DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: ENGLISH LANGUAGE S. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.
PART 1 (ESSAY)
1. Your father has just built a new house for the family. Write a letter to your elder brother who lives
abroad, describing the new house and the prestige it has accorded your family.
2. Write an article suitable for publication in a national newspaper, discussing two major problems
facing your country and suggesting ways of solving them.
3. The electricity supply in your school has been irregular. As the senior prefect, write a letter to the
chairman of the Parent Teachers association (PTA) telling him about the effect of this in the school
and the need to provide a stand-by generator for the school.
4. Your principal is due for retirement at the end of the academic year. As the senior prefect, write a
speech which you would deliver to honour him at the send-off party.
5. Write a story ending with the expression: “At last, we arrived safely”.
PART 2 (COMPREHENSION)
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions on it.
The crowd massive. Men, women, boys and girls from every nook and cranny of the village had
gathered under the big iroko tree. Also in the crowd an American couple, tourists, who were enjoying
their holiday. At the centre of the large circle of people was the magician who had the reputation of
performing unbelievable feats. Everybody was impressed with the feats which went along with the
hilarious drumming.
Then came the next item. The magician’s three aides each took out a local gun while the magician
danced even wilder. The gun – toting aides took up position in three different corners. The drumming
became more frenzied and the magician performed more acrobatics. The people were not to wonder for
long what the guns had to do with the whole show. One after the other, the aides aimed at the magician
while he steadied himself to receive the shots. Each gun boomed with a loud report and the magician
jumped up in celebration of his survival. The three shots seeming got him but he simply laughed to scorn
the shooters.
The American tourist was more than mystified. He could not explain it. How could a man receive
bullet shots in his chest and still remain unscathed? In disbelief, he shouted, “This is amazing, can’t be
explained. But wait a minute, i’ll join the show myself”. There and them, he went to his car, took out his
riffled, and returned to the crowd. “ I’m gonna get this guy!” he proclaimed.
He took aim. The magician saw him out of the corner of his eye. He surveyed the scenario and
decided that he was not prepared for this. Quickly, he showed a clean pour of heels. Tearing through the
crowd, he ran for dear life. Some thought this was still part of the show, but when the man would not
return, it was clear that he had bidden the audience a hasty farewell.
What the American and most others did not realise at the time was that the local guns had no
bullets whatsoever, only the gunpowder.

a. What suggests that the show was free?

b. What evidence is there that the performance was not a one-man show?
c. Why was the magician confident to receive the shots from his aides?
d. What did the American tourist set out to prove?
e. What might have happened if the American had completed his contemplated action?
f. _____ he showed a clean pour of heels. What does the expression mean?
g. _____ which went along with the hilarious drumming. (i) What is the grammatical name given to
this expression as it is used in the passage? (ii) What is its function?
h. For each of the following words, find another word or phrase which means the same and which can
replace it is it is used in the passage; (i) Feats. (ii) Aides. (iii) Steadied. (iv) Mystified. (v)
Unscathed. (vi) Hasty.

PART 3 (SUMMARY)
Read the following passage carefully and answer the question on it.
The number of people living in slums worldwide is estimated to be more than a billion. Experts in
urbanization fear that the ever-growing slums in the world will soon become more populous than the
cities. Finding like these, however, do not show clearly the devastating effect which substandard living
conditions have on the poor. The situation is more serious in developing countries, were many people
lack basic amenities, adequate housing and modern health care services.
It is an irony that while some of the richest nations want to build colonies on the mourn and
explore mars, growing numbers of their poorest citizens cannot afford a decent place to live here on
earth. It might be easy to conclude that the poor could remedy their situation if they shared more
initiative, but factors involved in the housing crisis are beyond their control. The world’s population is
increasing at an alarming rate. Such that millions of houses are needed to keep pace with the
development.
It is a fact that cities provide more facilities than the rural areas. It is easier to get electricity and
good water supply, purse one’s education and secure well-paid jobs in cities than villages. Very often
those in the villages hanker for such opportunities. One cannot therefore blame them when they seize
the first opportunity to reside in the cities. They do not mind going away from the villages to reside
uncongested cities, there by contributing to over-population in the cities. In troubled areas of the world,
political disasters, civil wars and suicide bombing are common. Poor people, women and children run
away from such troubled areas to preserve their lives. They seek refuge in whatever shelter they can find
when existing buildings are completely destroyed. The relationship between housing and poverty cannot
be ignored. People who cannot afford basic necessities as food and clothing, may not be able to rent or
build decent houses. These and others factors have forced millions of people to settle for substandard
housing. They live in abandoned buses, shipping containers, cardboard boxes and other unthinkable
places.
The housing problems, just like many other problems facing the world, should be tackled with
urgency. However, the cost of land for the erection of houses is high. Even when land is secured, the
high cost of building materials is another problem to contend with. One must not therefore blame building
agencies which employ methods that enable them to build inexpensive houses.

(a) IN FIVE sentences, one for each, state the causes of the world wide housing problems.
(b) IN ONE sentences, summarize the measures that poor people have adopted to solve their housing
problem.
SECTION B (OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS)
In each of the following sentences, there is one underlined word and one gap. Choose the one
that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word from the list of words A to D, and
correctly fill the gap in the sentence.
PART 1
1. Although the atmosphere was hostile, the meeting ended in ____ terms. A. Gentle. B.
Unacceptable. C. Suspicious. D. Amicable.
2. The company had to ___ the restaurant in order to construct a hotel. A. Demolish. B. Abandon.
C. Damage. D. Relocate.
3. Five years ago the economy of our country was buoyant but nowadays it has became ___. A.
Profitable. B. Distressed. C. Unbearable. D. Low.
4. We enjoy real stories not those that are ___. A. Imaginary. B. Practical. C. Vague. D. Undefined.
5. Ann’s efficiency earned her a promotion while Jane’s ____ caused her dismissal. A. Lateness. B.
Capability. C. Incompetence. D. Laziness.
6. While Rashida’s business is flourishing, Ida’s is ____. A. Declining. B. Diminishing. C. Deliberate.
D. Outright.
7. Clara is full of admiration for Lena but she treats me with ___. A. Despair. B. Callousness. C.
Carelessness. D. Disdain.
8. The contributions should be ____ not compulsory. A. Wilful. B. Voluntary. C. Deliberate. D.
Outright.
9. In those societies, the ____ and the cultured live together. A. Ignorant. B. Rich. C. Barbaric. D.
Arrogant.
10. Some people live in abject poverty wile others live in. A. Affluence. B. Greatness. C. Fame. D.
Peace.
PART 2
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes each of the following
sentences.
11. When you ____ someone’s point of view, you should do so politely. A. Refute. B. Rebuke. C.
Recall. D. Refuse.
12. One should ____ the land very well if one expects a bumper harvest. A. Water. B. Dig. C.
Cultivate. D. Clear.
13. His lecture was ___ and so the students did not understand it. A. Indefinite. B. Illegible. C.
unintelligible. D. Unimpressive.
14. In Botany, one is bound to ___ flowers. A. Read. B. Know. C. Study. D. Examine.
15. Harry cannot do without his ____ of short stories because he leaves reading. A. File. B. Library.
C. Collection. D. Dictionary.
16. Can you ____ result of tomorrow’s match? A. Conclude. B. Predict. C. Order. D. Certify.
17. The river ____ across the plain. A. Rolled. B. Meandered. C. Trickled. D. Passed.
18. Since the army was no longer needed, it was ____. A. Demolished. B. Dismantled. C. Disbanded.
D. Fired.
19. It is most ___ that the company spent five million naira on that fragile fence. A. Outstanding. B.
Wonderful. C. Remarkable. D. Astonishing.
20. Matters that are confidential must not be made. A. Public. B. Popular. C. Unreasonable. D.
Uncertain.
PART 3
In the following passages, the numbered gaps indicate missing words. Against each
numbers in the list below the passage, four options are given in columns lettered A to D.
Choose the word that is the most suitable to fill the numbered gaps in the passage.
The day of the great tournament arrived -21 – trooped into the stadium in their thousands.
Meanwhile, the home team had arrived and was in the – 22 -. The visiting team was late. With both
teams now arrived, the referee – 23 – his whistle and the two teams emerged from the tunnel and walked
into the pitch. The referee, his assistants and the players stood still while the national anthems of both
countries were being played. After this, the captains of both teams came forward for the – 24 -. The
home team worn, they then exchanged – 25 - and shake hands.
At exactly 4.30pm, the referee signalled for the start of the match. The supporters were signing
and dancing in the – 26 – both teams played very well but – 27 – a lot of chances. After playing for forty-
five minutes, the referee stopped the match for the half- time break. During this brief break, the – 28 - of
both teams came out to warm themselves up. When the match resumed, the home team now played
better. A -29- from the half back at the opponent’s goal was – 30 – into the net. There was a thunderous
shout from the crowd. The match continued but the ninetieth minute. The result at the end of the match
was 1 – 0. The home team had worn.
A B C D
21. Audience spectators crowd congregation
22. Pitch court dressing room rest room
23. Signalled blew sounded played
24. Loss lack-off offside throw-in
25. Gloves pennants jersey memoirs
26. Stands arena tracks steps
27. Squandered lest diverted dropped
28. Coaches supporters managers substitutes
29. Shot kick play dribbles
30. Pushed headed moved swayed
PART 4 (TEST OF ORALS)
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same vowel sound as the one
represented by the letter(s) underline.
31. Marry. A. Batter. B. Barter. C. Perk. D. Martyr.
32. Bawl. A. Port. B. Cook. C. Pal. D. Lout.
33. Kite. A. Pundit. B. Brighter. C. Dizzy. D. Liter.
34. Destroy. A. Poor. B. Boat. C. Poise. D. Idea.
35. Waste. A. Wasn’t. B. Poetry. C. Great. D. Fret.
PART 5
From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that has the same consonant sound(s) as
the one represented by the letter(s) underline.
36. Lamb. A. Lobby. B. Land. C. Baby. D. Dam.
37. Rubber. A. Super. B. Plumber. C. Copper. D. Thimble.
38. Thruth. A. Teak. B. Trend. C. Threw. D. Though.
39. Solder. A. Shere. B. Society. C. Brush. D. Bees.
40. Water. A. Pewter. B. Wrong. C. Twirl. D. Brew.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: ENGLISH LANGUAGE S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.
PART 1 (ESSAY/LETTER WRITING)
Answer one question from this section. You answer should not be less than 300 words.
1. Write an essay on the topic! “My best teacher”
2. A friend of yours has been absent from the school for about a month due to ill health. Write a letter
to him/her describing some interesting things that have happened in the school during the period
and expressing your wish foe quick recovering.
3. Write an essay on the topic: “Effect of examination malpractice on the students”.
SECTION B: (COMPREHENSIVE)
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follows.

When neighbours leant that the Umorus house hold has been raided by robbers, they were
genuinely down cast because the easy-going Umorus minded their own business and had contributed
immensely to the development of the area. Visitors early that morning were shocked at the way the doors
were vandalized before the robbers forced their way into the living room to make away with the radio, the
television, the wall clock and the video cassette recorder.
As some sympathizers discussed the perfection with which modern robbers strike nowadays, a
few of them drove to the police station and soon arrived with detectives. Quickly, statements were
obtained from the couple and few neighbours, all in any attempt to pin down suspects from these
statements, it was learnt that the bushes and uncompleted houses nearly had not been searched. The
officer ordered his men to comb the bushes and unfinished structures. While this lasted, he stood over
the coheart near one of the buildings.
Thoroughly, from room to room, from tree to tree, the searchers toiled. But it was a fruitless
exercise. The help rendered by neighbours did not yield clues, at least the police boss concluded that the
robbers were beyond their reach, and so called off the chase. He blew his whistle and ordered his men
into the jeep. Reassuring Mr. Umoru that the search would continue, he instructed the driver to move.

All this while in the culvert,their booty by their side,the two robbers snored on.had a stray dog not
given them away,later in the after noon,they would have escaped with the booty.

A. Why were the neighbours concerned about the robbery in the house of the umorus ?
B. Identify the two types of sympathizers mentioned in the passage.
C. Were the police cereful in their search ? (ii) why do you think so ?
D. What finally happened to the robbers ?
E. Had a stray dog not given them away (i) What is the grammatical term used to describe the above
expression,as used in the passage? (ii) What is its function ?
F. Give one word that could replace each of the following as used in the passage:(i) immensely (ii)
vandalized (iii) pin down (iv) comb (v) structure (vi) chase.

SECTION C
In the following passage the numbered gaps indicate missing words. Against each number
below,five choices are offered in the column letterd A B.for each question,choose the most
suitable words to fill the numbered gaps in the passage.
Not all insects are -1 ___________and amongst those which are,the honey bees.besides the honey they
-2 ___________,they perform are even more important service by 3 - __________flowers.the - 4
________method of obtaining in african countries is to allow wild bees to enter a – 5 - ___________and
then later to smoke out the bees with _ 6 ________the food value of honey is_____ 7 _____high,it is
derived from____ 8 _____which merely a sugsry solutionin water.in honey most of this sugar has been
changed into another ___ 9 _____wchich ,when eaten,is very easily___ 10 _____into the blood___ 11
______an ___ 12 ______is the name of the place where the bee lieves are kept.bees required water and
this should be provided if not ___ 13 _____available.a
a honey___ 14 _____is the place where the honey is stored and it is very important that the bees are not
destroyed when the honey is _ 15 _______

A B C D E
1. necessary useful important harmless harmful
2. produce invent deliver forge created
3. dispersing beautifying flavouring colouring pollinating
4. scientific mechanical traditional modern technical
5. shell cell live hut tree
6. rays heat torch fire light
7. exceptionally simultaneously constructively imaginatively alternately
8. adrenalin sugar glucose nectar glycerine
9. energy object solid liquid form
10. preserved reserved digested assimilated inhaled
11. accessory flow mechanism system stream
12. apiary aquarium insulator incubator incinerator
13. socially naturally economically communally artificially
14. web nest comb aperture house
15. poured sucked siphoned injection extracted
From the words or groupof words lettered A_B below each of the following
sentences,choose the word or group of words thats is nearest in meaning to the underlined
words as used in the sentences
16. Edet will have to face the consequences of his rash action (A)results (B)
answers(C)antecedents(D)prognosis (E)accusations
17. You will in our yours fathers wrath if you do that (A) debt (B) expenditure(C) anger(D) favour(E)
pleasure
18. The devastation caused by the earthquake was
shocking(A)devaluation(B)dilapidation(C)desecration(D)trepidation(E)destruction
19. I have implicit confidence in abass ability to win the race (A)partial
(B)absolute(C)correct(D)impervious(E)doubtful
20. The point he made are germane to the argument
(A)irregular(B)convincing(C)helpful(D)unnecessary(E)relevant.
21. The testimony of the witness absolved the accused of the charges. (A) condamned (B) implicated
(C) criticized (D) blamed (E) cleared
22. The supreme court set aside the ruling of the high court. (A) upheld (B) nullified (C) agreed with (D)
justified (E) rebuked
23. The ornament should be handled with care because it is fragile. (A) expensive (B)uncommon(C)
golden(D) imported (E) delicated.
24. The minister announced that the government would soon make a law to prohibit the showing of
obscene film,(A) violent (B) dangerous(C) immoral (D) frightful (E) juvenile.
25. The retiring officer’s contribution towards the growth of the company was invaluable. (A)
inestimable (B) unnoticeable (C) negligible (D) inconsequential (E) measurable.
From the words lettered A to B,choose the words that contain the sound represented by the
given phonetic symbol.
26. /∂/. (A) music (B) mouthful (C) problem (D) colleague
27. /ᶾ:/. (A) port (B) cord (C) sort (D) work
28. /ɭ/. (A) expert (B) extor (C) exile (D) exercise.
29. /ʊ/. (A) should (B) ru (C) boom (D) doom
30. /ʌ/. (A) ozone (B) orange (C) oven (D) glory
31. /j/. (A) jun (B) dew (C) grew (D) blue
32. /ᶾ/. (A) explosion (B) compalsion (C) pressure (D) extension
33. /z/. (A) reverse (B) consist (C) result (D) price
34. /Ө/. (A) therefore (B) thompson (C) health (D) dear
35. /₺/. (A) them (B) through (C) tied (D) thank
In each of the following questions,the main primary stress is indicated by writing the
sylable on which it occurs in capital letters.from the words lettered A to D,choose the words that
has the correct stress.
36. Simplify (A) sim PLI fy (B) sim pli Fy (C) SIM pli fy (D) SI m pli fy
37. Magnify (A) mag nify (B) MAG ni fy (C) mag ni FY (D) MAGN i fy
38. Qualify (A) QUA li fy(B) qua li fy (C) qua LI fy (D) qua li FY
39. Formative (A)for ma TIVE (B)FOR ma tive (C) for MA tive (D)for ma tive
40. Adjective (A)ad jec TIVE (B) AD jec tive (C) ad JEC tive (D) ad jec tive
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: ENGLISH LANGUAGE J. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.
LEXIS AND STRUCTURE.
Jideofor was 1____ of robber and the police 2 ____ him. At the police 3 ____ he was detained in
the 4 ____. Jideofor’s case was charged 5 ______. During the hearing of the case, he pleaded not guilty.
The case was 6 _____ till next week. His defence 7 _____ requested that Jideofor be granted 8 ____ on
health reason.
On the second hearing of the case, Jideofor was found innocent and the presiding 9 ____
discharged and 10 _____ him.
A B C D E
1. Accused challenged pronounced sentenced voted
2. Arrested called invited killed sued
3. Compound office stadium station yard
4. Cell class house office room
5. Court lawyers office prison station
6. Adjourned adjournment cancelled put off shifted
7. Boss cancel counsellor council counsel
8. Bail freedom movement pass release
9. Barrister counsel judge lawyer officer
10. Acquitted convicted imprisoned jailed
sentenced.
Identify the word with the given sound /a:/.
11. A. Bark. B. cake. C. cat. D. hat. E. ward.
12. A. pat. B. bat. C. park. D. cork. E. run.
Choose the best interpretation of the underlined part of the sentence.
13. Okeke always keeps an open house. A. entertains people grudgingly. B. entertains readily
everybody that comes to his house. C. keeps his rooms ventilated and clean. D. keeps his
windows open for sightseeing. E. entertains some important visitors.
14. Ekene turns deaf ears to his father’s advice. A. did not hear his father’s advice. B. did not take his
father’s advice. C. did not understand his father’s advice. D. disgraced his father who was deaf. E.
was deaf and could not hear his father’s advice.
15. It rained cats and dogs. This means that it rained. A. for a short time. B. heavily. C. lightly. D. on
cats and dogs. E. on cats only.
16. The thief took to his heels at sight of a policeman. A. hit the police. B. ran away. C. ran to the
hills. D. surrendered. E. to his high heels.
17. My bank account is in the red. A. empty of money. B. fat with money. C. in a red bank. D. inside
a red account. E. red in colour.
Chose the option that means the same thing as the underlined word in the statement below.
18. The principal did not buy the students billy excuse. A. accept. B. call. C. force. D. give. E. sell.
19. The driver failed to obey the road signs. A. jump. B. notice. C. observe. D. see. E. understand.
20. The instructions were read to us over and over again. A. anxiously. B. continuously. C. loudly. D.
openly. E. repeatedly.
21. Drug abuse should be banned in Nigeria. A. allowed. B. controlled. C. encouraged. D.
understood. E. wipe out.
 Choose the best option to fill the gaps below.
22. This is the man ____ car was stolen. A. which. B. who. C. what. D. whom. E. whose.
23. The books under the table are ____. A. theirs’. B. their’s. C. them. D. theirs. E. there’s.
24. Ada is my friend as well as ____. A. her. B. hers. C. hers’. D. mine. E. she’s.
Write down the words opposite in meaning to the underlined words in these sentences.
25. During my last holiday, I visited a friendly community. A. bucolic. B. civil. C. hostile. D. loving. E. simple.
26. Food is now scarce and expensive in Nigeria. A. available. B. dear. C. dearth. D. plentiful. E. rare.
27. Emeka’s father advised him not to be reckless at school. A. brave. B. carful. C. careless. D. shy. E. weak.
28. My school will soon move to its permanent site. A. fixed. B. temporal. C. new. D. former. E. temporary.
29. Since the accused pleaded guilty, the judge insisted he should be locked up. A. free. B. ignorant. C.
innocent. D. mercy. E. responsible.
30. When the children saw their mother, they were filled with hope. A. anger. B. despair. C. fear. D. regret. E.
sadness.
Identify the part of speech of the underlined words in the sentences below.
31. The money was shared among the participants. A. adjective. B. adverb. C. conjunction. D. noun. E.
preposition.
32. Although the farmer is old, he is strong. A. adjective. B. adverb. C. conjunction. D. preposition. E.
pronoun.
33. The parish priest preached at length on faithfulness. A. adjective. B. noun. C. pronoun. D. verb. E. verb
phrase.

LITERATURE:
34. Who is the author of My Twin sister?
35. What are the names of the twins?
36. Literature originated from _________ word.
37. ______ is one importance of literature.
38. What is the name of the twins?
SECTION B: COMPREHENSION.

A farmer ready to cultivate his land, first of all clears the land of grass and this is gathered to a
spot and burnt. This is done to avoid killing the microbes on the land and also to use the ash as manure.
After this, the next activity will be to make mounds in which the farm seedlings are planted. Yam planting
starts in April. The size and type of the seedlings to be planted depend on the type of yam needed and
its purpose. If yam seedlings for next year’s planting is needed, the smaller seedlings will be required,
but if it is meant for eating, bigger seedlings will be planted.
After planting, such activities like weeding and caring for tendrils begin. The maturity period is
about six to eight months depending on the type of yam species. The harvested yams are preserved in a
barn to avoid decay due to excessive heat and rain. Yam is a staple food which gives energy. It can be
boiled, fried or pounded and taken with any kind of soup.
Questions.
1. Why does every farmer struggle to own much yam?
2. Why is grass cleared and burnt at a spot?
3. How long does it take yam to mature?
4. What class of food does yam belong to?
5. Mention two methods that could be used to prepare yam.
Essay and letter writing. (Answer ONE question)
1. Write a letter to your uncle in Abuja, telling him that you would like to live with him while attending
school. Give him at least three reasons why you want to do so.
2. Write an essay on the topic “A day I will never forget”.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: ENGLISH LANGUAGE J. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.
Answer ONE question only from this section.
1. Write a letter to your elder brother working abroad describing the hardship you and your parents
are facing at home and requesting him to give some financial support.
2. The road leading to your school is in a very bad state, it has caused many parents to withdraw their
children and has caused the school a lot of harm. Write a letter to the local government chairman
requesting him to use his office to help repair the road.
3. Write an essay on the topic: “My best teacher”.
SECTION B – COMPREHENSION
Read the passage below very carefully and answer the questions that follows;
Inflation is the rise in general level of price of goods and services in an economy over a period of
time. When the general price level rises, each unit of currency buys fever goods and services.
Consequently, there is an erosion in the purchasing power of money, a loss of real value of the currency
within the country.
Inflation’s effect on an economy are various and can be simultaneously positive and negative.
Negative effect of inflation include increased risk in saving, uncertainty over the future which may
discourage investment and savings, and, if inflation is rapid enough, shortage of goods as consumers
begin hoarding, out of concern that prices will increase in the future. Positive effects include ensuring that
central banks can adjust real interest rates and encouraging investment in non-monetary capital projects.
Some of the negative effects of inflation could serious impact not only on the economy but also
on the social welfare of society at large. High inflation can prompt employees to demand rapid wage or
salary increases, to keep up with consumer prices. Rising wages in turn, can help fuel inflation. In other
words, inflation causes further inflating expectation, which causes further inflation. This is called cost-
push inflation in economics. Moreover, inflation can encourage hoarding. In the situation, people buy
durable and non-perishable commodities and other goods to store them in the house in order to avoid
the losses expected from the declining purchasing power of money, which in turn creates shortages of
the hoarding goods.
Inflation can lead to social unrest, public demonstrations and revolutions. For example, inflation,
and in particular food inflation, is considered one of the main reason that caused the 2010-2011, Tunisia
revolution and the 2011 Egyptian revolution. Tunisian president Zine El Abidine Ben Ali was ousted,
Egyptian president Hosni Mubarak was also ousted after 18 days of demonstrations and protests which
eventually spread to many countries of North Africa and the middle East.
Questions.
1. Describe in your own words what inflation is?
2. What happens when the general price level rises?
3. Give one reason why hoarding occur?
4. What is cost-push inflation according to the passage?
5. What type of inflation caused Tunisian and Egyptian revolutions?
PART II (OBJECTIVES)
Complete the numbered gaps from the lettered options.
My 1 ------ at New Breed International Oil plc started 20 years ago. I remember vividly when I took my
letter of 2 ------ to the personnel manager. A week after the submission of the letter, I was 3 ------ the
assistant sales manager.
The appointment letter clearly states that 4 _____ from the one position to another will occur every three years. It
also states that I shall be entitled to sick 5 _____ and a three week 6 ____ leave. Being a woman, I am also entitled
to a 7 ___ leave of three months in case of child birth. The 8 ____ age of the company is 65. I have always loved to
work in the company. I like the members of 9 ____ as well as the client. Throughout my career, I was never given a
10 ____ query by my boss in the office for any misdeed or negligence of duty.
A B C D
1. Career occupation stress application
2. Employment application deployment implication
3. Deployed anointed appointed nominated
4. Emotion announcement commotion promotion
5. Leave live leaf choice
6. Personal annual centenary year
7. Paternity eternity maternity ward
8. Enjoyment employment leave retirement
9. Staff labourers foremen friends
10. Oral written blame memo
Complete the following with the appropriate words.
11. Either the parents or the teacher ____ properly. A. writes. B. write. C. written. D. writing.
12. Rice and beans ____ my worst food. A. are. B. were. C. is. D. is to be.
13. Neither the teacher nor the student’s ______ holiday. A. hate. B. hates. C. hating. D. was hating.
14. Reward for hard work is success _____? A. aren’t it? B. is it. C. isn’t it. D. wasn’t it?
15. I haven’t seen you, ______? A. have i. B. haven’t i. C. isn’t it. D. is it.
16. Eze arrived last night _____ train. A. on. B. in. c. by. D. with.
17. You cannot pass your examination ____ hard work. A. without. B. on. C. in. D. unless.
18. Do you depend _____ your father to survive? A. in. B. on. C. with. D. upon.
19. This is the answer we have arrived ____. A. in. B. at. C. on. D. from.
20. James as well as Jerry _____ already in the village. A. is. B. are. C. were. D. am.
Identify the types of noun in the following sentences.
21. Emeka is the most brilliant student in his class. A. proper. B. collective. C. common. D. concrete.
22. My school is the best in town. A. abstract. B. collective. C. common. D. proper.
23. Experience is the best teacher. A. abstract. B. concrete. C. countable. D. proper.
24. The herd of cattle died as a result of malnutrition. A. uncountable. B. collective. C. abstract. D. common.
25. John travelled to Lagos yesterday. A. common. B. proper. C. collective. D. abstract.
Identify the word with the given sound symbols.
26. /a:/. A. mat. B. car. C. bathe. D. put.
27. /æ/. A. man. B. park. C. part. D. bird.
28. /ɔ:/. A. go. B. work. C. boil. D. burn.
Choose the correct transcription for the given words.
29. Eight. A. /eat/. B. /eit/. C. /ait/. D. /iat/.
30. Work. A. /wɜ:k/. B. /wɜk/. C. wɔ:k. D. /wɒk/.
LITERATURE.
31. __________ is the artistic work of art.
32. A play that ends happily is known as ______
33. The chief major character is order wise known as ______
34. The character the works against the progress of the protagonist is called _____
35. _________ is written in stanzas and lines
36. A sonnet is a poem of _____ lines.
37. A female major character is known as _____
38. While the male major character is called ______
39. A life history of a person written by another is called ______
40. While a life history of a person written by the person is known as ______.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: ENGLISH LANGUAGE J. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.
Chose one of the option lettered A-E to fill in the numbered gaps. Write the letter only.
The match 1 ----- offs on a very sad note for our 2 ---- the invaded No sooner had the 3 ----- started than
the 4 ----- of our side. Captain Nwokolo 5 ------ an injure and was carried our other 6 ----- taking
advantage of our misfortune our 7 ----- scored their first 8 ----- in the seventh minute of the first half
through their centre 9 ----. As if that was not enough, the scored a second goal through a 10 ---- kick only
three minutes
A B C D E
1. Blew dumped kicked pushed set
2. Company gang group set team
3. Football game hobby race sport
4. Moon Neptune planet star sun
5. Got obtained received sustained won
6. Area compound pitch scene stadium
7. Adversaries beloved enemies friend opponents
8. Bonus goal kick mark point
9. Backward downward forward sideway upward
10. Panel penalty penance punishable punitive.
Identify the word with the given sound symbol.
11. /¡/. A. bead. B. goat. C. pocket. D. wealth. E. wreath.
12. /u:/. A. Brought. B. Fool. C. Good. D. House. D. Tour.
13. /ʃ/. A. Chew. B. Church. C. Scheme. D. Shoe. E. Sit.
From the option lettered A to E, choose the correct transcription for the words in capital
letters.
14. BIRD. A. /bade/. B. /bed/. C. /beid/. D. bʒ:Ԁ/.
15. STYLE. A. /stail/. B. /stal/. C. /stail/. D. /stlel/. E. /styli/.
From the options lettered A – E, choose the phonetic symbol that represents a diphthong.
16. A. /ʒ:/. B. /ɑ/. C. /ɑʊ/. D. /j/. E. /t/
Choose the best interpretation of the underlined part of the sentences below:
17. The student’s plan to beat up their Biology teacher fill through. A. Did not succeed. B. Passed
through. C. Presented a book. D. Was condemned. E. Was discovered.
18. The woman was brought to book for child abuse. A. Refused. B. Soft. C. Wept. D. Punished. E.
Rewarded.
19. The two boys are birds of a feather. This means that both are. A. Identical twins. B. In love wwith
each other. C. Interested in fathers. D. Nosily people. E. Of the same character.
Choose the option that means the same thing as the word or group of words underlined in
the sentences below.
20. The principal has endorsed the student’s award. A. Approved. B. Reduced. C. Refused. D.
Turned down. E. Wiped out.
21. Okey advised Nneka to handle the eggs with care because they are fragile. A. Attractive. B.
Brittle. C. Delicate. D. Shiny. E. Soft.
22. Rangers fans jubilated when the winning goal was scored. A. Cried. B. Rejoiced. C. Screamed.
D. Shouted. E. Wept.
Choose the word opposite in meaning to the underlined words in these sentences.
23. He looked at the leader with confidence. A. Admiration. B. Dislike. C. Distrust. D. Envy.
24. Stout beer is very bitter. A. Corrosive. B. Exciting. C. Sour. D. Sweet. E. Mistrust.
25. The old man was not cruel to his son. A. Generous. B. Just. C. Kind. D. Loyal. E. Polite.
Identify the part of speech of the underlined words in the sentence below.
26. It was wonderful day. A. Adjective. B. Adverb. C. Noun. D. Preposition. E. Verb.
27. Describe the relationship between you and your parents. A. Adjective. B. Adverb. B. Noun. D.
Preposition. E. Verb.
28. Mr. Chukwuma wanted to sing but could not do so. A. Adjective. B. Adverb. C. Conjunction. D.
Preposition. E. Pronoun.
Choose the correct passive from to the active sentence below.
29. Teachers teach children to obey children _____ by teachers to obey. A. Are taught. B. Is taught.
C. Was taught. D. Were being taught. E. Were taught.
30. The child set the car ablaze. The car ____ by the child. A. Is being set ablaze. B. Is set ablaze.
C. Has been set ablaze. D. Was set ablaze. E. Were to be set ablaze.
Choose from the option lettered A – E the type of adverbial clause underlined in the
sentences below.
31. We couldn’t play the match because the field was wet. Adverbial clause of. A. Contrast. B.
Manner. C. Place. D. Reason. E. Time.
32. We shall not travel if it rains. Adverbial clause of. A. Condition. B. Degree. C. Purpose. D.
Reason. E. Time.
Change the following direct speeches to indirect speech.
33. Udenwa said “ i cannot go home tomorrow”. Udenwa said that. A. He cannot go home the next
day. B. He cannot go home tomorrow. C. He cannot go home that day. D. He could not go home
the next day. E. I could not go home the next day.
34. When will they arrive? He asked. A. They will arrive. B. They would arrive. C. Will they arrive? D.
Would they arrive? E. Would they have arrived?
Choose from the option the correct response to the question tag.
35. They like reading, don’t they? A. No, they did. B. No, they do. C. Yes, they did. D. Yes, they do.
E. Yes, he couldn’t.
36. John can do the work, cant he? A. No, he can. B. No, he cant. C. Yes, he can. D. Yes, he cant.
E. Yes, he couldn’t.
Choose the correct question tag to the sentences below.
37. You do not like mathematics, _____. A. Do you? B. Don’t you? C isn’t it? D. Will you? E. Wont
you?
Fill the blank spaces in the sentences below with the appropriate options.
38. It is high time you ____ lying. A. Had stopped. B. Stop. C. Stopped. D. Were stopped. E. Will
stop.
39. If you trodden on the snake it ____ bitten you. A. May have. B. Should have. C. Will have. D.
Would. E. Would have.
40. The case is between Emeka and ____. A. Are. B. i. C. Me. D. Was. E. Were.
41. Measles ____ a deadly disease. A. Are. B. Is. C. May be. D. Was. E. Were.
42. I could not prepare the meal because there was ____ kerosene in the house. A. A little. B. Few.
C. Little. D. Small. E. Some.
43. The sick man ____ in bed for three months. A. Lain. B. Lay. C. Layed. D. Lie. E. Stage.
44. Pick out odd item. A. Actor. B. Aside. C. Chapter. D. Dialogue. E. Stage.
Choose the most correct option to complete the following sentences.
45. Two types of prose are. A. Actor and actress. B. Fiction and non-fiction. C. Hero and heroine. D.
Poetry and prose. E. Present and past.
46. The choice of appropriate words to convey the thoughts of an author is called. A. Diction. B.
Figure of speech. C. Idiomatic expression. D. Setting. E. Version.
47. He was a cat in the goal is an example of. A. Euphemism. B. Metaphor. C. Oxymoron. D.
Personification. E. Simile.
48. Another name for a hero is. A. Actor. B. Antagonist. C. Heroine. D. Protagonist. E. Reminder.
49. A person who reminds the actor or actress of a forgotten part of his/her speech is known as. A.
Actor. B. Character. C. Director. D. Prompter. E. Reminder.
50. The main effect of comedy on an audience is. A. Anxiety. B. Laughter. C. Sadness. D.
51. Weakness. E. Weeping.
SECTION B (COMPREHENSION)
Read the passage carefully and answer the question that follows.

Yam is a valuable, costly and highly regarded crop in our land and so, every average farmer
struggle to own as much of it as possible.
A farmer ready to cultivate his land, first of all clears the land of grass and this is gathered to a
spot and burnt. This is done to avoid killing the microbes on the land and also, to use the ash as manure.
After this, the next activity will be to make mounds in which the farm seedlings are planted. Yam planting
starts in April. The size and type of the seedlings to be planted depend on the type of yam needed and
its purpose. If yam seedlings for next year’s planting is needed, the smaller seedlings will be required,
but if it is meant for eating, bigger seedlings will be planted.
After planting, such activities like weeding and caring for tendrils begin. The maturity period is
about six to eight months depending on the type of yam species. The harvested yams are preserved in a
barn to avoid decay due to excessive heat and rain. Yam is a stable food which gives energy. It can be
boiled, fried or pounded and taken with any kind of soup.
Questions:
1. Why does every farmer struggle to own much yam?
2. Why is grass cleared and burnt at a spot?
3. How long does it take yam to mature?
4. What class of food does yam belong to?
5. Mention two methods that could be used to prepare yam?

SECTION C: (ESSAY AND LETTER WRITING). Answer all.

1. Write a letter to your uncle in Abuja telling him that you would like to live with him while attend in
school. Give him at least three reasons why you want to do so.
2. Write an essay on the topic “A day I will never forget”.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: COMMERCE S. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.
1. When consumers engage in actions that express dissatisfaction with the quantity, price and quality
of goods available, such action is termed. A. Consumer behaviour. B. Consumerism. C.
Consumer education. D. Consumer orientation.
2. A document used as a polite way of refusing credit is. A. Advice note. B. Quotation. C. Proforma
invoice. D. Invoice.
3. A tariff refers to. A. Fees imposed on contra bond goods. B. Fees paid on exports. C. Taxes
imposed on imported goods. D. Taxes paid on home made goods.
4. A person who undertakes responsibility for forming a new company is. A. Auditor. B. Solicitor. C.
Registrar. D. Promoter.
5. The ancillary to trade which ensures that people have access to information pertaining to goods is.
A. Insurance. B. Advertising. C. Warehouse. D. Banking.
6. The insurance principle of indemnity does not apply to. A. Fire insurance. B. Life insurance. C.
bungary insurance. D. Marine insurance.
7. To take an insurance policy, an applicant must first complete a/an. A. Proposal form. B. Cover
note. C. Certificate of insurance. D. Advice note.
8. The principal member of the stock exchange who buys and sells securities on his own is a. A.
Jobber. B. Promoter. C. Broker. D. Speculator.
9. Consumer protection places an obligation on producers to ensure that their products. A. Are
wholesome and safe. B. Are cheap. C. Do not evade customs examination. D. Are branded.
10. The document issued by the registrar of companies which allows a public company to commence
business is called. A. trading certificate. B. Prospectus. C. Certificate of incorporation. D.
Memorandum of association.
11. The place where bankers meet daily to exchange cheque drawn on each other is known as. A.
Capital market. B. Money market. C. Clearing house. D. Discount house.
12. An advertising campaign designed to sell one’s own products at the expose of other brands is. A.
Competitive. B. Persuasive. C. Direct. D. Informative.
13. The practice of giving a particular name to a product by a manufacturer is. A. Branding. B.
Standardization. C. Publicity. D. Advertising.
14. Which of the following aids to trade facilitates production ahead of demand? A. Insurance. B.
Transportation. C. Advertising. D. Warehousing.
15. An association that protects the interest of members in the same line of business is. A. Consumer
association. B. Trade union. C. Trade association. D. Chamber of commerce.
16. The term utmost good faith in insurance means. A. Both the insured and insurer must disclose all
information. B. Only the insurer must disclose all information. C. Only the insured must disclosed
all information. D. The beneficiary must disclose all information.
17. The capital that is used in the day-to-day running of a business is. A. Nominal capital. B. Working
capital. C. Paid up capital. D. Authorized capital.
18. A house insured against damage by flood was burnt down and the owner had no claim. Which of
the following principles prevented him from making a claim? A, indemnity. B. Contribution. C.
Insurable interest. D. Proximate cause.
19. The market for short term capital is called. A. Commodity market. B. Discount market. C. Money
market. D. Stock market.
20. All activities aimed at creation of a good image for an organization are referred to as. A. Market
segmentation. B. Market research. C. Public relation. D. Consumer orientation.
21. Study to discover consumer’s preference and needs is called. A. Market segmentation. B.
Consumer orientation. C. Market research. D. Market mix.
22. When a number of thrift societies come together and are registered, they become a. A. Holding
company. B. Credit union. C. Trade union. D. Consumer association.
23. Which of the following is not a function of a retailer? A. Buying in bulk and warehousing. B. Buying
and selling in bits to consumers. C. Advertising consumers on the right type of goods. D. Granting
credits to customers.
24. An activity that changes raw materials into consumer or industrial goods is. A. Constructive. B.
Assembling. C. Extractive. D. Manufacturing.
25. Risks in business are borne by the. A. Consumer. B. Entrepreneur. C. Marketing manager. D.
Personnel manager.
26. The mode of transport that conveys goods at low cost per unit is. A. Road. B. Rail. C. Pipeline.
D. Air.
27. Farming is an activity that falls under. A. Tertiary occupation. B. Commercial occupation. C.
extractive occupation. D. Secondary occupation.
28. Which of the following coordinates other factors of production to achieve set objectives? A. Land.
B. Labour. C. Entrepreneur. D. Capital.
29. A cheque which the bank refused to pay because the drawer had insufficient funds in his account
is. A. A bounced cheque. B. A bearer cheque. C. A crossed cheque. D. An order cheque.
30. The capital that is used in the day-to-day running of a business is a. A. Nominal capital. B. Working
capital. C. Paid up capital. D. Authorized capital.
31. Which of the following is classified under current asset? A. Machinery. B. Motor vehicle. C. Stock.
D. Fittings.
32. A cheque made payable to a named person is. A. A crossed cheque. B. A certified cheque. C. An
order cheque. D. A confirmed cheque.
33. A tax charged in proportion to the value of imported goods is. A. Specific duty. B. Ad valorem
duty. C. Custom duty. D. Excise duty.
34. The factor that is not considered when determining the means of transport suitable for cargo is. A.
Size. B. Weight. C. Manufacturer. D. Perishability.
35. Which of the following is a document of title of goods? A. Bill of exchange. B. Bill of entry. C.
Letter of hypothecation. D. Bill of lading.
36. The fee paid for transporting goods by ship is. A. Fare. B. Freight. C. Demurrage. D. Charges.
37. Shares, bonds, stocks and debentures traded on the stock exchange are collectively called. A.
Collaterals. B. Commodities. C. Resources. D. Securities.
38. The charge paid to a ship owner for the unused part of a ship is known as. A. Penalty. B. Dock
dues. C. Dead freight. D. Demurrage.
39. In a hire purchase contract, the customer becomes the legal owner of the goods by. A. Paying the
last instalment. B. Paying the first instalment. C. Taking possession of goods. D. Paying half the
purchase price.
40. A firm that specializes in packing and shipping of goods is known as a. A. Forwarding agent. B.
General agent. C. Del credere agent. D. Cargo handling company.
41. It is often said that “the consumer is always right”. This describes the doctrine of. A. Consumer
movement. B. Consumer sovereignty. C. Coueatemptor. D. Consensuaddem.
42. The scope of commerce is limited to. A. Home and foreign trade. B. Wholesale and retail trade.
C. Trade and aids-to-trade. D. Wholesale and entrepot trade.
43. A worker who processes garri is engaged in. A. Extracting. B. Manufacturing. C. Exchange. D.
Constructing.
44. Which of the following is not a commercial occupation? A. Transportation. B. Warehousing. C.
Banking. D. Fishing.
45. Industry is a branch of production because it. A. Is a division of commerce. B. Increases utility of
goods. C. Involves the use of machines. D. Deals with durable goods.
46. Entrepot trade means. A. Exchange of goods between two countries. B. Exchange of goods
among countries. C. Exporting goods to be re-imported. D. Importing goods to be re-exported.
47. One disadvantage of rail transport is. A. Suitability for fragile goods. B. Absence of pilferage. C.
Vulnerability to severe weather. D. Inflexibility.
48. Partnership form of business is most appropriate. A. Where professionals are needed. B. For non profit
making ventures. C. Where very large capital is required. D. Where the liability of members is limited.
49. Production is defined as. A. An industrial undertaking. B. Creation of utility. C. Earning one’s daily bread.
D. The changing of raw materials.
50. Terms of trade is the. A. Rate which the central bank discounts first class bills. B. Rate at which a country’s
exports exchange for its imports. C. Expected rate of returns on an investment. D. Rate of payment for
goods and services purchased.
51. The people involved in the formation of new companies are called. A. Members. B. Directors. C.
Shareholders. D. Promoters.
52. Which of the following is not a function of money? A. Double coincidence of wants. B. Medium of exchange.
C. Measure of value. D. Store of wealth.
53. Legal tender consists of. A. Cheques and coins. B. Bank draft and cheques. C. Currency notes and coins.
D. Money order and currency notes.
54. A dormant partner is one who. A. Does not work hard. B. Lent his name to the business. C. Has limited
liability. D. Does not partake in running business.
55. The divisions of production are. A. Industry, banking and services. B. Industry, manufacturing and services.
C. Industry, commerce and services. D. Industry, transportation and services.
56. Which of the following is not a function of commerce? A. Advertising goods. B. Creation of goods. C.
Increasing profit made. D. Distribution of goods.
57. Which of the following services is rendered by central bank? A. Provision of brokerage services. B. Safe
keeping of cash and other valuables. C. Discounting bills of exchange. D. Issuing currency notes.
58. The main advantage of sea transport over air transport is. A. Capacity. B. Safety. C. Speed. D. Patronage.
59. The form of trade practised by the early men was characterized by. A. Exchange of goods for money. B.
Efficient distribution system. C. Exchange of goods for goods. D. Organized warehousing.
60. Which of the following is a function of the retailer to the wholesaler? A providing after sales service. B.
Providing information on market trends. C. Sales of variety of goods. D. Sales of goods in smaller quantities.
Section b: (theory) Answer SEVEN questions.

1. Distinguish between commerce and industry. (bi) Explain three activities involved in industry. (ii)
Explain five activities involved in commerce.
2. Compare a public limited company with partnership under the following headings. (a) Formation.
(b) Ownership and control. (c) Source of capital. (d) Liability. (e) Dissolution.
3. State five problems of barter system of trading. (b) Explain five ways in which the introduction of
money has solved the problems stated in (3a) above.
4. What is Packaging? (b) State three disadvantages of packaging. (c) State five reasons for
packaging of products by manufacturers.
5. What is Occupation? (b) With the aid of a diagram, show the different classes of occupation. (c)
Explain with one example each, three classes of occupation shown in (1b) above.
6. Outline five functions of commercial banks. (b) List and explain three ways the central bank
controls the commercial banks.
7. Explain four ways in which commerce is important in the life of a nation. (b) List out four sources of
capital for sole proprietorship.
8. Explain the following documents used in international trade: (a) Bill of Lading. (b) Consular Invoice.
(c) Certificate of Origin. (d) Bill of Exchange.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: COMMERCE S. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.
1. When a number of thrift societies come together and are registered, they become a. A. Holding
company. B. Credit union. C. Trade union. D. Consumer association.
2. Which of the following is not a function of a retailer? A. Buying in bulk and warehousing. B. Buying
and selling in bits to consumers. C. Advising consumers on the right types of goods. D. Granting
credits to customers.
3. Any activity that changes raw materials into consumer or industrial goods is. A. Constructive. B.
Assembling. C. Extractive. D. Manufacturing.
4. Risks in business are borne by the. A. Consumer. B. Entrepreneur. C. Marketing manager. D.
Personnel manager.
5. The mode of transport that conveys goods at low cost per unit is. A. Road. B. Rail. C. Pipeline.
D. Air.
6. Farming is an activity that falls under. A. Tertiary occupation. B. Commercial occupation. C.
Extractive occupation. D. Secondary occupation.
7. Which of the following coordinates other factors of production to achieve set objectives? A. Land.
B. Labour. C. Entrepreneur. D. Capital.
8. A cheque which the bank refused to pay because the drawer had insufficient funds in his account
is. A. A bounced cheque. B. A bearer cheque. C. A crossed cheque. D. An order cheque.
9. The capital that is used in the day-to-day running of a business is. A. Nominal capital. B. Working
capital. C. Paid up capital. D. Authorized capital.
10. Which of the following is classified under current asset? A. Machinery. B. Motor vehicle. C. Stock.
D. Fittings.
11. A cheque made payable to a named person is. A. A crossed cheque. B. A certified cheque. C. An
order cheque. D. A confirmed cheque.
12. A tax charged in proportion to the value of imported goods is. A. Specific duty. B. Ad valorem
duty. C. Custom duty. D. Excise duty.
13. The factor that is not considered when determining the means of transport suitable for cargo is. A.
Size. B. Weight. C. Manufacturer. D. Perishability.
14. Which of the following is a document of title of goods? A. Bill of exchange. B. Bill of entry. C.
Letter of hypothecation. D. Bill of lading.
15. The fee paid for transporting goods by ship is. A. Fare. B. Freight. C. Demurrage. D. Charges.
16. Shares, bonds, stocks and debentures traded on the stock exchange are collectively called. A.
Collaterals. B. Commodities. C. Resources. D. Securities.
17. In a hire purchase contract, the customer becomes the legal owner of the goods by. A. Paying the
last instalment. B. Paying the first instalment. C. Taking possession of goods. D. Paying half the
purchase price.
18. The charge paid to a ship owner for the unused part of a ship is known as. A. Penalty. B. Dock
dues. C. Dead freight. D. Demurrage.
19. A firm that specializes in packing and shipping of goods is known as a. A. Forwarding agent. B.
General agent. C. Del credere agent. D. Cargo handling company.
20. The distribution of goods creates. A. True utility. B. Place utility. C. Form utility. D. Possession
utility.
21. A person who contributes money to a partnership business and is also involved in tits general
supervision is called. A. An active partner. B. A limited partner. C. A dormant partner. D. A
normal partner.
22. A business obtains part of its short term capital from. A. Bonds. B. Debentures. C. Trade credit.
D. Ordinary shares.
23. “Not negotiable” on a cheque means. A. Ownership can be transferred to the third party by mere delivery. B.
The cheque can be paid over the counter on endorsement. C. The holder has no better title than the person
who transfers it. D. Ownership rests with the own who issued the cheque.
24. Which of the following is an advantage to a sole trader? A. Guaranteed profit. B. Quick decision making. C.
Unlimited liability. D. Buying on credit.
25. An overdraft is the. A. Amount permitted to be withdrawn in excess of one’s deposit. B. Excessive cash
withdrawn by commercial banks from central bank. C. Credit balance standing in the name of customer. D.
Special deposit made by commercial banks.
26. Which of these qualities guarantees the keeping of money for a long period? A. Acceptability. B. Divisibility.
C. Durability. D. Homogeneity.
27. Sole proprietorship is a form of business owned by. A. An individual. B. Two or more persons. C. A
registered business subsidiary. D. The government.
28. The exchange of goods for goods in trade is known as. A. Entrepot trade. B. Trade by barter. C.
Commodity trade. D. Distributive trade.
29. Trade as a division of commerce is usually classified into. A. Retail and wholesale. B. Import and export. C.
Home and foreign. D. Visible and invisible.
30. A physical restriction placed in the quantity of goods that can be imported is. A. A ban. B. A quota. C. An
excise duty. D. An import tax.
31. Direct sales to consumers by manufacturers is a means of eliminating. A. Wholesales only. B. Retailers
only. C. Middle men. D. Agent.
32. The selling of goods in small units is normally performed by. A. Chambers of commerce. B. Wholesalers. C.
Distributors. D. Retailers.
33. Which of the following is not a function of warehousing? A. Creating scarcity of goods. B. Stabilization of
price. C. Production ahead of demand. D. Storage of goods.
34. The difference between current assets and current liabilities is. A. Issue capital. B. Capital employed. C.
Working capital. D. Nominal capital.
35. Carpentry is an activity classified under. A. Extractive occupation. B. Tertiary occupation. C. Commercial
occupation. D. Constructive occupation.
36. Small scale retailers continue to exist in spite of the dominance of large firms because they. A. Render
personal service. B. Employ few salesmen. C. Can raise large capital from relatives. D. Deal in specific
goods.
37. The target for all marketing activities is the. A. Consumer. B. Middle men. C. Producer. D. Distributor.
38. It is often said that ‘the consumer is always right’. This describes the doctrine of. A. Consumer movement.
B. Consumer sovereignty. C. Caveat emptor. D. Consensuaddem.
39. The scope of commerce is limited to. A. Home and foreign trade. B. Wholesale and retail trade. C.
Trade and aids-to-trade. D. Wholesale and entrepot trade.
40. Entrepot trade means. A. Exchange of goods between two countries. B. Exchange of goods
among countries. C. Exporting goods to be re-imported. D. Importing goods to be re-exported.
SECTION B: (theory) Answer FOUR questions.
1. Define Balance of Trade. (b) What are the factors of production? (c) Define Division of Labour and
Specialization.
2. Write out five functions of Commercial Banks. (bi) Define Fixed Deposit Account. (ii) What is
Cheque?
3. What is the difference between Overdraft and Loan? (b) Define Credit Unions and Thrift Societies.
(c) Give at least five services provided by credit unions and thrift societies to their members.
4. Give five advantages of Co-operative Societies. (b) Define Insurance. (c) Distinguish between
Commerce and Industry.
5. Explain five reasons why communication is important to a business. (b) List and explain five
sources of capital available to partnership.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: COMMERCE S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.
1. It is often said that ‘the consumer is always right’. This describes the doctrine of. A. Consumer
movement. B. Consumer sovereignty. C. Caveat emptor. D. Consensuaddem.
2. The scope of commerce is limited to. A. Home and foreign trade. B. Wholesale and retail trade.
C. Trade and aids-to-trade. D. Wholesale and entrepot trade.
3. A worker who processes garri is engaged in. A. Extracting. B. Manufacturing. C.
Exchange. D. Constructing.
4. Which of the following is not a commercial occupation? A. Transportation. B.
Warehousing. C. Banking. D. Fishing.
5. Industry is a branch of production because it. A. Is a division of commerce. B. Increases
utility of goods. C. Involves the use of machines. D. Deals with durable goods.
6. Entrepot trade means. A. Exchange of goods between two countries. B. Exchange of
goods among countries. C. Exporting goods to be re-imported. D. Importing goods to be re-
exported.
7. One disadvantage of rail transport is. A. Suitability for fragile goods. B. Absence of pilferage. C.
Vulnerability to severe weather. D. Inflexibility.
8. Partnership form of business is most appropriate. A. Where professionals are needed. B. For non
profit making ventures. C. Where very large capital is required. D. Where the liability of members
is limited.
9. Production is defined as. A. An industrial undertaking. B. Creation of utility. C. Earning one’s daily
bread. D. The changing of raw materials.
10. Terms of trade is the. A. Rate which the central bank discounts first class bills. B. Rate at which a
country’s exports exchange for its imports. C. Expected rate of returns on an investment. D. Rate
of payment for goods and services purchased.
11. The people involved in the formation of new companies are called. A. Members. B. Directors. C.
Shareholders. D. Promoters.
12. Which of the following is not a function of money? A. Double coincidence of wants. B. Medium of
exchange. C. Measure of value. D. Store of wealth.
13. Legal tender consists of. A. Cheques and coins. B. Bank draft and cheques. C. Currency notes
and coins. D. Money order and currency notes.
14. A dormant partner is one who. A. Does not work hard. B. Lent his name to the business. C. Has
limited liability. D. Does not partake in running business.
15. The divisions of production are. A. Industry, banking and services. B. Industry, manufacturing and
services. C. Industry, commerce and services. D. Industry, transportation and services.
16. Which of the following is not a function of commerce? A. Advertising goods. B. Creation of goods.
C. Increasing profit made. D. Distribution of goods.
17. Which of the following services is rendered by central bank? A. Provision of brokerage services. B.
Safe keeping of cash and other valuables. C. Discounting bills of exchange. D. Issuing currency
notes.
18. The main advantage of sea transport over air transport is. A. Capacity. B. Safety. C. Speed. D.
Patronage.
19. The form of trade practised by the early men was characterized by. A. Exchange of goods for
money. B. Efficient distribution system. C. Exchange of goods for goods. D. Organized
warehousing.
20. Which of the following is a function of the retailer to the wholesaler? A providing after sales service. B.
Providing information on market trends. C. Sales of variety of goods. D. Sales of goods in smaller quantities.
21. The reduction in value of a country’s currency in relation to others is. A. Redenomination. B. Denomination.
C. Inflation. D. Deflation.
22. Commerce started as a result of. A. Speculation. B. Consumption. C. Specialization. D. Nationalization.
23. Which of the following is a disadvantage of retailing? A. Selling on credit. B. Lower prices of goods. C.
Selling in small quantities. D. Location at convenient places.
24. Which of the following is engaged in commercial occupation? A. Brick layer. B. An engineer. C. An
insurance broker. D. A barber.
25. A system of sales, where goods are sold to the highest bidder is known as. A. Credit sale. B. Hire purchase.
C. Clearance sale. D. Auction sale.
26. The person who gave his building as a security for loan is known as a. A. Trustee. B. Mortgagee. C.
Mortgagor. D. Guarantor.
27. The central bank sometimes calls for special deposits from the commercial banks in order to. A. Reduce
bank lending. B. Increase bank lending. C. Withdraw defaced currencies. D. Issues new notes and coins.
28. The target for all marketing activities is the. A. Consumer. B. Middle men. C. Producer. D. Distributor.
29. Small scale retailers continue to exist in spite of the dominance of large firms because they. A. Render
personal service. B. Employ few salesmen. C. Can raise large capital from relatives. D. Deal in specific
goods.
30. Carpentry is an activity classified under. A. Extractive occupation. B. Tertiary occupation. C. Commercial
occupation. D. Constructive occupation.
31. The difference between current assets and current liabilities is. A. Issue capital. B. Capital employed. C.
Working capital. D. Nominal capital.
32. Which of the following is not a function of warehousing? A. Creating scarcity of goods. B. Stabilization of
price. C. Production ahead of demand. D. Storage of goods.
33. The selling of goods in small units is normally performed by. A. Chambers of commerce. B. Wholesalers. C.
Distributors. D. Retailers.
34. Direct sale to consumers by manufacturers is a means of eliminating. A. Wholesales only. B. Retailers only.
C. Middle men. D. Agent.
35. A physical restriction placed in the quantity of goods that can be imported is. A. A ban. B. A quota. C. An
excise duty. D. An import tax.
36. A country is said to achieve a trade surplus when total. A. Visible export exceeds total visible imports. B.
Invisible exports exceeds total invisible imports. C. Visible exports exceeds total invisible imports. D. Visible
imports exceeds total visible exports.
37. Trade as a division of commerce is usually classified into. A. Retail and wholesale. B. Import and export. C.
Home and foreign. D. Visible and invisible.
38. The exchange of goods for goods in trade is known as. A. Entrepot trade. B. Trade by barter. C.
Commodity trade. D. Distributive trade.
39. Sole proprietorship is a form of business owned by. A. An individual. B. Two or more persons. C. A
registered business subsidiary. D. The government.
40. Which of these qualities guarantees the keeping of money for a long period? A. Acceptability. B. Divisibility.
C. Durability. D. Homogeneity.
SECTION B: (THEORY) Answer FOUR questions.
1. Define Commerce. (b) Write out five functions of commerce. (c) Explain three functions.
2. List at least five characteristics of commerce and explain three. (b) Give a brief history of
commerce.
3. Define E-commerce. (b) Write out five factors that affect the growth of commerce in Nigeria. (c)
Give three importance of E-commerce.
4. List out the five major commercial centres in Nigeria. (b) Define Occupation. (c) List and explain at
least four classification of occupation.
5. Give five reasons why trade is important. (b) Differentiate between a retailer and a wholesaler. (c)
What are the factors of production?
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: ASUSU IGBO S. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.
NKEGA A (AGHOTAAZAA)
Guo ederede ndia ma zaa ajuju so ha.
EDEREDE I
Agamnihu na ndaghachiazu nke chidi nwa obieze na Ijeego nwere n’oge ntolite ya di ukwuu. Ihe
ndia kuziri ya otutu ihe. N’ihi na ndi muru Chidi bu ndi were agumakwu mere nri, o bughi ihe itunanya na
Chidi banyere uloakwukwo bu okachaibe n’ebe nkuzi na omumu nakwa iwu di iche iche e ji eduzi
umuaka a na – achi achi di.
Isi aputaraghi Chidi n’ule ngwucha afo mbu n’uloakwukwo ahu nke ndi isi na-anu oku juputara.
Ebe o mara afo n’ala, igughari kaasi ahu ozo bu nnukwu odachi na ihe ihere diri chidi. Nke a mere o jiri
puo n’uloakwukwo ahu ma gaa igbara otu akajiaku bi n’onicha adibo n’izuahia.
Obibi Chidi na azutalam gara nke oma, nke mere na tupu ndi ha nay a bidoro akwukwo eruo
klaasi nke isi, o muchala ahia ma nwee nnukwu ego.
AJUJU:
1. N’ederede a, ihe kuziri Chidi otutu ihe mere ya mgbe o ____. A. Di na nwata. B. Guchara
mahadum. C. Na-azu ahia. D. Muchara ahia.
2. Ndi muru Chidi were akwukwo mere nri, putara na ha ___. A. Ruru uloakwukwo bu okaibe. B.
Huru akwukwo n’anya nke ukwuu. C. Na-eri agumakwukwo ka nri. D. Na-enyere umuakwukwo
n’anya.
3. Isi aputaraghi chidi n’ederede a na-akowa na ____. A. Chidi aghotaghi ihe obula a kurziri ya. B.
Ahu adighi chidi n’oge ule ahu. C. Chidi akwughi ugwo akwukwo ya. D. Ohere ime mpu ule adighi
chidi.
4. Chii puru n’uloakwukwo ahu n’ihi na ___. A. Ndi isi na-anu oku juputaraa nay a. B. Uloakwukwo
ahu bu okachaibe. Ch. Azumahia ka ya mkpa. D. O dara ule ha lere.
5. Aha onye Chidi gbara odibo bu _____. A. Obieze. B. Ijeego. Ch. Azutalam. D. Azuatalam.
EDEREDE II
Ubiam na aguu bu uzo ihe abuo na-eyi ndi mmadu egwu n’uwa taa. Ubiam bu onodu ihe isi ike
na ntaramahuhu mmadu na-ano. O bu onodu mmadu enwoeghi ihe dika ochicho obi ya si di. Aguu n’aka
nke ozo bu onodu mmadu nwere ike ino ma o gaghi ahu ihe oriri.
E nwere ubiam otu onye, ezinaulo na nke obodo. Na mmadu nwere ego, ulo na ugboala aputaghi
na o puola n’ubiam obodo. Ufodu ndi nwere ugboala n’obodo anyi anaghi ebuputa ya ezi n’ihi okporo
uzo ojoo.
Ubiam na aguu emela ka otutu mmadu ghoo ndi aririo n’ike. I gaa n’obodo ufodu mepere emepe,
ndi aririo bu nsi obogwu, ma ndi isi dim ma ma ndi isi ezuchaghi oke; ma ndi nwere orusi ma ndi
enweghi.
AJUJU:
6. N’ederede a, nke na-eyi mmadu egwu bu ___. A. Aguu na ntamahuhu. B. Ubiam na aguu. Ch.
Aguu na oke ochicho. D. Ubiam na orusi.
7. N’ederede a, ndi nwere ugboala anaghi ebuputa ha n’ihi ____. A. Ubiam ego. B. Aguu. Ch. Orusi.
D. Okporouzo ojoo.
8. N’ederede a, nke esoghi n’udi ubiam bu nke _____. A. Otu onye. B. Obodo. Ch. Orusi. D.
Ezinaulo.
9. Nke a na-ahu n’obodo mepere emepe n’ederede a bu ___. A. Nsi obogwu. B. Ndi orusi. Ch. Ndi
ogaranya. D. Ndi oyi egwu.
10. N’ederede a, “bu nsi obogwu” putara ____. A. Na-eyi egwu. B. Di otutu. Ch. Di njo. D. Nwere
orusi.
 EDEMEDE
11. Udi leta nke na-anabata njuritaese bu leta _____. A. Mkpesa. B. Mkparitauka. Ch. Nkeonye. D.
Anamachoihe.
12. Ndiiche n’etiti leta na edemede ndi ozo bun a leta ____. A. Na-ebu adreesi. B. Na-enwe mmechi.
Ch. Na-enwe ebumnobi. D. Na-enwe etiti.
13. N’ederede nruritauka, a na-enwe ____. A. Njuritaase. B. Adreesi. Ch. Mgbagha. D. Deeti.
14. Nke e jiri mara ederede akomako bu ____. A. Iru uka. B. Iko etui he siri mee. Ch. Ijuritaase. D.
Ikowa etu e si eme ihe.
UDAASUSU
15. Nke bu udaimi na ndi a bu _____. A. M,n,kp. B. M,nw,ny. Ch. P,nw, gb. D. M,gh,h.
16. E wepu ndi bu mgbochiumemkpi, abidii igbo dizi ____. A. Iri na asaa. B. Iri ato na isii. Ch. Iri abuo
na asaa. D. Iri na asaa.
17. Mkpuruokwu ndi a nwere naani udaala ma e wepu ____. A. Uwa (world). B. Ala (earth). Ch.
Akwa (bed). D. Afo (year).
18. Iwu gbochiri ngakorita udaume mfe na udaume aro na mmebeokwu ka a na-akpo iwu _____. A.
Ndapu udaume. B. Myiriudaume. Ch. Olilo udaume. D. Ndakorita udaume.
19. Nke e ji egbugbere na eze akpoputa bu ___. A. /h/. B. /gh/. Ch. /b/. D. /f/.
20. Mkpuruokwu enweghi ndapu mgbochiume n’ime ndi a bu ____. A. Ouko. B. Akuko. Ch. Oike. D.
Eihe.
UTOASUSU
21. Diala bu nnukwu ugboala bia. “Nnukwu” n’ahiri okwu a bu ____. A. Ngwaa. B. Nnochiaha. Ch.
Nkowaaha. D. Njiko.
22. Igu akwukwo mara mma. “Igu” n’ahiriokwu a bu ____. A. Jerondu. B. Ahaaka. Ch. Mfinitivu. D.
Ahaizugbe.
23. Nde abuo, nari abuo na iriabuo putara ____. A. 2,002,200. B. 2,000,220. Ch. 2,020,020. D.
2,002,020.
24. O toro ogologo mana o maghi mma. Nke a bu omumaatu ______. A. Ahirinha. B. Ahirincho. Ch.
Ahirimfe. D. Ahiriukwu.
25. O fomata riri nri. N’ahiriokwu a, “riri” bu tensi ____. A. Ndinazu. B. Ndiugbu a. Ch. Ndimecha. D.
Ndiniihu.
26. Hoputa nke bu ahirincho na ndi a. A. Ule anyi ga-amalite taa. B. Nri anyi agwula. Ch. Ka chukwu
gozie gi. D. Ada riri nri, taa anu.
NTUGHARI
27. They were terribly bitten by mosquitoes. A. Anwunta tara ha n’ike. B. Anwunta tara ufodu n’ime
ha. Ch. Anwunta tagburu ha n’ike. D. Nwunta tagburu ha atagbu.
28. He is my paternal uncle. A. O bu nwann nne m nke nwoke. B. O bu nwanne m nwoke. Ch. O bu
nwanne m nwoke na nna. D. O bu nwanne nna m nke nwoke.
29. The woman is stoutly built. A. Nwaanyi ahu gbara agba. B. Nwaanyi ahu gbasiri ike. Ch. Nwaanyi
ahu nwere udidi oma. D. Nwaanyi ahu di mkpumkpu.
30. He works round the clock. A. O na-agaghi mgbe niile. B. O na-agba mbo. Ch. O naghi ezu ikw
n’oru. D. O na-arusi oru ike.
NKEJI B: (AGUMAGU) NTOALA NA NNYOCHA AGUMAGU.
31. Akomaaghaghi n’akuko ifo bu ___. A. Ewu. B. Mbe. Ch. Nkita. D. Ebuleako.
32. Otu n’ime njirimara agumagu odinaala bun a ___. A. O na-enwe mgbanwe. B. O nwere
nchekwaba. Ch. E dere ya ede. D. A mara onye mbu guru ya.
33. Otu nwaamadi e ji akukoneegwu mara n’ala igbo bu ___. A. Mike Ejeagha. B. F. C. Ogba. Ch.
Chinedu Afomata. D. J. U. Nzeako.
34. Nwata ahu bum be. Nke a bu omumaatu ____. A. Myiri. B. Igbuduokwu. Ch. Mburu. D.
Nhagideokwu.
 AGUMAGU ONU (AKOMAKO)
35. Akuko emeghi eme nke si n’aka ndi nna nna wee rue umu ha aka bu ____. A. Akuko okike. B.
Akuko ifo. Ch. Akuko obodo. D. Ndi ichie.
36. Uzo puru iche e si amalite akuko ifo bu ____. A. Ndewo. B. Chaakpi woo. Ch. Igbo kwenu. D.
Geenu nti.
37. Ihe kpatara ewu jiri buru anu ulo bu ___. A. O mara ihe. B. O bu eze umu anumanu. Ch. O
gbakwutere mmadu maka nchekwa mgbe agu tagburu umu ya. D. O na-eri ka mmadu.
ABU
38. Onwu e e, ana m ahu, gin a onye ga-ebi. Nke a bu abu ____. A. Ikpe. B. Ntoaja. Ch. Akwamozu.
D. Ifo.
39. Abu ndi igbo ji akocha agwa ojoo mmadu bu ___. A. Abu nwa. B. Abu ikpe. Ch. Abu onu. D.
Abu agha.
40. Nzogbu, Nzogbu - - - - - - - bu abu ____. A. Agha. B. Oru. Ch. Otuto. D. Ifo.
EJIJE ODINAALA
41. Ihe a na-akpo onye amaghi mmonwu bu ___. A. Agafu. B. Akalogori. Ch. Ogbodu. D. Apari.
42. Ihe a na-eme n’igba afa nke dabara n’ejije odinaala bu ____. A. Agbamndu. B. Mmekorita mmadu
na mmuo. Ch. Ekemekpe. D. Mmekorita din a nwunye.
43. Mgba bu ejije odinaala bu nke a gbara ____. A. N’ama obodo. B. N’iri ji ohuru. Ch. Ebe a na-eli
dimgba. D. Ebe a na-eli eze obodo.
AGUMAGU EDEREDE (IDUUAZI)
Chinedu Ofomata: A chowa isi ochu.
44. Onye bu onye isi akuko n’akwukwo a bu ____. A. Okwudili. B. Chigozie. Ch. Obiageri. D.
Uzoamaka.
45. Ebe okwu diri na-aga ebute ngwa ahia bu. A. Onicha. B. Udura. Ch. Ugwu awusa. D. Ukade.
46. Aha obodo okwudili bu ____. A. Udura. B. Ukade. Ch. Ugwu awusa. D. Akatu.
ABU (UTARA NTI: NOLUE EMENANJO)
47. N’abu “ABU” ode kwuru na abu na-eme ihe ndi ma ewepu ____. A. Obi okwute di belebele. B. Obi
umaka juputa n’anuri. C. Uwa tugharia. D. Ewpu ike ndu.
48. N’abu “UWA” dee kwuru n’uwa na-akpo _____. A. Ogwu. B. Oku. C. Anyi. D. Ntu.
49. N’abu “ILU” ode ziputara na ilu ____. A. Ajoka. B. Amaka. C. Ekwesighi. D. Erujughi afo.
EJIJE (OJAADILI: ODUNKE ARTISTS)
Oha na eze.
Okoro na agbogho
Onye obula jide nke nna ya, jide nke ya na chi ya.
Otu a unu huru m, o bu nke m natara chi m ka m ji kwuru . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
50. Onye kwuru okwu a bu ___. A. Ojaadili. B. Ogwumagana. Ch. Akirika. D. Dike.
51. Ndia nile so n’ejije ojaadili ma e wepu ____. A. Ugonwa. B. Omeire. Ch. Akirika. D. Chigozie.
52. Onye ikpeazu kwuru okwu n’ejije tutu oku anyusia kpamkpam bu ____. A. Dike. B. Ogwumagana.
Ch. Ojaadili. D. Okagbue.
NKEJI CH (OMENAALA NA EWUMEWU)
53. Tupu e bie nwa ohuru ugwu, o ga-eme abali. A. Ato. B. Ano. Ch. Isi. D. Asato.
54. Oji dike maobu oji ikenga no-agba ibe ___. A. Ato. B. Ano. Ch. Ise. D. Asaa.
55. Aru nke emetutaghi mmadu na ndi a bu. A. Nwata nwaanyi na nna ya inwe mmeko. B. Igho oji
n’ohi n’ala igbo. Ch. Okeokpa ikwa akwa n’etiti abali. D. Nwa ibu uzo puo eze elu.
56. Otu n’ime ihe ndia anaghi ebute igba afa. A. Ume omumu. B. Omugwo. Ch. Onwuike. D. Oke
ugani.
57. Nke abughi nritere n’ekpe bu __. A. Ndu. B. Afo. Ch. Ala. D. Eze.
58. Omenala a na-eme ma mmadu meruo ala n’ala igbo bu ___. A. Isu ala. B. Ikpu aru. Ch. Inu iyi.
D. Igo mmuo.
59. Onodu nwaanyi muru nwa ohuru na-ano bu ___. A. Mgbede. B. Omugwo. Ch. Inye nwa nri. D.
Igu nwa aha.
60. N’omenala igbo, ihe mbu nna nwe ezinaulo na-eme s’isi ututu bu ___. A. Ikwo aka ututu. B. Isa
ihu ututu. Ch. Ikpolite umu ya. D. Iga oruugbo.
PEPA II: NKEJI A: ASUSU. (NKEWA I EDEMEDE)
1. Horo otu isiokwu na ndia, dee opekata mpe mkpuruokwu 300 na ya.
a. Dee akuko kowari ilu a: “Agbisi gbaa otule, o muru ako”.
b. Degara nwanne gin woke no Amerika leta ma gwa ya ihe nhiahu di iche iche umuamaala naijiria
na-agabiga n’oge a.
c. Dee mkparita uka di n’etiti enyi abuo gbasara igba nkwu ha gara.
NKEWA 2: UDAASUSU. (Zaa otu ajuju na nkewa a)
2. Gini bu Olumba na igbo izugbe. (b) Deputa uru ato olumba na igbo izugbe bara n’asusu igb.
3. Deputa mkpuruasusu ise e ji egbugbere onu akpoputa. (b) Jiri nke obula mebe okwu.
NKEWA 3: UTOASUSU. (Zaa otu ajuju na nkewa a)
4. Deputa nkejiasusu mkpuruokwu obula di n’ahiriokwu din a ya. “Ha ato jiri nwayoo bata n’ulo oma
ahu”. (b) Deputa ahirinju ato imara.
5. Deputa oru “na” nile e nwere n’ahiriokwu a na-aru n’otu n’otu, gosiputakwa okwu ha na-eso. Na
Nsukka ka nne na nna nwanta akwukwo na mahadum ahu n’afo abuo gara aga. Biko nabata nwata
ahu nke oma.
NKEJI B: AGUMAGU. (NKEWA 1: AGUMAGU ONU) Zaa otu ajuju na nkewa a.
6. Deputa udi akuko adinaala ise i mara ma kowa ato n’ime ha n’otu. (b) Deputa uzo puru iche e si
amalite akuko ifo.
7. Deputa udi abu odinaala asaa i mara.
(b) Nwaanyi di ya huru n’anya
Onye ujo oru.
Ebute akpa rais, o richa.
Onye ujo oru - - - - - - - - - - -
Deputa udi abu abuo putara ile n’abu a.
NKEWA 2: AGUMAGU EDEREDE: (Zaa otu na nke a)
Chinedu Ofomata: A chowa isi ochu.
8. Deputa onuogugu akwa okuko, akwa ogazi na mmanya otobiribiri Chigozie na Odirichukwu zutara
tutu ha erue Eke Udura. (b) Deputa ihe isi ha zutakwara n’ahia eke udura.
Odunke Artist: Ojaadili.
9. Deputa aha mmadu asato so mee emume ojaadili
Nolue Emenanjo: Utara Nti.
10. Ilu bu tilapia na-enweghi ogwu.
Osukwu di n’akwu
Asa n’azu, mpete na mma - - - - -
(a) Olee abu nwe ahiriokwu ndia? (b) Olee atumatuokwu putara ihe n’ahiriokwu ndia? Chi kere
anyi di egwu. O nweghi onye ga-agonari ya. (ch) Olee abu nwe ahiriokwu ndia a?
NKEJI CH. OMENAALA NA EWUMEWU. (Zaa otu ajuju)
11. Deputa oghom anon a-esi n’igba alukwaghim aputa. (b) Deputa udi oji Igbo isii i mara.
12. Deputa udi dibia odinaala ano i mara. (b) Deputa ihe isii e ji nkwu eme n’ala Igbo.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: ASUSU IGBO S. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.
(AGHOTAAZAA)
Zaa ajuju niile so ya.
N’ ezie kemgbe otu nzuzo jiri were onodu n’ uloakwukwo anyi. Goomenti na ndi isi uloakwukwo
jikoro aka onu na-ebuso ya agha n’uzo di iche iche. Ihe otu nzuzo jiri di njo bun a o bu umuakwukwo ga-
abu ndi ndu n’ odinihu.
Ihe ree ure, e were mmiri saa ya, mana mmiri ree ure gini ka a ga-eme ya? Agaghi asi n ambo
niile a gbara iji kpochapu ya amitaghi mkpuru. O mitara mkpuru maka na-amita. O bughi ihe ga-akwusi
otu ubochi. O bughi ihe a ga-eso n’ike n’ihi na akpapuo etito n’ike. O hapu abu o ga agba, gbawa obara.
Ajuju.
1. Kedu isiokwu e kwesiri inye aghotazaa?
2. Olee ebe ihe ana-ekwu na-eme?
3. Gini kpatara otu nzuzo jiri di njo?
4. O na-eji ha unyi bu omumaatu. A. Mmemmadu. B. Myiri. Ch. Mburu. D. Egbeokwu.
5. Okpa ya = okpia – kedu udi olilo udaume a nwere ebe a bu. A. Olilo nlofo. B. Olilo mmako. Ch.
Olilo ihu. D. Olilo azu.
6. Nkejiokwu ole di n’okwu a bu “agaracha”. A. Ano. B. Ise. Ch. Ato. D. Isii.
7. Ihe di mkpa n’ederede obula bu. A. Aha ole. B. Isiokwu. Ch. Ekele. D. Adreesi.
8. Kedu nke nwere otu mofim n’ime ndia. A. Mmiri. B. Jee. Ch. Ekute. D. Ahula.
9. Agumagu odinaala nwere ngalaba ole. A. Abuo. B. Ato. Ch. Ano. D. Asato.
10. O biara n’oge ma o zaghi aha ya, nke bu. A. Ahirimfe. B. Ahiriokwu. Ch. Ahirinha. D. Ahiriajuju.
11. Aguu gworo ha iba bu. A. Egbeokwu. B. Mmemmadu. Ch. Urookwu. D. Myiri.
12. Afo + ezi = Afeezi. Nke a bu omumaatu olilo. A. Ihu. B. Azu. Ch. Nlocha. D. Mmako.
13. Akuko – Auko. N’ebe enwere. A. Ndapumgbochiume. B. Olilo udaume. Ch. Ndapu udaume. D.
Adapu ahiriokwu.
14. Nari puku abuo na puku iri ato na isii putara. A. 230,006. B. 203,060. Ch. 203,006. D. 23,006.
15. Ezinaulo lachaa wee gbasaa agbasa bu ezinaulo. A. Mbise. B. Otu mkpuke. Ch. Ubara mkpuke.
D. Usoro mkpuke.
16. Kedu nke uda ya kacha metu egbugbere onu na ndia. A. S. B. R. Ch. S. D. V.
17. Iru mgbede bu emume a na-emere soso. A. Umunwoke. B. Umuaghogho. Ch. Ndi nne. D.
Umuaka.
18. Ihe ozo a na-akpo agumagu ederede bu agumagu. A. Odinaala. B. Ugbua. Ch. Ederede. D.
Ndiocha.
19. Nke nwere ndakorita udaume na ndi a bu. A. Osikapa. B. Osisi. Ch. Akupe. D. Agidi.
NTUGHARI
20. The thief was paid in his own coin. A. Onye ohi ahu tara ahuhu ihe o metara. B. Onye ohi ahu ji
ego ya kwuo ugwo. Ch. Onye ohi ahu ka akwuru ugwo. D. Onye ohi ahu nwetara ihe o choro.
21. He works round the clock. A. O na-agaghari mgbe niile. B. O naghi ezu ike n’oru. Ch. O na-arusi
oru ike. D. O na-agba mbo.
22. Mkpuruokwu obula ga-enwe riri. A. Njiko. B. Ngwaa. Ch. Njirimara. D. Oghom na uru.
23. Nkebiokwu bu usoro okwu na enweghi. A. Ahaaka. B. Mbuuzo. Ch. Nkwuwa. D. Ngwaa.
24. Agumagu si n’ aka fere n’ aka bu agumagu. A. Amala. B. Ntoala. Ch. Omenaala. D. Odinaala.
AGUMAGU EJIJE (OKPA AKU ERI ERI)
25. Akubuzo kwenyesiri ike na oke nri na-ebute. A. Amamihe. B. Otutu. Ch. Nzuzu. D. Nsopuru.
26. Anu eke bu ezigbo anu n’ obodo ndi. A. Ira. B. Abangwu. Ch. Alaji. D. Idemili.
27. Onye oru ya bu igho ose bu. A. Chinedu. B. Nwana. Ch. Uzoma. D. Emeka.
28. Kedu ihe tapiara ego akubuzo kpakobara na ndu ya niile. A. Oke. B. Uchicha. Ch. Akika. D.
Ngwere.
29. Aji oku na-eri nri. A. Efere. B. Iko. Ch. Okwa. D. Efere nkuwa.
NKEM JI KA
30. Aha eze na-achi obodo umuelem bu. A. Eze Onyekwere. B. Eze Ukwenga. Ch. Eze Amaechi. D.
Eze Ufele.
31. Ihe mere ugochi jiri gaa ulouka bu ka o mara ma. A. Ndiuka a ga-anabata ya. B. Chineke o ga-
enye ya nwa nwoe. Ch. Ukochukwu o ga-awu ya mmiri chukwu. D. Di ya o ga-ahu ya n’anya.
32. Umuokpu bu. A. Ndi a muru n’ otu obodo. V. Umunwaanyi a muru n’ otu umunnna. Ch. Ndi na-
edoziri obodo iwu. D. Umunwaanyi luru di n’ otu umunna.
33. Nke bu agwa ojoo bu. A. Ikele ekele. B. Idi uchu. Ch. Aruru nsi. D. Ije ozi.
34. Udi olilo udaume ole ka enwere n’igbo. A. Ise. B. Isii. Ch. Ano. D. Asaa.
35. Onye na-ede leta n’igbo tosiri ya asusu ____ ede adreesi. A. Igbo. B. Bekee. Ch. Igbo na bekee.
D. Awusa.
36. Kedu nke na-abughi emume igbo. A. Iche eze. B. Iriji ohuru. Ch. Ekeresimesi. D. Iti mmonwu.
37. Dibia na-emejuputa ihe dibia afa kwuru bu. A. Dibia mkporogwu. B. Dibia aja. Ch. Dibia ogwu. D.
Dibia mkpaakwukwo.
38. Omume oma n’ala igbo gunyere. A. Izu ohi. B. Ndebe iwu na irubeisi. Ch. Isi asi. D. Igba
akwuna.
39. Otu n’ime ndi a abughi otu nzuzo. A. Mmonwu. B. Odo. Ch. Nze na ozo. D. Ekpe.
40. Onye tiri nwa na-ebe akwa? Ederede a by abu. A. Olulu nwaanyi. B. Egwu onwa. Ch. Mmemme.
D. Igugu nwa.
SECTION B (ESSAY)
Okwu di mkpa: zaa ajuju nke mbu. Horozie ajuju ato masiri gin a ndi ozo.
NKEGA “A” (Horo naani otu isiokwu na ndi a, dee opekata mpe mkpuruokwu nari abuo na iri
ise.
1. Deere enyi gin woke no uloakwukwo ozo leta kooro yam aka uloakwukwo gi.
2. Dee akuko kowari ilu a: Ahia oma na-ere onwe ya.
NKEGA “B”
1. Gini bu Otu Nzuzo? (ii) Deputa udi otu nzuzo ano i maara. (iii) Kowaa oghom ato ana-enwe n’ otu
nzuzo.
2. Gini bu Olilo Udaume? (b) Jiri otu omumaatu ziputa olilo udaume ndia; (i) Ndapu Udaume. (ii)
Ndapu Mgbochiume.
3. Gini bu Mofim? (b) Jiri otu omumaatu gosiputa; (i) Mofim nnori onwe. (ii) Mofirm ndabe.
4. Gini bu Agumagu Odinaala? (b) Deputa njirimara agumagu odinaala ato i mara.
5. Kowaa Dibia Afo. (b) Deputa ihe ato na-ebute igba afa. (ch) Dee ihe ano eji agba afa.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: ENGLISH LANGUAGE S. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.
(PAPER 1: ESSAY)
Answer one question from this section
1. Write a letter to your father, who is away from your country, describing an important incident that
happened recently in your country, and the effects the incident had on the people.
2. You have noticed a general decline in the level of discipline and morality in your society. In an
article suitable for publication in a national newspaper, discuss some instances of this decline and
its possible causes, and suggest ways in which the trend can be reversed.
3. Write a letter to the commissioner for agriculture in your state, stating the deplorable low level of
food production in the state, and suggest measures which the government should take to ensure
sufficient food for all.
4. Narrate to your friend an experience you had or heard about which proves the saying: “So it pays
to heed the advice of elders.”
5. You are one of the speakers in a debate on the motion: “The adults are to blame for the indecent
behaviour of the youth”. Write your contribution for or against the motion.
SECTION B: (COMPREHENSION)
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Sometimes, a person’s attempt to read fast and comprehend much may be faced with a number
of problems. Some of these obstacles can be traced to the reader’s habits developed over the years.
Others are however, no fault of the reader but can be traced to natural causes. In this passage, we will
consider some of such natural factors.
First, consider a person whose level of natural intelligence is lamentably low. Intelligence is God-
giving, and sometimes there is very little a person can do to improve his level of intelligence. So, when
there is a child with a low level of intelligence, he would normally be slow in learning to read and would
read slowly and poorly.
Nervous disorders also affect one’s reading ability, when a person has brain damage, he will
have problems in his intellectual activities including his reading performances. Furthermore, children
develop at different rates. Some develop at slower rate than others. If a child is pushed into reading
programme before he reaches the appropriate level of development, failure might be expected. However,
such a child may still catch up when he reaches the right age while it has been conclusively established.
There is evidence to suggest that eye defects may adverselyaffect the reading ability of both good and
poor readers. A person with bad eyes suffers considerable strain when reading, and it is this strain that
discourages a liking for reading. This hinders constant practice and results in poor reading performances.
Finally, children who have failed to read and write often show signs of emotional problems such
as anxiety, fear, truancy, restlessness, nail-biting etc.
a. Mention three factors that can-affect a person’s reading efficiency.
b. What could happen (i) if a child is prematurely pushed into a reading programme? (ii) When he
attains the right age?
c. Give one reason why it would be unfair to blame a child for his low intelligence.
d. To what extend does the state of a person’s eyes affect his reading?
e. “….. Who have failed to read and write”? (i) What is the grammatical name given to this
expression? (ii) What is its function?
f. For each of the following words, find another word or phrase that can replace it as it is used in the
passage. (i) Comprehend. (ii) Obstacle. (iii) Lamentably. (iv) Established. (v) Adversely. (vi) Strain.
SECTION C: (SUMMARY)
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions.
 Street trading has now become a common feature of most of our towns and cities. One notices
swarms of people of various shapes, sizes and age groups along the streets of these towns and cities
bombarding motorists and aggressively seeking buyers for their wares. There is hardly anything that is
not available for sale among these street traders.
Why have people suddenly resorted to street trading? The reasons are not far to seek. Many of
those involved in street trading claim that they do not have money to rent stalls or shops where they can
display their wares for sale. They claim that the various bodies or individuals who let out stalls or shops
demand exorbitantcharges which they cannot afford. They therefore take to the streets where they do
not have to pay any-thing at all.
Another group claim that even though they can afford to pay the exorbitant charges; and they do
pay to rent stalls or shops, they are not making the anticipated sales to make them break even. They
claim that it is more profitable to sell their articles along the streets. They also resort to the streets where
they can make brisk business and realize a lot of money.
There is yet another group. This group comprises children, teenagers and youths. These children,
teenagers and youths who ought to have been in school had to resort to street trading because their
parents, as a result of economics hardship can no longer provide their daily needs at home and in
school. These ones have the full backing of their parents to engage in street trading. In fact, the
proceeds of the street trading are used in sustaining their families. But then is the game worth the
candle? My answer is in the negative street trading poses a lot of danger.
In an attempt to sell just a satchet water, a young lady had to run very faster after a vehicle,
unmindful of another fast moving vehicle coming from the opposite direction. What happened, she was
knocked down and she died instantly. That of course is a common occurrence.
Another evil effect of this cankerworm is the undue exposure of children and youths who engage
in street trading to the wayward and dishonest ways of many of the adult traders. To many of these
trader, lying, dishonesty and fraudulent practices are their stock in trade. In an attempt to make quick
sales, many of these traders are quick at telling lies. Many times, they deliberately receive money from
passengers in fast moving vehicles without giving the articles paid for.
Many a times, prices of articles are highly inflated in an attempt to make much gain. Many of
them are out to cheat and defraud unwary passengers so as to make quick money. The children, youths
and teenagers who mingle with these adults traders thus imbibe these evils just as a local saying goes –
a sheep that moves in the company of a dog soon feeds on faces.
Another unwholesome aspect of street trading is that it engenders unhealthy rivalry and
competition. Many traders who sell identical wares try all sorts of wicked methods to outdo one another.
Many of those who sell the same type of articles would wish evil to befall their rivals so that they would
be able to make more sales. Many of them even resort to using charms or “juju” to incapacitate or
eliminate their competitors, it is as bad as that.
From the foregoing, it is obvious that street trading does far much more harm than good. It should
therefore be wiped out.
a. State in three sentences, one for each, three reasons people engage in street trading.
b. State in three sentences, one for each, three evil effects of street trading as presented in the
passage.
PAPER 2: (OBJECTIVES)
Choose the one that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
1. The crops which the farmer planted were ___ by a group of rascals. A. weeded. B. destroyed. C.
uprooted. D. cultivated.
2. The drug he took seems to be ___ his illness instead of alleviating it. A. destroying. B.
aggravating. C. relieving. D. nauseating.
3. The management of any establishment should be ____ their worker’s welfare rather than being
indifferent to it. A. interested in. B. careful of. C. concerned about. D. opposed to.
4. The principal asked the student to give him a concise account of the incident and avoid being ___.
A. interesting. B. funny. C. verbose. D. exalting.
5. By evening, the fish which the trader purchased in the morning had been ___. A. destroyed. B.
distributed. C. sold. D. vandalized.
6. The little boy was able to ___ the candle light which his father has kindled. A. ignite. B. extinguish.
C. switch. D. destroy.
7. The comments which the principal made about the teacher seemed innocuous at first, but on
second thought the teacher considered them. A. useful. B. harmful. C. helpful. D. polite.
Choose the word that best completes each of the sentences.
8. The morals which the pastor preached were quite ___ with his actions. A. conducive. B.
inconsistent. C. incoherent. D. insincere.
9. In a democratic setting, it is uncommon to ___ the press. A. censure. B. banish. C. censor. D.
condemn.
10. In order to improve the society, citizens must always give ____ citizens. A. constructive. B. good.
C. unfavourable. D. adverse.
11. There are some insects that are ____ to insecticides. A. lovely. B. deadly. C. resistant. D.
attractive.
12. Respectable ladies should not weak ___ dresses which expose their bodies. A. gorgeous. B.
opaque. C. sophisticated. D. transparent.
13. The problem has so far ____ all the solutions that have been offered. A. eluded. B. alluded. C.
defied. D. heeded.
14. The achievements of the new director by far surpass those of his predecessor who we thought was
quite ___ to the organisation. A. indispensable. B. diligent. C. industrious. D. loyal.
15. Some referees are known to have ruined football matches through poor ___. A. linesmen. B.
visibility. C. officiating. D. decision.
16. The gap in communication has _____ the relationship between the two friends. A. tensed. B.
strained. C. improved. D. defied.
17. In any decent society, bribery and corruption should be ____. A. rejected. B. dethroned. C.
deplored. D. criticized.
Choose the interpretation that you consider most appropriate for each of the sentences.
18. Students should learn to take time by forelock so that they won’t regret in future. This means that
students should. A. take things easy. B. take the front lock of time. C. use an opportunity
promptly. D. always hurry up.
19. The boy went scot-free even though he insulted his teacher. A. not punished. B. free to move
about. C. expelled from school. D. cautioned.
20. The driver escaped death by a hair’s breadth. This means that the driver escaped death. A. fast.
B. luckily. C. surprisingly. D. narrowly.
21. I am given a free hand to run this business. This means that I. A. am allowed to make my own
decisions. B. make my own appointments. C. assist the workers willingly. D. alone to choose my
executives.
22. In every good transaction, there should be some give and take. This means that. A. transactions
are about giving. B. transactions are give and take. C. any gift should be accepted willingly. D.
people should be willing to make compromise.
23. That account of the incident is true to a degree. This means that the account is. A. totally wrong.
B. not clear. C. completely true. D. partly true.
24. The students tried to pull the wool over the teacher’s eyes. This means that the students. A. tried
to deceive the teacher. B. offered to help the teacher. C. covered the teacher’s eyes with some
wool. D. brought the teacher some wool.
25. The accused was caught red-handed by the police. This means that. A. the hand of the accused
was red when he was caught. B. the hand was covered with blood when caught. C. the accused
was found in the very act. D. the accuse wore red gloves when he was caught.
26. The police are leaving no stone unturned in their bid to unravel the mystery behind the murder.
This means that the police will. A. do everything possible. B. turn every stone. C. search for the
stone used in the murder. D. rearrange every stone at the place.
27. The two friends who had been at logger-heads decided to bury the hatchet. This means that the
two friends decided to. A. stop quarrelling. B. bury their fighting tools. C. hide the tools. D. work
with the hatchet.
28. The policemen were accused of turning a blind eye to the crime that was committed. This means
that they were. A. behaving like a blind man. B. turning their eyes to the crime. C. causing the
criminals to have a blind eye. D. ignoring the commission of the crime.
29. While paying a visit to his uncle, Ayo intends to kill two birds with one stone. This means that Ayo
___. A. promises to bring two birds home. B. hope to achieve two aims with one action. C. takes
part in a double deal. D. intends to do two things at the same time.
30. Fatuous awkward behaviour shows that she is a greenhorn. This means that fatou is. A.
arrangement. B. inexperienced. C. inattentive. D. cautions.
Choose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined words.
31. Mary was kept in solitary confinement. A. idle. B. quiet. C. lonely. D. harsh.
32. Bola has a very alluring personality. A. attractive. B. intricate. C. deceptive. D. interest.
33. The team has an arduous task ahead of it. A. a severe. B. a heavy. C. a strenuous. D. an
enjoyable.
34. Mariam does not have the stamina to run the race. A. energy. B. courage. C. determination. D.
ability.
35. The two tasks should be undertaken concurrently. A. consecutively. B. simultaneously. C.
alternatively. D. immediately.
36. Death is inevitable for man. A. unavoidable. B. essential. C. necessary. D. imminent.
37. The principal’s orders are imperative. A. lenient. B. genuine. C. authoritative. D. necessary.
38. She tried to settle the quarrel but the man remained obstinate to listen to her. A. offensive. B.
angry. C. stubborn. D. impolite.
39. Okon attempted to entice Eno with the promise of a handsome sum of money. A. deceive. B.
enchant. C. force. D. tempt.
40. The monk lived an ascetic life in order to discipline himself. A. a holy. B. an austere. C. a
religious. D. an enjoyable.
Choose the option that best completes each of the following sentences.
41. Mrs Ade purchased ___. A. a pure leather bag imported. B. an imported pure leather bag. C. a
leather bag imported pure. D. an imported bag pure leather.
42. The students protested against the ___. A. thrice sports weekly practice. B. weekly sports practice
thrice. C. thrice weekly sports practice. D. weekly thrice sports practice.
43. The eldest son took a foolish decision which made him ____ his claim to the traditional chieftaincy
tittle. A. neglect. B. yield. C. disclaim. D. forfeit.
44. It is time we ___ for the party. A. leave. B. left. C. have to leave. D. will leave.
45. She ___ before I entered the office. A. has to be questioned. B. has been questioned. C. have
been questioned. D. had been questioned.
46. You were punished because you ___ last week without permission. A. ought not to have travelled.
B. must not have travelled. C. ought not to travel. D. will not have travelled.
47. The president’s speech ____ at 7pm yesterday. A. is broadcast. B. has been broadcast. C. were
broadcast. D. was broadcast.
48. It has been rough so far ___. A. I hasn’t it. B. hadn’t it. C. isn’t it. D. wasn’t it.
49. The minister says he is accountable ____ the president and nobody else. A. from. B. to. C. with.
By.
50. The P.T.A meeting did not adjourn until it had discussed all the matters placed ___ it. A. on. B.
with. C. before. D. over.
51. My mother was pleased ____ me for my success. A. with. B. at. C. in. D. for.
52. Musa was disappointed and decided to take it ____ Ikem. A. off on. B. out in. C. off from. D. out
on.
53. The students refused to appear before the ____ panel set up to look into their demands. A. Five
man’s. B. Five man. C. Five men’s. D. Five men.
54. She can’t sing ___ as I had thought. A. so well. B. good. C. well. D. as well.
55. Tayo was so obstinate, the more his mother insisted ____ willingly would he do anything. A. the
more. B. as less. C. the less. D. so less.
56. There was ___ enough food to go round. A. scarcely. B. a little. C. almost. D. little.
57. The students did the assignment, but not ____ the way I had expected. A. so. B. quite. C. hardly.
D. as.
58. Ngozi ____ comes to see us now. A. scarcely never. B. almost ever. C. never more. D. hardy.
59. He runs ____. A. rather much fast. B. quite rather fast. C. rather too fast. D. too rather fast.
60. My ____ house is by the road side. A. father-in-law’s. B. father’s –in-law. C. fathers’-in-law. D.
father-in-law’s.
61. The students were advised to look ___ difficult words in the dictionary. A. in. B. on. C. out. D. up.
62. The TV set ___ was damaged last week, had been taken to an electronic engineer. A. which. B.
who. C. of whom. D. of which.
63. It is pretty difficult to choose ___ those three boys. A. between. B. over. C. against. D. among.
64. We will leave ___ you are ready. A. as. B. whenever. C. while. D. until.
65. The minister’s daughter boasted she would have her way and she really ____. A. had. B. has. C.
have. D. did.
66. _____ of what he said made no sense. A. majority. B. plenty. C. many. D. much.
67. It is certain we shall travel by train, __. A. shan’t we. B. shall we. C. don’t we. D. isn’t it.
68. Tuned is the ____ qualified for that job. A. more. B. most. C. more than. D. many.
69. She doesn’t know you like your food hot, ___? A. didn’t she. B. shouldn’t she. C. does she. D.
wasn’t it.
70. Both Ngozi and Ifeoma promised to attend the party but ___ f them came. A. either. B. all. C.
neither. D. no person.
71. ____ me? A. are you hearing. B. you are hearing. C. can you hear. D. were you hearing.
72. The colour of the house is ____ bright for my liking. A. quite. B. so. C. too. D. very.
73. Hardly had he heard the devastating news ___ the charming woman collapsed. A. than. B. then.
C. when. D. nevertheless.
74. No ___ lady will run after men. A. mature. B. matured. C. matures. D, maturing.
75. He was ___by a snake. A. beaten. B. bit. C. biting. D. bitten.
76. His pairs of shoes ____ stolen. A. were. B. have. C. was. D. has being.
77. I asked my son, now he cannot ___ such a beautiful shirt. A. to. B. at. C. on. D. by.
78. The government has ___ a new foreign policy. A. adapted. B. arranged. C. adopted. D.
maintained.
79. When you ___ someone point of view, you should do so politely. A. refute. B. rebuke. C. recall.
D. refuse.
80. In botany, one is bound to ____ flowers. A. read. B. know. C. study. D. examine.
PASSAGE A:
Choose the word that is the most suitable to fill the numbered gaps in the passages.
A constitution may be defined as a body of 81 ____ which determines how a state is 82 ____. It
defines the structure and functions of the 83 ____ of government, declares the 84 ____ which regulate
the operation of this organs, and defines the 85 ____ between the citizen and the state.
A constitution may be written meaning that it is set out in one code, like the Nigerian 86 ___ or 87
____ meaning that it is made up of severe 88 _____ and conventions, like the British constitution. This is
not to suggest that the British constitution cannot be enacted into a single 89 _____. It can, but that has
not been 90 ___ yet.

A B C D
81. Laws rites regulations instruction
82. Administered run shepherd governed
83. Branches organs rules laws
84. Principals guiding understanding principles
85. Understanding rules bond principles
86. Constitution rues regulations principles
87. Scribbled unwritten dictated memorized
88. Rules regulations enactments codes
89. Unity regulation rule code
90. Done fished out given spoilt.
PASSAGE B:
It is important for people of any country 91 ____ their 92 ____ heritage, above all for African
countries which might easily lose their 93 ____ in their desire to take their proper place in the modern
world. It is particularly difficult in Africa, where today, the 94 _____ religion in which all our 95 ____
culture has its roots, is being replace by Christianity and Islam. Fewer and fewer people worship the old
gods. And yet it is hardly enough for 96 ___ to be performed by people who do not believe in the religion
with which they are associated. The 97 ____ who made these beautiful 98 ____ of old gods devils
believed in them, and in fact, their work was one way in which they affirmed their 99 ____. However, it is
not possible to go back to the old gods and the old ways. And, since no 100 ____ ever stands still it
either develops or it decays.

A B C D

91. Preserve adopt promote presume

92. Historical religions technical cultural
93. Intention personnel identify personality
94. Historical traditional genealogical devoted
95. Indigenous black historical foreign
96. Sacrifice offerings service rituals
97. Craftsmen priests pagans generations
98. Pictures busts carvings sacrifices
99. Disposition souls worship faith
100. Culture religion philosophy conclusion.
(TEST OF ORALS)
From the words lettered A – D, choose the word that rhymes with the given word.
1. Diverse. A. reverse. B. devise. C. excess. D. reverts.
2. Obtain. A. detain. B. detail. C. claim. D. relay.
3. Abound. A. confound. B. counted. C. recount. D. amount.
4. Sweet. A. white. B. sword. C. quit. D. suite.
5. Shout. A. nought. B. crowd. C. drought. D. thought.
6. Permit. A. enlist. B. commit. C. dismiss. D. profit.
7. Cause. A. course. B. pause. C. cause. D. purse.
8. Blood. A. flowed. B. bled. C. flood. D. brood.
9. Head. A. said. B. heard. C. sad. D. bead.
10. Quicken. A. queen. B. kitten. C. kitchen. D. chicken.
From the words lettered A – D, choose the one that has the correct stress.
11. Democratic. A. DE-mo-cra-tic. B. de-MO-cra-tic. C. de-mo-CRA-tic. D. de-mo-cra-TIC.
12. Omnipotent. A. om-nip-o-TENT. B. om-nip-O-tent. C. om-NIP-o-tent. D. OM-nip-o-tent.
13. Accuracy. A. AC-cu-ra-cy. B. ac-cu-RA-cy. C. ac-CU-ra-cy. D. ac-cu-ra-CY.
14. Dependable. A. DE-pen-da-ble. B. de-PEN-da-ble. C. de-pen-DA-ble. D. de-pen-da-BLE.
15. Exhibition. A. EX-hi-bi-tion. B. ex-HI-bi-tion. C. ex-hi-BI-tion. D. ex-hi-bi-TION.
16. Advantageous. A. ad-VAN-ta-geous. B. AD-van-ta-geous. C. ad-van-TA-geous. D. ad-van-ta-
GEOUS.
17. Agriculture. A. a-GRI-cul-ture. B. A-gri-cul-ture. C. a-gri-CUL-ture. D. a-gri-cul-TURE.
18. Economics. A. e-co-no-MICS. B. E-co-no-mics. C. e-co-NO-mics. D. e-CO-no-mics.
19. Photographer. A. pho-TO-gra-pher. B. PHO-to-gra-pher. C. pho-to-GRA-pher. D. pho-to-gra-
PHER.
20. Criticism. A. cri-ti-CI-sm. B. cri-TI-ci-sm. C. CRI-ti-ci-sm. D. cri-ti-ci-SM.
Identify the word with a different stress pattern, from the words lettered A – D.
21. A. away. B. apart. C. behind. D. river.
22. A. dessert. B. colour. C. instinct. D. risky.
23. A. persist. B. advice. C. wardrobe. D. request.
24. A. understand. B. pacify. C. afternoon. D. comprehend.
25. A. satisfy. B. revenue. C. benefit. D. contribute.
26. A. success. B. extent. C. colleague. D. acute.
27. A. despite. B. petrol. C. vomit. D. wardrobe.
28. A. benefit. B. deposit. C. difficult. D. prevalent.
29. A. schedule. B. country. C. finance. D. fountain.
30. A. component. B. importance. C. distribute. D. revenue.
Choose the word that has the same vowel sound as the one represented by the letter(s)
underlined.
31. Would. A. wound. B. crown. C. put. D. cold.
32. Heart. A. tast. B. pearl. C. halt. D. heard.
33. Earth. A. part. B. girl. C. ear. D. hat.
34. Lost. A. laws. B. glory. C. lust. D. hot.
35. Port. A. word. B. card. C. pot. D. chort.
36. Better. A. peer. B. alone. C. herd. D. more.
37. Pun. A. come. B. pawn. C. Lord. D. mourn.
38. Watch. A. war. B. match. C. water. D. hot.
39. Pip. A. pipe. B. mine. C. hit. D. peep.
40. Shall. A. shark. B. hall. C. shale. D. shadow.
Choose the word that has the same consonant sound(s) as the one represented by the
letter(s) underlined.
41. Refine. A. phantom. B. review. C. vote. D. pipe.
42. Bomb. A. barber. B. bubble. C. rub. D. rum.
43. Keen. A. machine. B. archbishop. C. architect. D. kneel.
44. Measure. A. lesson. B. vision. C. impression. D. realize.
45. Gear. A. leg. B. large. C. badge. D. jeer.
46. Slept. A. dogged. B. begged. C. walked. D. calmed.
47. Obey. A. plumber. B. tomb. C. rubber. D. comb.
48. Aghast. A. gnash. B. high. B. struggle. C. host.
49. Oblige. A. journey. B. glory. C. prestige. D. plague.
50. Sward. A. word. B. occasion. C. boys. D. pass.
51. Athlete. A. let. B. breathe. C. tell. D. both.
52. Mention. A. mentor. B. mason. C. minstrel. D. ocean.
53. Half. A. halves. B. cough. C. though. D. hoe.
54. Champion. A. machine. B. shampoo. C. catch. D. cat.
55. Boys. A. sick. B. voice. C. zeal. D. shop.
Identify the correct phonetic symbols of the given words, from the answers given in A – D
bellow.
56. /i:/¿. A. bid. B. key. C. hide. D. kite.
57. ❑/ p /¿/Ɔ /¿. A. sore. B. job. C. come. D. June.
58. / Ʒ :/¿. A. earth. B. ben. C. ten. D. three.
59. /æ/. A. men. B. bard. C. man. D. share.
60. /∧/¿. A. load. B. lend. C. cord. D. love.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: ASUSU IGBO S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.
NKEGA ‘A’ (TUMBOM TUMBOM)
Guo ederede a ma zaa ajuju so ya.
Otu ubochi, ikuku, anyanwu, onwa na kpakpando biara nzuko. Naani uguru bu onye na-abighi
nzuko ahu. Na nzuko ahu, esemokwu daputara n’etiti ikuku na anyanwu maka onye ka ibe ya ike. Ha
abuo kwekoritara na onye ga-eme onye njem yipu uwe ya ka ike.
Ikuku malitere oru ya site n’iji nnukwu ikuku na oyi dakwasi onye njem. Kama iyipu uwe ya, onye
njem a gbara mbo kpuchie onwe nke oma. Mgbe ikuku huru n ambo ya amaala afo n’ala, ike gwuru ya.
Anyanwu abia nke ya. O ji nnukwu anwu na okpomoku dakwasi onye njem ahu. N’atufughi oge,
onye njem ji oso yipu uwe ya n’eleghi anya n’azu. Ndi no na nzuko ahu kwere anyanwu n’aka maka ike o
kpara n’ebe onye njem no.
Ajuju:
1. Kedu isiokwu kacha dabaa adaba maka ederede a? A. Iche akamgba n’etiti anyanwu na ikuku. B.
Asompi n’etiti anyanwu na ikuku. Ch. Nzuko a gara n’elu igwe. D. Nzuko a gara n’uwa.
2. Ndi a niile biara nzuko n’ederede a ma e wepu. A. Anyanwu. B. Kpakpando. Ch. Uguru. D.
Onwa.
3. Gini ka ndi a chere onwe ha akamgba n’ederede a kwekoritara na ha ga-eji nwale onwe ha? A.
Onye ga-agbakari n’oso. B. Onye ga-akwusi onye njem iga ebe o choro. Ch. Onye ga-eme ka
mmiri zoo. D. Onye ga-eme ka onye njem yipu uwe ya.
4. Mbo ikuku gbara mara afo n’ala. Nke a putara na. A. Ikuku dara n’ala. B. Ike gwuru ikuku. Ch.
Mbo ikuku gbara amitaghi mkpuru. D. Ikuku meriri anyanwu.
5. Kedu ihe ndi no ebe ahu mere gbe anyanwu meriri? A. Ha bara mba. B. Ha kwere anyanwu
n’aka. Ch. Ha tuliri ya elu. D. Ha toro ya.
6. Otu n’ime ihe ndi a agaghi ebute igba afa ___. A. Onwu ike. B. Ume omumu. Ch. Omugwo. D.
Oke ugani.
7. Mgba bu ejije odinaala bu nke a gbara ____. A. N’ama obodo. B. N’iri ji ohuru. Ch. Ebe a na-eli
digba. D. Ebe a na-eli eze obodo.
8. E wepu ndi bu mgbochiume mkpi, abidii igbo dizi ____. A. Iri na asato. B. Iri ato na isii. Ch. Iri
abuo na asaa. D. Iri na asaa.
9. Nke e detara na ndi a bu ____. A. Adamma na-abia n’azu. B. Adamma n’abia na azu. Ch.
Adamma na-abia na azu.
10. Diala bu nnukwu ugboala bia “nnukwu” n’ahiriokwu a bu ___. A. Njiko. B. Nkowaaha. Ch.
Nnochiaha. D. Ngwaa.
11. Mgbochiume nge Igbo di. A. Asato. B. Asaa. Ch. Iri na itoolu. D. Itoulu.
12. The thief was paid in his own coin. A. Onye ohi ahu tara ahuhu ihe o metara. B. Onye ohi ahu ji
ego ya kwuo ugwo. Ch. E ji ego onye ohi ahu kwuo ya ugwo. D. Onye ohi ahu nwetara ihe o
choro.
13. Mother is supreme. A. Nne mara mma. B. Nne di ebube. Ch. Nne di ike. D. Nne kacha.
14. A patient dog eats the fattest bone. A. Onyeoria na-ata okpukpu nkita. B. Onye ndidi na-eri azu
ukpo. Ch. Nkita nwere ndidi na-ata okpukpu. D. Nkita di nwayo na-eri abuba.
15. The man has come. A. Nwoke ahu biara. B. Nwoke biara. Ch. Nwoke a abiala. D. Nwoke ahu
abiala.
16. Nke esoghi n’akara edemede Igbo bu. A. ?. B. :. C. O. D. ;.
17. Ahuike bu mmadu ___. A. Inwe oria. B. Igba oso. Ch. Ogbenye. D. Enweghi oria n’ahu.
18. Edemede na-enwe adreesi na ndi a bu. A. Akomako. B. Leta. Ch. Nrurita uka. D. Mkparita uka.
19. Nke a naghi edekari aha nna na mmechi ya bu leta ___. A. Nkeonye. B. Nzara onu. Ch. Mkpesa.
D. Anamacho ihe.
20. Nke na-egosi ihe e dere maka na-ekwu bu ___. A. Mmalite. B. Isiokwu. Ch. Mmechi. D. Aha
edemede.
21. Nke esoghi na mkpuruasusu igbo bu ___. A. Gb. B. Gh. Ch. X. D. Z.
22. Nke bu jerondu bu ___. A. Iri. B. Erimeri. Ch. Nri. D. Oriri.
23. Nke bu otu nzuzo na ndi a bu ___. A. Okonko. B. Ichie. Ch. Umuokpu. D. Nze na ozo.
24. Nke ziputara onuogugu “215” bu ___. A. Nari na iriabuo na ise. B. Nari abuo na iri na ise. Ch.
Puku abuo na iri na ise. D. Nari abuo na iri ise.
25. Nke bu nnoaha ubara onye ato na ndi a bu ____. A. Ha. B. Mu. Ch. Gi. D. Unu.
26. Oji ikenga bu oji gbara ____. A. Abuo. B. Ato. Ch. Ise. D. Asaa.
27. Ndi igbo na-ebe nwa nwoke ugwu ma o mee abali ____. A. Asato. B. Iri. Ch. Asaa. D. Iriabuo na
asato.
28. Ezigbo nwata ga na _____ ndi okenye. A. Ati ha ihe. B. Asopuru. Ch. Akpari. D. Eke ha okpo.
29. Onye o bu oru ya isi nri n’ezinaulo bu ___. A. Nna. B. Nne. Ch. Umuaka. D. Odibo.
30. Otu n’ime ndi a abughi ahauche. A. Iwe. B. Igwe.
31. Okwu a na-agbakwunye nganihu na nsonaazu bu ___. A. Njiko. B. Mkpoaha. Ch. Ngwaa. D.
Myiriudaume.
32. Ihe ndi ahu ndi igbo ji ataghari onu ka a na-akpo. A. Nri. B. Oriri. Ch. Otita. D. Ratu ratu.
33. Ezinaulo e nwere otu usekwu nay a la a na-akpo ezinaulo ___. A. Mbisa. B. Otu mkpuke. Ch.
Umunna. D. Ubara mkpuke.
34. Ochichi odinaala na-amalite na ____. A. Obodo. B. Umunna. Ch. Ogbe. D. Ezinaulo.
35. Mgbochiume nikpi di ___ n’onuogogu. A. Asato. B. Itoolu. Ch. Iri na itoolu. D. Iri abuo na asato.
36. Nkejiasusu na-egosi ebe ihe di n’ahiriokwu bu ____. A. Mbuuzo. B. Njiko. Ch. Nganiihu. D.
Ngwaa.
37. _____ bu nkeji na-egosi onu okwu obula na-aru n’asusu. A. Nkejiokwu. B. Nkejiasusu. Ch.
Nkejiahiri. D. Udaume.
38. Ihe a na-akpo akuko ugbu a bu ___. A. Iduuazi. B. Ejije. Ch. Omenaala. D. Akuki ifo.
39. Uche gara ahia mana o zutaghi ihe obula. Nke a akara ihe n’okpuru bu ___. A. Nkowa. B. Ngwaa.
Ch. Njiko. D. Mbuuzo.
40. Aha ozo a na-akpo umuokpu bu ____. A. Umunne. B. Umuada. Ch. Umunna. D. Umuaka.
NKEGA B: (EDEMEDE) Horo otu n’ime isiokwu ndia ma dee edemede gbasara ya.
1. Dee edemede na-egosi na; (a) “Uwa a di omimi” moobu (b) “Mkpuru onye kuru ka o ga-aghoro”.
2. Degara enyi gi bi n’obodo ozo leta kowari ya onodu obodo gi naijiria gbasara oria “Covid”.
NKEGA CH. (Horo nomba ato masiri gi ma zaa ya nke oma).
1. Deputa okwu ise nupuru isi n’iwu ndakorita udaume. (b) Deputa uzo ebe ise okwu Igbo si amuba.
2. Gini bu Ezinaulo? (b) Deputa uru ano ezinaulo bara. (ch) Deputa njirimara ndi Igbo ise i mara.
3. Kowaa ihe bu Mofim. (b) Deputa udi mofim abuo e nwere. (ch) Tinye akara udaolu n’okwu ndia. (a)
Oke (male). (b) Oke (rat). (ch) Oke (share). (d) Oke (boundry). (e) Akwa (cry)
4. Gini bu Agumagu Odinaala? (b) Deputa njirimara ya ato. (ch) Deputa myiri ato di n’etiti udaume na
myiri udaume. (d) Deputa ndiiche ato di n’etiti mgbochiume na udaume.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: NATIONAL VALUES J. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.
CIVIC EDUCATION
1. The study of civic education in our schools empowers student to. A. Invite the white impenalist. B.
Practice rule of lawlessness. C. Reject our culture and regional activities. D. Understand rights
and privilege.
2. ____ gave Nigeria her name after the 1914 amalgamation. A. Dora Akunyere. B. Flora Shaw. C.
Prof. Akin Ebua. D. Miss L. U. Williams.
3. Before Nigeria had her independence in 1960 she officially use the british flag known as. A. NATO
flag. B. European flag. C. Union jack. D. Western flag.
4. Attitude refers to ___. A. A consistent way of reacting or feeling towards events or people. B.
Deep love for your parents. C. Display of selective justice. D. Reating people as second class
citizens.
5. Bad attitude to work include all except. A. Lateness. B. Truancy. C. Embezzlement. D. Waste of
resource. E. Commission or commitment.
6. One of the following is not an example of value. A. Discipline. B. Commitment. C. Integrity. D.
Laziness.
7. One vital box that is used during elections is called the ___ box. A. First aid. B. Opinion. C.
Election. D. Ballor
8. Reward of right attutide to work includes all od these except. A. Recognition. B. Low productivity.
C. Efficiency. D. Higher productivity.
9. The quality of being truthful and straight foward in dealings with others is known as. A. Honesty.
B. Respect. C. Fairness. D. Dignity.
10. The application of positive values in our place of work is called. A. Negative behaviour. B. Right
attutide to work. C. Punctuality. D. Honesty and being trustworthy.
11. Servicom work ethics are the underlined sxcept. A. Always sleep during office work. B. No
lateness to work. C. Always be on your seat. D. No closing before closing time.
12. ____ is not among types of negative behaviour. A. Regard for times. B. Drug trafficking. C.
African time. D. Cultism.
13. “The labours of our Heroes past” this statement is extracted from. A. National constitution. B.
National broadcast. C. National anthem. D. National assembly.
14. May 27th every year is celebrated in Nigeria as. A. Children’s day. B. Common wealth day. C.
Democracy day. D. Workers day.
15. The minimum voting age in Nigeria ___. A. 17. B. 18. C. 20. D. 21.
16. Citizen demonstrate their civic responsibilities through the following ways except. A. Confrontation
with others. B. Loyalty to the nation. C. Obedience to the law. D. Payment of fees.
17. The agency responsible for acquiring secret information about suspected criminals in the society is
called. A. DIA. B. NACS. C. NDLEA. D. SSS.
18. The last census was conducted in the year. A. 2001. B. 2003. C. 2005. D. 2006.
19. One of the attributes of a bad citizen is. A. Hardwork. B. Loyalty. C. Partiality. D. Patriotism.
20. Which of the following is not a fundamental human right. A. Right to kill. B. Freedom of
expression. C. Right to life. D. Vote and be voted for.
SOCIAL STUDIES
21. The population of a country can be obtained through ___. A. Education. B. Census. C. Rioting.
D. Deregulation.
22. Which of the following is an effect of over-population? A. Unemployment. B. Provision of food. C.
Hard working. D. Environmental decoration.
23. Family life education prepares a child for. A. University education. B. Passing examination. C.
Good adulthood. D. Reading and writing English.
24. The type of peace that brings joy is. A. Negative peace. B. Uncalm. C. Positive peace. D.
Uneasy peace.
25. The bedrock of a child’s future is in the. A. School. B. Church. C. Family. D. Market.
26. The way man uses things in his environment to produce things which satisfy his need is known as.
A. Experiment. B. Manufacturing. C. Technology. D. Factory.
27. Which of these is a harmful traditional practice in Nigeria? A. Use of hard drug. B. Re-marriage of
widows. C. Free education. D. Gender discrimination.
28. Which of these preventive measures of human trafficking. A. Education. B. Legislation. C. Early
marriage. D. Employment.
29. Which of these is not an advantages of small family? A. Children may suffer malnutrition. B.
Children are well fed. C. Standard of living is better. D. The family is manageable.
30. One way of promoting peace is. A. Partial. B. Wicked. C. Stubborn. D. Tolerance.
31. Causes problems include all except. A. Inaccessibility of some areas. B. Unqualified personnels.
C. Inflation of figure. D. Gender issues.
32. The government owned economic institutions are referred to as ____ sector of the economy. A.
Primary. B. Secondary. C. Public. D. Private.
33. Mineral that could be used in manufacturing fertilizer is. A. Limestone. B. Phosphate. C. Coal. D.
Tin-ove.
34. A situation where the population of a given area is less than the available resources is ___. A.
Over-population. B. Under-population. C. Optimum population. D. Population density.
35. The official tittle of the central bank of Nigeria is. A. Governor. B. Banker. C. Accountant. D.
Inspector.
36. Man’s most basic needs are. A. Food, music and shelter. B. Shelter, food and clothing. C. Food,
happiness and water. D. Compound and complex.
37. All these are ceremonies associated with traditional marriage except. A. Bride price. B. Enquiry.
C. Wine carrying. D. Church wedding.
38. Which of these is not practiced by the Muslims? A. Fasting. B. Giving of alms. C. Holy
communion. D. Polygamy.
39. The following factors affects population growth except. A. Immigration. B. Political instability. C.
Increase in birth rate. D. Decrease in death rate.
40. One of the dangers of premarital sexual relationship is. A. Unwanted pregnancy. B. Polygamy. C.
Extravagance. D. Monogamy.
SOCIAL STUDIES: SECTION B: (THEORY) Answer TWO questions in this section.
1. Define Human Trafficking. (b) Outline four factors responsible for human trafficking in Nigeria. (c)
What Hamful Traditional Practices? (d) List four examples hamful traditional practices.
2. Define Population. (b) Mention four problems of over-population. (c) What is Census? (d) Outline
four problem of census in Nigeria.
3. Define Family Life Education. (b) List core messages of family life education. (c) What is Peace?
(d) List four ways of maintaining peace.
CIVIC EDUCATION: (THEORY) Answer Two questions from this section.
1. Define Right Attitude to Work. (b) Mention four attitudes of right attitude to work. (c) Define
Honesty.
2. Define the term Negative Behaviour. (b) Outline four negative behaviour in our society. (c) Write
two effects of negative behaviour.
3. Define Work. (b) Write two consequences of not having the right attitude to work. (c) Outline two
rewards of right attitude to work.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: NATIONAL VALUES J. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.
SOCIAL STUDIES
1. ____ is a general belief of people about your family based on the past happening in the family. A.
Family tree. B. Family reputation. C. Family ties. D. Good name.
2. One of the advantages of living together in the family is. A. Protection. B. Disunity. C.
Unemployment. D. Imperfection.
3. Which of these is not a religious tittle? Bishop. B. Chief. C. Hadjia. D. Imam.
4. Inter-marriages among ethnic groups in Nigeria promotes all except. A. Conflict. B. Unity. C.
Peace. D. Understanding.
5. One of these is a feature of good family. A. Family free. B. Good name. C. Fighting. D. Family
elastic.
6. The acquisition of necessary skills to solve societal problem is one of the ____ of social studies. A.
Objectives. B. Advantages. C. Disadvantages. D. Lack.
7. Marriage between a woman and several husbands at a time is known as. A. Polygamy. B.
Adultery. C. Monogamy. D. Polyandry.
8. Which of these is not condition for marriage? A. Social need. B. Psychological fitness. C.
Physiological fit. D. Economically ready.
9. All the following are reasons for marriage exept ___. A. Procreation. B. Companionship. C.
Regulate drug abuse. D. Sexual satisfaction.
10. Islamic marriage allows up to ______ wives. A. Two. B. Five. C. Three. D. Four.
11. One of the procedures in marriage is ___. A. Acceptance. B. Incast. C. Refusal. D. Monogamy.
12. A child receives care, education and character training from all these except. A. Churches. B.
Families. C. Markets. D. Community.
13. One of these is not a function of the family. A. Procreation. B. Disunity. C. Socialization. D. Love.
14. Social studies focuses primarily on the inculcation of ___. A. Disunity. B. Valves. C. Immorality.
D. Illiteracy.
15. Exogamy means ___. A. Marrying more than one wife. B. Marriage between a man and animal.
C. Marrying within your town & ethnic group. D. Marrying outside your town and ethnic group.
16. A social group of people that are closely knit together and may have blood relationship is called
___ group. A. Civic. B. Historical. C. Secondary. D. Primary.
17. ____ refers to various places where people go for worship. School. B. Religious institution. C.
Hotel. D. Market.
18. One of the benefit of group behaviour is ___. A. Community development. B. Poverty. C.
Insecurity. D. Lost of life.
19. The harmonious co-existence of the members of the family is ___. A. Family bond. B. Living
together in the family. C. Love. D. Family reputation.
20. ___ is not a member of school community. A. Trader. B. Security. C. Teacher. D. Student.
CIVIC EDUCATION
21. Civic education is a subject that studies ____. A. Physical environment. B. Reghts and duties of
citizens in the society. C. States in Nigeria. D. Events in the world.
22. One of the effects of drinking alcohol while driving is that it will make the driver to. A. Drive
carefully. B. Smell. C. Drive very fast. D. Lose co-ordination.
23. Leaders are chosen through ___. A. Competition. B. Election. C. Census. D. Selection.
24. One of the products of dishonesty is ____. A. Cheating. B. Promotion. C. Upliftment. D. Award.
25. Consequences of dishonesty include all except. A. Promotion. B. Punishment. C. Demotion. D.
Bad image.
26. The quality of someone telling the truth at all time is. A. Hardwork. B. Honesty. C. Honour. D.
Happiness.
27. People of integrity help to improve one of the following. A. Low self esteem. B. Crime wave. C.
Standard of living. D. Negative behaviour.
28. Which of the following is an example of people of integrity in Nigeria. A. Alhaji Umaru. B. Prof.
Dora Akunyili. C. Orji Uzo Kanu. D. Dr. Ebubedike.
29. One of these is an effect of lack of contentment on society. A. Probity. B. Value. C. Humility. D.
Corruption.
30. One of these is not a way of acquiring citizenship. A. By birth. B. By registration. C. By
appointment. D. By naturalization.
31. A person who belongs to a country is referred to as. A. Rebel. B. Foreigner. C. Alien. D. Citizen.
32. ___ has to do with straight forwardness telling the truth always. A. Lying. B. Cheating. C.
Honesty. D. Cooperation.
33. To be content with what you have means to. A. Accept all that come your way. B. Be satisfied
what you have. C. Examine your conscience. D. Have everything you want.
34. The following are causes of accidents on the road except. A. Bad road. B. Drunkenness. C. Over-
speeding. D. Well maintained vehicle.
35. The Nigerian hero whose portrait is on #500 not is. A. Aguyi Ironsi. B. Ahmadu Bellow. C.
Obafemi Awolowo. D. Nnamdi Azikiwe.
36. Traffic light has three colours which includes. A. Green, white and green. B. Green, red and
yellow. C. Red, green and blue. D. Green, white and red.
37. One of the criminal tendencies in schools is. A. Cheating to pass examination. B. Studying in
group. C. Studying in twos. D. Studying in dormetory.
38. The last sentence of the National Pledge is. A. Amen and amen. B. In Christ we stand. C. So help
me God. D. To defend her unity.
39. Discipline can best be described as ___. A. Acquisition of wrong braining. B. Being late to
functions. C. Desire for training of mind and character. D. Training students of civic education.
40. Ehich of the following is not the attribute of contentment. A. Appreciation. B. Greed. C.
Satisfaction. D. Humility.
(SOCIAL STUDIES) SECTION B: (THEORY) Answer TWO questions from this section.
1. Define Marriage. (b) List four main forms of marriage. (c) Explain Ghost Marriage and Endogamy
Marriage. (d) List any three purposes of marriage.
2. Define Social Studies. (b) State five objectives of social studies. (c) Mention four advantages of
living together in the family.
3. Define Family Bond & Cohesiou. (b) Outline five ways of maintaining family bond. (c) Mention four
ways of building good family reputation.
(CIVIC EDUCATION) Answer TWO questions from this section.
1. What is Integrity? (b) List four attributes of integrity. (c) Mention five examples of people of
integrity.
2. Define Contentment. (b) State five effects of lack of contentment. (c) Mention four attribute of
contentment.
3. What is Discipline? (b) Identify five attributes of discipline. (c) List three types of courage.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: NATIONAL VALUES J. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.
CIVIC EDUCATION
1. Civic education originates from ____ word. A. Latin. B. Japan. C. British. D. Greek.
2. Good values includes all except. A. Indiscipline. B. Honest. C. Co-operation. D. Love.
3. The word “Civic” means ____ in Greek. A. People. B. Government. C. Citizen. D. Students.
4. One of these does not promote good values in Nigeria. A. Hatred. B. Trust. C. Responsibility. D.
Hard work.
5. Which of the following is not an agent of socialization? A. Family. B. Mass media. C. Church. D.
Kitchen.
6. The National Anthem has ___ stanza. A. 1. B. 2. C. 4. D. 3.
7. In the National Anthem, we say oh God of ___. A. The universe. B. Office. C. Creation. D. Faith.
8. I pledge to Nigeria my ____. A. Country. B. Creator. C. Saviour. D. House.
9. The quality of someone telling the truth always refered to as ____. A. Honesty. B. Commitment.
C. Trustworthy. D. Honour.
10. The consequences of dishonesty includes all except ____. A. Promotion. B. Punishment. C.
Demotion. D. Bad image.
11. Civic education is a subject that studies ___. A. Physical environment. B. Co-operation. C. Right
and duties of citizen. D. Computer.
12. The ability to always being the same in thought words and behaviour is known as. A. Kind. B.
Love. C. Consistency. D. Fairness.
13. ____ is the quality which makes us allows people to express their views or do things in their own
way. A. Justice. B. Tolerance. C. Caring. D. Trust.
14. There are ___ major ethnic groups in Nigeria. A. 2. B. 3. C. 36. D. 4.
15. Our values determine our ____ and ____. A. Happiness and sadness. B. Likes and dislikes. C.
Good and bad. D. Hand work and commitment.
16. Which of the following promotes good value system? A. Fairness. B. Hatred. C. Greed. D.
Jealousy.
17. The people way of life is referred to as. A. Character. B. Action. C. Behaviour. D. Culture.
18. Honesty helps students to from against exam-malpractice. A. True. B. False. C. Impossible. D.
Never.
19. Civic education is a social science that teachers things that are ____ in the society. A. Bad. B.
Fake. C. Acceptable. D. Wrong.
20. ____ is the strong believe or willingness to rely on someone’s ability and strength. A. Trust. B.
Obedience. C. Goodness. D. Integrity.
SOCIAL STUDIES.
21. One of these make up the study of social studies. A. Physics. B. Chemistry. C. Biology. D.
Religion.
22. One of these is man-made physical features. A. Mountain. B. Hills. C. Highlands. D. Buildings.
23. Coal is mind at ___. A. Onitsha. B. Enugu. C. Jos. D. Awka.
24. The uncles, in-laws, nieces, nephews etc are members of ___ family. A. Extended. B. Nuclear. C.
Polygadry. D. Monogamous.
25. Where two rivers join is called. A. Confluence. B. Junction. C. Sea. D. Riverside.
26. Emeka is my brother’s son, therefore he is my ___. A. Brother. B. Cousin. C. Niece. D. Nephew.
27. Which of these is example of secondary social group. A. Family. B. Primary. C. Voluntary
organization. D. Age grade.
28. The best method of teaching and learning social studies is ___ method. A. Observation. B.
Discussion. C. Field-trip. D. Project.
29. When was social studies introduced in Nigeria school system. A. 1961. B. 1962. C. 1963. D.
1960.
30. There are ___ types of environment. A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.
31. Which of these is not an environmental problem. A. Rainfall. B. Erosion. C. Flood. D. Drought.
32. The common natural disaster in Anambra state is ___. A. Earthquake. B. Tornado. C. Drought.
D. Erosion.
33. One of these is not part of man’s physical environment. A. Boat. B. Interation. C. Valleys. D.
Water.
34. The subject “Social Studies” helps students to develop positive thinking towards our country by
inculcating in them all the underlisted except. A. The spirit of patriotism. B. The spirit of hardwork.
C. Cooperation. D. Disunity and unfriendly.
35. Mountains are highlands above ____ metres. A. 200. B. 600. C. 500. D. 400.
36. The relationship that is based on your mother’s side is ____. A. Maternal. B. Paternal. C.
Endogamic. D. Patrilineal.
37. Two examples of primary social group are. A. Family and peer group. B. Family and club. C.
Organisation and perrgroup. D. Aga grade and political parties.
38. The smallest unit of the society is ____. A. Church. B. School. C. Family. D. Market.
39. How many local governments do we have in Anambra state ____________________.
40. The best water for drinking is ____ water. A. Rain. B. Well. C. Spring. D. River.

(CIVIC EDUCATION) SECTION B: (THEORY) Answer TWO questions in this section.

1. What is Value? (b) Write down four sources of values.

2. What is Honesty? (b) List four attributes of Honesty.
3. Mention four ways of learning Civic Education. (b) Write down two importance of Civic Education.

(SOCIAL STUDIES) Answer TWO questions in this section.

4. What is Social Studies? (b) State two objectives of social studies. (c) List three methods of
teaching and learning social studies. (d) Identify four subjects that makes up social studies.
5. What is Environment? (b) List two types of Environment. (c) Mention three environmental
problems in Nigeria. (d) Name three rivers you know in Nigeria.
6. What is Family? (b) State two types of family. (c) List two examples of primary social group. (d)
Write out five members of an extended family.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: PHYSICS S. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.

1. A cell of internal resistance 2Ω supplies current to 6Ω resistor. What is the efficiency of the cell? A.
12%. B. 25%. C. 33.3%. D. 75%.
2. When a resistance R is across a cell, the voltage across nominal value. The internal resistance of
1 1 2
the cell is. A. R . B . R .C . R . D.2 R .
3 2 3
3. The unit of resistivity is. A. ΩM-1. B. MΩ-1. C. (ΩM)-1. D. ΩM.
4. Calculate the value of R when G shows no deflection in the circuit. A. 11.1Ω. b. 225Ω. C. NOTA.
D. 36Ω

5. Calculate the length of constant wire of diameter 0.6mm and resistivity 1.1 x 10 -6ΩM required to
construct a standard resistor of 35Ω. A. 899.75M. B. 0.899M. c. AoTA. D. 9M.
6. The relationship between g and G is. A. g=GN. B. G= gr3. C. NOTA. D. G= gM1M2.
r 2e Me r2
7. The gravitational potential at any point is measured in? A. NKg . B. JN . C. 1. D. JKg-1.
-1 -1 NJ-

8. The gravitational potential given by. A. V= -GM. B. V= GMeM. C. V= √ 2GR . D. NOTA.

r r
9. Acceleration due to gravity vary from place to place due to. A. Earth is a perfect sphere. B. Earth
is flat. C. AOTA. D. Earth rotation about it’s polar axis.
10. Which of the following is not a transverse wave. A. Sound wave. B. Gamma ray. C. X-rays. D.
AOTA.
11. Electric potential energy between two charges is given by. A. q B. 4 Eoq2r. C. q2 d. qr
4ʌɛ or 4ʌɛor 4ʌɛo
F q
12. Which of these is not formular for electric field intensity. A. E= . B . E= . C. D.
q 4 ʌɛ r
13. What is the electric field intensity at point where a charge of 10 -5C experienced a force of 40N. A. 4
x 10—6NC-1. B. 4 x 10-4NC-1. C. 4 x 106NC-1. D. 2.5 x 10-7NC-1.
14. A work of 30J is done in transferring 5MC of charge from point A to B. In an electric field. What is
the potential defference. A. 3.4 x 10-4V. B. 1.2 x 104V. C. 6.0 x 103V. D. 1.7 x 10-4V.
15. Capacitor is a device use for. A. Disspating energy. B. Consuming energy. C. Storing energy. D.
NOTA.
16. The unit of electric potential is. A. JK-1. B. JV-1. C. JC-1. D. VC-1.
17. What is the equivalent resistance of two resistors 2Ω and 3Ω respectively connect in parallel. A.
5Ω. B. 6Ω. C. 1.2Ω. D. NOTA.
18. Three capacitors of 2NF, 3NF and 4NF are connected in parallel. What is equivalent capacitance?
A. 0.92Nf. B. 1.5Nf. C. 9Nf. D. NOTA.
19. All exercept one is not properties of a wave. A. Relection. B. Diffraction. C. Vibration. D.
Refraction.
20. Shunt is always connected in. A. Series. B. Parallel-series. C. Parallel. D. AOTA.
21. Momentum have the same unit as. A. Impulse. B. Pressure. C. Force. D. Moment of a force.
22. For total internal reflection to occur, the angle of incidence in the denser medium must exceed. A.
Critical angle. B. 450. C. 00. D. 1800.
23. For total internal reflection to occur, light must be travelling from. A. Optically denser medium to
optically less dense medium. B. Optically less dense medium to optically more ense medium. C.
Optically equal dense medium. D. NOTA.
24. If the refractive insex of a glass is 1.5. What is the critical angle that must be exceed for total
internal reflection to occur from glass to air. A. 420. B. 480. C. 60. D. NOTA.
25. The relationship between refractive index n, refracting angle of angle of the triangle prism A and
angle of minimum deviation D is. A.
1 1
sin ( A+ D ) sin A
2 sin A sin D 2
n= . B . n= . C . n= . D . n= .
1 sin D 1 1
sin A sin A (
sin A+ D )
2 2 2
26. Multiplier is always connected in ____ with galvanometer. A. Series. B. Parallel. C. Serio-parallel.
D. NOTA.
27. Resistance R is connected across a cell, the voltage across the terminals of the cell is reduced to
two-third of its nominal value. What is the internal resistance of the cell? A. ½ R. B. 2/3R. C.
1/3R. D. R.
28. What is the function of manganese IV oxide in leclanche cell? A. Depolarizing agent. B. Polarizing
agent. C. Electrolyte. D. Electrodes.
29. The tetru oxosulphate IV acid solution in Daiel cell acts as. A. Electrolytes. B. Polarizing agent. C.
Electrodes. D. Depolarizing agent.
30. The copper sulphate solution in Daniel cell acts as. A. Depolarizer. B. Anode. C. Cathode. D.
Polarizer.
31. In Daniel cell, the copper vessel and the zinc rod function as. A. Electrolyte. B. Electrodes. C.
Polarizer. D. Depolarizer.
32. The zinc rod in Daniel cell is the. A. Negative terminal. B. Positive terminal. C. Electrolyte. D.
NOTA.
33. When a metal is heated to high temperature electrons are emtted from the surface. This process is
known as. A. Photoelectric emission. B. Thermionic emission. C. Heat emission. D. Field
emission.
34. What is the mass of metal that will be deposited by 5A in one hour if the electrochemical equivalent
of the metal is 1.26 x 10-7kgC-1. A. 5.95x10-4Kg. B. 2.268x10-3Kg. C. 3.78x10-5Kg. D. NOTA.
35. Why will one conlomb of electricity not librate the same masses of different substances in an
electrolytic process. A. It takes different time to flow in different electrolytes. B. The electro
chemical equivalent are different. C. NOTA. D. AOTA.
36. The ammonium chloride solution in leclanche cell is the. A. Electrode. B. Electrolytes. C.
Polarizer. D. Depolarizer.
37. The magnetic force on a moving charge in a magnetic field is given by. A. F= BxqV. B. F= qVxB.
C. F= BVxq. D. AOTA.
38. If the angle of declinartion in a place is 10 0, calculate the tru geographic bearing if the compass
need reads N400E. A. N300E. B. N500E. C. N400E. D. N350E.
39. The Lorenz force exerted on a moving charge in electro-magnetic field is. A. F= qE + (VxB). B. F=
q (E+VxB). C. F= E +qvxB. D. NOTA.
40. Gamma rays have shorter wave length than x-rays. A. False. B. True. C. Impossible. D. NOTA.
SECTION B: (THEORY) Answer FIVE questions.
(Take g=10ms-2, G= 6.67x1011NM2kg-2, re = 6.38x106M, Me = 5.98x1024kg, 1/42ɛo = 9x109NM2C-2)
1. What is Wave Motion? (b) Give five differences between progressive wave and stationary wave.
(c) Explain why two astronants in the space still requires radio to communicate even though they
are close to each other. (d) Derive the expression for progressive wave motion i.e y= ASin 2ʌ/ʌ (x-
vt).
2. Why does a sounding tuning fork gives a louder sound when it come in contact with the table then
when held in the air. (b) Why will the bottom of a clear pond appear to be raise up than it actual
depth? (ci) With aid of diagram explain how to convert; (i) galvanometer to ammeter. (ii)
Galvanometer to voltmeter. (d) State the factors the resistance of metal conducting depends on.
3. Draw Daniel cell and explain its working principle. (b) State Newton law of universal gravitation. (ii)
According to this law, you are meant to be attracting the person next to you. Why are you not? (iii)
Derive the formular for escape velocity. (c) State the three advantages of potentiometer over
voltmeter. (d) The radius of the planet Venus is nearly the same as that of the earth, but its mass is
only 80% that of the earth. If an object weighs We on the earth, what does it weigh on Venus?
Calculate the value g on Venus.
4. Explain the principle of Meter Bridge. (bi) Show the relationship between g and G. (bii) State
Faradays laws of electrolysis. (c) Find the mass of coper deposited on the cathode of a copper
voltameter if a current of 0.53A is passed through it for 30minutes. Take electro chemical
equivalent of copper to be 3.3 x 10-4gc-1. (d) State four properties of cathode rays.
5. Give the three similarities between thermionic emission and liquid varpourization. (aii) Give three
differences between thermionic emission and liquid vapourization. (b) State Conlomb’s law. (ii) Find
the force of repulsion between the protons of 1.6x10 -19C each. If their distance apart is 5.3x10-11M.
(c) Show that the energy stored in a capacitor is W= ½ q2/C. (d) What is capacitance of a capacitor.
6. What is Electrical Conductor and Resistivity? (bi) The resistance of a wire of length 100cm and
diameter 0.3mm is found to be 3Ω. Calculate the resistivity and conductivity. (ii) Explain the
principle of wheatstone bridge. (c) Give five differences between bansverse wave and longitudinal
wave. (d) Define the terms (i) Therminie emission. (ii) Electrochemical Equivalence.
7. Explain the working principle of electric bell (door bell). (b) Explain the working principle of
telephone ear piece. (ci) Define the terms (i) Magnetic Meridian (ii) Angle of dip. (iii) Declination (iv)
Geographic meridian. (d) Distinguish between Magnetic and Non Magnetic Materials and give
three examples each.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: PHYSICS S. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.

(Take g=10ms-2)
1. A ball of 0.5kg moving at 10ms-1 collides with another ball of equal mass at rest. If the collision what
is their common velocity. A. 0.2ms-1. B. 5ms-1. C. 0.5ms-1. D. 10ms-1.
2. When taking a penalty kick, a footballer applies a force of 30N for a period of 0.05seconds. if the
mass of the ball is 0.075kg. Calculate the speed with which the ball moves off. A. 11.25ms -1. B.
20ms-1. C. 45ms-1. D. 4.5ms-1.
3. 5N force acts on 5kg mass initially at rest for 5 seconds calculate the final momentum. A.
125kgms-1. B. 25kgms-1. C. 0kgms-1. D. 5kgms-1.
4. Momentum have the same unit with ____. A. Moments. B. Impulse. C. Pressive. D. Force.
5. A bullet of 20g moving at 200ms -1 hits a bag of sand and comes to rest in 0.011seconds. What is
the momentum of the bullet before hitting the bag? A. 4000kgms -1. B. 4kgms-1. C. 2.2kgms-1. D.
10kgms-1.
6. Find the average force that stopped the bullet in question 5 above. A. 909.09N. B. 363.63N. C.
44N. D. 200N.
7. Find the impulse of the bullet in question 5 above. A. 9.99NS. B. 4NS. C. 9.09NS. D. 0NS.
8. The vibration resulting from the action of an external periodic force on the motion of a body is
called. A. Compound vibration. B. Force vibration. C. Resource. D. Compound vibration.
9. The correct relationship between linear speed and angular speed is. A. V = w/r. B. V=wr. C.
W=vr. D. V=wr2.
10. The position of maximum kinetic energy in figure is/are. A. 1 and 5. B. 3. C. 2. D. 4 and 3.

11. What is the angular speed of a body vibrating at 50 cycles per second? A. 100ʌrads. B. 50ʌrads -1.
C. 200ʌrads-1. D. 400ʌrads-1.
12. The relationship between linear distance & angular distance is. A. S=r θ . B. S=r2θ . C. θ =S/r2. D.
θ=Sr .
13. The S.I unit of the moment of a force is. A. NM. B. Kgm. C. Jm -1. D. Jm.
14. Two forces A and B acts at a point at right angles. If their resultant is 50N and their sum is 70N,
their magnitudes are. A. 40N and 30N. B. 50N and 20N. C. 25N and 45N. D. 10N and 60N.
15. What volume of alcohol with a density of 8.4x102kgm-3 will have the same mass as a 4.2m3 of petrol
whose density is 7.2x102km-3? A. 1.4m3. B. 4.9m3. C. 3.6m3. D. 5.8m3.
16. Use the diagram below to calculate the moment of force of 10N about the point. A. 60Nm. B.
120Nm. C. 60√ 3Nm. D. 240Nm.
17. Which of the following combinations will increase the stability of an object? A. Wide base and low
centre of pravity. B. Narrow base and low centre of gravity. C. Wide base and high centre of
gravity. D. Narrow base and high centre of gravity.
18. Equilibrant force is opposite of ____. A. Resultant force. B. Applied force. C. Frictional force. D.
Moment of a force.
19. P, Q and R are in equilibrium as shown. The relationship between them is? A.
P Q
= . B . P+Q=R .C .Qsin ∝=Rsinβ . D . Rsin C=Psinr .
sinr sin∝

20. For maximum range to be achieved the angle of projection must be. A. 45 0. B. 900. C. 600. D.
1800.
21. A ball is projected horizontally from the top of a hill with a velocity 30ms -1. If it reaches the ground
5secs leter, the height of the hill is? A. 250M. B. 65. C. 200M. D. 125M.
22. The range of projectile projected at Ө0 to the horizontal with velocity U is given by. A.
A. 2U2Sin2Ө. B. U2Sin2Ө. C. U2Sin2Ө. D. U2Sin2Ө.
g g g g.
23. A stone is projected at an angle of 600 and an initial velocity of 20ms-1. Determine the time of flight.
A. 1.73secs. b. 34.6secs. c. 6.92sec. d. 3.46secs.
24. Calculate the mazimum height by the projectile in question 23. A. 20m. B. 346.8m. C. 30m. D.
15m.
25. Calculate the range of the projectile in question 23. A. 346.8m. B. 29.9m. C. 14.98m. D. 34.64m.
26. The angle of depression Ө at which the pilot will release the bomb inorder to hit the target is. A. tan

27.
∅=
√
1 gh
2 u
. B . tan ∅ =
√
1 h
2g u
1
.C . tan ∅ = √ gh . D . tan ∅ =
u
1
u √ gh .
z
A bomber can miss it target due to. A. Speed of the bomber. B. Height of the bomber. C. Range f
the target. D. Air resistance.
28. A body starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration which of the quantity varies linearly
with the square of time. A. Momentum. B. Velocity. C. Speed. D. Displacement.
29. Calculate the height from which a body is released from rest if its velocity just before hitting the
ground is 30ms-1. A. 15m. B. 90m. C. 75m. D. 45m.
30. Which is incorrect formular for a body accelerating uniformly. A. V = u+at. B. V 2=u2+2as. C. a =
v2-u2/2s. D. S= ½ ut + at2.
31. The resultant of two vectors is maximum when the angle between them is? A. 45 0. B. 900. C. 00.
D. 2700.
32. Which of these is not a scalar quantity? A. Density. B. Speed. C. Weight. D. Temperature.
33. Which of the following is not vector quantity? A. Force. B. Electric field. C. Electric potential. D.
Acceleration.
34. Two forces whose resultant is 100N are perpendicular to each other. If one of them makes an
angle of 600 with the resultant calculate it magnitude. A. 200N. B. 173.2N. C. 86.6N. D. 115.5N.
35. The resultant R of two vectors P an Q incline at Ө 0 in general is given. A. R=P+Q. B. R 2=P2+Q2.
C. R2=P2+Q2+2PQcos Ө. D. R2cosӨ = P2+Q2.
36. Which of the following equation of distance is not correct. A. S = ½ (u+v)t. B. V 2=u2+2as. C.
S=u+at. D. S=ut+ ½ at2.
37. The reason why acceleration due to gravity is not same at period on the earth surface is. A. Earth
is a perfect sphere. B. Earth is flat. C. Earth rotation about it polar axis. D. NOTA
38. Another reason for variation in acceleration due to gravity is. A. Earth vibration at polar axis. B.
Earth is a perfect sphere. C. Earth is not a perfect sphere. D. Earth is a perfect sphere.
39. Displacement is? A. Scalar quantity. B. Special quantity. C. Vector quantity. D. AOTA.
40. Every vector quantity have? A. Magnitude and direction. B. Direction only. C. Magnitude only. D.
NOTA.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer 3 questions)
1. What is Projectile Motion? (b) Define the terms; (i) Time of flight. (ii) Range. (iii) Maximum height.
(ci) List the equations of time of flight, rang and maximum height. (ii) Derive Equation of Range.
2. List the equations of uniform acceleration. (ii) Show that S= ut + ½ at 2. (b) When the brakes are
applied to a moving car travelling at 60kmhr -1, it decelerates at a uniform rate of 5ms -2. Calculate
the time taken to reach a velocity of 36kmhr-1. (c) State the parallelogram law of vectors.
3. Define the following terms; (i) Uniform Velocity. (ii) Instantaneous velocity. (iii) Uniform
deceleration. (b) Define the following terms
(i) Equilibrium
(ii) Resultant force
(iii) Equilibrium force. (c) A boy of mass 10kg sits at a distance of 1/5m from the pivet of sea saw. If
another boy of mass 20kg sits at a distance 1m from the pivot. Will the sea saw balance
horizontally? (NB: show your work) to justify your answer.
4. What is Centre of Gravity? (ii) State the following principles; (i) Principle of moments. (ii)
Archimedes principles. (iii) Principle of Floatation. (iv) Principle of triangle of forces. (bi) State the
conditions of equilibrium under the action of parallel coplanar forces. (ii) State the conditions of
equilibrium under the action of no-parallel coplanar forces. (c) A wooden frame of 2N is hung on a
nail using two ropes that made an angle of 600 each to the vertical. Calculate the tension in the
ropes.
5. State Newton Laws of Motion.
5ii. Explain why walking is possible. (bi) A rocket is burning fuel at the rate of 200gs -1 and ejecting all
the gas in one direction at the rate of 400ms-1. What is the maximum weight the rocket can have if it
is going to move vertically upwards?
(5ci) Explain Elastic and Inelastic collision. (ii) List three applications of newton third law and
conservation of linear momentum.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: PHYSICS S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.

(Take g = 10ms-2)
1. Which of the following is not a consequence of force field? A. Weight. B. Surface tension. C.
Gravitational pull. D. Electric field.
2. The difference between speed and velocity is. A. Speed is vector quantity while velocity is scalar
quantity. B. Velocity is a vector quantity while speed is a scalar quantity. C. The unit of speed is
ms-1 while that of velocity is ms-2. D. NOTA.
3. The relationship between linear velocity v and angular velocity w is given by. A. V = w/r. B. V = wr.
C. V = w2r. D. V = wr2.
4. The slope of a straight line displacement-time graph indicates. A. Distance travelled. B. Uniform
velocity. C. Uniform speed. D. Uniform acceleration.
5. A piece of stone attached to one end of a string is whirled round in a horizontal circle when the
string is suddenly cut the stone will. A. Move towards the centre of the circle. B. Fly off in a
direction tangential to the circular path. C. Stop moving immediately. D. NOTA.
6. A car moves with a velocity of 72kmhr-1. If it is brought to rest after 10secs. Find the velocity in ms -1.
A. 200ms-1. B. 20ms-1. C. 2ms-1. D. 0.2ms-1.
7. Find the retardation in question 6 above. A. 0.02ms-2. B. 2ms-2. C. 0.2ms-1. D. 20ms-2.
8. A bus travels with an average velocity 60kmhr-1. How long does it take to cover a distance of
500km? A. 0.12hr. B. 8.33hr. C. 83.33hr. D. 30000hr.
9. The speed of a bus increases from 15ms-1 to 60ms-1 in 20s. Calculate the acceleration. A. 0.75ms -
2
. B. 2.25ms-2. C. 3.0ms-2. D. 2.25ms-1.
10. A stone tied to a rope is made to revelve in a horizontal circle of radius of 4m with an angular speed
of 2rads-1 with what tangential velocity will it move off is the rope cut? A. 0.5ms -1. B. 8ms-1. C.
16ms-1. D. 32ms-1.
11. A metal block of 5kg lies on a rough horizontal plat form if a horizontal force of 8N applied to the
block through its centre of mass just slides the block on the plat form then the coefficient of limiting
friction between the block and the platform is. A. 0.16. B. 2. C. 0.8. D. 1.6.
12. Which of the following quantity is not a scalar quantity? A. Weight. B. Speed. C. Potential
difference. D. Time.
13. Which of the following units is not a derived unit? A. Kg. B. N. C. Nm-2. D. Ms-1.
14. Which of this is not a type of motion? A. Relative motion. B. Rotational motion. C. Random motion. D.
Vibratery motion.
15. The motion of smoke particles in the air is. A. Random motion. B. Oscillatory motion. C. Translational
motion. D. Relative motion.
16. The type of force that does not require to come in contact with the object they act on is. A. Force field. B.
Adhesive force. C. Cohesive force. D. Normal force.
17. The energy possessed by a body to virtue of its position is. A. Kinetic energy. B. Thermal energy. C.
Potential energy. D. Position energy.
18. The energy possessed by a body due to virtue of its motion is. A. Potential energy. B. Motion energy. C.
Kinetic energy. D. Thermal energy.
19. In energy transformation, the relationship between maximum velocity attained by the object and maximum
height attained that same object as given by. A. V = 2gh. B. V = h/2g. C. V = √ 2 gh . D. V = h2/2g.
20. The unit of energy is. A. Joule. B. Newton. C. Kilogramme. D. Volts.
21. Under which of the following conditions is workdone. A. A woman holds a waterpot. B. A man pushes agaist
stationary petrol tanker. C. A girl chewing gum. D. A small boy climbs on table.
22. A body is displaced through a certain distance x by 10N force. If the workdone is 100J and the displacement
is in the direction of the force find x. A. 100M. B. 0.1M. C. 0.01M. D. 10m.
23. A man holds a child on his shoulders while watching a football match, if the match last for 2 hours how much
work is done by the man. A. 360J. B. 3600J. C. 7200J. D. 0J.
24. A mass of 10kg moves with velocity of 4ms-1. Calculate the kinetic energy. A. 40J. B. 20J. C. 160J. D. 80J.
25. Using the relationship between velocity and height fund the height attained by this 10kg in question 24 above.
A. 0.2m. B. 80m. C. 8.94m. D. 0.8m.
26. With the height obtained from question 25 calculate the potential energy. A. 20J. B. 894J. C. 800J. D. 80J.
27. A catapult is used to project a stone which of the following energy conversion takes place. A. The
gravitational potential energy is converted into the kinetic energy of the stone. B. The kinetic
energy of the stone is converted to elastic energy of the catapult. C. The gravitational potential
energy of the stone is converted to elastic energy of the catapult. D. The elastic energy of the
catapult is converted to kinetic energy of the stone.
28. At maximum height, the velocity is. A. Maximum. B. Average. C. Normal. D. Minimum.
29. A man of 50kg ascend a flight stairs 5M high in 5secs. Calculate the power taking acceleration due
to gravity to be 10ms-2. A. 100W. B. 250W. C. 200W. D. 500W.
30. From the diagram, calculate the potential energy as a man pushes the heavy stone from 0 to point
A. If the mass of the stone is 20kg. A. 600J. B. 1000J. C. 100J. D. 0J.

31. Power can be measured in the following units except. A. Horse power. B. Joule/second. C.
Joule/Ampere. D. Watt.
32. The following are sources of renewable energy except. A. Solar. B. Water. C. Petroleum. D.
Wind.
33. ____ is that agent that tends to change or changes the stale of rest or uniform motion of a body in a
straight line. A. Velocity. B. Linear momentum. C.. force. D. Retardation.
34. Which of this is not ways of reducing frictional force? A. Streamling. B. Roller bearing. C. Spring
balance. D. Lubrication.
35. Centripetal force is opposite of. A. Applied force. B. Normal force. C. Centrifugal force. D.
Contact force.
36. Magnetic force is. A. Contact force. B. Nuclear force. C. Force field. D. Applied force.
37. Centripetal acceleration aT is given by. A. aT = v/t. B. aT = S/t2. C. aT = v2/r. D. NOTA.
38. One of these is advantages of friction. A. Friction causes wear and tear in the moving parts of
machine. B. Friction causes heating of engine. C. Friction enables brake to stop a car. D. The
workdone by machine in overcoming friction is useless.
39. Polishing of a surface helps to. A. Maximize friction. B. Average friction. C. Reduce friction. D.
Increase friction.
40. Dynamic frictional force is always. A. Greater than limiting frictional force. B. Average of limiting
friction force. Dc. Less than limiting frictional force. D. Maximum of limiting frictional force.
SECTION B: (THEORY) Answer 3 questions.
1. Define Friction. (b) List three ways of reducing friction. (c) State three laws of friction.
2. Give three advantages of friction. (b) Define the following; i. Uniform acceleration, ii. Instantaneous
velocity. (c) Give two disadvantages of friction.
3. List the two types of mechanical energy. (b) Explain each of the energy listed in 3a. (c) When is
work send to be done. (ii) Calculate the workdone by 100N force that moved an object 5M in the
direction of the force.
4. List the four types of motion. (b) Explain two of the types of motion listed. (c) Define angular
velocity. (cii) Calculate the angular velocity of an object that made one complete revolution in
2secs.
5. Define the following; (i) Fundamental quantities. (ii) Derived quantities. (iii) Fundamental units. (iv)
Derived units. (b) What is Force? (b) List and explain the two types of force with examples.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: BASIC SCIENCE & BASIC TECHNOLOGY J. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.

BASIC SCIENCE
1. Genetics means. A. Basic unit of life. B. Study of hereditary traits tranfered from one parents to
offsprings from generation. C. Ability of parents to pass their characters to their offsprings. D.
Responsibility given by parents.
2. Which of the following is not a hereditary disease? A. Sickle cell anaemia. B. Hyperinetropia. C.
Colour blindness. D. Malaria.
3. Which of the following is not an agent of erosion? A. Wind. B. Water. C. Sun. D. Animal.
4. The following factors except one can cause erosion. A. Deforestation. B. Excavation of sand for
construction works. C. Dumping of refuse inside the gutter. D. Weather.
5. Erosion can be prevented by the following except. A. Mulching. B. Wind break. C. Deforestation.
D. Terracing.
6. One of these is not a factor that can cause flooding. A. Heavy rainfall. B. Wind. C. Over flowing of
surface irrigation. D. Overflowing of rivers banks.
7. Which of the followign is not responsible for the dissappering of our forests? A. Cultivation. B.
Over-grasing. C. Use of firewood. D. Afforestation.
8. Desertification is the transformation of a fertile land into. A. A band land. B. A good land. C. A
fruitful land. D. An aid land.
9. The washing away of the top soil by natural agent is known as. A. Bush burning. B. Deforestation.
C. Soil erosion. D. Flooding.
10. Ozone depleting substances green house gas includes the following except. A. Methane. B.
Oxygen. C. Carbondioxide. D. Nitric oxide.
BASIC TECHNOLOGY
11. ____ is the use of sheet metal to produce various articles. A. Shape. B. Sheet metal work. C. Tools. D.
Shape development.
12. The technical term used for measuring and marking parts before they are out or bent is called ___. A.
Marking-out. B. Setting out. C. Marking in. D. Bending and folding.
13. Which of the following devices is used to control motion? A. Brake. B. Clutch. C. Gear ratin. D. Piston of a
car.
14. The processes of joining thin sheets of metals together are all these except. A. Hardening. B. Hard
soldering. C. Revating. D. Welding.
15. A method of drwing in which the size of an object is increased or decreased proportionally in a stated ratio is
called ____ drawing. A. Free hand. B. Increased. C. Proportional. D. Scale.
16. The design and drawing of a building plan is done by a/an. A. Architect. B. Bricklayer. C. Carpenter. D.
Engineer.
17. Soft soldier is an alloy of ___ and lead. A. Brass. B. Bronze. C. Copper. D. Tin.
18. Using coated abravise to reduce rough surface is known as. A. Abrasion. B. Finishing. C. Rubbing. D.
Sanding.
19. In a building the symbol represents. A. Ceiling. B. Chimney. C. Door. D. Roof.

20. Which of these is called hard soldering? A. Brazing. B. Fasteners. C. Riveting. D. Tinsmith solder.
 COMPUTER SCIENCE
21. Which of these was the very first tool used for searching on the internet? A. Search engine. B.
www.google.com. C. Archie. D. www.yahoo,com.
22. A self replicating piece of computer code that can partially or fully attach ditself to computer files or
applications in order to destroy them is called. A. Anti-virus. B. Computer virus. C. MCAfee virus. D. Trojan
horse.
23. Which of the following is the feature of the old economy? A. It was labour base. B. It was digital in nature.
C. It was technology driven. D. It was knowledge base.
24. The gap that exists between people who has access to modern information technology usage and people
who do no have such access is called. A. Computer divide. B. Computer literacy. D. Digital divide. D.
Technology divide.
25. All these are examples of virus except. A. Alabama virus. B. Christmas virus. C. Jerusalem virus. D.
McAfee virus.
26. The first reted dangerous computer virus is called. A. Fastering hate virus. B. Fastering hat virus. C. Ghost
ball virus. D. Slammer virus.
27. The new economy has the following characteristics except. A. It is digital. B. It is technology driven. C. It is
slow. D. It is knowledge base.
28. Search engine is defined as ___. A. Application software for searching. B. Application software used for
viewing documents. C. Application used for watching videos. D. Application software used in accessing the
internet for information.
29. Warning signs of virus is. A. Protection from spyware, b, Dr. Solomon’s kit. C. Appearance of strange
character. D. Protection from virus.
30. A software that stops the smooth running of the computer system is ___. A. Anti-virus. B. Mcfee. C. Search
engine. D. Computer virus.
HEALTH AND PHYSICAL EDUCATION
31. During the run-up in pole vault, the athletes eyes must be fixed i=on the __. A. Cross bar. B. Cross bar
support. C. Landing area. D. Run way. E. Take off board.
32. All these are cause of sport injuries except. A. In adequate warm-up exercise. B. Lack of knowledge. C.
Mastering the skills. D. Unfit player. E. Use of broken down equipment and poor facilities.
33. The seven and half laps round a standard athletic field measures. A. 3,000m. B. 5,000m. C. 8,000m. D.
10,000m.
34. The method of waste disposal where paper is used to produce toilet tissue is called ___ method. A.
Composing. B. Measuring. C. Incineration. D. Recyding. E. Waste reduction.
35. When a sick person is allowed to perform strenuous exercise which could be harmful to him/her is termed. A.
Assault. B. Illegal. C. Legal liability. D. Negligence. E. Tort.
36. The weight of the javelin for women category is. A. 600. B. 700. C. 800. D. 900. E. 1000.
37. Which of these is not a refuge material? A. Ashes. B. Broken bottles. C. Dust. D. Faces.
38. Flicking is a skill in the game of ____. A. Hand ball. B. Hockey. C. Soccer. D. Swimming. E. Volley ball.
39. One of these games does not field eleven players aside ____. A. Hockery. B. Soccer. C. Football.
D. Volley ball. E. Cricket.
SECTION B: THEORY (BASIC SCIENCE)
1. Define the following terms; (i) Dorminant traits. (ii) Hybrid. (iii) Family tree. (b) Outline 3 causes of soil
erosion. (c) Define Flooding.
2. Define Deporestation. (b) Mention 2 effects of deforestation. (c) What is Ozone Layer? (d) What are the
causes of ozone layer?
BASIC TECHNOLOGY
1. Define Motion. (b) Mention the two types of motion. (c) What is Soldering? (d) State the two types of
soldering and explain.
2. Explain the following terms; (i) Blue print. (ii) Plans. (b) Draw the symbols of the following building. (i) Plans.
(ii) Toilet. (iii) Block work. (iv) Switch.

COMPUTER SCIENCE
1. Define New Economy. (b) Enumerate 4 benefits of new economy. (c) Write out 2 limitations of old
economy. (d) Define Search Engine.
2. What is an Internet? (b) Enumerate 2 types of search engine. (c) List out 4 examples of search engine.
 HEALTH AND PHYSICAL EDUCATION
3. Define Combine Events. (b) List two combine events. (c) State four equipment used in pole vault. (d)
Mention four sports injuries. (e) enumerate four officials of hockery.
4. What is Ageing? (b) List four duties of children in the home. (c) Explain Drug. (d) Define Death. (e) State
two consequences of pre-martial sex.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: BASIC SCIENCE & BASIC TECHNOLOGY J. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.

1. Excess body weight is known as. A. Lordosis. B. Fatty. C. Obesity. D. Pot belly. E. Over weight.
2. Classes of accident include the following except ___ accident. A. Fire. B. Domestic. C. Road
traffic. D. Occupational. E. Home.
3. Accident can be caused by the following factor except. A. Drunkness. B. Over speed. C.
Impatience. D. Poor illsion. E. Following the traffic instruction.
4. A person who give first aid treatmet to an injured person is known as. A. Driver. B. Teacher. C.
Principal. D. First aider.
5. Any disease that can be transferred from one person to another is called. A. Illness. B. Sickness.
C. Communicable. D. Non-communicable. E. Fire.
6. Which of the following diseases can be spread by body contact. A. Diarrhoea. B. Dysentery. C.
Kwashiorkor. D. Malaria. E. Ring worm.
7. Deficiency of protain in the diet causes ___. A. Diarrhoea. B. Goiter. C. Kwashiorkor. D. Sterility.
E. Marasmus.
8. The most likely disease to be contacted by the smokers is __. A. Cold. B. Diabetes. C. Ulcer. D.
Hyblood pressure. E. Heart disease.
9. The digestion of food starts from ___. A. Anus. B. Stomach. C. Teeth. D. Mouth. E. Lungs.
10. A masured adult has many number of teeth. A. 30. B. 42. C. 32. D. 62. E. 22.
11. General name given all computer programm is. A. Computer. B. Diary. C. Software. D.
Hardware.
12. DOS means. A. Disk operating software. B. Disk operating system. C. Done outside. D. Debtors
output syndrome.
13. _____ is program with thousands of rows and column. A. Spreadshort. B. Spreadsheet. C. Power
point. D. Graphic package.
14. Acronym A.T.M stands for. A. Automed teller market. B. Automatic time machine. C. Autometed
teller machine. D. All time money.
15. One who teaches computer is called ___. A. Instructor. B. Engineer. C. Programmer. D. None.
16. ____ is example of graphic package. A. Paint. B. Excel. C. Corel song. D. Window.
17. L.L.L means ____. A. Low level land. B. Land level low. C. Low level language. D. None of the
above.
18. _____ example of high level language. A. Compiler. B. Cobol. C. DOS. D. Computer.
19. Another name for magnifier is ____. A. Magnetoe. B. Manager. C. Zoom. D. Compiler.
20. Text tool is used for ____. A. Drawing. B. Typing. C. Erasing. D. Zooming.
21. An animal need these to survive in its habitat except. A. Food. B. Water. C. Shelter. D. Wind.
22. The structural adaptation for survival of an organism include all except. A. Gills. B. Fins. C. Swun
blader. D. Lung.
23. A biologist that studies the dwelling place of an organism is called. A. Fisherman. B. Hunter. C.
Conservationist. D. Ecologist.
24. One of these is not a type of aqustic habitat. A. Ocean. B. River. C. Lake. D. Desert.
25. Humandeing is an animal for the following reasons except. A. Movement from place to place. B.
Ability to reproduce. C. Quick response to stimulus. D. Presence of chlorophyll.
26. The irreversible or permanent increase in size and weight of an organism due to the formation of
new cell is referred to as. A. Habitat. B. Death. C. Birth. D. Growth.
27. All the following are amphibians except. A. Toad. B. Neuts. C. Salamanders. D. Monkeys.
28. One of these is not a terrestrial habitat. A. Desert. B. Savannah grassland. C. Tropical rainforest.
D. Ocean.
29. Any change in the structure or functioning of an organism that makes it better suited to its
environment is called. A. Reproduction. B. Respiration. C. Behaviour. D. Adaptation.
30. Another name for terrestrial habitat is. A. Estuarine. B. Masine. C. Lake. D. Land environment.
31. The device which enables a car to start is called. A. Battery. B. Coil. C. Gear. D. Ignation. E.
Router.
32. The working principle of hydraulic press is based on ___. A. Centrifugal pump. B. Hydraulic ram.
C. Pressure difference. D. Transmission of fluid pressure. E. Triangle.
33. The father of all machines is ____ machine. A. Driving. B. Drilling. C. Lathe. D. Milling. E.
Grunding.
34. Which of the following does not use a chain driver? A. Air conditioner. B. Bicycle. C. Motor car.
D. Motor cycle. E. Printing machine.
35. If gear wheel ‘A’ with 40 teeth meched with gear B with 30 teeth, rotates 30 times. How many times
will gear brotate? A. 10. B. 20. C. 25. D. 30. E. 40.
36. The characteristics which distinquishes rubber from other materials is ___. A. Elasticity. B.
Fusibility. C. Malleability. D. Plasticity. E. Toughness.
37. One of the following is not a form of energy. A. Chemical. B. Heat. C. Mechanical. D. Season. E.
Solar.
38. Which of the following cannot be made from ceramics? A. Bicycle tyre. B. Floor tiles. C. Pots. D.
Tea-cup. E. Walls of building.
39. Modern farming technology uses one of the following machines for filling the ground. A. Digger. B.
Fork. C. Hoes. D. Shovel. E. Tractor 42.
40. Using coated abrasive to reduce rough surface of wood is. A. Cleaning. B. Planning. C. Polishing.
D. Sanding. E. Saving.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer 4 questions in all. One question from each subject in theory)
HEALTH AND PHYSICAL EDUCATION

1. Define First Aid. (b) List four items found in a first aid box. (c) Mention four home accident you
know. (d) List three determinant of person health.
2. Define Accident. (b) List four places accident can occur. (c) What is Non-Communicable Disease?
(d) Mention four non-communicable diseases.
COMPUTER
3. Paint Package means? (ii) Enumerate 3 tools use in paint package and state their uses. (ii) List out
6 abbreviations in computer and write their full meaning.
4. Differentiate between faxes and fax machine. (ii) Enumerate 2 types of fax machine. (ii) What are
the 2 advantage and 2 disadvantage of computer.
BASIC SCIENCE
5. Define a Habitat. (ii) Give 2 examoles of the following; (a) Terrestrial habitat, (b) Aquatic habitat.
6. What is Adaptation? (i) State the structural adaptation for breathing in the following organism; (a)
Goat (b) Fish (c) Insects.
BASIC TECHNOLOGY
7. What are Woodwork Machines? (b) Mention two types of woodwork machine. (c) What is a Mchine
Tool? (d) Mention 5 machines that are regarded as machine tools.
8. The most versatile and useful machine tool is __. (b) List three types of hand drills. 9c) Give two
examples each of belt and chain drives. (d) Mention two types of fans.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: BASIC SCIENCE & BASIC TECHNOLOGY J. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.

BASIC SCIENCE
1. _____ is the total surroundings in which an organisation lives or dwells. A. Surroundings. B. Environment.
C. Biotic factors. D. Science.
2. ____ is a state of well being of the whole body. A. Health. B. Cleanliness. C. Maintain. D. Personal.
3. The interactions, culture and behaviour of people found in an environment is called. A. Objects. B. Social
environment. C. Environment. D. Components.
4. The various ways or methods if studying science is called ___. A. Observation. B. Scientic methods. C.
Studying. D. Science
5. The word is derived from the latin word serie, meaning ____. A. Analysis. B. Conclusion. C. To know. D.
Belief.
6. ____ are any organism (plant and animal) which life in them and performs the life activities and its
characteristics. A. Man. B. Living things. C. Animals. D. Plants.
7. _____ and
8. ______ are the two major classes of non-living things. A. Metals. B. Non-metals. C. Melting. D. Boiling.
9. Scientific methods includes the following except. A. Hypothesis. B. Theory. C. Observation. D. Analysis.
10. Good health can be maintained by ___. A. Cleaning the gulter. B. Cleaning the floors. C. Adequate rest and
sleep. D. Washing dishes.
BASIC TECHNOLOGY
11. The two types of fire which can occur in a workhop are. A. Electrical and mechanical fire. B. Electrical and
chemical fire. C. Chemical and mechanical fire. D. Chemical and autonomic fire.
12. A place dedicated to producing, repairing or maintaining things is called. A. Building material. B. A
workshop. C. Shop. D. Laboratory.
13. Technology related professions are all of the following except. A. Civil engineering. B. Plumbing trades. C.
Mechanical engineering. D. Auto fabrication.
14. The seed of hardwood trees are enclosed in a pod known as. A. Angiosperms. B. Gymnosperms. C.
Monosperms. D. Hydrosperms.
15. Wood is a lignocelluloses material because ot contains. A. Cellulose 40%, cementant lignin 50-61%, ash 1%.
B. Cellulose 70%, cementant lignin 12-28%, ash 1%. C. Cellulose 28%, cementant lignin 70%, ash 1%. D.
Cellulose 50-61%, cementant ligin 40%, ash 1%.
16. Mortar is a mixture of. A. Cement, stone, snad and water. B. Cement, sand and water. C. Cement, stone
and water. D. Cement, aggregate and water.
17. The method of removing or drying off surplus moisture from timber is. A. Seasouning. B. Drying. C.
Moisture content. D. Sunning.
18. The types of wood defect are. A. Natural defect and physical defect. B. Natural and artificial defect. C.
Processing and physical defect. D. Artificial and physical defect.
19. All of the following are examples of non-ferous metals except. A. Bronze. B. Copper. C. Brass. D. Lead.
20. The property of metals which allows metals to withstand stretching, bending or breaking is known as. A.
Malleability. B. Toughness. C. Luster. D. Fusibility.
COMPUTER SCIENCE
21. We have ____ generations of computer. A. 2. B. 4. C. 5. D. 8.
22. ____ is a counting device that is made up of ruler design. A. Slide rule. B. Abacus. C. Napier bone. D. Step
reckoner.
23. ____ and ____ are examples of early counting tools/devices. A. Fingers and tables. B. Cowries and
pebbles. C. Chairs and couries. D. Computer and pebbles.
24. Jacquard loom was invented in ___ year by ____. A. 8181 by Joseph Marie Jacquard. B. 1801 by Charlse
Babbage. C. 1801 by Joseph Marie Jacquard. D. 1901 by Williams Oughtred.
25. A device used by computer operators to input data into the computer system is called ____. A. Computer. B.
Keyboard. C. Scanner. D. Mouse.
26. Which of these is an output unit device? A. Loudspeaker. B. Keyboard. C. Mouse. D. Joystick.
27. What is the main component used in building the first generation computer? Vacuum tube. B. Valve tube.
C. Vacuum machine. D. Vacuum tubal.
28. One feature of first generation computer is ____. A. It is fast and reliable. B. It occupy space. C. It is less
expensive. D. Smaller in size.
29. Which of these is an input unit device? A. Printer. B. Keyboard. C. Loudspeaker. D. Monitor.
30. Pascaline machine was invented by ____ in the year ____. A. Blaise pascal in 1642. B. Charlse Babbage in
1642. C. John Napier in 1617. D. Blaise pascal in 1662.
HEALTH AND PHYSICAL EDUCATION
31. Physical education means. A. Various body activities. B. Strnght and hysical development. C. The process
of education through activities. D. Important part of general education. E. Physical training.
32. Which of the following is not an objective of physical education? A. To help in the growth and development of
students. B. To develop useful physical skills. C. To develop good health habits and safety skills. D. To
develop bi muscles. E. To develop physical fitness.
33. The component of physical education means. A. Development of physical skills. B. Items to be covered in
physical education. c. Outsoor activities. D. The students for which the programme is meant. E. The
teacher and students of physical education.
34. Which of the following is not a component of physical education? a. Rhythmical activities. B. Simple game
activities. C. Athletics and games. D. Gymnastics. E. Physical activities.
35. Aquatics as part of physical education means. A. Swimming. B. Rhythmical activities. C. Recreation. D.
Movement exploration. E. Simple relays.
36. One important benefits of recreation is that. A. It makes children grow. B. It helps to promote good health.
C. It prevents students from fighting. D. It makes people to run fast. E. It prevents injury.
37. Which of these is not an indoor game? A. Card playing. B. Ludo playing. C. Jogging. D. Playing the
monopoly. E. Scrabble.
38. The primary purpose of recreation is to. A. Provide physical activities. B. Provide wide variety of physical
activities. C. Provide wide variety of acitivities that will satisfy the need and interest of people. D. Provide
opportunity for sports. E. Provide variety of indoor games.
39. One of these does not belong to arts and crafts. A. Callisthenics. B. Painting. C. Photography. D. Sewing.
E. Carving.
40. The two components of physical fitness are. A. Physical and health education. b. Broad and narrow. C.
Health related and performance. D. Athletics and games.

SECTION B: THEORY (Answer 4 questions in all. One question from each subject in theory)
HEALTH AND PHYSICAL EDUCATION
1. Define Physical Education. (b) List two importance of physical education.
2. Explain Physical Fitness. 9b) List the two components of physical fitness.
COMPUTER SCIENCE
3. Define Computer. (b) Enumerate 2 examples of input unit device and 2 examples of output unit
device. (c) draw the diagram of a monitor.
4. Define early Counting Device. (b) Enumerate four early counting tools you know. (c) Who are the
early men? (d) Draw two early counting device you know.
BASIC TECHNOLOGY
5. With the aid of a well lebelled diagram differentiate between soft wood and hardwood with two
examples of each. (b) Explain the properties of metals under the following heading (i) Malleability
(ii) Luster (iii) Ductility. (c) Define the following terms; (i) corrosion (ii) Accident
6. State two differences between science and technology. (b) List two safety guidelines for
pedestrians. 9c) List two ways in which workshop accidents can be prevented.
BASIC SCIENCE
7. Define Science. (b) List 2 importance of science. (c) Outline four scientific methods you know.
8. What is Family Health? (b) Mention four methods os keeping the body clean. (c) Outline 2
differences between living and non-living things.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
SCHOOL BOARD MOCK EXAMINATION 2023/2024 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: CHEMISTRY S. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.

1. Allotropes of an element differ in their. A. Physical properties. B. Chemical properties. C. Mass

number. D electronic configuration.
2. 1W, 12X and 19Z represents elements with their respective atomic numbers. A. Covalent is formed
from the combination of. (a) 1W and 17Y, (b) 1W and 19Z (c) 12X and 17Y. (d) 12X and 19Z.
3. The ability of atom to attract electron towards itself is called. A. Electron affinity. B.
Electronnegativity. C. Electronpositivity. D. Ionization energy.
4. What is the mass number of an element, is its atom contains 10 protons. 10 elfrons and 12
neutrons? A. 32. B. 22. C. 20. D. 10.
5. One of the products of combustion os pentane in excess air is. A. Pentanol. B. Pentanone. C.
Nitrogen(iv) oxide. D. Carbon(iv) oxide.
6. Which of the following is also referred to as laughing gas? A. N2O. B. NO. C. N2O2. D. NO2.
7. What is the oxidation number of nitrogen in AU(NO3)3? A. +1. B. +3. C. +5. D. +6.
8. Calculate the relative molecular mass of calcium hydrogen tetraoxosulphate (vi) (Ca = 40, H= 1, S=
32, O= 16. A. 106. B. 136. C. 137. D. 234.
9. A mixture of calcium chloride and calcium trioxocarbonate (iv) in water can be separated by. A.
Evaporation. B. Sublimation. C. Distillation. D. Filtration.
10. The process by which oil is converted to fats is. A. Catenation. B. Esterification. C.
Hydrogenation. D. Hydrolysis.
11. Acidic industrial waste can be treated with. A. Lime. B. Brine. C. Water. D. Ethanol.
12. Calculate the PH of 0.01 molar solution of trioxontrate (iv) acid. A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.
13. What is oxidized in the reaction represented by the following equation; Cu + 8HNO 3 ___ 3CU(NO3
+ 2NO+ 4H2O. A. Oxygen. B. Hydrogen. C. Copper. D. Nitrogen.
14. Extraction of sulphur from the earth crust can be done by ___ process. A. Bosch. B. Contact. C.
Haber. D. Frasch.
15. Which of the following fraction of crude oil is likely to contain hydrocarbon C 11H24? A. Kerosene. B.
Naphtha. C. Gas oil. D. Fuel oil.
16. Waste accumulate in the soil and pollute the environment because plastic material are ___. A.
Insoluble in water. B. Inflammable. C. Non-biodegradable. D. Easily affected by heat.
17. An example of neutral oxide is. A. Al2O3. B. BaO2. C. CO. D. HO.
18. Electrolytic method is used in the extraction of sodium and potassium because the metals are. A.
Highly reactive. B. Inert. C. Unreactive. D. Unstable.
19. An atom of an element X has two electrons in its outermost shell. What is the formula of the
compound formed when X combines with aluminium. A. Al2. B. Al2X. C. Al2X2. D. Al2X3.
20. The gas given off when NH4Cl is heated with an alkali is. A. H2. B. Cl2. C. N2. D. NH3.
21. Phenolphthalein indicator in alkali solution changes to __. A. Orange. B. Pink. C. Purple. D.
Yellow.
22. Due to rusting the weight of iron ___. A. Decreases. B. Doubles. C. Increases. D. Remains the
same.
23. A major factor considered in selecting a suitable method of preparing a simple salt is its. A.
Crystallization found. B. Melting point. C. Solubility in water. D. Reactivity with dilute acids.
24. Stcel is an alley of ___. A. Copper & tin. B. Copper and zinc. C. Iron and carbon. D. Iron and
nickel.
25. Starch undergoes complete hydrolysis to produce ___. A. Maltose. B. Alucose. C. Lactose. D.
Sucrose.

Use the following portion of theperiodic table to answer questions 26-29

I II III IV V VI VII
Y
J X
O M Z

26. Which of the letters indicate elements which exists as chatomic gases? A. M and Z. B. M and J.
C. W and Z. D. W and Y.
27. Which of the following pairs of letters denotes elements containing the same number of electrons in
their contermost shells? A. J and X. B. M and Q. C. W and Z. D. W and Y.
28. What letter represents an element that participate in covalent rather than ionic bonding? A. X. B.
Q. C. Z. D. J.
29. Which of the following salt solution will have PH greater than 7? A. Nacl. B. Na 2Co3. C. Na2SO4.
D. NaHSO4.
30. What mass in grams of an hydrons sodium trioxo carbonate (iv) is present 500cm 3 of its 0.1mol
dm3 solution? A. (Na = 23, c = 12, O = 16). A. 5.3. B. 10.6. C. 21.2. D. 42.4.
31. When air is passed through concentrated ____ carbon (IV) oxide is removed. A. Hcl. B. NaoH.
C. Na2 CO3. D. H2 SO4.
32. The ion that will be at least discharged in the electrochemical series is ___. A. Ca 2+. B. Cu2+. C.
Hg2+. D. K+.
33. What is the major product formed when C 2H2OH reacts with CH3COOH? A. C3H6 COOCH2. B. C2
H6 COOCH3. C. CH3COOC2H5. D. C3H7COOH.
34. The presence of unpaired electrons in an atom of a d-block elements accounts for its ___. A.
Ductivity. B. Lustre. C. Malleability. D. Paramagnetism.
35. Which of the following compound is used for removing unpurities from bauxite ___. A. NaOH. B.
CaCO3. C. Na3 AlF6. D. H2SO4.
36. The alloy “dural amin” which is used in the manufacture of acroplanes consist of ___. A. Al, Cu. B.
Al, Cu, Mn, Mg. C. Mg, N, CO, Fe. D. Al, Ni, CO and Fe.
37. Calculate the∆ H in Jmol of a chemical system when the entropy is 212.2KJ is 100 0C. A. 79150.6.
B. 40994.4. C. 132082.9. D. 2.1220.
38. During flame test, what colour is observed when sodium ion is introduced to a non-hernous flame.
A. Crimson. B. Golden yellow. C. Lilac. D. Silvery white.
39. Which of the following process involves neutralization? A. Handening of oil. B. Souring of milk. C.
Charring of sugar. D. Luning of soil.
40. Substance Q reacts with cold water to form a solution which turns blue litmus red, what is Q. A.
Strong electrolyte. B. Acid anhycride. C. Amphoteric oxide. D. Basic oxide.
41. Hardness in water can be removed by adding. A. CuSO4. B. Alum. C. Na2. CO3. D. Nacl.
42. If 20cm3+ distilled water is added to 80cm3 of 0.50 moldm3 hydrochloric acid, the new concentration
of the acid will be ____. A. 0.10moldm3. B. 0.20moldm3. C. 0.40moldm3. D. 2.00moldm3.
43. The oxidation number of iodine in the iodate ion (103) is. A. -5. B. -1. C. +1. D. +5.
44. Which of the following metals reacts vigorously with cold water. A. Al. B. Cu. C. Mg. D. K.
45. The ash used in making local black soap is a source of ___ ion. A. Aluminium. B. Calcium. C.
Sodium. D. Potassium.
46. In the bleaching action of chlonne, oxochlorate (i) acid decomposes to release ___. A. Carbon. B.
Oxygen. C. Chlorine. D. Hydrogen.
47. Which of the following halogen is liquid at room temperature? A. Iodine. B. Chlorine. C. Fluorine.
D. Branine.
48. The major fuction of limestone in the blast furnace is to ___. A. Act as a catalyst. B. Act as a
reducing agent. C. Remove impurities. D. Supply carbon (iv oxide).
49. Gas occupies a volume of 0.75dm3 at 270C and 0.9mmHg. the volume of gas at 750C and same
pressure is ____. A. 0.87. B. 0.97. C. 117. D. 1.94.

SECTION B: THEORY (Answer any FIVE questions)

PART A: (Answer all questions in this Part)
1. The following table shows the electronic configuration of two elements Y and Z.

Element Configuration
Y 1s2 2s2 2p5
Z 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
(i) Name the (i) group to which Y belong (ii) Period to which Z belong.
(ii) What is the number of protons present in an atom of Z.
(iii) How many unpaired electrons are in an atom of Y.
(iv) Write the formula of the compound formed between Y and Z. (b) A concentrolysed using mercury
cathode and graphite anode.
(i) State the ions present in solution.
(ii) Name the product at the 9i) Anode and give reason. (ii) Cathode and give reason for discharging
hydrogen.
(iii) Name the three important products of this electrolysis.
(iv) By means of equation describe the chemical reaction of aqueous sodium hydroxide with solution of
ammonia salt.
(v) State two alloys of tin.
2. Define each of the following terms: (i) Tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid and sodium hydroxide reacts to
produce salt and water. Write a balanced equation for the formation of 9i) normal salt (ii) acid salt.
(bi) Explain briefly the term acid-base indicator. (ii) Copy and complete the following table.
Indicator Colour in acid medium Colour in basic medium
Methy/Orange
Phenolphthalein
For each of the following titrations, state the most suitable indicator (i) Strong acid against strong
base. (ii) Strong acid against weak base. (iii) Weak acid against strong base. (c) Baking powder
and hydrochloric acid reacts according to the following equation. NaHCO3(aq) + Hcl(aq) ____ Nacl(aq) +
H2O(i) + CO2(g). Calculate 10g of carbon (IV) oxide [H=1, C=12, O=16, Na=23]. (d) Give reason why
a given mass of sodium hydroxide pellets cannot be used to prepare a standard solution.
3. When an unknown solution A was added to sample B (a member of the laogen family), a dark blue
colouration was formed, (i) Name solution A and B. (ii) State a reason for the colouration. (iii)
Mention one use of sample B. (ii) State Datton’s law of partial pressure. (b) An organic compound
on analysis yielded 408g of carbon, 0.68g hydrogen and 5.46g of oxygen. (i) Calculate empirical
formula of the compound. (ii) If the relative molecular mass of compound is 60; calculate its
molecular formula. [C=12, H=1, O=16].
(ci) Consider the diagram
 (i) What type of reaction is illustrated above? (ii) State what ‘a’ and ‘b’ represent. Give the two
processes involved in the manufacture of nitrogen from air. (iii) Name the type of chemical bond
that exists in nitrogen molecule. (di) Give reason why fats have higher melting points than oil. (ii)
State three physical properties of chlorine. (iii) State why Zn2+ and SC3+ are colourless.

PART B: (Choose two questions in this part)

4. State Boyles law. (ii) Give the mathematical expression of Boyles law. (iii) Sketch the graphical
representative of boyles law. (b) A give mass of gas occupies 500cm 3 at 300C nad 6.5 x 104Nm-2.
Calculate the volume of the gas at S.T.P? standard pressure: 1.01 x 10 5Nm-2. (ii) Determine the
vapour density of SO2. [S=32, O=16]. (iii) Give one example of salt that hydrolyse in water. (ci)
State four things observed when a piece of sodium is dropped in cold water. (cii) Name the area
from which the following metals can be extracted. (i) Al. (ii) Fe. (iii) Na. (iv) Ca. (ciii) Give reasons
why sodium os stored in paraffin oil. (iv) Describe what happens when excess CO 2 is bubbled ito
lime water.
5. Write the structure of 2-chloro-2-methylpropane. (ii) Consider the compound X represented by the
structure below.
H H

H O C C H

H C C H H

H
O
(i) State the functional group in X. (ii) Give the IUPAC name of X. (iii) State the homologous
series to which X belongs. (iv) Give the name of the two compounds from which X is
formed. (v) State one physical characteristics of X. (Bi) List two products obtained from
fractional distillation of crude oil. (ii) State one use of each product in (bii) (iii) Mention the
monomers of protein. (ci) State Graham’s law of diffusion. (ii) if 100cm 3 of oxygen diffused in
4secs and 50cm3 of gas Y diffused in 3secs, calculate the relative molecular mass of gas Y
[O=16].
6. Mention two classes of Carbohydrates. (ii) Give the structural formula of the following; I – Methyl
benzene. II - propanone. III – 2,2,3 – trimethyl pentane. (bi) Give one chemical test for oxygen. (ii)
State three factors that affect the discharge of ions during electrolysis. (biii) Calculate the amount of
silver deposited in moles when 109.20 coulanb of electricity is passed through a solution of silver
salt. [Faraday Constant = 96500C(mol-1). (ci) State the effect of each of the following aqueous
solution on litruus paper (i) Na2SO4 (ii) AlCl3(aq). (ii) Define the term Effervescene. (iii) Give two uses
of activated charcoal. (iv) State one used of each of the following process in the chemical industry.
(I) Hydrogenation of vegetable oils. (II) Cracking. (III) Esterification.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: CHEMISTRY S. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.

1. Allotropes of an element differ in their. A. Physical properties. B. Chemical properties. C. Mass

numbers. D. Electronic configuration.
2. What is the mass number of an element if its atom contains 10 protons, 10 elements and 12
neutrons? A. 32. B. 22. C. 20. D. 10.
3. Give that the electronic configuration of an element X is 1S 22S22P63S23P4, it can be deduced that
X. A. Belongs to group VI in the periodic table. B. Belongs to period 4 in the periodic table. C.
Contains 3 unpaired electrons in the group state. D. Has atomic number 27.
4. P, Q, R and S are metals in the same group in the periodic table but in periods 3,4,5 and 6
respectively which of them loses electrons least readily? A. P. B. Q. C. S. D. R.
5. Elements which belong to the same group in the periodic table are characterize by. A. Difference
of + 1 in the oxidation numbers of successive members. B. Presence of the same number of
outermost electrons in the respective atoms. C. Difference of 14 atomic mass units between
successive members. D. Presence of the number of electron shell in the respective atoms.
6. The atom of an element X has two electrons in its out most shell. What is the formular of the
compound formed when X combines with aluminium (13Al)? A. AlX2. B. Al2. C. Al2X. D. Al2X3.
7. The presence of unpaired electrons in an atom of a transition metwl gives rise to. A.
Paramagetism. B. Malleability. C. Cluctivity. D. Shiny appearance.
8. What is responsible for metallic bonding? A. Sharing of electrons between the metal atoms. B.
Attraction between the atomic nucles and cloud of electrons. C. Transfer of electrons from one
atom to another. D. Attraction between positive and negative ions.
9. Which of the following compounds is covalent? A. Cacl2. B. Mgo. C. NaH. D. CH4.
10. Which of the following features of a human skeleton can be determind by carbon dating? A.
Height. B. Mass. C. Age. D. Race.
11. P Total = P1+P2+P3+ -------- in where Ptotal is the pressure of a mixture of gases. The equation
above is an expression of. A. Graham’s Law. B. Gay – Lussac’s aw. C. Boyle’s law. D. Dalton
law.
12. If 1.0 dm3 of gas X diffuses through a porous plug in 60secs while the same volume of hydrogen
diffuses in 15 seconds under the same condition, calculate the relative molecular mass of X. [H=
1.0]. A. 4.0. B. 8.0. C. 16. D. 32.
13. Which of the following pairs of reagents react to produce hydrogen? A. Zinc and concentrated
trioxonitrate (v) acid. B. Water and calcium dicorbide. C. Copper and dilute hychochloric acid. D.
Magnesium and dilute tetraoxosulphate (VI) acid.
14. A mixture of calcium chloride and calcium trioxocarbonate (IV) in water can be separated by. A.
Evaporation. B. Sublimation. C. Distillation. D. Fillration.
Use the following information to answer questions 15 and 16.
A gas was evolved when a sample of gastric juice reacted with sodium trioxocarbonate
(IV).
15. The gas evoled was. A. NH3. B. SO2. C. HCL. D. CO2
16. It can be concluded that gastric juice. A. Contains enzymes. B. Isacielic. C. Is a mixture. D. Has
PH value of 7.
17. What does DH represent in the following equation? Cl(g)te _____ Cl(g) l DH ____ 36s KJmol-l. A.
Ionization energy. B. Electron affinity. C. Dissociation energy. D. Heat of atomization.
18. Which of the following establishments uses the process of fermention in its operation? A. Fertilizer
plant. B. Textile industry. C. Brewery. D. Soap manufacturing industry.
19. Which of the following constitutes an advantage in the use of hard water? A. Formation of scuon
with soap. B. Furring of kettles. C. Blockage of water pipes. D. Formation of strong bones.
20. Which of the following compounds is readily soluable in water? A. CuO. B. Agel. C. Na 2SO4. D.
CaCO3.
21. Calculate the mass of ZnSO4 produce when excess of ZnCO3 is added to 50.0cm3 of 4.00moldm-3 H2SO4.
The equation for the reaction is: ZnCO 3 + H2SO4 ____ ZnSO4 + CO2 + H2O [ZnSO = 161gmol-1]. A. 0.200g.
B. 1.29g. C. 32.2g. D. 39.0g.
22. If 10cm3 of distilled water is added to 10cm3 of anaqueous salt solution the concentration of the solution. A.
Uncreases. B. Decreases. C. cremain constant. D. Doubles.
23. Acidic industrial waste can be treated with. A. Lime. B. Brine. C. Water. D. Ethand.
24. Waste plastic are umulate in the soil and pollute the environment because plastic materials are. A.
Insoluable in water. B. Non-biode gradable. C. Easily affected by heat. D. Inflammable.
25. Which of the following atoms contains the highlest number of electrons in the outermost shell? A. 8O. B.
10Ne. C. 15P. D. 19K.
26. What is the electronic configuration of an element represented as 9X.
27. Callicium atom ionizes by. A. Gaining two electrons. B. Losing two electrons. C. Sharing two electrons.
28. Which of the following properties increases doon a group in the periodic table? A. Atomic radius. B.
Electronegativity. C. Electron affinity. D. Ionization energy.
29. In the periodic table, the elements that lose electrons most readily belong to. A. Group IA. B. Group IIA. C.
Group IIIA. D. Group VIIA.
30. Exhaust fumes discharged from a smoky vehicle gradually becomes invisible as a result of. A. Diffusion. B.
Combustion. C. Absorption. D. Emission.
31. Which of the following movements can be described as random motion? A. Wheel barrow being pushed. B.
A car travelling on a straight line. C. Gas molecules colliding in a flask. D. Planets going round the sun.
32. Gasmolecules are said to be perfectly elastic because. A. They collicle without loss of energy. B. They move
about in straight lines. C. The distances between them are negligible. D. The volume occupied by them is
negligible.
33. Equal volumes of CO2 and CO at s.t.p have the same. A. Mass. B. Density. C. Rate Diffusion. D. Number
of molecules.
34. 30cm3 of hydrogen at s.t.p combine with 20cm 3 of oxygen to form steam according to the following equation
2H2(g) + O2(g) ___ 2H2O(g). Calculate the gascous mixture at the end of reaction. A. 50cm3. B. 35cm3. C.
30cm3. D. 25cm3.
35. An exothermicreaction is one which involves. A. Attainment of dynamic equilibrium. B. Loss of heat to the
environment. C. Evolution of gas as it proceeds. D. Positive charge in value of enthalpy.
36. Which of the following is an acid salt? A. NH4cl. B. MgSO4, 7H2. C. CH3COONa. D. NaHCO3.
37. Use the data below to arrange the body fluids mentioned in order of increasing acidity;
Body fluid pH Range
Gastric Juice 1.6 – 1.8
Bile 7.8 – 8.6
Urine 5.5 – 7.0
A. Bile
¿ gastric juice< Urine . B . Gastric juice<urine< bile .C . Bile<urine< gastric juice . D . Urine <bile< gastric juice
38. Which of the following lowers the activation energy of a chemical reaction? A. Freezing mixture. B.
Reducing agent. C. Water. D. Cathlyst.
39. What is the electronic configuration of an element represented as 19X? A. 1S22S22P2. B. 1S22S23P3. C.
1S22S22P33S2. D. 1S22S22P63S23P64S1.
40. Which of the following halogens is most reactive? A. F2. B. Br2. C. I2. D. Cl2.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer FOUR questions from this section. All question carry equal mark)
1. State the Periodic Law. (b) Differentiate between a period and a Group of a periodic table. (c) Write the
electronic configuration of number 19 element. (d) Give two examples of group I element. (e) Mention two
properties of group I element.
2. What is Periodicity of an Element? (b) Mention 4 properties of element which exhibit periodicity. (c) Explain
the following terms; (i) Activation Energy. (ii) Elelctronegativity. (ii) Electron Affinity.
3. What are Halogens. (b) Mention 4 properties of Halogens. (c) Name 4 oxides of group 5 element. (d)
Mention 2 elements that belong to group 5. (e) List two examples of elements that belong to group 4.
4. State the Collision Theory. (b) Using the collision theory, explain briefly how temperature can affect the rate
of a chemical reaction. (c) Explain what is meant by an effective Collision. (d) What is Rate of Chemical
Reaction? (e) Mention 4 factors that affect the rate of chemical reaction.
5. What is Hard Water? (b) Mention 2 salts that causes hardness of water. (c) Mention two types of hardness of
water. (d) State the role of each of the following in the treatment of river water for town supply. (i) Sand bed.
(ii) Alum (iii) Chlorine. (e) Mention two heat charges that accompanies a chemical reaction.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
6.

SUBJECT/CLASS: CHEMISTRY S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.

(OBJECTIVES)
1. Chemical is defined as. A. a branch of knowledge which produces chemical. B. a branch of science which
makes physics and biology clearer. C. the oldest branch science. D. the branch of science which deals with
changes in matter.
2. Scientific approach to discoveries follow the order which includes. A. further experiment and problem solving.
B. theory, negative and positive result and experiments. C. experiment hypothesis and results. D.
observation, hypothesis and experiments.
3. One of these professions has no need for chemistry. A. miners. B. engineers. C. philosophers. D.
geologists.
4. Which of the following is not a chemical substance? A. air. B. water. C. sound. D. leaf.
5. Fine chemical have the following characteristics except. A. they are chemically pure. B. they are produced
by batch process. C. they are produced in larger quantities because of high applicability. D. they are
produced in small quantities because of limited applicability.
6. Examples of heavy chemicals include the following except. A. NaOH. B. perfumes. C. H 2SO4. D. NH3.
7. These are examples of chemical industries except. A. photosynthesis. B. agricultural industry. C. petro-
chemical industry. D. pharmaceutical industry.
8. Which of the following processes is a physical charge? A. fermentation of sugar. B. sublimation of iodine. C.
destructive distillation of coal. D. rusting of iron nails.
9. Which of these is not a physical property of metals. A. boiling point. B. density. C. hardness. D. malleability.
E. rusting.
10. Which group of the periodic table contains the noble gases? A. 1. B. 2. C. 5. D. 7. D. 0.
11. The maximum number of electrons that can occupy the shell having a principal quantum number of 3 is. A. 3.
B.9. c. 10. D. 18. E. 32.
12. The position of an element in the periodic table is determined by. A. its atomic radius. B. its density. C. its
relative atomic mass. D. the number of protons in its atom. E. the number of neutrons in its atom.
13. A chlorine atom and chlorine ion have the same. A. chemical properties. B. electronic structure. C. number
of electrons. D. number of protons. E. oxidation number.
14. Elements P, Q and R have atomic number 9, 16 and 20 respectively. Which of them would gain electron ionic
bonding. A. Q and R. B. P and R. C. P and Q. D. P, Q and R.
15. The atomic number of chlorine is 17. What is the number of electrons in a chlorine ion? A. 16. B. 17. C. 18.
D. 19.
16. The number of particles in one mole of a substance is the. A. mass number. B. oxidation number. C. atomic
number. D. Avogadro’s number.
17. A hydrogen atom which has lost an electrons contains. A. one proton only. B. one neutron only. C. one
proton and one neutron. D. one proton, one electron and one neutron.
18. The elements with the highest reducing ability in each period of the periodic table are the. A. alkali metals.
B. halogens. C. noble gas. D. alkali earth metals.
19. The mass of an element is 27 and its atomic number is 13. What is the composition of nucleus of its atoms?
A. 13 electrons and 14 protons. B. 13 neutrons and 14 proton. C. 13 protons and 15 neutrons. D. 12
electrons and 14 neutrons.
20. One of the characteristics of transition metal is. A. reducing ability. B. ductility. C. ability to conduct
electricity. D. formation of coloured ion.
21. An atom is electrically neutral because the. A. electron is negatively charge. B. neutron has no charges. C.
number of electrons is equal to the number of protons. D. proton and the neutron have equal mass of one.
E. proton is positively charged.
22. Given the symbol 1327X, it can be deduced that X has. A. a mass number. B. an atomic number of 13. C. 40
neutrons. D. 27 protons.
23. Calcium oxide is commonly known as. A. limekiln. B. limestone. C. milk of lime. D. quick lime.
24. Metals are said to be malleable because they. A. are good conductors of electricity. B. a good conductor of
heat. C. can be alloyed. D. can be beaten into sheets. E. can be perished.
25. The empirical formula of a compound containing 40% of sulphur and 60% of oxygen is (S=32, O=16). A. SO.
B. SO2. C. SO3. D. S2 O3. E. SO4.
26. Electrovalent compounds are usually. A. compounds formed by sharing of electrons. B. gases which liquefy
easily. C. insoluble in petrol and tetrachloro methane. D. compounds formed by transfer of electrons. E.
liquids that boil at low temperature.
27. Which is the mass number of an elements having 20 neutrons, 15 protons and 15 electron. A. 15. B. 30. C.
35. D. 50.
28. When sodium atoms forms the ion Na. A. it gains one electron. B. it grains one proton. C. it achieves noble
gas configuration. D. its atomic number increases.
29. Elements in the same group of the periodic table have. A. the same number of valence electrons. B. the
same number of electron shells. C. different chemical behaviour. D. the same atomic size.
30. The type of bonding between calcium and oxygen in calcium oxide is. A. metallic. B. covalent. C. ionic. D.
co-ordinate covalent.
31. Isotopes of an element have the same. A. chemical properties. B. number of neutrons. C. mass number. D.
atomic number.
32. The mass spectrometer can be used to measure mass of. A. an atom. B. an electron. C. a proton. D. a
neutron.
33. The force of attraction between covalent molecules is. A. dative bonding. B. hydrogen bonding. C. ionic
force. D. Vander Waals force.
34. Water molecules are held together by. A. covalent bond. B. hydrogen bond. C. ionic force. D. Vander
Waals force.
35. An element A has the following electronic configuration 1S 22S22P23S23P5 the element A is likely to. A. be a
reducing. B. be a group of element. C. be a metalloid. D. be a period if element. E. have a low ionization
energy.
36. When ice is changing to water, its temperature remains the same because the beat gained is. A. used to
separate the molecules. B. lost partial to the atmosphere. C. use to increase the volume of ice. D. less than
the activation energy.
37. The atom of an element X is represented as Y zX the basic chemical properties of X depends on the value of.
A. Y. B. Z. C. Y – Z. D. Z – Y.
38. The most abundant element on the earth’s surface is. A. aluminium. B. nitrogen. C. oxygen. D. ion.
39. An atom with 17 protons, 17 electrons and 18 neutrons has a mass number of. A. 17. B. 18. C. 34. D. 35.
40. What is the percentage by mass of copper (I) oxide. (CU2O)? (O=16, Cu=64).
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer 4 questions only)
1. What is Chemistry?
(b) List in a logical order the scientific method of carrying out investigation.
(c) Mention 4 career prospects in chemistry.
(d) Give 4 uses of Chemistry.

2. What is Chemical Industry?

(b) Mention 4 types of chemical industries with their respective products.
(c) Give 2 differences between fine and heavy chemicals.
(d) Mention 2 adverse effects of chemical.

3. What is an Element? (b) List 4 familiar substance which you know to be elements and give the chemical
symbol of each one of them.

4. Define each of the following terms;

A. Atoms.
B. Molecules.
C. Atomic number.
D. Mass number.
E. If the mass number of an atom is 11 and its atomic number is 5, how many neutrons are there in the atom?

5. Draw and label an atomic structure.

(b) An oxide of nitrogen contains 70% of oxygen and 30% of b=nitrogen. Determine it’s empirical formula (N=
14, O = 16). (c) Mention 3 Subatomin Particles. (d) Give three differences between Physical and Chemical
Charges.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: BUSINESS STUDIES J. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.

1. The means of creating awareness of the existence of new goods and revive buyer interest on the old product
is known as. A. insurance. B. transport. C. advertising. D. teaching.
2. Which of the common advertising media involves both sight and sound? A. magazine. B. radio. C.
newspaper. D. television.
3. ___ is the fastest means of transport. A. air. B. sea. C. rail. D. land.
4. Who is the last person in the channel of distribution? A. retailer. B. producer. C. consumer. D. wholesaler.
5. The bank account operated by the use of cheques ___. A. deposit. B. savings. C. cheque. D. current.
6. ___ are the outgoing and incoming letters and parcels that are handled by the organisation. A. cash
correspondence. B. postage book. C. office correspondence. D. correspondence record.
7. ____ is an evidence of payment. A. receipt. B. cash. C. invoice. D. cash book.
8. ___ is the movement of goods and people from place to place. A. advertising. B. motor. C. water. D.
transportation.
9. A written document by a current account holder instruct the bank to pay a specified amount to a named
person or bearer is known as. A. insurance. B. transport. C. advertising. D. teaching.
10. One of these is not a method of making payment. A. bank draft. B. cash. C. cheque. D. overdraft.
11. Which of these is the principle book of account. A. cash book. B. journal. C. ledger. D. spacebar.
12. Traders safe guard their money in the. A. shop. B. bank. C. market. D. locker.
13. The reward for labour is. A. rent. B. wages. C. buyer. D. market.
14. Four advertising media are _______
15. ________
16. ________ and
17. _________
18. The following are the factors that affect occupation except. A. education. B. skills. C. federal character. D.
training.
19. Moveable part of typewriter is called. A. platen. B. roller. C. carriage. D. space.
20. The reception officer is usually located at. A. the gate. B. the entrance of the building. C. carriage office. D.
principal’s office.
21. The market where we buy and sell our goods is called. A. service market. B. capital market. C. money
market. D. commodity markets.
22. The two types of an office are _______ and_______. A. old and new. B. work and organisation. C. small
and large office. D. worker and non-worker.
23. ____ refers to set of principle and guidance governing standard of conduct. A. ethnics. B. ethics. C.
permanents. D. clerical staff.
24. ____ is an employee of an organisation who perform clerical duties in the office. A. officer. B. permanent
officer. C. clerical staff. D. fair play.
25. ____ are those good behaviours, actions expected of a worker in carrying out the duties he is been employed
and paid salary at the end of the month. A. work. B. punctuality. C. right attitude to work. D. regularity.
Fill in the gaps with the correct answer.
26. _____ is an established or official way of performing certain function in the office.
27. The person who uses the cheque is called the ______
28. While the person presents the cheque for payments is called ______
29. ______ is an evidence of sales.
30. W.W.W means _______
31. A cheque which can be cashed at the counter by the payee is known as _____
32. _____ is the legal tender.
33. _____ is the movement of goods and people from one place to another.
34. All these are credit entry in trial balance except. A. capital. B. creditors. C. returns outwards. D. sundry
expenses.
35. C.O.D in an invoice means. A. cash of delivery. B. change of delivery. C. cash on delivery. D. cost on
delivery
36. Payment involving small amount of money can be done with the use of ____. A. bank draft. B. cheque. C.
cash. D. postal order.
37. Net profit is ascertained by preparing ____ account. A. sales. B. current. C. profit and loss. D. trading.
38. Payment through the post office are by _____ and
39. ______. A. postal order and pen order. B. paper and money order. C. postal and money order. D. wages
and salary.
40. _____ advertising is used to target a group of people in the school. A. mass. B. persuasive. C. indirect. D.
direct.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer any FOUR questions from this section)
1. Explain Office Procedure. (b) Outline three importance of office procedure. (c) What is the meaning of Trade.
2. What is Production? (b) State four factors of production. (c) What are the procedurefor seeking redress.
3. The following were extracted from the trial balance of Okongwu Ltd.
Purchases - - - - - 4, 100. 00
Sales - - - - - 8, 000. 00
Returns Inwards - - - - 200. 00
Opening Stock - - - - 1, 500. 00
Returns Outwards - - - - 150. 00
Closing Stock - - - - 1, 000. 00
Prepare a trading account for the year ended 31st Dec, 1998.
4. What is Tabulation? (b) Mention five steps to follow in typing tabulation.
5. Mention four machines that are used in the preparation of Invoice and Receipt. (b) Explain two types of an
Office we have.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: BUSINESS STUDIES J. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.

1. The first person a visitor will meet in the office is called a ___. A. retailer. B. receptionist. C. wholesaler. D.
clerk.
2. A trader who buys goods in small quantity from the wholesaler and sell it to consumers is the. A. wholesaler.
B. retailer. C. typist. D. clerk.
3. While a trader who buys goods in large quantity from the manufacturer and sell it to the retailer is the. A.
wholesaler. B. retailer. C. typist. D. clerk.
4. The daily events of the organisation are recorded in ___. A. business card. B. dairy. C. telephone message
pad. D. visitors request form.
5. The receptionist uses ____ to record the names of each expected visitor, date, time of visited and the person
to see. A. dairy. B. appointment book. C. request form. D. business card.
6. All are documents handled by a receptionist except. A. diary. B. visitor’s book. C. telephone message pad.
D. invoice.
7. One of these is a quality of a good receptionist? A. disobedient. B. late. C. polite. D. rube.
8. The acts of buying and selling of goods and for services is. A. commerce. B. production. C. trade. D.
market.
9. The market where we buy and sell our goods is called. A. commodity market. B. capital market. C. money
market. D. services market.
10. Any situation whereby the buyer and sellers of goods and service are in close contact to transact business is
known as. A. capital. B. market. C. trade. D. money.
11. The reception office is usually located at. A. at the gate. B. at the entrance of the building. C. at manager’
office. D. at security office.
12. One of these are appropriate dress code. A. wearing bedroom slippers. B. should always be on short wears.
C. should be neat and smart. D. should dress in good wrapper.
13. A place where money and other valuables items are kept is called. A. house. B. market. C. bank. D. shop.
14. The last person in the channel of distribution is. A. retailer. B. producer. C. consumer. D. manufacturer.
15. Another name for foreign trade is. A. home trade. B. export trade. C. international trade. D. import trade.
16. When a worker is devoted to his/her duties, the following qualities are seen in him/her except. A.
hardworking. B. disobedience. C. regularities. D. punctuality.
17. The reward for land is. A. rent. B. interest. C. profits. D. wages/salaries.
18. One of these is not a career opportunity in business studies? A. secretary. B. lawyer. C. banker. D.
accountant.
19. Which department is responsible for using raw materials to make finished goods? A. account department. B.
purchasing department. C. production department. D. sales department.
20. The head of purchasing department is called. A. purchasing manager. B. marketing manager. C. account
manager. D. sales manager.
21. The type of trade done within a country is called. A. local trade. B. foreign trade. C. home trade. D.
international trade.
22. The outgoing and incoming letters and parcels that are handled by the organisation is called. A. postage
book. B. despatch book. C. correspondence record. D. cash correspondence.
23. The arrangement and storing of documents systematically and chronological according to their dates is
called. A. filing. B. packing. C. storing. D. duting.
24. The integrated and practical subject that is made up of various subject is. A. social studies. B. basic science.
C. business studies. D. mathematics.
25. The document that is prepared and issued by the seller to the buyer after transaction is called. A. purchases
invoice. B. sales invoice. C. correspondence. D. cashbook.
26. The system of filing according to their place of origin is called ___ filing. A. alphabetically. B. numerical. C.
geographical. D. subject.
27. An office may either be ____ and
28. ______. A. small or large. B. little or big. C. small or little. D. large or enormous.
29. The creation of goods and services to satisfy human wants is. A. production. B. purchasing. C. advertising.
D. sales.
30. A place where clerical activities are carried out is known as. A. sitting room. B. hostel. C. office. D.
computer room.
31. A type of trade that is done between two countries is called. A. foreign trade. B. home trade. C. export
trade. D. import trade.
32. The reward of an entrepreneur as a factor of production is. A. profit. B. interest. C. labour. D. rent.
33. ____ is an example of machine used in an office. A. knife. B. wrist watch. C. typewriter. D. wall clock.
34. The movement of people and goods from one place to another is. A. advertising. B. insurance. C.
commerce. D. transportation.
35. One of these is not an example of business units. A. partnership. B. sole trader. C. co-operative society. D.
advertising.
36. Two types of typewriter are ______ and______. A. large and small. B. Olympics and manual. C. manual
and electric. D. old and new
37. Aids-to- trade are _______,
38. __________,
39. __________ and
40. __________.
SECTION B: (Answer any FOUR questions from this section)
1. What is Market?
(b) Mention three features of market.
(c) State three main types of market.

2. What is Office Correspondence?

(b) State the types of office correspondence.
(c) What is Trade?
3. Who is a Receptionist?
(b) State 4 qualities of a receptionist.
(c) What is Correspondence Records?
4. Draw the trade and its branches.

5. What Office Documents?

(b) Explain Sales Document.
(c) List the two types of office.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: BUSINESS STUDIES J. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.
1. The following are examples of source of document except. A. cashbook. B. invoice. C. credit note. D. debit
note.
2. An individual who owns his capital and runs his business alone is called. A. business man. B. chief
executive. C. entrepreneur. D. sole proprietor.
3. Which of these is not true of a sole proprietorship. A. easy to form.B. the owner can take decision alone. C.
there is business continuity if the owner dies. D. the owner takes the profit alone.
4. Where does the clerical activities of an organisation takes place. A. boardroom. B. conference room. C.
office. D. shop.
5. The oldest form of business unit is. A. co-operative. B. public enterprise. C. sole trader. D. limited Liability
Company.
6. Which of these is not a function of an office. A. distorting. B. giving. C. processing. D. receiving.
7. _____ is the factor of production which co-ordinates other factors of production. A. labour. B. capital. C.
land. D. entrepreneur.
8. Partnership business comprises 2 to ___. A. 10. B. 20. C. 30. D. 40.
9. Another name for sale journal is ___. A. cash. B. credit loan. C. sale day book. D. purchase.
10. The following are sources of capital for a sale proprietorship business except. A. loan from bank. B. loan
from friends. C. personal savings. D. issuance of shares.
11. The reward for capital is. A. interest. B. profit. C. rent. D. salaries.
12. An office may be defined as. A. any room used for public debate. B. any room in which business transaction
are conducted. C. any room in which business people stays. D. a public building for announcement.
13. _____ is the buying and selling of goods and services. A. company. B. building. C. trade. D. share.
14. The partnership agreement is often called. A. partnership. B. partnership account. C. partnership deed. D.
partnership agreement.
15. ____ is an integrated and practical subject that is made up of various subject. A. social studies. B. basic
science. C. mathematics. D. business studies.
16. The main aim of setting up a business is to. A. keeping life moving. B. make profit. C. provide goods for
consumers. D. industry.
17. The head of accounting department in a school system is. A. clerk. B. messenger. C. bursar. D. petty
cashier.
18. The following are types of business units except. A. partnership. B. sole trader. C. limited Liability
Company. D. industry.
19. The head of production department is called. A. production manager. B. produce manager. C. organizer. D.
executive manager.
20. Another name limited liability company is known as. A. limited shop. B. joint stock Company. C. sole trade.
D. company.
21. A document issued to a person or a buyer showing profit of payment is known as. A. cash book. B. cheque.
C. credit note. D. receipt.
22. One who has the right to sell chemical is called. A. cashier. B. doctors. C. chemist. D. licensed chemical
vendors.
23. One of these is not one of the essential qualities of a book keeper. A. democracy. B. honesty. C.
punctuality. D. dedication to duty.
24. ____ is defined as an association of individual with common interest who agree to come together to promote
the welfare of its members. A. partnership. B. co-operative society. C. church. D. consumer.
25. One of these does not work in an office. A. clerical staff. B. typist. C. conductor. D. cashier.
26. ____ is a free gift of nature. A. capital. B. recording. C. land. D. profit.
27. The office staff who sorts and files document is called. A. cashier. B. clerical staff. C. receptionist. D. typist.
28. One important characteristics of occupation is ___. A. illegal. B. political. C. stressful. D. it must be lawful.
29. An office can be either ___. A. good or bad. B. large or small. C. new or old. D. small or good.
30. Self-employment means ____. A. one employed himself. B. partnership. C. unemployment. D. poverty.
31. Another name for sole proprietorship is. A. partnership. B. limited liability. C. co-operative society. D. one
man business.
32. Creation of goods and services for the satisfaction of human want is called ____. A. commerce. B.
production. C. warehousing. D. trade.
33. One of the following is the disadvantage of sole trade. A. share capital. B. lack of capital. C. self reliant. D.
take decision.
34. The money which business man/woman used to start their business is called. A. land. B. profit. C. capital.
D. rent.
35. One of the following is not an aid to trade. A. selling. B. insurance. C. banking. D. warehousing.
36. The principal book of account is. A. journal. B. cashbook. C. invoice. D. ledger.
37. A branch of commerce which engages in the distribution of goods where they are needed is ____. A.
banking. B. communication. C. transportation. D. insurance.
38. The principal book of account is. A. journal. B. cashbook. C. invoice. D. ledger.
39. One of these is not the component of business studies. A. commerce. B. wholesale. C. book-keeping. D.
office practice.
40. _____ can be defined as the state of not telling lies and not cheating in your dealings with one another. A.
honesty. B. respect. C. dishonesty. D. disrespect.
SECTION B: (Answer FOUR questions)
1. Define Business Studies.
(b) Outline three importances of Business Studies.
(c) List the subjects that made up business studies.
2. State four rewards of being punctual.
(b) What is Work?
3. What is An Office?
(b) Mention seven departments in an organisation.
4. State two types of an Office and explain them.
(b) Define Honesty.
5. Who is a Clerical Staff?
(b) List four career opportunities in Business Studies.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: CIVIC EDUCATION S. S. 2 TIME: 1 ½ HR.
SECTION A: (OBJECTIVES) ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
1. The idea of majority will rule means. A. That evryone must take part in governance. B. That discussion must
reflect the majority. C. That the majority must have their way on issue. D. That themajority will rule the state.
2. The democratic practice that allows the people own the mean of production is known as (a) capitalism (b)
Socilaism (c) Federalism (d) Communism
3. The catefories of human rights include all except (a) Legal right (b) civil and political rights (c) Environmental
(d) social right
4. Acceptance of people and thier fault is known as (a) humility (b) integrity (c) Fairness (d) Tolerance
5. Nigeria has 360 federal constitutencies ans ___________senatorial zone
6. Curfew means __(A) to restrict peoples movement for speicifc period (b) To move around anytime (c) The
way government workcs (d) where dead bodies are buried
7. All are factors that encourages political participation except (a) ethnic origin (b) Education (c) lack of
independent judiciary (d) religious affiliations
8. An individual who finds it difficult to control intake of drug is known as drug (a) Dealer (b) traficker (c) addict
(d) Baron
9. The use od viiolet criminals to intimadate described as (a) Thuggery (b) Competition for power (c) Vandalism
(d) Bribery
10. Forms of politcal apathy are listed below with the exception of ______(a) refusal to belong to poltical party
(b) refuese to register and vote (c) willingness to cross-check on the voter’s register (d) unwillingness to
contest for election
11. Rule of law was prosounded by (a) Prof. AC Dicey (b) Abraham Lincol (c) John Locke (d) Prof Dora Akunyili
12. The conceopt of democracy originated from _______
13. The body responsible for implementing government laws on human trafficking is 0NAPTIP (b) NAFDAC (c)
EFFC (d) Police Force
14. Emplyemnet c an alleviate poverty through (a) Incresas in salary (b) illiteracy (b) low self esteem (d)
increases in the rate of crime
15. A situation where most citizens fail to vote in election could be described as (a) Poltical apathy (b) Culture (c)
legimacy (d) socialization
16. Leaders fails to protect thr interest of their followers due to the following ecept (a_ Selfishness (b0 agreed (c)
indicipline (d) Partiotic spirit
17. Freedom to act as one pleases but within the law is called (a) Civi duty (b) democracy (c) Politics (d) Human
right
18. NYSC scheme was established by (a) Olusagun Obasanjo (b) Gen Yakubu Cowon (c) Mohammadu Buhari
(d) goodluck Ebele Jonathan
19. the right to seek for redness in a law court is categorised under (a) Economic right (b) Political rights (c)
Social right (d) natural right
20. all are systems government except (a) monaching (b) Parliamentary (c) Oligachy (d) anrchy
21. Taking part in political activities of ones country is known as (a) political apathy (b) Protect match (c) Popular
particiapation (d) political campaign
22. In 2017, nIgeria celebrated her _______ independence anniversary (a) 50th (b) 57th (c) 54th (d) 52nd
23. Citizens can help tomaintain national security by (a) playing with one another (b) using gun on others (c)
Observing quiet time (d) trmaing law abiding
24. ____________is not a healthy club to join while in school (a) rotary club (b) White angels (c) human right
club (d) Charity organization
25. Which of these ecourages political participation (a) Ignorance (b) Illiteracy (c) Literacy (d) Low economic
status
26. Benefits of honesty include the follwoing erxcept (a) Promoting economic and social development (b)
promting good work and patronage (c) Promoting justice and fair play (d) Promoting fear and bitterness
27. A social s ituation where one thinks more himself is known as (a) Selfishness (b) Services to the people (c)
Selfishness (d) self-consciousness
28. A constitution where powers are concentrated in a central government is (a) rigid constitution (b) Federla
constitution (c) unitary constitution (d) mono constitution
29. that act of treating people as if they are bad or unimportant involving prejudice dicounting, discredenting and
discrimination directed at people with HIV or AIDS is (a) quaratine (b) Exposture (c) Stigmatization (d)
Screening
30. Consequences of cultism include all except (a) great achievement (b) Death (c) Violence (d) Frequent police
arrest
31. The ounder of the firs campus cult gruop in Nigeria higher institution is (a) Whole Soyink (b) Bolaji carew (c)
David Racado (d) 2 face Idibia
32. The mode of transmission into cult gruops involves fetish activities and blood oath taking is known as (a)
Induction (b) enrolment (c) initiation (d) Reception
33. _____ is regareded a s the grassroot government (a) Federal government (b) State government (c)rural
government (d) Local Government
34. These are features of captialist democracy xcept (a_ Pluraism (b) Populra consultation (c) Political inequality
(d) Political equality
35. Popular particiapation is also known as (a) Mass participation(a) Political particiaption (c) tribal participation
(d) Political apathy
36. Government in a capitalist democracy is (a) Selcetion (b) elcetion (c) appointment (d) tribalism
37. The promises made by a political party is called (a) campaign rally (b) political rally (c)manifesto (d) political
ideology
38. The negative method of competing for power for political offices includes all except (a) Propaganda (b)
training of thugs (c) wrong use of electronic media (d) manifesto
39. The electorate closes confidence in the electoral process when there is (a) Electoral malpractice (b) Public
enlightment (c) good governance (d) good manifestoes
40. Democratic institution in Nigeria include the following except (a) Civil society (b) EFFC (c) arms of
government (d) armed forces

SECTION B ANSWER ONLY FOUR QUESTIONS

1. Define Popular Participation. (b) Explain two reasons why people do not participate in Politics. (c) Explain
two factors that encourage political participation.
2. Define Guaranteed Employment. (b) Explain four factors that promote guaranted employment.
3. Explain the meaning of Human Rights. (b) Explain four limitations of Human Rights.
4. Explain the meaning of Political Apathy. (b) State and explain two positive methods and two negative
methods of competing for power by political parties.
5. Write short note on the following; (i) Employment. (ii) Capitalist Democracy. (iii) Socialism (iv) Capitalism (v)
Democracy.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT : CIVIC EDUCATION CLASS SS III
SECTION A (OBJECTIVES) ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
1. Rule of law means ___(a) pece, order and stability 9b) Obedience to any authority (c) Absense of lega
immunity (d) supremacy of the law
2. Which of the following is not a means of detending oneself in the event of pre-informed attack? (a) Alert your
neighbours (b) report to the authority (c) Run to the traditional heads (d) waiting at home
3. Democracy originated from ____(a) greece (b) USA (c) France (d) Britain
4. Human trafficking is a serious crime against the ___(a) government (b) Good (c) Humanity (d) Society
5. Nigeria celebrated her centenary anniversary in the years ____(a) 1914 (b) 1973 (c) 2004 (d) 2014
6. the national youth services corps scheme was established in Nigeria in ___(a) 1970 (b) 1973 (c) 1976 (d)
1975
7. The following are some of the features of Human Rights ecept __(a)universal (b) inalienability (c) Divisibility
(d) Iherent
8. A political scientist who popounded the soctrine of rule of law is known as ______)a_ barrack Obama (b)
Martin Luther (c) Thomas Aquinas (d0 A. V Dicey
9. ____is an Agency for Human Trafficking(a) NAPTIP (b) NCWSP (c) EFCC (d) TOIP
10. ____was the first military head of state of Nigeria (a) Gen. Murtala Muhammed (b) Major Gen. Agwuyi Ironsi
(c) Gen. Yakubu Gowon (d) Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe
11. Curtein Means ________(a) unrestricted movement (b) freedom of speech (c) restriction of Movement (d)
Free movement
12. Who among the following personalities has never been INEC chairman (a) Prof Humphrey Nwosu (b) Prof.
Attahiru Jaga (c) Prof. Dora Akunyili (d) Prof. Malrice Iwu
13. How many sentaors are elected from each state in Nigeria? (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) five
14. Ebola virus d iseas was inmported in Nigeria by a liberian diplomat called ____(a) Dr. Mrs Adedevoli (b) Dr.
Iyke enmou (c)Patrick Sawyer (d) Dr. Brant
15. A de-facto authority is mostly associated with ____(a) Anarchy (b) Force (c) Law (d0 propaganda
16. Victims of humanTrafficking are usally compelled to engage in ___(a) Lucrative employment (b) Visitiing
Tourist sites (c) part time studies (d) forced labour
17. Youth empowerment is best described as the ____(a) training given to individuals for acquring means of
livelihood (b_ Practice of engageing inprospective career (c) Provision of subsidized meals to the citizens by
government (d) Mobilization of citizens for political rally.
18. The unite Nations adopted the universal declaration of human rights in the year (a) 1914 (b) 1939 (c) 1948
(d) 1946
19. Code of conduct Bureau is _______(a) Collection of rules and regulations guiding legislatures (b) A
collection of rules guiding traders (c) A collection of rules guiding socail orgainzations (d) A collection of rules
and regulations guiding public civil servants
20. Public complaints commission is also known as ____(a) Elder’s forum (b) Ombudsman (c) Peoples court (d)
Judiciary
21. When the flag is flown half mast it is a sign of national ____(a) Mourring (b) centenary clebration (c) workers
day celebration (d) Independence
22. the public services structure of Nigeria is an off school of ____(a) Canada (b) British (c) America (d) India
23. The birth of Democracy in Nigeria was in the year ___(a) 1st October 1960, (b) 29th May, 1960 (c) 1st
October 1963 (d) 29th May, 1999
24. _______is the qualified person to declare a candidate that contesed an election a winner (a) The cief returing
officer (b) The president (c) the governor (d) the INEC charima
25. When people rfuse to protest against election, malpractices, it is signifies ____(a) a sign of peaceful co-
existence (b) political Apathy (c) Peoples support for the serving government (d) Political maturity.
26. The underlisted are different types of justice except (a) Socail Justice (b) Legal Justice (c) Restoration justice
(d) Personal Justice
27. Youth empowerment skills includes all except (a) Emergency skills (b) Communicative skills (c) Artistic skills
(d) Manipulative skills
28. The second world war took place between ___(a) 1914-1918 (b) 1929-1935 (c) 1939 – 1945 (d) 1060 -1964
29. Once a person is diagnosed of HIV/AIIDS he should start taking ______drugs (a) Intravenous (b) Retoviral (c)
Paracetamol (d) Contraceptive
30. The spirit of nationalism and patriotism promotes _______(a) Unity (b) Colomial;ism (c) rancour
31. Public service is divided into departments and each department at the federal level is headed by a
_________(a) Judge (b) Minister *c) Honourable member (d) Permanent secetary
32. The military regime of _____introduced the National Youth services corps (a) Gen. Olusegun Obasanjo (b)
Abubaka Tafawa Balewa (c) Gen. Yakubu Gowon (d) Alhaji Shehu Shagari
33. Presponsible parenthood gives rise to ____(a) Irreponsible citizenry (b) Responsible citizen (c) Apathetic
citizenry (d) Responsible government.
34. Which of the following is NOT a function of the independant national elctorate Commission? (a_ Recruitment
of electoral officers (b) Registeration of Political parties (c) Administering oathof office to elected officers (d)
conducting periodic elections
35. When soldiers leave their constitutional roles and come into politics it is called __(a) Military crisi (b) Soldiers
intervention (c) Military intervention (d) Constitutional intervention
36. the division of Nigeria into various constituencies with ecach elcting a person to represent it in the National
Assembly is a demostration of ______(a) checks and balances () political rivatry among the constituents (c)
Popular participation (d) Drives towards
37. The folloing are skills for selling inter-communal conflicts excep _____(a) Mediation (b) Dialogue (c)
Discission (d) Meditation
38. whenever a politcal candidate is declared a winner in an election, he is therefore issed a ________(a)
certificate of winning (b) certificate of honour (c) certificate of elction (d) certificate of returns
39. Inter-personal relationship can take any of these forms ecept-(a)co-operation (b) competition (c) exchange (d)
funding
40. The following are qualities of civil society except____________(a) non0partisan (b) Non-militant (c) Profit
orinted (d) project orinted
41. One of the following is a country as well as continent (a) Africa (b) Autarctica (c) Asia (d) Australia
42. A major way promoting responsible parenthood is through ______(a) Sex education (b) Sound education (c)
population control measure (d) Birth rate education
43. One of these is not a system of government (a) monarchy (b) Anarchy (c) Socialism (d) Parliamentary.
44. An Ideology that aims at promting national consciouness and identity is _____(a) Nationalism (b) Socialism
(c) Civic culture (d) Progrssivism
45. The process of bringing awareness to the electorates on political matters is known as
___________________(a)campaign (b) rally (c) Party mainfestoes (d) Voter education
46. Which of the following is NOT a government strategy for poverty alleviation (a) You-win (b) Fadama scheme
(fs) (c) Subsidy re-investment Eradication programme (sure-P) (d)ware against indiscipline
47. Which of the following factor does not promote guranteed employment (a) Diversification of the economic (b)
Improvement in technology (c) Irregular supply of power (d) Pratical oriented education
48. the following can lead to declaration of state of emergency except ___(a) civil unrest (b) political crisis
(c)election periods (d) terrorism
49. inadequate job oppourtunties canlead to the folowing except __(a)Kidnapping (b) Drug trafficking (c)
Prostitution (d) entreprenueral skills
50. Capitalist democracy is associated with the following except _______(a) inter-party conflict (b) Slow decision
making (c) political domination by the majority (d) Partiality of electoral impires
51. Which of these is NOT related to cultism? (a) Absenteeism (b) Arson (c) Drug abuse (d) Rape
52. Cultism was introduced in the university of Ibadab in _____ year (a) 1948 (b) 1950(c) 1952 (d) 1975
53. The act of doing things in accordance to rules and regulations is alled _______(a) authority (b) Law (c)
Orderliness (d) command .
54. Which ofthe maintenace of law and order inthe society (a) Federal Road Saftey corps (b) The Nigeria custom
authority (c) the Nigerian police (d) The Red cross
55. Which of these agencies is Not involved inthe protection of human rights. (a) Civil Society (b) Legal Aid
council (c) National Orintation Agency (d) Public Compaint commission
56. the pirate confraternity was originally establlished to fight against ___(a) corruption and malpractices (b)
Comradeship and leadership (c) Drug abuse and kidnapping (d) Injustice and oppression.
57. Queuing for accreditation and voting is a good mainfestation of political _________(a) Apathy (b)Passiveness
(c) participation (d) Conciousness
58. The following are t he factors of the short comings inpublic service except___(a) Corruption (b0 colonial
influence (c) inconsitency of government polices (d) Subordination to the authority
59. Popular participation gives ________to the government (a) Legistimacy (b) Legacy (c) efficiency (d) Power
60. Economic popular participation give rise to ____(a) employment (b) Tax evasion (c) Credible electtion (d)
Corruption

THEORY PART
SECTION B: Answer two questions
1. Define Citizenship Education. (b) Highlight five relevance of citizenship education to the sustenance of the
Nigerian society.
2. Define Youth Empowerment. (b) Mention and explain three youth empowerment skills you know. (c) State
four importances of Youth Empowerment skills.
3. What is Value? (b) Discuss any four of the following values; (i) Discipline (ii) Hardwork (iii) Contentment. (iv)
Tolerance (v) Integrity. (vi) Honesty

SECTION C THEORY: Answer only two qustions

4. What is Inter-Communal Relationship? (b) State six ways by which Inter-Communal relationship can promte
community Development in Nigeria.
5. Highlight six ways of curbing cultism in the Nigerian school system. (b) What is Civil Service? (c) State four
features of Public/Civil Service.
6. What is Civil Society? (b) Identify four features of Civil Society. (c) State four ways of supporting people
living with HIV?AIDS (PLWHA).
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
1.

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: CIVIC EDUCATION S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.
1. Value refers to ___ of a thing. A. worthless. B. useless. C. worldliness. D. principles.
2. The ability to work together towards a shred aim is called. A. co-operation. B. tolerance. C. acceptance. D.
competition.
3. A situation where one thinks more on the welfare of others is known as. A. selflessness. B. tolerance. C.
selfish. D. understanding.
4. The undermentioned are qualities of honesty except. A. indiscipline. B. commitment. C. integrity. D.
contentment.
5. The third tier of government and government at the grass root is known as ___ government. A. local. B.
federal. C. state. D. central.
6. Anti-social behaviours of dishonesty includes all with the exception of. A. child trafficking. B. kidnapping. C.
robbery. D. discipline.
7. Accepting people and their faults is described as. A. tolerance. B. association. C. humility. D. love.
8. Treating people fairly connotes __. A. justice. B. injustice. C. love. D. caring.
9. UDHR means. A. universal decision of human rights. B. universal declaration of human rights. C. universal
dedication of human rights. D. universal decision of man’s right.
10. ____ helps in the socialization and education of young ones. A. the state. B. the family. C. the judiciary. D.
the police force.
11. Periodic free and fair election is one of the features of. A. democracy. B. government. C. family. D. political
party.
12. The equitable dispensation of justice by judges or magistrates is known as. A. judicial justice. B. social
justice. C. restorative justice. D. personal justice.
13. PLWHA stands for. A. people living with HIV/AIDS. B. people longing for HIV/AIDS. C. people living with
housing allowance. D. people leaving with HIV/AIDS.
14. NYSC was introduced in year __. A. 2019. B. 1973. C. 1975. D. 1960.
15. In Nigeria, community services are performed by these groups except. A. police. B. NYSC. C. political
parties. D. civil defence.
16. NDE was established in ___ year. A. 2019. B. 1999. C. 1960. D. 2001.
17. Government of the people by the people and for the people is known as. A. human rights. B. democracy. C.
government. D. political party.
18. Local government areas in Nigeria are. A. 120. B. 360. C. 774. D. 144.
19. Local government is __ tier government. A. 1st. b. 2nd. C. 3rd. d. 4th.
20. Democracy was originated from. A. London. B. Nigeria. C. America. D. Greek.
21. The number of councillors in each local government depends on the number of. A. wards. B. state. C.
villages. D. local government.
22. Supremacy of the laws ___. A. the law is partial. B. supremacy of the constitution. C. the law is interior. D.
the law is above other laws.
23. Another name for representative democracy is. A. indirect government. B. direct government. C. flexible
government. D. federal government.
24. An electorate is also referred to as. A. voter. B. politician. C. voter’s card. D. party agent.
25. HIV/AIDS affects ___ in human being. A. vein. B. bone. C. white blood cells. D. the muscles.
26. HIV/AIDS cannot be contracted through. A.sharing of sharp objects. B. blood transfusion. C. casual sex. D.
hand shake.
27. The first 3-6 months someone contracted the HIV is called. A. early stage. B. window period. C. sleeping
period. D. dormant period.
28. Once a person is diagnosed of HIV/AIDS, he should start taking ____ drugs. A. contraception. B. retroviral.
C. intervenous. D. paracetamol.
29. A victim of HIV/AIDS is advised to use one of the following to avoid further spread of the virus. A. clean
underwear’s. B. Condon. C. white cloth. D. glass cup.
30. Care for HIV/AIDS Victim includes all except. Taking of balance diet. B. the victim should be encouraged to
give up some habit like smoking. C; the victim should practice casual sex. D. the victim should practice safe
sex.
31. Which of the under listed encourages political participation? A. literacy. B. illiteracy. C. low economic status.
D. ignorance.
32. The local government chairman is being assisted by. A. councillors. B. senators. C. legislators. D. chair
persons.
33. The following are types of values except. A. terrorism. B. honesty. C. tolerance. D. justice.
34. The following are various types of empowerment skills except. A. intellectual skills. B. life coping skills. C.
cumulative skills. D. communicative skills.
35. The process of denying individuals the right to vote is called. A. limitation. B. dismissal. C. prohibition. D.
disenfranchisement.
36. A strong identification of a group of individual seeking independence of their country is known as. A.
unionism. B. professionalism. C. referendum. D. nationalism
37. Which of the following is not a law enforcement agency? A. police. B. EFCC. C. civil defence. D. NNPC.
38. The rule of law was propounded by. A. prof. A. V. Dicey. B. J. S. Mill. C. Prof. Adam Smith. D. Prof. Wole
Soyinka.
39. The following are various ways of empowering the youths except. A. displining them. B. educating them. C.
indoctrinating them. D. teaching them entrepreneurial skills.
40. ___ is the main focus of NEEDS. A. youth education. B. youth enhancement. C. youth development. D.
youth empowerment.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer 4 questions)
1. Define Values. (b) Write short note on the following types of Values; (i) Honesty (ii) Creativity (iii)
Selflessness (iv) Integrity.
2. Define Community. (b) What is Community Service? (c) State two achievements of the NYSC. (d) State
three benefits of Honesty.
3. What is Stigmatization of HIV/AIDS? (b) Outline four causes of HIV/AIDS. (c) State four preventive ways of
HIV/AIDS.
4. Outline eight symptoms of HIV/AIDS. (b) State four advise to HIV/AIDS patients. (c) What is Youth
Empowerment?
5. State four objectives of Civil Education. (b) Mention and explain any two Youth Empowerment Skills you
know. (c) Write down the full meaning of the following; (i) NEEDS. (ii) NAPEP (iii) NOA (iv) NDE.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: GEOGRAPHY S. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.

1. The sun sets in the. A. north. B. west. C. east. D. south.

2. When the earth comes in between the moon and the sun, it is called. A. human eclipse. B. solar eclipse. C.
dawn. D. twilight.
3. Graph means. A. earth. B. graph. C. to describe. D. mars.
4. One of the effect of rotation of the earth is that it causes. A. day and night. B. season. C. day and month. D.
east and west.
5. All lines of latitude are known as. A. parallels. B. medians. C. equator. D. equinoxes.
6. A man called ____ and his crew sailed round the earth in 1519 – 1522 to prove that the earth is spherical in
shape. A. John Miller. B. Pope John Paul. C. Ferdinand Magellan. D. Ferdinand Margret.
7. The reason why the earth is not a perfect sphere is because. A. it is flat at the poles. B. it is square at the
poles. C. it is long at the pole. D. the poles are too cold.
8. The socio-cultural feature of a town is. A. mountain. B. River. C. religious activities. D. lowland.
9. Igneous rocks contain. A. hummus. B. fossil. C. strata. D. crystals.
10. The earth lies between. A. mercury and Venus. B. mars and Jupiter. C. Venus and mars. D. Jupiter and
Saturn.
11. ___ is prone to environmental pollution. A. village. B. combustion. C. town. D. hamlet.
12. Which planet is the farthest from the sun? A. mars. B. mercury. C. phuto. D. earth.
13. A smaller heavenly body which moves around a planet is called. A. mercury. B. satellite. C. star. D.
equator.
14. Which of the following latitudes divide the earth into two equal halves? A. Arctic Circle. B. tropic of cancer.
C. tropic of Capricorn. D. equator.
15. What is the distance between towns A (300S) and town B (400N) along the same longitude? A. 6,670km. B.
7,770km. C. 7,878km. D. 7,887km.
16. A price of rock that is formed from cooling of molten magma is known as. A. metamorphic rock. B.
sedimentary rock. C. igneous rock. D. calcaneus rock.
17. The rock type that is stratified is. A. volcanic. B. plutonic. C. igneous. D. sedimentary.
18. Peat, lignite and coal are examples of. A. metamorphic rock. B. volcanic rock. C. sedimentary rock. D.
igneous rock.
19. The reaction of water with rock minerals to produce a rock entirely different from the original rock is called. A.
abrasion. B. carbonation. D. hydrolysis. D. dissolution.
20. Which of the following features are formed by rivers when they are unable to flow straight along their courses
due to heavy loads? A. waterfall. B. v-shaped valley. C. meanders. D. gorges.
21. Which of the following is a features produced by volcanism? A. horst. B. zevgen. C. byke. D. escarpment.
22. The membership of ECOWAS consists of. A. 12 states. B. 14 states. C. 16 states. D. 18 states.
23. The most common environmental problems in the Niger Delta is. A. deforestation. B. aridity. C. coastal
flood. D. Vulcanicity.
24. All except one, are agents of denudation. A. running water. B. lake. C. wind. D. ice.
25. The following are examples of heady industries, except. A. aluminium melting. B. furniture making. C. iron
and steel. D. ship building.
26. Commodities involved in internal trade of Nigeria include the following except. A. textile. B. tractors. C. yam.
D. cassava.
27. A settlement developed at the point of road is known as a. A. point town. B. nodal town. C. gab town. D.
confluence town.
28. The problems associated with the world high population growth rate include all the following except. A.
housing problem. B. inadequate food. C. pressure on social amenities. D. adequate medical facilities.
29. The release of harmful substances into the environment is called. A. flooding. B. brought. C. harmattan. D.
pollution.
30. Karst region is mainly characterised by. A. absence of surface drainage. B. deep fertile soil. C. presence of
marshy land. D. presence of luxuriant vegetation.
31. The most important trading partner of Anglophones countries is. A. Germany. B. India. C. Britain. D.
Netherlands.
32. The following are importance of plains except. A. for human habitation. B. good site for settlement. C.
greying of livestock. D. site for defence.
33. Which of the following represents the correct sequence in which denudation takes place. A. Weathering -
Erosion - Deposition. B. deposition – Weathering – Erosion. C. Erosion – Weathering – Deposition. D.
Weathering – Deposition – Erosion.
34. Which of the following features is not associated with coastal erosion? A. bay. B. wave cut platform. C.
stack. D. geo. E. marine-dune.
35. The atmospheric condition of a place over a long period of time refers to its. A. temperature. B. weather. C.
pressure. D. climate.
36. The process by which the earth’s surface is generally reshaped and lowered is known as. A. rediplanation.
B. denudation. C. subsidence. D. weathering.
37. Which of the following activities will lead to deterioration of the environment? A. planting of trees. B. contour
ploughing. C. afforestation. D. overgrazing.
38. The major effect of flooding in Nigeria is the. A. increase in the volume of water available. B. high yield per
hectare of agricultural land. C. destruction of farms and houses. D. cooling of adjacent areas.
39. A single farming residence, separated from one another by bushes and containing few people can be best
described as. A. metropolis. B. town. C. homestead. D. village.
40. One relative advantage that water transport has over road transport is its. A. high capacity for passenger
traffic. B. suitability for moving perishable goods. C. ability to facilitate great speed. D. ability to link all
continents of the world.

SECTION B: THEORY (Answer FOUR questions)

1. Describe infull the five big letters which Koppen used to classify the world climate. (b) Write two advantages
of Koppen’s classification. (c) Write two disadvantages of koppen’s classification. (d) Write the basis of
koppen’s classification.
2. Define Climate. (b) Define Weather. (c) Mention four elements of weather and the instrument used in
measuring them. (d) Write two differences between weather and climate.
3. Write four characteristics of the upper course of a river. (b) Mention four features of the upper course of a
river. (c) Write four uses of Nigeria river.
4. Define Running Water. (b) Mention three functions performed by running water. (c) Outline three sources of
running water. (d) Outline four factors affecting the flow of water.
5. Write the aid of a diagram; explain the stages of a river. (b) Write two processes of River Erosion. (c) Outline
two processes of river transportation.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: GEOGRAPHY S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.

1. The sum rises in the. A. east. B. west. C. south. D. north.

2. Which of the planet sustain the existence of life. A. Jupiter. B. earth. C. mercury. D. Pluto.
3. The physical features of a village include all except. A. drainage. B. vegetation. C. shrine. D. climate.
4. The earth movement include. A. move and stop. B. sunrise and sunset. C. rotation and revolution. D.
longitude and latitude.
5. Geo means. A. earth. B. graph. C. to describe. D. geography.
6. The nearest planet to the sun is. A. earth. B. mercury. C. Venus. D. Uranus.
7. The earth rotation on its axis from. A. north to east. B. west to east. C. north to south. D. north to west.
8. A satellite of the earth is. A. sun. B. moon. C. star. D. geoids.
9. An example of man-made features we can see on the earth surface is. A. river. B. Mountain. C. shrine. D.
spur.
10. ___ is a source of light and energy to all the planets. A. star. B. moon. C. sun. D. satellite.
11. GMT means. A. Greenwich median. B. Greenwich standard time. C. Greenwich time zone. D. Greenwich
mean time.
12. The following can be used to prove the sphericty of the earth except. A. sunrise and sunset. B. circular
horizon. C. ship visibility. D. flat earth surface.
13. The relief of an area is divided into. A. highland and rock. B. lowland and rock. C. river and valley. D.
highland and lowland.
14. Which of the following planets has the highest number of satellite. A. earth. B. Pluto. C. Uranus. D. Jupiter.
15. The surface temperature of the sun is. A. 4000c. B. 50000c. C. 80000c. D. 60000c.
16. Geography is related to the following subjects except. A. C. R. S. B. biology. C. agricultural science. D.
economics.
17. The longest planet in the solar system is. A. mercury. B. Saturn. C. Jupiter. D. mars.
18. The earth complete its revolution in ___. A. 28 days. B. 5 years. C. 2 days. D. 1 year.’
19. All lines of longitude meet at. A. the equator. B. the western continent. C. the poles. D. the eastern
continent.
20. The sun sets in the. A. north. B. west. C. east. D. south.
21. When the earth comes in between the moon and the sun, it is called. A. human eclipse. B. solar eclipse. C.
dawn. D. twilight.
22. Graph means. A. earth. B. graph. C. to describe. D. mars.
23. One of the effect of rotation of the earth is that it causes. A. day and night. B. season. C. day and month.
D. east and west.
24. All lines of latitude are known as. A. parallels. B. medians. C. equator. D. equinoxes.
25. A man called ____ and his crew sailed round the earth in 1519 – 1522 to prove that the earth is spherical in
shape. A. John Miller. B. Pope John Paul. C. Ferdinand Magellan. D. Ferdinand Margret.
26. The reason why the earth is not a perfect sphere is because. A. it is flat at the poles. B. it is square at the
poles. C. it is long at the pole. D. the poles are too cold.
27. The socio-cultural feature of a town is. A. mountain. B. River. C. religious activities. D. lowland.
28. Igneous rocks contain. A. hummus. B. fossil. C. strata. D. crystals.
29. The earth lies between. A. mercury and Venus. B. mars and Jupiter. C. Venus and mars. D. Jupiter and
Saturn.
30. ___ is prone to environmental pollution. A. village. B. combustion. C. town. D. hamlet.
31. The innermost section of the earth is. A. core. B. mantle. C. crust. D. sail.
32. Rocks which have been formed by the cooling and solidification of moulter magma are called. A. igneous
rocks. B. sedimentary rocks. C. conglomerates. D. metamorphic rocks.
33. The earth is. A. spherical in shape. B. plat in shape. C. bend in shape. D. tall in shape.
34. The outer structure of the earth include the following except. A. lithosphere. B. hydrosphere. C.
atmosphere. D. core.
35. When it is 4pm in Ghana, Nigeria time will be. A. 6pm. B. 5pm. C. 3am. D. 7am.
36. ___ divided the earth into two equal hemisphere. A. equator. B. latitude. D. longitude. D. circle.
37. One of the effects of revolution is that. A. it causes seasons. B. it causes rainfall. C. it causes sunshine. D.
day and night.
38. ___ is a heterogeneous population. A. village. B. town. C. homestead. D. hamlet.
39. All lines of longitude are called. A. median. B. small circle. C. equation. D. elongated circle.
40. The tropic of cancer is also called. A. latitude 23 ½ 0E. B. latitude 23 ½ 0S. C. latitude 23 ½ 0N. D. latitude
23 ½ 0W.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer FOUR questions only)
1. With the aid of a diagram, identify the main lines of latitude.
(b) State two differences between lines of latitude and lines of longitude.
(c) State two similarities between the lines of latitude and lines of longitude.

2. Define Geography.
(b) Mention any four physical features.
(c) Mention four socio-cultural features.
(d) Write two functions of a village.

3. What is Solar System?

(b) Mention any four planets you have studied.
(c) Outline any four components of solar system.
(d) Write two importance of studying geography.
(e) Identify four man-made features found on the earth surface.

4. Define Eclipse.
(b) State two types of eclipse.
(c) List three types of rocks.
(d) Write two uses of rocks to man.

5. With the aid of diagram, explain two reasons to prove that the earth is spherical in shape.
(b) Outline two effects of rotation of the earth.
(c) Write two effects of the revolution of the earth.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: LITERATURE – IN - ENGLISH S. S.1 TIME: 2HRS.
(SECTION A: OBJECTIVES)

1. All the world is a stage is an example of ____. A. metaphor. B. paradox. C. allusion. D. personification.
2. A praise poem is a ___. A. ballad. B. panegyric. C. allegory. D. epigram.
3. A literary work in which the characters are animals is a ___. A. lampoon. B. fable. C. parody. D.
pantomime.
4. A short single act drama is called. A. opera. B. allusion. C. farce. D. playlet.
5. A play on words for literary effect is. A. paradox. B. a pun. C. a satire. D. an elegy.
6. It is a matter of sad joy illustrates. A. a metonymy. B. oxymoron. C. euphemism. D. irony.
7. The leading character in a literary work is the. A. foil. B. villain. C. antagonist. D. protagonist.
8. A long narrative poem that relates heroic exploits is an. A. epilogue. B. epitaph. C. epic. D. epigram.
9. Over the cobbles it chattered and crashed is an example of. A. oxymoron. B. pun. C. onomatopoeia. D.
paradox.
10. An essential feature of drama is. A. soliloquy. B. conflict. C. irony. D. aside.
11. A humourous poem with five lines, the first two rhyming with the last is. A. an ode. B. sestet. C. octave. D.
a limerick.
12. Death be not proud, though some have called thee mighty and dreadful is an example of. A. metaphor. B.
apostrophe. C. personification. D. metonymy.
13. An essential part of the plot is. A. characterization. B. exposition. C. atmosphere. D. foreshadow.
14. The climax in a literary work is the. A. middle. B. beginning. C. central part of the diagram. D. peak of the
conflict.
15. Dramatis personae is the same as. A. chorus. B. prompter. C. foil. D. cast.
16. Ten thousand I saw at a glance, illustrates. A. caesura. B. climax. C. bathos. D. hyperbole.
17. Catharsis is normally associated with. A. pantomime. B. tragedy. C. comedy. D. farce.
UNSEEN PROSE AND POETRY.
Read the passage and answer questions 18 – 22.
We did not go to school on that Friday morning. This night before had been rough. It was
turbulent and scary. The strange cry “non-indigenes must go” rent the air. Little did I know
what it meant. That cry all the same hanted me in my sleep. My dreams were horrible. Why
was mum so troubled? Why was dad suddenly so pale and sickly? That night mum and dad
had a foreboding silence. They looked at each other, they did not smile. They were utterly
silent. Their silence spoke millions. Fear ruled the night. When the family bell summoned us
to the family altar, it seemed that it tolled it’s last for the humans. Death smelled in the air,
death was in the eyes …….. But why? We were not told. Yes, during the prayer at the family
altar, Dad had told us there was trouble in town. No one who was a non-indigene was safe.
18. This feeling is conveyed by the use of. A. long sentences. B. visual images. C. tactile images. D. short
sentences.
19. The dominant feeling in the passage is that of. A. hostility. B. anger. C. anxiety. D. bitterness.
20. Their silence spoke millions illustrates. A. apostrophe. B. litotes. C. antithesis. D. oxymoron.
21. The family bell summoned us is an example of ___. A. apostrophe. B. personification. C. allusion. D.
euphemism.
22. The passage is. A. in first person. B. in third person. C. a dialogue. D. a monologue.
 Read the passage and answer questions 23 – 27
I know not, Amina,
When again on your brig-ness of smile
My eyes will rest a while
Nor when again of your softness of voice
My ears will drink by eager choice.
When again into the silver moonshine
You early at night or late venture
As is your wont in weather fine
Astute awake in bed as doters may, I’ll be
Dreaming of grasping your velvety texture.
23. The first stanza is a. A. tercet. B. couplet. C. quatrain. D. sestet.
24. The poem evokes the senses of. A. smell and sight. B. smell and hearing. D. sight and hearing. D. touch
and smell.
25. The dominant literary device used in the poem is. A. allusion. B. repetition. C. allegory. D. metonymy.
26. The poet’s bone is one of. A. anxiety. B. defiance. C. nostalgia. D. regret.
27. My ears will drink by eager choice illustrates. A. oxymoron. B. onomatopoeia. C. synecdoche. D. meiosis.
28. A dirge is a poem sung. A. to make a child sleep. B. at a funeral. C. to make workers happy. D. at a
birthday party.
29. In drama the ___ creates humour. A. hero. B. clown. C. villain. D. chorus.
30. ____ is a literary device used to express something unpleasant in a more acceptable way. A. epilogue. B.
epigram. C. euphemism. D. euloge.
31. _____ is the location of the action of the plot. A. setting. B. narrative technique. C. point of view. D.
characterization.
32. The first four lines in Shakespearean sonnet rhyme. A. abcd. B. abba. C. abab. D. cdcd.
33. A ballad is essentially a ____ poem. A. descriptive. B. dramatic. C. pastoral. D. narrative.
34. A story in which characters or actions represent abstract ideas or moral qualities is. A. an epic. B. a legend.
C. an allegory. D. a satire.
35. The se of imagery in prose and verse. A. appeals to the senses. B. develops the plot. C. creates confusion.
D. obscures meaning.
36. A speech in a play in which a character speaks his thoughts alone. A. a monologue. B. an aside. C. a
soliloquy. D. an epilogue.
37. In literature, repetition is used essentially for. A. rhyme. B. suspense. C. allusion. D. emphasis.
38. The performers in a play constitute the. A. chorus. B. characters. C. audience. D. cast.
39. Peter’s pretty partner paid the bills is an example of. A. alliteration. B. rhyme. C. satire. D. digression.
40. A question which does not require an answer is. A. discourse. B. rhetorical. C. ironic. D. flashback.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer TWO questions)
1. Define Literature as a field of study. (b) Enumerate four characteristics of literature.
2. Write short note on the following; (a) Myth. (b) Satire. (c) Limerick. (d) Mood. (e) Comedy.
3. Explain the following figurative languages; (a) Personification. (b) Oxymoron. (c) Apostrophe. (d) Euphemism.
(e) Hyperbole.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: LITERATURE – IN - ENGLISH S. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.
(SECTION A: OBJECTIVES)

1. The person who attacks and works against the progress of the chief character is. A. actor. B. nature. C.
antagonist. D. protagonist.
2. An introductory speech made before the beginning or commencement of a play is known as. A. antilogous.
B. pun. C. prologue. D. epilogue.
3. The use of fictional or unreal characters to represent conducts or actions about human experience is. A.
audience. B. viewers. C. character. D. characterization.
4. Pick out the odd item from the list. A. alliteration. B. pun. C. prose. D. simile.
5. The weakness in the chief major character that leads to his down fall is known as. A. catharsis. B. tragedy.
C. strength. D. tragic-flaw.
6. The person or individuals presented in a dramatic or narrative work who are interpreted by the readers are.
A. playwright. B. people. C. individual. D. characters.
7. A character in a story who narrates what happens to him/her is known as. A. an omniscient. B. first person
narrator. C. third person narrator. D. second person narrator.
8. A struggle between opposing forces in a story is called. A. comedy. B. conflict. C. carnie-relief. D. tragedy.
9. The term used to describe the freedom of a poet with language is. A. poetic diction. B. poetic standard. C.
license. D. poetic license.
10. A literary work which is written inform of letter is called. A. pastoral. B. epistolary. C. literature. D. writing.
11. A deliberate understatement in which one uses the negative in order to express the opposite of what is meant
is. A. litotes. B. hyperbole. C. anti-thesis. D. apostrophe.
12. The expression of the exact opposite of what one means or has in mind is known as. A. sarcasm. B. irony.
C. euphemism. D. metonymy.
13. The angle from which a writer narrates his story is known as. A. technique. B. point of view. C. styles. D.
contrast.
14. Which of the following is not an element of setting. A. time. B. place. C. background. D. theme.
15. Repetition as a figure of speech is used for. A. conflict. B. problem. C. emphasis. D. question.
In questions 16 and 17, pick out the odd items from the list below.
16. A. act. B. scene. C. sonnet. D. cast.
17. A. Theme. B. setting. C. plot. D. emotion.
18. A kind of poem imbued with a sense of love is called. A. ode. B. romance. C. ballad. D. elegy.
19. Epic must revolve around. A. protagonist. B. an ancient antagonist. C. a great historical character. D. a
villain.
20. A dramatic device in which a speaker speaks to himself is called. A. suspense. B. mime. C. assonance. D.
soliloquy.
SECTION B: UNSEEN PROSE AND POETRY. (Read the passage carefully and answer question 21-25)
In front of the gate, the guard stands with his rifle, above, untidy clouds are carry away the man. The
bedbuys are swarming around like army from squadron, attacking tanks likw army on manoeuvre while-the
mosquitoes from squadrom attacking the fighter planes.
My heart travels a thousand miles towards my native land. My dream intervenes with sadness a whole year
in prison. Using my teas for ink, i turned a stein of a thousand thread.
21. The poem is about ____. A. War. B. Dirt. C. Travelling. D. Prison life.
22. The imagery in the first four lines is predominantly. A. Agriculture. B. Military. C. Social. D. Political.
23. _____ a thousand mile is an example of. A. Hyperbole. B. Irony. C. Antithesis. D. Epigram.
24. The poem is wrotten in ____. A. Blank verse. B. Free verse. C. Trochec.. d. Pentameter.
25. The impression created of the persona is one of ___. A. Anger. B. Competitiveness. C. Reconciliation. D.
Resignation.
Use the poem below to answer questions 26-30
There they left him everyone
Left him there without a lick
Left him there for birds to pick
Left him there for carrion
26. The theme of ___ is echoed in the poem. A. Abandonment. B. Flocking. C. Feasting. D. Loneliness.
27. The poem paints picture of a person denied of luxury of ___. A. Food. B. Shelter. C. Burial. D. Wealth.
28. The dominant pretic device used in the poem is ____. A. Alliteration. B. Repetition. C. Metaphor. D.
Assonance.
29. The rhyme scheme in the poem is ____. A. Aaab. B. Abcb. C. Abba. D. Aabc.
30. The tone of the poem is that of ___. A. Celebration. B. Contentment. C. Disapproval. D. Indifference.
31. A writer’s choice of words is ___. A. Climax. B. Diction. C. Pur. D. Farce.
32. An inscription written on a tomb is called. A. Epitaph. B. Lyric. C. Dirge. D. Elegy.
33. A poem of fourteen lines is called. A. Octave. B. Dirge. C. Elegy. D. Sonnet.
34. The main female protagonist is a play is called. A. Heroine. B. Hero. C. Heroes. D. Heroines.
35. A work of art with a happy ending is called. A. Farce. B. Comedy. C. Tragedy. D. Mine.
36. Pick the odd item. A. Clown. B. Metaphor. C. Simile. D. Onomatopoeia.
37. A collection of poems is one book is called ___. A. Anthology. B. Compilation. C. Book. D. Literature.
38. Another name for tragic-flaw is. A. Weakness. B. Hubris. C. Pit fall. D. Tragedy.
39. The purgation of emotions in a literary work is called. A. Emotin. B. Fear. C. Carthasis. D. Fun.
40. A story of someone’s life written by another person is called. A. Auto-biography. B. Biography. C. Profile.
D. Tribute.
SECTION C: WILLIAM SHAKESPEARE: A MIDSUMMER NIGHTS DREAM.
Read the extra below and answer questions 41-45
Love look not with the eye, but with the mind,
And therefore is winged cupid painted blind,
Nor hath love’s mind of any judgement takes
Wing and no eyes figure, unheedy haste
And therefore is love said to be a child.
because in choice he so often beguiled.
(Act 1 scene 1)

41. Who made the above statement? A. Helena. B. Titania. C. Efens. D. Hermia.
42. The poetic device deployed in line 1 is. A. Simile. B. Pun. C. Personification. D. Metaphor.
43. What is the rhyme scheme of this extract? A. Bbaab. B. Aabbaa. C. Ababa. D. Abaab.
44. One of the following is not a herol heroine in the play. A. Egeus. B. Dike. C. Quince. D hermia.
45. ____ is the one seleted to play the luen in the play. A. Snug. B. Puck. C. Bottom. D. Quince.

Read the extract and answer questions 46-51

Full of vexation comes with complaints against my child,
My daughter Hermia stand forth, pemetris. My noble
Lord, stand forth, Lysander, and my gracious Duke,
Child ....... i beg the ancient privilege of Athens .................
(Act 1 Scene 1)
46. The above statement is made by __. A. Lysander. B. Efeus. C. Helena. D. Theseus.
47. “My child”, referred to. A. Helena. B. Titania. C. Puck. D. Hermia.
48. The speaker accused ___. A. Theseus. B. Lysander. C. Pick. D. Oberon.
49. The statement of the speaker is prompted by the daughter refusal to mary. A. Theseus. B. Lysander. C.
Demetrus. D. Oberon.
50. The speaker mood is that of. A. Vexation. B. Joy. C. Fear. D. Happiness.
51. The statement was made at. A. Palace. B. Gaden. C. Forest. D. Woods.
Read the extract and answer the questions 52-55.
 Having this juice
I will watch Titania when she is asleep,
Drop the thing of it in her eyes
The next thing then she waking looks upon –
Be it on lion, bear or wolf, or bull .............
52. The speaker is ___. A. Snug. B. Oberon. C. Good fellow. D. Puck.
53. The speaker is addressing. A. Oberon. B. Puck. C. Smug. D. Thisbe.
54. The “Liguor” as used in the extract is. A. Charm. B. Wine. C.oil. d. Water.
55. The scene of the occasion is the. A. Woods. B. Garden. C. Palace. D. Field.
Read the extrat below and answer questions 56-60.
If that maybe, then all is well. Come sit down,
Every mothers son and rehearse your parts. Pyrames
you must begin when you have spoken your speech .......
(Act III. Scene I)
56. Who is the speaker? A. Quinle. B. Bohom. C. Flute. D. Puck.
57. Does Pyramus begin immediately? A. Yes. B. No. C. Not sure. D. Was not there.
58. Who is the master of the revels? A. Puck. B. Pease blossom. C. Pyramus. D. Philostrate.
59. The non-Athenian in the play is. A. Demetrus. B. Lysander. C. Efeus. D. Hypolyta.

SECTION D: THEORY (Answer SIX questions from this section. One from each)
AFRICN DRAMA
1. Discuss Madam Yoko as the tragic heroine of the play.
2. Comment on the use of symbolism and flashback in the play. The Lion and the Jewel.
3. Non-african drama.
4. Give a detailed character analysis of the following cast; (a) cliff. (b) Jimmy Porter. (Look Back in Anger)
5. Discuss at least two themes in the play; Fences
6. African Prose
7. Discuss the theme of racism in second class citizen.
8. Attempt a character analysis of Joe inthe novel: Unexpected Joy at Dawn
9. Non- African drama
10. How does the character the character of Linton heath cliff symbolize betrayal and cruelty against cathy?
11. African poetry
12. Comment on the atleast two theme in the poem “Black Woman”.
13. How does the poem justify the type of leadership in Africa?
14. Briefly, discuss two relevant themes in the poem
15. Discuss the poem “The Good Morrow” as a love song.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: LITERATURE – IN - ENGLISH S. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.
(SECTION A: OBJECTIVES)

1. _______ is fundamental to a play or novel. A. Mime. B. Conflict. C. Flashback. D. Epilogue.

2. A long and serious narrative about heroic characters is a/an ___. A. Berlesgue. B. Ballad. C. Epic. D.
Elegy.
3. The device used in ‘light as wind on water laid’ is. A. Rhyme. B. Simile. C. Onomatopoeia. D. Pun.
4. The fire graved ceaselessly at the bark of the tree illustrates. A. Personification. B. Epithet. C. Allusion. D.
Paradox.
5. A hyperbole is also referred to as. A. Irony. B. Paradox. C. Exaggeration. D. Understatement.
This book should fill the memory, rule the heart and guide the feet.
6. The above expressions illustrate the use of. A. Repetition. B. Refrain. C. Synecdoche. D. Metaphor.
7. The author’s attitude towards the subject being treated is. A. Mood. B. Tone. C. Feeling. D. Atmosphere.
8. One of the following makes use of gesture only. A. Comedy. B. Lampoon. C. Mime. D. Satire.
9. An ominiscient narrator in a novel. A. Debaches himself from the story. B. Knows nothing about the
characters and events. C. Knows everything about the character and events. D. Is a character in the story.
10. In poetry _____ is made up of stressed and unstressed syllables.
11. Blank verse has no. A. Meter. B. Rhyme. C. Rhythm. D. Imagery.
12. A very brief story is an. A. Allusion. B. Autobiography. C. Allegory. D. Anecdote.
13. An epilogue. A. Introduces a play. B. Develops characters. C. Sums up a play. D. Introduces characters.
14. The king has joined his ancestore’s is an example of. A. Euphemism. B. Eulogy. C. Malapropism. D.
Trilogy.
15. In the line ‘season of mist and mellow fruitfulness’, the main appeal is to the sense of. A. Touch. B. Sight.
C. Hearing. D. Smell.
16. A question used for effect which does not require an answer is. A. Oratorical. B. Antithetical. C.
Antclimactic. D. Rhetorical.
17. ‘The pen is mightier than the sword’ is an example of. A. Symbol. B. Metaphor. C. Metonymy. D.
Oxymoron.
18. In a play, unfolding events reach their peak in the. A. Climax. B. Denouncement. C. Catharsis. D.
Conflict.
19. “But at my back i always hear time’s winged chariot hurrying near”, illustrates. A. Metaphor. B. Apostrophe.
C. Oxymoron. D. Metonymy.
20. A short witty saying is a/an. A. Epitaph. B. Sonnet. C. Limerick. D. Epigram.
21. A speech in a play in which a character speaks his or her thoughts alone is. A. A monologue. B. An aside.
C. A soliloquy. D. An epilogue.
22. In literature, repetition is used especially for. A. Rhyme. B. Suspense. C. Allusion. D. Emphasis.
23. The pattern of a poem without reference to its content is referred to as the. A. Limerick. B. Metre. C. Free
verse. D. Form.
24. The performers in a play constitute the. A. Chorus. B. Characters. C. Audience. D. Cast.
Read the stanza and answer questions 25 – 27
Pa, o great pan, to thee
Thus do we sing!
Thou who keep’st chaste and free
As the young spring:
Ever the thy honour spake
From that place the mer is broke
To the place day doth unyoke
25. The stanza is an example of. A. Appellation. B. Apostrophe. C. Euphemism. D. Elegy.
26. Pan is used here as. A. An allusion. B. Symbol. C. Irony. D. Metonymy.
27. The rhyme scheme of the stanza is. A. Abcabaa. B. Ababcdd. C. Babaccc. D. Bcbccaa.
28. A metrical foot in which a stressed syllabic is followed by an unstressed syllable is. A. Iambic. B. Spondaic.
C. Trochaic. D. Dactylic.
29. _____ is the location of the action of the plot. A. Setting. B. Narrative technique. C. Point of view. D.
Characterization.
30. A ballad is essentially a ____ poem. A. Descriptive. B. Dramatic. C. Pastoral. D. Narrative.
31. The first four lines of the shakespearan sonnet rhyme. A. Abcd. B. Abba. C. Abab. D. Cdcd.
32. A story in which characters or actions represent abstract ideas or moral qualities is. A. An epic. B. A
legend. C. An allegory. D. A satire.
33. The use of imagery in prose or verse. A. Appeals to the sense. B. Develops the plot. C. Creates
confusion. D. Obscures meaning.
Use the line to answer questions 34-35
‘Our leaders will not compromise freedom
Nor will our heads give up liberty’.
34. The lines illustrate. A. Soliloquy. B. Parallelism. C. Dialogue. D. Contrast.
35. ‘Heads’ in the second line is an example of. A. Synecdoche. B. Inversion. C. Epithet. D. Conceit.
36. A character that develops in the course of a novel or play is described as. A. Flat. B. Antagonist. C.
Round. D. Protagonist.
37. A dirge is a poem sung. A. To send a child to sleep. B. To make workers happy. C. At a birthday. D. At a
funeral.
38. In drama, the ____ creates humour. A. Hero. B. Clown. C. Villain. D. Chorus.
39. ‘Let me not love thee if i love thee not’ illustrates. A. Metaphor. B. Proverb. C. Paradox. D. Meiosis.
40. _____ is a literary device used to express unpleasant in a more acceptable manner. A. Epilogue. B.
Epigram. C. Euphemism. D. Eulogy.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer TWO questions from this section)
African Prose; ‘Unexpected Joy at Dawn’ (Answer ONE here).
1. Write notes on any four characters in the novel.
2. Discuss on the themes used in the novel.
Second-class citizens (Answer ONE from here)
1. In second-class citizens, a closer look into the beginning of Adah’s story when she was a little girl in Nigeria
initially displays the gender problems in his African society. How true is this statement and how the heroine
surmount these seemingly problems in the novel?
2. The wmphasis on the equality between men and women is achieved through the comparison between Adah
and her husband Francis. Discuss.
Answer TWO questions from this section
African Poetry: ‘Black Woman (Answer ONE from here)
1. Take the praise phrase and imageries in the poem and bring out what they tell you about the woman and
the feeling of the poet.
2. Comment on the various poetic devices/methods or techniques used in the poem.
‘A Government Driver on his Retirement’. (Answer ONE here)
1. Comment on the various themes used in the poem.
2. Examine fully the tragic death of ‘A Government Driver on his Retirement’.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: GOVERNMENT S. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS
1. Political power is concerned with. A. allocation of resources and enforcement of decision. B. use of force to
ensure compliance. C. process of winning wars by military. D. formation of pressure groups.
2. The essence of the constitution is to. A. safeguard the rights and freedom of the citizens. B. ensure tyranny
and oppression of the masses. C. encourage military intervention in politics. D. suppress the views of the
minority groups.
3. In democracy political sovereignty resides with. A. judiciary. B. president. C. legislature. D. electorate.
4. The highest stage if socialism is. A. racism. B. facism. C. communism. D. Nazism.
5. Feudalism is a practice in which. A. citizens have no political and social rights. B. heredity landlords rules
peasants. C. political leadership is based on force. D. social structure is stratified.
6. The rule of privileged nobility is referred to as. A. plutocracy. B. monarchy. C. aristocracy. D. autocracy.
7. The rights to freedom of speech means that people are free to. A. express anything they like. B. disobey the
government of the day. C. express opinion within the hunts of the law. D. participate in government.
8. A federal constitution is usually. A. flexible. B. unwritten. C. written and flexible. D. written and rigid.
9. The end of each session of the legislature is called. A. dissolution. B. suspension. C. closure. D.
prorogation.
10. The political effect of removal of the prime minister under a parliamentary system of government is. A. a
general election. B. the suspension of the minister. C. the suspension of the constitution. D. the dissolution
of the court of law.
11. The chief executive in a parliamentary system of government is known as the. A. president. B. speaker. C.
prime minister. D. governor general.
12. Which of the following is a basic feature of the rule of law. A. equality before the law. B. secret trial of
offenders. C. executive control of the judiciary. D. unlimited powers of the police.
13. Which of the following is usually expected to be entrenched in a constitution. A. ownership of land. B.
fundamental human rights. C. electoral rules and regulations. D. registration of political parties.
14. One of the advantages of delegated legislation is that. A. lessens the work of the parliament. B. lessens the
work of legal draftsmen. C. reduces the power of the local authority. D. makes the parliament more popular
with the people.
15. Elections are held for the purpose of. A. strengthening the powers of the political leaders. B. ensuring a
peaceful change if government. C. creating more political parties. D. uniting the people of a country.
16. A multi-member constituency is one in which. A. two or more parties are allowed to contest election. B.
franchise is restricted. C. the electorate is entitled to vote only once. D. two or more representatives is
elected from one constituency.
17. In a democracy which of the following can exert appreciable control on the activities of the executive? A.
military. B. legislature. C. traditional rulers. D. police.
18. Universal Adult Suffrage is an indispensable factor in the practice of. A. constitutionalism. B. socialism. C.
democracy. D. oligarchy.
19. In federations, concurrent list of power is usually given to the. A. federal government. B. regional units. C.
central and regional units. D. regional units and local authorities.
20. In the organizational structure of a mass political party, the policy making body is the. A. secretary general of
the party. B. national executive committee. C. national chairman. D. parliamentary committee of the party.
21. Judicial review means the process by which. A. judges review past court decisions and judgement. B. the
court determines the constitutionality of the actions of rulers. C. judicial precedents are implemented. D. the
court settles disputes between citizens.
22. Which of the following controls government expenditure. A. the courts. B. the police. C. the treasury. D. the
public.
23. One party system if government may lead to. A. stateless society. B. autocracy. C. liberal democracy. D.
oligarchy.
24. A cardinal feature of rigid constitution is that. A. can only be amended by the judiciary. B. requires a special
procedure for its amendment. C. require 2/3 majority for its amendment. D. requires the votes of the
electorate for its amendments.
25. The life of the legislative comes to an end during. A. prorogation. B. adjournment. C. dissolution. D. the end
of a session.
26. A feature of democratic government is that it is a ____. A. authoritarian and totalitarian. B. brutal and
repressive. C. firm and discipline. D. representative and accountable.
27. According to Marxism, those who own and control productive resources in a capitalist state are. A. unionist.
B. workers. C. exploiters. D. managers.
28. A foreigner can be a citizen of another state by. A. immigration. B. naturalization. C. nationalization. D.
indigenization.
29. Local government laws are known as. A. decrees. B. acts. C. bye law. D. orders.
30. The passing or vote of no confidence is a method of removing the executive in a ____. A. parliamentary
system. B. military system. C. presidential system. D. non-federal system.
31. The major function of an electoral commission is to. A. appoint members of the judiciary. B. appoint the staff
of local government. C. announce the dissolution of the assembly. D. make arrangements for the conduct of
elections.
32. Free and fair election can exist where there is. A. double voting. B. secret balloting. C. referendum. D.
plebiscite.
33. An election held to resolve important political question facing a country is called. A. referendum. B. bye-
election. C. general election. D. primary election.
34. Public opinion enable government to ____. A. find out what the people thinks about its activities. B. organise
political conferences and solidarity rallies. C. punish political opponents. D. employ more workers.
35. The main objectives of pressure group is to. A. influence the public. B. influence government decision. C.
organize strikes and demonstrations. D. criticise the government.
36. A major weakness of one party system is that it. A. does not aggregate public opinion. B. negates the
principle of one man one vote. C. ensures freedom of political choice. D. encourages dictatorship.
37. One of the important functions of political parties is. A. educating the electorate through rallies and
campaigns. B. advising on the appointment of judges. C. hiring personnel for political leader.
38. The first president of the Nigeria republic was. A. Obafemi Awolowo. B. Nnamdi Azikiwe. C. Ahmadu Bello.
D. Emeka Anyaoku.
39. The first West African to become the secretary general of the commonwealth is. A. Emeka Anyaoku. B.
Agboola Gambari. C. Arnold smith. D. Shridath Ramphal.
40. The Nigerian federal legislature is called. A. senate. B. congress. C. national assembly. D. House of
Representatives.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer and 4 questions)
1. Highlight 4 features of free and fair election.
(a) What is a Free and Fair Election?
2. What is Public Opinion?
(b) Discuss 3 agents of public opinion.

3. Define the Civil Service. (b) Discuss 4 characteristics of civil service.

4. What is Suffrage? (b) List and explain the types of suffrage and explain 2 qualification for franchise.
5. Discuss 5 purpose of election.
6. Define the Electoral Process. (b) Write short note on the following electoral system; (a) Simple majority. (b)
Absolute majority or alternate vote system. (c) Proportional representation.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: GOVERNMENT S. S. 1 TIME: 1 ½ HR.
1. The term government refers to all the following except ( A) an academic field of study ( B) an institution
made up of persons with common interest ( C) a process of governing( D) how law are exercised in a
state( E ) a process of making and enforcing laws.
2. One of the following is not a basic concept of government ( A) power (B) democracy (C ) authority (D)
political culture (E) constitution .
3. The concept of sovereignty was popularized by (A) j .j rousseau ( B) A. V dicey (C) John lock (D) Jeanne
bodin (E) Baloode Montesquieu.
4. socialism means (A) Collective organization of the state ( B) Dictatorship of the proletarol ( C) A system
of land tenure (D) None of the above (E) Unlimited acquisitiveness as motive of life .
5. Democracy is a system of government in which (A)the minority rules (B) The majority rules (C) The land
owner rules (D) The wealthy few rules (E) All of the above.
6. The system of democracy was popularized by (A) A.v dicey (B) Abrahim lincon (C) Jeanne bodin (D) J.j
rousseau (E)J ohn locke .
7. The principle functions of the legislature is to (A) Enforce laws (B) Arrest offenders (C) Make laws (D)
Release prisoners (E) Laterprest Laws
8. _________Is A Process through Which People Develop Their Political Attitude (A) Political Party (B) Political
Socialization (C) Political Mobilization (D) Propaganda (E) Politicization
9. The Ability To Organise People And Grtthings Done Is Known As _____________ (A) Democracy (B) Power
(C) Authority (D) Sovereignty (E) Legitimacy.
10. Which Of The Following Organs Exercise the Probative Of Mercy (A) The Police (B) The Executive (C)
Judiciary (D) The Legislature.
11. The Interpretation ofthe Constitution Is Done By One ofthe Following Organs of Government (A) Senate (B)
Police (C) Executive (D) Judiciary (E) Legislature
12. One Of These Is Not Among The Types Of Sovereignty (A) Political Sovereignty (B) P-Opular Sovereignty
(C) Internal Sovereignty (D) The Factors Sovereignty (E) Exported Sovereignty.
13. One Of The Mejor Features Of Feudalism Is _____________ (A) Profit Maximization (B) Open Economy
(C)Land Ownership (D) Centralized Political Power (E) The Idea Of Free Market .
14. Government As An Institution Of The State Can Best Be Described As__________(A) A Body That Provide
Socio-Economics Services (B) Settles Dispute (C)Puniches Offenders (D) Legislates Executes And
Interprets Law Of The Land (D) Conducts Elections For The State .
15. Which Of The Following Is Not A Means By Which Government Maintain Slaw And Under (A) Establishment
Of Judiciary (B) Provisional Association (C) Law Making (D) Maintenance Of Police (E) Provision Of Socio-
Economics Service.
16. Which Of The Following Is Not Feature Of State (A) Population (B) Territorial Waste (C) Government (D)
Sovereignty (E) Territory.
11. The Politically Organized Body Of People Occupying A Definite Geographical Territory With An Organized
Government Is Known As __________(A) Nation (B) Country (C) Continent (D) City .
18. The Source Of Power Include All Except (A) Religion (B) Constitution (C) Church (D) The Military.
19. The System of Collective Ownership of Property (A) Communalism (B) Feudalism (C) Socialism (D)
Federation.
20. Agent of Political Socialization Include (A) The Family (B) Mass Media (C) Schools (D) Pressure Groups (E)
All of The Above.
21. The Judicial Orgarn Of Government Is The Body Which (A) Initiaties Bills (B) Interpret Law (C) Makes Law
(D)Maintain Law And Under (E) Implement Policy .
22 A Constitution Is Said To Be Flexible When It Provision Are (A) Known By The Ruler (B) Scatered In Several
Books(C)Mainly In One Document (D) Easy To Amend (E) Amendend Through Difficult Procedure.
23. Nigeria Became A Republic In__________(A) 1960 (B) 1965(C) 1967(D) 1979(E) 1989.
24. Which F The Following Is Not A Duty Of A Citizen (A)Obedience To The Law (B)Payment Of Taxes (C)
Service To The Nation (D) Given Aims To The Poor (E)Defending The Nation .
25. How Many Geo-Political Zone Is In Nigeria divided Into (A) 4 (B) 6(C)8 (D) 10 (E) 12.

26. Absence of Government In A State Is Referd To As (A)Anarchy (B) Confusion (C) Corp De Tat (D)
Instability (E) Stability.
27. Citizen Fundamental Human Right Are Best Safeguarded By The (A) Civil Service (B) Constitution (C) Press
(D) Police (E) Pressure Group.
28. The First Executive President In Nigeria Is (A) Tafawa Belewa (B) Nnamdi Azikiwe (C) Shehu Shagari (D)
Obafemi Awolowo (E) Olusegun Obasanjo.
29. A Bicameral Legislature Is _________(A) Republican State (B) Fascist State (C) Military State (D) Federal
State (E) Totalitarian State.
30. In the study of government a state possesses the following character except__________(a)sovereignty (b)
government (c) territory (d) democracy (e) population.
31. One part system leads to __________(a)dictations hip (b) democracy (c) diarchy (d) theocracy (e) plutocracy.
32. Direct democracy emanated from (a) Greek (b) Romans (c) Germans (d) Americans (e) Nigerians.
34. __________is a type of power that is based on the control of the means of production (a)Chavisma (b)
economic (c) political (d)legitimacy .
35. The will of the state is realized through the (a) government (b) touts (c) militants (d) harmony (e) feudalism.
36. We have ________types of democracy (a) four (b) five (c) two (d) ten.
37. __________is the speaker of Anambra state house of assembly
38. In Nigeria election is conducted at the interval of every ____________years.
39. ___________is the senate president of Nigeria.
40. ___________is the president of Nigeria.

SECTION B THEORY
Outline Answer any 4 questions

(1a) Define Government as an Institution of a State

(1b) List out 10 Functions of the Government of your country.

(2a) Define A State.

(2b) Discuss 5 Characteristics of A State.

(3a) Highlight 5 reasons for the study of government.

(3b) State and discuss 4 sub-field of branches of government as an academic field of study.

(4a) Define Power and Authority.

(4b) Highlight 5 Differences between Power and Authority

(5a) What Is Sovereignty?

(5b) Discuss 4 Features of Sovereignty.

(6a) Discuss Any 4 Forms of Types of Power. (b) Outline and Discuss 4 Merits of Feudalism

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
 SCHOOL BOARD MOCK EXAMINATION 2023/2024 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: GOVERNMENT S. S. 3 TIME: 1 ½ HR.
1. Government by the few for the intrest of the few is known as. A. Monarchy. B. Dictatorship. C. Autocracy. D.
Plutocracy. E. Oligarchy.
2. The most important duty of every citizen is to ___. A. Discharge his civic responsibilities to the state. B. Obey traditional
authorities. C. Recite the national anthem. D. Participate in government programmes. E. Go to work.
3. The rights of the individual are the ___. A. Demands he can make on the state. B. Claims he can make against others.
C. Claims the law allos him to make against the state. D. Claims those in government are willing to entertain. E.
Essentials he reavives for successful living.
4. One way by which the legislature checks the executive is by. A. Delaying the promotion of some ministers. B. Ordering
the dismissal of corrupt cabinet ministers. C. Withholding the salaries of ministers. D. Demanding the review of an
executive action. E. Appealing to the supreme court.
5. According to Karl marx, socialism is the prelude to ___. A. Communism. B. Capitalism. C. Feudalism. D. Fascism. E.
Totalirianism.
6. The judiciary can only be independent when ___. A. Law and order are maintained. B. People obey laws. C. The
executive arm performs its duties. D. There is security of tenure of office for judges. E. It is headed by an independent
citizen.
7. The supreme power of a state to make and enforce laws within its jurisdiction is called. A.enfranchisement. b.
Sovereignty. C. Decolonizstion. D. Independence. E. Nationalism.
8. Which of the following countries operate an unwritten constitution? A. Guinea. B. United states of America. C. Great
British. D. China. E. Nigeria.
9. Any constitution that has special rules for its amendment is d=said to be __. A. Flexible. B. Rigid. C. Confederal. D.
Unwritten. E. Written.
10. Who among the following is associated with fascism? A. Karl max. B. Joseph Stalin. C john Locke. D. Adolf Hitler. E.
Benito Mussolini.
11. Which of the following is a characteristics of democracy? A. There is absolute freedom of movement. B. Courts can sue
and be sued. C. The majority have their way. D. All citizens vote and be voted for. E. The police can arrest only with a
warrant.
12. The concept of social justice implies. A. Fairness to all citizens. B. Freedom for every citizen. C. Eauality of citizens. D.
Security for all citizens. E. To everyone according to his needs.
13. Rule of law means ___. A. That only the national assembly can make law. B. That no one is above the law. C. That
only the head of state is above the law. D. The rule by lawyers only. E. The absence of a military government.
14. Who among the following is not eligible to vote? A. Civil servant. B. Retired soldier. C. Certified bankrupt. D. Chief
magistrate. E. Reverend father.
15. Which of the following is a disadvantage of collective responsibility in a cabinet system of government? A. Ministers are
removed indiscriminately. B. It kills individual minister’s initiatives. C. The system is difficult to operate. D. The prime
minister is blameless. E. The system is old fashioned.
16. One of the criticisms against delegated legislation is that __. A. Gives too much power to all organs of government. B.
Enhances separation of power. C. Encroaches on parliamentary power. D. Is not practised in advanced countries. E. Is
only practised in large countries.
17. In a unitary system of government. A. There is usually one party system. B. There is no constitutional division of power
among the different levels of government. C. Two party system is the most suitable for an eavitable distribution of
power. D. There is always order and discipline. E. There is not constitution.
18. In a multi party state various interests and shades of opinion are. A. Not represented. B. Have the opportutnity to be
represented. C. Are strongly represented. D. Should not be represented. E. Directly represented.
19. Equality before the law implies that. A. The law does not respect the people. B. Every body can do what he likes. C. No
one citizen can sue the other. D. There is inequality between the excecutive and the citizens. E. The executive cannot
be controlled by the legislature.
20. When a high court declares an action of the executive ultra-vires, it means that ___. A. The executive has to reconsider
the action. B. Such on action should never be brought up again. C. Only legislature can deal with such an action. D.
The action is illegal and of no effect. E. A vote of no confisence has been passed on the executive by the judiciary.
21. The act of influencing voters through material gifts is known as. A. Favouritism. B. Rigging. C. Propaganda. D. Gerry
mandering. E. Electoral malpractice.
22. Which of the following is not a hinderance to political participation? A. Ignorance. B. Lack of interest. C. Fear. D. Party
system. E. Intimidation.
23. Freedom of association is important ___. A. It allows for the formation of intrest groups and organisations. B. It is the
same thing as freedom of movement. C. Membership is compulsory. D. Association are free from the government
intervention. E. Association aid the government.
24. An election district for a local government election is a -____. A. Senatorial district. B. Ward. C. Polling booth. D.
Constituency. E. Village.
25. Which of the following is not the function of a political party? A. Intrest aggregation. B. Intrest articulation. C. Political
integration. D. Mobilizing people for development. E. Drafling a country’s constitution.
26. The electoral success of political party depends on its ability to ___. A. Rig election successfully. B. Campaign till
election day. C. Distribute sufficient funds to voters. D. Engage in mudslinging other political parties. E. Present a good
and acceptable manifesto.
27. The Oyo Mesi checked the Alafin in the Yoruba traditional political eyetem by ___. A. Starving the Alaafin of funds. B.
Stoning the alaafin to death. C. Commanding the bashorun to take over power. D. Impeaching the alaafin and asking
him to commit suicide. E. Advising the ogboni on the alaafin’s shortcoming.
28. In the hausa/Fulani traditional political system Jangali was. A. One of the sources of revenue to cattle owners. B. A
property tax paid to land owners. C. Paid to exporters of cattle. D. Imposed on people by the colonial masters. E. A
type of flate rate tax.
29. The number of the elected members of the 1988 constituent assembly was ___. A. 201. B. 280. C. 360. D. 450. E.
560.
30. The almalgamation of Northern and Southern Nigeria is 1914 by Lord Lugard was to ___. A. Check Portuguese
encroachment from Cameroun. B. Make for administrative convenience. C. Check french encroachment. D. Ensure
that indirect rule succeeded. E. Complete the colonization process.
31. The last colonial government for Nigeria was ____. A. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe. B. Oliver Lyttleton. C. Bernard Bourdillion.
D. Archur Richards. E. James Robertson.
32. The NCNC sent delegation to London in 1947 to protest against ___. A. Clifford constitution. B. Republican constitution.
C. Richards constitution. D. Lyttleton constitution. E. Macpherson constitution.
33. Which of the following is true of the nationalist during the colonial days? A. Used propaganda and blackmail to achieve
their aim. B. Preferred dealing with the secretary of state to dealing with the governor. C. Established universities in
Ghana and Sierra Leone. D. Took the governor to court to press for the review of obnoxious policies. E. Preferred
working in the local administration to working in the central government.
34. Nigeria became a federation of four regions in. A. 1954. B. 1960. C. 1963. D. 1967. E. 1975.
35. Legitimacy means. A. Seizure of power by force. B. Separation of the organs of government. C. Sovereignty of
parliament. D. Supremacy of the electorate. E. Acceptance of the right to rule.
36. Nigerian educated elite agitated against colonial rule through. A. By engaging in guerrilla warfare. B. By fighting civil
was. C. Through hobbying. D. Through newspapers. E. By bribing colonial governors.
37. Which of the following is not true of Herbert Macaulay? A. He was the co-founder of NCNC. B. Founder of Lagos daily
new. C. Founder of national congress of British West Africa. D. Founder of the Nigeria national democratic party
(NNDP). E. First Nigerian to found a political party.
38. A historic feature of the legislative council of Nigeria that met in 1923 was that for the first time, it __. A. Included elected
African members. B. Legislated for the whole country. C. Acted in a deliberative capacity. D. Included British officials.
E. Included officials members who were Nigerians.
39. One major weakness of the 1946 Richard’s constitution in Nigeria was its ___. A. Cumbersome constitutional provisions.
B. Limited application of the elective principle. C. Imprecision in legal clarification. D. Disregard for the views of
traditional rulers. E. Provisions for an official majority in the legislative assembly.
40. Which of the following is true of the french colonial policy of assimilation? Al it was similar in essence to the british
colonial policy of indirect rule. B. Enabled france to transfer technology to its colonies. C. Enabled france to transfer
capital to its colonies. D. Was used to turn Frenchman to Africans. E. Sought to integrate french colonies.
41. In a presidential system of government ministers are ___. A. Collectively responsible to the senate. B. Collectively
responsible to the president. C. Individually responsible to the president. D. Individually responsible to no man. E.
Individually and collectively responsible to the electorate.
42. One of the problems encountered by Nigerian nationalist in their struggle for constitutional change was the ___. A.
Opposition from traditional rulers. B. Superior firearms of the colonial masters. C. Opposition from the Gueen of
England. D. Refusal of the secetary of state to visit the colonies. E. Corruption and high handedness of the British
officials.
43. The highest court of appeal under the Nigerian independence constitution was. A. Federal court of appeal. B. Sharia
court of appeal. C. Supreme court. D. Judiciary committee of the privy council. E. Federal high court.
44. Under the independence constitution of Nigeria the head of state was ___. A. The queen of England. B. The british
prime minister. C. Alhaji Abubakar Tafawa Balewa. D. Sir James Robertson. E. Oliver Lyttleton.
45. Which of the following is a function performed until recently by local government in Nigeria? A. Imposition of collection of
company tax. B. Administration of museums. C. Regulation of political parties. D. Collection of import duties. E.
Registration of births.
46. Which of the following does not belong to the civil service? A. The cabinet office. B. Nigeria civil aviation authority. C.
The governor’s office. D. The establishment department. E. Ministry of information.
47. Which of the following is the duty of a civil servant? A. Loyalty to the government. B. Public association with a political
party. C. Advising on policy formulation. D. Supporting the party in power. E. Not being partisan.
48. One of the ways to keep the military out if politics is to. A. Imprison coup plotters. B. Execute coup plotters. C. Crush
military regime. D. Stop election rigging. E. Arm the police well as a counter poise.
49. Which of the following is not true of ,ilitary regime? A. Rules by decree. B. It is undemocratic. C. It is autocratic. D. Is
transitory. E. Is benevolent.
50. Kastina and Akwa Ibom states werer created in ___. A. 1967. B. 1976. C. 1986. D. 1987. E. 1988,
51. The principle of non-alignment in nigeria’s foreign policy implies that. A. Nigeria is committed to either the west or the
east in her foreign policy. B. Nigeria is pledged to neutralitly in international trade relations. C. Nigeria is pledged o
objectivity in all international crises. D. Nigeria should play the rle of mediator in international crises. E. Nigeria’s foreign
policy formulation process must not have inputs from foreign sources.
52. Behind the principle of “African as the centre piece pf nigeria’s foreign policy” is the understanding that ____. A. For
Nigeria to be truly great her neighbours must become great as well. B. Nigeria is the gaint of Africa. C. Nigeria must use
her enormous oil wealth to control her neighbours. D. Nigeria should be the mouthpiece of Africa in the UNO. E. Nigeria
must give aids to poor African nations.
53. All the following are aims objective of ECOWAS except to. A. Maintain closer relations among members states. B.
Encourage customs union and common market. C. Raise the political consciousness of the people. D. Raise the
people’s standard of living. E. Foster political peace and unity in west Africa.
54. Which of the following is not a serious problem of ECOWAS? A. The economics of member states are not
complementary. C. Member states are primary producers. C. Member state have dependent economies. D. The
monetary politices of member state differ. E. Member states speak different languages.
55. The moving force behind the formation of OAU was. A. William Tubman. B. Abubakar Tafawa Balewa. C. Jomo
Kenyatta. D. Kwame Nkrumah. E. Julius Nyerere.
56. All the following are organs of OAU except. A. Assembly of heads of state and Government. B. Eronomic commission
for Africa. C. General secretariat. D. Council of ministers. E. Commission for mediation counciliation and Arbitration.
57. The ECOWAS monitoring group (ECOMOG) was organised to maintain peace in __. A. Cote d’iviore. B. Benin
Republic. C. Liberia. D. Chad. E. Guinea.
58. The veto given to the five permanent members of the security council of the united nations is necessary because it ____.
A. Makes them respect the UNO and help her achieve her objectives. B. Gives due respect to whom honour is due. C.
Makes apartheid south Africa to fear UNO. D. Bringing the big powers into agreement on important world issues. E.
Ensure the operation of the principle of collective responsibility.
59. The uniting for peace” resolution of the UNO was adopted in ___. A. 1945. B. 1947. C. 1950. D. 1960. E. 1966.
60. Which of the following is not an organ of the UNO? A. Security council. B. Worl health organisation. C. Economic and
social council. D. Secretariat. E. International court of justice.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer any TWO questions)
1. What is Political Socialization? (b) Explain any 4 agents of political socialization.
2. Wxplain what is meant by Government as an academic field of study. (b) List and explain 4 field or branches of
Government as an academic field of study.
3. Explain the term Representative Government. (b) What conditions are essential for the existence of a representative
government.
4. Define Pubic opinion. (b) What are the characteristics of Public Opinion.
SECTION C: (Answer any TWO questions)
5. Highlight the achievement of the military government in Nigeria.
6. Explain the factors wht necessitated the adoption of federalism in Nigeria.
7. Highlight the aims and objectives of the national council of Nigeria ans the camerouns (NCNC)
8. What were the major changes introduced in Nigeria by the Clifford constitution of 1922?
9. Outline any five functions of the Emir in the Hausa/Fulani traditional political system.
10. Give any 5 reasons for the breakdown of Macpherson constitution of 1951.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: PRE-VOCATIONAL STUDIES J. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS
1. Agriculture involves all except. A. rearing of animal. B. cultivation of crops. C. snail farming. D. welding.
2. A system of farming where two or more different crops are grown in the same farming land is called. A. bush fallowing.
B. taungya farming. C. mono cropping. D. mixed cropping.
3. A very important export crop in Nigeria is. A. citrus. B. pepper. C. cocoa. D. tomatoe.
4. These criteria are considered before packing except. A. nature of produce. B. distance to market. C. bulkiness of
produce. D. price of produce.
5. The size of produce is referred to as. A. nature of produce. B. bulkiness. C. weight. D. appearance.
6. Frozen produce can be package in these except. A. carton. B. polythene. C. plastic container. D. cages.
7. All these are packaging items except. A. boxes. B. gallons. C. drums. D. barrow.
8. The bargaining in monetary amount a produce will be sold is. A. seaonality. B. bulkiness. C. pricing. D.value of
produce.
9. These are the importance of pricing except. A. bargaining between the farmer and the buyer. B. customer’s perception
of a produce. C. assessment of the farmer’s value of the produce. D. giving away of produce by the farmer.
10. All these are price determinants except. A. cost of production. B. market price. C. seasonality of produce. D. number
of baggars in the market.
11. The amount of money a particular produce cost in the market is referred to as. A. forces of demand and supply. B.
market price. C. quality of produce. D. size of goods.
12. One of these is not a type of farm record. A. oney. B. farm diary. C. input record. D. sales record.
13. Uses of farm record include these except. A. taking record of farmer’s profit and loss. B. accessing loans. C. payment
of school fees. D. management of a farm business.
14. A farm record used for recording all the access owned by the farmer is. A. production record. B. sales record. C. farm
inventory. D. input record.
15. Farm diary os used for recording the following except. A. planting date. B. working done in the farm. C. man hours. D.
budgeting of a farm business.
16. These are items present in a production record except. A. date. B. produce. C. value of produce. D. work done in the
farm.
17. The putting of produce in attractive container for easy sale is referred to as. A. storage. B. pricing. C. exportation. D.
packaging.
18. The record that shows all used product by the farmer and family is. A. production record. B. farm diary. C. profit and
loss account. D. consumption record.
19. The process of keeping agricultural produce in a good condition for future use is called. A. marketing. B. supplying. C.
preservation. D. scanning.
20. A person who makes use of agricultural product is referred to as. A. an exporter. B. an inporter. C. a consumer. D. a
producer.
HOME ECONOMICS
21. ___ is used for washing, soaking and rinsing. A. cleansing agent. B. bleach. C. water. D. soap.
22. Which of the following is not used for measuring parts of the body. A. pencil. B. tape measure. C. paper. D. iron.
23. Which of the following sets of dirty fabrics can be soaked in detergent water for erveral hours without harm. A. cotton
and linen. B. linen and silk. C. silk and nylon. D. wool and linen.
24. The progress of preventing harmful bacteria from growing in our food is ford. A. service. B. storage. C. hygine. D.
processing.
25. The order of producing fabric is. A. fabric, fibre yarn. B. fabric yan, fibre. C. fibre yarn, fabric. D. yarn fibre, fabric.
26. Human resources include the following except. A. time. B. possession. C. knowledge. D. energy.
27. The collective term that includes the rariety of textile articles used in the home is household. A. fabric. B. linen. C.
clothing. D. cotton.
28. All these are man made fibre except. A. actate. B. cotton. C. nylon. D. polyester.
29. Which of the following is not a tool for pattern drafting. A. paper. B. tape measure. C. needle. D. metre rule.
30. The area of home economics that deals wiith using what the family has to get what it needs is home. A. care. B.
economics. C. management. D. affairs.
31. Which of these is not a reason for wearing clothing. A. culture. B. pretection. C. ride. D. health.
32. The guide for chrosing and wearing decent clothing include all the following except. A. personal figure. B. meeting
venue. C. quality of fabric. D. personal complexion.
33. One of the following is not an example of huse hold linen. A. blankets. B. table clothes. C. mattresses. D. pillowcase.
34. What is a thread made by twisting or spinning fibres called? A. fabric. B. yarn. C. mat. D. woven fabric.
35. Which of the following does not belong to the man-made fibres. A. wool. B. nylon. C. polyesters. D. acetate rayon.
36. Where is wool fibre obtained from? A. sheep. B. cattle. C. cats. D. dogs.
37. Laundering is the process of. A. washing and ironing clothes. B. washing clothes only. C. washing and drying clothes.
D. washing and rinsing clothes.
38. Ironing equipment belongs to one of the following groups. A. equipment for laundry. B. equipment for drying. C.
equipment for finishing. D. equipment for boiling.
39. One of the following is not a laundry process. A. washing. B. ironing. C. rinsing. D. designing.
40. One of the following materials is washed in cold water. A. wool. B. cotton. C. silk. D. sweaters.
SECTION B: THEORY (HOME ECONOMICS) (Answer FOUR qustions)
1. Define Food Hygiene. (b) State five guideline for food hygiene. (c) Mention three causes of food contamination.
2. State three reasons why we study textiles. (b) Mention six steps in laundering work. (c) State three uses of Fabric. (d)
Mention two types of laundering agents and equipments.
3. Define the following; (i) Textile. (ii) Bias (iii) Fibre
AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
4. What is Pricing? (b) State any 4 price determinants. (c) State any 3 factors you put into consideration before packaging
an agric product. (cii) What is Economic Force?
5. Define Farm Record. (b) List any 5 farm records. (c) A farm record that records da-to-day activity in the farm is ___. (d)
What is Packaging of an Agric Product?
6. Define the following; (i) Market Price. (ii) Farm Inventory (iii) Consuption Record (b) State the Law of Demand. (c) List
the packaging item suitable for the following (i) Palm oil (ii) Orange.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: PRE-VOCATIONAL STUDIES J. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS
1. One of the problem of agriculture is. A. foreign exchange earning. B. illiteracy. C. provision of animal. D. provisions of
shalter.
2. Which of the following animals can best be managed in hutch? A. fowl. B. goat. C. rabbit. D. sheep.
3. The farm structure used for the control of ectoparasite like tick is. A. dams. B. dips. C. fenees. D. rhombus.
4. One of the following is not an insect pest. A. beetle. B. bulterfly. C. grasshopper. D. rat.
5. One of the following is not a storage facility. A. store. B. rhombus. C. cribs. D. barn.
6. Which of the following is not a farm structure. A. animal dips. B. fences. C. gates. D. tractors.
7. Which of the following activities can be described as post planting operations? A. burning. B. bush cleaning. C.
stumping. D. weeding.
8. The first pre-planting operation is. A. clearing. B. manuring. C. ridging. D. stumping.
9. One of the following is not a storage structure. A. barn. B. fish pond. C. silo. D. cribs.
10. Onw of these practice is not a form of vegetative propagation. A. budding. B. grafting. C. layering. D. planting.
11. Propagation that deals with the development of new plant from seeds which are planted with the soid are called. A.
budding. B. cutting. C. sexual. D. asexual propagation.
12. One of the following is not a way of maintaining farm structure. Am moving parts should be lubricated. B. damaged
fences should be repaired. C. the silos are coated with aluminium to avoid rust. D. farm machines and tools are left in
the farm.
13. The following are used to store grains except. A. crib. B. silos. C. barn. D. rhombus.
14. Fences are made for the following reasons except. A. to allow the farm animals feed on the crops. B. to protect the
crops from animal pests. C. to mark farm boundary. D. for protection
15. Banana is propagated by. A. sucker. B. bubs. C. tubers. D. cornas.
16. What is another name for vegetative propagation? A. medium propagation. B. sexual propagation. C. asexual
propagation. D. major propagation.
17. Which of these propagation method involves the union of bud with a stock. A. budding. B. cutting. C. grafting. D.
layering.
18. Temporary buildings are a=often referred to as ___ building. A. goat pens. B. make shift. C. wooden building. D.
abandoned house.
19. Cassava is commonly propagated by. A. budding. B. grafting. C. cutting. D. layering.
20. The propagating material for ginger is. A. bulb. B. rhizome. C. seed. D. sucker.
21. Secondary needs in the family are _____ and
22. _____. A. car and television. B. food and shelter. C. school and church. D. market and hospital
23. Food is one of ___ needs in the family. A. secondary. B. primary. C. status. D. energy.
24. Human resources exist in ___. A. school. B. individual. C. classes. D. market.
25. The process of choosing alternatives is called. A. action making. B. decision making. C. kindness. D. love.
26. All are material resources except. A. money. B. food. C. furniture. D. knowledge.
27. ____ are the things which the family used to meet their needs and reach the goal. A. needs. B. time. C. resources. D.
bus.
28. Things that exist outside people but are controlled, owned r used by the family is. A. car. B. possession. C. non-human
resources. D. needs
29. ______ and
30. _____ are examples of community resources. A. food and water. B. mineral and land. C. market and schools. D.
house and furniture.
31. ____ is used for straining food. A. soap. B. Mushin. C. cotton. D. hand towel.
32. Family decision includes _____ and
33. _______. A. accommodation and family project. B. cream and perfume. C. hotel and bar. D. eating and sleeping.
34. ____ is the fibre and tecture material worn on the body to cover on neckedness. A. shoe. B. pant. C. clothing. D. cap.
35. ____ and
36. ______ are examples of bathroom line. A. bath towel and bathmat. B. oil and soap. C. knife and spoon. D. mosquito
net and bed spread.
37. ___ is act of replacing the worn part of a gament with a piece of fabric. A. patching. B. sewing. C. clothes. D. wearing.
38. Decision making occur when there are ____ to choose from. A. one option. B. more than one thing. C. none. D.
objects.
39. Clothing include _____ and

40. ______.

SECTION B: THEORY (Answer any TWO questions of your choice in each)

AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
1. Define the term Agriculture. (b) List four importance of agriculture. (c) List four problems of agriculture.
2. What is Farm Structure? (b) Mention three classes of farm structures. (c) List six farm structures you know.
3. Explain Crop Propagation. (b) List three methods of crop propagation. (c) Name one method of propagating the
following crops; (i) Maze (ii) Plantain (iii) Cassava (d) Mention two methods of maintaining farm building.
 HOME ECONOMICS
4. What is Family Resources? (b) Mention 3 human resources. (c) List three materials resources.
5. Define Decision Making. (b) List three steps in decision making. (c) State three simple decision making.
6. Explain the term “Household Linen”. () List three types of household linen. (c) State three factors that can influence the
selection of household linen.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: PRE-VOCATIONAL STUDIES J. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS
1. Agriculture involves the ____ and ____ for the consumption and benefit of man. A. caring for man and establishment of
industries. B. raising of animals and objects. C. rearing of animal and cultivation of crops. D. raising of crops and
metals
2. The word “agar” means ___ in agriculture. A. crops. B. water. C. land. D. cattle.
3. Agriculture is important to our country because of the following reasons except. A. unemployment. B. provision of
foreign exchange. C. provision of food. D. rural development.
4. The early often throw away ____ to germinate after eating in their environment. A. stones. B. fruits. C. metals. D.
water.
5. The planting of crops plants used as food for man and livestock is called. A. apiculture. B. fishery. C. crop farming. D.
livestock farming.
6. All are examples of fish farming organisms except. A. fish. B. crayfish. C. crbs. D. sheep.
7. The keeping of farms animals on a farm is called. A. snail farming. B. vermiculture. C. livestock farming. D.
horticulture.
8. Farmers who carry cattle from place to place in search of grazing field are referred to as. A. graziers. B. cultivators. C.
nomads. D. hunters.
9. One of these crops can not grow in your school garden. A. apple. B. cassava. C. cucumber. D. maize.
10. Agriculture is derived from two ____ words. A. French. B. Spanish. C. Chinese. D. latin.
11. One of these is a leguminous crop. A. maize. B. yam. C. coconut. D. beans.
12. Examples of monocotyledons are the following except. A. maize. B. millet. C. groundnut. D. rice.
13. A plant characterized by having one seed leaf is referref to as. A. monocotyledon. B. dilotyledon. C. legame. D. oil
crop.
14. The early men wandered from one place in search of al except. A. food. B. fruits. C. money. D. nuts.
15. Which of these have fibrous root system. A. cassava. B. orange. C. mangoe. D. maize.
16. Snail rearing is also known as. A. apiculture. B. aquaculture. C. helicuture. D. horticulture.
17. The general feature of crop plant include all, except. A. leaves. B. root. C. stem. D. horn.
18. Animal crop lives for how many years. A. one. B. two. C. three. D. six years.
19. These are biennial crops except. A. carrot. B. cocoyam. C. maize. D. cabbage.
20. ____ is the crop member of grass family. A. cereal crop. B. fruit. C. oil crop. D. tubers.
HOME ECONOMICS
21. One of the following is not sexual transmitted diseases. A. gonorrhoea. B. AIDS. C. HIV. D. stomach-ache.
22. The process where are a person prescribes a drug for self is called. A. medication. B. acceptance. C. protection. D.
discipline.
23. ____ lies between the end of childhood an beginning of adulthood. A. girl hood. B. boyhood. C. adolescent. D.
puberty.
24. The period which marks the beginning of sexual development in boys and girls is called. A. adolescent. B. puberty. C.
childhood. D. adulthood.
25. The age of puberty in boys is. A. 20-30. B. 15-21. C. 11-12. D. 50.
26. The age of puberty in girls is. A. 10-11. B. 16-30. C. 15-6. D. 40.
27. Brest development is sign of ___ in girls. A. size. B. puberty. C. illness. D. shaper.
28. Human immune deficiency syndrome is known as. A. HIV. B. diseas. C. AIDS. D. malaria.
29. The monthly flow of blood through the vajina in every matured female is called. A. sickness. B. disease. C.
menstrustion. D. HIV.
30. Freedom and benefits that are guarrented to people by law are called. A. demand. B. right. C. responsibility. D.need.
31. _______ is a bonafile member of a country or nature. A. senator. B. president. C. citizen. D. governor.
32. ________ and
33. _______ are two signs of puberty in boys.
34. ______
35. _____ are two signs of puberty in girls.
36. Unpleasant smell that comes out of the body is called. A. odour. B. hygiene. C. oerfume. D. sweat.
37. We used _____ and
38. _____________ to take our bath.
39. Pressing iron is used for ______
40. Clothes are kept in a _____________. A. kitchen. B. box or warddrop. C. sitting room.

SECTION B: HOME ECONOMICS (Answer any 2 questions in each subject)

1. Define Family Needs. (b) Mention two types of family needs. (c) List the full meaning of the following; (i) S T I (ii) HIV (iii)
AIDS.
2. The difference between a home and a house. (b) Mention three types of house. (c) Define Domestic Violence.
3. Mention 3 group of Food you know. (b) Define Food. (c) Define Healthy Eating Habit.

AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE

4. What is Agriculture? (b) State 3 characteristics of Subsistence Farming. (c) List any 2 forms of farm animals, giving one
example for each.
5. What is Subsistence Farming? (b) In a tabular form, state 2 difference between Monocotyledonous and Dicotyledonous
(c) Give 3 examples each for (i) Monocotyledonous crops (ii) Dicotyledonous crops.
6. In a tabular form, list any 4 raw materials and agro-aalied industries using them for their production. (b) Define Pastoral
Farming.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: CULTURAL AND CREATIVE ARTS. J. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.
1. 800 stone images were discovered as. A. imaginative. B. life. C. nature. D. pen and ink. E. still life.
2. What would you do to make your green work to be tena-cotfa? A. burn. B. cook. C. fire. D. fry. E. wet.
3. The best paper painting is ____ paper? A. carbon. B. cardboard. C. cartridge. D. foolscap.
4. A museum graduated in all these towns except. A. Benin. B. Ife. C. Igbo-ukwu. D. Nri. E. Onitsha.
5. The art of drawing plants, flower, fruits twigs while looking at them is referred to as ____ drawing. A. Benin.
B. Esie. C. igbo-ukwu. D. mende.
6. Clay can b gotten from the following sources except. A. anthill. B. desert. C. lakeside. D. river banks. E.
swamps.
7. Perspective creates an illusion of ___ on a flat surface. A. balance. B. depth. C. harmony. D. rhythm. E.
tone.
8. A form of shading in which strokes are used is called. A. cross hatching. B. hatching. C. monochrome. D.
pointillism. D. smudging.
9. The most important element of drawing is _____. A. balance. B. colour. C. line. D. proportion. E. shading.
10. A poster that passes information on public affairs as health, culture, administration, caution and signs is
referred to as ___ poster. A. bill board. B. commercial. C. contract. D. educational. E. mobile.
11. A drawing composition of kitchen utensils and farming equipment is categorized as ___ drawing. A.
inanimate. B. life. C. mixed. D. objects. E. still life.
12. The following can be identified on the colour wheel except. A. green. B. purple. C. red. D. white. E. yellow.
13. Pre-historic man made his art mainly on walls _______
14. The room where art works are displayed is known as _______
15. Drawing teaches a students to be ______
16. The orderly arrangement of lines, shapes, symbols, motif, colour and pattern in a given space is termed ____.
17. Drawing cannot exist without _______
18. Collage means _______
19. We remove foreign body from soaked clay through the process of ___________
20. Drawing of a living person is called ___________ drawing.
21. A drama where the actor wear masks is ________ drama. A. comic. B. folktale. C. masquerade. D. satiric.
E. tragic.
22. Dun Dun is for Yoruba while igba is for ____. A. Ghana. B. Efik. C. Idoma. D. Igbo. E. Hausa.
23. The popular Nkpokiti dance of umunze is an example of _____ art. A. applied. B. dramatic. C. fine. D.
graphic. E. visual.
24. Osuofia, Egwu oney eze are comedy names of Mr _____. A. Bob Manuel Udokwu. B. Kanayo O Kanayo.
C. Nkem Owoh. D. Peter Edochie.

25. Two types of makeup are ______ and _____ make up. A. close, gap. B. pence, running. C. peroration,
sweet. D. rub, smooth. E. straight, character.
26. Two types of drama are _____ and _____. A. bold, tiny. B. dictated, not dictated. C. scripted, non-scripted.
Standard, below standard. E. willed not willed.
27. Musical work of a trained musician is called ____ music. A. art. B. ceremonial. C. dirge. D. folk. E. martial.
28. A five note scale is called. A. chromatic. B. diatonic. C. minor. D. pentatonic. E. whole tone.
29. A shaded note is called. A. crotchet. B. demi semi quaver. C. minim. D. quaver. E. semi.
30. The scale which comprises semi tones only is ___ scale. A. chromatic. B. harmonic minor. C. major. D.
minor. E. pentatonic.
31. A piece of music for four voices or instruments is called ________
32. A performance by two persons is known as _______________.
33. The re-writing of a piece of music from one type of notation into another is called ______
34. How many notes has a diatonic scale?
35. Two early forms of music are _______ and ________.
36. Cast and crew in a drama is controlled by the stage ___________.
37. “Okwu Nkasi obi” composed by. A. David Okongwu. B. Ikoli Harcourt Whyte.C. Theophilus Ekundays Philip.
D. Osita Osadebe. E. Victor Uwaifor.
38. A local musical instruments for disseminating information is the community is ________
39. “Ikwokilikwo” is a brand of high life music among the ____________
40. A play that the theatre, radio or television is called _________.

SECTION B: (Answer THREE questions only)

1. Define Choreography. (B) State the three element of choreography. (C) List 2 components of cultural and
creative art
2. What is Shading? (B) Write any two important of shading. (C) With the aids of a diagram illustrate any two
types of shading methods. (D) List 2 (two) functions of Nigerian traditional art works
3. Explain the following art term. l. Mosaic. ll .Collage. lll. Studio. IV. Still life. (B) List the six classes of colour.
(C) Sketch and label a colour wheel including three primaries and three secondary colours
4. Design simply means ----------. (B) List 4 principles of design. (C) Differentiate between scale and modulation
5. Define Musical Forms? ll. Mention 3 types musical form. lll. State 3 uses of motif.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: CULTURAL AND CREATIVE ARTS. J. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.
1. The drawing or painting of human being emphasizing mainly the face is called. A. half-view. B. portrait. C.
full view. D. figure drawing. E. smudging.
2. An object used in forming designs in fabrics is called. A. square. B. motif. C. carpet. D. paint. E. spatula.
3. Identify the clef sing below. A. C. B. D. C. E. D. F. E. G.
4. The loudness and lowness of sound is. A. pitch. B. timbre. C. duration. D. harmony. E. intensity.
5. The flute belongs to the family of. A. storing. B. woodwind. C. percussion. D. brass. E. horn.
6. One of these is not a musical period. A. classical. B. barque. C. renaissance. D. romantic. E. ritoneto.
7. A drama where the actors wear masks is what drama. A. comic. B. folktale. C. tragic-comedy. D.
masquerade. E. tragedy.
8. The main female actress in a play is. A. hero. B. heros. C. hora. D. actress. E. heroine.
9. Pick out the odd item. A. reading. B. blocking. C. polishing. D. dressing. E. educating.
10. Three people performance is known as. A. solo. B. septet. C. duet. D. quartet. E. trio.
11. Drama does the following except. A. educate. B. inform. C. supervise. D. enlighten. E. entertain.
12. The early-man believed that the pictures of animals painted on the wall will ___ the animal. A. beautify. B.
scare. C. fight. D. affect. E. attract.
13. Clay mixed in watery form called slip is used to. A. make waves for decoration. B. mend cracks and join two
parts together. C. make glaze material. D. make glaze pottery with designs.
14. The following are products of local crafts, except. A. hats. B. beads. C. mats. D. basket. E. cabinets.
15. The three domains of arts are liberals performing and ____. A. visual. B. theatre. C. drama. D. music. E.
fashion
16. Lightness or darkness of a colour is referred to as. A. intensity. B. hue. C. tone. D. shade. E. value.
17. Which of these instruments also serves as healing instrument. A. rattle. B. flute. C. wooden gong. D.
musical. E. metal gong.
18. Fabric decoration is a ____ dimensional art. A. one. B. three. C. five. D. two. E. four.
19. All are forms of drama except. A. written drama. B. folklore drama. C. satire. D. mask drama. E. musical
drama.
20. Which among these is music without voice. A. instrumental. B. vocal. C. pop. D. classical. E. none.
21. The type of music handed down from generation to generation is. A. juju. B. disco. C. atrobeat. D.
traditional. E. highlife.
22. Which of the following beats is in ¾ times. A. B. OOO. C. ♪♪♪. D. EEE.
23. Two basic types of drama is. A. dance and sing drama. B. youth and young. C. scripted and unscripted. D.
town and village drama. E. all of the above.
24. Activities involved in rehearsal are. A. acting. B. reading. C. expressing. D movement. E. all.
25. The composition made from thought are known as. A. figure drawing. B. landscape. C. still life. D.
imaginative drawing. E. none of the above.
26. In drama the final settlement of problems or quarrels is called. A. reversal. B. reality. C. fiction. D.
resolution. E. conflict.
27. People that go to the theatre to watch drama is called. A. group. B. mob. C. entourage. D. audience. E.
congregation.
28. How many semitones are in a minor 3rd? A. 10. B. 7. C. 5. D. 2. E. 3.
29. A drama is usually arranged into. A. chapter and pages. B. dialogue and discussion. C. act and scenes. D.
stage and set. E. scenes and dialogue.
30. Two types of notation are. A. solfa and staff. B. lines and space. C. treble and bass. D. keys and
signatures. E. tones/semitones.
31. Introduction to a play is called. A. prologue. B. pun. C. epilogue. D. simile. E. plot.
32. A gradual range of tone from light to dark in a picture r drawing is. A. tonal. B. shade. C. tone. D. tint. E.
colour.
33. The writer of a drama is known as. A. a poet. B. artist. C. an author. D. playwright. E. choreographer.
34. Art materials are all except. A. chalk. B. crayon. C. brush. D. colour. E. cement.
35. The person who conducts rehearsals and selects actors that will act in a play is the. A. director. B. producer.
C. manager. D. technical manager. E. stage manager.
36. The imitation and impersonation of a character in a drama known as. A. diction. B. comedy. C. element. D.
partner. E. acting.
37. A particular time or period when all the casts prepare or practice before presenting, drama to public is. A.
performance. B. practice. C. rehearsal. D. reading. E. production.
38. How high or low a musical sound is called. A. pitch. B. melody. C. music. D. staff. E. clef.
39. A play for the theatre, radio or television is. A. dance. B. play. C. drama. D. singing. E. music.
40. Popular music originated in Nigeria in ____. A. 1990. B. 1950. C. 2020. D. 1960. E. 1963.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer TRHEE questions)
1. Briefly explain the history of NKO art or IGBO UKWU art with its charactertics.
2. Differentiate between mosaic and collages and its procedurces. (B) list the materials for both.
3. What is Modulation? (b) State 4 types of Modulation. (c) Explain one.
4. Define African Popular Music. (b) Who is a Ministrel? (c) Who composed Nigerian national anthem.
5. State different types of singing. (b) Explain one. (c) list 4 categories of human voice.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: CULTURAL AND CREATIVE ARTS. J. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS
1. A play for theatre radio or television is called. A. art. B. song. C. craft. D. drama. E. music.
2. In a drama, those things we can see with our eyes like costume are referred to as. A. noise. B. sound. C.
vision. D. dance. E. play.
3. A person that writes or create drama is called. A. creator. B. play write. C. composer. D. carver. E.
conductor.
4. The method of writing music down onpaper is known as. A. cadence. B. modulation. C. notation. D.
transportation. E. configuration.
5. Music is the language of the ____. A. birds. B. people. C. youth. D. soul. E. folla.
6. Piano was invented in classical period by a man known as. A. Pitch. B. Critofon. C. Cabal. D. Figurine. E.
William Byrd.
7. A clef sign is written at the ____ of the staff. A. beginning. B. second line. C. middle. D. end. E. fifth.
8. Broken cord is called. A. arpeggio. B. car. C. beat. D. time. E. raid.
9. Oja (flute) is classified under ____. A. aeroplane. B. chordophone. C. idiophone. D. percussion. E. wood.
10. The movement of the body with steps to the rhythm of music is called. A. line. B. dance. C. song. D. pitch.
E. sharp.
11. Which among these is not a basic principle of design. A. balance. B. contrast. C. line. D. proportion. E.
rhythm.
12. Drawing teaches a student to be ____. A. carefree. B. careful. C. obedient. D. observant. E. oversight.
13. An artist makes use of donkey char when ____. A. designing. B. drawing. C. moulding. D. pinching. E.
throwing.
14. A basic colour wheel contains a set of ____ colour. A. five. B. six. C. nine. D. ten. E. twelve.
15. The drawing of a human figure from head to toe is referred to as. A. life. B. outline. C. portrait. D. torso. E.
silhouette.
16. Visual art is divided into _____. A. carving and printing. B. ceramic and dancing. C. fine applied art. D.
literature and poetry. E. sculpture and painting.
17. One of these is associated with dramatic art. A. ceramics. B. graphics. C. music. D. painting. E. sculpture.
18. Drawing can only exist with the use of. A. colour. B. label. C. light. D. line. E. studies.
19. _____ is the cheapest and commonest tool for the artiest. A. charcoal. B. crayon. C. drawing pen. D. lead
pencil. E. sable brush.
20. The agreeable combination of two or more colours put side by side is called _____ complimentary.
21. Colour CANNOT be obtained from one of the following sources. A. flower. B. fruits. C. leaf. D. root. E.
wax.
22. One of the method is a way for attracting some through art __. A. visit to museum. B. selling of car. C.
trafficking of human beings. D. drawing of art work.
23. A curator is a person that in a ___. A. shop. B. market. C. kitchen. D. stone. E. museum.
24. There are _____ categories of human voice. A. 2. B. 3. C. 4. D. 5. E. 8.
25. Goje is to Hausa as Uba akwara is to ___. A. Efila. B. Hausa. C. Igbira. D. Igbo. E. Yoruba.
26. The number of beats in a bar is always indicated at the beginning of a piece of music and it is called. A. cuff.
B. key signature. C. notes. D. pitch. E. time signature.
27. A drama with music is called on ___. A. cantata. B. dirge. C. hymn. D. opera. E. oratorio
28. Singing done by one voice or instrument is called. A. quartet. B. quintet. C. solo. D. trio. E. une.
29. A local music instrument for disseminating information in the community is called. A. Ekpili. B. Ekwe. C.
Igba. D. Oja. E. Une
30. Music originated from the following sources except. A. clapping. B. speech. C. running. D. tapping of feet.
E. singing.
31. Ikwokilikwo na Ikenga is a branch of high life music of the. A. Ejila. B. Hausa. C. Ibios. D. Igbo. E. Yoruba.
32. Which among the following does not belong to leather work? A. bag. B. basket. C. drum. D. sandal. E.
seat cover.
33. Pieces of paper soaked in water, beaten into pulp and mixed with starch is called. A. paper march. B. plaster
of Paris. C. plasticise. D. pulp. E. starch.
34. The drawing from our thought is called. A. landscape. B. nature drawing. C. magnetive drawing. D.
seascape. E. life drawing.
35. When white is added to a colour the result is. A. tint. B. tone. C. shadow. D. shade. E. composed.
36. The palette knife is to the ___ as trowel is to sculptor. A. sculpture. B. painter. C. drawing. D. ceramics. E.
graphics.
37. The art of creating art works with the use of palm frond, cane, grasses, and raffia palm is called. A. basket
making. B. calabash decoration. C. carving. D. weaving.
38. Those things that are consumed in the process of producing art works are called. A. crafts. B. materials. C.
paints. D. tools.
39. The differences between time art and applied art is in the. A. carpenter. B. ceramist. C. designed. D.
painter. E. function.
40. Drawing and paintings in books are called. A. illustrations. B. patterns. C. sketches. D. templates.
SECTION B: THEORY (AnswerTHREE questions)
1. What is Cultural and Creative Arts? (B) State 3 components of cultural and creative Arts. (C) List 3 materials
which an artist use.
2. Define Music? (B) Give any 3 elements of music. (C) Explain 2. D. State 2 uses of music.
3. ART”simply means (B) Mention 3 branches of art. (C) Briefly explain how art has been started.
4. Write a short note on any 3 of the following; I. Craft. II. Visual. III. Performing art. IV. Literary art. V. Customs
and traditions.
5. Explain what you understand about paper march (mesh).
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: FOODS AND NUTRITION S. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.
(OBJECTIVES)
1. Accident can be prevented in the kitchen by. A. cleaning of the working table. B. getting rid of pest. C.
cleaning of kitchen equipment. D. arranging the kitchen equipment.
2. The equipment used to collect scraps of food inside the sink. A. sink collector. B. sink basket. C. sink bag.
D. sink stopper.
3. Which of these is essential in the regulation of body temperature. A. carbohydrate. B. fats and oils. C.
protein. D. water.
4. Creating awareness of new product or service is called. A. publicity. B. service awareness. C. creativity. D.
consumer education.
5. Milk is added to tea in order to. A. improve its colour. B. reduce the caffeine. C. increase the tannin. D. add
nutrient.
6. Which of the following helps in jam setting. A. lemon juice. B. mango juice. C. guava juice. D. pineapple
juice.
7. Peptin is to fruit as gluten is to. A. bread. B. flour. C. jam. D. milk.
8. How can vitamin C be added to reheated food. A. by adding flavour and seasoning. B. by serving Fanta. C.
by serving fresh fruits and vegetable. D. by adding milk and sugar.
9. Specialists who apply the knowledge of nutrition to people in health and disease are called. A. doctors. B.
midwives. C. dietician. D. nurse.
10. When a cook wants to keep the moisture in fries rechaufe dish he/she use. A. coating. B. blanching. C.
skinning. D. gashing.
11. The heat treatment of food to kill pathogenic micro-organism only is called. A. evaporation. B. sternzation.
C. pasteurization. D. steaming.
12. A beverage that is prepared by boiling is. A. fruit drink. B. tea. C. cocoa. D. milk shake.
13. Which of the following method is used in preserving foods. A. grilling. B. roasting. C. drying. D. steaming.
14. The protein of wheat flour is. A. albumin. B. gluten. C. renin. D. caisea.
15. The process of keeping food cold is called. A. freezing. B. refrigerating. C. cooling. D. storing.
16. Palm wine can be used as a raising agent because. A. it contains alcohol. B. contains air. C. contains
yeast. D. contains backing powder.
17. Pulses are important mainly for. A. locto – vegetarians. B. adolescents. C. manual worker. D. strict
vegetarians.
18. Which of these can be classified as all-purpose cutting equipment in the kitchen. A. pallet knife. B. vegetable
knife. C. bread knife. D. cooks knife.
19. Which of these is essential in the regulation of body temperature. A. carbohydrate. B. fats and oils. C.
protein. D. water.
20. All these foods are finger foods except. A. popcorn. B. chin chin. C. jollof rice. D. plantain chips.
21. Rickets in children is a disease caused by lack of. A. iron. B. protein. C. vitamin. D. iodine.
22. When food goes off season, they becomes. A. cheap. B. costly. C. nutritious. D. unhygienic.
23. Person who carry out strenuous work is a. A. vegetarian. B. manual worker. C. sedentary worker. D.
convalescent.
24. Process of melting sugar over fire is. A. melting. B. gelatinization. C. caramelization. D. dextrinization.
25. Removal of unwanted properties from our home is. A. waist disposed. B. west disposal. C. waste disposal.
D. wet disposal.
26. Formular for carbohydrates is. A. C12 H12 O6. B. C6 H12 O3. C. C6 H12 O6. D. 2C6 H12 O6. E. C12 H12 O6.
27. Which of the following deficiency disease. A. malaria. B. Aids. C. kwashiorkor. D. measles.
28. Bulk purchase is more. A. economical. B. wasteful. C. penshable. D. expensive.
29. The iodine test is used to determine the presence of. A. proteins. B. starch. C. vitamins. D. fats and oil.
30. The following group of food is suitable for a strict vegetarian. A. beans, soy, cheese and lentils. B. beans,
milk and egg. C. lentils, egg and milk. D. milk, cheese and beans.
31. The items do not carry manufacturers name or quality grade are. A. generic brands. B. generic bands. C.
local brands. D. imported brands.
32. A diabetic patient requires a supplementary of. A. vitamins. B. insulin. C. iron. D. adrenaline.
33. Labour saving device is used because. A. it saves time and waste energy. B. it waste both time and energy. C. it
saves time and energy. D. none of the above.
34. Which of the following habit should a consumer avoid? A. budgeting before buying. B. bulk purchase. C. company
prices. D. impulsive buying.
35. Which of the following is a suitable accompaniment for beans balls. A. pap. B. macaroni. C. bread sauce. D. mint
sauce.
36. Dextrin is found mainly in. A. grilled liver. B. corn flour pudding. C. toasted bread. D. dried fruit.
37. Which of the following nutrients digestion starts in the mouth. A. protein. B. fats and oils. C. vitamin. D. carbohydrates.
38. Two thirds of the body’s is made up of. A. vitamins. B. proteins. C. carbohydrates. D. water.
39. When additional micro nutrients is added to food during processing, the food is said to be. A. enriched. B. stenlized. C.
homogenized. D. dehydrated.
40. The meat obtained from pig is called. A. mutton. B. beef. C. port. D. chicken.
41. Dried cereals are best stored in. A. boxes. B. silos. C. cupboards. D. refrigerators.
42. A person who takes two oranges every day will not need to take. A. blood tonic. B. iron tablets. C. ascorbic acid. D.
riboflavins.
43. The acid found in orange is known as. A. tartaric acid. B. citric acid. C. fruit acid. D. hydrochloric acid.
44. The richness of cake depends chiefly upon the proportion of fats and. A. eggs to flour. B. sugar to flour. C. liquid to
flour. D. milk to flour.
45. Food decay is not caused by. A. bacteria. B. sugar. C. yeast. D. moulds.
46. The difference between whole milk and skimmed milk is that skimmed milk contains less. A. protein. B. mineral. C.
fats. D. carbohydrates.
47. The method of conserving food value in vegetables is to. A. use plenty of liquids. B. use small amount of liquids. C.
bake the food. D. fry the food.
48. Finger foods taken between meals are known as. A. appetizer. B. snack. C. desserts. D. accompaniments.
49. Food products which do not meet the required standard set are regarded as. A. substandard. B. adulterated. C.
misbranded. D. condemned.
50. Items prohibited by regulation not to be imported are. A. brand goods. B. banned goods. C. fortified products. D.
prevented goods.
51. In a formal dinner, the food is usually served by. A. hostess. B. guest. C. waiter. D. cook.
52. Which of the following food service is best for wiping dishes. A. dinner doth. B. floor cloth. C. hand towel. D. kitchen
towel.
53. Which of the following food service is best for wedding ceremonies. A. buffet. B. English. C. informal. D. plate.
54. The main purpose of invalid cookery is to. A. build up tissue and supply protective foods. B. bulk foods. C. give enough
energy food. D. give delicious foods.
55. Food prepared from interior ingredient with the objective of maximizing profit is said to be. A. additive. B. misbranded.
C. banned. D. adulterated.
56. The body in charge of regulating and maintaining the production and sale of wholesome foods and drugs in Nigeria is.
A. NAFDAC. B. DFRRI. C. SON. D. NTIT.
57. Some fruits and vegetables contains vitamin A in form of. A. protein. B. sulphur. C. niacin. D. carotene.
58. Foods should be labelled before storing to. A. keep it from moulds. B. prepare it for storage. C. identify it easy. D.
facilitate easy storage.
59. Meal service whereby guest serve themselves is. A. a buffet. B. plate. C. English. D. compromise.
60. Lipids are compound of. A. fats. B. protein. C. sugar. D. starch.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer any FOUR questions)
1. Explain the following term;
(a) Family Budget.
(b) (b) Meal Planning. (c) Price List.
(c) (d) EFCC (e) ICPC. (f) List four steps in making a budget.
2. What do you understand by penshable and non-penshable foods?
(b) Give four reasons for food preservation.
(c) Mention four caused of food spoilage.
3. Outline four cause of accident in the kitchen.
(b) Give a brief explanation of first aid treatment.
(c) Mention six content of first aid box.
(d) List 4 ways you can prevent food borne disease.
4. Define the term Beverages.
(b) Explain the classification of non-alcoholic beverages.
(c) Mention four reasons for re-heating foods.
(d) State three methods used to tenderize tough meat.
5. Write short note on each of the following; (a) Food habit.
(b) Food taboo. (c) Food fad. (d) Food fallacy.
(e) Mention 4 factors that influence food habits.
DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: FOODS AND NUTRITION S. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.
(OBJECTIVES)
1. Which of the following large kitchen equipment should be placed near each other. A. cooker and cupboard.
B. freezer and refrigerator. C. sink and cabinet. D. cooker and sink.
2. The points to consider when planning a suitable kitchen floor include all of the following except. A. colour. B.
ease of cleaning. C. durability. D. non-slippery.
3. Which of these are the substance that produces gas in flour mixture which cause them to rise and become
lighter. A. cleaning agents. B. raising agents. C. lightning agent. D. emulsifying agent.
4. Which of the following is used for straining washed vegetable. A. pestle. B. kettle. C. colander. D. sieves.
5. The process of planning, organising, implementing and evaluating the use of time in order to accomplish or
perform a certain tax is. A. voluntary time. B. resources. C. time management. D. money management.
6. One of these is used to cut vegetables. A. knife. B. grater. C. chopping board. D. blender.
7. Which of the following is not a mechanical equipment. A. mixer. B. peeler. C. mincer. D. mortar.
8. One of these does not form shadows. A. artificial light. B. fluorescent. C. filament. D. sun light.
9. Which of the following should have hard wearing. A. sitting room. B. kitchen. C. floor. D. ceiling.
10. Which of the following is non-alcoholic beverage. A. coffee. B. palm wine. C. beer. D. dry gin.
11. All these are kitchen equipment except. A. a hoe. B. folk. C. working surface. D. bowl.
12. The proportion of the original grain in flour is. A. high extraction. B. low rate. C. wheat. D. extraction rate.
13. The powder derived from ground cereal is. A. dust. B. chaff. C. cereal powder. D. flour.
14. The equipment that are usually fixed to the wall or to a position is. A. large equipment. B. utensils. C.
mechanical. D. industrial equipment.
15. The reduction of energy as a result of physical or mental stress is. A. energy. B. fatigue. C. work. D. time
management.
16. Accidents can be prevented in the kitchen by. A. cleaning the utensils. B. arranging the equipment. C.
getting rid of pests. D. using attractive equipment.
17. Kitchen hygiene is practiced so that. A. the kitchen will look attractive. B. kitchen work can be done faster.
C. feeding the family will be cheaper. D. family’s health will be ensured.
18. A burn is ____. A. caused by hot liquid. B. caused by sharp objects. C. caused by dry heat. D. caused by
steam.
19. Which of these would not influence the size of an industrial kitchen. A. amount of money. B. number of
workers. C. culture of the society. D. ventilation required.
20. Which of the following cleaning agents is recommended to prevent the blockage of sink outlet. A. iron
sponge. B. steel wool. C. nylon. D. local sponge.
21. Fruits and vegetables are added to reheated dishes to. A. make them crisp. B. replace heat sensitive
nutrients. C. make them attractive and moist. D. render them digestible.
22. When food substances carries a false label it is said to be. A. adulterated. B. damaged. C. mishandled. D.
misbranded.
23. An energy giving food is one rich in. A. calcium. B. protein. C. carbohydrates. C. vitamins.
24. Which of these food items is least used in fruit salad. A. banana. B. carrot. C. orange. D. pineapple.
25. Meals serve to an invalid must. A. appetizing and attractive. B. hard and heave. C. without sugar. D. oily.
26. A party where people serve themselves is called. A. lunch. B. buffet. C. cocktail. D. dinner.
27. In planning family menu, the individual must be considered in term of. A. sex name age and likes. B. age
sex occupation and health. C. occupation likes and name. D. health, height and likes.
28. Excess carbohydrates in the body is changed to fats and store in the. A. adipose tissue. B. legs. C. kidney.
D. muscles.
29. The vitamin necessary for the clothing of blood is vitamin ____. A. C. B. A. C. K. D. E.
30. A method of cooking that does not need constant attention is. A. boiling. B baking. C. frying. D. roasting.
31. Raising agents are used in baking the following except. A. bread. B. pea nut. C. puff-put. D. cake.
32. Which of the following prevents goitre. A. iron. B. iodine. C. potassium. D. calcium.
33. Which of the following is the greatest global concern. A. micro nutrient deficiency. B. exclusive breast
feeding. C. HIV/AIDS issue. D. environmental pollution.
34. Pectin is to fruits as gluten is to. A. bread. B. flour. C. jam. D. milk.
35. Which of the following needs is satisfied by food. A. safety. B. educational. C. biological. D. psychological.
36. A scald is simply. A. an injury caused by sharp object. B. a wound caused by hot liquid. C. wound caused
by nail. D. an injury caused by dry hot object.
37. Which of these is a nutrition career. A. pharmacy. B. welfare service. C. optomology. D. dietetics.
38. The term pasteurization is used in the preparation of. A. tea. B. milk. C. coffee. D. chocolate.
39. For easy digestion serve invalids with. A. fried egg. B. scrambled egg. C. poach egg. D. hardboiled egg.
40. Exclusive breast feeding is recommended for babies for the first. A. three months. B. six months. C. four
months. D. five months.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer any FOUR questions)
1. Differential between time and energy management.
(b) Explain the work time and non-work time.
(c) State two examples each, of work time and non-work time.

2. State ten guidelines in time and energy management.

3. What is Labour Saving Device?
(b) Outline two labour saving devices and their uses.
(c) Mention two importance of labour saving devices.

4. Write short note on the following types of flour.

i. whole wheat flour,
ii. Self-raising flour,
iii. All-purpose flour,
iv. Composite flour. (b) What is Flour?

5. Define Kitchen.
(b) Mention three types of kitchen equipment and give two examples of each.
(c) Outline four factors to consider when buying kitchen equipment.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: FOODS AND NUTRITION S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.
(OBJECTIVES)
1. The chief source of sodium chlonde is? A. salted water. B. salted meat. C. table salted. D. bite salted. E.
all of above.
2. The basic unit of protein is made of is. A. glucose. B. fatty acids. C. amino acid. D. glycerol. E. nutrient.
3. The greatest problem facing children of the developing countries is. A. mineral – vitamin malnutrition. B.
calcium – phosphorous malnutrition.
4. One of these vitamin is responsible for clothing of blood. A. vitamin C. B. Vitamin D. C. vitamin K. D.
vitamin A.
5. Goitre is cause by lack of. A. calcium. B. iodine. C. magnesium. D. riboflavin. E. thiamine.
6. The chemical name for vitamin C is. A. thiamine. B. riboflavin. C. abscorbic acid. D. calceferol. E. niacin.
7. Heating sugar until it is completely brown in colour is known as. A. caramelization. B. gelatinization. C.
dextrinization. D. charinization. E. coagulation.
8. When fats spoils and loses its natural taste, it is said to be. A. soggy. B. sodden. C. rancid. D. saturated.
E. hydrogenated.
9. Vitamins and mineral are ____ food. A. protective. B. body cement. C. energy producing. D. body building.
E. body insulating.
10. The nutrient most easily destroyed during the preparation and cooking of vegetable is. A. protein. B. fat. C.
vitamin A. D. vitamin D. D. vitamin C.
11. The name given to sugar milk is. A. sucrose. B. lactose. C. maltose. D. fructose. E. stachyose.
12. Which of the following is a source of first class protein. A. beans. B. meat. C. cereals. D. legumes.
13. Sores and crakes of the corner of the mouth are caused by deficiency of. A. protein. B. vitamin C. C. mineral
salt. D. iron.
14. The study of food/nutrition can prepare a person for the following careers; i. teaching, ii. Fashion & designer,
iii. Interior decoration, iv. Preaching. A. I and iii. B. I, ii and iii. C. ii and iv. D. iii only.
15. One of these is essential in regulation of body temperature. A. folic acid. B. carbohydrate. C. protein. D.
fats and oil.
16. Poor vision is caused by inadequate supply of. A. vitamin C. B. vitamin D. C. vitamin K. D. vitamin A.
17. Mineral salt that helps for normal growth and sexual maturity and development of the sense of taste is called.
A. vitamin K. B. water. C. calcium. D. zinc.
18. The nutrients that helps in the healing of wound easily is. A. vitamin B. B. calcium. C. fluorine. D. salts.
19. Nutrients that keeps the luring of the membrane of the organs moist and hence reduces friction. A. water. B.
sodium. C. sulphur. D. carbohydrate.
20. One of these is not a cooking fuel. A. saw dust. B. gas. C. kerosene. D. petrol.
21. Which of the following nutrients helps in development of strong teeth and bones. A. calcium. B. bone. C.
iron. D. protein.
22. Which of the following is not a food nutrient. A. carbohydrate. B. fats and oil. C. water. D. hydrogen.
23. The major nutrient found in meat is. A. carbohydrate. B. fats and oil. C. nutrient. D. protein.
24. Which of the following nutrients protects the body against diseases. A. fats and protein. B. mineral and
carbohydrates. C. vitamins and mineral. D. fats and carbohydrate.
25. Nutrients are chemical substances. A. found in plants only. B. absorbed by nature. C. found in animals. D.
found in foods.
26. A disease condition that results when the nutrients are not consumed in the correct proportion as required by
the body. A. weakness. B. fatty. C. malnutrition. D. diet.
27. Any solid or liquid which when swallowed digested and absorbed by the body provides with materials to
repair growth, energy is called. A. chemicals. B. diet. C. food. D. nutrition.
28. When diet contains all the nutrient in the required proportion is called. A. nutrient. B. deficiency. C. balanced
diet. D. food.
29. Nutrient that keeps the luring of the membrane of the organs moist and hence reduces friction. A. water. B.
sodium. C. sulphur. D. carbohydrate.
30. The nutrients most easily destroyed during the preparation of cooking of vegetable is. A. protein. B. fat. C.
vitamin A. D. vitamin D. E. vitamin C.
31. The term “Sunshine vitamin” refers to vitamin. A. C. B. D. C. A. D. K. E. G.
32. The emymes that act on starch in the mouth are____? A. trysim. B. amylase. C. pepsin. D. ptyalin. E.
erepsin.
33. To test for presence of carbohydrate in a food, one uses ____ to test. A. iodine. B. millions. C. blotting
paper. D. benedict. E. Fehling.
34. To digest of carbohydrate starts in the ____. A. stomach. B. mouth. C. intestine. D. gullet. E. pancreas.
35. The deficiency disease for vitamin C is. A. pellagra. B. beriberi. C. scurvy. D. anaemia. E. goitre.
36. ____ makes food a protein? A. carbon. B. hydrogen. C. oxygen. D. phosphorus. E. nitrogen.
37. ____ uses food as a therapy to cure sickness. A. dietician. B. hotel manager. C. food engineer. D.
agriculturist. D. teacher.
38. Foods and nutrition is related to all these subject except. A. biology. B. psychology. C. Igbo. D. physics. E.
agriculture.
39. ____ is the science of food value. A. physics. B. chemistry. C. food and nutrition. D. home management.
E. clothing and textile.
40. The basic unit of which protein is made up of is ___. A. glucose. B. fatty acids. C. amino acid. D. glycerol.
E. nutrient.
SECTION B: THEORY (Section A is compulsory)
1. Define the term Food. (b) List six classes of food & Nutrition. (c) Define the term Nutrition. (d) State 4
factors that affect food & nutrition.
Section B: Answer one question
2. State 4 careers in food & nutrition. (b) List 4 Inter-relationship of food & nutrition. (c) Mention 3 main group of
carbohydrate. (d) State 4 function of carbohydrate.

3. List 4 sources of protein. (b) State four function of protein. (c) What is Kitchen? (d) List 6 kitchen equipment
you know. (c) Write 3 roles of water in digestion.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: HISTORY J. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS
1. Igbo are expert in ___. A. Pottery. B. Fishing. C. Carving. D. Metal work. E. Farming.
2. “History of Ebira was compiled from ___ a war commander of Ebia land. A. Uga. B. Itaazi. C. Ododdo. D. Atta
Omadini. E. Raji Abadallah.
3. Igbo Ukwu is particularly good in ___
4. And _____ while Awka was famous town known in
5. _________. A. Bronze, black smithing, copper. B. Copper, gold, bronze. C. Bronze, copper, blacksmithing.
6. Another name for eche are which is an annual masquerade festival celebrated in Ebia land is. A. Ododo. B. Women
festival. C. A ketape. D. New yam festival.
7. During this Eche ovi festival ____ featured prominently. A. Suitors. B. Female snipers. C. Lovers. D. Cassanova.
8. Among the fute pure states were igbo f today lived with the exception of one ___. A. Anambra. B. Enugu. C. Abia. D.
Igbo. E. Kogi.
9. According to the “Professor Thurstan Shaw, he said that some ancient igbo people settled in ___ earlier than 9 th century.
A. Agulu. B. Igboukwu. C. Oraukwu. D. Aniukwu. E. Agulu Uzo Igbo.
10. All these are non-centralized states except. A. Idoma. B. Igbo. C. Oyo. D. Idoma. E. Urhobo.
11. Kings or rulers were not seen in ____ states. A. Centralized state. B. Non-centralized state.
12. According to some anthropologist, the early igbo settlements started at Anambra statw in ____ whil in Imo state it started
in
13. ______. A. Nri, mbaise. B. Nri, mbano. C. Nri, isiama. D. Nri, mbaitolu. E. Nri, orlu.
14. Idoma people had their neighbours which are the following except. A. Igala. B. Ojaja. C. Igede. D. Tiv. E. Birom.
15. Tiv people were mostly known as ___. A. Miners. B. Hair dressers. C. Farmers. D. Barbers. E. Builders.
16. The age range of the smallest and youngest age in urhobo is ____. A. 25 years. B. 20 years. C. 30 years and 18 years.
17. The smallest and youngest age grade was called. A. Otu initate. B. Otu Ekpako. C. Otu iletu. D. Okpako overe.
18. Oro which is their dialect language was originated by them not ____. A. Spoken. B. Borrowed. C. Dialogued. D.
Understood.
19. Oron is known well richly in ____
20. And ______. A. Oil and natural gas. B. Oil and salt. C. Natural gas and salt. D. Natural gas and cassava.
21. Ovo people addording to some instorians migrated from ___. A. Akwa Ibom. B. Cameroun. C. Cotonou.
22. The only tribe with few similarities to oro language are ____
23. And _____. A. Annang, Ijaw. B. Annang, Ibibio. C. Tiv and Ibibio.
24. With the unique hospitality of oron people their arts, rids diet, oil an gas, minerals attracts ___ and
25. ______. A. Tourism, commerce. B. Tourism, borrowing. C. Commerse exchange.
26. Oron people were seen setting sown in the present location known as _____. A. Abeokuta. B. Akwa Ibom. C. Abia
State. D. Adamawa. E. River State.
27. Their culture were richly expressed in ___ folk tale and dance. A. Songs, fable and dances. B. Songs, folktale and
dresses. C. Songs, folktale and dance.
28. Ovon’s colourful mode od traditional dressing were ____ in colour. A. Blue. B. Black. C. Red. D. White.
29. Another chnge seen during the share trade was the emergence of ___. A. Canoe system. B. Canoe.
30. Oron union was founded in ___. A. 1945. B. 1935. C. 1925. D. 1915.
31. Ovon people had one king that rules over the land and the king is known as -___. A. Abta Ovo. B. Ataha Ovo. C. Abata
Ovo.
32. ____ being the highest unit was headed by a traditional leader called
33. ______. A. Ikpaisong, bon Ikpaisong. B. Ikpaisong, Esop Ikpaisong. C. Ikpaisong, Ibion.
34. Ibibion practiced ____ agriculture. A. Subsistence. B. Industrial. C. Consumer.
35. Palm oil processing yield _____ income in Ibibion. A. Much. B. Little. C. Small.
36. Anangs suffered ____ in the Nigerian civil war. A. Suicide. B. Genocide. C. Murder.
37. The war lasted for _____ years. A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
38. ____ is practiced in Amang. A. Monogamy. B. Polygamy.
39. Performance of a masquerade after the yam harvest was to mark the visit of ____ or
40. ______. A. Ancestral spirit or ikpo. B. Ancestral spirit or Ekpo. C. Ancestors or Ekpa spirit.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer THREE questions)
1. Define Stateless Society? (b) Explain how Igbo relations with other Nigeria like “The Idoma” are?
2. The word Ghana means _____ and their kings were also called ______ meaning _____. (b) List 2 factors for the rise of
Ghana Empire.
3. State 2 factors for the rise of Mali Empire. (b) Mali Empire flourished because of _____.
4. Write short story on Fulani
5. Mention 3 factors for inter-relationships.
DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: HISTORY J. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS
1. _____ deals with the origin of human beings and records of important development. A. English. B.
Mathematics. C. C.R.S. d. History.
2. The lake was formed by the tfears of a God is an example of. A. Folktales. B. Legends. C. Language. D.
Ideological history.
3. A story is a ____. A. Narrative. B. Past. C. Myths. D. Folktales.
4. Natural and cultural places of attraction with legendary historic values are known as. A. Folklores. B. Myths.
C. Tourist sites. D. None of the above.
5. Old traditional story from a particular place that was originally passed on to people in a spoken form is known
as. A. Fables. B. Legals. C. Myths. D. Folktales.
6. All are categories of stories except. A. Museum. B. Fables. C. Legends. D. Myths.
7. ________,
8. _________ and
9. ________ are three major sources of history.
10. ________ are students thesis whereby students carry out their researches. A. Bulletin. B. Library. C.
Student projects. D. Text books.
11. _______,
12. ________ and
13. _______ are example of primary sources of history.
14. As libraries are for books, museums are for ______. A. Brothers and sisters. B. Banks and cashiers. C.
Markets and stores. D. Artifacts and sculptures.
15. One of the importance of history to the nation is. A. Promotion of nationalism and patriotism. B. Cause
conflict and discord. C. Produce food for the poor. D. None of the above.
16. ______
17. And _____ are historical sters in Nigeria.
18. _______,
19. ________ and
20. ______ are examples of secordary sources of history.
Mention states where these festivals are carried out.

21. New yam festivals

22. Ofala festival

23. Calabar

24. Lagos

25. Osun

26. When History is classified bassed on peoples belief, it is called. A. Technological development. B.
Ideological History. C. Period or time. D. None of the above.
27. Chronological record of History is classified. A. Period or time. B. Civilization. C. Subject history. D.
Geographical history.
28. When history records the beginning and development of a subject, it is classified as _____ History.
29. _______,
30. ______
31. And _____ are examples of tertiary sources of history.

Write five states where these museums are located.

Museums States Located

32. Ife museum

33. Odinani museum

34. National museum

35. Benin museum

36. Didi museum

37. ______,
38. ______,
39. _______and
40. _______ are ways through which we can access source of history.

SECTION B: THEORY (Answer ALL questions)

1. Explain the meaning of History. (b) State four differences between history and story telling.
2. Explain four ways through history can be accessed.
3. State four characteristics of history.
4. Mention five classification of History and explain three.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES J. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.
1. God as the controller of the universe is expressed by prophet ___ as a potter. A. Amos. B. Hosea. C.
Isaiah. D. Jeremiah.
2. We have ___ account of creation in the bible. A. 1. B. 2. C. 4. D. 5.
3. Two types of sin are ____. A. actualisation and punctuality sin. C. regret human sin. D. father and mother.
D. original and actual sin.
4. The primary purpose of marriage is. A. love. B. companionship. B. to reduce HIV. C. AIDS and other sin. D.
procreation.
5. The name of God by hupe people is ___. A. osanabua. B. soko. C. abasi. D. egbesu.
6. Shintoism is the religion of the. A. Jews. B. Chinese. C. Indian. D. japan.
7. “Sabbath is made for man not man for Sabbath”. This means that. A. man has to follow the Sabbath law
rigidly. B. Sabbath should be a day of blessing for man. C. Sabbath is a holy day of obligation. D. work of
necessity on a Sabbath day.
8. “man is the apes of the creation pyramid2. This mean that man was. A. created like a pyramid. C. used to
level or pyramid. B. asked to live on top of pyramid. C. the climax of God’s creation acting. D. taller than
other animals.
9. According to Paul’s teaching, the relationship between wives and the husband should be as. A. state
demand. B. is fitting in the Lord. C. the husband. D. is written in the book of Moses.
10. God created the world out of. A. matting. B. nothing. C. hand. D. sea.
11. The story of the first human disobedience as recorded on the bible can be seen in. A. Gen. 2. B. Gen. 4. C.
Gen. 3. D. Gen. 1.
12. One of these is not among the things invented by man. A. aeroplane. B. building. C. computer. D.
firmament.
13. The creator of the world is. A. Jesus. B. man. C. Satan. D. God.
14. The means God used in creating the world was. A. spoken woods. B. carving. C. artistic drawing. D. giving
birth.
15. Among all the creatures, the dignity of man stands out clearly because. A. he has flesh and blood. B. he is
capable of marrying. C. he was created in the image and likeness of God. D. he walks with two legs.
16. The statement! be fruitful and multiply, fill and subdue the earth” was made to. A. the sea animals. B. man.
C. beasts. D. Satan.
17. God does not talk to us through one of these ways. A. bible. B. world. C. Teachers.
18. God created the world in. A. 6 days. B. 7 days. C. 4 days. D. 5 days.
19. Violation of existing order by people is called. A. submission. C. obedience. D. covenant.
20. Religion is the belief in. A. custom and baduon of men. B. existence of the super natural being. C. teaching
of the earth leaders. D. world religions.
21. The four branches of the river flower out of Eden and watered the garden include all the following except. A.
Euphrates. B. potion. C. Jordan. E. Tigris.
22. ___ is the act of making or causing something to exist. A. light. B. invention. C. creation. D. marriage.
23. The greatest of all marriage was the marriage of Christ and the. A. church. B. father. C. Rebecca. D. Isaac.
24. Genealogy is the study of family. A. upbringing. B. charisma. C. history. D. occupation.
25. God is omnipotent means that God is. A. all glorious. B. all powerful. C. all merciful.
26. A learnt can also engage in all these learner’s except. A. result forgery. B. indecency. C. rebellion. D.
smoking.
27. All these are STD except. A. syphilis. B. gonorrhoea. C. malaria. D. candidiasis.
28. The first five books of the bible is called. A. Decalogue. B. New Testament. C. Pentateuch.
29. The term ‘Christ’ means. A. saviour. B. anointed. C. song of God. D. son of David.
30. The sin committed by Can was as a result of. A. greed. B. guilt. C. jealousy. D. dishonesty.
31. Prophets with short account in the bible will be attributed to. A. professional prophet. B. minor prophet. C.
major prophets.

32. Which of these writers of the various books in the bible is not an apostle. A. John. B. Luke. C. Matthew. D.
Peter.
33. HIV means ___________
34. We read about God in a book called the. A. encyclopaedia. B. bible. C. diary. D. compendium.
35. The name woman according to Adam in Gen. 2:23 means. A. taken out of man. B. tempter. C. defaulter. D.
all of the above.
36. ___ is the consequences to Adam for his disobedience to the command of God. A.he would lose all he had.
B. in pains she would deliver a child. C. he must not labour before he would eat. D. out of his sweat shall he
eat.
37. Adam hide himself when God called him because he was. A. ashamed. B. busy. C. naked. D. deceived by
his wife.
38. What is the meaning of the name God? A. supreme. B. Holy. C. great. D. Omnipotent.
39. The legal union of man and woman for the purpose of procreation is called. A. association. B. manage. C.
courtship. D. all of the above.
40. On the first day God created. A. seas. B. fish. C. light. D. stars.

SECTION B: THEORY (ANSWER FOUR questions)

1. Explain the term Marriage. (b) Write two responsibilities of (i) Father (ii) Mother (iii) Children. (c) State two
consequences resulting in failure to fufil marriage responsibilities.
2. Who is God? (b) List four world religions. (c) Write five attributes of God.
3. Explain the term Disobedience. (b) Enumerate two punishment meted out for each for their disobedient; (i)
Adam (ii) Eve (iii) Serpent. (c) State two functions of marriage.
4. Explain the term Learner’s Disobedience. (b) List seven ways people violate the national law in Nigeria
today. (c) State two consequences/punishment giving to those who violate the national law in Nigeria.
5. State a sequential biblical account of first creation in Gen. 1. (b) Enumerate four division of old testament.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
2.

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES J. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.
1. One of the early Christian practise of life of fellowship is. A. drinking together. B. gossiping together. C.
praying together. D. murmuring together. E. telling lies.
2. The apostle of flee gentile is. A. barnabars. B. James. C. Paul. D. peter. E. Philip.
3. The name of the person that offered money to peter at Samaria in order to obtain the gift of laying hands on
the people was. A. aenas. B. dymas. C. legion. D. Niger. Simon.
4. Judas Iscariot sealed up his betrayal act with the priest and alders by saying “whosoever I shall ___ the same
is he? A. dine with. B. hold. C. hug. D. kiss. E. laugh with.
5. The victory of Jabil’s army by bank goes to a woman named. A. Deborah. B. Esther. C. jade. D. Naomi. E.
Ruth.
6. By the principal “you cannot serve God and mammon” Jesus warned against. A. divided loyalty. B. hero
worship. C. idol worship. C. worshiping only God. E. worshiping on the high places.
7. When there was murmuring in the church, the apostles said that they cannot leave their first priority and serve
tables.
8. What was their priority? A. eating and drinking. B. going to church all the time. C. organizing the disciples.
D. praying and ministering the world. D. telling the people to come to church. The type of prayer in which we
pray for others. A. adoration. B. dedication. C. intercession. D. petition. E. thanksgiving.
9. Who saw the sweet vision in his room, where God commanded him to kill and eat? A. Bartholomew. B.
barnabars. C. James. D. Paul. E. peter.
10. When Stephen was being stoned, he called up God to. A. kill his offenders. B. punish his offenders. C.
receive his gifts. D. receive his spirit. E. reward the killers.
11. The greatest danger encounter by the early church was. A. frustration. B. hunger. C. isolation. D.
persecution. E. poverty.
12. Many lessor is best remembered for. A. provision of food. B. starting a hospital at calabar. C. stopping of
killing of twins. D. teaching of Guam. E. treatment of small pox.
13. The primary reason why Jesus promised the disciples the Holy Spirit was to. A. ascertain their reaction. B.
fulfil the scripture. C. make apostle happy and relaxed. D. reduce his importance to the disciples. E.
strengthen their faith and courage.
14. Another name for the wise men is. A. angel of God. B. heroes. C. magic. D. shepherd. E. strangers.
15. In the Sermon on the Mount, the only ground for divorce is. A. desertion of the spouse. B. disagreement with
wife. C. infertility of the wife. D. insult on the spouse. E. unfaithfulness in marriage.
16. “If you are the son of God, throw yourself down from the pinnacle of the temple ____ Jesus response was. A.
it is written, only me shall you serve. B. man shall not life by bread alone. C. worship and do not tempt the
lord your God. E. you shall worship the Lord your God.
17. Jesus fed the 5,000 men with _____ loaves of bred and ____ fish. A. two, two. B. three, two. C. four, two.
D. five, two. E. five, five.
18. Jesus deliberately delayed for ____ days before going to Bethany to raise Lazarus from death. A. five. B.
dour. C. one. D. three. E. two.
19. At what hour did Jesus make this statement “Eloi, Eloi lama sabachtham? At the ____ hour? A. 3 rd. b. 6th. C.
7th. D. 8th. E. 9th.
20. The sovereignty of God can be seen in his. A. creation activities. B. faithfulness. C. kindness. D. love of
man. E. mercifulness.
21. At Capernaum for men brought a ___ to Jesus through an opening in the roof of a house. A. blind man. B.
demonic. C. Lameman. D. paralytic man. E. sick man.
22. Jesus forgives one of the criminals who. A. cried. B. knew Jesus. C. repented. D. was not an armed
robber. E. was not guilty.
23. Who is the head of the family? A. aunty. B. children. C. father.D. mother. E. uncle.
24. Deborah, a prophetess who was a judge in Israel was the wife of. A. abjah. B. Joshua. C. lapidoth. D.
Samuel. E. sisera.
25. Hannah prayed to God at the temple in. A. Bethe. B. Gath. C. Jerusalem. D. Samaria. E. Shiloh.
26. In the wilderness, God provided Israelites with special food called. A. bread. B. manna. C. guards. D.
wheat. E. yam.
27. During the exodus, God presence at night with the Hebrew was shown by a. A. bright moon right. B. galaxy
of stems. C. pillars of cloud. D. pillars of light. E. pillars of mood.
28. Dorcas was noted for. A. humility. B. justice. C. kindness. D. love. E. respect fullness.
29. One of the functions of marriage is to. A. have house help and relax. B. help you brain your family. C. live
together without issue. D. make money and build houses. E. produce off spring and train them.
30. We have relationship with God through. A. church meeting. B. dancing gospel music. C. prayer. D. service.
E. seeing vision.
31. The first person Jesus appeared to after resurrection was. A. Esther. B. Mary Magdalene. C. Mary the
mother of Jesus Christ. D. peter. E. Thomas.
32. The Igbo name of God which means “the almighty is. A. agbakwuruezuruike. B. chineke. C. chukwu. D.
chigozoba. E. ikemkwaba.
33. A prophet is not without hour, except in his own country ___ “why was Jesus not respected at Nazareth? The.
A. faled to heal the sick. B. hails from there. C. relates with sinners and publicans. D. was a son of a
carpenter. E. was born in manager at Nazareth.
34. The voice from heaven during the baptism of Jesus signifies God’s. A. conformation of years as his son. B.
delight in the baptism. C. recitation of Jesus right onerousness. D. support for baptism. E. support for the
Holy Spirit.
35. A way of curbing greed in our society is for everybody. A. become educated. B. be contented. C. guide
alms to the poor. D. kill greedy people. E. want some more.
36. In the Sermon on the Mount Jesus said “Blessed are the pure in hearts for. A. there is the kingdom of
heaven. B. they shall be called sons of God”. C. they shall inherit the earth. D. they shall obtain mercy. E.
they shall see God.
37. By the time the cook crowed, peter denied Jesus there time and went and. A. apologized to Jesus. B.
committed suicide. C. laughed a loud. E. thank God. E. wept bitterly.
38. The book which tells us about the beginning of Christianity is the. A. act of apostle. B. epistle. C. genesis.
D. book of mulched. E. gospel.
39. The religion practiced by the northern Indians is. A. Christianity. B. Hinduism. C. Islam. D. Judaism. E.
Shintoism.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer FOUR questions)
1. In what five ways did the disciples share life of fellowship? (b) State five gifts of the Holy Spirit.
2. Mwntion four visible, oudible and invisible signs of the coming of Holy Spirit on the disciples on the day of
Pentecost. (b) Name six names of selected deacon.
3. Write five qualities of people to be appointed as deacons. (b) Mention five signs performed by man of
Samaria that made the Samarians to be converted (achievement od man of samaria).
4. State the seven words of Jesus on the cross. (b) Write the three roles of ministering women in the
resurrection story of Jesus Christ.
5. On the mountain, Jesus improved many laws, mention any of the five laws and improvement made on each.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

3.

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES J. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.
1. The announcement about the birth of Christ to Mary is called. A. call. B. visit. C. announcement.
2. The statement my soul magnifies the lord was made by. A. Simon. B. Mary. C. Thomas. D. James.
3. ___ was the ruler who ordered for the census of the while world. A. john the baptism. B. jame and john. C.
Caesar Augustus. D. Simon.
4. Which country in Africa was Jesus take to when herod wanted to kill him? A. Egypt. B. Bethlehem. C.
church. D. Pharisees.
5. Who was the forerunner of Jesus Christ? A. Herod. B. john the Baptist. C. jame. D. peter.
6. After the baptism of Jesus Christ the spirit of God descended on him in form of a. A. spirit. B. dove. C. devil.
D. revelation.
7. The wise men from the east visited mary and joseph. A. during the birth of Jesus. B. shortly after his birth.
C. was there during the birth of Jesus. D. sleep with joseph and Mary.
8. ___ is the first temptation of Jesus. A. changing stone into bread. B. blesses the stone. C. turn stone into
bread.
9. What exercised did Jesus conclude before he was tempted. A. eating. B. drinking. C. fasting. D. playing
10. Who announced the birth of Jesus Christ? A. Simon. B. john. C. angel peter. D. angel Gabriel.
11. The book which announced the birth and place of Jesus is. A. Micah. B. Mark. C. 1 Peter. D. Luke. E.
Isaiah.
12. One word which summarizes the law of Christ is. A. hope. B. law. C. love. D. freedom.
13. Man became a living being when God. A. created him. B. breathe into him. C. made man the head of the
family. D. created him with dust of the earth.
14. Religion teaches us how to. A. relate with God and man. B. believes in God as the only true God. C.
worship God and serve him. D. sacrifice to God with our whole heart.
15. We can resist temptation through the ___ in us. A. flesh. B. prayer. C. spirit of God. D. intervention.
16. As Christians, our belief in God is by. A. grace. B. love. C. faith. D. peace.
17. “Whose sandals I am not worthily to untie” the speaker meant to say he was not fit to play the role of a. A.
father. B. creator. C. king. D. messiah.
18. The titie “Christ” means. A. son of God. B. anointed. C. saviour. D. son of man.
19. The coming of Jesus Christ will be. A. at night when everybody is asleep. B. at an unknown time. C.
proceeded with rainbow sign. D. pronounced by angles and saints.
20. Mary was astonished by the message of angel Gabriel because she was. A. afraid of the angel. B. still a
virgin. C. to be married to joseph. D. Elizabeth’s cousin.
21. The reward for obeying our parents is. A. riches. B. God’s love. D. long life. D. kindness.
22. Jesus was presented in the temple when he was ___ days old. A. fourty. B. eight. C. thirty. D. fourteen.
23. “Son” why have you treated us so”? A. Mary Magdalene. B. Mary the mother of john. C. Mary the mother of
Jesus. A. Anna the prophetess.
24. The apostle who doubted the resurrection of Jesus was. A. john. B. peter. C. Barnabas. D. Thomas.
25. The gift presented to Jesus by the three wise man were these except. A. gold. B. frankincense. C. myrrh.
D. precious stone.
26. John the Baptist gave people the baptism of. A. blessing. B. holy spirit. C. macry. D. repentance.
27. The food of john the Baptist was. A. apple and honey. B. honey and bread. C. rice and beans. D. locust
and honey.
28. Mary, Jesus and his disciple were invited to a ____ feast in Cana. A. birthday. B. Passover. C. sacrified. D.
wedding.
29. Which of the following is not among the first four disciples? A. judas. B. john. C. peter. D. Luke.
30. Jesus was baptized in. A. river Niger. B. River Benue. C. river Jordan. D. river Eden.
31. In Nigeria today the devil tempts us. A. love people more than God. B. love wealth more than God. C.
influence of friends. D. love father and mother more than God.
32. As students what do we spiritually gain from the study of bibleknowledge? A. understand our relationship
with God and fellow men. B. how to real bible. C. understand father and mother. D. to help your friends.
33. The birth of Jesus in a stable signifies that he would became a ___. A. a poor man. B. saint. C. shepherded.
D. rich man. E. be humble.
34. Another name for the song of Zechariah is. A. Benedictus. B. jubilee deo. C. psalm. D. magnification.
35. Jesus took human form and was born by the Blessed Virgin Mary. This is called. A. formation. B.
resurrection. C. reincarnation. D. conception.
36. Which of these is not a Nigerian name of God? A. Abasi. B. sarki. C. ubangiji. E. oluwa.
37. Give to Caesar what is to Caesar and to God what is God? Refers to. A. civil and Christian law. B. Christian
and rules law. C. civil religious law. D. civil and Jewish law.
38. One of these disciples of Jesus was a tax collector. A. Matthew. B. James. C. peter. D. john.
39. “Can anything good come from Nazareth” was said by. A. john. B. Nathaniel. C. Jude. D. necodemus.
40. Today, you will be with me in paradise was said during Jesus. A. last supper. B. fructification. C.
appearance. D. ascension.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer FOUR questions)
1. Write five instances when Jesus subjected Himself to religious and civil law.
2. Wxplain the word Temptation. (b) State four ways to over-come Nigeria related temptation.
3. Who is Disciple? (b) Enumerate four factors militing against discipleship.
4. Name three Nazareth in the bible. (b) State three rules expected to keep by them.
5. Point out five messages of an Angel to Zachariah.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.
1. Jesus as the light signifies that. A. He is the one who purifies all men from sin. B. He is the one who replace
the Passover lamb. C. He is the one who cares for us. D. He is the revealed truth which guides man to
eternal life.
2. In Jesus’ teaching as the true vine, He maintained that prayers could be answered if the disciples. A. confess
their sins. B. pray constantly. C. help the needy. D. abide in Him.
3. According to Paul in his letter to the romans, Abraham was justified because of his. A. morality. B. respect
for God. C. faith in God. D. personal goodness.
4. Beloved, let us love one another for love is of God and he who loves is. A. born of God and knows God. B. a
true Christian. C. a heir of the kingdom. D. the son of God.
5. All of the following are the fruits of the new life in Christ except. A. being raised with Christ. B. putting love.
C. putting on the old nature. D. dead to sin.
6. Who among the following came to Jesus at night to enquire about the kingdom of God? A. Martha. B. peter.
C. Mary. D. necodemus.
7. John’s summary of the depth of God’s love for the world is that God. A. sent his son to judge the world
righteously. B. gave his only son to save the world. C. creating man in His own image. D. made light that the
world might walk in it.
8. “How” is it that you, a Jew, ask a drink of me, a Samaria?” the speaker was surprise because. A. Jesus was
God and not human. B. the Jews had no dealings with Samaria. C. the Jews unlawful for a man to receive
water from a woman.
9. According to Jesus, a good shepherd lays down his life for the sheep but a hireling. A. abandons the sheep
in the face of danger. B. sells them off for personal profit. C. protects some of the sheep leaving others to
danger. D. ask for better pay before doing his work.
10. Abiding in Christ’s love demands that we. A. have hope for the future. B. keep his commandments. C.
imitate one another. D. manifests the peace of God.
11. The act that justifies Jesus as the resurrection, and life was. A. His ascension into heaven. B. his teaching
on the reality of the eternal life. C. God acclaimed him as son at the baptism. D. The resurrection of Lazarus
at Bethany.
12. According to Paul in his letter to the romans, believers are justified by the grace of God as a gift, through. A.
faith and work. B. the blood of Jesus. C. the work of righteousness. D. the redemption which is in
ChristJesus.
13. The main result of justification by faith is. A. divine protection. B. peace with God. C. forgiveness of sins. D.
answered prayer.
14. Behold the lamb of God …..,Jesus was compared to as a lamb because He __. A. was to take away the sins
of man. B. was to be slain on the cross. C. was a shepherd. D. was to be born again.
15. In which of the following ways was John to identify Jesus as the lamb of God? A. the spirit of God would
descend on him as a dove. B. He would see a man casting out demons. C. He would see a lad coming to
baptism with a lad. D. Jesuswould be head above other people.
16. According to John, living water means water that. A. is running. B. quenches thirst. C. springs from Jacob’s
well. D. wells up to eternal life.
17. When Jesus proclaimed himself as the bread of life, He meant that. A. he gave manna to the people in the
wilderness. B. belief in him leads to eternal life. C. He provided he bread that fed the multitude. D. whoever
work for him would never be hungry.
18. God gave His only son Jesus Christ to die so that whoever believes would ____. A. not encounter
persecution. B. become Christian. C. not perish. D. know him well.
19. Jesus described himself as the door because He __. A. laid down his life for the sheep. B. is the only way to
salvation. C. enters the sheep fold through the door. D. enters the sheep fold through Jesus.
20. Where were the disciples when Jesus had a conversation with the Samarian woman, they had. A. gone to the city to
buy food. B. gone to the mountain to pray. C. gone to wait for him. D. gone to the city to preached the gospel.
21. The living water offered to the woman of Samaria represent. A. the Holy Spirit. B. word of angels. C. eternal water. D.
word of God.
22. Jesus is a good shepherd because He ___. A. manipulates the sheep. B. flogs the sheep. C. lays down his life for the
sheep. D. escapes whenever he sees a wolf.
23. They do because. A. they enjoy walking in darkness. B. their deeds are evil. C. their was no light to direct them. C.
they are use to darkness.
24. The second sign performed by Jesus in John’s gospel was the ___. A. healing the noble man’s son at capanoum. B.
raising the dead at Jerusalem. C. turning water into wine. D. none of the above.
25. According to Paul, all men have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God, but we have been justified by. A. Jesus
becoming man. B. God’s gift of grace. C. strict obedience to the law. D. work of righteousness.
26. The phrase “dead ti sin” as used by Paul in his letter to the romans meant. A. a sinner dying unrepented. B. that sin
was the cause of death. A. complete renewal of life without sin. D. total obedience to the passions of life.
27. “O woman, what have you to do with me”? my hour has not yet come” these words was said by Jesus during the. A.
healing of the noble man’s son. B. the death of lazarus. C. wedding in cana of Galilee. D. Jesus speaking to the
woman caught in adultery.
28. In the epistle of Paul to the romans, God’s promise to Abraham and his descendants to inherit the world was through. A.
hard work. B. work of righteousness. C. righteousness of faith. D. obedience to the law.
29. Rabbi who sinned, this man or his parent, that he was born blind? Jesus reply was that. A. the man’s blindness was a
consequence of his own sin. B. neight the man nor his parent had sinned. C. the man’s blindness was due to his
parents sin. D. the man blindness was an opportunity for Jesus to prove that he is the light f the world.
30. According to the epistle to the galatians, being baptized into Christ means. A. discrimination among unbelievers. B.
plescent from Abraham. C. putting on Christ like life. D. rising from water.
31. As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the world” Jesus proved this claim by ___. A. healing the sick only in the
day time. B. healing the sick man at bethnatha. C. restoring sight to the man born blind. D. miraculously escaping from
the Jews.
32. In one of his teaching, Jesus said “I am the true vine and my father is the ___. A. branch. B. vine maker. C. everlasting
vine. D. vine dresser.
33. Jesus said “I am the bread of life, he who comes to me shall not hunger “Bread of life in this context means the. A. body
of Christ. B. manna given to the Israelites. C. holy bread of life. D. spiritual food through Jesus.
34. Jesus said to Martha, I am the resurrection and life and whoever lives and believes in me shall never die”. Jesus talks
about. A. physical death. B. spiritual death. C. emotional death. D. natural death.
35. The teaching of Paul in Romans that Christians are buried in baptism with Christ Jesus suggests. A. new life in Christ.
B. the death of Christians. C. that the body is perishable. D. the resurrection of the body.
36. Jesus sent the man born blind to the pool of Siloam in order that, by is obedience he might be. A. made a disciple of
Jesus. B. completely healed. C. convinced that Jesus was the messiah. D. be baptized by John.
37. Paul taught that by our common faith in Jesus and baptism, the difference between the Jews and gentiles have become.
A. permanent. B. temporal. C. irrelevant. D. real.
38. After Lazarus was raised from death, the disciples of Jesus concluded that Jesus was the. A. beloved friend of Lazarus.
B. friend in need. C. true son of David. D. resurrection and the life.
39. Which of the following is not a nature miracle? A. changing water to wine. B. feeding the five thousand. C. stilling the
storm. D. healing the paralytic.
40. When Paul admonishes Christians to set their minds on thing that are above, he wanted them to concentrate on the. A.
things they dream about. B. necessities of life. C. will and purpose of God. D. long life and prosperity.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer FOUR questions in this section)
1. Who is a Good Shephered? (b) Identify four qualities of a good shephered. (c) Narrate the incident in which Jesus
described Himself as the living water.
2. Define Love. (b) Highlight four types of love you know. (c) State four qualities of love. (d) How did God demonstrate His
love for man kind?
3. What is Justification by Faith? (b) List four fruits of Justification by faith. (c) Discuss how Jesus healed or restored sight
to the man born blind.
4. What is Social Vices? (b) Identify any six social vices you know. (c) State three ways to curb or stop these social vices.
(d) How does John the Baptist describe Jesus as the Lamb of God?
5. Define New Life in Christ? (b) Mention four characteristics of new life in Christ. (c) Highlght the features of New Life in
Christ as stated by Paul.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT / CLASS: CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE SS 2 TIME: 1 HOUR
1. In the creation story, the job of giving names to all living creatures was performed by (a) God (b) Adam and
Eve (c) Eve (d) man
2. Reuben advised his brothers not to kill Joseph but to cast him into a pit because he (a) did not want them to
shed the blood of the innocent (b) wanted to rescue him afterwards and bring him safety to their father (c)
wanted to bury him alive in the pit (d) wanted them to sell Joseph to the Ishmaelites.
3. Joseph was sold to the Ishmaelites for _____________ shekels of silver (a) forty (b) thirty- five (c) thirty (d)
twenty
4. When the children of Israel came to the wilderness of sin, they murmured against Moses and Aaron because
(a) Egyptians were in hot pursuit (b) They were thirsty (c) There was neither dew nor rain for seven years (d)
They were hungry
5. At the time Deborah became a judge in Israel, she was a (a) seer (b) prophetess (c) priestess (d) medium
6. The wife of Moses was called (a) Rebecca (b) Rachel (c) Zipporah (d) Deborah
7. When Joseph was sent to his brothers, he met them pasturing at (a) Hebron (b) Bethel (c) Beersheba (d)
Dothan
8. Why was Saul asked to destroy the Amalekites? (a)They were worshipping false gods (b) they opposed
Israelites when they left Egypt (c) they did not assist the Israelites (d) God did not like the Amalekites
9. the first king of Israel lost his throne because he (a) a weak king (b) knew little about governance (c) lost the
support of Yahweh (d) was irresponsible
10. What in the creature account, gave man an edge over every other creature? (a) Other creatures were made
for man (b) man alone was created in the image of God (c) man has the rare privilege to dwell in Eden (d)
Satan acknowledged his privileged position
11. At sheckem God appeared to Abraham and told him that (a) he should continue on his journey southward (b)
he should leave the country and kindred (c) the land should be given to his descendants (d) in the land he
should build an altar
12. The episode of David and Bathsheba, Uriah’s wife was in violation of God’s (a) sixth commandment (b)
seventh commandment (c) eight commandment (d) ninth commandment
13. The land, the sea and vegetation were created on the (a) first day (b) second day (c) third day (d) fifth day
14. God blessed the seventh day and hallowed it because it marked the day that He (a) completed the work of
creation (b) handed over the earth to Adam (c) saw all his created work as perfect (d) rested from his work of
creation
15. Which of the following was not part of the honour done to Joseph when Pharaoh made him a ruler in Egypt?
(a) Joseph was made to address the people (b) the land of Goshen was given Joseph (c) Joseph dressed in
garments of fine linen (d) A gold chain was put around Joseph’s neck.
16. What was Moses’ reaction when God called him to liberate his people from Egypt? (a) He was afraid of being
punished for his previous offence (b) His people would think he was too young to lead them (c) His people
would not listen to him (d) his father –in- law would not allow him to go.
17. God led the Israelites in the wilderness during the day in form of (a) fire (b) light (c) cloud (d) rainbow
18. God provided water for the Israelites by asking Moses to stroke the rock at the wilderness of (a) Rephidium
(b) sin (c) Massah (d) Paran
19. When Moses stayed away for too long on the mountain, the people of Israel (a) prayed and fasted (b) embark
on farming (c) returned to Egypt (d) made and worshipped idol
20. According to the first creation story the firmament was created before (a) animals and plants (b) living
creatures (c) sea creatures (d) land, seas and vegetation
21. The priest of midian gave Moses, his daughter (a) Shiprah (b) Zipporah (c) push (d) Gershom
22. God hardened the Egyptian’s heart because (a) of his plan to push Pharaoh (b) Moses and Aaron deserved
God’s punishment (c) God wanted to gain glory over Pharaoh (d) Pharaoh was a powerful king
23. Joshua was a successful leader of his people because he (a) was chosen by Moses (b) trusted in God (c)
was a good spy (d) was a brilliant soldier
24. Joshua died at the age of a (a) hundred and forty years (b) hundred and twelve years (c) hundred and ten
years (d) hundred years
25. God’s ability to create by his spoken word depicts His (a) Omnipotence (b) Omniscience (c) sovereignty (d)
affluence
26. God said to Abraham, “To your descendant I shall give the land” which descendants are referred to here? (a)
Ishmaelities (b) Philistines (b) Edomities (c) Hebrews
27. Moses’ death was a result of (a) disobedience (b) disrespect (c) unrepentance (d) old age
28. God prepared Joseph for his leadership role in Egypt through (a) the love which his father had for him (b) the
love which his father had for him (b) the trials and temptations of earlier years (c) his believe that dreams will
materialize (d) the training received from his father
29. Deborah instructed Barak to engage the forces of Jabin in a battle at (a) River Kishon (b) Mount Gerizim (c)
Mount Horeb (d) River Tigris
30. “The Lord will sell Sisera into the hands of a woman”. This statement was directed to (a) Lappidoth (b) Barak
(c) Jael (d) Jabin
31. At the time of creation, the river that flowed out of Eden to water the garden divided into (a) Pishon, Hauijah
(b) Tigris, Cush, Assuna and Hauijah (c) Pishon, Trgris, Gihon and Euphrates (d) Euphrates, Gitron, Assyna
and Trgris.
32. During the creative activity of God, He made the beasts (a) in his own image (b) to multiply on the earth (c)
according to their kind (d) to serve the need of man.
33 Moses was nursed by (a) Pharaoh’s daughter (b) Rachael (c) his mother (d) Rebecca.
34. When the people of Israel lacked water in the wilderness, they reacted by (a) Appealing to Moses to cry to the
Lord (b) Blaming Moses for their plight (c) Blaming the Egyptians for allowing them to leave (d) asking Moses
to strike the rock for water
35. The first four commandments teach us about our (a) duties to God (b) behaviours in the society (c) respect
for fellow men (d) duties to the state
36. God provided the Israelites with quails and manna in the wilderness of (a)Raphidim (b) Sin (c) Elim (d) Sinai
37. The Israelites murmurings in the wilderness of sin were against (a) Pharaoh (b) Joshua (c) Aaron (d) God.
38. Joshua’s farewell address to the elders of Israel took place at (a) Dan (b) Bethel (c) Shiloh (d) Shechem
39. The Israelites under Barak defeated the Canaanites troops lead by (a) Joel (b) Sisera (c) Deborah (d)
Abinoam.
40. In Israel, Deborah’s court as a prophetess was from (a) Rahmah to Kishon (b) Dan to Beersheba (c) Rahmah
to Bethel (d) Ephraim to Dan.

SECTION B: THEORY (ANSWER ANY (4) FOUR QUESTIONS FROM THESE SECTION)
1. Outline in chronological order the first creation story. (b) Give three reasons why man is regarded as the
crown of creation.
2. Narrate the two dreams of Pharaoh and its interpretation. (b) In what three ways did the interpretation of the
dreams affect Joseph and his people?
3. State the content of the New Convenant in (i) Jeremiah (ii) Ezekiel. (b) Outline five benefits of the new
convenant to Israel.
4. How did Moses become the son of Pharaoh’s daughter? (b) Explain therr ways in which this prepared Moses
for his future leadership roles.
5. Give an account of Joseph’s first encounter with Paharaoh. (b) State any three qualities that earned him
Pharaoh’s favour.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: S. S. 3 CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS STUDIES TIME: 2HRS

1. Eli’s failure in is parental responsibility led his sons into doing all
the following except (a) behaving violently toward the worshippers (b) paying little regard to the voice of their father
(c) taking their choice meat raw (d) treating the lord’s offering with respect
2. God rejected Saul as king of Israel because (a) God was more favourably dispose towards Samuel for the
kingship (b) He did not destroy the Kenites along with the Amalekites (c) He slew Agag the king of Amalek
(d) He disobey God in the war against the Amalekites
3. David was employed to play the lyre for Saul because (a) David was a specialist in music (b) David was to be
the Chief musician (c) music was believed to relief insanity (d) there was no other competent player
4. Which of the following ideas was upper most in the mind of Hosea during prophesy (a) God’s contention with
Israel for their infidelity (b) God’s everlasting kindness and mercy for man (c) God’s love for Israel (d) the
ultimate return of Israel to the lord
5. When the Israelites lacked water in the wilderness they reacted by (a) Appealing to Moses to cry to the lord
(b) blaming Moses for their plight (c) decided to go back to Egypt (d) Asking Moses to strike the rock with rod
to get water
6. The reasons Elijah called for the contest between him and Baal worshippers was to (a) demonstrate God’s
power over all powers (b) prove that the drought could end through sacrifice (c) show that God always
answers by fire (d) stop continued harassment of the prophet of God
7. King Josiah was inspired to reform the worship of God in Judah by (a) Hilkiah the priest (b) Shaphan, the
king’s secretary (c) the contents of the book of the law (d) the workers repairing the temple
8. David spared Saul’s life but decided to take away his (a) bow and arrow (b) bow, arrow and spear (c) spear
and iron shield (d) spear and jar of water
9. The effect of Solomon’s marriage to foreign wives was that (a) God blessed him with many children (b) His
heart was turned away from God (c) His attention was directed to state affairs (d) He became more
prosperous
10. For taking Naboth’s vineyard, Ahab was guilty of ____________ (a) Despotism (b) Greed (c) Jealousy (d)
Selfishness
11. Amos condemned the people of Israel for the following sins except their (a) drink in the house of their God,
the wine of those who had been fired (b) sell the righteous as slaves (c) lay themselves down beside every
altar, upon garment taken in pledge (d) uphold the way of the afflicted
12. “Give meat for the priest to roast for he will not accept boiled meat from you but raw” This request was among
because in a peace offering (a) meat with blood was unacceptable (b) the fat were burnt before any
distribution (c) priest were entitled to the right thigh and breast (d) juicy meat went to the worshippers
13. After Saul’s death on Mount Gilboa, the Philistines (a) burnt his body near the tamarisk tree (b) sent his head
to Dogan their god (c) made a sport of him at Bethshan (d) buried his sons in a mass grave
14. The tribes which led the Jews in rebuilding the temple were (a) Judah and Benjamin (b) Levi and Gad (c)
Ephraim Manasseh (d) Reuben and Zebulon
15. “Do you mean to kill me as you killed the Egyptian, ”This statement made Moses aware of the fact that (a)
Some Israelites did not like him (b) God was sending him to Midian (c) his killing of an Egyptian was known
(d) Pharaoh was looking for his arrest
16. The Hebrew kingdom broke up because of (a) Prophet Ahijah’s cure against Solomon (b) Marriage to foreign
women (c) Rehoboam’s efforts to rule shechem (d) Rehoboam’s refusal to grant the Northerners petition
17. The Judean king who revolted against Babylon after serving her for three years was (a) Jehoahaz (b)
Jehoachim (c) Joachim (d) Zedekiah
18. After the contest in Mount Carmel, Elijah killed ___________ prophets of Baal (a) four hundred (b) four
hundred and fifty (c) five hundred (d) five hundred and fifty
19. The prophetess through who God delivered his message to Judah during Josiah’s reign was
______________ (a) Hudah (b) Deborah (c) Joel (d) Hanna
20. During the rebuilding of the temple, the greatest opposition came from the (a) Samaritans (b) Philistines (c)
Masses (d) Ammonites
21. Cows of Bashan is referred to (a) cows feeding on Bashan (b) women of Samaria (c) very fat and lazy
worshippers (d) the queen of Samaria
22. Jesus baptism was significant because it (a) initiated him into Judaism (b) marked the call into the messianic
ministry (c) cleared him from sin (d) awakened the messianic spirit in him
23. The two Old Testament brooks that were used in the temptation stories were (a) Genesis and Proverb (b)
Leviticus and Lamentation (c) Numbers and Ecclesiastes (d) Deuteronomy and Psalms
24. “For he was astonished and all that were with him, at the catch of fish which they had taken” The people
being referred to in the text were (a) Matthew, John and Andrew (b) Levi, Peter and John (c) James, Peter
and John (d) Simon, Andrew and John
25. During Jesus’ trials, some people discovered that Peter was Jesus follower because of his (a) Pharisaic Attire
(b) Galilean accent (c) Attack on the maid (d) Anger against the Jews
26. How many groups of people mocked at Jesus on the cross according to St. Mark’s gospel (a) Two (b) three
(c) four (d) five
27. This is the king of the Jews” This inscription on the cross was meant to show Jesus” (a) charge (b)
punishment (c) victory (d) Messiahship
28. The appearance of the dove during the baptism of Jesus signified ______________ (a) The presence of God
(b) The Messiahship of Jesus (c) The presence of an angel (d) the presence of the Holy Spirit
29. After Stephen’s martyrdom, the evangelist who took the gospel to Samaria was ____________ (a) Peter (b)
John (c) Philip (d) Paul
30. Jesus sent out the seventy to ___________ (a) the lost sheep of the house of Israel (b) the Jews and the
Gentiles (c) every town and place he was to visit (d) the farm to gather in the harvest
31. The trial of Jesus was transferred from the high priest’s court to Pilate because (a) Jesus lodged an appeal to
the higher court (b) the high priest had no to impose death penalty (c) It gave the high priest the opportunity
to reconcile with the Governor (d) the Governor sent troops to stop the trial as a riot was threatened
32. The twelve disciples were advised to respond to any house that did not receive them during their missionary
journey by (a) Pronouncing God’s wrath (b) withdrawing their blessing of peace upon them (c) moving to
another destination (d) shaking off the dust from their feet
33. Peter’s general out book towards Gentile converts was significantly changed by the conversion of (a) People
of Lydia (b) the people of Samaria (c) Simon the magician (d) Cornelius the centurion
34. Satan assured Jesus that God would give his angels charge of you if you should (a) through himself down from the
temple pinnacle (b) fall down and worship him (c) strike his foot against a stone (d) command stones to become bread
35. From his experience on the road to Damascus, Saul learnt all the following except that (a) To persecute the church
meant persecuting the Lord (b) His confidence in Judaism was misplaced (c) he was specially chosen to preach to thee
Gentile (d) he would successfully promotes his own will
36. Jesus performed nature miracle to demonstrate all the following except (a) fame (b) power (c) concern (d) faith
37. Jesus ordered the seventy disciples not to salute anyone because (a) their mission required urgency (b) It is not part of
their mission to salute people (c) they may forget their mission (d) salutations to strangers defile the Jews
38. Jesus teaches “Let your light so shine before men…… By light Jesus refers to (a) Our knowledge of the scripture (b) the
light that shows the right way (c) the Christians character and virtues in us (d) the bright light of the altar in the church
39. By asking Jesus to turn stone to bread, Satan wanted Jesus to ____________ (a) be a conquering messiah (b) Use
divine power to satisfy human needs (c) be a magician (d) prove his power
40. Concerning the dead in the Lord, Paul advised us (a) not to be worried about them (b) not to grieve as others who have
no hope (c) to have hope and be merry (d) to pray for the repose of their souls
41. James maintained that the double – minded man would not have his prayers answered because he (a) asks for things
with a selfish motives (b) is unstable in all his ways (c) pray with unforgiving heart (d) intercedes with a sinful heart
42. Partiality according to James is manifested in the church though (a) charity (b) affection (c) impartiality (d) discrimination
43. “Let every person be subject to the governing authority for there is no authority except from (a) a governor (b) God (c)
ruler of a nation (d) law maker
44. In Paul’s epistle to the Thessalonians’, any Christian living in idleness should be (a) thrown out of the church (b) looked
at as an enemy (c) sympathized with (d) avoided by the others
45. During the election to replace Judas among the twelve, Peter quoted from the book of (a) Joel (b) Psalms (c) Isaiah (d)
Ezekiel
46. Abraham believed God and it was reckoned to him as righteousness” James used this text to highlight his teaching on
(a) Effective prayer (b) faith and work (c) counseling (d) Impartiality
47. Paul was so confident in his epistle to Philemon that he latter would grant his major request because (a) Philemon was a
Roman citizen like Paul (b) they were from the same town (c) they were partners in the faith of Christ (d) Philemon had
expected such a request
48. Paul, unhappy with high incidence of idleness among the Thessalonians’, commanded them to (a) assist those brothers
who live in idleness (b) exhort busy-bodies to live the church (c) ensure that anyone who does not work must not eat (d)
regard the lazy ones as enemies.
49. According to the first creation story the firmament was created before (a) animals and plants (b) living creatures (c) sea
creatures (d) land, seas and vegetation.
50. The priest of midian gave Moses, his daughter (a) Shiprah (b) Zipporah (c) push (d) Gershom
51. God hardened the Egyptian’s heart because (a) of his plan to push Pharaoh (b) Moses and Aaron deserved God’s
punishment (c) God wanted to gain glory over Pharaoh (d) Pharaoh was a powerful king
52. Joshua was a successful leader of his people because he (a) was chosen by Moses (b) trusted in God (c) was a good
spy (d) was a brilliant soldier
53. Joshua died at the age of a (a) hundred and forty years (b) hundred and twelve years (c) hundred and ten years (d)
hundred years
54. God’s ability to create by his spoken word depicts His (a) Omnipotence (b) Omniscience (c) sovereignty (d) affluence
55. God said to Abraham, “To your descendant I shall give the land” which descendants are referred to here? (a)
Ishmaelities (b) Philistines (b) Edomities (c) Hebrews
56. Moses’ death was a result of (a) disobedience (b) disrespect (c) unrepentance (d) old age
57. God prepared Joseph for his leadership role in Egypt through (a) the love which his father had for him (b) the love which
his father had for him (b) the trials and temptations of earlier years (c) his believe that dreams will materialize (d) the
training received from his father
58. Deborah instructed Barak to engage the forces of Jabin in a battle at (a) River Kishon (b) Mount Gerizim (c) Mount
Horeb (d) River Tigris
59. “The Lord will sell Sisera into the hands of a woman”. This statement was directed to (a) Lappidoth (b) Barak (c) Jael (d)
Jabin
60. In which of the following ways did the Philippians share in Paul’s sufferings while (a) Appealing for the release of Paul
(b) Control their flocks with prayer (c) continuing in prayer for him (d) sending him relief materials.

SECTION B: THEORY.
Answer four questions in all, choosing at least one from each section and the fourth from either section A, B or C.
SECTION A (THEME FROM THE OLD TESTAMENT)
1. Discuss the early life of Joseph until and how he was sold to Potiphar. (b) State four qualities of Joseph as a leader.
2. Narrate the circumstances that led to the rejection of Rehoboam as king of Isreal. (b) What two factors can lead to the
rejection of a political leader.
3. Give account of the healing of Naaman. (b) Mention three lessons to be derived from the story.
 SECTION B (THEME FROM THE GOSPELS AND THE ACTS OF THE APOSTLES)
4. Do not be afraid, henceforth you will be catching men. Describe the circumstances under which the statement was
made. (b) State two factors that militate against discipleship.
5. Discuss the crucifixion and buriel of Jesus as narrated by Matthew. (b) State two ways in which money is over spent
during funerals in the society.
SECTION C (THEME FROM THE SELECTED EPISTLES)
6. With reference to Paul’s epistle to the Philippians, explain how Jesus demonstrated humility. (b) Mention two ways one
can exhibit this virtue.
7. Highlight how James proved that “faith apart from work is dead”.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: ASUSU IGBO J. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS
Site n’okwu di na A-D were okwu ga adaba nke oma na nomba obula.
Na mgbe 1 ___ nkwu abughi ihe ndi mmadu jiri kporo ihe di ka o di 2 ___. Otutu ihe ndi ala anyi na-enweta
taa na nkwu adighi n’oge 3 ____. Tupu ndi 4 ____ abia n’ala anyi Naijiria, aku na 5 ___ abughi ihe di oke mkpa. O
bu site n’obibia na izukorita ahia ndi obodo anyi na ndi 6 ____ a e jiri choputa uru di iche iche aku na mmanu bara.
Uru 7 ____ bara n’oge gboo bu iji si ihe oriri ebe 8 ___ bum aka imeputa ude aku. Mmanya bu ihe e si na 9 ___
n’onwe ya enweta.
N’oge ugbu a, uru ohuru a choputara ebe aku na mmanu di wetara nnukwu mgbanwe n’ebe 10 ____ di. A
choputara na akuku nkwu niile nwere uru ha bara.
A B C D
1. Ufodu ochie ohuru taa
2. Gboo edii ubochi ugbu a
3. Ugbua ufodu gboo taa
4. Ocha ojii uka agha
5. Ukwa mmanu ichere oka
6. Najiria igba bekee ala anyi
7. Mmanu aku nkwu ude
8. Nkwu mmanu aku mmiri
9. Ngwo ukwa akwu nkwu
10. Mmanu aka mmanya nkwu
11. Nke esoghi n’uzo e si ekpochapu ubiam na aguu bu. A. igba mbo. B. iro aririo. Ch. Izu okuko. D. ilusi oru
ike.
12. Akuko ifo nwere usoro mmalite puru iche ya bu. A. ifo abiago. B. ifo chakpii woo. Ch. Onye obula dere juu.
D. ifo amalite, onye obula genu nti.
13. Otu n’ime ndia abughi usa a na asara oji. A. ka chiboo. B. abali atala oji. Ch. Oji ejii ulo. D. ka m jide gi
ugwo oji.
14. Mgbe ndi igbo ji emekari mmeme iri ji ohuru bu n’onwa nke. A. isii. B. ato. Ch. Iteghite. D. asato.
15. Oji gbara abuo n’ala igbo bu oji. A. Ikenga. B. kuru aka. Ch. Dara ogbi. D. omumu.
16. Ahirinife ma-enwe naani out echiche na otu. A. mbuuzo. B. ngwaa. Ch. Njiko. D. mkpoaha.
17. Nkejiasusu igbo na-egosi ebe ihe di n’ahiriokwu bu. A. mkpoaha. B. njiko. Ch. Mbuuzo. D. nnochiaha.
18. E ji iku azu mara ndi. A. Nnewi. B. Ogidi. Ch. Nri. D. Ogbaru.
19. Out n’ime ihe ndia abughi omenaala igbo. A. ikele ekele. B. ikwu eziokwu. Ch. Itu asi. D. irube isi.
20. Ndi igbo bi n’akuku _____ anyanwu. A. etiti. B. odida. Ch. Ndida. D. owuwa.
21. Ile obia na-egosi ___. A. iwe. B. onuma. Ch. Nnwale. D. nnabata.
22. Idebe gburugburu ocha ga-ebelata. A. iba. B. mminwu. Ch. Isi owuwa. D. ahuike.
23. Aha ozo a na-akpo umuopku bu. A. umuada. B. umunna. Ch. Umunwaanyi. D. umunne.
24. Oti nwada n’ihu nne ya bu. A. agbisi. B. mmadu. Ch. Aguu. D. agu.
25. Gwa m out ibe ji zuru uwa onu. A. anyanwu. B. ala. Ch. Kpakpando. D. onwa.
26. Mgbochiume mkpi di ___. A. isii. B. iri. Ch. Itegbite. D. iri abuo na asato.
27. Udaume di n’okwu a “Ulo elu” bu. A. abuo. B. isii. Ch. Ano. D. ato.
28. Nke bu mgbochiume nge bu. A. B. B. CH. CH. E. D. GB.
29. Ugwo ogaranya na ogbenye ji bu. A. ochi. B. agha. Ch. Onwu. D. ogu.
30. Akaraedemede e ji eziputa nnyriakngwaa bu. A. ajuju. B. rikom. Ch. Uhie. D. kpom.
31. Puku ano na iri na asato putara. A. 418. B. 4080. Ch. 4180. D. 4018.
32. 9:45pm putara. A. ojirila nkeji iri ano na ise gafee elekere iteghite. B. o foduru nkeji iri na ise ka elekere iri
nke ututu kuo. Ch. O jirirla nkeji iri na ise gafee elekere iteghite. D. o foduru nkeji iri na ise ka elekere iri nke
abali kuo.
33. ____ bu nkeji na-egosi oru okwu obula na-aru n’asusu. A. uda asusu. B. nkejiasusu. Ch. Nkejiokwu. D.
nkejiahiri.
34. Asusu mmadu suru ga-enyere anyi aka imata ____ ya. A. nna. B. ezinaulo. Ch. Agburu. D. ogbe.
35. Hiu ogwu ike na-ebute. A. oria iba. B. isimgbaka. Ch. Afo osisa. D. agbaikpere.
36. Tugharia ahiriokwu a n’igbo. ‘Your maternal aunt. A. nwanne nne gi nwaanyi. B. nwanna gin woke. Ch.
Nwanne nna gi nwaanyi. D. nwanne gi nwoke na nna.
37. Isopuru okenye bu agwa nwata. A. mara akwukwo. B. mara ihe. Ch. Mara mma. D. toro eto.
38. Nweke jere ahia taa. Oru “re” ruru n’ebe a bu. A. nganihu. B. nnonetiti. Ch. Nnon’ime. D. nsonaazu.
39. Mgbochiume igbo di. A. asato. B. iri abuo na asato. Ch. Iriato na isii. D. iteghite.
40. E weputara abidii igbo e ji ede ihe ugbu a n’afo. A. 1961. B. 1960. Ch. 1857. D. 1929.
NKEGA B:
Horo out n’ime isiokwu ndi a ma dee edemede ga-eru out ihu akwukwo na ya.
1. Koo akiko ifo na-egosi na isiike adighi mma.
2. Ulo akwukwo m.

NKEGA CH.
Zaa ajuju ato masiri gi na ndia.

1. Deputa uru ise oji bara. (b) Oji nwere nso a na-asoro ya n’ala Igbo. Deputa abuo n’ime ha. (ch) Deputa usa
ato a na-asara oji.
2. Gini bu Nkejiasusu? (b Were omumaatu gosiputa udi aha ndia; (i) Ahaaku. (ii) Ahauche. (iii) Ahaizugbe. (iv)
Ahaigwe
3. Gini bu Akaraudaolu? (b) Deputa uzo ato e kere ya. (ch) Tinye akaraudaolu n’okwu ndia. (i) Oke – share. (ii)
Oke – rat. (iii) Oke – male. (iv) Akwa – cry. (v) Akwa – bed.
4. Deputa Onuogugu ndia n’igbo. (i) 3, 009. (ii) 10, 000.
5. Gini bu Omenaala? (b) Deputa udi omenaala abuo anyi nwere. (ch) Deputa uru abuo omenaala bara.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: ASUSU IGBO J. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS
1. Onye ana-ele omugwo bu. A. di nwaanyi muru nwa. B. nne nwaanyi muru nwa. Ch. Nwa a muru ohuru. D.
nwaanyi muru nwa ohuru.
2. Out n’ime ndi a abughi out nzuzo. A. mmanwu. B. okonko. Ch. Odo. D. otuogbo.
3. Out n’ime ndia abughi usa a na-asara oji. A. abali atala oji. B. oji eju ulo. Ch. Ka mjide gi ugwo oji. D. kachi
boo.
4. Ihe ozo ana-akpo edemede ugbu a bu. A. akuko ugbu a. B. egwu ruegwu. Ch. Iduuazi. D. akuko arororo.
5. Ezigbo ozuzu nwata kwesiri inweta site n’ ezinaulo ya bu. A. ime enyi. B. izu ohi. Ch. Igba akwuna. D. irube
isi.
6. Olu nna n’ezinaulo bu. A. ichekwa ezinaulo. B. isi nri. Ch. Iwu umuaka ahu. D. isu akwa.
7. Idebe gburugburu ocha na-ebute. A. ahuike. B. ubiam. Ch. Oria. D. onwuike.
8. Ihe umuaka anaghi eme na satodee bu. A. ino nkiti. B. ije akwukwo. Ch. Igba boolu. D. ije olu.
9. A na-ebute oria mminwu site na. A. ikwa n’aka. B. inwe mmeko Edina. Ch. Ibioma. D. ijeko mkposi.
10. N’ala igbo akaoru ndi bu n’ikpere mmiri na-abukari. A. iku azu. B. ichu nta. Ch. Ikpu uzu. D. ikwa akwa.
11. Izisa ozi n’uzo odinaala gunyere. A. redio. B. tive. Ch. Ogene. D. ekwenti.
12. Akara edemede na-egosiputa na ihe na-ekwu abiala n’isi njedebe bu. A. rikom. B. kpom. Ch. Kpom kpom.
D. rikomelu.
13. Out na ndia bu njirimara asusu. A. ona-adapu adapu. B. o di na bekee. Ch. Naani ndi okenye na-asu ya. D.
o na-eto eto.
14. Mbenaabo zukoo ahia, uru anaghi adi ya. A. oyiri. B. ilu. Ch. Akpalaaokwu. D. okwuntuhi.
15. Gwam ihe kuchara aka baa ohia. A. ukpaka. B. ede. Ch. Ikwe. D. ube.
16. O tara isi mbe bu. A. akpalaokwu. B. agumagu. Ch. Ilu. D. okwuntuhi.
17. Nke dabara n’akara udaolue nwere n’igbo bu. A. ∖ //. B. -//. Ch. /?. D. ∖ ∖−¿.
18. Ole nke bu akaraedemede ebe a. A. +. B. %. Ch. : D.÷ E. pm.
19. Asusu e ji mara ndi bi n’owuwa anyanwu najiria bu. A. awusa. B. tivi. Ch. Igbo. D. Yoruba.
20. Kedu out udaume mfe n’ebe a. A. a,e,I,o. B. a, I,u,o. Ch. E,I,o,u. D. e,I,o,u.
21. Kedu nke bu mmemme iri ji? A. ofala. B. Ikenga. Ch. Iwaji. D. okpesi.
22. Ulo naani umu nwaanyi na-alu bu. A. igbu akwu. B. ikoji. Ch. Ichu nta. D. ika isi.
23. Mkpuru edemede ole di n’ime mkpuru okwu a “mbediogu”. A. asaa. B. ano. Ch. Asato. D. iri na ato.
24. Out nzuzo di njo n’ihi na o na-ebute. A. oria. B. mgbaghari. Ch. Inu mmanya. D. onwu ike.
25. Na nkwenye ndi igbo, inwu ezigbo onwu ma putakwa uwa ozo bu. A. ilo uwa. B. izete agboro. Ch.
Ogbonye. D. onwu ntimadi.
26. “Hei ewu ataala jim” kedu akaraedemede dabara adaba n’ahuriokwu. A. ?. B. !. Ch. .. D. “”
27. Mkpuruedemede akara ihe n’okpuru nu Mbuuzo. A. udaume. B. myiriudaume. Ch. Mgbochiume. D.
nnochiaha.
28. Oji enwghi ibe obula ka ana-akpo oji. A. Ikenga. B. ogbi. Ch. Ugo. D. mumu.
29. N’ezinaulo out mkpuke, usekwu na-adi. A. ano. B. abuo. Ch. Out. D. ato.
30. Nkorongwa nzisa ozi ugbua mere nweke ji new ike izigara nwa ya no na ala bekee photo esere ese bu. A.
leta. B. onyonyo. Ch. Fase buuk. D. nuzupepa.
31. Leta na-enwe isiokwu a kara ihe n’okpuru bu leta. A. nke nnem. B. anamachoihe. Ch. Nkeonye. D. nke nna
m.
32. Chapii woo! Nke abu usoro malite. A. akuko. B. akuko okike. Ch. Nnoriabali. D. akuko ifo.
33. Onye oru ya bu inye ogwu bu. A. noos. B. famasist. Ch. Dokita. D. ole ogwu.
34. O choro ibi na nibo. “N” ebe a “na” bu. A. mbuuzo. B. njiko. Ch. Nnoyemakangwaa. D. nnochiala.
35. Dezie ahiriokwu “Obi ahia na-ege”. A. obi eje na-ahia. B. obi ahia na eje. Ch. Obina-eje ahia. D. ahia obi
na-eje.
36. Onuogugu a 1,965 putara. A. out puku, nari itoolu, iri ise na ise. B. puku out nari itoolu iri isi na ise. Ch.
Puku nari iri na itoolu iri isii na ise. D. puku iri nari itoolu na iri isii na ise.
37. Tugharia ahiriokwu a n’igbo “ I feel satisfied that you come. A. afo juru m na iga-abia. B. na I biara. Ch. Na I
biaghi. D. mgbe I biara.

38. Nkita tara oke, N’ebe a nkita bu. A. ahaaka. B. ahaizugbe. Ch. Ahauche. D. ahaucheuda.
39. Anumanu nwere asusu bu. A. mmadu. B. ewu. Ch. Enyi. D. agu.
40. Tughairia “your paternal uncle” putara. A. nwanne gini nwoke. B. nwanne gini nwoke na nna. Ch. Nwanne
nna gi nke nwoke. D. nwanne nnagi.
NKEGA B: NKEBI ASUSU (AGHOTAAZA)
Guo edemede a nke oma ma zaa ajuju so ya.

Ihe di Emekekwe mkpa ma o kacha ibula akwukwo bu onye ga-eri aku ya. O bu nke a ka oji echu ura inwe
ezinaulo nke ya. O buru na mmadu alaa mmuo. O bu ezinaulo ebe a muru ya ga-eri aku ya. Ime nke a bu iri ekpe
site n’ itu agburu na nna ma Obodo Ohafia, Abiriba na Item na-ere ekpe n’ itu agburu na nne. Nke a putara na o bu
ndi nwadiala onye nwuru anwu ga-eri aku ya.
AJUJU:

1. Kowaa akpaalaokwu a bu “Ibula akwukwo”.

2. Olee omenaala igbo putara ihe n’ edemede a?
3. Obodo ole ka o kporo aha n’edemede a?
4. Nye ubara ahiriokwua: Nwa m ka obu.
5. Dee #9, 876 n’ igbo.
6. Mmadu ikocha iku anya putara gini?
7. Olee atumatu okwu nke a ziputara: Adaeze bu apunanwu.
8. Kwa uka kwa kobo bu omumaatu n’ igbo.
9. Tinye akaraudaolu na: nkanka.
10. Dee ahiriokwu a n’ igbo: Neka is a Talkative.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: ASUSU IGBO J. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS
Guo edemede a nke oma ma zaa ajuju so ya.
Nwoye bu ochicha mere ihe e boro oke. Kwa afo, oka a akoro n’ugbo uloakwukwo adighi aforo ya. Otu
ubochi o bara n’ ubi oka na-agho oka ma o maghi na onye nche ulo akwukwo no n’ime ohia azoo onwe ya. Ozigbo
onye nche nuru mkpotu, o weliri ihu elu, anya ya na nwa oke ahu jekoro o maa zam, mabanye n’ime ohia di n’
akuku ubi ahu. Ozigbo oke mkpu malitere dawa n’ohia ahu. “Anwuo! Anwuola moo! Nne moo! Gini mere? Nwoye
zonyere ukwu n’onya. Agwo na ihe o loro were wusara.
AJUJU:
1. Onye na-azu ohi oka n’ulo akwukwo?
2. Gini mere onye ohi ahu n’ohia?
3. Kedu onye jidere nwoye?
4. Abidii a na-ede ugbu a malitere n’afo. A. 1958. B. 1959. C. 1961. D. 1960.
5. Mgbochiume nge di. A. iri na itolu. B. abuo. C. asato. D. iri abuo.
6. Nke na-ewta mmekorita na nghota na ndi a bu. A. asusu. B. ejije. C. nri. D. oche.
7. Out n’ime ndi a bu njirimara asusu. A. naani ndi okenye na-asu ya. B. o na-eto eto. C. oke na ngwere na-
asu ya. D. o na-adapu adapu.
8. Igbo izugbe bu. A. igbo abakaliki. B. igbo ndi igbo niile nabatara. C. igbo onicha. D. igbo owerre.
9. Out n’ime ndi a bu okwu igbo siri n’asusu awusa bite. A. ashawo. B. ekpeteshi. C. ojoro. D. suya.
10. Mgbochiume anaghi ebu akara udaolu maka na. A. o bu mgbochiume. B. o gbara mkpi. C. o di abuo abuo.
D. o nweghi uda aka ya.
11. Nke bu mgbochiume nge n’ebe a bu. A. a. B. ch. C. k. D. gb.
12. N’ezinaulo out mkpuke, usekwu na-adi. A. abuo. B. ano. C. ato. D. otu.
13. Dika ndi jew, ndi igbo na-ebi ugwu ubochi nke. A. asaa. B. asato. C. iri. D. isii.
14. Ihe a na-akpo akuko ugbu a bu. A. abu. B. akuko ifo. C. ejije. D. iduuazi.
15. Asusu igbo zuru igbo niile onu bu igbo. A. awka. B. izugbe. C. Onitsha. D. orumba.
16. Out n’ime ndi a abughi omenaala igbo. A. ikele ekele. B. ikwu eziokwu. C. irube isi. D. itu asi.
17. Ejije odinaala nke anaghi ano out ebe ekiri bu. A. egwu onwa. B. mmonwu. C. itu nkwe. D. egwu ogbuba.
18. Ezigbo ozuzu nwata kwesiri inweta site n’ezinaulo ya bu. A. ikwa akwa. B. ime enyi. C. irube isi. D. izu ohi.
19. Olu nna ezinaulo bu. A. isu akwa. B. emebi ezinaulo ichekwe ezinaulo. C. isi nri. D. iwu umuaka ahu.
20. Idebe gburugburu ocha na-ebute. A. ahuike. B. atiti. C. onwu ike. D. oria.
21. Asusu eji mara ndi bi n’owuwa anyanwu najiria bu. A. awusa. B. igbo. C. tivi. D. Yoruba.
22. Kedu nke bu udaume nfe n’ebe a? a. a,e,I,o. B. a,I,u,o. Ch. E,I,o,u. D. e,I,o,u.
23. Ile obia na-egosi. A. ezi nnabata. B. ita amusu. C. ntakasi mmadu.
24. Mmadu nwere ike isi n’uzo ndi a kwuputa ihe o bu n’ uche ma e wepu. A. aka. B. anya. C. imi. D. isi.
25. Omenaala ibi ugwu ndi igbo yitere nke ndi. A. hibru. B. Ibibio. C. juru. D. izrelu.
26. N’ abidii igbo, a guchaa “kp” a guo. A. gb. B. kw. C. i. D. m.

27. Asusu ndi ala anyi putara ihe di. A. abuo. B. ano. C. ato. D. ise.
28. Onye choro imuta asusu onye ozo ga-ebu uzo _____ ya. A. dee. B. gee. C. ghota. D. kwuo.
29. Oti nwata n’ihu nne ya bu. A. agu. B. aguu. C. agbisi. D. onwu.
30. Gwa m out ibe ji zuru uwa onu. A. anyanwu. B. kpakpando. C. mmiri. D. onwa.
31. Olee nke bu omenala ndi igbo. A. iri akpu. B. iri ji. C. imu nwa. D. ikpa nsi.
32. Mmadu irube isi bu onye ahu idebe. A. iwu. B. isi. C. ndu. D. nkwe.
33. Ndi igbo bi n’ akuu ___ anyanwu naijiria. A. etiti. B. ndida. C. odida. D. owuwa.
34. Oge ezumike nwaanyi muru nwa ohuru bu. A. omugwo. B. igu aha. C. iru mgbede. D. iri oriri.
35. E ji iku azu mara ndi. A. awka. B. ogbaru. C. nnewi. D. Ogidi.
36. Asusu mmadu suru ga-enyere anyi aka imata ____ ya. A. agburu. B. ezinaulo. C. nna. D. nne.
37. Olee uzo ogbara ohuru dikarichara osooso iji zisaa ozi? A. ekenti. B. igba. C. redio. D. nuzpepa.
38. Tugharia ahiriokwu a n’ igbo. Your matern aunt. A. nwanna gin woke. B. nwanne gin woke na nna. C.
nwanne nna gi nwanyi. D. nwanne nne gi nwanyi.
39. Gwa m ihe mwere eze jiri racha ntu. A. aku. B. akpiri. C. oroma. D. ube.
40. Onye a na-ele omugwo bu. A. di nwanyi muru nwa. B. nne nwanyi muru nwa. C. nwanyi muru nwa ohuru.
D. nwa a muru ohuru.

NKEGA B: (ZAA AJUJU ANO)

1. Dee njirimara asusu igbo ato i maara?

2. Agumagu odinaala nwekwara ngalaba ato. Kedu ha.
3. Gini bu Agwa Oma? (b) Gosiputa uru ato Agwa Oma bara.
4. Kowa na Uju ihe bu Ezinaulo. (b) Were omumaatu gosiputa udi ezinaulo ato i maara.
5. Deputa uzo oru abuo abuo nne na nna na-aru n’ ezinaulo.
6. Gini bu Ahirimfe? (b) Nye omumaatu abuo Ahirimfe nkwe i maara.
EDEMEDE
Horo otu isiokwu ndi a ma dee otu ihu akwukwo.
1. Uloakukwo m.
2. Koo otu akuko Ifo mbe batara na ya.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.
(OBJECTIVES)
1. Inadequate food production in most developing countries is due to. A. high population growth. B. inadequate
technology. C. infestation of farms by pest. D. scarcity of labours.
2. Which of the following is not an important f agriculture. A. income generation. B. land survey. C. provision of
shelter. D. food production.
3. Which of the following occupation is not associated with agriculture? A. production of polythene. B.
production of honey. C. savomilling. D. fertilizer production.
4. Factors hindering the development of agriculture in West Africa include the following except. A. land tenure
system. B. inadequate rural infrastructure. C. adequate road. D. lack of rural markets.
5. The following are characteristics of subsistence farming except. A. it requires little capital. B. it requires
special marketing strategies. C. low environmental degradation. D. mostly practised by the peasant farmers.
6. Agricultural problems can be solved through the following except. A. adequate land availability. B. adequate
finance. C. food transportation facilities. D. provision of basic amenities.
7. The primary role of government in agricultural development is to. A. provide improved seeds. B. formulate
good agricultural policies. C. provide extension services. D. sell farmers produce through export.
8. Which of the following constitutes subsidy in agricultural enterprise? A. supplying of fertilizers. B. borrowing
of money. C. provision of services.
9. Farm settlement scheme is an example of agricultural. A. programme. B. policy. C. commodity. D. subsidy.
10. Commercial agriculture is characterised by. A. small farm holdings. B. low capital investment. C. little
research activity. D. use of machines.
11. The most common method of acquiring land in West Africa is by. A. mortgage. B. purchase. C. leasehold.
D. inheritance.
12. The problem of land availability for agriculture can be solved by. A. compulsory acquisition of all pieces of
land in dispute. B. enacting laws to regulate access to land. C. creating more land through reclamation. D.
collecting land rent from prospective farmers.
13. The recommended agricultural practice in farm settlement scheme is. A. poultry farming. B. continuous
cropping. C. mixed farming. D. cash crop production.
14. Which of the following agricultural programmes covers risk and uncertainties. A. agricultural development
project. B. river basin authority. C. farm settlement scheme. D. agricultural insurance scheme.
15. Agricultural use of land includes. A. silviculture. B. mini. C. housing. D. transportation.
16. Poaching is prohibited in game reserves in order to. A. starve hunters. B. reduce wildlife population. C.
protect hunters from wildlife. D. preserve wildlife.
17. Which of the following is not a government agricultural programme? A. Operation Feed the Nation. B.
Agricultural Development Project. C. Farm Settlement Scheme. D. West African Rice. Development Agency.
18. The national grasslands of West Africa are generally located in the. A. rain forest. B. guinea savanna. C.
mangroves. D. equatorial belts.
19. Land tenure system is a process of. A. conserving soil types. B. determining the suitability of soil for
agriculture. C. developing land for building. D. acquiring land for agricultural purpose.
20. The provision of farm inputs to farmers by the government can best be described as. A. loan. B. capital. C.
subsidy. D. gift.
21. Which of the following group of crops requires winnowing during processing? A. fruits. B. cereal. C. tubers.
D. vegetables.
22. Financial assistance from government to the farmers is on the following forms except. A. loan. B. credit. C.
subsidy. D. tax.
23. Agriculture helps to solve the following problems except. A. malnutrition. B. unemployment. C. high
population growth. D. shelter materials.
24. Plant quarantine was introduced to. A. control incoming diseases and pests. B. control the cost of
production. C. mention genetic purity. D. encourage breeding of new varieties.
25. Which of the following is not a function of forestry? A. provision of timber. B. establishment of pasture. C.
provision of shelter. D. preservation of medicinal trees.
26. Which of the following land tenure system encourages the establishment of permanent crops? A. freehold
system. B. tenancy. C. leasehold system. D. government tenancy.
27. The land tenure system that results in fragmentation of land is. A. freehold. B. leasehold. C. inheritance. D.
government.
28. The use of land for agriculture is not influenced by. A. labour. B. climate. C. topography. D. population.
29. Which of the following raw materials would a garri – processing industry require? A. cotton. B. cassava. C.
cocaine. D. kola.
30. Chemicals that destroys weeds are called. A. fumigants. B. acarides. C. herbicides. D. pesticides.
31. Officer that are trained to teach rural farmers and help them are called. A. research workers. B. agric
investors. C. forest guards. D. extension workers.
32. All are abiotic factors except. A. sunlight. B. rainfall. C. temperature. D. predators.
33. Relationship among plants, animals and living creatures in an environment is called. A. symbiosis. B. biotic
relationship. C. abiotic relationship. D. ecology.
34. Farm tools made with iron or steel can be maintained by. A. applying oil. B. applying water. C. applying
chemicals. D. keeping near fire.
35. In subsistence agriculture. A. surplus produce is small. B. yields are usually high. C. savings are made. D.
farm size are large.
36. Farm tools used for pruning and trimming of hedges and branches is. A. matchet. B. shears. C. cutlass. D.
hoe.
37. Wastage of agricultural products during harvesting period is duly mainly to inadequate. A. transport. B.
financing. C. extension. D. storage facilities.
38. Which of the following is not a permanent crop? A. cocoa. B. pineapple. C. mango. D. oil palm.
39. Which of the following factors should be considered before siting a fish pond? A. water availability. B.
climatic factors. C. seasonality. D. government policy.
40. The practice of growing different crops in a sequence on a piece of land is known as. A. Monoculture. B.
rotational grazing. C. crop rotation. D. mixed cropping.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer any THREE questions)

1. Explain the term Commercial Agriculture. (b) List four characteristics of commercial farming. (c) What is
Agriculture? (d) State 2 importance of agriculture.
2. State five agricultural programmes you know. (b) List four roles of government in agricultural development. (c)
Explain Subsistence Farming.
3. Explain Land Tenure System. (b) List six land tenue system you know. (c) State two advantages and two
disadvantages of Individual Land Tenure System.
4. State six problems of agriculture. (b) List 8 simple farm tools you know. (c) What is Land?
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE S. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.
(OBJECTIVES)
1. These are needed by plant in large amount except. A. calcium. B. iron. C. magnesium. D. potassium.
2. In the process of recycling carbon in nature, carbondioxide is used by crops during. A. decomposition. B.
translocation. C. respiration. D. burning.
3. One of these is not a component of soil. A. air. B. water. C. organic matter. D. texture.
4. Plant nutrients are restored during following through. A. accumulation of soil organic matter. B. reduced
evaporation from the soil. C. denitrification and ammonification.
5. Plant roots take up nitrogen in form of. A. nitrite ion. B. nitric acid. C. nitrate ion. D. nitrogen gas.
6. One of these is essential for chlorophyll formation. A. sodium. B. magnesium. C. boron. D. molybdenum.
7. Replenishing, soil nutrient can be enhanced by. A. crop removal. B. crop rotation. C. leaching. D. erosion.
8. Carbondioxide is released into the air by animals through. A. denitrification and ammonification. B.
respiration and ammonification. C. respiration and decay. D. nitrification and decay.
9. The major disadvantage of monoculture is that. A. soil microns are destroyed. B. diseases and pests build
up. C. soil texture is destroyed. D. farms cannot be mechanized.
10. Farm drainage does not lead to. A. improvement in soil temperature. B. improvement in soil structure. C.
increased soil exaction. D. reduction of soil alkalinity.
11. Which of the following methods of irrigation is best for a farm with undulating landscape. A. sprinkler. B.
flooding. C. barrow. D. basin.
12. The practice of growing different crops in a sequence on a piece of land is known as. A. Monoculture. B.
rotational grazing. C. crop rotation. D. mixed cropping.
13. A farm survey equipment made of steel and used for measuring short distance is called. A. Gunter’s chain.
B. theodolite. C. measuring tape. D. prismatic compass.
14. Which of the following statements about farm stead planning is false. A. annual pens should not be located
too close to the workers house. B. all building should be well ventilated with good lightening. C. waste
disposals unit should be located for away from the main farm area. D. administrative blocks should not be
located to the entrance of the farmstead.
15. Drainage refers to. A. protection of soil from erosion. B. removal of nutrients from the soil. C. addition of
water to the soil. D. removal of excess water from the soil.
16. The green pigment in plant necessary for photosynthesis is. A. carbon. B. chloroplast. C. chlorophyll. D.
nitrogen.
17. During photosynthesis, green plants convert carbondioxide to. A. chlorophyll. B. carbohydrate. C. protein.
D. carbonic acid.
18. Sources of nitrogen to the soil include the following except. A. urea. B. lightening. C. blue – green algae. D.
residues of burning activities.
19. These nutrients are gotten from the air except. A. carbon. B. oxygen. C. hydrogen. D. potassium.
20. These are added to the soil through decay of organic matter except. A. potassium. B. nitrogen. C. sulphure.
D. calcium.
21. The following equipment can be used for irrigation except. A. watering can. B. bucket. C. knapsack sprayer.
D. siphon tube.
22. What is the function of nitrosamines bacteria in nitrogen cycle? A. Ammonification. B. nitrification. C.
denitrification. D. nitrogen fixation.
23. Irrigation water is passed underneath the soil through. A. sprinkler. B. canals. C. drips. D. pipes.
24. Fertile soil is the one that. A. easily drained. B. well aerated. C. can produce a good harvest of crop. D.
contain all plant nutrient in suitable proportions.
25. The survey instrument used for measuring horizontal and vertical angles on the field is the. A. theodolite. B.
prismatic compass. C. offset staff. D. arrow.
26. A detrimental effect of bush burning is that it. A. destroys soil organic matter. B. destroy weed seed. C.
sterilizes the soil. D. add potash to the soil.
27. In crop rotation, deep-rooted crops should follow shallow-rooted crops because deep-rooted crops are. A.
resistant to diseases. B. feed from different soil layers. C. mature easily. D. attract different kinds of crops.
28. The physical properties of soil include the following except. A. bulky density. B. colour. C. moisture contact.
D. PH.
29. Farm surveying is important because it determines. A. soil fertility. B. size of the farm land. C. yield of crops.
D. types of implement to use.
30. Which of the following equipment is not used in farm surveying? A. Gunter’s chain. B. pick axe. C.
measuring tape. D. ranging pole.
31. Which of the following practice encourages soil degradation? A. fertilizer application. B. bush burning. C.
cover cropping. D. fungicide application.
32. Which of the following is not economic importance of forests? A. source of medicinal plants. B. source of
wild animals. C. source of edible wild fruits. D. source of domestic animal.
33. Plant nutrient essential for formation of tube is. A. molybdenum. B. phosphorus. C. potassium. D. sodium.
34. The forest management system which involves the planting of both food crops and forest trees on the same
piece of lance at the same time is known as. A. selective exploitation. B. tangy system. C. regeneration. D.
afforestation.
35. The botanical name for groundnut is. A. vignia ungiculata. B. arachis hypogea. C. glycine max. D.
theobroma cacao.
36. Which of these is not source of energy used by green plants for photosynthesis? A. electricity. B. wind. C.
water. D. sun.
37. Crops grown in nitrogen – deficient soil shows the following characteristics except. A. timely ripening of fruits.
B. stunted growth. C. chlorosis. D. premature dropping of leaves.
38. These nutrients aid in chlorophyll formation except. A. iron. B. copper. C. magnesium. D. cobalt.
39. The use of land for agriculture is not influenced by. A. labour. B. climate. C. topography. D. population.
40. One of these is not an advantage of surface irrigation. A. it is cheap to practice. B. water is evenly
distributed over the farm land. C. water can be economically used. D. it may cause erosion.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer only 3 questions)
1. With the aid of a labelled diagram, explain how water gets to the soil and excape to the atmosphere.
2. Define (i) Irrigation (ii) Drainage. (b) Enumerate 3 importance of irrigation and 3 importance of drainage.
3. What is Farm Surveying? (b) Give any 3 reasons for surveying. (c) List 5 simple farm surveying equipment.
4. What is Agricultural Pollution? (b) Mention four land pollutants you know. (c) State four causes of land
pollution.
5. Define Nutrient Cycle. (b) State any four factors affecting availability of nutrient in the soil. (c) List 4 micro
nutrients. (ii) List any 4 macro nutrient.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

 ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE S. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.
(OBJECTIVES)
1. Which of the following is not a characteristics of subsistence agriculture? A. it requires little capital
investment. B. it requires special marketing strategies. C. low environmental degradation. D. mostly
practised by the peasant farmers.
2. The problem of agricultural development can be solved through the following except. A. adequate land
availability. B. adequate finance. C. poor transportation facilities. D. provision of basic amenities.
3. The main objective of agriculture is. A. income generation. B. provision of employment. C. food production.
D. provision of shelter.
4. Output is higher in commercial agriculture because of the following reasons except. A. adequate finance. B.
cultivation of large hectares of land. C. utilization of complete farm machines. D. employment of large labour
force.
5. Government agricultural regulation are made to control the following except. A. spread of diseases. B.
exploitation of natural resources. C. control of crops and animal quality. D. use of exotic breads.
6. The most common factor affecting land use is. A. population pressure. B. solar radiation. C. climatic
influence. D. type of soil.
7. The disintegration of rocks is known as. A. soil formation. B. rock weathering. C. rock breakage. D. rock
decomposition.
8. Which of the following rock is not formed from pre-existing rock? A. granite. B. limestone. C. marble. D.
shale.
9. Farm settlement scheme is an example of agricultural. A. programme. B. policy. C. commodity. D. subsidy.
10. Which of the following process will not lead to loss of nutrients from the soil? A. erosion. B. mulching. C.
harvesting. D. leaching.
11. Factors affecting rock weathering include the following except. A. ammonification. B. carbon. C.
temperature. D. water.
12. Farm tool used for pruning and trimming of hedges and branches is. A. matchet. B. pliers. C. cutlass. D.
shears.
13. The simplest method of determining soil texture on the field is. A. mechanical analysis. B. feeling. C.
moulding. D. sieving.
14. The use of land for agricultural purpose involves the following except. A. livestock grazing. B. crop
production. C. road construction. D. fish farming.
15. Animal power is usually used on farm for. A. planting. B. harvesting. C. spraying. D. ploughing.
16. Combine harvester is usually used for harvesting. A. groundnut. B. pepper. C. rubber. D. rice.
17. Tomato plants are primary staked to. A. prevent birds from feeding on the fruits. B. accelerate fruit maturely.
C. increase crop growth. D. raise fruits from the ground.
18. All are abiotic factors except. A. sunlight. B. rainfall. C. predators. D. temperature.
19. Farm tools made with iron or steel can be maintained by. A. applying oil. B. applying water. C. applying
chemicals. D. keeping near fire.
20. The acidity of a soil can be corrected by. A. conservation. B. drainage. C. liming. D. cover cropping.
21. Which of the following activities does not clearly describe the art of mechanization? A. clearing land with a
cutlass. B. using tractor to apply herbicides. C. using milking machine on a daily animal. D. harvesting
maize with a harvester.
22. Which of the following is a pasture grass? A. pueraria phascoloides. B. centrosema pubescens. C.
stylosanthes gracitis. D. cynodon dactylon.
23. An example of grain legume is. A. millet. B. sorghum. C. pigeon pea. D. maize.
24. Farm mechanisation does not. A. involve the use of motorized equipment. B. involve the use of heavy
machine only. C. lead to unemployment. D. require much capital.
25. The most important input contributed by the farmer’s family is. A. money. B. labour. C. implements. D.
fertilizer.
26. Mechanization is difficult to practice where the. A. land is fragmented. B. the farm holding is large. C. farmer
is wealthy. D. soil fertility is low.
27. A major raw material for paper industry is. A. pulp. B. gum. C. latex. D. bark.
28. Which of these organisms is an ectoparasite of farm animals? A. tapeworm. B. louse. C. liver fluke. D.
roundworm.
29. Which of the following statement is a disadvantage of human power? A. it controls other sources of farm
power. B. it brings about least damage. C. it has low output. D. it is easily available and controlled.
30. In crop propagation, ginger is propagated by. A. seed. B. bulb. C. corm. D. rhizome.
31. Termites are important to the farmer because it. A. improves soil texture. B. destroys soil pathogsis. C.
checks soil erosion. D. improves soil structure.
32. Farmers practice mixed farming because they can. A. easily secure loans to expand their farms. B. use the
manure from the animals to fertilize their crops. C. specialize in either in the growing of crops or rearing of
animals. D. easily control pests and disease on their farms.
33. Financial assistance from government to the farmers is usually in the following forms except. A. loan. B. tax.
C. credit. D. subsidy.
34. The horizon of a soil profile which encourage the greatest level of microbial activity is. A. A-horizon. B. B-
horizon. C. C-horizon. D. D-horizon.
35. The most suitable source of power for subsistence agriculture is. A. animal. B. machine. C. electricity. D.
man.
36. An important farm machine used for coupling marry implements is. A. dise harrow. B. harvester. C. tractor.
D. plough.
37. Which of the following is the correct order for land preparation? A. land clearing – ploughing – harrowing –
ridging. B. land clearing – ridging – harrowing – ploughing. C. land clearing – harrowing – ridging –
ploughing. D. land clearing – ploughing – ridging – harrowing.
38. The following are necessary operations for maize cultivation except. A. weeding. B. thinning. C. nursery
practice. D. irrigation.
39. The component of the soil include the following except. A. living organisms. B. moisture. C. mineral matter.
D. light.
40. Which of the following is obtained from rubber tree? A. fibre. B. latex. C. sisal. D. gum.
41. The milk let down hormone in farm animals is called. A. adrenalin. B. oestrogen. C. oxytocin. D.
progesterone.
42. National immunity can be conferred on newly-born animals through. A. vaccination. B. feeding with
colostrum. C. administration of antibiotics. D. strict sanitation.
43. The average gestation period in sheep is. A. 30 days. B. 150 days. C. 50 days. D. 270 days.
44. Feed given to animals solely to sustain their weight is called. A. balance ration. B. wean ration. C.
production ration. D. maintenance ration.
45. Which of the following feed stuffs required much processing before being fed to animals? A. cassava. B.
sorghum. C. maize. D. groundnut.
46. Mating in poultry is known as. A. servicing. B. tapping. C. treading. D. breading.
47. The causal organism of anthrax is in farm animals is known as. A. bacillus anthratis. B. brucella abortus. C.
mycobacterium spp. D. aspergillus spp.
48. Which of the following fish species is found in fresh water? A. sardine. B. tilapia. C. salmon. D. herring.
49. The disease which affect only animals other than human is. A. rinderpest. B. anthrax. B. brucellosis. D.
trypanosomiasis.
50. Prevention of animal diseases involves the following except. A. rearing disease resistant stock. B. carrying
out rotation grazing. C. feeding balanced ration. D. identifying the source of disease.
51. Which of the following factors is least important in selecting a site for a fish pond? A. topography. B. soil type.
C. availability of water. D. availability of manure.
52. The fish preservation method which, which result in the greatest water loss is? A. freezing. B. steaming. C.
salting. D. smoking.
53. An infectious disease of livestock characterized by sudden death and black bloody discharge from the nose,
mouth and eyes is known as. A. anthrax. B. brucellosis. C. pleurapneumonia. D. tuberculosis.
54. When different breeds of animals are mated, the process is known as. A. crossbreeding. B. in breeding. C.
out breeding. D. line breeding.
55. Which of the following items is a liability to a farm? A. account payable. B. cash in the bank. C. prepayable.
D. accounts receivable.

56. Financial assistance from government to farmer is usually in the following form except. A. credit. B. loan. C.
tax. D. subsidy.
57. The adult male cattle is called. A. bull. B. ram. C. boar. D. buck.
58. The process of stopping a young animal from sucking milk and placing it under hand feeding. A. culling. B.
weaning. C. breeding. D. isolation.
59. Which of the following is not a permanent crops? A. cocoa. B. pineapple. C. mango. D. oil palm.
60. The extension method that will benefit only the literate farmers is. A. radio. B. television. C. demonstration.
D. newspaper.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer any FOUR questions)
1. Explain the term “Farm Mechanization”
(b) State 4 advantages and 4 disadvantages of farm mechanization.
(c) Highlight four mentainance practices in tractor.

2. Explain briefly four factors of soil formation.

(b) List four chemical processes of soil formation.
(c) What is Soil?

3. Describe briefly four methods of Weed Dispersal.

(a) List four weeds and their botanical name.
(d) State four methods of weed control.

4. Explain the Law of Diminishing Returns.

(b) Discuss low each of the following factors affects the supply of agricultural produce. (i) Price (ii) season (iii)
taste and fashion (iv) Government Policy (v) What is Demand?

5. Explain Agricultural Insurance. (b) State 4 qualities of a good extension agent. (c) List four factors considered
before siting a fish pond. (d) What is Animal Improvement.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
 FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
CLASS: SS 3
SUBJECT: ECONOMICS TIME: 1 HOUR 30mins
SECTION: OBJECTIVES
1. Scarcity implies that ______________ A. Goods cannot be efficiently utilized B. Human wants are unlimited
C. Goods and services are limited in supply D. Commodities are evenly distributed within the economy
2. Economics problems arise mainly as a result of A. Inaccurate statistical data in West African B. Excessive
wastage of available resources C. Lack of foresight on the part of resources users D. Limitations in available
resources
3. Basic extractive activities are classified as: A. Manufacturing production B. Tertiary production C. Secondary
production D. Primary production
4. The entire satisfaction that a consumer derives from a successive consumption of a particular commodity is
known as A. Marginal Utility B. Total Utility C. Average Utility D. Premising Utility
5. A collection of data which has not been processed is referred to as A. Raw data B. Disjointed data C. Class
intervals D. Frequency
6. The equilibrium position of a firm is attained: A. When MC= AR. B. When MC=P C. When MC=MR D.
When AC=AR E. When AR=MR
7. The quantity supplied of books per week is represented by the function Qs=70+1/2 P. At a price of N8.00, the
quantity supplied is A. 70 B. 74 C. 76 D. 86
Age Distribution Table

0-15 16-35 36-60 61 and

10,000 3,000 5,000 above
2,000
8. The above table shows the age distribution of a town in Nigeria. What is the dependency ratio of the town?
A. 10:3 B. 2:1 C. 3:2 D.5:2
9. P= Population GNP= Gross National Product NI= National Income GDP= National Domestic Product. From
the above, the formula for calculating real per capital income is A. NI/P B. GDP/P C. P/GDP D.
GNP/P E. P/GNP
10. Which of the following is a measure a central tendency A. Percentage B. Graph C. Variance D. Median
11. Which of the following is not an advantage of price control? A. Control of Inflation B. Control of producers
profit C. Distribution of price mechanism D. Helping low income earners E. Prevention of exploitation.
12. Which of these factors cause a change in demand? A. Income B. Taste and fashion C. Population price of
other commodities D. All of the above.
13. Price control can be defined as the fixing by government of maximum or minimum prices of A. Luxury goods
B. Inferior goods C. Imported capital goods D. Certain selected goods E. Goods consumed by low income
earners.
14. When the price of commodity ‘A’ increases, the demand for commodity ‘B’ decreases then A and B are A.
Close substitutes B. Complementary goods C. Supplementary goods D. Gotten goods E. Luxurious goods
15. When the demand for a commodity is inelastic total revenue will fall if A. Price increased B. Price is reduced
C. Price remains constant D. Price is not given E. The commodity is not luxury
16. In any economic system, which of the following is not an economic problem? A. What goods and services to
produce B. For whom to produce goods and services C. What techniques of production to be adopted D.
Equal distribution of goods and services E. How to ensure that the economy grow overtime.
17. The major currency for granting credits to member countries of the international monetary fund is the A. U.S
Dollar B. Canadian Dollar C. Pound Sterling D. Deutschmark E. Belgian franc
18. The two largest producers of crude oil in Nigeria are A. Borno and Ondo states B. Oyo and Bendel states C.
Kwara and Benue states D. Belgian franc.
19. An economy system in which most capital goods are owned by individuals and private firms is known as A.
Mixed economy B. Planned economy C. Capitalist economy D. Traditional economy E. Civilized economy
20. Which of the following categories of people not gain during inflation A. Debtors B. Business men C. Share
holders D. Investors E. creditors
21. One of the arguments against the presence of middlemen in the distribution Chain is that they A. Cause
increase in the price of commodities B. Are commissioned agents C. Helps in keeping prices stable D. Can
be found almost anywhere E. Grade and blend goods
22. Which of the following is the normal channel by which the commodities reach the final consumer? A.
Manufacturer-wholesaler-Agent retailer-consumer B. Manufacturer-wholesaler-retailer-consumer C.
Manufacturer – wholesaler – sales representative - consumer
23. The movement of a worker from one grade to another within the same industry is a form of mobility at labour
which is A. Geographical B. vertical C. Occupational D. Horizontal E. Lateral
24. A person who buys in bulk and sells in bits is a: A. Manufacturer B. Wholesaler C. Retailer D. Advertiser E.
Distributor
25. Which of the following is not correct A. Population refers to the number of people living in a place B. The
population of a place is not static a place C. Population is known through a census D. Population is affected
by the amount of money in circulation E. Population can be affected by natural disaster
26. The money paid per week or hour for work done is known as: A. cost B. Time rate C. Bonus D. Wage rate E.
Labour
27. Which of the following is a problem of trade by barter? A. Exchange rate denomination B. Hoarding C. How to
produce D. What to produce
28. Cheques are not money because A. Their use is confined to business hours B. There are few banks in the
rural areas C. They are not generally acceptable as a medium of exchange D. They are not issued by
government.
29. The value of money is best determined by its A. Size B. Purchasing power C. Probability D. Being recognized
30. Which of the following is a function of the central bank of Nigeria?
A. Serving as bankers bank B. Serving as custodian of important valuables C. Giving advice to customers D.
Creating credit
31. Who among the following will benefit from inflation? A. Pensioners B. Savers C. Debtors D. Creditors
32. Personal savings are generally how in West Africa because of A. The level of income of the people B. The
refusal of banks to grant loans C. Over-population D. Cheaper foreign currencies
33. The greatest revenue earning industry in Nigeria is A. Construction B. Agriculture C. Manufacturing D. Mining
34. A market equilibrium exists when? A. No longer goes home empty handed B. Demand and supply are
increasing C. The price is fluctuating D. Demand and supply are equal
35. Budget surplus implies that; A. Expenditure equal revenue B. Expenditure is less than revenue C.
Expenditure is greater than taxation D. Direct tax is more than indirect tax
36. International trade is based on the law of A. Absolute cost advantage B. Variable proportion C. Comparative
cost advantage D. Mutual co-operation
37. Terms of trade is used to describe A. The quantity of exports B. The directory of foreign trade C. Purchases
on deferred payment basis.
38. A nations net export is negative when her A. Stock of goods is declining B. Depreciation exceeds investment
C. Export is adjusted upwards D Imports exceeds exports
39. Budget deficit can be financed by A. Reducing the level of taxation B. printing more money C. Lending to
financial institutions D. employing more workers.
40. In a socialist economy, the means of production is owned and controlled by the A. State B. Rich C.
Entrepreneur D. Traders
41. IT is necessary to estimate the national income of a country because of A. Indicates the overall performance
of the economy B. Ensures equitable distribution of wealth C. Assisting investors in identifying profitable
ventures D. Enables governments to conserve national resources.
42. The organization of petroleum exporting countries (OPEC) is an example of a A. Perfect competition B.
Monophony C. Duopoly D. Cartel
Use the diagram below to answer question 43
43. The curve labeled X is the A. Average product curve B. Marginal product Curve C. fixed product curve D. Total product
curve
44. Which of the following is an economic activity? A. Payment of school fees B. attending a towns’ meeting C. A visit to
stadium D. arresting a petty thief.
Use the table to answer question 45-47
Price ( N) Quantity Development
5 60
3 36
45. The percentage change in demand is A. 20 B. 40 C. 30 D. 50
46. The percentage change in price is A. 10 B. 30 C. 40 D. 20
47. The elasticity of demand is A. Infinite B. Inelastic C. Elastic D. Unitary
48. Open market operation (OMO) means the A. Provision of credit facilities by commercial banks B. Provision credit
facilities by the mortgage banks C. Buying and selling of government securities by central bank. D. procedure for the
establishment of commercial banks.
49. The desire for goods without the ability of pay is called. A. choice. B. effective demand. C. joint demand. D. wants.
50. The transfer of ownership of a public entreprise to individuals and firms is called. A. privatization. B. commercialization.
C. nationalization. D. restructuring.
SECTION B: THEORY. (Question No 1 is compulsory and any other three)

Price in Naira

Quantity

The diagram above illustrate the demand for and supply of maize. Use the information in the diagram to answer
the question that follows.
1. What is the total revenue of the farmer at the initial equilibrium? (ii) Calculate the total revenue of the farmer if the supply
curve shifte to S1S1. (b) What change occurs in the total revenue of the farmer when the price falls from # 100 to # 40
per tonue? (Ci) Use the figures in the diagram to determine the price elasticity of demand for maize. (ii) Interprate your
answer.
2. Distinguish between Human Capital and Physical Capital. (b) Explain six differences between human capital and
physical capital.
3. Explain five development strategies employed by the Asian Tigers.
4. Explain five contributions of manufacturing and construction to economic development of Nigeria.
5. Explain the following concept; a. brain drain. B. service industries. C. international trade. D. Organisation of Petroleum
Exporting Countries (OPEC). E. Nigerian Natioanl Petroleum Corporation.(NNPC).

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
 FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: ECONOMICS S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS
1. The term “Centeris Paribus” means. A. all things been equal. B. all things being equal. C. all things be equal. D. all
things are equal.
2. The sum of items divided by the number of items is the. A. frequency. B. mean. C. median. D. mode.
3. Mining os an example of. A. tertiary production. B. primary production. C. secondary production. D. advanced
production.
4. Ends in economics refers to. A. resources. B. choice. C. output. D. want.
5. The law of demand states that. A. as price increase, quantity demanded remains constant. B. demand increase as
price increases. C. as price falls, quantity demanded also falls. D. as price falls, quantity demanded increase.
6. Effective demand in economics means. A. the desire for a commodity. B. a proposal to purchase a good on credit. C.
the desire for a commodity or service bucked by purchasing power. D. an irrevocable instruction to the seller to meet up
the needs of the buyers.
7. Scarcity in economics means. A. shotage of a commodity. B. unlimited demand for consumer goods. C. limited supply
of goods and services. D. total obsence of a commodity in the market.
8. Which of the following is an economic activity? A. attending a towns meeting. B. a visit to the stadium. C. payment of
school fees. D. arresting a petty thief.
9. The reward for land as factor of production is. A. interest. B. rent. C. dividend. D. wages.
10. The three broad categories of production are: A. direct, secondary and extractive. B. primary, tertiary and direct. C.
primary, secondary and tertiary. D. secondary, primary and indirect.
11. Economics activities are undertaken to solve the problem of. A. consumption. B. opportunity cost. C. production. D.
scarcity.
12. Farming, mining and fishing are. A. primary production. B. secondary production. C. tertiary production. D.
intermediate production.
13. A list of consumers’ wants arranged in order of priority is known as. A. a budget. B. an opportunity cost. C. a scale of
preference. D. choice.
14. If a student with #25.00 bought exercise books instead of a biro. The opportunity cost is. A. biro and exercise book. B.
radio. C. biro. D. exercise book.
15. The remuneration of the entrepreneur as a factor of production is called. A. wages. B. salary. C. interest. D. profit.
16. The production factor, whose entire world supply is fixed is. A. land. B. skilled labour. C. capital goods. D.
entrepreneurship.
17. Equilibrium price in economics is that price which. A. cost price. B. wquate demand with supply. C. equate price with
supply. D. demand is higher than supply.
18. As a social science economic studies. A. demand and supply. B. scarcity and choice. C. human behaviour. D.
economic system.
19. Most acceptable definition of economics was by who? A. Professor Lionel Robbins. B. Adam smith. C. J. S. Mall. D.
A. C. Pigeon.
20. One of the following is not a basic concept in economics. A. scarcity. B. population. C. choice. D. scale of preference.
21. Choice is necessary because resources are. A. available. B. constant. C. few. D. scarce.
22. One of the following is not a basic tool for economic. A. table. B. chart. C. production. D. mode.
23. Who is the father of economics? A. Alfred Marshal. B. Adam Smith. C. Dave Port. D. Thomas Hobbes.
24. Simplest basic tools the economics use in economic analysis include. A. charts. B. graphys. C. table d. all of the
above.
25. In a multiple bar chart all the bars are. A. equal. B. joined. C. portional to 3600. D. not divided into components.
26. Calculate the mean of the following scores obtained in the economics test 4,7,8,6,9,2. A. 6. B. 8. C. 9. D. 15.
27. A circle which is divided into sectors by radial lines is called. A. graph. B. multiples. C. bar-chart. D. pie-chart.
28. A capital intensive method of production implies. A. the use of more oney than machines. B. the use of more machines
than men. C. the rationing of machines. D. an equal use of both men and women.
29. Rent and wage are reward for. A. labour. B. capital and land. C. entrepreneur and labour. D. land and labour.
30. Breaking down of production process into different stages so that each stage will be handed by a specialist is called. A.
employment. B. production. C. division of labour. D. central tendency.
31. In economics production is complete when. A. commodities are sold to the final consumers. B goods and service are
distributed by government. C. produces fis the prices and goods. D. goods and service get to retailers.
32. Data presented in tables are usualy arranged in. A. charts and graphs. B. rows and colours. C. graphs and rows. D.
colours and charts.
33. Production resources can also be called. A. principle of production. B. factors f production. C. items of production. D.
labour and material resources.
34. One of the advantages of division of labour is that it. A. makes work monotonous. B. saves tones. C. encourages
specialization. D. makes workers skilled at their work.
35. The advantages of presenting in a table are the following except. A. it is easy to interpret. B. easy to understand. C.
location of figure are easy. D. too cumbersome.
36. Transforming of raw material into finished goods is called. A. direct production. B. secondary production. C. tertiary
production. D. primary production.
37. ___ is the only action=ve factor in the economic sense. A. entrepreneur. B. labour. C. land. D. capital.
38. Factors of production can be referred to as. A. products. B. types. C. agents. D. methods.
39. The formula for means. A. n+1. B. x = Ex. C. E-x D. Exn2.
2n n n n
40. The factor of production that organises human and material resources for production is called. A. labour. B. land. C.
entrepreneur. D. capital.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer FOUR questions from this section)
1. Calculate (i) Mean (ii) Mode (iii) Median of the following set of numbers; 23,31,22,34,23,28,27,23,25,29,21,30,24,26,24.
2. The population of five states in nigeri are shown below

Days Sales (#)

Oyo 80

Anambra 60

Edo 75

Imo 50

Enugu 30

Represent this information in a simple bar chart.

3. Write short note on the following; i. Want, ii. Choice, iii. Opportunity Cost, iv. Scale of Prefrence, v. Scarcity.
4. Population of three sections of a country in three years is shown below;

Section 2001 2002 2003

North 35 30 45

South 50 48 40

North 60 55 60

Represent this information in a multiple bar chart.

5. Number of boys and girls selected in four classes of a school

Class Boys Girls Total

JS1 20 30 ______

JS2 25 25 ______

JS3 40 40 ______

SS1 50 30 _______

Represent this information in a component bar chart.

 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: ECONOMICS S. S. 2 TIME: 1 ½ HR.
SECTION A (OBJECTIVES) ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS
1. Collectivism refers to the system of managerment of state enterprises in __________(a) Mixed economy (b)
Planned economy (c) Capitalist economy (d) Socialist economy
2. In which of the following economic system is a consumer referred to as king? __________(a) Mixed economy
(b) Planned economy (c) Capitalist economy (d) Socialist economy
3. The measures of disperesion in any statistical distribution includes ________(a) Median (b) Mean (c) mode
(d) Variance
4. Retailers in an economy performs the function of ___________(a) production 9b) Exchange (c) Distribution
(d) hoarding
5. The supply and demand for goods and services are influenced by the ______(A) Super market (b) price
mechanism (c) entreprenuers (d) equlibruim
6. A situation in w hich am increase in the demand for other good is known as _____(a) Compectitive supply (b)
competitive demand (c) composite demand (d) derivied demand
7. Which if the following is NOT asource finacne for one business? (a) inheritance (b) Loans from insurance (c)
sales of shares (d) sales of documents
8. Which of the following is not a characteristics of money (a) Scarcity (b) durability (c) Divisibility (d) Mobility
9. A firms compulsory cost whether it is production or not is referred to as ___(a) Prime cost (b) Variable cost (c)
fixed cost (d) Avaerage cost
10. Divison of labour gives rise to ___(a) Delay in production (b) unemployement (d) production of limited goods
(d) the exchange of goods
11. A trade union is best detined as an ____ (a) association of market traders (b) Association of workers in a
particular trade (c) Professional associations ((d) Association of market women
12. Scarity necessitates __(A) Choice (b) Arrangement (c) decisons (d) utilities
13. The quantity supplied of a commodity increases while ___________(a) production increases (b)demand
increases (c) price increases (d) population increases
Use the diagranm below to answer questions 15 and 15
Y
N P
M

O X
14. The above diagram for good X and good Y (a) Demand curve (b) cost curve (c) Production possibility curve
(d) total output curve
15. In the diagram full e mployement of resources is indicated by (a) O (b) M (c) N (d) P
16. From an economic point of vew, an activity does not have cost when ____(A) someone else pay (b) returns
are greater than cost (c) choice involves given uo nothing (d) it is agift
17. the supply of labour in a given economy is also calleed _____(a) labour effictively (b) labour force (c) labour
productivity (d) Labour demand
Use the information below to answer questions 18 and 19
Price N Quantity Sold
5 15
5 16
5 17
5 18
18. The total revenue at 15 units is ____(a) N75 (b) N80 (c) N84 (d) N90
19. The marginnal revenue at 16 units is ___ (a) N5 (b) N6 (c) N8 (d) N10
20. An arrangemnt of data in rows and columns is called _____(a) graph (b) Barchart (c) Pie chart (d) Table
21. The function C –a+by is ___(a) Linear (b) Quadratic cubical (d) graph
22. An alternative name for building socities is ____(a) Mortage bank (b) Contractor (c) builder (d0 structural bank
23. the main problem contronting agriculture in Nigeria is _________(a) Land tenure system (b) lack od storage facilities (c)
Bad weather (d) all of the above
24. The following are factors that influence demand for labour except _______ (a) wage (b) level of still (c) working
condition (d) quantity of other factors
25. A normal demand curve sloops ______(a) downwards from left to right (b) upward from left to right (c)upward right to
left (d) Upward from right to left
26. The factor of producion which takes the initiative in combinig resources for production is known as ___(a) capital (b) land
(c) Labour (d) entreprenuer
27. Which of the following is not a feature of coailaism (a) freedom of entreprises (b) production is not based on profit
motvie (c) collective ownnership of productive resources (d) mAximization of public welfare
28. An agriculture production process which uses moe machinery related to labour is referred to as ____(a) capital
intensive farming (b0 large scale farming (c) land intensive farming (d) labour intensive farming
29. In the long run factors of production are consideres to be ___(a) at maximum (b) fixed (c) Increasing (d) variable
30. A type od unemployement which occurs due to technical progress is called ____(a) residual unemployment (b)
structurla unemployment (c) frictional unemployment (d) Mass unemployment
31. Which of the following best decribe the mode? (a) average of two middle members (b) Observation with the highest
frequency (c) Difference of two rxteme values (d)item that occupy the middle position
32. Consumer buys more of a commodity at a lower price than at a higher price because ____(a) the lower the price, the
higher the quantity demanded (b) producers like to produce more (c)in any given situation, consumes like to buy more
(d) consumers like to show off
33. All the underlisted are weapons used by trade union during a trade dispute except ___(a) Strike (b) Co-operation(c)
Collective bargaing (d) Work to rule.
34. What must be added to variable cost to give total cost? (a) ATC (b) AVC (c) FC (d) MC
35. Points outside the production possibility curve indicates ___(a) unattainable production levels (b) ineffecient but
attainable production level (c) efficient utilization of resources (d) optimum production level.
36. Goods are said to be competitive demand when they are ___(a) substitutes (b) Complementary (c) Jointly demanded (d)
elasticity of demand
37. Cyclical unemplyment is one associated with ___(a) inadequate fromation (b) Structural changes (c) decreass in
demand (d) seasoned changes
38. A basic economic problem in any society is ___(a) high level of illiteracy (b) irregular power sullp (c) Population growth
(d) resources allocation
39. in welfare stste, production is done by ________(a) both government and entreprenuer (b) the capital owners (c) the
govrnment alone (d) all of the people in the country
40. Economist view cost in the country (a) amount spent (b) forgone conclusion (c) alternative forgone (d) all of the above
THEORY PART : SECTION B
Instruction: Answer any FOUR questions.
1. Define Capitalist Economy. (b) State and explain any four features of capitalist economy.
2. What is Demand? (b) Discuss any four types of demand you know.
3. Highlight any five consequences of Unemployment. (b) Explain briefly any five solutions to the problems of
Unemployment.
4. Explain any four weapons used by the trade unions during trade dispute. (b) State the Law of Variable Proportion.
5. calculatethe mean deviation for the set of data in a table below, using the scores of 4 students in economics test
Scores 8 10 14 18
Frequency 4 3 5 8

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: MORAL INSTRUCTION J. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS
1. “Honour your father and your mother so that your days may be long upon the land which the lord you God has given
you”. This is the _____ commandment of God. A seventh. B. fourth. C. fifth. D. sixth.
2. Make haste and come dawn, for I must stay at your house today”. This statement was referred to. A. Matthew. B. peter.
C. judas Iscariot. D. zachaeus.
3. ____ was sehazi’s record from his master for his dead. A. he was banished from the land. B. He was told to do fasting
and prayer for fourteen days. C. he suffered leprosy till death. D. He suffered leprosy and was later healed.
4. Gehazi servant of Elisha was known of his. A. dishonesty. B. stubbornness. C. unbelieving. D. faithfulness.
5. “Let the thief no longer steal, but rather let him labour doing honest work so that he may be able to give those in need”
this was an advice from. A. st. Peter. B. Jesus Christ. C. St. Stephen. D. st. Paul.
6. Quote the eight commandments of God _____. A. thou shall not commit adultery. B. thou shall not steal. C. thou shall
not kill. D. thou shall nkt bear false witness against thy neighbour.
7. According to Luke ch. 19 vs 1-10 _____ was made to be honest from his dishonest and was inspired to be Christ. A.
Simon. B. Thomas. C. zachaeus. D. bertholomew.
8. Quality of an honest person include all except. A. telling the truth. B. not lying. C. not cheating. D. talking in a low
voice.
9. All of the following include the promise your God parent did for you at your baptism except one. A. that you will pay evil
with evil. B. that you should renounce the devil and all his works. C. that you should believe all the article of the
Christian faith. D. that you should keep Gods Holy will and commandments.
10. We were made to be a member of Christ through. A. prayer. B. fasting and prayer. C. confirmation. D. baptism.
11. In your baptism, God did one of the following for you. A. He forbidded you from going to heaven. B. He caused you to
himself. C. He made you lower than the engles. D. He descended upon yu in form of a dove.
12. One of the following gives the meaning of baptism. A. it makes one a child of God. B. it is the parth way to salvation. C.
it takes us to heaven. D.it gives us an assurance of becoming a saint.
13. Joseph was sold to Egypt by. A. group of uknown men. B. arm robbers. C. his brothers. D. assassinators.
14. All of the following except one are the qualities found in joseph. A. comprise. B. truthful. C. honest. D. prayerful.
15. One of the outstanding qualities of joseph were ___ and ____. A. meek and honesty. B. devotion to duty and honesty.
C. shirking to duty and truthful. D. pride and compromising.
16. Which of the following gives the meaning of bible. A. it is the dream of what happened in the past. B. it is the record of
past prophets to all mankind. C. it is record of God’s revelation of himself to mankind through his people isreal. D. it is
the law of the kings.
17. Bible is divided into ___ testaments. A. two. B. four. C. five. D. three.
18. _____ is referred to as the son of God in the bible. A. moses. B. paul. C. Jesus Christ. D. Ezekiel.
19. The record about moses and the isrealites were mentioned in ____ testament. A. new. B. old. C. present. D. past.
20. Which of the following is true about bible. A. the books of the bible are divided into three parts. B. the old testament
consists of 39 books. C. the new testament consists of 29 books. D. book of micah is found in the new testament.
21. The bible was given to us by the. A. creation. B. men of God. C. prophets inspiration. D. Holy spirit.
22. Bible should be real with the ____ and ___ sothat God will speak to us by his holy spirit. A. curiosity and wisdom. B.
arociety and humility. C. assurance and understanding. D. desire and prayer.
23. _______, ____ and ___ are some of the reading aids. A. daily food. B. devotional books. C. Daily guide. C. daily
mountain, daily thought, daily manna
24. Bible can be described in other ways of. A. light ps. 119:105. B. bread of life – Eph. 6:17. C. milk – Heb. 4:12. D.
sword of the spirit – ps. 109:105.
25. Reading the bible daily helps us to. A. fight the Satan. B. eat good food. C. grow stronger in faith. D. grow tall healthy.
26. Jesus referred bible as. A. sword of the spirit. B. bread of life. C. the wisdom. D. the righteousness.
27. This book of the law shall not depart out of thy mouth, the book law here means. A. sword of God. B. word of spirit. C.
word of flesh.
28. Devil can be withstood through. A. being physically strong. B. word of God. C. avoiding him. D. going to church every
day.
29. According to 1 Peter 2:2, we ought to desire the sincere milk of the word as. A. men of God. B. adults. C. new born
babies. D. servents.
30. From the bible joseph was brought down to Egypt from Canaan by the __. A. evil doers. B. slaves. C. foreigners. D.
Ishmaeliles.
31. The relationship between friend’sor companies and you is. A. right attitude. B. Godly relationship. C. influence. D.
companionship.
32. Where is your Christian name being given to you? A. at your birth. B. at your baptism. C. at your dedication to God. D.
at your confirmation
33. According to Heb. 4:12, the word of God is ____ and ___ and.

34. Sharper than any two edged sword. A. quick and gentle. B. lose and meek. C. quick and powerful. D. quick and
warrior.
35. The promises of God could be found in one of the following. A. word of faith. B. wisdom of men. C. record of the
prophets. D. the bible.
36. All of the following except one is the work of the word of God. A. sharper than one edged sword. B. piercing even to the
dividing asunder of soul and spirit. C. discerner of thought and intente of the heart quick and powerful.
37. Complete this statement “And take the helment of. A. salvation. B. righteousness. C. the kingdom. D. glory.
38. The helment mentioned here is referred to as. A. protections. B. equipment for war. C. physical fitness. D. armour of
God.
39. What is your Christian name? _____________
40. Honour thy father and thy mother is a commandment with. A. goodness. B. no benefit. C. promise.
41. ____ is the formular for prayer. A. ACFS. B. ACTS. C. ACTF.
42. C.MS means. A. church missionary society. B. Christian missionary society. C. children missionary society.
43. There are ____ books in the bible. A. 27. B. 39. C. 66.
44. The bedrock of Christian pelogion is. A. the resurrection of Jesus. B. the death of Jesus. C. the birth of Jesus.
45. The attributes of God includes all except. A. subjection. B. forgiveness. C. love.
46. God gave his only son Jesus Christ that we might be ___. A. cleansed. B. purified. C. saved.
47. Marriage was used to illustrate the union between the Lord Jesus and His. A. disciples. B. church. C. Isrealites.
48. Samuel’s parents handed him over to the priest called. A. Nathan. B. Elijah. C. Micah. D. Eli.
49. The Holy catholic church mean ___. A. the universal church. B. the aglican church. C. the Church of England.
50. The summary of the Christian’s faith can be found in the. A. apostle’s creed. B. catholic creed. C. roman creed.
51. How old was Jesus Christ when he went to Jerusalem with his parents for the feast of Passover. A. 10. B. 12. C. 15.
D. 8.
52. The church in the creed is described as follows except. One. B. Holy. C. catholic. D. central.
53. The men that visited Jesus at birth were called __ men. A. east. B. wishe. C. foolish.
54. The man who stole things set apart for God according to Joshua 6:15 was. A. Achan. B. Saul. C. David. D. Abimelech.
55. In the apostles creed, we a firm that we believe in these except. A. Holy Spirit. B. forgiveness of sin. C. apostles.
56. The man who gave out his daughter to God in fulfilment of his promise was. A. Jephtha. B. pharaoh. C. davide.
57. If I perish, I perish was said by. A. Mary. B. Marth. C. Esther.
58. Abraham was asked to sacrifice his son named. A. Isaac. B. Joseph. B. Jacob. D. Isaiah.
59. Adam and eve was deceived by. A. piton. B. serpent. C. crocodile. D. elephant.
60. It was given to you by _____. A. your God parents only. B. your parents and God parents. C. your preists only. D.
your parents and priests only.

SECTION B: THEORY (Answer THREE questions from this section)

1. Explain the term “Creation” (b) List what God created on these days: (i) day 1, (ii) day 2 (iii) day 3 (iv) day 4
2. Where was Jesus cjrist born? (b) Mention the three gifts given to Jesus by the wise men from the East and their
significance. (c) State two incidents that happened during the baptism of Jesus Christ.
3. How was the bible given to us? (b) Explain how to read the bible. (c) Mention 2 ways the bible has been described.
4. What is your Christian name? (b) Who give you this name? (c) Books of the bible is divided into two parts. Name them.
5. Define Companionship? (b) What did God do for you in your Baptism?

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: MORAL INSTRUCTION J. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS
1. ____ is the family of churches within the universal church of Christ. A. Pentecostal. B. aladura. C. Anglican.
2. Joshua was the son of ____. A. Reuben. B. Nun. C. Shiltim.
3. Achan was the son of ___. A. zerah. B. zabdi. C. carmi.
4. The men of Ai killed ____ men of Israel. A. thirty six. B. sixty three. C. thirty three.
5. The sin commited by Achan was. A. he stole from God’s ark. B. he has taken some of the devoted things. C. they have
stolen silver.
6. Who made this statement “who ever that comes out of my house to meet me after begin victorius, I will offer him up for a
burnt offering”. A. Manasseh. B. Jephthah. C. Elkanaah.
7. And the Lord turned amorites into my hands and my ___ came out to meet him. A. daughter. B. wife. C. son.
8. Another person that kept her vow during the time Eli was the priest of shilo. A. Elkanaah. B. Renineeh. C. Hannah.
9. Sunday is the Holy day of obligation because. A. Jesus rose from dead. B. is the day Jesus rose from death. C. it is
the Sabbath day.
10. The headquater of Church of England is at. A. England. B. Germany. C. Jerusalem.
11. Honour thy father and thy mother is a commandment with. A. goodness. B. no benefit. C. promise.
12. ____ is the formular for prayer. A. ACFS. B. ACTS. C. ACTF.
13. C.MS means. A. church missionary society. B. Christian missionary society. C. children missionary society.
14. There are ____ books in the bible. A. 27. B. 39. C. 66.
15. The bedrock of Christian pelogion is. A. the resurrection of Jesus. B. the death of Jesus. C. the birth of Jesus.
16. The attributes of God includes all except. A. subjection. B. forgiveness. C. love.
17. God gave his only son Jesus Christ that we might be ___. A. cleansed. B. purified. C. saved.
18. Marriage was used to illustrate the union between the Lord Jesus and His. A. disciples. B. church. C. Isrealites.
19. Samuel’s parents handed him over to the priest called. A. Nathan. B. Elijah. C. Micah. D. Eli.
20. The Holy catholic church means ___. A. the universal church. B. the aglican church. C. the Church of England.
21. The summary of the Christian’s faith can be found in the. A. apostle’s creed. B. catholic creed. C. roman creed.
22. How old was Jesus Christ when he went to Jerusalem with his parents for the feast of Passover. A. 10. B. 12. C. 15.
D. 8.
23. The church in the creed is described as follows except. One. B. Holy. C. catholic. D. central.
24. The men that visited Jesus at birth were called __ men. A. east. B. wishe. C. foolish.
25. The man who stole things set apart for God according to Joshua 6:15 was. A. Achan. B. Saul. C. David. D.
Abimelech.
26. In the apostles creed, we a firm that we believe in these except. A. Holy Spirit. B. forgiveness of sin. C. apostles.
27. The man who gave out his daughter to God in fulfilment of his promise was. A. Jephtha. B. pharaoh. C. davide.
28. If I perish, I perish was said by. A. Mary. B. Marth. C. Esther.
29. Abraham was asked to sacrifice his son named. A. Isaac. B. Joseph. B. Jacob. D. Isaiah.
30. Adam and eve was deceived by. A. piton. B. serpent. C. crocodile. D. elephant.
31. The archbishop of Niger province is. A. Rt. Revd. Samuel Ezeofor. B. Rt. Revd Nichola Ohoh. C. the most Rev. G. I. N
Okpala. D. Rt. Revd. Sandy Okeke.
32. God created ___ on the 6th day. A. man. B. animals. C. dry land.
33. ___ climbed the sycamore tree to see Jeusu. A. David. B. Paul. C. Silva. D. Zaccheaus.
34. Jesus healed ___ lepers. A. 18. B. 10. C. 16. D. 5.
35. ___ is the beginning of lent on the church. A. ash Friday. B. mundi Thursday. C. Good Friday. D. Ash Wednesday.
36. Judas betrayed Jesus with a. A. gift. B. ret. C. handshake. D. kiss.
37. The longest season in Anglican Church is known as. A. advent. B. lent. C. trinity. D. epiphany.
38. The bishop is normally in charge of a. A. archdeaconry. B. diocese. C. province. D. parish.
39. Sin means ____ to God’s law and commandent. A. order. B. love. C. disobedience. D. obedience.
40. Moses was called at mount. A. Sinai. B. orh. C. horeb. D. Orr.
41. “Honour your father and your mother so that your days may be long upon the land which the lord you God has given
you”. This is the _____ commandment of God. A seventh. B. fourth. C. Fifth. D. sixth.
42. Make haste and come dawn, for I must stay at your house today”. This statement was referred to. A. Matthew. B. peter.
C. judas Iscariot. D. zachaeus.
43. ____ was sehazi’s record from his master for his dead. A. he was banished from the land. B. He was told to do fasting
and prayer for fourteen days. C. he suffered leprosy till death. D. He suffered leprosy and was later healed.
44. Gehazi servant of Elisha was known of his. A. dishonesty. B. stubbornness. C. unbelieving. D. faithfulness.

45. “Let the thief no longer steal, but rather let him labour doing honest work so that he may be able to give those in need”
this was an advice from. A. st. Peter. B. Jesus Christ. C. St. Stephen. D. st. Paul.
46. Quote the eight commandments of God _____. A. thou shall not commit adultery. B. thou shall not steal. C. thou shall
not kill. D. thou shall nkt bear false witness against thy neighbour.
47. According to Luke ch. 19 vs 1-10 _____ was made to be honest from his dishonest and was inspired to be Christ. A.
Simon. B. Thomas. C. zachaeus. D. bertholomew.
48. Quality of an honest person include all except. A. telling the truth. B. not lying. C. not cheating. D. talking in a low voice.
49. All of the following include the promise your God parent did for you at your baptism except one. A. that you will pay evil
with evil. B. that you should renounce the devil and all his works. C. that you should believe all the article of the
Christian faith. D. that you should keep Gods Holy will and commandments.
50. We were made to be a member of Christ through. A. prayer. B. fasting and prayer. C. confirmation. D. baptism.
51. In your baptism, God did one of the following for you. A. He forbidded you from going to heaven. B. He caused you to
himself. C. He made you lower than the engles. D. He descended upon yu in form of a dove.
52. One of the following gives the meaning of baptism. A. it makes one a child of God. B. it is the parth way to salvation. C.
it takes us to heaven. D.it gives us an assurance of becoming a saint.
53. Joseph was sold to Egypt by. A. group of uknown men. B. arm robbers. C. his brothers. D. assassinators.
54. All of the following except one are the qualities found in joseph. A. comprises. B. truthful. C. honest. D. prayerful.
55. One of the outstanding qualities of joseph were ___ and ____. A. meek and honesty. B. devotion to duty and honesty.
C. shirking to duty and truthful. D. pride and compromising.
56. Which of the following gives the meaning of bible? A. it is the dream of what happened in the past. B. it is the record of
past prophets to all mankind. C. it is record of God’s revelation of himself to mankind through his people isreal. D. it is
the law of the kings.
57. Bible is divided into ___ testaments. A. two. B. four. C. five. D. three.
58. _____ is referred to as the son of God in the bible. A. Moses. B. Paul. C. Jesus Christ. D. Ezekiel.
59. The record about Moses and the isrealites were mentioned in ____ testament. A. new. B. old. C. present. D. past.
60. Which of the following is true about bible? A. the books of the bible are divided into three parts. B. the Old Testament
consists of 39 books. C. the New Testament consists of 29 books. D. book of Micah is found in the New Testament.
SECTION B: (Answer only four questions from this section)
1. What is Church of England? (b) Explain the term Anglican Communion.
2. What are your duties towards God least three points. (b) Mention two ways you can carryout your duties towards God.
3. What are your duties towards your neighbour (at least three points) (b) Explain God’s Grace.
4. State five ways you can receive gifts of God’s Grace.
5. State five qualities of a God – chosen leader.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: MORAL INSTRUCTION J. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS
1. “Honour your father and your mother so that your days may be long upon the land which the lord you God has given
you”. This is the _____ commandment of God. A seventh. B. fourth. C. fifth. D. sixth.
2. Make haste and come dawn, for I must stay at your house today”. This statement was referred to. A. Matthew. B. peter.
C. judas Iscariot. D. zachaeus.
3. ____ was sehazi’s record from his master for his dead. A. he was banished from the land. B. He was told to do fasting
and prayer for fourteen days. C. he suffered leprosy till death. D. He suffered leprosy and was later healed.
4. Gehazi servant of Elisha was known of his. A. dishonesty. B. stubbornness. C. unbelieving. D. faithfulness.
5. “Let the thief no longer steal, but rather let him labour doing honest work so that he may be able to give those in need”
this was an advice from. A. st. Peter. B. Jesus Christ. C. St. Stephen. D. st. Paul.
6. Quote the eight commandments of God _____. A. thou shall not commit adultery. B. thou shall not steal. C. thou shall
not kill. D. thou shall nkt bear false witness against thy neighbour.
7. According to Luke ch. 19 vs 1-10 _____ was made to be honest from his dishonest and was inspired to be Christ. A.
Simon. B. Thomas. C. zachaeus. D. bertholomew.
8. Quality of an honest person include all except. A. telling the truth. B. not lying. C. not cheating. D. talking in a low
voice.
9. All of the following include the promise your God parent did for you at your baptism except one. A. that you will pay evil
with evil. B. that you should renounce the devil and all his works. C. that you should believe all the article of the
Christian faith. D. that you should keep Gods Holy will and commandments.
10. We were made to be a member of Christ through. A. prayer. B. fasting and prayer. C. confirmation. D. baptism.
11. In your baptism, God did one of the following for you. A. He forbidded you from going to heaven. B. He caused you to
himself. C. He made you lower than the engles. D. He descended upon yu in form of a dove.
12. One of the following gives the meaning of baptism. A. it makes one a child of God. B. it is the parth way to salvation. C.
it takes us to heaven. D.it gives us an assurance of becoming a saint.
13. Joseph was sold to Egypt by. A. group of uknown men. B. arm robbers. C. his brothers. D. assassinators.
14. All of the following except one are the qualities found in joseph. A. comprise. B. truthful. C. honest. D. prayerful.
15. One of the outstanding qualities of joseph were ___ and ____. A. meek and honesty. B. devotion to duty and honesty.
C. shirking to duty and truthful. D. pride and compromising.
16. Which of the following gives the meaning of bible? A. it is the dream of what happened in the past. B. it is the record of
past prophets to all mankind. C. it is record of God’s revelation of himself to mankind through his people isreal. D. it is
the law of the kings.
17. Bible is divided into ___ testaments. A. two. B. four. C. five. D. three.
18. _____ is referred to as the son of God in the bible. A. Moses. B. Paul. C. Jesus Christ. D. Ezekiel.
19. The record about moses and the isrealites were mentioned in ____ testament. A. new. B. old. C. present. D. past.
20. Which of the following is true about bible? A. the books of the bible are divided into three parts. B. the Old Testament
consists of 39 books. C. the new testament consists of 29 books. D. book of Micah is found in the new testament.
21. ______ is the ideal prayer taught by Jesus himself. A. the beatitudes. B. the apostle’s creed. C. the Lord’s Prayer. D.
the Sermon on the Mount.
22. In the beginning was the word and word was with God, and the word was God’s this is written in. a. John 1:1. B.
Matthew 1vs1. C. Genesis 1vs1. D. 1st hon 1vs1.
23. The ability to control one’s behaviour or not show one’s feeling is. A. self-control. B. courage. C. concise. D.
conscience.
24. ____ shared generosity to Elijah at the gate of Zarephath. A. God. B. the window. C. Paul. D. the man.
25. The Holy faly of God is called. A. the church. B. the room. C. Garden of Eden. D. mountain.
26. Our bodies are the temple of the. A. love. B. Satan. C. Holy Spirit. D. fornication.
27. David killed goliath with. A. One stone. B. Three stones. C. Five stones. D. Two stones.
28. The following are seasons in the church accept. A. advent. B. lent. C. epiphany. D. collects.
29. Thou shall have no other God before me is ____ commandment. A. first. B. second. C. fourth. D. Fifth.
30. The members of God’s family on earth it by. A. repentance. B. sinning. C. gossiping. D. talking.
31. Jesus Christ fasted for ___ days and nights. A. 40 days. B. 30 days. C. 4 days. D. 10 days.
32. ___ asked for the body of Christ to bury him. A. Simon of Cyrene. B. josephy of arimathia. C. joseph the carpenter. D.
peter.
33. ___ is the head of all the apostles. A. Paul. B. peter. C. john. D. Joshua.
34. David called Goliath ____ in the bettle field. A. abner. B. uncircumcised philistine. C. brethren. D. none.
35. God ____ those that humble themselves
36. Jesus face agony at. A. garden of cannon. B. garden of Genthesmane. C. garden of Egyptian. D. garden of
Jerusalem.

37. Joseph’s integrity was made manifest by this out right refusal of the romatic advances made by ____ wife.
38. Who baptized jesus Christ _____
39. Goliath was from the town of ___. A. Egypt. B. Jordan. C. Philistine. D. isreal.
40. Jesus was born in _____
41. ____ led the Isrealities out from the land of slavery. A. Moses. B. Joshua. C. Gideon. D. Abraham.
42. Paul wrote the books of _____ and ____. A. Ephesians and Colossians. B. Genesis and Isreal. C. Galatians and
Egypt. D. Ephesians and Isreal.
43. God created man on the ___ day. A. fourth. B. sixth. C. Fifth. D. Third.
44. The parable that teaches us about repentance and forgiveness is the parable of. A. Ten virgins. B. prodigal son. C. lost
coin. D. lost sheep.
45. The bible teaches us that obiedence is better than. A. prophecy. B. sacrifice. C. prayer. D. speaking.
46. Without ___ it is impossible please God. A. love. B. purity. C. Hope. D. faith.
47. The fore-runner of Jesus was ______
48. The name Emmanuel means ____________
49. The disciple that was converted on his way Damascus was _______
50. The disciple that denied Jesus befor the cock crowed 3 time was ____________
51. God blessed and hallowed the seventh day because.
52. Except a man be _____ he cannot see the kingdom of God. A. baptized. B. born again. C. regular in church. D.
evangelist.
53. Of these three, fiath, hope, charity, the greatest of them is ____. A. faith. B. hope. C. charity. D. none of them is
greater than the other.
54. Christians must pray for those in authority because. A. it is the command of the church. B. it is the command of
government. C. it is the command of God. D. it is the command of pastors.
55. A child of God must never allow himself or herself to be enticed by those who smoke ___ True/False.
56. Hell fire is a place for the wicked and sinful __ True/ False.
57. One of the gifts of the spirit is shouting when praying ___. True/False.
58. The mother of prophet samue in the bible was _____
59. The two kingdom we have are _____ and _____
60. The prophet who was ordained from the womb for God’s service was. A. Jeremiah. B. Isaiah. C. Ezekiel. D. Hosea.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer FIVE questions)
1. Explain three promises made by Godparents during our baptism. (b) What is Baptism?
2. What is Self Control? (b) Mention three creed we have.
3. Reliance means. (b) Complete the Apostle’s Creed “I believe in God” ……….........
4. What is Prayer? (b) Write down the Lord’s Prayer.
5. What do you understand by the term “Faith”? (b) Mention at least 5 people that demonstrated faith in the bible.
6. What is Decision? (b) Narrate the parable of the prodigal son and state the decision he took that he later regretted.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: MORAL INSTRUCTION S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS
1. What is required of those coming to Holy Communion to have? A. a living faith in God’s mecy through Christ. B. peace.
C. hope. D. power.
2. One of the benefits we receive in Holy Communion is the ____ of our union with Christ. A. understanding. B.
strenghting. C. confirmation. D. boldness.
3. The bread in Holy Communion represents __. A. suffering. B. thanksgiving. C. hunger. D. the body of our Lord Jesus.
4. The wine represents ___. A. water. B. oil. C. cleansing. D. the blood of the new covenant.
5. Another name for Holy Communion is __. A. Holy Eucharist. B. baptism. C. confirmation. D. penance.
6. One of these is not qualified to administer the holy Eucharistic in the Anglican Communion. A. lay person. B. bishop.
C. archdeacon. D. priest.
7. Polite behaviours means. A. courtesy. B. gratitude. C. cheerfulness. D. Joy.
8. ____ is the faithful servant of Abraham. A. Samuel. B. Jacob. C. Eleazar. D. Isaac.
9. In what city did the servant of Abraham find Rebecca? A. Nahor. B. Calvary. C. Jordan. D. Acaiah.
10. What is the relationship between Abraham and Rebecca before her marriage? A. He was the uncle. B. he was the
cousin. C. family friend. D. grand father.
11. What confirmed God’s answer to the prayer of Eleazar? A. Sarah’s offer of eater. B. Sarah’s beauty. C. His heart beat.
D. the cry of the carnel’s.
12. What is the Nahor’s relationship to Abraham? A. his brother. B. cousin. C. father. D. c=grand father.
13. Holy matrimony is what type of marriage. A. Islamic. B. chintos. C. traditional. D. christain.
14. Christian marriage is characterized by these except. A. it is a union between a man and a woman. B. it iis a life long
union. C. it is initiated by vows befor God. D. it is a union between a man and another man.
15. The ministry of laying on of hands to receive the Holy Spirit and authority to thoses being bishop, priests and deacons is.
A. sacrament. B. penance. C. absolution. D. ordination.
16. One of these is not an office for ordination. A. deacon. B. bishop. C. priest. D. primate.
17. The ministry of ____ is the ministry, by which those who are traly sorry for their sins receives forgiveness. A. baptism.
B. confirmation. C. healings. D. absolution.
18. Who declears absolution during church service?
19. The ministry by which God’s grace is given for healing is __. A. repentance. B. forgiveness. C. healing. D.
reconciliation.
20. Who declare absolution during church service? A. the prople. B. sides persons. C. people’s warden. D. the priest.
21. Freedom from war or violence is. A. liberation. B. salvation. C. peace. D. faith.
22. For there to be growth and development in the society, one of these is essential. A. bitterness. B. suspension. C.
courage. D. peace.
23. There must be multual trust and ____ among people for peace to period. A. crudges. B. envy. C. love. D. hatred.
24. ______ is an incidence or words that may spark off quarrel. A. aggravation. B. corruption. C. outer and quarrel. D.
lying.
25. A person’s wareness of right and wrong with regard to his or her own thought and actions is. A. vigilance. B. courtesy.
C. knowledge. D. conscience.
26. Daniel resoved in hos heart not to ____ himself with the king’s rich food. A. satisfy. B. touch. C. starve. D. defile.
27. What was replaced for the king’s food for Daniel and his friends? A. bread. B. soup. C. wine. D. vegetable.
28. One of these is the reason to walk in the spirit. A. that do not gratify the desires of the flesh. B. that we will prosper. C. that we wil
rule. D. that we will take God’s glory.
29. The desire of the spirit are against the. A. foes. B. flesh. C. world. D. sickness.
30. “If we lie in the spirit, let us also walk by the. A. grace. B. anointing. C. spirit. D. sight.
31. If you are led by the spirit, you are not under the. A. Egyptian. B. Caezar. C. law. D. Jews.
32. Those who do the walk of the flesh shall not ___ the kingdom. A. experience. B. iherit. C. rest in. D. visit.
33. How many articles of faith do we have? A. 42. B. 50. C. 70. D. 39.
34. The long garment worn by the priest or deacon is called. A. uniform. B. cown. C. mitre. D. cassock.
35. The event that commemorates the entry of Jesus into Jerusalem as king is. A. Christians. B. holy week. C. Palm Sunday. D. what
Sunday.
36. Where the basic of water used in the church for baptism is called. A. isles. B. alters. C. font. D. reader.
37. The plates that contain the waters during Eucarist is called. A. paten. B. flat plate. C. flagon. D. purifactor.
38. The congregation’s seat in the church is called. A. a tent. B. bench. C. tower. D. pews.
39. Who instituted the holy commonion? A. David. B. John the Baptists. C. Angels. D. Jesus Christ.
40. The main entrance at the back of the church is called. A. entrance point. B. western door. C. escape route. D. church
entrance.
41. Paul was converted on his way to. A. Egypt. B. Jerusalem. C. Damascus. D. Capernaum.
42. According to John 14:26 the Holy Spirit will. A. gives us peace. B. baptizes us. C. gives us life. D. teaches us all thing.
43. ____ is the beginning of lent.

44. Who was the disciple that replaces Judas? A. Justus. B. Barnabas. C. malthas. D. Paul.
45. What is the name of the field which was purchased with the money judas sold Jesus? A. Aceldama (field of blood). B.
Capernaum. C. synagogue. D. galilee.
46. What is the name of the first disciple that was martyred? A. joseph. B. Stephen. C. peter. D. Paul.
47. The apostle was mocked on the Pentecost because peole said they are filled with. A. holy spirit. B. new wine. C. love.
D. peace.
48. ____ was the prophet called when he was a boy. A. Joshua. B. daivd. C. Samuel. D. Solomon.
49. ____ was a righteous old man but faced the anger of God because he did not keep his children from bad behaviour. A.
Aaron. B. Pharoh. C. Jacob. D. Eli.
50. ___ was the deliverer and the giver of the children of Isreal. A. Samson. B. Moses. C. Joshua. D. Jacob.
51. Saul was without sight for ___ days when he got blind on his ways to Damascus. A. 5. B. 3. C. 4. D. 10.
52. ____ restores the sight of Saul. A. peter. B. Jesus. C. anaias. D. Philip.
53. ______ and
54. ______ were the couple who died shameful death because of decert. A. Abraham and Sarah. B. ananniah and
saphirah. C. Ahab and jezebel. D. David and betsen.
55. With what have we been redeemed? ________
56. We learn to perform two duties in ten commandment they are _____ and
57. _____
58. _____ and
59. ______ are the works of holy spirit in our lives.
60. _____ reavels the truth about God. A. Adam. B. Abraham. C. Holy Spirit. D. teacher.

SECTION B: THEORY (Answer any FOUR questions)

1. Define Holy Matrimony. (b) List any four work of the flesh. (c) List any four fruits of the Spirit.
2. Ordination is for 3 major set of people in Anglican Ministry. (b) Outline 3 benefits we derive from Holy Communion. (c)
Another name for Holy Communion is ___. (d) What is Peace?
3. List any three sexual perversions in the society. (b) Mention any 4 organization in Anglican Communion. (c) State any 3
Sacraments we have.
4. Discuss the account of Eleazar’s search of wife for Isaac.
5. Define the following; (a) Baptism. (b) Ordination. (c) Outline 4 importance of peace in the society. (d) Mention any 2 of
the 7 deacons in Act of Apostles.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: MORAL INSTRUCTION S. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS
1. Who is the Holy Spirit? A. First person in trinity. B. Second person in trinity. C. Third person in trinity. D. Fourth person
in trinity.
2. How do we recognize the truths taught by the Holy Spirit? A. when they are in accordance with the scriptures. B. when
they are in accordance with our own will. C. when they are in accordance with what prophet say. D. when they said by
bishop.
3. ____ searches all heart. A. the priest. B. holy spirit. C. the bishop. D. the church teacher.
4. The name Christianity was first calleda t. A. lystra. B. Galatia. C. Antioch. D. derbe.
5. The apostles received the Holy Spirit on. A. Good Friday. B. Easter Sunday. C. Christmas. D. Pentecost.
6. For John batptized with water but before many days you shall be baptized with. A. water and holy spirt. B. holy ghost
first. C. fire. D. holy spirit.
7. But you shall receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you and you shall be my ___ in Jerusalem and in all
Judea and Samaria to the end of the earth. A. people. B. disciple. C. witnesses. D. friend.
8. How many days did Jesus stay on earth after his resurrection? A. 30. B. 50. C. 60. D. 40.
9. The great persecutor who later became an apostle of Jesus Christ is. A. Thomas. B. timothy. C. Apollos. D. Paul.
10. How many people were saved in the days of Noah? A. 8. B. 10. C. 28. D. 50.
11. Paul was converted on his way to. A. Egypt. B. Jerusalem. C. Damascus. D. Capernaum.
12. According to John 14:26 the Holy Spirit will. A. give us peace. B. baptize us. C. give us life. D. teach us all thing.
13. ____ is the beginning of lent.
14. Who was the disciple that replaces Judas? A. Justus. B. Barnabas. C. malthas. D. Paul.
15. What is the name of the field which was purchased with the money judas sold Jesus? A. Aceldama (field of blood). B.
Capernaum. C. synagogue. D. galilee.
16. What is the name of the first disciple that was martyred? A. joseph. B. Stephen. C. peter. D. Paul.
17. The apostle were mocked on the Pentecost because peole said they are filled with. A. holy spirit. B. new wine. C. love.
D. peace.
18. ____ was the prophet called when he was a boy. A. Joshua. B. daivd. C. Samuel. D. Solomon.
19. ____ was a righteous old man but faced the anger of God because he did not keep his children from bad behaviour. A.
Aaron. B. Pharoh. C. Jacob. D. Eli.
20. ___ was the deliverer and the giver of the children of Isreal. A. Samson. B. Moses. C. Joshua. D. Jacob.
21. Saul was without sight for ___ days when he got blind on his ways to Damascus. A. 5. B. 3. C. 4. D. 10.
22. ____ restores the sight of Saul. A. peter. B. Jesus. C. anaias. D. Philip.
23. ______ and
24. ______ were the couple who died shameful death because of decert. A. Abraham and Sarah. B. ananniah and
saphirah. C. Ahab and jezebel. D. David and betsen.
25. With what have we been redeemed? ________
26. We learn to perform two duties in ten commandment they are _____ and
27. _____
28. _____ and
29. ______ are the works of holy spirit in our lives.
30. _____ reavels the truth about God. A. Adam. B. Abraham. C. Holy Spirit. D. teacher.
31. The bread used for holy communion is known as ______
32. The preacher stands on ____ to preach in the church.
33. Lessons were read on ____ in the church
34. A place were church service is conducted is known as ______.
35. The congregation sit on ____ in the church.
36. Who celebrate the Holy Communion? A. sexton. B. pastor’s warden. C. priest. D. people’s warden.
37. The congregation kneel on ____ to receiveHoly Communion. A. western door. B. alter rail. C. carpet. D. tasle.
38. ____ is a place where the chorister prepared for church service.
39. A place where the chorester’s sit in church is known as _____
40. What confirmed God’s answer to the prayer of Eleazar? A. Sarah’s offer of eater. B. Sarah’s beauty. C. His heart beat.
D. the cry of the carnel’s.
41. What is the Nahor’s relationship to Abraham? A. his brother. B. cousin. C. father. D. grand father.
42. Holy matrimony is what type of marriage. A. Islamic. B. chintos. C. traditional. D. christain.

43. Christian marriage is characterized by these except. A. it is a union between a man and a woman. B. it iis a life long
union. C. it is initiated by vows befor God. D. it is a union between a man and another man.
44. The ministry of laying on of hands to receive the Holy Spirit and authority to thoses being bishop, priests and deacons is.
A. sacrament. B. penance. C. absolution. D. ordination.
45. One of these is not an office for ordination. A. deacon. B. bishop. C. priest. D. primate.
46. The ministry of ____ is the ministry, by which those who are traly sorry for their sins receives forgiveness. A. baptism.
B. confirmation. C. healings. D. absolution.
47. Who declears absolution during church service?
48. The ministry by which God’s grace is given for healing is __. A. repentance. B. forgiveness. C. healing. D.
reconciliation.
49. Who declare absolution during church service? A. the prople. B. sides persons. C. people’s warden. D. the priest.
50. Freedom from war or violence is. A. liberation. B. salvation. C. peace. D. faith.
51. For there to be growth and development in the society, one of these is essential. A. bitterness. B. suspension. C.
courage. D. peace.
52. There must be multual trust and ____ among people for peace to period. A. crudges. B. envy. C. love. D. hatred.
53. ______ is an incidence or words that may spark off quarrel. A. aggravation. B. corruption. C. outer and quarrel. D.
lying.
54. A person’s wareness of right and wrong with regard to his or her own thought and actions is. A. vigilance. B. courtesy.
C. knowledge. D. conscience.
55. Daniel resoved in hos heart not to ____ himself with the king’s rich food. A. satisfy. B. touch. C. starve. D. defile.
56. What was replaced for the king’s food for Daniel and his friends? A. bread. B. soup. C. wine. D. vegetable.
57. One of these is the reason to walk in the spirit. A. that do not gratify the desires of the flesh. B. that we will prosper. C. that we wil
rule. D. that we will take God’s glory.
58. The desire of the spirit are against the. A. foes. B. flesh. C. world. D. sickness.
59. “If we lie in the spirit, let us also walk by the. A. grace. B. anointing. C. spirit. D. sight.
60. The bread in Holy Communion represents __. A. suffering. B. thanksgiving. C. hunger. D. the body of our Lord Jesus.

SECVTION B: THEORY (Answer FOUR questions only)

1. Write down the Apostle Creed. (b) The two son’s of Joseph are ______ and ______
2. List four works of Holy Spirit as a teacher. (b) C. M. S. Means ------. (c) God speaks to us through ____.
3. The newly ordained priest is referred to as ______. (b) What is Ordination? (c) What is Courage? (d) Write down
liturgical colours of these church seasons. (i) Ash Wednesday. (ii) Easter. (iii) Trinity. (iv) Advent.
4. State the Ten Commandments.
5. What does God do for you? (b) What is your duty to God? (c) What is your duty to man? (d) Who is Adam? (e) Who is
Eve? (f) Who is Cain? (g) Who was Abraham?

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: MORAL INSTRUCTION S. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS
1. Grace means. A. unmerited grace. B. unmerited joy. C. unmerited favour. D. unmerited laugh.
2. For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by. A. Jesus Christ. B. God. C. Abraham. D. Holy Spirit.
3. Being justified freely by his ___ through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus. A. joy. B. power. C. blood. D. grace.
4. My grace is ___ for thee, for my strength is mdae perfect in weakness. A. suffix. B. successful. C. sufficient. D.
suppose.
5. For by grace we are. A. secure. B. saved. C. success. D. surpress.
6. Where do we get God’s Grace? A. when I worship and pray. B. when I pray and sleep. C. when I read poems and
novels. D. when I live and die.
7. Work does not involves any of these. A. labour. B. occupation. C. job. D. sleeping.
8. Laban’s elder daughter is ____ while the younger one is
9. ____. A. Leah and rapheal. B. Leah and recheal. C. Racheal and Leah. D. Leah and comfort.
10. Which among the daughter of laban was shapely and beautiful? A. Leah. B. comfort. C. Racheal. D. Sarah.
11. Jacob was in love with who? A. Racheal. B. Leah. C. comfort. D. Sarah.
12. Who work seven years for laban to marry one of her daughter? A. joseph. B. Jonathan. C. benjamine. D. Jacob.
13. In Genesis 29: 15-30, who tricked Jacob? A. Esau. B. Abraham. C. Joseph. D. Laban.
14. The earth came into being as a result of the ___ within a limited period of time. A. work done by Holy Spirit. B. God the
creator work. C. work done by God himself. D. work done by father.
15. The first house of man is in the. A. Garden of Eden. B. garden of river. C. garden of ocean. D. house.
16. Complete this bible passage, “whoever refuses to work is not allowed to _________”
17. For the love of money is the root of ______.
18. A group of people related by blood, marriage, law or custom is called a ___. A. nuclear family. B. family. C. family tree.
D. extended family.
19. Therefore shall a man leave his father and mother and leave unto his wife and they shall became ___. A. love. B. unity.
C. peace. D. one flesh.
20. Who is the head of the church? A. man. B. apostles. C. pastor. D. God.
21. Who is the Holy Spirit? A. First person in trinity. B. Second person in trinity. C. Third person in trinity. D. Fourth person
in trinity.
22. How do we recognize the truths taught by the Holy Spirit? A. when they are in accordance with the scriptures. B. when
they are in accordance with our own will. C. when they are in accordance with what prophet say. D. when they said by
bishop.
23. ____ searches all heart. A. the priest. B. holy spirit. C. the bishop. D. the church teacher.
24. The name Christianity was first calleda t. A. lystra. B. Galatia. C. Antioch. D. derbe.
25. The apostles received the Holy Spirit on. A. Good Friday. B. Easter Sunday. C. Christmas. D. Pentecost.
26. For John batptized with water but before many days you shall be baptized with. A. water and holy spirt. B. holy ghost
first. C. fire. D. holy spirit.
27. But you shall receive power when the Holy Spirit has come upon you and you shall be my ___ in Jerusalem and in all
Judea and Samaria to the end of the earth. A. people. B. disciple. C. witnesses. D. friend.
28. How many days did Jesus stay on earth after his resurrection? A. 30. B. 50. C. 60. D. 40.
29. The great persecutor who later became an apostle of Jesus Christ is. A. Thomas. B. timothy. C. Apollos. D. Paul.
30. How many people were saved in the days of Noah? A. 8. B. 10. C. 28. D. 50.
31. Paul was converted on his way to. A. Egypt. B. Jerusalem. C. Damascus. D. Capernaum.
32. According to John 14:26 the Holy Spirit will. A. give us peace. B. baptize us. C. give us life. D. teach us all thing.
33. ____ is the beginning of lent.
34. Who was the disciple that replaces Judas? A. Justus. B. Barnabas. C. malthas. D. Paul.
35. What is the name of the field which was purchased with the money judas sold Jesus? A. Aceldama (field of blood). B.
Capernaum. C. synagogue. D. galilee.
36. What is the name of the first disciple that was martyred? A. joseph. B. Stephen. C. peter. D. Paul.
37. The apostles were mocked on the Pentecost because peole said they are filled with. A. holy spirit. B. new wine. C.
love. D. peace.
38. ____ was the prophet called when he was a boy. A. Joshua. B. daivd. C. Samuel. D. Solomon.
39. ____ was a righteous old man but faced the anger of God because he did not keep his children from bad behaviour. A.
Aaron. B. Pharoh. C. Jacob. D. Eli.

40. ___ was the deliverer and the giver of the children of Isreal. A. Samson. B. Moses. C. Joshua. D. Jacob.
41. The Christian organizations and groups within the church are _______
42. _______
43. _______
44. ______ and
45. ________
46. A state of calm or quietude is called. A. peace. B. unity. C. freedom. D. violence.
47. The family of God and the body of Christ thorugh which he continues his reconciling work among men is called. A. the
church. B. the members. C. the pastors. D. the evangelist.
48. What is the 5th commandment of God?
49. Love of one’s country and willingness to defend it means. A. jatriotism. B. patriotism. C. geotristism. D. teotristism.
50. Two main causes of quarrels are _____ and
51. _____. A. outward and inner ward. B. outward and inward. C. inward ans insight. D. outward and inferior.
52. Courtesy means ___. A. bad manner. B. good guide. C. good manner. D. table manner.
53. Eleazar was a faithful servant of. A. Abram. B. Matthew. C. Abraham. D. Samuel.
54. The Abraham’s country of origin is. A. Mesopotamia. B. mesodonia. C. mesodopania. D. mesodomophics.
55. The first Christian martyrderm is ______
According to the book of Galatians 5:22 – 33, mention the five fruits of the Holy Spirit.
56. ___________
57. ______________
58. ___________
59. ____________
60. ____________

SECTION B: THEORY (Answer all the questions)

1. What is Grace? (b) State the sources of God’s Grace.
2. Outline any five characters in Jacob that made him to get what he want in Laban’s House.
3. State five evil men do when they try to make money at all cost.
4. Define Peace. (b) State four benefits of peace.
5. State the full meaning of the following organizations.
(A) A.P.A.
(B) A.C.M.
(C) A.Y.F.
(D) A.B.F.
(E) EFAC.
(F) A.M.F.
(G) A.W.M.
(H) A.S.M.
(I) B.B.
(J) G.B.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT: CLASS: SS 3 FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING TIME: 2HRS
SECTION A: (OBJECTIVE) Attempt all question
1. The act of buying an on-going business is ______A. business purchase B. business bought C. purchase of
account D. purchase of business profit
2. The owner of the business is A. buyer B. seller C. debitors D. creditors
3. The seller of a business is usually referred to as A. vendor B. acquisition C. buyer D. seller
4. The interest which a limited liability company or partnership has in buying an on-going business is A. debtors
B. interest C. parents holding company D. acquisition
5. The company that acquires the majority share of another company is referred to as the A. acquisition holding
company B. parents’ holding company C. partnership D. parent holding company
6. A business that has two or more lines of item in section of a building is a A. departure B. depart store C.
department type of business D. department types of a store
7. In its section they have its own ______ manager A. floor B. flour. C. four D. flows
8. The charge by one department to another for the goods or services delivered is called A. interim department
B. intercom department C. inter departmental D. inter interior
9. When good are issued by inter departmental transfer, it is credited as a separate account A. goods issued B.
goods out C. goods invoice D. goods in
10. The area of floor space occupied will be used as the basis of A. appropriation B. appointment C. appreciation
D. apportionment
11. A small part of business operating with a some degree of independence is called A. bronchus B. branches C.
branch D. bunch
12. A division of a business that is under the control of the head office is A. bronchus B. branch C. branches D.
bunch
13. In a branch office, an account is opened called A. head office current account B. head office cash account C.
head office adjustment account D. head office account
14. The basic fact about entity is called A. data B. information C. data processing D. computer
15. The unprocessed information consisting of details relating to business transaction is called______________
A. Data processing B. Information C. computer D. data
16. When a specific output is produced, it is known as A. Information B. informal C. control unit D. window
displays
17. A term used to described the series of actions taken to produce useful information from RW data is
called___________________. A. Processing data B. Data processing C. Data D. Information’s
18. A type of data processing that use physical energies in performing Mathematical operation is known as
_______________________ A. Mechanical type B. Manual type C. Electronic type D. Machine type
19. The tool used in mechanical method of data processing A. Aba calculator B. Abacus calculator C. Machine
calculator D. Cus calculator
20. What type of data processing method is faster, easy saves time and accurate A. Manual type B. Vending type
C. Electronic type D. Mechanical type
21. One of these is not in the group A. ENIC B. EDVAC C. EDSAC D. DEDWA
22. Computer can be used for commercial, scientific and ___________ A. Cash book B. Ledger C. Engineering
D. Purchase daybook
23. Receipt and invoice are prepared with the A. Sales ledger system B. Purchase ledger system C. Payroll
ledger system D. Fixed assets system
24. Details of overtime workers and time sheet will be prepared using; A. A Stock control system B. Sales ledger
system C. Payroll system D. Nominal ledger system
25. The application used by the bank for handling cheque is called A. A payroll system B. Financial application C.
Fixed assets system D. Reconciliation system.

26. ________________ and

27. ________________ are examples of department stores under one roof.
28. A legal business formed by the association of the persons for a definite purpose is called A. lawyer B. A
partner C. A judge D. A company
29. The persons engaged in the formation of a company are known as A. Directors B. Underwriters C. Principals
D. Shareholders
30. The minimum number of persons that can form a company is A. Two B. Seven C. Nine D. Six
31. Another name for ordinary share is A. equity share B. stock fund C. investment fund D. accumulated fund
32. The document used by the public company to invite the general public to subscribe for their shares is A.
Equity B. Prospect C. General Circular D. Pro-forma
33. One of the following is paid to shareholder in a limited liability company A. Profit B. Bonus C. Premium D.
Dividends.
34. The two main division of shares are _______________ and ______________ A. Ordinary shares & capital
shares B. Ordinary shares & deferred shares C. Nominal shares & Authorized shares D. Preference shares
& Ordinary shares
35. The authorized capital can also be called A. A Capital received B. A capital allowed C. Company capital D.
Registered capital
36. The maximum amount of capital which a company is allowed to issue to a public is called A. Called up capital
B. Issued capital C. Authorized capital D. Uncalled up capital
37. The total amount actually paid on the shares at any given date is referred to as A. Issued capital B. Paid up
capital C. Nominal capital D. Authorized capital
38. Which of the following is a company’s loan capital? A. Stocks B. Shares C. Cumulative Shares D. Debenture
39. Where stock, shares are bought and sold is called A. Onitsha Main Market B. Ochanja Market C. Stocks
Exchange Market D. Ogbete Market.
40. The general name for what a business owns is ____________ A. Debtors B. Assets C. Liability D. Creditors
41. In complete records, the statement prepared to know the assets and liability of a business is called
__________A. Statement of capital B. Statement of Affairs C. Statement of profits D. Capital Accounts.
42. Which of the following is not a current asset? A. Land and Building B. Sunday Debtors C. Stocks in trade D.
Cash at hand
43. Bank overdraft is grouped in the balance sheet under A. Current Asset B. Long term liabilities C. Short liability
D. Fixed assets
44. Good will is _______________ A. A current asset B. Current liability. C. A long term liability D. An intangible
asset.
45. The asset of a business can be classified broadly into: A. Fixed and floating assets B. Fixed and Current
asset C. Current and cumulating assets D. Intangible and fixed assets
46. Provision for depreciation on office furniture is charged to:
47. A. Capital A/C B. Trading A/C C. Profit and loss Accounts. D. Manufacturing Accounts
48. The equivalent of a clubs receipts and payment account A. Cash Account B. Revenue Account C. Trading
Account D. Suspense Accounts
49. Which of the following is not a liability? A. Acermed wages B. Creditor C. Prepayment D. Rent Arrears
50. Factory cost of production consist of A. Direct labour & direct expenses B. Direct material and factory
overhead C. Direct labour and factory overhead D. Direct Expenses and factory overhead.
SECTION B (Theory) Attempt any 2 Questions
1. Define Purchase of Business Account. (b) Mention some reasons for Purchase of Business. (c) List the
terminologies used in purchasing of Business Account.
2. What is Departmental Account? (b) Difference between departmental account and a branch account. (c)
State the advantages of departmental account.
3. Define data and data processing. (b) List and explain the methods of data processing. (c) Describe some of
the application of computer in an accounting environment.

SECTION C (PRACTICAL) Attempt any 2 Questions

1. St. Andrew Young agreed to take over the business Ap. He takes over the assets and liabilities with the
exemption of cash balance.
The balance sheet of Ayo as at 31st Dec, 2008 as:
N N
Fixture 50,000
Capital 100,000 Motor Van 20,000
Debtors 15,000
Cash 15,000
Creditors 13,000 Stock 13,000
#113,000 #113,000

St. Andrew Young takes over the business on the following terms:
 The purchase consideration to be #150, 000
b. Assets to be revalued as follows:
i. Fixtures _____________ # 60, 000
ii. Motor van ___________ # 25, 000
iii. Debtors ____________ # 13, 500
iv. Stocks _____________# 150, 000
Prepare:
1. The Journal Entries
2. The ledger Accounts
3. The balance Sheet.
2. Anyalebechi is the proprietress of shop which operates under two departments A & B. The following
balances were presented for the period ended 31st March, 2018.

Sales: Dept A ____________________________________ 150, 000

Dept B ____________________________________ 100, 000
Stocks: 1/1/2018 Dept A ___________________________ 2, 500
Dept B ____________________________ 2, 000
Purchases: Dept A ______________________________ 118, 000
Dept B _______________________________ 82, 000
Wages of sales Assistance Dept A __________________ 10, 000
Dept B __________________ 7, 500
Sales commission: Dept A ___________________ 1, 500
Office salaries ___________________ 7, 500
Rates ____________________ 1, 300
Insurance _____________________ 500
Electricity _____________________ 1, 200
Repairs to premises _____________________ 250
Telephones charges _____________________ 250
Cleaning ______________________ 300
Accountancy fees _______________________ 1, 200
Office expenses _______________________ 600
Stock 31/3/18 Dept A _____________________ 3, 000
Dept B _____________________ 1, 500

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
1. The portion of total floor area occupied by each department was: Dept A = 1/5 and Dept B = 4/5.
2. Apportionment of overhead is to be made as follows: (a) Areas: Rates, Insurance, Electricity,
Repairs, Telephone and Cleaning.
(b) Turnover: Office Salaries, Accountancy fees and office expenses.
You are required to prepare departmental trading, profits and loss accounts for the year ended 31 st March,
2018.
3. Okeke and company Ltd opened a new branch in Abuja on Jan. 1 st 2015. Head office maintain all records and
charges goods to branch at cost, from the following information below:
Goods sent to branch at cost by the Head Office - - - - - 90, 000
 Returns from Branch at cost - - - - - - - - 4, 000
Cash taken remitted to head office - - - - - - - 21, 000
Branch credit sales - - - - - - - - - 75, 000
Cash taken stolen (un insured) - - - - - - - - 300
Branch expenses paid by the head office - - - - - - 3, 200
Goods stolen (un insured) - - - - - - - - 100
Closing stocks at branch at cost - - - - - - - 25, 000
st
There was no cash in hand at branch as at 31 December, 2018.
Discount allowed to branch debtors - - - - - - - 3, 000
Cash receive from branch debtors - - - - - - - 58, 000
Head Office:
Opening stock (Jan. 1st) - - - - 120, 000
Purchases - - - - 700, 000
Sales - - - - - 900, 000
Closing stock (31st Dec.) - - - - 70, 000
Required to prepare:
(a) Branch Stock Account
(b) Goods sent to Branch Account
(c) Branch Account
(d) Stolen Goods Account and
(e) Branch Expenses Account.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS
1. The systematic recording of transaction on daily basis in the appropriate book is called. A. accounting. B.
doube entry. C. book-keeping. D. recording.
2. The history of accounting is not complete without mentioning the name of an Italian monk and mathematician
called. A. Pascal Charles. B. Pucca Paciolo. C. Richard Lois. D. Lucca Paciolo.
3. Which of the following is a classified form, contains a permanent record of all transaction? A. sales day. B.
cashbook. C. ledger. D. journal.
4. We us ____ to record all minor expenses in an organisation. A. cashbook. B. petty cashbook. C. book-
keeping. D. subsidiary books.
5. The two main books of an accounts are ____ and ____. A. cash and bank. B. journal and ledger. C. cash
and balance. D. trial balance and journal.
6. The abbreciation for ‘CR’ stands for. A. creditors. B. carpet. C. credit. D. credit note.
7. The system of recording petty cash transactions which are paid out of a cash float is a. A. imprest system.
B. cash book. C. ledger. D. daybook.
8. Discount allowed is at the ___ side of the three-coloumns cashbook. A. credit. B. bank. C. bebit. D. date.
9. When a trader started business with cash, it is called. A. cash. B. cheque. C. capital. D. sales.
10. An account that deals with persons, corporate entity with whom the business has transaction is called. A.
impersonal. B. personal. C. nominal. D. real.
11. ____ are written evidence of business transactions that describe the essential fact of transactions. A.
cheque. B. source documents. C. invoices. D. receipt.
12. The following are users of accounting informations except? A. manager. B. creditors. C. government. D.
toddlers.
13. The right hand side of the cash book is known as. A. transaction side. B. receiving side. C. debtor side. D.
giving side.
14. Cash account is accommodate in a different book known as. A. cash transaction. B. ledger account. C.
purchases account. D. cash book.
15. A subsidiary book is. A. book containing the ledger. B. a book containing bal ance sheet. C. a book of purchases.
D. or original entry.
16. Sales journal is the opposite of. A. sales account. B. sales daybook. C. purchases journal. D. returns
inwards journal.
17. Which of the following docunet is used by the holder of current account? A. pass book. B. cheque. C.
notebook. D. receipts.
18. Which of the following is not a petty cashbook item? A. stationaries. B. postage stamp. C. machinery. D.
telegrams.
19. Cash discount is given to traders for. A. buying in large quantity. B. introducing other customers. C, being a
regular customer. D. prompt settlement of account.
20. When a buyer returns damaged goods to the seller, the buyer receives. A. proforma invoice. B. credit note.
C. debit note. D. goods returns note.
21. The concept of double entry book-keeping state that. A. if you receive goods on credit, the seller becomes
your cerditors. B. for every debto entry, there must be a corresponding credit entry. C. one party receives
and another party gives value. D. there must be debit side.
22. Which of the following book will trade discount be recorded? A. general ledger. B. purchases daybook. C.
double columns cash book. D. three columns cashbook.
23. Purchases in accounting refers to goods bought for. A. repairs. B. owner’s use. C. recale. D. office.
24. Which of the following is the book of original entry for all payments and receipts? A. journal book. B. sales
daybook. C. credit note. D. debt note.
25. When a buyer is under-charge the seller forwards ----. A. under cahs note. B. debot note. C. an invoice. D.
a payment receipts.
26. Emeka returned goods worth #5,000. Emeka should receive. A. credit note. B. debit note. C. an invoice. D.
a statement of account.
27. Goods returned to the supplier by the buyer are recorded in what book by the buyer? A. returned outwards.
B. returned inwards. C. pruchacses book. D. sales book.
28. The account meant for business man r traders is called. A. saving account. B. fixed deposite account. C.
bank overdraft. D. current account.
29. The folio column in the cash book is used to enter. A. particulars items. B. book entry. C. invoice pages. D.
original entry book
30. In accounts, balance brought down is abbreviated as. A. bal br/dn. B. bal. bf/down. C. bal. br/dwn. D. bal.
b/d.
31. Accounts can be abbreviated as. A. ac/T. B. a/cct. C. A/C. D. acct.
32. Which of the following is a real account. A. debtor account. B. sales account. C. purchases account. D.
motor vehicle account.
33. The principal book of an account is. A. journal. B. ledger. C. cashbook. D. petty cash book.
34. A cashbook that has column for cash and bank refers to as. A. single column cash book. B. three-column
cashbook. C. double-column cashbook. D. trial balance.
35. “C” in accounting represent. A. columns. B. control entry. C. contra entry. D. contra views.
36. Two types of cheques are _____ and
37. _____. A. triangle and square. B. crossed and uncrossed cheque. C. open and crossed cheque. D. two
lines and double line cheques.
38. The assumption that a business has perpetual existence is recognized by. A. entry concept. B. periodicity.
C. going concern concept. D. realization concept.
39. The documents for paying/depositing money in the bank is called. A. an invoice. B. pay-in-slip. C. payment
voucher. D. credit advice note.
40. The type of account that is meant for small earners who want to save their money is r eferred toas. A.
current account. B. fixed deposit account. C. saving account. D. bank overdraft.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer any TWO questions only)
1. Define Book-keeping and Accounting. (b) Mention three users of accounting information. (c) Outline three
careers opportunities in accounting and Book-keeping.
2. What is Source Documents? (b) List five source documents and explain any two mentioned above.
3. What are the principles guiding the rules of double entry system. (b) Outline the classification of Ledger
accounts. (c) Define Cashbook. (b) List out three divisions of cashbook.
4. Write up the sales journal of Okeke and post to the ledger account for the month of May 2020:
May 12: Sold to cocoa cola:
12 create of coke at #250 each
5 creates of Fanta at #60 each
Trade discount of 10%. Invoice No. 004
5. Enter the following information in the cashbook of Mr. T. Madu a businessman for the month of June 2018:
June 1st cash in hand - - - - - 2, 500
June 2nd sold goods for cash - - - - - 7, 800
th
June 6 cash sales - - - - - 6, 500
June 9th paid for wages- - - - - - 2, 000
th
June 10 purchases good for cahs - - - - 680
June 15th bought goods for cash - - - - 850
th
June 20 cash sales to Uche - - - - 4, 800
June 28th received from Okey - - - - 500
June 31st paid rent in cash - - - - - 800

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: MATHEMATICS S. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS
1. If # 112.00 exchanges for D14.94. Calculate the value of D.100 in Nigeria. A. 0.13. B. 7.49. C. 8.00. D. 13.00
2. Solve for x in the equation 3/5 (2x-1) = ¼ (5x-3). A. 0. B. 1. C. 2. D. 3.
1
3. Given that Cos x0 = 1/r, express tan x0 in terms of r. A. . B. √ r . C. √ r2+1. D. √ r2-1.
√r
4. Find the value of y in the figure below. A. 24.01cm. B. 18.62cm. C. 12.51cm. D. 10.32cm. E. 8.49cm.
 1 5
5. If a number is chosen at random from the set (x:4 ≤ x ≤ 15 ¿. Find the probability that it is a multiple of 4. A. . B. .
12 12
1 11
C. . D. .
2 12
6. Solve the equations 3x – 2y = 7 x + 2y=-3. A. x=1, y=-2. B. x=1, y=3. C. x=2, y=-1. D. x=4, y=-3.
7. One of the factors of (mn-nq-n2+mq) is (m-n). The other factor is. A. (n-q). B. (q-n). C. (n+q). D. (q-n).
8. A cylindrical container has a base radius of 14cm and height 18cm. how many litres, correct to the nearest litre, of liquid
can it hold.
9. Find the value of x in the diagram below. A. 960. B. 840. C. 480. D. 420. E. 200.

10. A regular polygon of a n side has each extender angle equal to 450. Find the value of n. A. 6. B. 8. C. 12. D. 15.
11. Esther was facing S 200N. She turned 900 in the clockwise direction. What direction is she facing? A. N 70 0W. B. S
700E. C. N 200W. D. 200E.
12. The cross section of a uniform prism is a right-angled triangle with sides 3cm, 4cm and 5cm. if its length is 10cm.
calculate the total surface area. A. 142cm2. B. 132cm2. C. 122cm2. D. 112CM2.
13. Form The equation whose roots are x= ½ and -2/3. A. 6x2-x+2=0. B. 6x2-x-2=0. C. 6x2+x+2=0. D. 6x2+x-2=0.
log √ 27
14. Simplify . A. 3. B. 2. C. 3/2. D. ¾.
log √ 81
15. Which of these angles can be constructed using a ruler and a pair of compass only. A. 1150. B. 1250. C. 1350. D. 1450.
16. The perimeter of a sector of a circle radius 4cm is ( π + 8)cm. calculate the angle of the sector. A. 45. B. 600. C. 750. D.
90.
17. The length of a piece of stick is 1.75m. A girl measured it as 1.80m. Find the percentage error. A.
284 29 20
%.B . %.C .5%. D . %.
7 7 7
3 3 3 3
18. What is the value of 3 in the number 42.7531? A. .B. .C. .D. .
10000 1000 100 10
19. The height of a cylinder is equal to its radius. If the volume is 0.216m 3, calculate the radius. A. 0.48m. B. 0.60m. C.
0.87m. D. 1.80m.
20. A circle is divided into two sectors in the ratio 3:7. If the radius of the circle is 7cm. calculate the length of the minor arc
of the circle. A. 18.85cm. B. 13.20cm. C. 12.30cm. D. 11.30cm.

21. Find the angle marked x. A. 1360. B. 1400. C. 1460.

D. 1480. E. 1500.

m (m−1) (m−n) m−3 11m (m−2) 11m+ 4

22. Simplify + − where n≠ o. A. . B. .C. . D. .
n 5n 10 n 10 n 10 n 10 n 10 n
23. If √ 72+ √ 32−3 √ 18=x √ 8. Find the value of x. A. 1. B. ¾. C. ½. D. ¼.
24. G varies directly as the square of H. If G is 4 when H is 3, find H when G =100. A. 15. B. 25. C. 75. D. 225.
25. Given that n(p)=19, n(P∪Q) = 38 and n(P∩Q)=7. Find n(Q). A. 26. B. 31. C. 36. D. 50.
5 7 7 5
26. Simplify 1 ¾ - (2 1/3 + 4). A. 3 . B 2 . C .−4 . D .−5 .
12 12 14 12
27. What is the root of the equation 6x2-7-5=0. A. ½ or -2 ½. B. 1/3 or -2 ½. C. 1 2/3 or – ½. D. 5/6 or 1.
28. Given that 124x = 7(14x), find the value of x. A. 12. B. 11. C. 9. D. 8.
29. Find the smaller value of x that statistics the equation x2+7x+10=0. A. -5. B. -2. C. 2. D. 5.
30. A rectangular garden measures 18.6m by 12.5m. Calculate correct to three significant figures the area of the garden. A.
230m2. B. 321m2. C. 232m2. D. 233m2.
31. John pour 96 litres of red oil into a rectangular container with length 220cm and breadth 40cm. Calculate, correct to the
nearest cm, the height of the oil in the container. A. 11cm. B. 18cm. C. 21cm. D. 34cm.
32. In a quiz competition, a student answers n questions correctly and was given D(n+50) for each question correctly
answered. If he gets D600.00 altogether, how many questions did he answer correctly? A. 18. B. 15. C. 12. D. 10.
33. A shop keeper allows a discount of 15% on the marked price of a mobile phone. If a customer paid GHȻ 170.00 for a
mobile phone, what was the marked price of the phone? A. GH
Ȼ 144.50 . GHȻ 195.40 . C . GHȻ 200.00 . D. GHȻ 225.00 .
34. If 27x = 9y find the value of x/y. A. 1/3. B. 2/3. C. 1 ½. D. 3.
35. Find the value of K in the diagram above. A. 480. B. 490. C.
1320. D. 1800. E. 3120.

36. A boy looks through a window of a building and sees a mango fruit on the ground 5m away from the foot of the building.
If the window is 9m from the ground, calculate, correct to the nearest degree, the angle of depression of the mango from
the window. A. 90. B. 100. C. 110. D. 120.
MN
37. If E = and E=750, M=1200, N=5000, find S. A. 1000. B. 2000. C. 3000. D. 4000.
S+N
38. The sum of 2 consecutive whole numbers is 5/6 of their product. Find the number. A. 3,4. B. 1,2. C. 2,3. D. 0,1.
39. Find the size of ¿ AOC in the figure above. A. 300. B. 600. C.
900. D. 1200. E. 1800.

40. Calculate the value of x in the figure below. A. 600. B. 760.

C. 880. D. 920. E. 1000.
41. A casting is made up of copper and zinc. If 65% of the casting is zinc and there are 147g of copper, what is the mass of
the casting? A. 320g. B. 420g. C. 520g. D. 620g.
42. Given that P={x:1 ≤ x< 6 }∧Q={ x :2< x <10 } where x is an integer. Find (PnQ). A. 4. B. 6. C. 8. D. 10.
43. The sum of 6 and one-third of x is one more than twice x. Find x. A. x=7. B. x=5. C. x=3. D. x=2.
44. Given that T{x: -2¿ x ≤ 9 }, where x is an integer. What is n(T)? A. 9. B. 10. C. 11. D. 12.
45. Solve the inequality: 3(x+1) ≤ 5 ( x +2 ) +15. A . x ≥−14. B . x ≤−14. C . x ≤−11. D . x ≥−11.
46.

Number of pets 0 1 2 10 4

Number of students 8 4 5 3 3

The table shows the number of pets kept by 30 students in a class, if a student is picked at random from the class, what
is the probability that he/she kept more than one pets? A. 1/5. B. 2/5. C. 3/5. D. 4/5.
47. The nth term of the sequence -2, 4, -8, 16 ………. Is given by. A>Tn = 2n. B Tn = (-2)n. C. Tn = (-2n). D. Tn = n2.
48. Instead of recording the number 1.23cm of the radius of a table, a student recorded 1.32cm. Find the percentage error.
Correct to one decimal place. A. 6.8%. B. 7.3%. C. 9.6%. D. 14.4%.
8 7 5 2
49. If x2+kx+16/9 is a perfect square, find the value of x. A. . B. .C. . D. .
3 3 3 3
50. The mean of the numbers 2,5,2x and 7 is less than or equal to 5. Find the range of values of x. A. x
≤ 3. B . x ≥ 3.C . x <3. D . x >3.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer all question in this part)
1. Give that log102 = 0.3010 and log103 = 0.4771. calculate without using mathematical tables or calculator the value of (a)
log1054. (b) log100.24.
2. (a) Simplify 1/35n x 9n-1 x 27n-1. (b) The sum of the ages of a woman and her daughter is 46 years. In 4 years time, the
ratio of their ages will be 7:2. Find their present ages.
3. The sides of a triangle floor are xm and (x+7)m. The diagonal is (x+8)m. Calculate in metres. (a) The value of x. (b) The
area of floor.
4. In the diagram MN//ST, NP//QT and ¿STQ = 700.
Find x.

B In the diagram, AC is a straight line, /BC/ = /BD/,

BƇD = 500 and BĂD = 550. Find BĎA.

5. Draw the table of values for the relation y=x 2 for the interval −3 ≤ x ≤ 4 . (b) Using a scale of 2cm to 1 unit on the x – axis
and 2cm to 2units on the y-axis, draw the graphs of (i) y=x 2 (ii) y=2x+3 for −3 ≤ x ≤ 4 (c) The roots of the equation
x2=2x+3 (ii) the gradient of y=x2 at x=2.
 PART II (Attempt FIVE questions only in this part)
6. The number of child births recorded in 50 maternity centres of a local government in Agust 1993 are as follows

50 99 81 86 69 85 74 63 92 65

77 74 76 71 90 74 93 94 67 75

95 81 68 105 99 68 81 75 76 73

79 74 80 69 74 62 75 80 79 68

79 75 75 71 83 75 80 85 81 62

(f) Construct a frequency distribution table, using class intervals 45-54, 55-64 etc.
(g) Draw the histogram for the distribution.
(h) Use your histogram to estimate the mode.
(i) Calculate the mean number of births.

7.

8.
Solve the simultaneous equations; 4x2 – 9y2 = 19. 2x+ 3y = 1. (b) Use the logarithm table to evaluate
√ 4.033
0.611 x 0.356
.

The probabilities that three boys pass an examination are 2/3, 5/8 and ¾ respectively. Find the probability that (i) All the
three boys pass. (ii) None of the boys pass. (iii) Only two of the boys pass. (B) A shop keeper marks a television set for
sale at #36, 000 so as to make a profit of 20% on the cost price. When he sells it, he allows a discount of 5% off the
marked price. Calculate the actual percentage profit.
9. The roots of the equation 2x2 + (p+1) x + q = 0 are 1 and 3, where p and q are constants. Find the values of p and q. (b)
The weight of an object varies inversely as a square of its distance from the centre of the earth. A small satellite weighs
80kg on the earth surface calculate, correct to the nearest whole number the weight of the satellite when it is 800km
above the earth surface. [take the radius of the earth as 6,400km].
10. A boy blew his rubber balloon to a spherical shape. The balloon burst when its diameter was 15cm. Calculate, correct to
22
the nearest whole number, the volume of air in the balloon at the point of bursting [Take = ]. (b) Given that 5cos
7
(x+8.5)0 – 1 = 0, 00≤ x ≤ 900=90, calculate, correct to the nearest degree the value of x.
11. Using completing the square method, solve correct to 2 decimal places the equation 3y 2 – 5y + 2 = 0. (b) that

M= (14 23) N=(mn xy )∧MN =(23 14) Find ¿ .

12. The 3rd and 7th term of an Arithmetic progression are 6 and 30 respectively. Determine;
(i) Common difference
(ii) First term’
9
∧243
(iii) 10 term. (b) The third and sixth term of a Geometric progression are 2
th
respectively. Determine (i) First term (ii)
16
Common ratio (iii) Seventh term.
 DIOCESE ON THE NIGER
ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: MATHEMATICS S. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS

x 3 2 x− y|
1. If = , . A. 1/5. B. 2/5. C. ½. D. 2/3.
y 4 2 x+ y
2. Round off 125689 to the nearest hundred. A. 125600. B. 125700. C. 125610. D. 126590. E. 125500.
3. Find the nth term of the 18,12,6,0 ……. A. 24-6n. B. 6-n. C. 20-4n. D. 24+6n. E> 20+4n.
4. Find the 8th term of 9,12,15,18 …… a. 20. B. 25. C. 30. D. 35.
5. Express 0.00562 in standard form. A. 5.62 x 10-2. B. 5.62 x 102. C. 5.62 x 10-3. D. 56.2 x 103. E. 562 x 102.
6. Evaluate using logarithm table√
4
85.3 x 7.28 . A. 0.1657. B. 4.99. C. 0.499. D. 49.9. E. 16.57.
7. Find the 4th term of an AP whose first term is 2 and the common difference is 0.5. A. 0.5. B. 2.5. C. 3.5. D.
0.4. E. 4.5.
8. The population of a village is 5846. Express this number to three significant figures. A. 5850. B. 5846. C.
5840. D. 585. E. 584.
9. Factorize 3a2+11a+6. A. (3a-2)(a-3). B. (2a-2)(a-2). C. (3a-2)(a+3). D. (3a+2)(a-3). E. (2a-3)(a+2).
−2 1x
10. Find the equation whose roots are and – ¼. A. 12x2 – 11x-2=0. B. 12x2 – 11x +2=0. C. x2 – + 2=0.
3 12
11 x
D. 12x2 – 11x-2=0. E. x2+ -2=0.
12
11. Evaluate 3.554. a. 165.8. B. 158.8. C. 2.2008. D. 0.5502. E. 268.8.
12. Evaluate5 √ 40000 . A .0.9204 . B . 1.9204 .C . 8.326 . D . 5.326 . E .832.6 .
13. What is the character of 0.0015? A. 3. B. 3. C. 4. D. 5.
14. What is the mantissa of ∜ 0.0007 . A. 2. B. 2.163. C. 0.163. D. 6271.
15. A sales girl gave a balance of # 1.15 to a consumer instead of # 1.25. Calculate the percentage error. A.
10%. B. 7%. C. 8.08. D. 2.4%.
16. Find the quadratic whose roots are -2,7. A. x2+2x-7=0. B. x2-2x+7=0. C. x2+5x+14=0. D. x2-5x-14=0.
17. Express the product of 0.06 and 0.09 in standard form. A. 5.4 x 10 -3. B. 5.4 x 10-2. C. 5.4 x 10-1. D. 5.4 x
102.
18. Find the roots of the equation 2x2-3x-2=0. A. x=+2 or -0.5. B. x=-2 or 1. C. x=2 or -2. D. x = 1 or 2.
19. Simplify 0.63954 ÷ 0.003 giving your answer correct to two significant figures. A. 213.18. B. 213.00. C. 232.
D. 210.
5.34 x 67.4
20. Evaluate using logarithm tables . A. 1.332. B. 13.32. C. 133.3. D. 1332
2.7
21. Instead of recording the number 1.23cm of the radius of a table, a student recorded 1.32cm. Find the
percentage error. Correct to one decimal place. A. 6.8%. B. 7.3%. C. 9.6%. D. 14.4%
22. What is the root of the equation 6x2-7-5=0. A. ½ or -2 ½. B. 1/3 or -2 ½. C. 1 2/3 or – ½. D. 5/6 or 1.
23. If a = -4, b=6 and c=-3, find the value of 5a-3c+2b. A. 2. B. 1. C. 5. D. 6.
24. Find the value to which # 3000.00 will amount in 5 years at 6% per annum simple interest. A. #3900. B.
#3750. C. #3600. D. #3300.
25. Express the square root of 0.00144 in the standard form. A. 1.2 x 10 -4. B. 1.2 x 10-3. C. 1.2 x 10-2. D. 1.2 x
10-1.
3 2 4 4 5 13
26. If − =4. Solve for x . A . . B . . C . . D . .
2x 3x 5 13 24 24
27. If (2x+3)3=125, find the value of x. A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4.
28. If 85% of x is #3230, what is the value of x. A. #2745.50. B. #3714.50. C. #3800.00. D. #4845.00
29. Mrs Kofi sold an article for #7.50 instead of #12.75. Calculate her percentage error. Correct to one decimal
place. A. 41.2%. B. 18.3%. C. 5.3%. D. 1.7%. E. 14%.
30. Solve the equation x2-7x+10=0. A. 5,3. B. 5,-3. C. 5,2. D. -5,-2.
31. Solve the simultaneous equations 2x+5y=1, 3x-2y=30. A. x=8, y=-3. B. x=4, y=2. C. x=2, y=4. D. x=1, y=2.
32. Find the product of 0.0409 and 0.0021 leaving your answer in the standard form. A. 8.6 x 10-6. B. 8.6 x 10 -5.
C. 8.6 x 104. D. 8.6 x 105.
33. If x% of 240 equals 12. Find x. A. x=1. B. x=3. C. x=5. D. x=7.
34. Given that x=2 and y= - ¼, evaluate x2y-2xy/5. A. 0. B. 1/5. C. 1. D. 2.
Use the table below to solve questions number 35-37. Y= 2x2 – 5x + 1

X -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3

Y A C 8 1 B -1 4

35. What is the value of ‘A’ in the table above? a. 13. B. 34. C. 12. D. 10.
36. What is the value of b+1 in the above table? A. -2. B. 2. C. 20. D. -1.
37. What is the value of ‘C’ in the table above? a. 19. B. 20. C. 15. D. 10.
38. Approximate 0.0033780 to 3 significant figures. A. 338. B. 0.338. C. 0.00338. D. 0.003.
39. What is the character of 0.0015? A. 3. B. -3. C. 4. D. 2.
40. Express 0.005812 as a number in standard form. A. 5.812 x 10 2. B. 5.812 x 10-3. C. 5.812 x 10-2. D. 5.8 x
103.

SECTION B: THEORY (Answer FOUR questions)

1. Evaluate the following, rounding off each answer to 3 significant figure. (a) 31.6 ÷ 4.79. (b)
0.0764
√5 .
0.000921
2. Solve the following equations. Give the answer to 2 decimal places where necessary; (a) x 2-2x-4=0. (b)
a+2b=13, 2a-3b=5.
3. Copy and complete the table below using y=2x2+x-2.

X -3 -2 -1 0 1 2

Y 1 - 8
 3 2

(b) What is the minimum value of x?

4. Find the 7th term of the following arithmetic progression (a) 5, 10, 15, ------------- (b) 18, 12, 6, - - - -
5. Find the sum of the following geometric progression; (a) 2+6+18+54+ - - - - - - +1458. (b) 16+2+ ¼+ - - -
- - as far as 6th term.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: MATHEMATICS J. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS
1. Convert 0.25 to percentage. A. 15%. B. 25%. C. 35%. D. 45%.
2. What is the number of seconds in 2mins? …… seconds. A. 60. B. 120. C. 150. D. 180.
4 1
3. Solve for g in = . A. 5. B. 8. C. 6. D. 9.
g 2
4. If a=2, b=3 and x=0, which of the following is correct? A. ab≤ x . B . ab > x . C . ab< x . D .ab=x .
5. If 3x = 81, find x. A. 1. B. 2. C. 4. D. 3.
6. Factorize the expression y2-12y+35. A. (y-5)(y-7). B. (y-5)(y+7). C. (y-7)(y+5). D. (y+5)(y+7).
7. Find the HCF of 8ab2 and 3a2b. A. ab. B. 24ab. C. 15a2b2. D. 14a2b2.
8. What is the coefficient of m2 in the expression of (4m-3)(m-2). A. -11. B. -6. C. 4. D. -4.
9. Simplify (x2)3. A. x6. B. x. C. x2. D. x5.
10. Solve the inequality: P≥−3 p+12. A . p ≤ 2. B . p ≤3. C . p ≥ 3. D . p ≥ 4.
11. Complete the table below;

X 2 3 4

Y 5 7

A. 4. B. 6. C. 8. D. 9.
12. Convert 77 to base 2. A. 10101. B. 100110. C. 111001. D. 1001101.
9 3 1 3 5
13. Calculate the square root of 1 . A . . B . 1 .C . 1 . D . .
16 4 4 4 4
14. How many lines of symmetry has an equilateral triangle? A. 1. B. 3. C. 4. D. 2.
15. If 40eggs cost #120.00, what is the cost of 24 eggs? A. #136.00. B. #72.00. C. #168.00. D. #4, 800.00
16. Simplify p2-q2. A. p-q. B. p+q. C. 2p-q. D. 2q-p.
17. Calculate (4x103) x (8x102) leave your answer in standard form. A. 3.2 x 102. B. 3.2 x 105. C. 3.2 x 106. D. 3.2 x 104.
4 y 4y 12+ xy 4 x+ 3 y 4y
18. Express + as a single fraction. A. . B. .C. .D. .
x 3 x−3 3x 3x 3x
19. Find the difference between the values of six in 12687 and 21867. A. 620. B. 340. C. 660. D. 9180.
20. Remove the bracket in –a(-b+c). A. –ab-ac. B. –ab+ac. C. ab-ac. D. ab+ac.
21. If the range of a set of numbers is 3 and the highest number is 12, find the least number. A. 3. B. 4. C. 9. D. 15.
22. Ada has ten brothers and fifteen sisters. How many children has Ada’s mother? A. 16. B. 20. C. 26. D. 22.
18 a
23. Simplify . A. 4a. B. 5a. C. 6. D. 6a.
3a
24. If y+ √ x =2y, make x the subject of the formula. A. 2y2. B. 3y2. C. y2. D. 6y2.
25. Evaluate √ 4 x √ 121 . A. 44. B. 77. C. 22. D. 66.
26. Think of a number, double it and subtract 3 from it. If the answer is 9, what is the number? A. 6. B. 9. C. 4. D. 12
27. The average of four number is 8. If three of the numbers are 11, 6 and 10. What is the number? A. 5. B. 7. C. 5. D. 8’
1 2. 2 2 2
28. Solve for n in 3 ½ = . A. . B . 1 .C .2 . D .3 .
n 7 7 7 7
29. How many triangles are there in a regular polygon of 20 sides? A, 18. B. 16. C. 20. D. 22.
30. Calculate the 4th angle of the quadrilateral whose other three angles are in the order: 58 0, 1170, 1220. A. 630. B. 1750.
C. 2970. D. 1800.
31. Solve for y if 17-4y=3y+3. A. -2. B. -5. C. -4. D. 2.
32. Expand (4x-2)(3+x). A. 11x-4x2+6. B. 11x-4x2-6. C. 12x+4x2-6, d. 4x2+10x-6.
33. If y varies inversely as the cube of x and y = 3 when x=2. Calculate the value of the constant. A. 50. B. 27. C. 20. D.
24.
34. Factorize 4x2-1. A. 92x-1)(2x-1). B. (2x+1)(2x-1). C. (4x+1)(x-1). D. 92x-2)(2x+1).
35. Convert 100112 to base ten. A. 17. B. 19. C. 20. D. 25.
36. Factorize ac-ad + 5c-5d. A. (6-5)(c+d). B. (a+5)(c-d). C. (a+5)(c+5). D. (ac+5d).
37. Simplify 6m+4n -2-5m. A. m+n-2. B. m+4n-2. C. m-4n+2. D. 4m+n-2.
38. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 96. Find the smallest number. A. 20. B. 34. C. 30. D. 12.
39. If 12 is subtracted from three times a number, the result is equal to two third of the number plus 16. What is the number?
A. 9. B. 7. C. 8. D. 12.
40. Evaluate 1012 + 1102 + 1112. A. 101012. B. 100112. C. 100102. D. 100002.

SECTION B: THEORY (Answer ALL questions)

1 2 1
1. Subtract 1001two from 1110two and leave your answer in base 10. (b) Simplify 2 +1 ÷ (c) Solve the equation
6 3 2
5 2
=
3+ x 4− x
2. P varies directly as Q and P = 16 when Q = 7. Find (i) The relationship between P and Q. (ii) P when Q = 14. (b)
Evaluate 3310five – 1442five (c) Copy and complete the table of multiplication in base five?

X 0 1 2 3 4
0 0 0
1 2
2
3
4 4 31

3. The score of some students in a mathematics test are; 10,7,7,8,6,10,8,8,9,6,5,8,9,5,10,9,8,5,9,8,9,7,7,6,8,7. (i) copy and
complete the frequency table below?

Scores Tally frequency

5
6
7
8
9
10
 Total
(ii) How many stuents took the test? (iii) Which score occurred most opten? (iv) What is the range of the scores?
4. If 18 is added to a number x, and then divide the sum by 2, the result is 5 times the number x. What is the value of x? (b)
a−b a+b
Reduce − into single fraction. (c) Calculate the value of Xcm in the diagram below. (correct the answer to
3 2
two decimal places).

B
350 10cm

Xcm
A C

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ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: MATHEMATICS J. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS

1. Express 162000 in standard form. A. 1.62 x 104. B. 1.62 x 105. C. 1.62 x 105-.
(−6 ) x (−5)
2. Solve . A. 3. B. -10. C. -3. D. 10.
−10
3. Correct 4.26075 to 2 decimal places. A. 4.2. B. 4.26. C. 4.30. D. 4.261.
4. Express three billion in powers of 10. A. 3. B. 9. C. 5. D. 6.
5. Evaluate ½ + ¼. A. ¼. B. 2/5. C. ¾. D. 2/4.
6. Which of these numbers is a square root of 36. A. 5. B. 3. C. 4. D. 6.
7. Which of these numbers is not a prime number. A. 5. B. 8. C. 3. D. 7.
2 1 1
8. Solve 2 ½ - 1 ¼. A. 1 ¼. B. 2 . C . 3 . D . 4
4 4 2
9. If a=4b-c, find ‘a’ when b=5 and c=2. A. 20. B. 9. C. 18. D. 10.
10. Find the H.C.F. of 15, 25, 50. A. 15. B. 5. C. 10. D, 20.
11. Write 0.000254 in standard form. A. 2.54 x 104. B. 2.54 x 10=3. C. 0.54 x 10-4. D. 2.54 x 10-3.
12. Express 2/5 as a percentage. A. 40%. B. 20%. C. 100. D. 300
13. Approximate 0.000642 to 3 decimal places. A. 0.0062. B. 0.016. C. 0.07. D. 0.006.
14. What is the square root of 225. A. 7. B. 5. C. 15. D. 9.
15. What is the square of 4. A. 16. B. 8. C. 20. D. 5.
16. Find the L.C.M of 20, 30 and 40. A. 100. B. 120. C. 50. D. 60.
5 8 17 5
17. Change 0.85 to a common fraction. A. .B. .C. .D. .
10 10 20 10
4
18. Express the fraction as a percentage. A. 60%. B. 80%. C. 85%. D. 30%.
5
19. Subtract 54 from 105. A. 53. B. 20. C. 25. D. 10.
20. All these numbers are factor of 20 except. 1,2,3,4,5,10,20. A. 4. B. 10. C. 3. D. 5.
21. What is the L.C.M of 8 and 10? A. 40. B. 20. C. 25. D. 15.
22. Write 98145231 to the nearest million. A. 98100000. B. 98000000. C. 97000 000. D. 90000000.
23. Any number raised to power 0 is what? A. 0. B. 1. C. 2. D. 11.
24. All these are factors of 40 except. A. 10. B. 4. C. 6. D. 20.
25. Express 30000 in standard form. A. 3 x 104. b. 3 x 102. C. 3 x 106. D. 3 x 100.
26. Write in figure: two million, two hundred and fifty thousand. A. 200250. B. 250000000. C. 2250000.
D. 20250000.
27. Round off 21506.3 to the nearest thousand. A. 22000. B. 21000. C. 21000.3. D. 21500.
2
28. Express as percentage. A. 100%. B. 60%. C. 50%. D. 40%.
4

29. Divide -32 by 8. A. 4. B. 8. C. -16. D. -4.

30
30. Express as a decimal. A. 0.6. B. 0.5. C. 0.25. D. 0.2.
60
31. What is the square root of 49? A. 11. B. 7. C. 14. D. 12.
32. Change 3.4 x 101 to ordinary form. A. 30. B. 34. C. 3400. D. 340.
33. Express 2 x 10-4 as decimal fraction. A. 0.02. B. 0.0002. C. 2000. D. 0.200.
34. Find the L.C.M. of 15 and 33. A. 100. B. 120. C. 165. D. 85.
35. What is the square root of 484. A. 20. B. 25. C. 22. D. 15.
36. What are the prime factors of 12. A. 1, 6. B. 2, 4. C. 2, 3. D. 6, 12.
37. Express 6:12 as simply as possible. A. 1:5. B. 1:3. C. 1:2. D. 2:5.
38. Round off 13139 to the nearest ten. A. 13140. B. 10139. C. 13100. D. 13000.
39. Evaluate (+11) – (+6). A. 5. B. 6. C. 17. D. 11.
40. Express 0.71 in standard form. A. 7.1 x 102. B. 7.1 x 103. C. 7.1 x 10-1. D. 7.1 x 100.

SECTION B: THEORY (Answer FOUR questions)

1. Simplify the following; (a) 10-(+3) – 5. (b) (11) – (-2). (c) (4) x (-6).
2. Change the following numbers to standard form; (a) 49 (b) 165.9 (c) 400 000
3. What is the HCF of 20, 30 and 60. (b) Find the LCM of 20, 30 and 60. (c) Convert 20% to decimal
fraction.
4. Round off the following numbers to 2 significant figure. (a) 4.25066. (b) 3257 (c) What are the prime
factors of 63.
5. What is the square root of the following; (a) 225. (b) 81. (c) Express 48 as a product of its prime
factors in index form.
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FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: MATHEMATICS J. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS

1. What is the value of 5 in 16543? A. 5 hundred. B. 5 tens. C. 5 thousand. D. 5 units.

2. Simplify 6-11+7. A. 12. B. 2. C. 0. D. 24.
3. I owe Ade a sum of #340 and was able to pay #120. Calculate how much that is left? A, #560. B. #220. C.
#240. D. #165.
4. A man had #175.00 left in his account. He withdrew #96.00 and later deposited #282.00. What is his new
balance? A. #177.00. B. #79.00. C. #361.00. D. #2.20
5. A class has 75 boys. If two-fifths of the class are girls, how many pupils are in the class? A. 125 pupils. . 206
pupils. C. 150 pupils. D. 250 pupils.
1
6. Express the value of of 4hours. . 36mins. B. 16mins. C. 4mins. D. 40mins.
6
9 9 9 9
7. Convert 0.09 t0 fraction. A. .B. .C. .D. .
10 100 1000 10000
7
8. Convert to decimal. A. 0.7. B. 0.07. C. 0.007. D. 0.0007.
10
9. The fraction equivalent of ½ is one of the following. A. 1/3. B. 2/6. C. 2/4. D. ¼.
5 ❑
10. Find the value of the missing number from these equivalent fractions = . A. 5. . 10. C. 15. D. 20.
15 30
11. Find the 20% of 15. A. 5. B. 14. C. 12. D. 3.
12. In a class of 50 students, there are 12 girls. What is the percentage of girls in the class? A, 15%. B . 30%. C.
24%. D. 12%.
1
13. A boy spent of his pocket money on bread, and the rest for exercise books. What is the fraction spent on
5
3 4 2 1
exercise books? A. . B . . C . . D . .
5 5 5 5
14. Solve for the L.C.M of 18 and 30. A. 90. B. 60. C. 38. D. 48.
15. Find the LCM of 18, 21 and 35. A. 74. B. 450. C. 182. D. 430.
16. Find the H.C.F of 24 and 36. A. 6. B. 18. C. 12. D. 40.
17. Solve for the H.C.F of 36, 63 and 72. A. 3. B. 6. C. 8. D. 9.
18. Divide the L.C.M of 30 and 60 by their H.C.F. A. 10. B. 4. C. 2. D. 22.
19. Find the sum of 52 and 72. A. 144. B. 74. C. 18. D. 52.
20. A boy bought 3 litres of petrol for #60.00, how much will he pay to fill his car tank which is 52 litres? A.
#104.00. B. #1040.00. C. #10.40. D. #1.40.
21. Find the approximated value 78 + 27 to the nearest tens. A. 90. B. 80. C. 100. D. 70.
22. Solve this -5+7. A. 12. B. -12. C. 2. D. -2.
23. Simplify 5.28 + 0.70. A. 5.98. B. 5.78. C. 5.35. D. 12.28.
24. Find the sum of #1.52, #2.62 and #3.32. A. #7.46. B. #8.52. C. #10.05. D. #9.22.
3 4 2 6 4 8
25. Simplify + . A . 1 . B .1 . C . 1 . D .1 .
7 5 35 35 35 35
17 1 2 2
26. Change to mixed fraction. A. 2 ¼. B. 2 . C . 2 . D . 3 .
5 5 5 5
7 1 1 5 2 1
27. Find the difference between 2 ∧5 . A .2 . B . 2 .C .2 . D .2 .
8 6 4 8 17 24
2 3 3 3 3 2
28. Simplify x . A . . B . .C . . D. .
7 4 7 4 14 4
2
29. Evaluate 4 ÷ . A. 6. B. 18. C. 12. D. ¼.
3
Using the sample below, solve No 30-35
30. What is the L.C.M of 8 and 10? A. 40. B. 20. C. 25. D. 15.
31. Write 98145231 to the nearest million. A. 98100000. B. 98000000. C. 97000 000. D. 90000000.
32. Any number raised to power 0 is what? A. 0. B. 1. C. 2. D. 11.
33. All these are factors of 40 except. A. 10. B. 4. C. 6. D. 20.
34. Express 30000 in standard form. A. 3 x 104. b. 3 x 102. C. 3 x 106. D. 3 x 100.
35. Write in figure: two million, two hundred and fifty thousand. A. 200250. B. 250000000. C. 2250000. D.
20250000.
36. Round off 21506.3 to the nearest thousand. A. 22000. B. 21000. C. 21000.3. D. 21500.
2
37. Express as percentage. A. 100%. B. 60%. C. 50%. D. 40%.
4
38. Divide -32 by 8. A. 4. B. 8. C. -16. D. -4.
30
Express as a decimal. A. 0.6. B. 0.5. C. 0.25. D. 0.2.
60
1 2 1 5
Study the relationship in the samples above and fill in the following boxes, (i) = ( ii ) =
8 16 5 25
❑ 1
39. = . A. 5. B. 2. C. 1. D. 4.
24 12

5 ❑
40. = . A. 7. B. 8. C. 15. D. 10.
15 30

3 6
41. =
❑ 8 . A. 2. B. 8. C. 6. D. 4.
❑
42. ½= . A. 3. B. 6. C. 9. D. 2.
6

43. ❑ = 2 . A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4
4 8

SECTION B: THEORY (Answer No. 1 and any other THREE(3) questions from this section)
SHOW FULL WORKING INSIDE YOUR ANSWER SHEET.
1. Study the samples and answer the questions.
 4 6

6 10 12 18

2.5 3

(ai) 5 (aii) 12

7 ? 24 36

2.4 ?
B write in words: 293, 208, 009, 010. (c) Write in figure: four hundred and fifteen trillion, two hundred and
3
eight million, nin thousand and twenty-eight. (d) Simplify of ¿ .
5
2. Use numberline to evaluate the following; (a) – 5 – (-3) (b) – 3 + 7. (c) Convert 0.65 to fraction and reduce to
its lowest term.

2 2
3. Find the L. C. M of 18de and 64ef. (b) Peter spent of his pocket money on Tuesday and on Wednesday,
4 5
2
what fraction of his money is left? (c) Convert to percentage.
5
5
∧3 2 2 2
4. Arrange 1 1 3 12 in ascending order. (b) Find the product of 3 ¾ and 2 . (c) Simplify 3 +1 .
, , 5 3 ❑
3 45 4
5. Approximate 431-03 to 2 significant figures. (b) Convert ¼ to decimal. (c) Find the H.C.F of 112 and 144.

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ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: MATHEMATICS S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.
(SECTION A: OBJECTIVES)
1. Evaluate (0.13)3 correct to three significant figures. A. 0.00219. B. 0.00220. C. 0.00300. D. 0.00390.
2. Simplify 110112 – 11012. A. 1010002. B. 11102. C. 11002. D. 10112.
3. Find the product of 0.0409 and 0.0021 leaving your answer in the standard form. A. 8.6 x 10 -6. B. 8.6 x 10-5.
C. 8.6 x 10-4. D. 8.6 x 105.
4. Evaluate (3-2)3 – (4-8)2. A. -0.08. B. 5. C. -12.80. D. -1.60.
3-2 + 4-8
5. If P – 2g + 1 = g+3p and p-2 = 0 find g. A. -2. B. -1. C. 1. D. 2.
6. If P= {1,3,5,7,9} and Q = {2,4,6,8,10} are subsets of a universal set U = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}. What are the
elements of PI n QI? A. {1,3,5,7,9}. B. {2,4,6,8,10}. C. ∅ . D. {1, 2, 6, 8, 10}.
7. Factorize 5y2 + 2ay – 3a2. A. (a-y)(5y-3a). B. (y-a)(5y-3a). C. (y-a)(5y+3a). D. (y+a)(5y-3a).
8. If 2n = 128, find the value of (2n-1)(5n-2). A. 5(106). B. 2(106). C. 2(105). D. 5(105).
9. Evaluate (3.2)2 – (1.8)2. A. 13.48. B. 2.56. C. 2.0. D. 7.0
10. If x = y, y = 5 and z = -3, find the value of x (x-z) – y2. A. 45. B. 95. C. 60. D. 15.
11. Simplify 9x (3+6) (mod 8). A. 2. B. -2. C. 0. D. 1.
12. Express 81ten in binary. A. 111012. B. 10001012. C. 110012. D. 1010001.
13. If 25n = 102five, find n? A. 11. B. 15. C. 12. D. 14.
4 −4 −1 1
14. Given that x = -3 and y = -7, evaluate x2 – y. A. . B. . C. . D. .
13 23 11 27
y2 - x
2S
15. Make k the subject of the formular S = ½ h (p+k). A. K = − p . B. K = 2S – hp. C. K = p – 2S. D. K = hp –
h
2S.
16. The quantity P varies directly as the quantity Q and when P is 24, Q is 72. Find P when Q is 48. A. 144. B.
25. C. 32. D. 16.
17. Evaluate log3 27 = x. A. 3. B. 6. C. 1. D. 9.
18. Two sets are disjoint if. A. they are both empty. B. their union is empty. C. one is a subset of the others. D.
their intersection is empty.
19. If 6⨂ 6 = m (mod 7), find m? A. 5. B. 7. C. 0. D. 1.
1
20. X varies directly as Y. if x = 35, when y = 7. Find x in terms of y. A. x . B. x = 5y. C. x = -5y. D. x = 7y.
5y
21. The product of three number is 3878, two of the numbers are 17 and 19. What is the third number? A. 57. B.
12. C. 6. D. 9.
22. If 45 is equal to the product of 9 and a certain number. Find the number. A. 4. B. 45. C. 5. D. 7.
23. Simplify 342five + 134five – 223five. A. 254five. B. 477five. C. 303five. D. 103five.
24. Using index notation, write the value of (23)2. A. 32. B. 64. C. 26. D. 29.
25. Subtract 8DF from 9C8 in base 16. A. E9. B. D8. C. E8. D. F9.
26. Solve the equation 5x = 125. A. 3. B. 2. C. 6. D. 5.
27. Find the smallest integer than zero that is equivalent to 34 in mod 5. A.34≡ 4. B. 34≡ 7. C. 43 ≡ 4.
D. 3 ≡ 9.
28. Use the logarithm table to evaluate 34.83 x 5.427. A. 2.2766. B. 52.73. C. 1.905. D. 189.1
29. If log10 9 = 5 then q =. A. 5, 000. B. 10, 000. C. 50. D. 100, 000.
30. Express 0.5625 in base 10 as a binary number. A. 10102. B. 0.11112. C. 0.10102. D. 0.10012.
31. Simplify 22n7÷ 2n3. A. 11n2. B. 2n5. C. 11n+. d. 12n2.
If M = {1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10} and A = {2,3,5,7}, B = {2,4,5,7}, C = {1,2,5,7}.
32. Find A? A. {1,2,5,7}. B. {4,6,8,9,10}. C. {1,4,6,8,9,10}. D. {2,5,7}.
33. Find (AuC)I. A. {1,5,7}. B. {1,2,5,7}. C. {1,2,3,5,7}. D. {2,3,5,7}.
34. Find AnB. A. {1,2,5,7}. B. {8,9,10}. C. {2,5,7}. D. {4,6,8,9,10}.

35. Find the smallest non-zero residue that is equivalent to 15 in mod 6. A. 4. B. 3. C. 13. D. 8.
36. Evaluate 16⨁ 18 (mod 7). A. 4. B. 6. C. 7. D. 3.
210 155 8 100
37. Express this decimal to denary. 0.4158. A. . B. . C. . D. .
216 216 20 210
38. Find the positive integer equivalent to 4 in mod 8. A. 12. B. 16. C. 14. D. 11.
39. Evaluate 5 ⊗ 6 in (mod 14). A. 2. B. 8. C. 9. D. 4.
40. Using index notation, write down the value of t5÷ t2. A. t3. B. t7. C. t2 ½ . D. t10.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer ALL questions)
6. Find x given that 132x = 7210. (bi) Construct the multiplication table for modulus 6. (ii) Evaluate 5 ⊗6
(mod 10). (iii) 12 ⊕ 7 mod 4. (iv) 17⊝ 6 mod
 86.23 x 4058
7. Use logarithm table to calculate . (b) Convert 34218 to base 12. (c) Solve for the value of
913.6
x in 8x = 32.
n
8. Add BAC9 + 8679. (b) Change to standard form (i) 0.003517 (ii) 4856000. (c) Given that S = (a+l)
2
express a in terms of S, n Ѯ l. (b) Find a when S = 60, n = 20, and l =10.
9. If y varies directly as the square of x, when y = 98, x=7. (i) Find the formula connecting x and y. (ii) Find
7
y when x = 5. (b) Evaluate to bicimals. (c) Simplify (i) (256) ½ (ii) (2x)3 2x4.
8

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ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
CLASS: SS2 FINANCIAL ACCOUNTING : TIME:1 HR 30 MINS
1. The decease in value or noth of an item is (a) Trading account (b) Patnership account (c) depreciation (d)
manifesting account
2. Another name for parthy finished goods is ___(a) work in progress (b) a profitable work (c) closing stock (d)
opening stock
3. Prime cost consists the following except (a) factory oveheld (b) direct materials (c) direct expenses (d) direct
labour
4. The factory wages is posted to one of the following (a) profit and lose (b0 maunifacturing account (c) sales
account (d) Balance sheet
5. The expenses incurred in the factory where production takes place is known as (a) Prime cost (b) Material
Consumed (c) factory overhead expenses (d) cost of production
6. The purchase of raw materials plus opening stock of raw materials less closing stock on raw materials will
result in (a) Cost of production (b) cost of materials consumed (c) Price cost (d) Working progress
7. A partner whose name is used by t he firm for prestige and repitation purpose is (a) Domant partner (B)
Norminal partner (c) limited partner (d) General partner
8. All of these are factors of ordinary partnership except (a) equal powers (b) unlimited liability (c) Agent of the
form (d) limited liability
9. The expenditure incured on raw materials which can be traced on raw materials which can be traced to a
patience production nunit is (a) Direct labour (b) Direct materials (c) direct cost (d) Direct overheads
10. __________ is the method of caluing an asset at the begining and at the end of the year to determine its
depereable or appreciable method (a) dimissly method (b) Straight line method (c) Relations method (d) balance
sheet method
11. The contents of partnership deed includes ________________
12. ____________ and
13. ________________
14. One of these is not among cases of depreciation (a) Usage (b0) Effusion of time (c) Obsolence (d) Scarp value
15. Factors to consider in determing depreciation charge includes the following except (a) Scarp value (b) cost (c)
Purpose (d) estimated economc life
16. Income and ezpenditure is the same as (a) find account (b) trading , profit and loss account (c) dissolution
account (d) partnership account
17. Source of revnenue for non-profit organization involve the following except (a) loans (b) penalities (c) Dues (d)
increasing method
18. All are method of depreciation except (a) Revalation method (b) straight line (c) Reducing (d) increasing
method
19. Income and expenditure account shows (a) summary of trading account (b) summary of profit and loss account
(c) Summary of revenue and running cost of non-profit making organization (d) Summary of balance sheet
20. Sources of capital in in partnership business are _________________,
21. ____________,
22. _________ and
23. ___________________
24. Features of a partnership includes the following except (a) profits (b) Dividend (c) Not a legal entity (d) capital
25. What kind of partnership is registered under the limited partnership act? (a) ordinary partnership (b) active
partner (c) Domant partner (d) Nomina Partner
26. Another name for inventory is __(a) Stor (b) Stalk (c) stall (d) stock
27. Partnership business is founded by (a) 2-20 persons (b) 10-30 persons (c) 2-50 persons (d) 7-infinit persons
28. Which of the following is an example of a non –profit making organization (a) Life eriweries (b) gneral cotton
mill ltd (c) peoples club of Nigeria (d) Nigerian bottling company
29. One of these does not belong to gruop (a) sharing of risk (b) continunity in business (c) posssiblity expansion
(d) building of hall
30. All of these are disavantages of partnership except (a)joint and better decision (b) unlimited liability (c)
limited number (d) limited capital

31. The penalty fnsihed or incomplete work in manufacturing process is cleared (a) Market value (b) Direct labour
(c) work-in-progress (d) Direct expenses
32. Cost-Estimated Residual valuethe above formular represent what method of depreciation?
33. Provisin of depreciation on office equipment is charged to (a) profit and loss account (b) capital account (c)
trading account (d) appropriation account
34. The wages of employees who are directly engaged in the production process is called (a) direct labour (b) direct
expenses (c) Factory over head (d) work in progress
35. Another name for scrap value of an assess is (a) reduction value (b) residential value 9c) residual value (d)
recipient value
36. The method of deprciation in which a fixed percentage is written off the asset the balance remaing is called (a)
revaluation method (b) dismmisly balance (c) annuity method (d) Double entry method
37. A doument diagram up by the partners which contains the rules and regulations guilding the business is (a)
dead of resolution (b) dead of dissolution (c) dead of partnership (d) dead of sole trader
38. An account that represents the annual summary of cash rcords of club or society is (a) recipts account (b)
recipts and payment accout (c) manufacturing account (d) finace account
39. All of these are terminiloies used in maufacturing alc exept (a) prime cost (b) work-in-progress (c) Production
value (d) cost of production
SECTION B THEORY
ATTEMPT ANY FOUR QUESTIONS ONLY.
1. Define Straight Lime Method of Depreciation. (b) Write short note on the following; (i) Diminslishing method of
decpreciation. (ii) Direct material. (iii) Manufacturing account. (iv) Formation of partnership.
2. What is pertnership deed? (b) LIst six (6) contents of partnership deed. (c) State five terminologies used in
maufacturing account.
3. Isabella purchase a motor van costing N10,000 on 1st January 2010. The van is estimated to have a useful life of five
(5) years at the end of which the scrap will be sold for N2, 000.
Use straight line method of depreciation and show the following accounts;. (i) Moto van account. (ii) Depreciation
account. (iii) Profit & loss account. (iv) Balance sheet.
4. Use the information to prepare the income and expenditure Account of Mrs. Bliss Drama and club for the year ended
31st Dec. 2013
Meeting - - - 300
Transport - - - 500
Convention - - - 3,500
Welfare - - - - 1, 200
Honoranum - - - 2, 000
National - - - 2, 000
Registration fee - - - 1, 000
Subscription - - 2, 000
Production of Stickers - - 500
Sale of sticker - - 1, 000
Special levy - - 12,900
Fines penalty - - 100
Donation - - 500
5. Enter the below transaction in the recipts and payments account of club’s for the month of August 2020
Registration fees - - - 1, 000
Welfare - - - - 1, 200
Balance in hand - - - 1, 000
Building - - - - 1, 500
Honouranum - - - - 500
Donation - - - - 5, 000
Subscription 2009 - - - 2, 000
Subscription 2010 - - - 500
Transport - - - 500

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: BIOLOGY S. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.
(OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS)
1. Each neurone consists of the following structures except. A. cell body. B. white matter. C. axons. D.
dendrites. E. all of the above.
2. Which of the following is responsible for the increase heartbeat of a boy who saw a python? A. adrenalin. B.
insulin. C. oxytocin. D. thyroxin. E. pituitrin.
3. The nerves that arise from the brain are known as __. A. cranial nerves. B. optic nerves. C. spinal nerve.
D. sacral nerve. E. somatic nerves.
4. The neurone that relay the message of effect organs are called. A. spinal cord. B. sensory cells. C. efferent
neurones. D. afferent neurones. E. intermediate neurone.
5. Which of the following conditions will cause a decrease in body temperature? A. relaxation of the erector
muscles. B. continuous movement. C. shivering. D. vasoconstriction of capillaries of the skin. E. increase
metabolism.
6. In which part of the kidneys does ultra-filtration take place? A. afferent arteriole. B. distal convoluted
tubules. C. proximal convoluted tubules. D. collecting duct. E. bow mans capsule.
7. Which of the following organism has the largest surface area to volume ratio? A. man. B. spider. C.
earthworm. D. grasshopper. E. amoeba.
8. The hormone that promotes secondary sexual characteristics in female is. A. thyroxin. B. insulin. C.
testosterone. D. oxytocin. E. oestrogen.
9. The biotic factor which determines the depths to which light penetrates in a pond is __. A. current. B.
turbidity. C. wind. D. salinity. E. tides.
10. Which of these is not function of kidneys? A. production of urine. B. maintenance of acid base balance in the
body. C. osmo-regulation. D. removal of urea. E. production bile.
11. Which of the following organs is concerned with detoxication of harmful compounds? A. lungs. B. kidneys.
C. liver. D. pancreas. E. grall bladder.
12. Which of these is not an excretory products of plants? A. gum. B. tannin. C. sweat. D. alkaloid. E.
anthocyanin.
13. The simplest form of nervous pathways which links receptors with effectors is known as __. A. relay neurone.
B. motor nerves. C. reflex arc. D. sensory nerves. E. somatic nerves.
14. Which of the following parts of the eye is sensitive to light? A. cornea. B. choroid layer. C. iris. D. retina. E.
optic nerves.
15. Which of the following organs in humans is responsible for the removal of excess water? A. the spleen. B.
the kidneys. C. large intestine. D. small intestine. E. liver.
16. Adrenalin is considered as a hormone for “fright and flight” because it. A. controls the fluid content f the body.
B. is used in protein metabolism. C. plays a role in the PH balance of the body fluids. D. prepares the body
for action. E. all of the above.
17. In humans, which of the following pairs of hormones correspond to male and female respectively? A.
Oestrogen and adrenalin. B. progesterone and testosterone. C. testosterone and Oestrogen. D. adrenalin
and progesterone. E. oxytocin and adrenalin.
18. When a person moves form a darkroom into bright light, the pupil becomes. A. red. B. large. C. white. D.
smaller. E. blue.
19. The structure of the ear that is responsible for balancing is the ___. A. pinna. B. ossicles. C. semi-circular
canals. D. auditory nerve. E. fenestra ovalis.
20. Which of the following resource is non-renewable? A. forest. B. wildlife. C. mineral deposits. D. water. E.
all of the above.
21. If the cerebellum of a person is slightly damaged, which of the following will be in paired? A. vision. B.
walking. C. breathing. D. digestion. E. sleeping.
22. Which of the following organism is a producer. A, spirogyra. B. mucor. C. rhizopus. D. yeast. E. amoeba.

23. The abiotic factor which determines the depth to which light penetrates in a pond is __. A. current. B.
turbidity. C. wind. D. salinity. E. tides.
24. Mammals require a relatively high amount of carbohydrate because ___. A. they maintain weight of the body.
B. they are required for growth. C. they initiate enzyme production. D. they yield energy for activities. E.
they require it for body protection.
25. The function of the red blood cell is to __. A. engulf invading bacteria. B. aid in protein formation. C. carry
oxygen. D. clotting. E. control blood glucose level.
26. The junction in which two nerves meet are called __. A. dendrites. B. impulse arc. C. axon. D. synapse. E.
all of the above.
27. The normal PH of blood is __. A. 7.4. B. 2.1. C. 6.5. D. 9.8. E. 8.0
28. The part of the ear which contains nerve cells sensitive to soun vibration is the ___. A. cochlea. B. ampulla.
C. tympanum. D. malleus. E. pinnae.
29. The glomerular filtrate contains the following substances except. A. water. B. urea. C. blood. D. glucose.
E. ammonia.
30. The pancreatic duct opens into the ___. A. caecum. B. colon. C. ileum. D. duodenum. E. Oesophagus.
31. The collective name for the female parts of a flower is ___. A. gynoecium. B. androecium. C. ovary. E.
stigma. E. style.
32. Which of the following environmental conditions is ideal for plant cells to remain turgid? A. Hot, dry weather.
B. windy weather. C. cold dry weather. D. cool, humid weather. E. hot dry weather.
33. The folded portion of mitochondria is called ___. A. Cristal. B. cell membrane. C. nucleolus. D. partition.
34. Support in young herbaceous plants is provided by ___. A. translocation. B. guttation. C. turgidity. D.
osmosis. E. diffusion.
35. Which of the following organs in mammals is not excretory in function? A. liver. B. kidney. C. pancreas. D.
lungs. E. skin.
36. Siphons and gills are structures in aquatic organism used for ___. A. gaseous exchange. B. buoyancy. C.
excretion. D. movement. E. all of the above.
37. An organism which maintain a constant temperature irrespective of environmental temperature fluctuation is
__. A. a mammal. B. an insect. C. a fish. D. an amphibian. E. reptile.
38. The example of autotrophic organisms include the following except. A. hydra. B. euglena. C. spirogyra. D.
chlaniydomonas. E. algae.
39. Which of the following food substances would produce a translucent mark when rubbed on a white paper? A.
potato. B. beans. C. mango. D. groundnut. E. yam.
40. The blood group in humans referred to as a universal recipient is ___. A. O. B. A. C. B. D. AB. E. all of the
above.
41. A change in the environment of an organism is termed __. A. sensitivity. B. impulse. C. stimulus. D.
adaptation. E. response.
42. The two important physical process involved in the absorption and transport of material in plants are. A.
diffusion and plasmolysis. B. flaccidity and turgidity. C. Osmosis and diffusion. D. plasmolysis and
capillarity. E. turgidity and osmosis.
43. Which of the following enzyme is active in the duodenum? A. pepsin. B. renin. C. trypsin. D. ptyalin. E.
amylase.
44. A balanced meal contains the following except ____. A. carbohydrate. B. starch. C. vitamin. D. mineral. E.
protein.
45. A herbivore carrot feed on a piece of meat because it has no ___. A. canines to tear up the meat. B. incisors
to cut the meat. C. premolars to grind the meat. D. molars to mash the meat. E. tongue to roll the meat.
46. The branch of biology that deals with the principles of classification of organism is known as __. A.
taxonomy. B. nomenclature. C. ecology. D. zoology. E. classification.
47. At what level of organisation is Amoeba? A. tissue. B. organ. C. cellular. D. system. E. filament.
48. Movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from a weaker solution to a stronger solution is
known as ___. A. Osmosis. B. Transpiration. C. diffusion. D. active transport. E. flaccidity.
49. Animal cell are different from plant cell because it contains. A. definite cell wall. B. centriole. C. cell
membrane. D. large vacuoles. E. nucleus.

50. Enzymes can be inactivated by certain chemical substances in the body called. A. inhibitors. B. activators.
C. substrate. D. catalysts. E. stimulators.
51. The relationship between an herbivore and bacteria which live in the caecum is known as ___. A. symbiosis.
B. commensalism. C. parasitism. D. saprophytism. E. predation.
52. The scientist who discovered the honey comb structure of the cell was ___. A. Robert Hooke. B. Felix
Dujardin. C. Mathias Schleidon. D. TheodoreSchwan. E. Felix Mendel.
53. Which of the following stimuli are not perceived through the skin of animals? A. light. B. pain. C. cold. D.
heat. E. touch.
54. Which of the following is the precise location of the gene? A. chromosome. B. centrosome. C. ribosome. D.
endoplasmic reticulum. E. nucleolus.
55. Diffusion is most effective in living organism when the surface area is ____. A. large and the thickness is also
large. B. small while the thickness is large. C. large while thickness is small. D. both the surface area and
thickness are large.
56. The plant cell stores food as ___. A. glycogen. B. starch. C. auxin. D. carbohydrate. E. lipids.
57. The epidermis of the mammalian skin is an example of a tissue because the cells ___. A. prevent light from
passing through them. B. have similar structure and function. C. are impregnated with keratin. D. allow light
to pass through them. E. are luminous.
58. Oxygen carrying blood is called ___. A. Haemoglobin. B. oxyheamoglobin. C. carboxyl haemoglobin. D.
thrombocytes. E. erythrocytes.
59. The physical and chemical factors which affect the life of organisms in an environment are described as ___.
A. abiotic. B. edaphic. C. biotic. D. topographic. E. climatic.
60. The vector for sleeping sickness diseases is ___. A. Test se fly. B. mosquito. C. black fly. D. cockroach. E.
housefly.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer only FOUR questions)
1. What is Food Shortage? (b) State four causes of food shortage. (c) Explain three factors that affect
population. (d) Outline two causes of overcrowding.
2. What are Sense Organs? (b) State two main functions of the ear. (c) Explain the mechanism involved in one
of the functions stated in 2b above. (d) With the aid of a large labelled diagram illustrate the eye defect of long
sightedness and its correction.
3. Define Receptors. (ii) Describe two general features common to all receptors. (b) Make a labelled diagram
10-12cm long of human ear. (c) State two ways of caring for the ear.
4. What is Hormone? (ii) List four plant and animal hormones respectively. (b) Outline three modern application
of auxin. (c) State two effects each of these hormones; (i) Oestungen (ii) Testosterone.
5. Name three main parts of the human brain. (b) State two functions in each of the following (i) Cerebrum (ii)
Cerebellum (iii) Medulla Oblongata. (c) Explain three measures to be taken by nature to avoid over
crowding.
6. (i) List the three layers of the eyes. (ii) Mention two structures each that is enclosed by them. (b) Name two
ear defects and two skin diseases. (c) Define the term “Succession”. (ii) State three characteristics of
succession.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: BIOLOGY S. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.
(OBJECTIVES)
1. Where in the alimentary system of a bird is a swallowed maize grain ground? A. mouth. B. appendix. C.
crop. D. stomach. E. gizzard.
2. The raw materials required for photosynthesis are. A. chlorophyll and starch. B. light energy and heat. C.
glucose and oxygen. D. water and carbondioxide. E. mineral salts and sunlight.
3. By what structure do cockroaches take in oxygen for respiration? A. malpighian tubules. B. gills. C. lungs.
D. hearts. E. trachea.
4. An example of ball and socket joint is the ____. A. wrist joint. B. ankle joint. C. knee joint. D. hip joint. E.
elbow joint.
5. Which of the following substances are formed in the light reaction of photosynthesis? A. ATP. B. NADPH.
C. oxygen. D. all of the above. E. none of the above.
6. All these are examples of diffusion except. A. dropping of eosin in beaker containing water. B. spraying of
perfumes. C. absorption of digested food from small intestine into the blood. D. all of the above. E. none of
the above.
7. All these animals undergo complete metamorphosis except. A. mosquito. B. housefly. C. butterfly. D. moth.
E. cockroach.
8. Saprophytes feed mainly on ___. A. fluids. B. bodies of living plants and animals. C. microphagous
organism in water. D. deed organic matter. E. nectars of flowers.
9. Blood leaves the heart through ___. A. artery. B. Aorta. C. Vein. D. Capillary. E. Vena Cava.
10. In earthworm the spermatozoa are stored in ___. A. seminal groove. B. spermathecal. C. clitellum. D.
segment. E. seminal vesicle.
11. Which of the following is responsible for the transportation of water in plants? A. phloem. B. roots. C. xylem.
D. stem. E. leaves.
12. Oxygen carrying blood is called ___. A. Haemoglobin. B. oxyheamoglobin. C. carboxyl haemoglobin. D.
thrombocytes. E. erythrocytes.
13. Filter feeding is only possible. A. with the use of filter paper. B. on Land. C. in animals with gill. D. in
animals with wing. E. in aquatic environments.
14. Which of these is the main organ used in the grinding mechanism of feeding? A. tooth. B. tongue. C.
proboscis. D. labium. E. pseudopodium.
15. One of the following is not a part of the alimentary canal? A. colon. B. ileum. C. lungs. D. stomach. E.
gullet.
16. Which of the following is not an example of asexual reproduction? A. fission. B. budding. C. conjugation. D.
spore formation. E. fragmentation.
17. The tick structure formed during sexual reproduction in spirogyra is ___. A. gamete. B. cysts. C. zygospore.
D. zygote. E. offspring.
18. Which one of the following animals is blood sucker? A. tape worm. B. housefly. C. mosquito. D. water bug.
E. butterfly.
19. Which of the following is an adaptation of savannah plants for protection against bush fire? A. possession of
sunken stomata. B. rolling of leaves during hot days. C. gradual shedding of leaves throughout the year. D.
possession of a thick bark. E. absorption of water through the root.
20. Terrestrial habitat includes the following except. A. marsh. B. grassland. C. forest. D. estuarine. E. arid
land.
21. Which of these organism undergo sexual and asexual method of reproduction? A. cockroach. B. Amoeba.
C. housefly. D. spirogyra. E. mosquito.
22. Fresh water is a body of water which __. A. has no colour or taste. B. has not been stored for a long time. C.
is good for drinking. D. contain low significant amount of salt. E. contain no suspended matter.
23. Which of the following is not associated with the forest? A. Epiphytes. B. emergent. C. canopies. D. littoral
zone. E. arboreal habitat.
24. In herbivores, they have four chambered stomach namely. A. Oesophagus, omasum, reticulum and rumen.
B. pancreas, duodenum, rumen and omasum. C. omasum, rumen, reticulum and abomasum. D. duodenum,
reticulum, rumen and omasum. E, small intestine, large intestine, duodenum and pancreas.

25. Which of the following is associated with aquatic habitat? A. littoral zone. B. epiphytes. C. emergent. D
canopy. E. zerophytes.
26. Which of the following is the most important characteristics of an arid land? A. high temperature during the
day. B. few animals. C. low relative humidity. D. scarcity. E. poor vegetation.
27. All these are parasitic feeders except? A. tapeworm. B. rat. C. roundworms. D. mistletoe. E. cassytha.
28. Antibodies in mammalian blood are formed by __. A. erythrocytes. B. leucocytes. C. platelets. D. liver. E.
pancreas.
29. Which of these organisms is not a filter feeder? A. rabbit. B. mosquito larva. C. butterfly. D. bacteria. E.
duck.
30. In birds water is absorbed in the ___. A. large intestine. B. small intestine. C. crop. D. gizzard. E. cloaca.
31. Oxygenated blood is carried from the lungs to the heart by the ___. A. renal artery. B. pulmonary vein. C.
aorta. D. hepatic portal vein. E. interior vena cava.
32. An individual with blood group AB can receive blood from those in blood group(s) ___. A. AB only. B. A, B
and O. C. B only. D. AB and O only. E. A and B only.
33. The blood component that has the greatest affinity for oxygen and carbondioxide is __. A. blood plasma. B.
erythrocytes. C. lymphocytes. D. thrombocytes. E. leucocytes.
34. The translocation of food materials in flowering plants takes place in the. A. xylem. B. phloem. C. cambium.
D. leaves. E. sclerenchyma.
35. Mammalian blood transports oxygen because it contains the pigment called. A. keratin. B. haemoglobin. C.
melanin. D. artery. E. vein.
36. Where are red blood cells broken down in the body? A. spleen and bone barrow. B. liver and spleen. C.
liver and pancreas. D. bone marrow and gall bladder. E. lungs and bone marrow.
37. Autotrophs are otherwise known as ___. A. carnivores. B. Herbivores. C. Decomposers. D. consumers. E.
producers.
38. Which of these is an excretory products transported by blood? A. glucose. B. amino acid. C. vitamins. D.
mineral salts. E. water.
39. Which of these is not a blood vessel? A. artery. B. veins. C. capillaries. D. platelets. E. all of the above.
40. Salt which is the product of metabolism is carried in the blood to __. A. lungs. B. all the cells of the body. C.
target organs or tissues. D. kidneys and skin. E. liver.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer FOUR questions only)
1. What is Digestion? (ii) Mention the types of alimentary canal system and give two examples in each. (b)
Draw the Digestive System of man and lebel fully. (c) Explain Digestion in the mouth.
2. List four constituents of mammalian blood. (b) State four functions of blood. (c) Tabulate two differences
between artery and vein. (d) Name the main artery which transport blood to the; (i) Lungs (ii) Kidneys.
3. Define Microhabitat. (ii) Give four examples oof a microhabitat in a terrestical and aquatic habitat respectively.
(b) List the major types of aquatic habitat. (ii) Outline three factors that affect organism in the marine habitat.
(c) