Sri Chaitanya Outstanding Achiever Reward Examination

6th OCTOBER 2024

For Class 5th, 6th, 7th, 8th, 9th & 10th

SAMPLE PAPER
CLASS 10
Q1. The circuit diagram shown consist of a large number of elements (each
element has two resistors R1 and R2). The resistances of the resistors in each
subsequent element differs by a factor of k = 1/2 from the resistances of the
resistors in the previous elements. The equivalent resistance between A and B
shown in figure is

Q2. A ray of light ab passing through air enters a liquid of refractive index μ1
at the boundary XY. In the liquid, the ray is shown as bc. The angle between ab
and bc (angle of deviation) is δ. The ray then passes through a rectangular slab
ABCD of refractive index μ2 (μ2 > μ1) and emerges from the slab as the ray de.
The angle between XY and AB is θ. The angle between ab and de is
a). δ b) δ + 𝜃 c) δ + sin d) δ + θ − sin ( )

Q3. Choose the correct ray diagram of an equiconvex lens cut.

Q4. In the given network, batteries getting charged are:

a) 2, 3 and 5 b) 1, 3 and 5 c) 1 and 4 d) 1, 2 and 5

Q5. A point source S is placed at the bottom of different layers as shown in the
figure, the refractive index of bottom layer is 𝜇 the refractive index of any
other upper layer is 𝜇 = 𝜇 − where n = 1, 2, … . A ray of light from
the source S as shown. Total Internal Reflection takes place at the upper
surface of layer having n equal to –

a) 3 b) 5 c) 4 d) 6

Q6. A Cassegrain telescope is a reflecting telescope that uses two mirrors, the
secondary mirror focusing the image through a hole in primary mirror (similar
to shown in figure). You wish to focus the image of a distant galaxy onto the
detector as shown in the figure. If the primary mirror has focal length -2.5 m,
secondary mirror has focal length +1.5 m and the distance from primary
mirror and the detector is 2m. What should be the distance between the
vertices of two mirrors?

a) 2.8 m b) 3.5 m c) 0.78 m d) 1.3 m

Q7. In the given figure, all the resistor are identical. Their resistance if equal
to 20 Ω Find the equivalent resistance between A and B (in ohms).

a) 9 b) 6 c) 3 d) 1

Q8. In the circuit given below, all the three voltmeters are identical and nearly
ideal. Each resistor has the same resistance R. Voltage provided is 9 V. Find
the reading of voltmeter V3.

a) 1 V b) 2 V c) 3 V d) 4 V

Q9. Two concave mirrors with equal focal length f, is placed one above another
at a separation of d. Upper mirror has a small hole at its centre as given. A
small object is placed at centre of lower mirror. Take first reflection at above
mirror and second at lower. For final image to be at the hole of the upper
mirror the value of d can be

a) f b) 2f c) 3f d)

Q10. There is a simple and useful method for finding the focal length of a thin
less or a spherical mirror. We make two perpendicular lines as we draw on a
graph. Suppose the object position is u and image positions is v. We mark u
and v on horizontal and vertical lines and join these points by a straight line.
Similarly we draw straight lines for other pairs of (u, v). The common point of
intersection of all these lines represents the focal length of the lens (or mirror)
e.g. consider the table for (u, v) as shown below. This is a converging lens. The
charge looks like this. For a concave mirror graph for (Use Cartesian sign
convention):
Q11. A regular tetrahedron frame is made up of homogenous resistance wire of
uniform cross section. Current I enters vertex A through a long, straight wire
directed towards the centre O of the tetrahedron and is conducted away through
vertex B in the same way, as illustrated in the figure. Choose CORRECT
statement(s)

Q12. A potentiometer as shown in the figure in which three batteries between

A & B are connected when the point P is the null point, measured by the
potentiometer arrangement. Then chose the correct statement(s)

a) Current passing through 6V battery is 4A.

b) Current passing through 2V battery is 4A.
c) VA – VB = 2V
d) VA – VB = 6V
Q13. An object of length 1 cm is placed on a principal axis of an equiconvex lens
of radii 5cm. Distance between the lens and object is 20 cm. Space between the
lens and object is filled with medium of two different refractive index 2 and 1,
lens being placed in the medium of refractive index 1. Boundary of both medium
is mid-way between the object and lens as shown in figure

Q14. A car is moving with at a constant speed of 20 m/s on a straight road.

Looking at the rear view mirror, the driver finds that the car following him is at
a distance of 50 m and is approaching with a speed of 10 m/s. In order to keep
track of the car in the rear, the driver begins to glance alternatively at the rear
and side mirror of his car after every 2 s till the other car overtakes. If the two
cars were maintaining their speeds, which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct?
123
(A) The speed of the car in the rear is 30 m/s
(B) In the side mirror the car in the rear would appear to approach with a speed
of 10 m/s to the driver of the leading car
(C) In the rear view mirror the speed of the approaching car would appear to
decrease as the distance between the cars decreases
(D) In the side mirror, the speed of the approaching car would appear to increase
as the distance between the cars decreases

Q15. For the following circuit, mark the correct statements

a). Power of 2Ω resistor is 800 W b) Power of 4Ω resistor is 25 W

c) Power of 2Ω resistor is 450 W d) Power of 4Ω resistor is 50 W
Q1. The diagram below shows the set-up in which electrolysis of water takes
place.

What type of reaction is this

a) Endothermic Combination b) Endothermic Decomposition
c) Exothermic Combination d) Endothermic Decomposition

Q2. Eight identical, iron blocks are placed on the ground in the two
arrangements X and Y as shown below. The block arrangements are kept
moist by sprinkling water every few hours. Which of the arrangements is
likely to gather more rust after ten days? Justify your answer.

A. Arrangement X, because the blocks are spread out horizontally, exposing a

larger surface area to air and water, leading to more rust.

B. Arrangement Y, because the blocks are stacked vertically, allowing more

moisture to be trapped between the blocks, leading to faster rusting.

