day is celebrated on
2. Paraguay
_______
3. Chile
A) December 4
4. Peru
B) July 29
5. Bolivia
C) December 29
A) 1, 2 and 3
D) July 4
B) 1, 3 and 4
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C) 2, 3 and 5 Q 18 With reference to history of India, which
D) 1, 3 and 5 of the following is not related with Buddhism?
1. Madhaymika School of Thought
Q15. Consider the following pairs:
2. Terapanthis
1. Arya Mahila Samaj – Pandita Ramabai
3. Mahasanghikas
2. Bharat Stree Mandal – Sarla Devi Chaudrani
4. Sautantrika
3. All India Women Conference– Margaret Cousin
A) 1 and 4 only
4. Bharat Mahila Parishad – Mehribai Tata
B) 2 only
How many pairs given above are correctly
C) 2 and 4 only
matched?
D) 4 only
A) Only one pair
B) Only two pairs Q 19. In the context of history of India, Butler
C) Only three pairs Committee was related to:
D) All four pairs A) To Examine crown relation with Native states
B) To involve more Indians in Civil services
Q 16. With reference to the history of India, the
C) To study development of education
terms “Taliq, Nastaliq and Shikaste” denote:
D) To study the problem of agriculture
A) Calligraphic style of Persian language
B) Coins of different monetary value Q 20.With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for
C) Religious rituals Climate Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’ , which of
D) Types of Embroidery the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. It is an outcome of Climate Summit held in
Q 17. Consider the following statement about
Paris in 2015.
E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker or Periyar:
2. It was launched by the UN Food and
1. He had been ascetic in his early life and had
Agriculture Organisation in 2014.
studied Sanskrit Scripture.
3. GACSA along with World Bank signed a
2. He was a member of Indian National
project to help small and marginal farmers in
Congress for some time.
Vidarbha and Marathwada region to increase
3. He founded Self Respect Movement.
climate resilient practices.
4. He never criticised or attacked Hindu
A) 1 and 2 only
scriptures.
B) 2 only
Which of the above statement(s) is/are
C) 2 and 3 only
incorrect?
D) 1 and 3 only
A) 1 and 4 only
B) 4 only Q 21. 38 Degree parallel is found between:
C) 1, 2 and 3 only A) USA and Canada
D) 2 and 4 only B) North and South Vietnam

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C) North Korea and South Korea Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
D) Iraq and Iran A) 1, 2 and 3 only
B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q 22. ‘Tussocky Grass’ is associated with which
C) 1 and 3 only
of the following type of vegetation?
D) All of the above
A) Tropical Deciduous Forests
B) Littoral and Swamp forests Q 26. Which of the following statement best
C) Tropical Semi Evergreen Forests describes the term catabolism?
D) Tropical Thorn Forests A) It is the transformation of larvae into full
grown insects.
Q 23. Which of the following is /are tributaries
B) It is the act of consumption of another
of river Kaveri?
individual of same species.
1. Musi
C) It refers to the degradation of detritus into
2. Kabini
simpler inorganic substance.
3. Bhavani
D) It refers to synthesis of complex molecules in
4. Amravati
living organisms from simpler one.
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2 and 3 only Q 27. Zuegen, Yardangs, and Inselberg are the
C) All of the above landforms associated with which of the
D) 2, 3 and 4 only following?
A) Wind erosion
Q 24. “Nokrek Biosphere Reserve” is located in
B) Wind deposition
which state?
C) River Erosion
A) Assam
D) Glacial Activity
B) Meghalaya
C) Arunachal Pradesh Q 28. Which of the following is / are examples
D) Odisha of the sedimentary bio geochemical cycle?
1. Sulphur cycle
Q 25. Consider the following statement about
2. Nitrogen cycle
‘Olive Ridley Turtle’:
3. Carbon cycle
1. It is one of the smallest and abundant of all
4. Phosphorous cycle
sea turtles.
A) 1 and 2 only
2. It mostly inhabits in the cold water of Pacific
B) 1, 2 and 4 only
and Atlantic Ocean.
C) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. It is best known for its mass nesting called
D) 1 and 4 only
Arribada.
4. The species is recognized as Endangered by Q 29. The Pharse ‘ Vasudhaiva Kutumbaka’ is
the IUCN Red list. mentioned in which of the Indias scriptures?
Page 4 of 34
A) Katha Upanishad Digital Currency (CBDC) consider the following
B) Maha Upanishad statement;
C) Arthashastra 1. CBDCs are a digital form of a paper currency
D) Mandukya Upanishad and unlike crypto-currencies that operate in a
regulatory vacuum, these are legal tenders
Q 30. Consider following statement about
issued and backed by a central bank.
National Social Assistance Program (NSAP)
2. It is the same as a fiat currency and is
1. This program was meant for providing social
exchangeable one-to-one with the fiat currency.
assistance benefit to the aged and the BPL
3. NITI Aayog had proposed amendments to
households in case of death of primary
the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, which
breadwinner and for maternity.
would enable it to launch a CBDC.
2. It comes under the Ministry of Social Justice
4. The digital fiat currency or CBDC cannot be
and Empowerment.
transacted using wallets backed by Blockchain.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
A) 1 only
correct?
B) 2 only
A. Only 1 and 3
C) Both 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 4
D) None of the above
C. Only 1 and 2

Q 31. “An Indian Scholar born in Niphad in D. Only 3 and 4

Nashik, Bombay Presidency, the British India.

