Research and LM

1. You are preparing to go to work when suddenly, there's a major earthquake. You failed to go to work
but you are not liable for it. What doctrine was applied?
A. Res Ipsa loquitor
B. The thing speaks for itself
C. Force majeure
D. Incompetence
Answer: C
RATIONALE: Force majeure means an irresistible force. Under the Civil Code of the
Philippines, no person shall be responsible for those events which cannot be foreseen,
except in cases expressly specified by law.
2. A stroke patient suffered an accidental fall because the nurse was unable to put the side rails up. The
injury sustained by the patient is sufficient evidence of negligence using the doctrine of?
A. Force Majeure
B. Res Ipsa Loquitor
C. Respondeat Superior
D. Master- servant rule
Answer: B
RATIONALE: Res Ipsa Loquitor "The thing speaks for itself'. A doctrine law applicable to
cases where the defendant has exclusive control of the things which caused the harm and
where the harm ordinarily could not have occurred without negligent conduct. A - Force
Majeure "means an irresistible force, one that is unforeseen or inevitable. Ex. Floods, fire,
earthquake and accidents fall under this doctrin and nurses who fail to render service
during these circumstances are not held negligent. C & D are the same - Respondeat
superior "Let the master answer for the acts of the subordinate".
3. The following are the Fundamental Requirements of Due of Process. Which one is not included?
A. The right to meet the witness face to face
B. The right against the use of force, violence, threat, intimidation or any other means which
vitiates the free will.
C. The accused is presumed innocent until the contrary is proved
D. It is used to, produce harmony and gain social credits that can be used later.
Answer: D
RATIONALE: Option D is Accommodation. Option A, B & C are all fundamental
requirement of due process.
4. A nurse who is employed in a community hospital as a unit manager determines that the position of
authority in this situation most appropriately describe to:
A. Being responsible for what the staff members do
B. Carrying the legal responsibilities for the task performance of others
C. The official power to approve an action, command an action, or to see that a decision is
enforced
D. Accepting the responsibility for the actions of others
Answer: C
RATIONALE: The official power to approve an action, command an action, or to see that a
decision is enforced. Use the process of elimination and knowledge regarding the
description of a position of authority.
5. This leadership theory was developed to describe the way that leaders encourage and support their
followers in achieving the goals they have set by making the path that they should take clear and
easy. This theory is called:
A. Trait theory
B. Situational theory
C. Path-goal theory
D. Contingency theory
Answer: C
RATIONALE: Path-goal theory. The key words: "goals and making the path." A - Trait
theory says a leader is born with inherited qualities. B - Situational, as compared to
contingency, focuses more on the behaviors of the leader in various situational factors. D
- Contingency theory, it states that the leader's ability is contingent upon various factors
such as capabilities, behaviors and styles.
6. A nursing instructor asks the nursing student to describe the definition of a critical path. Which of the following
statements, if made by the student, indicates a need for further understanding regarding critical paths?
A. “They are developed through the collaborative efforts of all members of the health care team.”
 B. “They provide an effective way for monitoring care and for reducing or controlling the length of
hospital stay for the client.”
C. “They are developed based on appropriate standards of care.”
D. “They are nursing care plans and use the steps nursing process.”
Answer: D
RATIONALE: Use the process of elimination and knowledge regarding the definition and purpose
of critical paths to direct you to option D. Note the strategic words in the question, a need for
further understanding. These words indicate a negative event query and ask you to select an
option that is incorrect.
7. The nurse manager is planning to implement a change is the nursing unit from team nursing to primary nursing.
The nurse anticipates that there will be resistance to the change during the change process. The primary
technique that the nurse would use in implementing this change is which of the following?
A. Introduce the change gradually.
B. Confront the individuals involved in the change process.
C. Use coercion to implement the change.
D. Manipulate the participants in the change process.
Answer: A
RATIONALE: The primary technique that can be used to handle resistance to change during the
change process is to introduce the change gradually. Confrontation is an important strategy used
to meet resistance when it occurs.
8. The nurse recently been assigned to manage a pulmonary progressive unit at a large urban hospital. The nurse's
leadership style is participative, with that all staff members assist in decision making and the development of
the unit's goals. The nurse is implementing which leadership style?
A. Democratic
B. Laissez-faire
C. Autocratic
D. Situational
Answer: A- democratic leadership is defined as participative with a focus on the belief that all
members of the group have input into the decision making. Laissez-faire leaders assume a passive
y c approach, with the decision-making left to the group. Autocrat'. leadership dominates the
group, with maintenance of strong
over the group. Situational leadership is based on the current even of the day.
9. A physician has written an order for a vest restraint to be applied on a client from 10:00 pm to 7:00 am because
the client becomes disoriented during the night and is at risk for falls. At 1:00 pm, the charge nurse makes
rounds on the entire client in the unit. When assessing the client with the vest restraint, which observation by
the charge nurse would indicate that the nurse who cared for this client performed an unsafe action in the use
of the restraint?
A. A safety knot was used to secure the restraint.
B. The client's record indicates that the restraint will be released every 2 hours.
C. The restraint was applied lightly.
D. The call light was placed within reach of the client.
Answer: No answer
RATIONALE: Restraints should never be applied tightly because that could impair circulation.
The restraint should be applied securely (not tightly) to prevent the client from slipping through
the restraint and endangering himself. A safety knot should be used because it can easily be
released in an emergency. Restraints. especially limb restraints, must be released every 2 hours
(or per agency policy) to inspect the skin for abnormalities. The call light must always be within
the client's reach in case the client needs assistance.
10. The RN is planning the client assignments for the day. Which of the following is the most appropriate assignment
for the nursing assistant?
A. A client requiring colostomy irrigation
B. A client receiving continuous tube feedings.
C. A client who requires urine specimen collections.
D. A client with difficulty swallowing food and fluids.
Answer: C- the nurse must determine the most appropriate assignment based on the skills of the
staff member and the needs of the client. In this case, the most appropriate assignment for a
nursing assistant would be to care for the client who requires urine specimen collections. The
nursing assistant is skilled in this procedure. Colostomy irrigations and tube feedings are not
performed by unlicensed personnel. The client with difficulty swallowing food and fluids is at risk
for aspiration.
11. The RN employed in a long-term care facility is planning assignments for the clients on a nursing unit. The RN
needs to assign four clients and has a licensed practical (vocational) nurse and three nursing assistants on a
nursing team. Which of the following clients would the nurse most appropriately assign to the licensed practical
(vocational) nurse?
A. The client who requires a bed bath.
B. An older client requiring frequent ambulation.
C. A client who requires a 24-hour urine collection.
D. A client with an abdominal wound requiring wound irrigations and dressing changes every 3
hours.
Answer: D
 RATIONALE: When delegating nursing assignments. the nurse needs to consider the skills and
educational level of the nursing staff. Collecting a 24-hour urine sample, giving a bed bath. and
assisting with frequent ambulation can be provided most appropriately by the nursing assistant.
The licensed practical (vocational) nurse is skilled in wound irrigations and dressing changes
and most appropriately would be assigned to the client who needs this care.
12. The RN has received the assignment for the day shift. After making initial rounds and checking all of the
assigned clients, which client will the RN plan to care for first?