C. Arrangement X, because the blocks are placed on the ground where water
will pool, increasing the exposure to moisture and accelerating rust formation.

D. Arrangement Y, because the top blocks have more exposure to air and
moisture, which speeds up the rusting process due to constant contact with
environmental conditions.
Q3. Adding which of the following to a colourless solution, will give indication
that the solution could possibly be hydrochloric acid.

a). copper metal strips b) silver metal strips

c) calcium carbonate d) sodium chloride

Q4. Which of these graph shows how PH of milk changes as it forms to curd?

Q5. Sequence the following steps involved generally in the extraction of a

metal in pure form from its ore.

(1) The metal obtained from its oxide requires further purification for end use.
(2) The ore should be converted to its oxide form.
(3) The ore is beneficial to us if it is hand-picked then metal crushed and
ground, and later subjected to Pulverisation as per the requirement.
(4) The ore in the form of oxide is required to be reduced.
(5) Dressed ore is required for it to be concentrated.
(a) 5 3 2 4 1 (b) 3 5 2 4 1 (c) 3 5 2 1 4 (d) 3 5 4 2 1

Directions- Q6, 7
Rajesh was given a substance and asked to identify it. He conducted three tests
on the substance and recorded the results below. (P) It releases carbon dioxide,
water and a sodium salt on heating with water. (Q) It turns universal indicator
greenish-blue. (R) It can be prepared from ammonia as a raw material.

Q6. What substance was Rajesh given?

a). CaCO3 b) Na2CO3 c) NaHCO3 d) (NH4)2CO3

Q7. Identify the sodium salt formed in P?

a). Na2CO3 b) Na2B4O7 c) NaOH d) NaCl

Q8. pH is measured using a pH meter, which comprises a detecting unit

consisting of a pH sensitive glass electrode and an indicating unit which
indicates the pH as shown below.
To measure the pH of a solution, the glass electrode is dipped into the solution
and the pH is displayed on the screen of the indicating unit. Before measuring
the pH of another solution, the glass electrode is rinsed with distilled water
and dried carefully with tissue paper.
How is the pH reading of the second solution likely to be affected if the glass
electrode is not dried with tissue paper in the following cases?
(i) if the second solution being measured is acidic in nature
(ii) if the second solution being measured is basic in nature
a). i) higher & ii) lower b) i) higher & ii) higher
c) i) lower & ii) higher d) i) lower & ii) lower
Q9. Which of the following metals cannot be reduced by reducing agents like
H2 and C?
1) K
2) Na
3) Fe
4) Ca
a) i) & iv) b) ii) & iv) c) ii), iii) & iv) d) i), ii) & iii)

Q10. During an industrial chemical process, an impure metal sample

containing zinc, copper, and traces of sodium bicarbonate is treated in the
following steps:

1. The sample is first placed in a solution of dilute sulfuric acid. A vigorous

reaction occurs, releasing a colorless gas that turns lime water milky.
2. The remaining solid residue is then dissolved in a solution of sodium
hydroxide, producing a greenish-blue precipitate and a colorless
solution.
 3. The colorless solution is subjected to electrolysis using platinum
electrodes. After some time, a metal is deposited at the cathode, and a
gas is released at the anode.

Based on the above observations, answer the following question:

What is the correct sequence of reactions occurring during the entire process,
and which gas is evolved at the anode during electrolysis?

Options:

A. Step 1: Zinc reacts with sulfuric acid to form zinc sulfate and hydrogen gas.
Step 2: Copper hydroxide precipitates, and sodium ions remain in solution.
Step 3: Copper is deposited at the cathode, and chlorine gas is evolved at the
anode.

B. Step 1: Sodium bicarbonate reacts with sulfuric acid to release carbon

dioxide.
Step 2: Zinc forms a complex with sodium hydroxide, leaving copper as a
precipitate.
Step 3: Zinc is deposited at the cathode, and oxygen gas is evolved at the
anode.

C. Step 1: Zinc reacts with sulfuric acid to form zinc sulfate and carbon dioxide
gas.
Step 2: Copper forms copper hydroxide, leaving zinc ions in solution.
Step 3: Zinc is deposited at the cathode, and hydrogen gas is evolved at the
anode.

D. Step 1: Zinc reacts with sulfuric acid to produce hydrogen gas and zinc
sulfate.
Step 2: Copper reacts with sodium hydroxide to form copper hydroxide, and
the solution contains zincate ions.
Step 3: Zinc is deposited at the cathode, and oxygen gas is evolved at the
anode.
Q21. In a complex series of reactions involving magnesium:

 Magnesium ribbon is burned in air, forming a white powder.

 The white powder is placed in water, and the temperature of the water
increases, but there is no visible reaction.
 This solution is now mixed with a dilute solution of ammonium chloride,
producing a colorless gas that turns damp red litmus blue.

Which of the following statements are correct?

A.The white powder formed is magnesium oxide (MgO).

B. The temperature increase suggests that magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)₂)
was formed in water through an exothermic reaction.
C. The colorless gas produced in the reaction with ammonium chloride is
ammonia (NH₃).
D. Magnesium oxide dissolves in water, and the reaction with ammonium
chloride forms magnesium chloride and water.

Q22. During an electrolysis experiment involving brine (sodium chloride

solution):

 Chlorine gas is collected at one electrode, while a different gas is

collected at the other.
 The pH of the solution near the chlorine gas electrode decreases.
 The gas collected at the second electrode extinguishes a glowing splint.

Which of the following statements are correct?

A. The gas collected at the second electrode is hydrogen (H₂).

B. Chlorine gas causes the solution near its electrode to become acidic due to
the formation of hydrochloric acid.
C. The gas at the second electrode is oxygen (O₂), which does not support
combustion.
D. The experiment demonstrates the electrolysis of brine, where sodium
hydroxide is produced near the hydrogen gas electrode.