Q 33. With reference to the Production Linked
One of the founding member of the Indian
Incentives Scheme, consider the following
National Congress, and owned several
statements:
designation as a member of the Bombay
1. It was launched in March 2021.
Legislative Council, member of Finance
2. It has included 14 sectors in it as on Oct.2022.
Committee at the centre and judge of the
3. Financial year (FY) 2019-20 is considered as
Bombay High Court. He wrote a book titled
the base year for the calculation of incentives.
‘Rise of Maratha Power’.”
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
Identify the person mention in the above
correct?
passage?
A) 1 & 2 only
A) Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
B) 2 only
B) R. G. Bhandarkar
C) 2 & 3 only
C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
D) 3 only
D) Mahadev Govind Ranade
Q 34. Which of the following statement(s)
Q 32. With reference to the Reserve Bank of
is/are correct regarding the International
India’s (RBI) digital rupee — the Central Bank
Monetary Fund (IMF):

Page 5 of 34
1. Countries are not eligible for the Q 37. Which one is correctly arranged from the
membership of the International Bank for North to the South:
Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) unless A) Guwahati->Kohima->Shillong
they are the members of the IMF. B) Kohima->Shillong->Guwahati
2. It was the IMF that introduced a system of C) Kohima->Guwahati->Shillong
convertible currencies at fixed exchange rates D) Guwahati->Shillong->Kohima
and replaced gold with the U.S. dollar for
Q 38. Consider the following statements:
official reserve.
1. National Mission on Quantum Technology is
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
conceptualized under the Department of
not correct?
Science & Technology (DST).
A) 1 only
2. Russia demonstrated quantum communication
B) 2 only
technology using the satellite Micius, by
C) Both 1 and 2
conducting a secret conference between two
D) Neither 1 nor 2
ground stations about 1,120 km apart.
Q 35. Consider the following pairs. 3. DRDO has successfully demonstrated
1. Rabi Crop———Mustard, Cucumber communication between its two labs using
2. Rabi Crop———Mustard, Barley Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) technology.
3. Zaid Crop———Moong, vegetables Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
4. Kharif Crop———Cotton A) 1 and 2 only
How many pairs given above are correctly B) 2 and 3 only
matched? C) 1 and 3 only
A) Only one pair D) 1, 2, and 3
B) Only two pairs
Q 39. The Crypto-Asset Reporting Framework
C) Only three pairs
or CARF was recently released by:
D) All four pairs
A) IMF
Q 36. Which of the following is not the B) OECD
objective of the WTO? C) World Bank
A) To improve the standard of living of people of D) RBI
the member countries.
Q 40. Consider the following statements with
B) To enlarge production and trade in goods.
respect to Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC):
C) To protect environment.
1. It has been set up to provide a focused
D) To improve the Balance of Payments situation
approach to Non-Performing Assets resolution on
of the member countries.
recommendations of Narasimham Committee- II.

Page 6 of 34
2. It is a company registered under SARFAESI international exchange rate; this phenomenon
Act, 2002. is known as:
3. It is regulated by RBI as a Non-Banking A. Devaluation
Financial Company. B. Depreciation
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true? C. Stagflation
A) 1 and 2 only D. Appreciation
B) 2 and 3 only
Q 45. With reference to the use of
C) 1 and 3 only
nanotechnology in the health sector, which of
D) 1, 2, and 3
the following statement(s) is/are not correct?
Q 41. Consider the following statements: 1. Targeted drug delivery is made possible by
1. 10% quota for Economically Weaker Sections nanotechnology.
(EWS) introduced through the 102 nd 2. Nanotechnology can largely contribute to
Constitutional Amendment. gene therapy.
2. Members of the Scheduled Tribes and A) 1 only
Scheduled Castes can also apply for EWS quota. 2) only
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true? 3) Both 1 and 2
A) 1 only 4) Neither 1 nor 2
B) 2 only
Q 46. Methanoic acid is normally found in:
C) 1 and 2 only
A) Muscles
D) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct
B) Urine
Q 42. E-Daakhil Portal, recently seen in news for: C) Ant stings
A) Digital lending mechanism D) Human brain
B) Consumer grievance redressal
Q 47. Consider the following pairs
C) Unemployment Assistance
1. Khuvsgul lake — China
D) Connecting with employees and employers
2. Yilan crater — Mongolia
Q 43. When too many funds are hunting down 3. Darvaza crater — Turkmenistan
too few goods, the probable result of inflation 4. Zaporizhzhia — Ukraine
is recognized as: How many pairs given above are correctly
A. Deflation matched?
B. Cost-push inflation A) Only one pair
C. Stagflation B) Only two pairs
D. Demand-pull inflation C) Only three pairs
D) All four pairs
Q 44. Once the Central Government cuts the
value of a currency in terms of the
Page 7 of 34
Q 48. India signed Comprehensive Economic SECTION II
Partnership Agreement (CEPA) with which of
the following country recently? Directions for Q.51 to Q.60:

A) USA Read the following four passages and answer

B) Australia the questions that follow each passage. Your

C) UAE answers to these items should be based on the

D) Japan passages only.