A. A client who is ambulatory
B. A client scheduled for physical therapy at 1 pm
C. A client with a fever who is diaphoretic and restless.
D. A postoperative client who has just received pain medication.
Answer: C
RATIONALE: The RN would plan to care for the client who has a fever and is diaphoretic and
restless first because this client's needs are the priority. Waiting for pain medication to take effect
before providing care to the postoperative client is best. The client who is ambulatory and the
client scheduled for physical therapy later in the day do not have priority needs related to care.
13. The nurse is assigned to care for four clients. In planning client rounds, which client should the nurse assess
first?
A. A client scheduled for a chest x-ray
B. A client requiring daily dressing changes
C. A postoperative client preparing for discharge
D. A client receiving oxygen via nasal cannula who had difficulty breathing during the previous
shift.
Answer: D
RATIONALE: Airway is always a highest priority, and the nurse would attend to the client who
has been experiencing an airway problem first. The client in option A, B, C has needs that would
be identified as intermediate priorities. TM: ABC
14. The nurse is giving a bed bath to an assigned client when a nursing assistant enters the client's room and tells
the nurse that another assigned client is in pain and needs pain medication. The appropriate nursing action is
which of the following?
A. Finish the bed bath and then administer the pain medication to the other client.
B. Ask the nursing assistant to find out when the last pain medication was given to the patient.
C. Ask the nursing assistant to tell the client in pain that the medication will be administered as soon as
the bed bath is complete.
D. Cover the client, raise the side rails, tell the client that you will return shortly, and administer the pain
medication to the other client.
Answer: D
RATIONALE: The nurse is responsible for the care provided to assigned clients. The appropriate action
in this situation is to provide safety to the client who is receiving the bed bath and prepare to
administer the pain medication. Option A& C delay the administration of medication to the client in
pain. Option B is not a responsibility of the nursing assistant.
15. There are many specialties in nursing that cover a range of interest and clinical domains. Key attributes of a
specialty were identified as follows except:
A. A research program
B. Educational program for preparing nurses to practice in the specialty
C. Representation of the specialty by at least one organized body
D. Undifferentiated practice
Answer: D
RATIONALE: It should be differentiated practice not undifferentiated. Other key attribute is: a
mechanism for credentialing nurses in the specialty.
16. The nurse manager is observing a new nursing graduate caring for a burn client in protective isolation. The
nurse manager intervenes if the new nursing graduate planned to implement which incorrect component of
protective isolation technique?
A. Using sterile sheets and linens
B. Performing strict hand-washing technique
C. Wearing gloves and gown only when giving direct care to the client.
D. Wearing protective garb, including a mask, gloves, cap, shoe covers, a gown, and plastic apron.
Answer: C
RATIONALE: Thorough hand washing should be done before and after each contact with the burn-
injured client. Sterile sheets and linens are used. Protective garb needs to be worn when in the client’s
room and when directly caring for the client. TM= absolute terms only-is wrong.
17. A nurse arrives at work and is told that the intensive care unit (ICU) is in need of assistance. The nurse is told
by the supervisor that the assignment today is to work in the ICU and shares concerns with the supervisor
regarding unfamiliarity with the technological equipment used in that unit. The nurse is again told to report to
the ICU. The appropriate action by the nurse is to:
A. Refuse to go to the ICU
B. Go to the ICU and tell the charge nurse she is feeling ill and needs to go home
C. Call the hospital lawyer
D. Go to the ICU and inform the charge nurse of those tasks that cannot be performed
Answer: D
 RATIONALE: Legally, a nurse cannot refuse to float unless a union contract guarantees that nurses
can only work in a specific area or the nurse can prove the lack of knowledge for the performance of
assigned task. When encountered with this situation, the nurse should set priorities and identify
potential areas of harm to the client. All pertinent facts related to client care problems and safe issues
should be documented. The nurse should perform Only those tasks in which training has been
received. It is the nurse's responsibility to clearly describe these tasks.
18. A registered nurse asks a licensed practical nurse to change the colostomy bag on a client. The LPN tells the RN
that although attendance at the hospital in-service was completed regarding this procedure, the procedure, the
procedure has never been performed on a client. The appropriate action by RN is to:
A. Request that the LPN review the materials from the in-service before performing the procedure
B. Request that the LPN review the procedure in the hospital manual and bring the written procedure
into the client's room for guidance during the procedure
C. Request that the LPN observe another LPN perform the procedure
D. Perform the procedure with the LPN
Answer: D
RATIONALE: The RN must remember that even though a task may be delegated to someone, the
nurse who delegates maintains accountability for the overall nursing care of the client. Only the task,
not the ultimate accountability, may be delegated to another. The RN is responsible for ensuring that
the competent and accurate care is delivered to the client. Requesting that the LPN observe another
LPN perform the procedure does not ensure that the procedure will be done correctly. Because this
is a new procedure for this LPN, the RN should accompany the LPN, provide guidance and answer
questions following the procedure. Although it is appropriate to review the in service material and the
hospital procedure manual, it is best for the RN to accompany the LPN to perform the procedure.
19. A nurse enters the client's room and finds the client lying on the floor. Following assessment of the client, the
nurse calls the nursing supervisor and the physician to inform them of the occurrence. The nursing supervisor
instructs the nurse to complete an incident report. The nurse understands that incident reports allow the
analysis of adverse client events by:
A. Evaluating quality care and the potential risks for injury in the client
B. Determining the effectiveness of nursing interventions in relation to outcomes
C. Providing a method of reporting injuries to local, state and federal agencies
D. Providing clients with necessary stabilizing agents
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Proper documentation of unusual occurrences, incidents, and accidents, and the
nursing actions taken as a result of the occurrence are internal to the institution or agency and
allow the nurse and administration to review the quality of care and determine any potential risks
present. Incident reports are not routinely filled out for interventions, nor are they used to report
occurrences to other agencies.
20. A nurse lawyer provides an education session to the nursing staff regarding client rights. A staff nurse asks the
lawyer to describe an example that might relate to invasion of client privacy. Which of the following indicates a
violation of this right?
A. Taking photographs of the client without consent
B. Telling the client that he or she cannot leave the hospital
C. Threatening to place a client in restraints
D. Performing a surgical procedure without consent
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Invasion of privacy takes place when an individual's private affairs are unreasonably
intruded into. Telling the client that he or she cannot leave the hospital constitutes false
imprisonment. Threatening to place a client in restraints constitutes assault. Performing a surgical
procedure without consent is considered battery.
21. A nurse witnesses an automobile accident and provides care to the open wound of a young child at the scene
of the accident. The family is extremely grateful and insists that the nurse accept monetary compensation for
the care provided to the child. Because of the family's insistence, the nurse accepts the compensation to avoid
offending the family. The child subsequently develops an infection and sepsis and is hospitalized, and the family
files suit against the nurse who provided care to the child at the scene of the accident. Which of the following is
accurate regarding the nurse's immunity from this suit?
A. The Good Samaritan Law will protect the nurse
B. The Good Samaritan Law will protect the nurse if the care given at the scene was not negligent
C. The Good Samaritan Law will not provide immunity from the suit if the nurse accepted
compensation for the care provided
D. The Good Samaritan Law protects laypersons and not professional health care providers
Answer: C
RATIONALE: A Good Samaritan Law is passed by a state legislature to encourage nurses and
other health care providers to provide care to a person when an accident, emergency, or injury
occur. without fear of being sued for the care provided. Called "immunity from suit," this protection
usually applies only if all the conditions of the law are met, such as the health care provider
receives no compensation for the care provided and the care given is not willfully and wantonly
negligent.