Q23. A student conducts the following experiment:

 A piece of aluminium foil is added to a solution of copper(II) sulfate.

 After a few minutes, the solution changes color, and a reddish-brown
substance appears on the foil.
 When the reddish-brown substance is placed in a dilute sulfuric acid
solution, effervescence is observed, and a gas is released.

Which of the following interpretations are correct?

A. The reddish-brown substance is copper (Cu) formed due to the displacement

of copper by aluminium.
B. The gas released in the second reaction is hydrogen (H₂).
C. The color change in the solution occurs because aluminium ions are formed
in the solution, replacing copper ions.
D. Aluminium displaces copper because it is lower in the reactivity series than
copper.

Q24. A series of reactions are carried out:

 Calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) is heated strongly, and a gas is evolved.

 The gas is passed through limewater, turning it milky.
 When more of the gas is bubbled through, the milkiness disappears,
leaving a clear solution.
 The clear solution is then evaporated to dryness, and a white solid is
obtained.

Which of the following interpretations are correct?

A. The gas evolved on heating calcium carbonate is carbon dioxide (CO₂).

B. The clear solution forms because the excess carbon dioxide dissolves in
limewater, forming calcium bicarbonate.
C. The white solid obtained after evaporation is calcium bicarbonate
(Ca(HCO₃)₂).
D. The disappearance of the milkiness occurs due to the formation of a soluble
salt.

Q25. In a cutting-edge lab, a scientist is working to develop a durable metal

alloy for deep-sea exploration vehicles. The alloy is composed of aluminium
(Al), magnesium (Mg), and a trace amount of zinc (Zn).
Experimental Setup:

1. The alloy is submerged in an electrolyte solution containing dissolved

salts, simulating seawater.
2. A thin, dull layer forms on the surface of the alloy after several hours of
exposure.
3. The scientist then connects the alloy to an electrochemical cell with a
reference electrode, and the initial potential difference is recorded.
4. Over time, the potential difference gradually decreases when a small
amount of sodium chloride (NaCl) is added to the solution.
5. After 48 hours, the alloy begins to show small pitting corrosion spots,
but overall, the majority of the surface remains unaffected.

Question: Based on the above experiment, which of the following statements

are correct? (Multiple correct)

A. The thin, dull layer on the surface of the alloy is likely a protective oxide
layer formed by the aluminium and magnesium, which initially helps resist
corrosion in the electrolyte solution.

B. The addition of sodium chloride (NaCl) enhances the corrosive properties of

the electrolyte solution by increasing the conductivity, leading to localized
breakdown of the protective oxide layer and causing pitting corrosion.

C. The gradual decrease in potential difference suggests that zinc is likely

acting as a sacrificial anode, undergoing oxidation and protecting the
aluminium and magnesium from significant corrosion.

D. The alloy is primarily protected by the magnesium, which forms a highly

stable layer of magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)₂) when exposed to the
electrolyte, effectively shielding the alloy from corrosion.
PART III - BIOLOGY

NOBODY DOES THAT

 SECTION 1 (MAXIMUM MARKS: 120)
 This section contains 40 questions are of single correct type.
 For each question marks will be awarded as:
Full marks: + 3 if correct option is marked
Zero marks: 0 if unattempted
Negative marks: - 1 if wrong option is marked

Q1. A rectangular room of size 12ft × 17ft is to be tiled with the

greatest number of trapezoidal tiles. The non-parallel sides of the tile
are 4 inches and 5 inches (1 ft. = 12 inches). If all sides of the tile have
integer length and no tile is cut, how many tiles are needed to complete
the task?
a) 1600 b) 1616 c) 1632 d) 1648
Q2. Let a, b, c be the sides of a triangle, and l, m, n be the lengths of
medians Define K = . Then as a, b, c vary, K can take every value
in the set:

a) ( , ) b) ( , ) c) ( , 1) d) ( , 1)

Q3. Suppose , , and are positive integers such that + = . Which

of the following statements are necessarily true?

I. If or or both, then .
II. If , then or or both.
III. if and only if .
a) I, II & III b) I & II only c) III only d) II & III only
Q4. When the roots of the polynomial 𝑃(𝑥) = ∏ (𝑥 − 𝑖) are removed from
the real number line, what remains is the union of disjoint open intervals.
On how many of those intervals is positive?
a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 7
Q5. With all angles measured in degrees, the product ∑ 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 (2𝑘 − 1) =
𝑚 , where and are integers greater than 1. Find .
a) 89 b) 90 c) 91 d) 92
Q6. It is possible to place positive integers into the vacant twenty-one squares
of the square shown below so that the numbers in each row and column
form arithmetic sequences. Find the number that must occupy the vacant
square marked by the asterisk (*).

a) 140 b) 142 c) 144 d) 146

Q7. On the night of 25th December 2024, Santa Bhavesh was late and had to
hurry up. Children were almost awake but 4 houses were still left. However he
notices symmetry that the chimneys of all 4 houses were nearly collinear with
no obstacle in between (consider the roof of houses to only contain chimney).
When he reached 10m vertically above chimney of house A, he calculated that
he had to throw the gifts at 30°, 45°, 60° in order them to reach houses of
chimney B, C and D (all of different heights). Given that instead of throwing
the gift at C at 45°, he mistakenly sent two gifts at 60 degree i.e. towards D,
luckily one of them gets stuck in the chimney. Calculate the minimum distance
Santa Bhavesh will have to cover in order to not make Ayaan Mittal cry who
lives in house C. Which is correct?
a). less than 10 m b) > 10 but < 20 m c) > 20 but less than 30 m d) > 30 m
Q8. The houses on one side of a road are numbered using consecutive even
numbers. The sum of the numbers of all the houses in that row is 170. If there
are at least 6 houses in that row and a is the number of the sixth house, then
a) 2 ≤ 𝑎 ≤ 6 b) 8 ≤ a ≤ 12 c) 14 ≤ a ≤ 20 d) 22 ≤ a ≤ 30
Q9. There are unique integers such that

where for
. Find .
a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11
Q10. The graph below shows a portion of the curve defined by the quartic
polynomial . Which of the following is the
smallest?

