PHINMA Araullo University

(BIO 024 – Biochemistry)

3d PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
NAME: __________________________________________ DATE:__________________ SCORE:________

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions
2. Write your answer/s for each question on your answer sheet.
3. NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

9. Which of the following urine odors could indicate a

1. What is the normal color range for freshly voided bacterial infection?
urine? A. Fruity or sweet
A. Dark red to black B. Foul or ammonia-like
B. Light yellow to amber C. Floral
C. Greenish to blue D. No odor
D. Pink to orange
10. What might cause urine to have a milky or foamy
2. Which urine characteristic is commonly evaluated by appearance?
its appearance in terms of clarity? A. Ketones
A. pH level B. Mucus or lipids
B. Odor C. Dehydration
C. Specific gravity D. High urobilinogen
D. Turbidity (cloudiness)
11. A pale or colorless urine may indicate which of the
3. Which of the following may cause a fruity or sweet following?
odor in urine? A. Dehydration
A. Dehydration B. High concentration of solutes
B. Bacterial infection C. Overhydration or diluted urine
C. Ketones in the urine D. Hematuria
D. Increased specific gravity
12. What specific gravity level would you expect in a
4. What is the typical specific gravity range for normal well-hydrated individual?
urine? A. 1.005 to 1.010
A. 1.001 to 1.005 B. 1.015 to 1.020
B. 1.010 to 1.025 C. 1.030 to 1.040
C. 1.030 to 1.040 D. 1.000
D. 1.045 to 1.055
13. What characteristic of urine is likely affected by the
5. Which urine color might indicate the presence of blood consumption of certain foods like asparagus or garlic?
or hemoglobin? A. Specific gravity
A. Bright yellow B. Clarity
B. Dark red or brown C. Odor
C. Clear or colorless D. Color
D. Light amber
14. What physical characteristic is commonly altered in
6. Which of the following urine characteristics is NOT urine samples left standing for too long without
typically part of a physical analysis? refrigeration?
A. Color A. Color only
B. Clarity B. Specific gravity only
C. pH C. Both clarity and odor
D. Odor D. Only pH

7. What term describes urine that is cloudy due to the 15. Which of the following conditions might cause urine
presence of pus, mucus, or bacteria? to have a strong ammonia-like odor?
A. Hematuria A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Pyuria B. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
C. Dysuria C. Dehydration
D. Proteinuria D. Hematuria

8. Which of the following could cause urine to appear 16. Which of the following hormone is released by
pink or reddish? posterior pituitary gland?
A. High levels of protein a. Prolactin
B. Presence of bile b. Cortisol
C. Consumption of beets or certain medications c. Anti diuretic hormone
D. High specific gravity d. Aldosterone
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17. Which of the following is not an example of steroid 27. A condition in which the number of RBCs or the
hormones? amount of hemoglobin is below normal.
a. Estrogen a. Myeloma
b. Thyroxine b. Hematuria
c. Cortisol c. Leukemia
d. Aldosterone d. Anemia