22. A home care nurse arrives at the client's home for the scheduled home visit. The client's lawyer is present and
the client is preparing a living will. The living will require that the client's signature be witnessed, and the client
asks the nurse to witness the signature. The nurse should do which of the following?
 A. Sign the will as a witness to signature only
B. Sign the will, clearly identifying credentials and employment agency
C. Decline to sign the will
D. Call the home health care office and notify the supervisor that the will is being witnessed
Answer: C
RATIONALE: Living wills are required to be in writing and signed by the client. The client's
signature either must be witnessed by specified individuals or notarized. Many states prohibit any
employee, including a nurse of a facility where the declaring is receiving care, from being a witness.
The nurse should decline to sign the will.
23. A charge nurse observes that a staff nurse is not able to meet client needs in a reasonable time frame, does not
problem-solve situations, and does not prioritize nursing care. The charge nurse has the responsibility to
A. Supervise the staff nurse more closely so tasks are completed
B. Provide support and identify the underlying cause of the staff nurse's problems
C. Ask other. staff members to help the staff nurse get the work done
D. Report the staff nurse to the supervisor so something is done to resolve the problem
Answer: B
RATIONALE: Option B empowers the charge nurse to assist the staff nurse while trying to identify
and reduce the behaviors that make it difficult for the staff nurse to function. Options A, C and D
are punitive actions, shift the burden to other workers, and do not solve the problem.
24. A registered nurse is a preceptor for a new nursing graduate and is observing the latter organize the client
assignment and daily tasks. The registered nurse intervenes if the new nursing graduate does which of the
following?
A. Prioritizes client needs and daily tasks
B. Provides time for unexpected tasks
C. Lists the supplies needed for a task
D. Plans to document task completion at the end of the day
Answer: D
RATIONALE: The nurse should document task completion continuously throughout the day.
Options A, B and C identify accurate components of time management.
25. A registered nurse is a preceptor for a new nursing graduate and is describing critical paths and variance
analysis to the new nursing graduate. The registered nurse instructs the new nursing graduate that a variance
analysis is performed on all clients:
A. Daily during hospitalization
B. Every other day of hospitalization
C. Every third day of hospitalization
D. Continuously
Answer: D
RATIONALE: Variance analysis occurs continually as the case manager and other caregivers
monitor client outcomes against critical paths. The goal of critical paths is to anticipate and
recognize variance early so that appropriate action can be taken. A negative variance occurs when
untoward events preclude a timely discharge and the length of stay is longer than planned for a
client on a specific critical path. Options A, B and C are incorrect.
26. A nurse manager employs a leadership style in which decisions regarding the management of the nursing unit
are made without input from the staff. The type of leadership style that is implemented by this nurse manager
is:
A. Autocratic
B. Situational
C. Democratic
D. Laissez faire
Answer: A
RATIONALE: The autocratic style of leadership is task oriented and directive. The leader uses his
or her power and position in an authoritarian manner to set and implement organizational goals.
Decisions are made without input from the staff. Democratic styles best empower staff toward
excellence because this style of leadership allows nurses to provide input regarding the decision-
making process and an opportunity to grow professionally. The situational leadership style utilizes
a style depending on the situation and events. The laissez-faire style allows staff to work without
assistance, direction or supervision.
27. A hospital administration has implemented a change in the method of assignments of nurses to nursing units.
Nurses will now be required to work in other nursing departments and will not be specifically assigned to a
nursing unit. A group of registered nurses is resistant to the change, and nursing administration anticipates
that the nurses will not facilitate the process of change. Which of the following would be the best approach on
the part of administration in dealing with the resistance?
A. Ignore the resistance.
B. Exert coercion with the nurses
C. Manipulate the nurses to participate in the change
D. Confront the nurses to encourage verbalization of feelings regarding the change
Answer: D
RATIONALE: Confrontation is an important strategy to meet resistance head-on. Face-to-face
meetings to confront the issue at hand will allow verbalization of feelings, identification of problems
and issues, and the development of strategies to solve the problem. Option A will not address the
 problem. Option B may produce additional resistance. Option C may provide a temporary solution
to the resistance but will not specifically address the concern.
28. A registered nurse in charge of the nursing unit is preparing the assignments for the day. The RN assigns a
nursing to make beds and bathe one of the clients on the unit and assigns another nursing assistant to fill the
water pitchers and serve juice to all the clients. Another RN is assigned to administer all medications. Based on
the assignments designed by the RN in charge, which type of nursing care is being implemented?
A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Exemplary model of nursing
D. Primary nursing
Answer: A
RATIONALE: The functional model of care involves an assembly line approach to client care, with
major tasks being delegated J, the charge nurse to individual staff members. Team nursing -;
characterized by a high degree of communication and collaboration between nursing. The team is
generally led by a registered nurse who is responsible for assessing, developing nursing diagnoses'
planning and evaluating each client's plan of care. In an exemplary' model of team nursing, each
staff member works fully within the realm of his or her educational and clinical experience in an
effort to provide comprehensive individualized care. In primary nursing concern is with keeping
the nurse at the bedside actively involved in care, providing goal-directed and individualized client
care
29. A charge nurse knows that drug and alcohol use by nurses is a reason for the increasing numbers of disciplinary
cases by the Board of Nursing. The charge nurse understands that when dealing with a nurse with such an
illness, it is most important to assess the impaired nurse to determine the:
A. Physiologic impact of the illness on practice
B. Type of illegal activities related to the abuse
C. If falsification of client records occurred
D. Magnitude of drug diversion over time
Answer: A
RATIONALE: A nurse must be able to function at a level that does not affect the ability to provide
safe, quality care. The highest priority is to determine how the illness affects the nurse's ability to
practice. The other options will be addressed if an investigation is carried out.
30. A nurse manager is planning to implement a change in the method of the documentation system in the nursing
unit. Many problems have occurred as a result of the present documentation system, and the nurse manger
determines that a change is required. The initial step in the process of change for the nurse manager is which
of the following?
A. Plan strategies to implement the change
B. Identify potential solutions and strategies for the change process.
C. Set goals and priorities regarding the change process
D. Identify the inefficiency that needs improvement or correction
Answer: D
RATIONALE: When beginning the change process, the nurse should identify and define the
problem that needs improvement or correction. This important first step can prevent many future
problems, because if the problem is not correctly identified, a plan for change may be aimed at
the wrong problem. This is followed by goal setting, prioritizing and identifying potential solutions
and strategies to implement the change.
31. A registered nurse (RN) is planning the assignments for the day and has a licensed practical nurse (LPN) and a
nursing assistant (NA) working on the team. The nurse assigns which client to the LPN?
A. Client with dementia
B. A one-day post-operative mastectomy client
C. A client who requires some assistance with bathing
D. A client who requires some assistance with ambulation
Answer: B
RATIONALE: Assignment of tasks needs to be implemented based on the job description of the
LPN and NA, the level of education and clinical competence, and state law. The one-day post-
operative mastectomy client will need care that requires the skill of a licensed nurse. The nursing
assistant has the skills to care for a client with dementia, a client who requires some assistance
with bathing and a client who requires some assistance with ambulation.