Passage 1
Q 49. Which one of the following statement(s) Accountability, or lack of it, in governance
is not correct with regard to genetically generally and civil services in particular, is a
modified organisms?
major factor underlying the deficiencies in
A) In this technique, a gene from one organism governance and public administration. Designing
is isolated and transferred to the cell of another an effective framework for accountability has
organism.
been a key element of the reform agenda. A
B) This technique has applications only in plants.
fundamental issue is whether civil services
C) Genes for insect resistance may spread from should be accountable to the political executive
crop plants to wild plants. of the day or to society at large. In other words,
D) To produce a transgenic animal, the novel
how should internal and external accountability
genes are inserted at a very early stage of be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought
development. to be achieved by internal performance

Q 50. Airborne Tropical TRopopause EXperiment monitoring, official supervision by bodies like

(ATTREX) initiative is related with which of the the Central Vigilance Commission and
Comptroller and Auditor General, and judicial
following organization?
A) National Aeronautics and Space Administration review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and

B) European Space Agency 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job

security and safeguards to the civil services,
C) Indian Space Research Organization
especially the All India Services. The framers of
D) International Meteorological Organization
the Constitution had envisaged that provision of

______________________ these safeguards would result in a civil service

that is not totally subservient to the political
executive, but will have the strength to function
in larger public interest. The need to balance
internal and external accountability is thus built
into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw
the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to
have tilted in favour of greater internal

Page 8 of 34
accountability of the civil services to the political C) 1 and 4 only
leaders of the day who in turn are expected to D) 2, 3 and 4
be externally accountable to the society at large
Q 52. With reference to the passage, the
through the election process. This system for
following assumptions have been made:
seeking accountability to society has not worked
1. Political executive is an obstacle to the
out, and has led to several adverse
accountability of the civil services to the society.
consequences for governance. Some special
2. In the present framework of Indian polity,
measures can be considered for improving
the political executive is no longer accountable
accountability in civil services. Provisions of
to the society.
articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and
Which of these assumptions have been made?
laws and regulations framed to ensure external
A) 1 only
accountability of civil services. The proposed
B) 2 only
Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these
C) Both 1 and 2
requirements. The respective roles of
D) Neither 1 nor 2
professional civil services and the political
executive should be defined so that professional Q 53. Which one of the following is the
managerial functions and management of civil essential message implied by this passage?
services are depoliticized. For this purpose, A) Civil services are not accountable to the
effective statutory civil service boards should be society they are serving.
created at the centre and in the states. B) Educated and enlightened persons are not
Decentralisation and devolution of authority to taking up political leadership.
bring government and decision making closer to C) The framers of the Constitution did not
the people also helps to enhance accountability. envisage the problems being encountered by
Q 51. According to the passage, which of the the civil services.
following factor(s) led to the adverse impact on D) There is a need and scope for reforms to
governance/public administration? improve the accountability of civil services.
1. Inability of civil services to strike a balance
Q 54. According to the passage, which one of
between internal and external accountabilities.
the following is not a means of enhancing
2. Lack of sufficient professional training to the
internal accountability of civil services?
officers of All India Services.
A) Better job security and safeguards.
3. Lack of proper service benefits in civil services.
B) Supervision by Central Vigilance Commission.
4. Lack of Constitutional provisions to define the
C) Judicial review of executive decisions.
respective roles of professional civil services vis-
D) Seeking accountability through enhanced
a-vis political executive in this context.
participation by people in decision making process.
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only