18. Which of the following does not belong to the 28.What is the normal pH value of urine?
water-soluble hormones? a. 3.5 – 7.5
A. Amine hormones b. 5.5 – 8.5
B. Protein hormones c. 2. 5 – 6.5
C. Peptide d. 4.5 – 9.5
D. Calcitriol
29.Pigments that are responsible for the yellow color of
19. Which of the following cell types of Pancreatic Islets urine.
secrete somatostatin? a. Urochrome
a. Alpha cells b. Urobilin
b. Beta cells c. Ochre
c. Delta cells d. Both a and b
d. F cells
30. A condition in which kidneys are producing less than
20. Which of the following cell types of Pancreatic Islets 100ml of urine per day.
secrete insulin? a. Oliguria
a. Alpha cells b. Polyuria
b. Beta cells c. Anuria
c. Delta cells d. Ketonuria
d. F cells
31. Which of the following is most numerous leukocytes?
21. Which of the following does not secrete by the a. Lymphocyte
ovaries? b. Basophil
a. Human chorionic gonadotropin c. Neutrophil
b. Progesterone d. Eosinophil
c. Estrogen
d. Parathormone 32. How many liters of blood does a healthy adult female
has?
22. Hormone that regulates homeostasis of Potassium a. 1 – 2 Liters
and Sodium. b. 4 – 5 Liters
a.. Aldosterone c. 3 – 4 Liters
b. Triiodothyronine d. 5 – 6 Liters
c. Cortisol
d. Thyroxine 33. Which of the following is the most abundant
substance in blood?
23. Which of the following hormones increases the a. Platelet
flexibility of pubic symphysis during pregnancy and helps b. WBCs
dilate the uterine cervix during labor and delivdry? c. Plasma
a. Human somatomammotropin d. RBCs
b. Estrogen
c. Relaxin 34. What is the other term for Erythrocyte?
d. Human chorionic gonadotropin a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
24. Which of the following cell types of Pancreatic Islets c. Plasma
secrete pancreatic polypeptide? d. Platelet
a. Alpha cells
b. Beta Cells 35. uWhat is the end product of purine metabolism?
c. Delta cells a. Creatinine
d. F cells b. Sulfate
c. Urea
25. What is the normal temperature of blood? d. Uric Acid
a. 38°C
b. 37.5°C 36. It is the most important animal steroid from which
c. 36.5°C other steroid compounds are formed.
d. 37°C A. Lipids
B. Waxes
26. Which of the following granular leukocytes produce C. Cholesterol
toxic proteins against certain parasites such as D. Fixed oilsb
Helminths?
a. Basophil 37. They carry triglycerols (endogenous triglycerols)
b. Eosinophil from liver to peripheral tissues for energy needs.
c. Plasma A. IDL
d. Neutrophil B. VLDL
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 C. HDL C. Look for “low-fat” claims
D. Chylomicrons D. Look for “made with 100% olive oil”