Q11. Let , , and be three distinct points on the graph of such that
line is parallel to the -axis and is a right triangle with area
. What is the sum of the digits of the -coordinate of ?

a) 16 b) 17 c) 18 d) 19
Q12. On each side of a unit square, an equilateral triangle of side length 1 is
constructed. On each new side of each equilateral triangle, another equilateral
triangle of side length 1 is constructed. The interiors of the square and the 12
triangles have no points in common. Let be the region formed by the union
of the square and all the triangles, and be the smallest convex polygon that
contains . What is the area of the region that is inside but outside ?

a) b) √3 c) 2√3 d) 1

Q13. A frog located at , with both and integers, makes successive

jumps of length and always lands on points with integer coordinates.
Suppose that the frog starts at and ends at . What is the smallest
possible number of jumps the frog makes?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
Q14. Let , and let be a polynomial with integer coefficients such
that
, and
.
What is the smallest possible value of ?
a) 105 b) 315 c) 945 d) 5040
Q15. A round balloon of radius r subtends an angle 𝛼 at the eye of the observer
while angle of elevation of its center is 𝛽. What is the height of the center of
balloon?

a) 𝑟. 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛽. sec b) 𝑟. 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛽. cos c) 𝑟. 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛽. cosec

d) 𝑟. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛽. cosec

Q16. In the figure given below, ABCDEF is a regular hexagon of side length
[ ]
1, AFPS and ABQR are squares. Then find the ratio [ ]
, where [ ] denotes
area.

√ √
a) b) √2 c) d) 2

Q17. On the circle with center O, points A,B are such that OA = AB. A point C
is located on the tangent at B to the circle such that A and C are on the
opposite sides of the line OB = and AB = BC. The line segment AC intersects
the circle again at F. Then the ratio ∠BOF : ∠ BOC is equal to:

a) 1:2 b) 2:3 c) 3:4 d) 4:5

Q18. Let ABCD be a square of a side length l, Let P,Q,R,S be points in the
interiors of the sides AD,BC,AB, CD, respectively, such that PQ and RS
√
intersect at right angles. If PQ  , then RS equals

√ √
a) b) c) d) 4 - 2√2
√

Q19. Monic quadratic polynomial and have the property

that has zeros at and , and has
zeros at and . What is the sum of the minimum values
of and ?
a) -100 b) -82 c) -73 d) -64
Q20. Let , , and be positive integers with such
that and .
What is ?
a) 250 b) 251 c) 252 d) 253
Q21. A number of linked rings, each 1 cm thick, are hanging on a peg. The top
ring has an outside diameter of 20 cm. The outside diameter of each of the
outer rings is 1 cm less than that of the ring above it. The bottom ring has an
outside diameter of 3 cm. What is the distance, in cm, from the top of the top
ring to the bottom of the bottom ring?

a) 171 b) 173 c) 182 d) 188

Q22. Aarav and Ayaan were slaves of Anuj and had hijacked two ships. Master
Anuj ordered that both the ships should reach at the same time otherwise they
will be killed. At this moment the ships were at the same level on the same side
of the island at a horizontal distance of 10km (i.e. their vertical distance was
same). Master Anuj was sitting on a mountain on the island. Aarav and Ayaan
respectively had to lift their head by 45 and 60 degrees to see Anuj. Given that
both of them managed not to die. Find the height of the mountain.
 √
a). 10√2(√3 − 1) km b) 5√6 km c) 10( − ) d) None of these
√

Q23. Square lies in the first quadrant.

Points and lie on lines , and ,
respectively. What is the sum of the coordinates of the center of the
square ?

a) b) c) d)

Q24. Let points and .

Quadrilateral is cut into equal area pieces by a line passing through .

This line intersects at point , where these fractions are in lowest

terms. What is ?
a) 54 b)58 c)62 d) 75
Q25. , , are three piles of rocks. The mean weight of the rocks
in is pounds, the mean weight of the rocks in is pounds, the mean
weight of the rocks in the combined piles and is pounds, and the mean
weight of the rocks in the combined piles and is pounds. What is the
greatest possible integer value for the mean in pounds of the rocks in the
combined piles and ?
a) 56 b)57 c)58 d) 59
Q26. The internal angles of quadrilateral form an arithmetic
progression. Triangles and are similar
with and . Moreover, the angles in each of
these two triangles also form an arithmetic progression. In degrees, what is
the largest possible sum of the two largest angles of ?
a) 210 b)220 c)230 d) 240
Q27. Rhombus is similar to rhombus . The area of
rhombus is 24, and . What is the area of
rhombus ?
a) 6 b)4√3 c)8 d) 9
Q28. Suppose and are positive integers with
, and , where and are integers and is not divisible by 10.
What is the smallest possible value of ?
a) 489 b)492 c)495 d) 498
Q29. Isosceles has a right angle at . Point is inside , such
that and . Legs and have

length , where and are positive integers. What is ?

a) 91 b) 108 c) 121 d) 127

Q30. Regular hexagon has vertices and at and
, respectively. What is its area?

a) 20√3 b) 22√3 c) 25√3 d) 27√3

Q31. Rows 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 of a triangular array of integers are shown below:
Each row after the first row is formed by placing a 1 at each end of the row,
and each interior entry is 1 greater than the sum of the two numbers
diagonally above it in the previous row. What is the units digit of the sum of
the 2023 numbers in the 2023rd row?
a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 7
Q32. Let be a polynomial with rational coefficients such that
when is divided by the polynomial , the remainder is , and
when is divided by the polynomial , the remainder is . There
is a unique polynomial of least degree with these two properties. What is the
sum of the squares of the coefficients of that polynomial?
a) 13 b) 19 c) 20 d) 23
Q33. Let be the transformation of the coordinate plane that first rotates the
plane degrees counterclockwise around the origin and then reflects the plane
across the -axis. What is the least positive integer such that performing the
sequence of transformations returns the point back to
itself?

a) 359 b) 360 c) 719 d) 720

Q34. How many values of in the interval satisfy
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8

Q35. Let be the sum of all positive real numbers for which
Which of the following statements is true?

a) S < √2 b) S = √2 c) √2 < S < 2 d) 2 < S < 6

Q36. In square , points and lie on and , respectively, so
that Points and lie on and , respectively, and
points and lie on so that and . See the figure
below. Triangle , quadrilateral , quadrilateral , and
pentagon each has area What is ?

a) 8 − 4√2 b) 1 + √2 c) √2 d) 2√2

Q37. If angle of elevation of a cloud from a point h meters above a lake is x and
the angle of depression of its reflection in lake is y, then the distance of the
cloud from point of observation is

a) b) c) d)

Q38. A rectangular box measures , where and are integers

and . The volume and surface area of the box are numerically
equal. How many ordered triples are possible?
a) 4 b) 10 c) 12 d) 21
Q39. There are exactly ordered quadruples such
that and . What is the smallest possible
value of ?
a) 13860 b) 207900 c) 21560 d) 27720
Q40. The terms of an arithmetic sequence add to . The first term of the
sequence is increased by , the second term is increased by , the third term is
increased by , and in general, the th term is increased by the th odd positive
integer. The terms of the new sequence add to . Find the sum of the first,
last, and middle terms of the original sequence.
a) 165 b) 175 c) 185 d) 195
 S ECTION II (MAXIMUM MARKS: 15)
 This section contains 40 questions are of single correct type.
 For each question marks will be awarded as:
Full marks: + 3 if correct option is marked
Zero marks: 0 if unattempted
Negative marks: - 1 if wrong option is marked
Q41. Define An = sin 𝜃 + cos 𝜃 and Bn = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 where n is a positive
integer greater than 1. Find the smallest value of n for which there exists
atleast one unique real 𝜃 satisfying = .

a) Value of n is less than 9

b) Value of n is less than 15
c) Value of n is more than 14
d) No such value of n exists
Q42. Let P(x) = 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐𝑥 + 𝑑, where a and b are positive reals and P(x)
is defined over all real positive x. Given that the following statements are true:
 P(x) + P(-x) = 0 for x = 1
 P(x).P( ) = 0 for all real positive x.
( )
Find ( )

a). + b) − c) ( + ) d) ( − )

Q43. The positive integers and both end in the same sequence of four
digits when written in base , where digit is not zero. Which of the
following digits are there in the three-digit number .
a). 3 b) 5 c) 6 d) 9
Q44. In the diagram below, is a square. Point is the midpoint of .
Points and lie on , and and lie on and , respectively, so
that is a square. Points and lie on , and and lie
on and , respectively, so that is a square. The area
of is 99. Which of the following digits are there in the area of .
a). 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 9
Q45. A strictly increasing sequence of positive integers , , , has the
property that for every positive integer , the subsequence , , is
geometric and the subsequence , , is arithmetic. Suppose
that . Which of the following digits are there in .
a). 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5
 PART V - IQ
SECTION 1 (MAXIMUM MARKS: 120)
 This section contains 40 questions are of single correct type.
 For each question marks will be awarded as:
Full marks: + 3 if correct option is marked
Zero marks: 0 if unattempted
Negative marks: - 1 if wrong option is marked
Q1. The diagram shows a spiral of consecutive numbers starting with 1. In
which order will the numbers 625, 626 and 627 appear in the spiral?

Q2. The numbers from 1 to 11 are written in the empty hexagons. The sums
of the three numbers in three hexagons with a common bold point are always
equal. Three of the eleven numbers are already written in (see diagram).
Which number is written in the hexagon with the question mark?

a) 5 b) 7 c) 3 d) 9
Q3. Two identical cylindrical glasses contain the same amount of water. The
left glass is upright, while the right one rests against the other one at a slant.
The water level in both glasses is at the same height. The water level in the
leaning glass touches its bottom in exactly one point (see diagram). The bases
of both glasses have an area of 3 cm². How much water is in each glass?

a) 9𝜋 cm3 b) 6𝜋 cm3 c) 3√3𝜋 cm3 d) cm3

Q4. All employees have to pass through three consecutive entrance doors to
enter into the office and one security guard is deployed at each door. These
security guards report to the manager about those who come to office after 10
am. Ms. Rani is an employee of this office and came late on the annual day. In
order to avoid report to the manager she had to pay each security guard half of
the money she had in her purse and 2 rupees more besides that. She found only
one rupee with her at the end. How much money Ms. Rani had before entering
the office on the annual day?
a) 40 b) 36 c) 25 d) 42

Direction (Q5, 6, 7)
In a motor race competition certain rules are given for the participants to
follow. To control direction and speed of the motorists, guards are placed at
different signal points with caps of different colour. Guard with red cap
indicates the direction of participant’s movement and guards with green cap
indicates the speed of the participant’s movement. At any signal point presence
of three guards, two guards and one guard with red cap means the participant
must stop, turn left and turn right respectively. Signal points with three
guards, two guards and one guard with green cap means the participants must
move at 10, 4 and 2 km/hour respectively.