Page 9 of 34
Passage 2 B) Having relationship to the divine principle is a
In general, religious traditions stress our duty to great virtue.
God, or to some universal ethical principle. Our C) Balance between rights and duties is crucial
duties to one another derive from these. The to the delivery of justice in a society.
religious concept of rights is primarily derived D) Religious concept of rights is primarily
from our relationship to this divinity or principle derived from our relationship to God.
and the implication; it has on our other
Passage 3
relationships. This correspondence between
I must say that, beyond occasionally exposing
rights and duties is critical to any further
me to laughter, my constitutional shyness has
understanding of justice. But, for justice to be
been of no disadvantage whatever. In fact, I can
practiced; virtue, rights and duties cannot
see that, on the contrary, it has been all to my
remain formal abstractions. They must be
advantage. My hesitancy in speech, which was
grounded in a community (common unity)
once an annoyance, is now a pleasure. Its
bound together by a sense of common union
greatest benefit has been that it has taught me
(communion). Even as a personal virtue, this
the economy of words. I have naturally formed
solidarity is essential to the practice and
the habit of restraining my thoughts. And I can
understanding of justice.
now give myself the certificate that a
Q 55. With reference to the passage, the
thoughtless word hardly ever escapes my
following assumptions have been made:
tongue or pen. I do not recollect ever having had
1. Human relationships are derived from their
to regret anything in my speech or writing. I
religious traditions.
have, thus, been spared many a mishap and
2. Human beings can be duty bound only if they
waste of time. Experience has taught me that
believe in God.
silence is part of the spiritual discipline of a
3. Religious traditions are essential to practice
votary of truth. Proneness to exaggerate, to
and understand justice.
suppress or modify the truth, wittingly or
Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid?
unwittingly, is a natural weakness of man, and
A) 1 only
silence is necessary in order to surmount it.
B) 2 and 3 only
A man of few words will rarely be thoughtless in
C) 1 and 3 only
his speech; he will measure every word. We find
D) 1, 2 and 3
many people impatient to talk. There is no
Q 56. Which one of the following is the crux of chairman of a meeting who is not pestered with
this passage? notes for permission to speak. And whenever
A) Our duties to one another derive from our the permission is given, the speaker generally
religious traditions. exceeds the time limit, asks for more time, and
keeps on talking without permission. All these

Page 10 of 34
talking can hardly be said to be of any benefit to the ground. Other industries could be affected
the world. It is so much waste of time. My by the economic damage caused by more
shyness has been in reality my shield and extreme weather storms, floods, heat waves
buckler. It has allowed me to grow. It has helped and droughts.
me in my discernment of truth. Q 60 On the basis of the above passage, the
Q 57. The author says that a thoughtless word following assumptions can made:
hardly ever escapes his tongue or pen. Which one 1. Governments and companies need to be
of the following is not a valid reason for this? adequately prepared to face the climate change.
A) He has no intention to waste his time. 2. Extreme weather events will reduce economic
B) He believes in the economy of words. growth of governments and companies in future.
C) He believes in restraining his thoughts. 3. Ignoring climate change is a huge risk for
D) He has hesitancy in his speech. investors.
Which of the above assumption(s) is/are valid?
Q 58. The most appropriate reason for the
A) 1 and 2 only
author to be spared many a mishap is that:
B) 3 only
A) he hardly utters or writes a thoughtless word.
C) 1 and 3 only
B) he is a man of immense patience.
D) 1, 2 and 3
C) he believes that he is a spiritual person.
D) he is a votary of truth. Q 61. n = 1 + x, if x is the product of four
consecutive integers, then which one of the
Q 59. For the author, silence is necessary in
following is true:
order to surmount:
1) n is odd
A) constitutional shyness.
2) n is prime
B) hesitancy in speech.
3) n is a perfect square
C) suppression of thoughts.
A) 1 and 3
D) tendency to overstate.
B) 1 and 2

Passage 4 C) Only 1
A changing climate, and the eventual efforts of D) Only 3

governments (however reluctant) to deal with it,

Q 62. Average of 7 consecutive odd numbers is
could have a big impact on investors' returns.
31. If the previous and next odd numbers to the
Companies that produce or use large amounts
7 odd numbers are also included, then what
of fossil fuels will face higher taxes and
will be the new average.
regulatory burdens. Some energy producers may
A) 33
find it impossible to exploit their known
B) 31
reserves, and be left with "stranded assets"
C) 35
deposits of oil and coal that have to be left in
D) 29

Page 11 of 34
Q 63. A man can row 14 km/h in still water. If the Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F - stand in a row.
speed of the current is 6 km/h, it takes 7.5 hours A is to the left of B.
more in upstream than in the downstream for C is to the right of D.
the same distance. The distance is? E and F have two persons standing between
A) 80 km them and neither of these two persons is C or A.
B) 150 km Q 66. What is the total number of possible
C) 100 km arrangements?
D) 120 km A) 2
B) 4
Directions for questions 64 to 65:
C) 6
Read the following information and answer the
D) 5
questions given below.
Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by Q 67. Who among the following stand at the
different modes of transport. P and Q are extreme ends of the row?
connected by boat as well as by rail. S and R are A) E and F
connected by bus and by boat. Q and T are B) F and A
connected only by air. P and R are connected only C) E and C
by boat. T and R are connected by rail and by bus. D) A and C
Q 64. Which of the following pair of cities are
Q 68. If A sits to the immediate left of E, then
connected by any of the routes directly
who sits to the immediate right of B?
(without going through any other city)?
A) D
A) P and T
B) F
B) T and S
C) C
C) Q and R
D) Cannot be determined
D) None of these

Q 69.In an election between two candidates,

Q 65. Which mode of transport would help one
10% of the voters didn't cast their votes and 60
to reach R starting from Q, but without
votes cast were invalid, A wins by getting 48%
changing the mode of transport?
of all the voters in the list and got 600 votes
A) Boat
more than B. Find the number of votes secured
B. Rail
by B?
C. Bus
A) 3720
D. Air
B) 4720
Directions for questions 66 to 68: C) 2720
These questions are based on the data given D) 4750
below.