38. They are the transport form of dietary triglycerides 47. Which of the following fats is considered to be the
from intestines to the adipose tissue for storage, and to least unhealthy?
muscle or heart for their energy needs. A. Saturated fat
A. LDL B. Unsaturated fat
B. VLDL C. Hydrogenated fat
C. HDL D. Coconut oil
D. Chylomicrons
48. The phase of digestion which is also known as the
39. It is also known as “good cholesterol” because it is Cephalic Phase, is relatively brief, and takes place
the main form of cholesterol from peripheral tissue to before food enters the stomach.
liver, which is later excreted through bile. A. Gastric digestion
A. IDL B. Salivary digestion
B. VLDL C. Reflex phase
C. HDL D. Both B and D
D. Chylomicrons
49. The component of saliva which is secreted by acinar
40. Decreased production of bile salts can lead to cells of all three major salivary glands.
complications such as: (SATA) A. Mucus
A. Weight gain B. Kallikrein
B. Stomach cramps C. Lysozyme
C. Erratic bowel movements D. Water
D. Bad smelling gas
50. The chief purpose of this phase of digestion is to
41. A disease caused by narrowing and hardening of the break down proteins with the combined action of HCl
blood vessels due to the accumulation of plaques on the and enzymes.
walls of the artery, which are mainly composed of fatty A. Gastric digestion
substances that narrows the lumen of the arteries. B. Salivary digestion
A. Hyperlipidemia C. Intestinal digestion
B. Atherosclerosis D. Reflex phase
C. Myocardial infraction
D. Arrhythmia 51. This is secreted by the parasympathetic nerve fibers
of both the short and long reflex pathways.
42. What are ways to prevent having hyperlipidemia? A. Histamine
(SATA) B. Ach
A. Consume foods that are high in saturated fats C. Norepinephrine
and trans-fats D. Noradrenaline
B. Avoid or limit eating foods that are high in
cholesterol such as egg yolks, organ meats, and 52. Which of the following is NOT a function of salivary
butter. digestion?
C. Stop smoking and drink in moderation A. For carrying the intrinsic anemia factor
D. Increase sugar intake B. To begin the digestion of starch
C. Breakdown of proteins by HCl
43. According to the Type IIB Frederickson’s D. To moisten or lubricate the food for easier
Classification Of Hyperlipidemia, what lipoprotein/s is/are swallowing
increased?
A. Chylomicrons 53. Hypochlorhydria is characterized by:
B. LDL A. Complete absence of hydrochloric acid in the
C. IDL stomach
D. Both B and D B. Abnormally low concentration of hydrochloric
v acid
44. Cholesterol is commonly checked by doing what C. More than normal levels of hydrochloric acid
diagnostic test procedure? D. Increased secretion of digestive enzymes
A. An echocardiogram
B. A blood test, called a lipid panel 54. What is achlorhydria?
C. A urine sample A. Abnormally low concentration of HCl in the
D. A genetic test stomach
B. Complete absence of free hydrochloric acid
45. Which of the following foods is not a source of (HCl)
saturated fat? C. Excessive production of hydrochloric acid in the
A. Butter stomach
B. Ice cream D. An infection caused by Helicobacter pylori
C. Salmon
D. Whole-fat milk 55. Succusentericus is also known as
A. Trypsin
46. How can you identify trans-fats on a food label? B. Steapsin
A. Look for “high in omega-3” C. Intestinal juice
B. Look for “partially hydrogenated” oils or D. Pancreatic juice
shortening
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56. This hormone is present in the duodenum and 66. First B complex component to be Isolated in pure
stimulates the release of digestive enzymes in the state. Deficiency of this vitamin could cause stomatitis.
pancreas and stimulates the emptying of the bile in the A. Vitamin B6
gallbladder. B. Vitamin B3
A. Gastin C. Vitamin B2
B. CCK D. Vitamin B1
C. Secretin
D. Somatostatin 67. Which of the following is not a side effect of Vitamin
B3 Deficiency?
57.A hormone that is released by the stomach and A. Scurvy
targets the pituitary gland, signaling to the body that it B. Pellagra
needs to eat. C. Diarrhea
A. Insulin D. Dementia
B. Somatostatin
C. PYY 68. What is the most stable Vitamin?
D. Ghrelin A. Niacin
B. Riboflavin
58. Which hormone stop acid secretion in the stomach? C. Thiamine
A. Insulin D. Folic acid
B. Somatostatin
C. Ghrelin 68. Vitamin which function as visual pigment
D. CCK A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavin
59. Gluconeogenesis happens in C. Niacin
A. Blood D. Retinol
B. Muscle
C. Brain 70. This vitamin is need to heal wounds and cuts.
D. Liver A. Ascorbic acid
B. Pantothenic acid
60. What is the most toxic vitamin which could even C. Folic acid
cause fetal defects. It is also the 1st vitamin discovered. D. Pyridoxine
A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin D 71. This is type of fixed oils that have an iodine value of
C. Vitamin K 100 and below
D. Vitamin A A. Semi-drying oils
B. Drying Oils
61. Deficiency of this vitamin could cause Nyctalopia or C. Non-Drying oils
night blindness D. All of the above
A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin B3 72. Fixed oils are liquid vegetable oils at room
C. Vitamin K temperature, What is the only vegetable oil that solid at
D. Vitamin A room temperature
A. Cocoa butter
62. This vitamin is known to be the most potent B. Cod Liver
biological antioxidant C. Peanut butter
A. Vitamin B3 D. Butternut
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin B9 73. Which lipid type is primarily responsible for forming
D. Vitamin E the structural basis of cell membranes?
A. Sphingolipids
63. The vitamin required for blood clotting. B. Steroids
A. Vitamin A C. Waxes
B. Vitamin B3 D. Phospholipids
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K 74. What type of bond connects the fatty acids to the
glycerol backbone in triglycerides?
64. Used as antidote for Warfarin(anticoagulant) A. Ester bond
poisoning B. Hydrogen bond
A. Vitamin A C. Covalent bond
B. Vitamin E D. Ionic bond
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin B7 75. Which vitamin is a well-known lipid-soluble vitamin?
A. Vitamin A
65. Consuming too much of this vitamins has the B. Vitamin E
potential to increase oxalate in the urine, thus increasing C. Vitamin C
the risk of developing kidney stone. D. Vitamin B12
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1 76. Which of the following lipoproteins is known as "bad
C. Vitamin C cholesterol" due to its role in atherosclerosis?
D. Vitamin E A. Very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)
B. High-density lipoprotein (HDL)
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 C. Lipoprotein(a) B) Fatty acids and glycerol
D. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) C) Monosaccharides
D) Nucleotides
77. Omega-3 and Omega-6 fatty acids are classified as
what type of fatty acids? 87. Which of the following is an example of a saturated
A. Saturated fatty acids fatty acid?
B. Short-chain fatty acids A) Oleic acid
C. Mono-unsaturated fatty acids B) Palmitic acid
D. Polyunsaturated fatty acids C) Linoleic acid
D) Arachidonic acid
78. What is the main component that distinguishes
phospholipids from triglycerides?
A. The presence of rings in structure 88. A lipid with a double bond in its structure is
B. The number of fatty acids classified as:
C. Their solubility in water A) Saturated
D. The presence of a phosphate group B) Unsaturated
C) Trans-fat
79. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of D) A triglyceride
saturated fatty acids?
A. They cannot be synthesized by the human
body 89. Which of the following best describes the function of
B. They are solid at room temperature phospholipids in biological membranes?
C. They contain one or more double bonds A) Store energy
D. They have lower boiling points compared to B) Form the structural framework of the
unsaturated fatty acids membrane
C) Act as hormones
80. Which of the following fatty acids is considered D) Serve as antioxidants
essential and must be obtained through diet?
A. Stearic acid 90. Which of the following lipid categories is most
B. Linoleic acid commonly used for long-term energy storage in
C. Palmitic acid animals?
D. Arachidic acid A) Phospholipids
B) Triglycerides
81. Which of the following is NOT a function of lipids in C) Steroids
the human body? D) Waxes
A. Long-term energy storage
B. Insulation and protection
C. Genetic information storage 91. Which blood type is considered the universal donor?
D. Component of cell membranes
A. Type A
82. This is the deficiency in the enzyme of B. Type B
galactocerebrosidase C. Type O
A. TaySachs Disease D. Type AB
B. Krabbe’s Disease
C. Niemann -Pick Disease 92. Which blood type is considered the Universal
D. Schuller - christian Disease Recipient?
A. Type A
83. It occurs in children and is characterized by the B. Type B
clinical triad of diabetes inspidus, exophthalmos, and C. Type O
osteophytic bone lesions. D. Type AB
A. TaySachs Disease
B. Krabbe’s Disease 93. Which blood type has both A and B antigen?
C. Niemann -Pick Disease A. Type A
D. Schuller - christian Disease B. Type B
C. Type C
84. Also known as Sphingomyelin Lipidosis D. Type AB
A. TaySachs Disease
B. Krabbe’s Disease 94. What antibodies are present in Type O blood?
C. Niemann -Pick Disease A. Anti- A only
D. Schuller - christian Disease B. Anti-B only
C. Both Anti-A and Anti-B
85. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of D. No antibodies
lipids?
A) They are soluble in water 95. If a person has Type A blood, what type of
B) They are hydrophobic or amphipathic in antibodies do they have in their plasma?
nature A. Anti-A only
C) They are all saturated fats B. Anti- B only
D) They can only be found in animals C. Both Anti-A and Anti-B
D. No Antibodies
86. The basic building block of most lipids is:
A) Amino acids 96. What are the two main blood group systems?
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 A. ABO and Rh
B. O and AB
C. A and B
D. Positive and Negative

97. What is the primary purpose of the Rh factor in Blood

typing?
A. To determine the blood pressure
B. To identify potential transfusion reactions
C. To measure cholesterol levels
D. To assess kidney functions

98. What type of blood can a person with Type AB+

donate to?
A. Only to AB+ recipients
B. To any blood type
C. Only to Rh-positive recipients
D. To all blood types

99. What test is commonly used to determine a person’s

blood type?
A. Complete Blood Count (CBC)
B. Coagulation Panel
C. Blood typing test (serology)
D. Basic metabollic

100. What happens if a person receives incompatible

blood during a transfusion
A. Nothing; it is always safe.
B. The body may have an immune reaction,
potentially leading to serious complications.
C. The person will feel more energetic.
D. It can cure existing diseases

“Don’t Stress. Do your Best. Forget the Rest”

-unknown

WISHING YOU THE BEST OF LUCK ON YOUR EXAM!

YOU GOT THIS!

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