32. The hospital where you are working is celebrating its Foundation Day. Three of the nurse supervisors were
assigned by the over - all chairman to head different committees. The principle of management is used as:
A. Delegation of responsibility
B. Chain of command
C. Unity of command
D. Chunking
Answer: A
RATIONALE: In the Delegation of responsibility subordinates gain self-esteem and increase job
satisfaction from the responsibility and authority given to them. B -Chain of command is the
formal paths of communication and authority. C - Unity of Command is best described as one
person/one boss. Employees have one manager to whom they report and to whom they are
responsible. D - Chunking is presenting independent items of information and grouping them
together into one unit. TM= word association: assigned= delegation.
33. The unit manager is meeting with the director of nursing for the unit manager's yearly performance review. The
director of nursing states that the unit manager needs to improve in leadership skills. In differentiating
leadership from management, the nurse manager recognizes that which of the following approaches will apply?
A. The manager works more one-on-one with staff
B. A leader seeks a higher position on an organizational chart
C. A manager is not required to use leadership principles
D. A good leader uses managerial principles
Answer: D
RATIONALE: A good leader can incorporate managerial theories into practice, whereas a manager
does not necessarily utilize leadership techniques. A - It is unnecessary to work one-on-one with
staff unless the need arose. Options 6 and C are false statements.
34. Which behavior would indicate that the nurse manager utilizes the democratic style of leadership?
A. Involves the members in making specific policy decision
B. Use fears and punishments in motivating the team
C. Allows specific policy decisions at her level only
D. Permits information flow in her level only
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Democratic, consultative or participative leadership allows group participation in
decision making. B, C and D pertain to autocratic style of leadership.
35. The proponent of this management theory believed that productivity will increase if workers receives proper
training and instruction, working conditions are improved and better work methods are introduced?
A. Behavioral theory
B. Bureaucratic organization theory
C. Scientific management theory
D. Needs theory
Answer: C
RATIONALE: Frederick W. Taylor, the "father of scientific management". Taylor postulated that if
workers could be taught the one best way to accomplish task "is through increase of productivity.
A - Behavioral theory - Elton Mayo, and his colleagues discovered that when management paid
special attention to workers, productivity was likely to increase, regardless of the environmental
working conditions. He also recommended more employee participation in decision making. B -
Bureaucratic organization theory - According to Max Weber, in response to what he perceived as
a need to provide more rules, regulations, and structure within organizations to increase
efficiency. D - Fayol's management theory first identified the management functions of planning,
organization, command, coordination, and control.
36. The staff nurses have their own functions to perform. One registered nurse may be responsible for giving
medications, another nurse for admission and discharges while nursing attendant change linen or do simple
procedures for which they have been trained, what kind of nursing care modality describes this?
A. Functional
B. Team
C. Case
D. Modular
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Functional is task oriented in which a particular nursing function is assigned to
each worker. B - Team nursing (Head nurse - Team leader - Staff nurse - Patient) is the delivery
of individualized nursing care to clients by a team led by a professional nurse and this team is
responsible for providing coordinated nursing care to group of clients. C - Case method - also
referred to as total care, a nurse is responsible for all the care required for a group of patients
with the same illness for 8 - 12 hours shift. D - Modular is a modification of primary (one nurse
is responsible for total care of a number of clients 24 hours a day, 7 days a week) and team
nursing. It differs from team nursing in that the registered nurse provides direct nursing care
with the assistance of aides. The professional nurse provides leadership, support and instruction
to the non-professional nursing personnel. It is similar to primary nursing in that each pair or
trio of nursing personnel is responsible for the care of patients from admission to discharge,
following discharge, and throughout any subsequent admissions to the same institution.
37. One of the patients who is scheduled for open heart surgery, the RN is responsible for the total care of the
patient for the shift she is working. What nursing care system does the patient refer to?
A. Functional
B. Team
C. Total patient care
D. Modular
Answer: C
RATIONALE: Total patient care/ Case method the nurses assume total responsibility for meeting
all the needs of assigned patients during their time on duty. A - Functional is a task oriented in
which a particular nursing function is assigned to each worker. B - Team nursing (Head nurse -
Team leader - Staff nurse - Patient) is the delivery of individualized nursing care to clients by a
team led by a professional nurse and this team is responsible for providing coordinated nursing
care to group of clients. C - Case method is also referred to as total care, a nurse is responsible
for all the care required for a group of patients with the same illness for 8 - 12 hours shift. D -
Modular is a modification of primary (one nurse is responsible for total care of a number of clients
 24 hours a day, 7 days a week) and team nursing. It differs from team nursing in that the
registered nurse provides direct nursing care with the assistance of aides. The professional nurse
provides leadership, support and instruction to the non-professional nursing personnel. It is
similar to primary nursing in that each pair or trio of nursing personnel is responsible for the
care of patients from admission to discharge, following discharge, and throughout any subsequent
admissions to the same institution.
38. The nurse in this modality communicates directly to any member of the health team within the hospital and
the community. Authority, accountability and autonomy rest with the nurse in this modality, wherein the nurse
is the primary provider of care.
A. Primary
B. Functional
C. Total patient care
D. Team
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Primary - Authority, accountability and autonomy rests with the primary nurse
since she will assume a 24-hour responsibility for the nursing care. The advantage of primary
nursing includes provision of increase autonomy on the part of the nurse thereby increasing
motivation, responsibility and accountability. B -Functional is task oriented in which a particular
nursing function is assigned to each worker. C - Total patient care is when nurses assume total
responsibility for meeting all the needs of assigned patients during their time on duty. D - Team
nursing (Head nurse - Team leader - Staff nurse - Patient).
39. In this nursing care modality, all members are involved in planning the patients' care through team conferences
and written nursing care plans.
A. Functional
B. Case
C. Team
D. Modular
Answer: C
RATIONALE: Team is when the different personnel collaborate in providing care to a group of
patients under the direction of a professional nurse. The key words are “all members and team
conferences”. A - Functional is task oriented in which a particular nursing function is assigned
to each worker. B - Case is when nurses assume total responsibility for meeting all the needs of
assigned patients during their time on duty. D Modular is a modification of primary (one nurse is
responsible for total care of number of clients 24 hours a day, 7 days a week) and team nursing
It differs from team nursing in that the registered nurse provide; direct nursing care with the
assistance of aides. The professional nurse provides leadership, support and instruction to the
non-professional nursing personnel. It is similar to primary nursing in that each pair or trio of
nursing personnel is responsible. For the care of patients from admission to discharge, following
discharge and throughout any subsequent admissions to the same institution.
40. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the team nursing as a modality of care?
A. It consists of registered nurses, LPNs, nursing aides and caregivers
B. It is led by the physician
C. The team is responsible for providing coordinated nursing care to a group of clients
D. The registered nurse retains responsibility for client care but delegates appropriate tasks to other
team members
Answer: B
RATIONALE: It is led by a professional nurse and not a physician nor a non-nurse personnel. A,
C & D are correct characteristic for team nursing.
41. The head nurse informs the staff of an emergency in a nearby mall and she requires. them to stay at the hospital
to prepare for major casualties. The staffs react with great anxiety and disorganization. In this case, a leadership
style that will most likely be effective is:
A. Authoritarian
B. Democratic
C. Participative
D. Consultative
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Authoritarian. The situation needs control and direction of the staff. This can
effectively be managed using a firm authority in giving direction. This is the most effective
leadership in crisis situation. B - Democratic leadership’s style demands that the leader have faith
in the group members because they are capable and competent in making decision. The leader
acts as a facilitator. B. C & D are all the same.
42. Nurses are responsible for accurate documentation and completeness of the patients' charts, including their
safety and confidentiality. Who has the responsibility to release any information about the patient?
A. Nurse
B. Doctors
C. Medical records officer
D. No one is allowed to release any information
Answer: C
RATIONALE: Nurses nor the doctors are not allowed to release any information about the patient.
It is the responsibility of the medical records officer/ librarian.
43. After one month, Miss Jane was evaluated by her supervisors and was found out to have obtained 90%
attainment of her goals and targets. When asked about her management style, she answered, "None in
particular, I just use what is ideal with the situation as it arises ". This implies that she is leading by:
A. Objectives
B. Consultation
C. Situational
D. Laissez faire
Answer: C
RATIONALE: In thus theory the leader behaves according to a given situation which may vary
from one setting to another. A- Objectives explicit, measurable, observable or retrievable, and
obtainable measures that detail how and when goals are to be accomplished B - Consultation is
a discussion aimed at ascertaining opinions or reaching an agreement. D - Laissez faire leadership
style characterized by minimal control, motivation occurring rarely and only when requested by
group, little direction, interactive communication.
44. Which of the following would be the best method to prepare for future professional practice?
A. Taking additional courses in the use of computers
B. Understanding and exploring the issues involved in professionalism as nurses.
C. Accepting the fact that nursing is a profession
D. Cross training with other health care providers such as physical therapists, laboratory
technicians, and radiology technicians.
Answer: B
RATIONALE: a.) computer knowledge is not the best preparation c. mere acceptance is not
enough preparation, 'a nurse must be able to understand and explore the responsibilities and
issues for his/her profession to be able to render properly what he/she is ought to do; d. not
necessary, as long as you know your responsibilities as a nurse.
45. Data recorded, reported, or communicated to other health care professionals are:
A. Public knowledge protected
B. Available to all ancillary agencies
C. Confidential and must be protected
D. Available to all interested parties
Answer: C
RATIONALE: All information pertaining to a client's health care management that is gathered by
examination, observation' conversation, or treatment is confidential.

46. There are certain principles upon which effective quality assurance programs are based. Performance evaluation
focuses on?
A. Workers
B. Managers
C. Leaders
D. Employers
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Performance evaluation focuses on the worker. It asks questions about how well
the worker satisfies the requirements of his or job within the organization.
47. A nurse is observing a nursing assistant talking to the client whose hearing is
impaired. The nurse would intervene if which of the following were performed
by the nursing assistant during the communication with the client?
A. The nursing assistant is facing the client when speaking
B. The nursing assistant is speaking clearly to the patient
C. The nursing assistant is speaking directly into the impaired ear
D. The nursing assistant is speaking in a normal tone
Answer: C
RATIONALE: Note the key words "the nurse would intervene." These words indicate a false-
response question and that you need to select the incorrect action by the nursing assistant.
Knowledge regarding effective communication techniques for the hearing-impaired client will
direct you to option C.
48. When the nurse interacts with a client from a different cultural background, which technique would provide
culturally-sensitive care?
A. Use of challenging statements
B. Use of therapeutic silence
C. Use of therapeutic touch
D. Validation of communication
Answer: D
RATIONALE: Frequent validation is the key in preventing cultural misunderstanding when the
nurse and client have different background.
49. Information gathered by the nurse during the course of caring for the patient should be treated confidential.
Confidential information may be revealed in the following situations, except?
A. The patient is ill of communicable disease and public safety may be jeopardized
B. The case is medico-legal such as attempted suicide
C. The family wants to see it
D. The patient permits such revelation
 Answer: C
RATIONALE: Confidential information may be revealed only when: the patient permits such
revelation, the case is medico-legal such as attempted suicide, gunshot wounds which have to be
reported to the local police or NBI, the patient is ill with communicable disease and public safety
maybe jeopardized, given to members of the health team if information is relevant to his care.
50. The following are the nurses' bill of rights, which one is not included?
A. Nurses have the right to fair compensation
B. Nurses have the right to a work environment that is safe
C. Nurses have the right to a work environment that supports and facilitates ethical practice
D. Nurses have the right to discontinue medications without contacting the physician
Answer: D
RATIONALE: To maximize the contributions nurses make to society, it is necessary to protect the
dignity and autonomy of nurses in the workplace. The following are the nurses' bill of rights. nurses
have the right to: fair compensation, a work environment that is safe, a work environment that
supports and facilitates ethical practice, freely and openly advocate for themselves and their
patients, practice in environments that allow them to act in accordance with professional
standards, negotiate the condition of their employment and to practice in a manner that fulfils
their obligations to society.
51. Republic Act 7160 transfers responsibility for delivery of basic services and facilities of the national government
to local government units. This is otherwise known as?
A. Local Government Code
B. National Government Code
C. Employee Compensation and State Insurance Fund
D. Magna Carta for public health workers.
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Local Government Code involves devolution of powers, functions and responsibilities
to the local government both provincial and municipal. C- PD 626, D- RA 7305.
52. RA 7305 or the "Magna Carta for Public Health Workers" has the following significant objectives, which one is
NOT included?
A. To promote and improve the social and economic well-being of health workers
B. To develop the skills and capabilities of the health workers
C. To uphold a time-honored principle that public office is a public trust
D. To encourage those qualified workers to remain in government service
Answer: C
RATIONALE: This option is the objective of RA 6713 (Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for
Public Officials and Employees). A, B and D are the significant objectives of RA 7160.
53. This is an autonomous practice requiring independent decisions and creative solutions to complex occupational
and environmental health and safety problems:
A. Occupational health nursing
B. School nursing
C. Occupational health nurse
D. School nurse
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Occupational health nursing focuses on the preservation and restoration of the
health workers and working population. B - School nursing focuses on the promotion of health
and wellness of the pupils, teaching and non-teaching personnel of the schools. C & D are nurses.
The question is indicating a practice not a person.
54. Which of the following is correct in giving health teaching in the 0B ward?
A. Health teaching is given when the condition warrants
B. It should be done only when the patient asks
C. Giving health teaching is not the function of the nurse
D. Health teaching are given only when the patient is ready for discharge
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Health teaching is not done only when the pat„ asks, it is a traditional function of
the nurse, not only When the patient is ready for discharge.
55. The nurse manager who wishes to empower the nurse on the unit recognizes that strategies must be found to
promote their leadership ability. Which of the following supports the nurse manager's knowledge of leadership?
A. Leadership qualities are demonstrated by those in formal and informal management positions
B. Nurses at all levels of the organizational chart are not responsible for leadership traits
C. Leadership characteristic are not measurable on performance appraisals.
D. Only top- level managers have the vision and integrity to demonstrate leadership.
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Leadership qualities and an ability to influence others, to achieve goals can be
exhibited by any employee in organization. Individuals with good management skills may not
demonstrate leadership ability.