Page 12 of 34
Q 70. If 10 people can do a piece of work in 5 A) 1 and 2 only
days, working 2 hours a day, how long will 2 B) 2 only
people take to do the same work, working 5 C) 2 and 3 only
hours a day? D) 3 only
A) 8
Passage - 6
B) 5
A majority of the TB infected in India are poor
C) 10
and lack sufficient nutrition, suitable housing and
D) 12
have little understanding of prevention. TB then
Passage - 5 devastates families, makes the poor poorer,
Access to schooling for those coming of school particularly affects women and children, and
age is close to universal, but access to quality leads to ostracisation and loss of employment.
exhibits sharp gradient with a socio-economic The truth is that even if TB does not kill them,
status. Quota for the weaker sections in private hunger and poverty will. Another truth is that
schools is a provision introduced by the Right of deep-seated stigma, lack of counselling,
Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, expensive treatment and lack of adequate
2009. The quotas have imposed a debate on support from and family, coupled with torturous
issues of social integration and equity in side-effects demotivate patients to continue
education that private actors had escaped by treatment with disastrous health consequences.
and large. The idea of egalitarian education Q 72. Which one of the following is the most
system with equality of opportunity as its logical, rational and crucial message conveyed
primary goal appears to be outside the space by the above passage?
that private school principals inhabit. Therefore, A) TB is not a curable disease in the Indian
the imposition of the quotas has led to circumstances.
resistance, sometimes justified. B) Curing TB requires more than diagnosis and
Q 71. With reference to the above passage, the medical treatment.
following assumptions have been made: C) Government's surveillance mechanism is
1. Making equality of opportunity a reality is the deficient; and poor people have no access to
fundamental goal of the Indian education treatment.
system. D) India will be free from diseases like TB only
2. The present Indian school system is unable when its poverty alleviation programmes are
to provide egalitarian education. effectively and successfully implemented.
3. Abolition of private schools and
Passage - 7
establishment of more government schools is
With the digital phenomenon restructuring most
the only way to ensure egalitarian education.
social sectors, it is little surprise that global
Which of the above assumption(s) is/are valid?
trade negotiations are now eyeing the digital

Page 13 of 34
area in an attempt to pre-emptively colonise it. from Asia to North America through Europe and
Big Data is freely collected or mined from across Greenland.
developing countries, and converted into digital Earth was warmer than it is today, but as the
intelligence in developed countries. This Palaeocene epoch gave way to Eocene, it was
intelligence begins to control different sectors about to get much warmer, still rapidly and
and extract monopoly rents. radically. The cause was a massive geologically
A large foreign company providing cab service, sudden release of carbon. During this period
for instance, is not a network of cars and drivers; called Palaeocene Eocene Thermal Maximum or
it is digital intelligence about commuting, public PETM, the carbon injected into the atmosphere
transport, roads, traffic, city events, personal was roughly the amount that would be injected
behavioural characteristics of commuters and today, if humans burned all the Earth's reserves
drivers and so on. of coal, oil and natural gas. The PETM lasted for
Q 73. Which one of the following is the most about 1,50,000 years, until the excess carbon
logical and rational corollary to the above was reabsorbed. It brought on drought, floods,
passage? insect plagues and a few extinctions. Life on
A) Globalization is not in the interests of India, Earth survived indeed, it prospered, but it was
as it undermines its socio-economic structures. drastically different.
B) India should be careful to protect its digital Q 75. Based on the above passage, the
sovereignty in global trade talks. following assumptions have been made:
C) India should charge monopoly rents from 1. Global warming has a bearing on the planet's
multinational companies in exchange for Big Data. biological evolution.
D) The loss of Big Data from India is proportional 2. Separation of land masses causes the release
to the degree/value of its foreign trade. of huge quantities of carbon into the
atmosphere.
Q 74. Which of the following is most definitively
3. Increased warming of Earth's atmosphere
implied by the above passage?
can change the composition of its flora and
A) Big Data is the key resource in the digital space.
fauna.
B) Big economies create Big Data.
4. The present man-made global warming will
C) Access to Big Data is the prerogative of
finally lead to conditions similar to those which
developed countries.
happened 56 million years ago..
D) Access to and possession of Big Data is a
Which of the assumptions given above are
characteristic of developed countries.
valid?

Passage - 8 A) 1 and 2

Around 56 million years ago, the Atlantic Ocean B) 3 and 4

had not fully opened and animals, perhaps C) 1 and 3

including our primate ancestors, could walk D) 2 and 4

Page 14 of 34
76. When a number is divided by a certain C) 2400
divisor, reminder 39, if another number is D) 1800
divided by same divisor leaves remainder 33. If
Q 79. What is the central angle corresponding
the sum of both numbers is divided by same
to vacancies announced by SBI and EPFO
divisor leaves remainder 19. Find divisor?
together?
A) 53
A) 36°
B) 49
B) 72°
C) 51
C) 30°
D) 56
D) 108°
Instructions: Pie-chart given below shows the
Q 80.Vacancies announced by the RBI are what
percentage distribution of total vacancies
percent less than the vacancies announced by
announced by various departments. Study the
SBI?
pie-chart carefully and answer the following
A) 18%
questions from 77 to 80:
B) 19%
C) 20%
D) 21%

Directions for the following 5(five) items:

Read the following two passages and answer
the items that follow each passage. Your
answers to these items should be based on the
passages only.
Passage-9
Q 77. Find total vacancies announced by EPFO,
In recent times, India has grown fast not only
SSC and IBPS together.
compared to its own past, but also in
A) 4500
comparison with other nations. But there cannot
B) 5000
be any room for complacency because it is
C) 4000
possible for the Indian economy to develop even
D) 5500
faster and also to spread the benefits of this
Q 78. If vacancies announced by SBI are growth more widely than has been done so far.
reduced by 10% and vacancies announced by Before going into details of the kinds of micro-
2
LIC are increased by 14 /7%, then find total structural changes that we need to
number of vacancies announced by LIC. conceptualize and then proceed to implement, it
A) 1600 is worthwhile elaborating on the idea of
B) 1400 inclusive growth that constitutes the defining

Page 15 of 34
concept behind this Government's various in all likelihood drop down into the bottom
economic policies and decisions. A nation quintile and so would automatically become a
interested in inclusive growth views the same direct target of our policies. Hence, the criterion
growth differently depending on whether the being suggested here is a statistical summing up
gains of the growth are heaped primarily on a of the idea of inclusive growth, which, in turn,
small segment or shared widely by the leads to two corollaries to wish that India must
population. The latter is cause for celebration, strive to achieve high growth and that we must
but not the former. In other words, growth must work to ensure that the weakest segments
not be treated as an end in itself, but as an benefit from the growth.
instrument for spreading prosperity to all. India's Q 81. The author's central focus is on:
own past experience and the experience of other (a) applauding India's economic growth not only
nations suggests that growth is necessary for against its own past performance, but against
eradicating poverty, but it is not a sufficient other nations.
condition. In other words, policies for promoting (b) emphasizing the need for economic growth,
growth need to be complemented with policies which is the sole determinant of a country's
to ensure that more and more people join in the prosperity.
growth process and further that there are (c) emphasizing inclusive growth, where gains of
mechanisms in place to redistribute some of the growth are shared widely by the population.
gains to those who are unable to partake in the (d) emphasizing high growth.
market process and, hence, get left behind.
Q 82. The author supports policies which will
A simple way of giving this idea of inclusive
help:
growth a sharper form is to measure a nation's
A) develop economic growth.
progress in terms of the progress of its poorest
B) better distribution of incomes irrespective of
segment, for instance, the bottom 20 per cent of
rate of growth.
the population. One could measure the per
C) develop economic growth and redistribute
capita income of the bottom quintile of the
economic gains to those getting left behind.
population and also calculate the growth rate of
D) put an emphasis on the development of the
income; and evaluate our economic success in
poorest segments of society.
terms of these measures that pertain to the
poorest segment. This approach is attractive Q 83. Consider the following statements:
because it does not ignore growth like some of According to the author, India's economy has
the older heterodox criteria did. It simply looks grown but there is no room for complacency as:
at the growth of income of the poorest sections 1. growth eradicates poverty.
of the population. It also ensures that those who 2. growth has resulted in prosperity for all.
are outside the bottom quintile do not get Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
ignored. If that is done, then those people would correct?

Page 16 of 34
A) 1 only B) Conclusion II follows the statement.
B) 2 only C) Both conclusions I & II follow the statement.
C) Both 1 and 2 D) Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
D) Neither 1 nor 2 the statement.

Q 84. Which year has the same calendar as that Q 88. Read the given statements and conclusions
of the year 2009? carefully.
A) 2018 Assuming that the information given in the
B) 2017 statements is true, even if it appears to be at
C) 2016 variance with commonly known facts, decide
D) 2015 which of the given conclusion(s) logically
follow(s) from the statements.
Q 85. Saloni is the daughter of the only son of
Statement I: Some red are blue.
Kartik. Nirupama is the mother of Deepak.
Statement II: All blue are green.
Yamini's only son, Ankit, is married to
Statement III: No green are pink.
Nirupama. Kartik is the paternal grandfather of
Conclusion I: A few red are pink
Deepak. How is Kartik related to Ankit?
Conclusion II: No red are pink
A) Brother
A) Only conclusion II follows.
B) Son
B) Only conclusion I follows.
C) Father
C) Either conclusion I or II follows.
D) Paternal uncle
D) Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

86. One evening before sunset, Sumesh was

89. 25% of a number is 20, what is 40 % of that
standing facing a pole. The shadow of pole fell
number?
exactly to his left. To which direction was he
A) 32
facing?
B) 40
A) West
C) 30
B) East
D) 35
C) South
D) North Q 90. If '+' means 'minus', 'x' means 'divided
by', ' ÷' means 'plus' and '–' means 'multiplied
Q 87. Consider the given statement and the
by' then which of the following will be the
following conclusions.
value of the expression 252 x 9 –5 + 32 ÷ 92 ?
Statement: A room with flowers looks beautiful.
A) 95
Conclusion I: Flowers are grown for decoration
B) 168
of rooms.
C) 192
Conclusion II: Room without flowers looks ugly.
D) 200
A) Conclusion I follows the statement.
Page 17 of 34
 A)
B)
C)
D)

A)
B)
C)
D)

A)

B) A)
B)
C) C)
D) D

A) A- B- C- D-
A)
B) A- B- C- D-
B)
C) A- B- C- D-
C)
D) A- B- C- D- D)

A)
B)
C)
D)

Page 18 of 34
A)
B) A)
C) B)
D) C)
D)

A)
B)
C)
D)
A)
B)
C)
D)

A)
B) A)
C) B)
D) C)
D)

A)
B)
C)
D)

A)
A) B)
C)
B) D)
C)
D)

Page 19 of 34
 C)

D)
A)
B)
C)
D)

A)
B)
A) C)
B) D)
C)
D)
A)
B)
C)
D)

A)
A) B)
B) C)
C) D)
D)

A)

B)
A)
B)
Page 20 of 34
C)
D)

A)
B)
A) C)
B) D)
C)
D)

A)
B)
C)
D)

A)
B)
A) C)
B) D)
C)
D)

A)

B)

C)

D) A)
B)
C)
D)

Page 21 of 34
 A)
B)
C)
A) D)
B)
C)
D)

A)
B)
C)
D)

A)
B)
C) A)
D) B)
C)
D)

Page 22 of 34
 C)
D)
A)

B)
II
C)
D)

A) -> ->
B) -> ->
C) -> ->
A)
D) -> ->
B)
C)
D)

A)
B)
C)
D)
A)
B)
C)
D)
A)
B)
C)
D)
A)
B)
Page 23 of 34
 A)
B)
A) C)
B) D)
C)
D)

A)
B)
A) C)
B) D)
C)
D)

A)

B)

C)

D)
A)
B)
C)
D)
(ATTREX)

A)
A) B)
B) C)
C) D)
D)

Page 24 of 34
Page 25 of 34
 C)
D)

A)
B
C)
D)

A)
B)
C)
D)

A)

B)

C)
A)
B)
D) C)
D)

A)
A)
B)
Page 26 of 34
B)

C)

D)

A)

B)

C)

D)

A)

B)
C)

D)

A)
B)
C)
D)

Page 27 of 34
 A)
B)
C)
D)

A)
B)
C)
D)

P Q R S T

P Q
A) S R
B)
Q T
C)
D)
P R
T R
. n =1+ x, x

n
A) P T
n
B) T S
n
C) Q R
A
D)
B
C
D

A)
B)
C)
D)
Page 28 of 34
 A, B, C, D, E F
A, B C, A)
B)
D, E F
C)
D)
C, A

A)
B)
C)
D)

A) E F
B) F A
C) E C
D) A C

A) D
B) F
C) C
D) E

% A
B
B
A)
B)
C)
D)

A)
B)
Page 29 of 34
C)
D)

TB

A)

B)

C)
A)

B) D)

C)

D)
A)

Page 30 of 34
B)

C)

D) A)
B)
C)
D)

A)
B)
C)
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B)
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D)

Page 31 of 34
 %
%

A)
B)
C)
D)

A)
B)
C)
D)

A) %
B) %
C) %
D) %

Page 32 of 34
 D)

A)
B)
C)
D)

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B)
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D)

B)

C)

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D) B)
C)
D)

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B)

C) A)
B)
C)
D)
Page 33 of 34
 
I A)
B)
II C)
D)
A) I
_________________________
B) II
C) I II

D) I II

I
II
III
I
II
A) II
B) I
C) I II
D) I II

%
%
A)
B)
C)
D)

ऋण 

Page 34 of 34
कच्चे काम के लिए जगह
 जब तक आपको इस परीक्षण पुलततका को खोिने के लिये न कहा जाए तब तक न खोिे

सामान्य प्रवेश परीक्षा २०२२

SIAC, PITCS, YASHADA, BARTI & PCMC
सामान्य ज्ञान व कॉमन लसलवि सर्ववसेस एप्टीट्यूड टेतट (CSAT)
समय : दो घंटे पूणाांक : २००
परीक्षा अनुक्रमांक :

अनुदेश
१. परीक्षा शुरू होने के तुरंत बाद आप यह जांच िें कक इस परीक्षण पुलततका में कोई अमुकित या फटा या छू टा
हुआ पृष्ठ या प्रश्ांश तो नहीं है। यकद ऐसा है तो इसे सही परीक्षण पुलततका से बदिने के लिए अनुरोध करें ।
२. इस परीक्षण पुलततका पर कदये गये कोष्टक में आपको आपका अनुक्रमांक लिखना है। परीक्षण पुलततका पर
कु छ और न लिखेंलचलन्हत न करें ।/
३. इस परीक्षण पुलततका में अंग्रेजी और हहदी प्रश्ो के संतकरण के दो भाग लनम्नानुसार हैं:
कु ि प्रश् पूणााक प्रश्ों के प्रकार नकारात्मक मूलयांकन प्रणािी
भाग – १ ५० १०० बहु लवकलपीय प्रश् प्रत्येक गित उत्तर के लिए एक लतहाई.
भाग – २ ४० १०० बहु लवकलपीय प्रश् प्रत्येक गित उत्तर के लिए एक लतहाई.
नोट: यकद कोई प्रश् अनुत्तररत रह जाता है, अर्ाात उम्मीदवार द्वारा कोई उत्तर नहीं कदया जाता है, तो उस
प्रश् के लिए कोई नकारात्मक अंकन नहीं होगा।
भाग – २ (CSAT) एक न्यूनतम अहाक अनुभाग है। लजसमें न्यूनतम योग्यता अंक ३३% हैं, इसलिए,
आपको अहाता प्राप्त करने के लिए CSAT पेपर में न्यूनतम ३३ अंकों की आवश्यकता है। आपका अंलतम
चयन सामान्य अध्ययन के पेपर और परीक्षा के बाद आयोलजत होने वािे साक्षात्कार के संयक्त
ु अंकों के
आधार पर होगा।
४. प्रत्येक प्रश् अंग्रेजी और हहदी दोनों में छपा है। प्रत्येक प्रश् के चार उत्तर कदये गये हैं। इनमें से आप उस उत्तर
का चयन करें गे लजसे आप उत्तर पत्रक पर लचलन्हत करना चाहते हैं। यकद आपको िगता है कक एक से
अलधक उत्तर सही हैं, तो उस उत्तर को लचलन्हत करें जो आपको सबसे सही िगता है। ककसी भी लतर्लत में ,
प्रत्येक प्रश् के लिए के वि एक प्रलतकक्रया चुनें।
५. आपको लनरीक्षक के लनदेशों के अनुसार उत्तर पत्रक पर कदए गए लववरणों को भरना हैं। परीक्षा समाप्त होने
पर आपको के वि उत्तर पत्रक लनरीक्षक को सौंपना होगा। आपको परीक्षा के बाद परीक्षण पुलततका अपने
सार् िे जाने की अनुमलत है।
६. कच्चे काम के लिए परीक्षण पुलततका के अंत में खािी पन्ने संिग्न हैं।
७. परीक्षा हॉि में मोबाइि फोन और अन्य इिेक्ट्रॉलनक गैजेट्स सख्त वर्वजत हैं।
८. कृ पया ध्यान दें कक इस पेपर के भाग – १ का मूलयांकन तभी ककया जाएगा, जब कोई उम्मीदवार भाग – २
में न्यूनतम ३३ अंक प्राप्त करता है।
९. साक्षात्कार कायाक्रम और इस परीक्षा का अंलतम पररणाम www.siac.org.in पर घोलित ककया जाएगा।
जब तक आपको इस परीक्षण पुलततका को खोिने के लिये न कहा जाए तब तक न खोिे

नोट: लनदेशों का अंग्रज

े ी संतकरण इस पुलततका के मुखपृष्ठ पर छपा हुआ है।
 CET - 2022
PAPER - I & II
NUMBER OF ITEMS - 90 MAXIMUM MARKS = 200

1 D 26 C 51 C 76 A
2 B 27 A 52 A 77 B
3 B 28 D 53 D 78 A
4 C 29 B 54 D 79 D
5 C 30 A 55 A 80 C
6 A 31 D 56 C 81 C
7 C 32 C 57 A 82 C
8 A 33 C 58 A 83 D
9 A 34 D 59 D 84 D
10 D 35 C 60 C 85 C
11 A 36 D 61 A 86 C
12 C 37 A 62 B 87 D
13 D 38 C 63 C 88 C
14 D 39 B 64 D 89 A
15 C 40 D 65 A 90 D
16 A 41 D 66 B
17 B 42 B 67 D
18 B 43 D 68 D
19 A 44 A 69 A
20 C 45 D 70 C
21 C 46 C 71 B
22 D 47 B 72 B
23 D 48 C 73 B
24 B 49 B 74 A
25 C 50 A 75 C