Kartikay, one of the participants, starts at a point where his car was heading
towards north and he encountered signals as follows: at start point one guard
with green cap; after half an hour two guards with red cap and two guards
with green cap at first signal; after fifteen minutes one guard with red cap at
second signal; after half an hour one guard with red cap and three guards with
green caps at third signal; after 24 minutes two guard with red cap and two
guards with green cap at fourth signal; after 15 minutes three guard with red
cap at fifth signal. (Time mentioned in each case is applicable after crossing the
previous signal).
Q5. Total distance covered by Kartikay till the last point is:

a) 9 km b) 10 km c) 8 km d) 12 km

Q6. What will be the final position of Kartikay if one guard with red cap and
two guards with green cap were placed at the first signal point after starting
point?

a) 3 km to west and 2 km to south

b) 3 km to west and 4 km to north
c) 5 km to east and 4 km to north
d) 2 km to west and 4 km to south

Q7. If starting point was heading towards south, what would be his final
position?
a) 3 km to east and 4 km to south
b) 5 km to east and 4 km to south
c) 3 km to west and 4 km to north
d) 5 km to west and 2 km to north

Q8. When Matilda’s smartphone is fully charged it has a battery life of 32

hours if she phones continuously, 20 hours if she surfs the internet
continuously and 80 hours if she does not use it at all. Matilda boards a train
with a half full battery. During her time on board she spends the same amount
of time each on phoning, surfing the internet and not using the phone at all.
Just when she arrives at her destination the battery is empty. How many hours
did the train ride take?
a) 10 b) 12 c) 14 d) 16

Q9. Leon has drawn a closed loop on the surface of a cuboid. Which net cannot
show his loop?
Q10. The diagram shows the map of a big park. The park is split into several
sections and the number in each section states its perimeter in km. How big is
the perimeter of the entire park in km?

a) 18 b) 22 c) 26 d) 32

Q11. The numbers 1 to 10 were written into the ten circles in the pattern
shown in the picture. The sum of the four numbers in the left and the right
column is 24 each and the sum of the three numbers in the bottom row is 25.
Which number is in the circle with the question mark?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) none of these

Q12. A rectangle is split into 11 smaller rectangles as shown. All 11 small

rectangles are similar to the initial rectangle. The smallest rectangles are
aligned like the original rectangle (see diagram). The lower sides of the
smallest rectangles have length 1. How big is the perimeter of the big
rectangle?

a) 24 b) 27 c) 30 d) 36
Q13. The vertices of a 20-gon are labelled using the numbers 1 to 20 so that
adjacent vertices always differ by 1 or 2. The sides of the 20-gon whose
vertices are labelled with numbers that only differ by 1 are drawn in red. How
many red sides does the 20-gon have?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 10

Q14. Eight teams take part in a football tournament where each team plays
each other team exactly once. In each game the winner gets 3 points and the
loser no points. In case of a draw both teams get 1 point. In the end all teams
together have 61 points. What is the maximum number of points that the team
with the most points could have gained?

a) 21 b) 19 c) 18 d) 17

Q15. In a certain city the inhabitants only communicate by asking questions.

There are two kinds of inhabitants: the ‚positive‘ that only ask questions that
are answered with ‚yes‘ and the ‚negative‘ that only ask questions that are
answered with ‚no‘. We meet the inhabitants Albert and Berta and Berta asks
us: “Are Albert and I both negative?“ What kind of inhabitants are they?

a) Both are positive

b) Both are negative
c) Albert is positive and Berta is negative
d) Albert is negative and Berta is positive

Q16. The numbers 1, 2, 7, 9, 10, 15 and 19 are written down on a blackboard.

Two players alternately delete one number each until only one number
remains on the blackboard. The sum of the numbers deleted by one of the
players is twice the sum of the numbers deleted by the other player. What is
the number that remains?
a) 7 b) 9 c) 10 d) 15
Q17. Five kangaroos named A, B, C, D and E have one child each, named a, b,
c, d and e, not necessarily in that order. In the first group photo shown exactly
2 of the children are standing next to their mothers. In the second group photo
exactly 3 of the children are standing next to their mothers. Whose child is a?
a) A b) B c) C d) D
Q18. The solid shown in the diagram has 12 regular pentagonal faces, the
other faces being either equilateral triangles or squares. Each pentagonal face
is surrounded by 5 square faces and each triangular face is surrounded by 3
square faces. John writes 1 on each triangular face,5 on each pentagonal face
and −1 on each square. What is the total of the numbers written on the solid?

a) 20 b) 50 c) 60 d) 80
Q19. On a circle 15 points are equally spaced. We can form triangles by
joining any 3 of these. Congruent triangles, by rotation or reflection, are
counted as only one triangle. How many different triangles can be drawn?

a) 19 b) 23 c) 46 d) 91
Q20. Two plane mirrors OP and OQ are inclined at an acute angle (diagram is
not to scale). A ray of light XY parallel to OQ strikes mirror OP at Y. The ray
is reflected and hits mirror OQ, is reflected again and hits mirror OP and is
reflected for a third time and strikes mirror OQ at right angles at R as shown.
If OR = 5 cm, what is the distance d of the ray XY from the mirror OQ?
a) 4 b) 4.5 c) 5 d) 6
Directions (Q21, 22, 23)
Telecom operators get revenue from transfer of date and voice. Average
revenue received from transfer of each unit of data is known as ARDT. In the
diagram below, the revenue received from date transfer as percentage of total
revenue received and the ARDT in US Dollars (USD) are given for various
countries.

30%

20%

10%

Q21. It was found that volume of data transfer in India is the same as that of
Singapore. Then which of the following statement is correct?
a). Total revenue in India is about 2 times that of Singapore
b) Total revenue in India is about 4 times that of Singapore
c) Total revenue in Singapore is about 2 times that of India
d) Total revenue in Singapore is about 4 times that of India
Q22. It is expected that by 2010, revenue from data transfer as a percentage of
total revenue will triple for India and double for Sweden. Assume that in 2010,
the total revenue in India is twice that of Sweden and that the volume of data
transfer is the same in both the countries. What is the percentage increase of
ARDT in India if there is no change in ARDT in Sweden?
a) 400% b) 550% c) 850% d) 950%

Q23. If the total revenue received is the same for the pairs of countries listed in
the choices below, choose the pair that has approximately the same volume of
data transfer.
a) Philippines and Austria b) Canada and Poland
c) Germany and USA d) UK and Spain

Q24. Adam and Bruna try to find out which is Carla's favourite figure, amongst
the figures beside. Adam knows that Carla told Bruna what the shape of the
figure was. Bruna knows that Carla told Adam what color the figure was. The
following conversation takes place. Adam: "I don't know what Carla's favourite
figure is and I know that Bruna doesn't know either”. Bruna: "At first I didn't
know what Carla's favourite figure was, but now I know”. Adam: "Now I know
too". What is Carla's favourite figure?

a). Pink circle b) Green Square c) White Square d) Pink Triangle

Q25. There are n different prime numbers 𝑝1, 𝑝2, … , 𝑝𝑛 written from left to
right on the last line below the table shown beside. The product of two
neighbouring numbers in the same line is written in the upper two boxes. The
number 𝐾 = 𝑝1 . 𝑝2 . 𝑝3 … . 𝑝𝑛 is written in the last house above. In a
table like this, in which a2= 9, how many numbers are divisible by number 𝑝4?

a) 16 b) 24 c) 28 d) 36

Q26. At the Sunday fair, in the morning Ana wanted to buy three types of fruit
among 12 options and one type of vegetable, among the six types available. In
the afternoon some products were sold out and Bela wanted to buy two kinds
of fruits and two kinds of vegetables, among the remaining ones. Since the
number of possible choices for Bela was a quarter of the number of possible
choices for Ana, how many products were sold out in the afternoon?
a). 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Q27. Mr. Bedi's family members went on a picnic. There were two grandfathers
and four fathers and two grandmothers and four mothers in the group. There
was at least one grandson or a granddaughter present in this group. There were
two husband-wife pairs in this group. The single grandfather (whose wife was
not present) had two grandsons and a son present in the party. The single
grandmother (whose husband was not present) had two granddaughters
present. A grandfather or a grandmother present with their spouses did not have
any grandson or granddaughter present.
What was the minimum number of people present in this picnic group?
a) 14 b) 10 c) 12 d) 16

Q28. A Retail chain has seven branches in a city namely R1, R2, R3, R4, R5, R6,
R7 and a central distribution center (DC). The nearest branch to the DC is R6
which is in the south of DC and is 9 Km away from DC. R2 is 17 Km away from
DC in the west. The branch R1 is 11 Km away R2 further in the west. The
branch R3 is 11 Km in the north east of R1. R4 is 13 Km from R3 in the east.
R5 is 11 Km in the north east of the distribution center. In the north east of R6
is R7 and distance between them is 15 Km. The distance between R1 and R6,
R2 and R6, R6 and R5 is 23 Km, 19 Km, 13 Km respectively. R3 is 14 Km away
from the DC in the north west direction, while R2 is also 14 Km away from R4
in the north east direction of R2. A truck carrying some goods starts from the
distribution center and has to cover at least four stores in a single trip. There is
an essential good that has to be delivered in the store R7, but the delivery at R7
has to be done in the end, so what is the shortest distance the truck would travel?
a). 55 b) 56 c) 63 d) 66

Q29. Sujoy, Mritunjoy and Paranjoy are three friends, who have worked in
software firms Z Solutions, G Softwares and R Mindpower respectively for a
decade. The friends decided to float a new software firm named XY Infotech in
January 2010. However, due to certain compulsions, Mritunjoy and Paranjoy
were not able to immediately join the start-up in the appointed time. It was
decided between friends that Sujoy will be running the venture as the full time
Director during 2010, and Mritunjoy and Paranjoy will be able to join the
business only in January 2011. In order to compensate Sujoy for his efforts, it
was decided that he will receive 10 percent of the profits and in the first year
will invest lesser amount as compared to his friends. The remaining profit will
be distributed among the friends in line with their contribution. Sjuoy
invested `35,000/- for 12 months, Mritunjoy invested ` 1,30,000/- for 6 months
and Paranjoy invested `75,000/- for 8 months. If the total profit earned during
2010 was `4,50,000/-, then Paranjoy earned a profit of:
a). 1,75,500 b) 1,35,000 c) 1,39,500 d) 1,45,000

Directions (Q30, 31, 32)

After the discussion at a high level meeting of government officers, the criteria
for issuing of import / export licence to eligible business firms for the year 2011
- 12 were finalized as follows. The firms must -

I. have a Grade – ‘A’ certified unit for any products.

II. not have any legal dispute case against it.
III. possess minimum asset worth `40 lakhs.
IV. submit an environmental clearance certificate issued by the Pollution
Control Board (PCB) of the state where the firm is located.
V. deposit the margin money of `1 lakh.
VI. arrange for three guarantors with their personal identify cards (IDs).

However, if the firm satisfies all the above mentioned criteria except:

a) criteria (I), but is a traditional handloom production unit, then the case
may be referred to Development Commissioner, Handloom (DCH) of the
state.
b) criteria (IV), but is a local employment provider / thread (input) supplier
/ cloth supplier, the case may be referred to the Director, Department of
Industry of the state
c) criteria (V) but can deposit at least `50000, the firm will be given import
licence only and the case may be referred to the Deputy Director,
Department of Industry of the state.

Based on the above criteria, and information provided on each of the firms in the
questions below, you have to decide which course of action should be taken
against each firm. Without assuming anything regarding any applicant firm, the
decision should be based on the information provided.

Q30. Mahalaxmi Weaving Centre is a traditional handloom production unit. It

has property worth more than `1 crore. It managed to get three guarantors with
their personal IDs. No legal case is there against it. There is no problem
submitting an environmental clearance, as the same is already issued to it by the
State Pollution Control Board. It is also ready to deposit `1 lakh
a) Licence to be issued
b) Licence not to be issued
c) May be referred to the Development Commissioner, Handloom
d) May be referred to the director of the industry
Q31. Ramayan Enterprise is a textiles firm which possesses assets worth `50
lakhs and is located in Surat where no firm having any legal dispute is permitted
to operate. The firm agreed to deposit `1 lakh and give details of three
guarantors with their personal details as required. It has got grade-A certificate
and can submit an environment clearance certificate issued by the Pollution
Control Board of the state.
a) Licence to be issued
b) Licence not to be issued
c) May be referred to the Development Commissioner, Handloom
d) May be referred to the director of the industry

Q32. Hirabhi Handlooms is a Vadodara based traditional Gujarati handloom

firm keen to get an export licence. It is ready to pay the required security amount
and possesses assets of `55 lakhs. Hirabhi Chamanlal is the owner of the firm as
well as the President of State Handloom Association. Hence getting more than
three guarantors with their IDs is not a problem. The firm possesses the
environmental clearance certificate from the State Pollution Control Board after
it was made mandatory for all handloom firms in the state.
a) Licence to be issued
b) Licence not to be issued
c) May be referred to the Development Commissioner, Handloom
d) May be referred to the director of the industry

Directions (Q33, 34)

Mr. Malhotra’s family is a traditional joint family from Jalandhar having six
persons from three generations. Each member of the family has different food
preference and they support different sports / games. Only two couples are there
in the family. Rakesh likes continental food and his wife neither likes dry fruits
nor supports gymnastics. The person who likes egg supports Rugby and his
wife likes traditional food. Mona is mother-in-law of Sonalika and she supports
Athletics. Varun is grandfather of Tarun and Tarun, who likes Punjabi food,
supports Basketball. Nuri is grand daughter of Mona and she supports
Badminton. Nuri’s mother supports horse riding.

Q33. Identify the correct pair of couples:

a) Mona – Varun & Rakesh – Sonalika
b) Varun – Mona & Rakesh – Nuri
c) Rakesh – Sonalika & Tarun – Nuri
d) None of these

Q34. Who likes Punjabi food and what game does he/ she support?
a). Nuri & Badminton b) Sonalika & horse riding c) Tarun & Basketball d) None
Q35. In a four-day period–Monday through Thursday–each of the following
temporary office workers worked only one day, each a different day. Jai was
scheduled to work on Monday, but he traded with Raj, who was originally
scheduled to work on Wednesday. Farid traded with Kajal, who was originally
scheduled to work on Thursday. Finally, jai traded with Kajal. After all the
switching was done, who worked on Tuesday?
a). Jai b) Farid c) Kal d) Raj

Q36.
2017 people live on an island. Each person is either a liar (who always lies) or a
nobleman (who always tells the truth). Over a thousand of them attend a ban
quet where they all sit together around one big round table. Everyone is sayin
g, “Of my two neighbours, one is a liar and one is a nobleman.” What is the ma
ximum number of noblemen on the island?
a) 1683 b) 668 c) 670 d) 1344

Q37.
Three weights are randomly placed on each tray of a beam balance. The balanc
e dips to the right hand side as shown on the picture. The masses of the weigh
ts are 101, 102, 103, 104, 105 and 106 grams. For how many percent of the po
ssible distributions is the 106- grams-weight on the right (heavier) side?

a) 75% b) 80% c) 90% d) 95%

Q38.
30 dancers are standing in a circle facing the centre. The dance instructor shou
ts “Left” and many of them turn 90° to the left. Unfortunately, some are confu
sed and turn right, so that some dancers are now directly facing each other. Al
l of the ones that are facing each other are shaking their head. It turns out that
10 dancers shake their head. Then the dance instructor says “Turn around” an
d all of them turn 180° to look in the opposite direction. Again, all of the ones
that are directly facing each other shake their head. How many dancers are sha
king their head second time round?
a) 10 b) 20 c) 8 d) 15

Q39.
Paul wants to write a positive whole number onto every tile in the number wa
ll shown, so that every number is equal to the sum of the two numbers on the
tiles that are directly below. What is the maximum number of odd numbers he
can write on the tiles?
a) 13 b) 14 c) 15 d) 16

Q40. We consider a 5 × 5 square that is split up into 25 fields. Initially all fields
are white. In each move it is allowed to change the colour of three fields that are
adjacent in a horizontal or vertical line (i.e. white fields turn black and black
ones turn white). What is the smallest number of moves needed to obtain the
chessboard colouring shown in the diagram?

a) less than 10 b) 10 c) 12 d) more than 12

Q41. 55 pupils are taking part in a competition. A jury indicates each question
with a + sign., if it solved correctly, and with a – sign if it is solved incorrectly
and 0 if not attempted. It turns out that no student had same amount of + as
well as same amount of -. What is the minimum number of questions that had
to be asked in competition.
a) A single digit number b) > 12 c) A double digit number d) < 12

Q42. The numbers from 1 to 10 are written 10 times each on a board. Now the
children play the following game: One child deletes two numbers from the board
instead writes the sum of two numbers minus 1. Then a second child does the
same, and so forth until there is only one number left in the board. The last
number is
a) less than 440 b) less than 450 c) less than 460 d) less than 470

Q43. The diagram shows a map with 16 towns which are connected via roads.
The government is planning to build power plants in some towns. Each power
plant can generate enough electricity for the town in which it stands as well as
for its immediate neighbouring towns (i.e. towns that can be reached via a direct
connecting road). What is the minimum number of power plants that have to be
built?

a) less than 4 b) less than 5 c) less than 6 d) less than 7

Q44. A regular pentagon is cut out of a page of lined paper. Step by step this
pentagon is then rotated 21° counter clockwise about its midpoint. The result
after step one is shown in the diagram. Which of the diagrams shows the
situation when the pentagon fills the hole entirely again for the first time?
Q45. Four brothers with the harmonious names A, B, C and D are all of different
heights. They make the following claims:
A: I am neither the tallest nor the smallest.
B: I am not the smallest.
C: I am the tallest.
D: I am the smallest.
Exactly one of them lies. Select all the options besides the tallest brother
a) A b) B c) C d) D