56. Nurse Marco signed a three-year contract with Manila Medical Center but later on, he did not comply with the
terms and conditions as agreed upon due to an attractive overseas employment in New York. He can be charged
of:
A. Breech of trust and confidence
B. Breech of Privileged communication
 C. Breech of contract
D. Breech of Medical Neutrality
Answer: C
RATIONALE: Failure to perform an agreement, whether expressed or implied, without cause is
BREACH OF CONTRACT. A. B. and D are incorrect option.
57. In order to establish good working relations with the doctor, the nurse must do which of the following actions?
A. Since the doctor is the leader of the health team, all of his orders must be followed no matter what
B. Follow the doctors' legitimate order
C. Follow all the doctors' order regardless of the scope of nursing practice
D. You will disregard the order but you will remain silent about it
Answer: B
RATIONALE: A- if the order is wrong, question, C- may cause you to be guilty of malpractice, D- it
is not ethical to disregard a legitimate order.
58. The patient's medical record can work as a double-edged sword. When can the medical record become the
doctor's / nurse's worst enemy?
A. When the record is voluminous
B. When a medical record is subpoenaed in court
C. When the record is accurate, complete and adequate
D. When the medical record is inaccurate, incomplete and inadequate
Answer: D
RATIONALE: Look for the most negative answer, the option that can get the doctor or nurse into
trouble is when recording, which is a function of the doctor and nurse is not accomplished
accurately and completely.
59. When a defect in the equipment such as stretchers and wheelchairs may lead tb falls thus injuring the patient.
This is a good example of?
A. Negligence
B. Malpractice
C. Master-servant rule
D. Respondeat superior
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Negligence is the failure to act as an ordinary prudent person, or action contrary to
what a reasonable person would have done. B - Malpractice is used properly only when it refers to
a negligent act committed in the course of professional performance. C & D are the same -
Respondeat Superior the master is answerable for its subordinates.
60. You are preparing to go to work when suddenly, there's a major earthquake. You failed to go to work but you
are not liable for it. What doctrine was applied?
E. Res Ipsa loquitor
F. The thing speaks for itself
G. Force majeure
H. Incompetence
Answer: C
RATIONALE: Force majeure means an irresistible force. Under the Civil Code of the Philippines, no
person shall be responsible for those events which cannot be foreseen, except in cases expressly
specified by law.
61. A stroke patient suffered an accidental fall because the nurse was unable to put the side rails up. The injury
sustained by the patient is sufficient evidence of negligence using the doctrine of?
E. Force Majeure
F. Res Ipsa Loquitor
G. Respondeat Superior
H. Master- servant rule
Answer: B
RATIONALE: Res Ipsa Loquitor "The thing speaks for itself'. A doctrine law applicable to cases
where the defendant has exclusive control of the things which caused the harm and where the harm
ordinarily could not have occurred without negligent conduct. A - Force Majeure "means an
irresistible force, one that is unforeseen or inevitable. Ex. Floods, fire, earthquake and accidents
fall under this doctrin and nurses who fail to render service during these circumstances are not
held negligent. C & D are the same - Respondeat superior "Let the master answer for the acts of the
subordinate".
62. The following are the Fundamental Requirements of Due of Process. Which one is not included?
E. The right to meet the witness face to face
F. The right against the use of force, violence, threat, intimidation or any other means which vitiates
the free will.
G. The accused is presumed innocent until the contrary is proved
H. It is used to, produce harmony and gain social credits that can be used later.
Answer: D
RATIONALE: Option D is Accommodation. Option A, B & C are all fundamental requirement of due
process.
63. A nurse who is employed in a community hospital as a unit manager determines that the position of authority
in this situation most appropriately describe to:
E. Being responsible for what the staff members do
 F. Carrying the legal responsibilities for the task performance of others
G. The official power to approve an action, command an action, or to see that a decision is enforced
H. Accepting the responsibility for the actions of others
Answer: C
RATIONALE: The official power to approve an action, command an action, or to see that a decision
is enforced. Use the process of elimination and knowledge regarding the description of a position of
authority.
64. This leadership theory was developed to describe the way that leaders encourage and support their followers in
achieving the goals they have set by making the path that they should take clear and easy. This theory is called:
E. Trait theory
F. Situational theory
G. Path-goal theory
H. Contingency theory
Answer: C
RATIONALE: Path-goal theory. The key words: "goals and making the path." A - Trait theory says
a leader is born with inherited qualities. B - Situational, as compared to contingency, focuses more
on the behaviors of the leader in various situational factors. D - Contingency theory, it states that
the leader's ability is contingent upon various factors such as capabilities, behaviors and styles.
65. The Philippine Nurses Association is one of the nursing associations in the Philippines. It was established on?
A. October 22, 1922
B. October 16, 1922
C. November 19, 1922
D. November 22, 1922
Answer: A
RATIONALE: The Philippine Nurses Association was organized on October 22, 1922 upon the
initiation of Mrs. Anastacia Giron Tupas. The first president was Mrs. Rosario Delgado. The first
male president was Dean Marco Antonio Sto. Tomas. B, C, & D are destructor.
66. Which of the following is a trend in society that affects communication?
A. Decreasing interest in technology
B. Increasing diversity among the people
C. Decreasing in diversity among people
D. Decreasing need for writing skills
Answer: B
RATIONALE: Principles of communication allow nurses to adapt to trends such as increasing
diversity, an aging population, and computer technology, that affect the profession of nursing and
its practice.
67. All of the following are general time management techniques except:
A. Allowing distractions.
B. Outcome orientation.
C. Time analysis.
D. Focus on priorities.
Answer: A
RATIONALE: If you allow distractions, you will not finish your work on the specific time given. All
the other options are time management techniques.
68. What tool could be used to track a change in process overtime?
A. Balance scoreboard
B. Root cause diagram
C. Time series chart
D. Pie chart
Answer: C
RATIONALE: To see change in quality overtime. A- to ensure value in care, measurement of
progress has to be balanced. B- cause-effect diagram/ fishbone diagram.
69. If a nurse has a difficulty completing nursing duties on schedule, a transcultural phenomenon to be considered
is:
A. Biological variations
B. Time
C. Space
D. Social organization
Answer: B
RATIONALE: A nurse delegator should always be aware of duties to be completed and their deadline
so that appropriate personnel can achieve their responsibilities in a timely fashion. A-
Biopsychological differences between racial and ethnic groups. Example of which include
physiological differences. physical stamina, and susceptibility to disease. C- Physical closeness. 0-
Social support in a person's life varies from support in one's own family to support from collegial
relationships with the staff.
70. The five levels of a clinical promotion ladder built on Benner's theoretical framework include all of the following
except:
A. Proficient
B. Competent
C. Orientee
 D. Expert
Answer: C
RATIONALE: The five stages of Benner include: novice, advanced beginner, competent, proficient,
and expert.
71. Case management, patient-focused care, and are accountability-based nursing care delivery systems.
A. Functional nursing
B. Team nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Case finding
Answer: C
RATIONALE: One nurse is accountable for the care a patient receives during a given episode of
care. Accountability-based nursing care delivery systems include primary nursing, patient-focused
care, and case management.
72. Outcome of unit quality improvement programs can be succinctly displayed using the Quality Compass. In
developing a unit-based Quality Compass, all the following areas are usually considered EXCEPT:
A. Patient satisfaction
B. Cost
C. Administrative satisfaction.
D. Clinical outcomes.
Answer: C
RATIONALE: The Quality compass measures quality from four domains: functional status, clinical
outcomes, cost and utilization, and patient satisfaction.
73. A new unit nurse manager is holding her first staff meeting. The manager greets the staff and comment that
she has been employed to bring about performance improvement. The manager provides a plan that she
developed, as well as a list of tasks and activities for which each staff member must volunteer to perform. In
addition, she instructs staff members to report any problem directly to her. What type of leadership style does
the new manager' characteristics suggest?
A. Autocratic
B. Situational
C. Democratic
D. Laissez-faire
Answer: A
RATIONALE: The autocratic leader is focused, maintains strong control, makes decisions, and
addresses all problems Furthermore, the autocrat dominates the group and command rather than
seeks suggestions or input. A situational leader will use a combination of styles, depending on the
needs of the group and the task to be achieved. The situational leader would work with the group
to validate that the information that the leader gained as a new employee was accurate and that
the problem existed, and would then take the time to get to know the group and determine which
approach to change (if needed) would work best according to the needs of the group and the nature
and substance of the change that was required. A democratic leader is participative and would
likely meet with each staff person individually to determine the staff member's perception of the
problem. A laissez-faire leader is passive and non-directive.
74. A nurse is giving a report to a nursing assistant who will be caring for a client who has hand restraints. The
nurse instructs the nursing assistant to assess the skin integrity of the restrained hands every:
A. 2 hours
B. 3 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 30 minutes
Answer: D
RATIONALE: The nurse should instruct the nursing assistant to assess restraints and skin integrity
every 30 minutes. Agency guidelines regarding the use of restraints should always be followed.
75. A person who learns best when teaching involves movement and tactile experience demonstrates which learning
style?
A. Visual
B. Auditory
C. Kinesthetic
D. Activist
Answer: C
RATIONALE: A kinesthetic learner learns best when they touch and move. A- A visual learner learns
best when they see; prefer graphic images and written text; B- An auditory learner learns best when
they hear and say; A, B, Ce are all under the Rose's visual-auditory-kinesthetic (VAK) model of
learning. D- Activist- Sensing/feeling: perceive information in concrete rather than theoretical ways;
peer-oriented, social; Doing= looking for practical, physical application of learning.
76. Which learning domain involves changes in the learner's feelings and beliefs?
A. Cognitive
B. Psychomotor
C. Affective
D. Reflective
Answer: C
 RATIONALE: Affective domain is centered on attitude, or what the learner feels/believes. A-
Cognitive is centered on knowledge, or what the learner knows. B- psychomotor domain is centered
on skill, or what the learner does. D- none- there are only 3 learning domains: affective, cognitive,
and psychomotor.
77. According to Gardner's multiple intelligence, a person who prefers activities that involve listening, speaking,
writing has what type of intelligence:
A. Naturalist
B. Bodily/ kinesthetic
C. Linguistic
D. Spatial
Answer: C
RATIONALE: Linguistic/ verbal learners responds to rhythms and patterns of words, whether
written or oral. A- Naturalist- responds to intricacies and subtleties of patterns and relationships in
nature. B- Responds to physical movement and activity (sports, dancing). D- Responds to two- and
three- dimensional visual representations.
78. According to Myers-Briggs personality dichotomies, a sensing person rely on senses, detail oriented, prefer facts;
prefer linear, structured representation while another person in contrast to the sensing one seeks patterns and
relationships in information; rely on hunches; learn by discovery, prefer big picture or framework. What
personality of the person is described?
A. Extroversion
B. Intuition
C. Thinking
D. Feeling
Answer: B
RATIONALE: sensing vs. intuition. Myers-Briggs personality dichotomies are as follows: extroversion
vs. introversion, sensing vs. intuition, thinking vs. feeling, judging vs. perceiving.
79. A behavioral objective states a specific and measurable behavior that should result from teaching session. Which
of this is NOT a component of a behavioral objective?
A. Audience
B. Barrier
C. Condition
D. Degree
Answer: B
RATIONALE: The three elements under the behavioral objective are: audience, performance, degree.
There is a fourth and optional component of an objective which is the condition which indicates any
restrictions or specific requirements involved in performing the behavior. A- The person who
performs the behavior is the audience. C- Condition which indicates any restrictions or specific
requirements involved in performing the behavior. D- The degree identifies how well the behavior is
performed. The other one is performance which is the essential component of the behavioral
objective, specifically one that can be observed and measured.
80. Nurse Marco signed a three-year contract with Manila Medical Center but later on, he did not comply with the
terms and conditions as agreed upon due to an attractive overseas employment in New York. He can be charged
of:
E. Breech of trust and confidence
F. Breech of Privileged communication
G. Breech of contract
H. Breech of Medical Neutrality
Answer: C
RATIONALE: Failure to perform an agreement, whether expressed or implied, without cause is
BREACH OF CONTRACT. A. B. and D are incorrect option.
81. There are essential methods of conflict resolution. These methods dictate the outcomes of the conflict process.
What is the most desirable conflict resolution technique?
A. Avoiding
B. Competing
C. Negotiating
D. Collaborating
Answer: D
RATIONALE: Collaborating- both sides work together to develop optimal outcome. A- Avoiding is
ignoring the conflict. B- Competing is forcing; the two or three sides are forced to compete for the
goal. C- Negotiating is high-level discussion that seeks agreement but not necessarily consensus.
82. What is the most common source of conflict in today's health care organization?
A. Goal
B. Values
C. Resource allocation disputes
D. Competition
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Conflict comes from many sources, including value differences, fear and goal
disagreement.
83. The change agent and the person responsible for conflict resolution have what characteristic in common?
A. Secretive and willful
 B. Trustworthy and a good communicator
C. Ambitious and avoiding
D. Powerful and dictatorial
Answer: B
RATIONALE: The change agent is one who is responsible for implementation of a change project.
The roles and characteristics of a change agent include: leader of change process, manages process
and group experiencing the change, maintains momentum and enthusiasm, maintains vision of
change, and communicates change, progress and feelings, knowledgeable about the organization,
trustworthy, respected, and intuitive.
84. It flows from the purpose or mission statement and delineates the set of values and beliefs that guide all actions
of the organization.
A. Philosophy
B. Goal
C. Objective
D. Mission
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Philosophy is the basic foundation that directs all further planning towards that
mission. A statement of philosophy can usually be found in policy manuals at the institution. B -
Goal pertains to the desired result toward which effort is directed. C-Objective identifies how and
when the goal is to be accomplished. D - Mission identifies the reason an organization exists.
85. In the management process, what is the first step that an RN should do?
A. Organizing
B. Directing
C. Planning
D. Controlling
Answer: C
RATIONALE: The proper step is PODC, Planning, Organizing, Directing, and Controlling
86. Nurse Manager Janna looks ahead to the future and develops the "Comprehensive Maternity Services Program"
through setting objectives and implementing arrangement and systems. This exemplifies nurse - management
function of:
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Controlling
D. Staffing
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Planning has a specific purpose and is one approach to strategy making. Planning
represents specific activities that lead to achievement of objectives; therefore, planning is purposeful
and proactive. B - Organizing is second phase of the management process; in this phase,
relationships are defined, procedures are outlined, equipment is readied and tasks are assigned. C
-Controlling is the final phase of the management process, in this phase; performance is measured
against predetermined standards and action is taken to correct discrepancies between these
standards and actual performance. D - Staffing is the third phase of the management process; in
this phase, the manager recruits, selects, orients, and promotes personnel development to
accomplish the goals of the organization.
87. When the plan is already carried out, Nurse Tyra decided to put the organized plan into action, which of the
following process of management describes this?
A. Organizing
B. Directing
C. Planning
D. Controlling
Answer: B
RATIONALE: Directing. A - Organizing is carrying out the plan. C- Planning is the first part of the
process, which YOU will advance. D - Controlling is regulating and evaluating activities as compared
to plans.
88. Planning begins with the first client contact and continues until the nurse-client relationship ends. The nurse
who perform the admission assessment usually develops what type of planning:
A. Initial planning
B. Ongoing planning
C. Pre-initial planning
D. Discharge planning
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Initial planning. Options A, B and D are all done by the nurses during the initial nurse-
patient contact. However, nurse who performs the admission assessment is particularly performing
the initial assessment. B - Ongoing planning is done when the nurse who implements the initial care
evaluates the client and continues to plan for the patient. D - Discharge planning is the plan of care
for clients who are about to be discharged. This steps upon admission of the client. C - There is no
pre-initial planning.
89. A formal nursing care plan is a written or computerized that organizes information about the client's care. A
type of this plan which is tailored to meet the unique needs of a specific client is?
A. Individualized care plan
 B. Standardized care plan
C. Formal nursing care plan
D. Nursing care plan
Answer: A
RATIONALE: Individualized care plan. The key words are "of specific clients." B - Standardized care
plan is a formal plan that specifies the nursing care for group of clients. C - Formal nursing care
plan a written or computerized that organizes information about the client's care. D - Nursing care
plan is the plan of care for the client.
90. Research study: "Mastectomy patients are studied from operation to three years after discharge." What kind of
sampling will be used for this study?
A. Cross Sectional
B. Retrospective
C. Systematic
D. Prospective
Answer: D
RATIONALE: (future) cause - to - effect. A -Cross sectional sampling when the subjects are observed
at only one point in time. B. Retrospective is when the present dependent variable is link to the
presumed cause (in the past) (effect to cause). C - Systematic is consists of taking the nth person.
91. The main contribution of research to the improvement of the nursing profession is which of the following?
A. Provides a theoretical/ scientific basis for nursing care
B. Assist the nurse administrator in planning nursing staff requirements
C. Assist the faculty in developing the nursing curriculum
D. Facilitate the development of staff development program
Answer: A
RATIONALE: The general purpose of nursing research is to answer questions or solve problems of
relevance to the nursing profession. All the other options are incorporated in option A.
92. Because of time constraint and limited funds, delimitations of a research study are acceptable. Which one is
NOT a consideration in limiting a research study?
A. Religion and education attainment
B. Geographical location or level of students
C. Age and sex of the respondents
D. Novelty of the problem
Answer: D
RATIONALE: The novelty of the problem should not be made the basis in limiting the research study.
All the other options are considered in limiting the study.
93. Which of the following is the LEAST possible reason for doing research:
A. To improve nursing care
B. To contribute in the formulation of body knowledge in nursing
C. To discover answers or solutions to bugging questions or problems
D. To get funding from the international organization
Answer: D
RATIONALE: Profit and financial gain should not be the primary purpose in conducting a research.
A basic research is undertaken to extend the base of knowledge in a discipline, or to formulate or
refine a theory. Applied research focuses on finding solutions to existing problems.
94. The correct sequence or steps in doing a quantitative research is:
1. Formulate problem information
2. review literature information
3. analyze data
4. determine research design
A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,3,4,2
C. 1,3,2,4
D. 1,2,4,3
Answer: D
RATIONALE: The major steps in a quantitative study are: The conceptual phase under which is the
formulation and delimitation of the problem, and doing RRL; The design and planning phase comes
next under which is the selection of a research design:
is the Empirical phase; 4th is the Analytic phase; lastly, dissemination phase.
95. Patients who undergo breast augmentation are studied from operation to three years after discharge, what is
the appropriate research design for this study?
A. Experimental
B. Longitudinal
C. Cross-sectional
D. Survey
Answer: B
RATIONALE: A study designed to collect data at more than one point in time, in contrast lo cross-
sectional study. A Experimental-research study In which the Investigator controls (manipulates) the
Independent variable and randomly assigns subjects to different conditions. D- Survey- non -
experimental research in which information regarding the activities, beliefs, preferences, and attitudes
of people is gathered via direct questioning.
96. What is the ideal study to know the public opinion on a matter?
A. Case Study
B. Trend Study
C. Survey
D. Content Analysis
Answer: C
RATIONALE: This Is a type of descriptive study in which data are gathered from a relatively large
number of cases at a particular time. A- Case study is a research method involving a thorough, in-
depth analysis of an individual, group, institution, or other social unit. B-Trend study a longitudinal
study in which different samples from a population are studied over time with respect to some
phenomenon. D-Content analysis is the process of organizing and integrating narrative, qualitative
information according to emerging themes and concepts.
97. A research is entitled: "Lived experiences of male sexual workers in Davao City". What is the appropriate design
for this study?
A. Phenomenology
B. Ethnography
C. Descriptive
D. Historical
Answer: A
RATIONALE: This is a qualitative research that focuses on the lived experiences of humans. B-
Ethnography- study of cultural behaviors, C- Descriptive- study wherein data are collected to define
or describe a group or phenomena. D- Historical- data collected from records and artifacts that have
special contemporary meaning.
98. A researcher wants to study the health practices of adult Filipino women in Thailand. What is the appropriate
design for the study?
A. Feasibility
B. Correlational
C. Descriptive
D. Ethnography
Answer: D
RATIONALE: This study the culture of a social or ethnic group. In the situation, the specific area to
be studied is health practices. A-Feasibility study - a small scale test to determine the feasibility of a
larger study. B- A relationship between 2 variables. C- study wherein data are collected to define or
describe a group or phenomena.
99. If you computed particular scores by subtracting the highest score, which is 70 from the lowest, which is 50
the result is 20, what parameter did you use?
A. Range
B. Standard Deviation
C. Mode
D. Percentile
Answer: A
RATIONALE: It is computed by subtracting the highest score from the lowest score in a set of scores.
B-Standard Deviation is the most frequently used statistic or measuring the degree of variability in a
set of scores. C- Mode is a descriptive statistic that is a measure of central tendency; the score or
value that occurs most frequently in a distribution of scores. D- Percentile is a term that refers to
dividing a distribution into units from 1-100. For example, a person ranking at the 25th percentile
means 24% were below and 75% were above.
100. Which of the following characteristics do NOT described scientific investigation?
A. Empirical data are gathered directly or indirectly through human senses
B. It is planned and conducted in a systematic and orderly manner
C. External factor which may influence the relationship among phenomena are not necessarily
controlled
D. They are conducted to test or develop theories and study advanced knowledge
Answer: C
RATIONALE: The researcher uses, to the extent possible, mechanisms designed to control the study,
which involves imposing conditions on the research situation so that biases are minimized and
precision and validity are maximized.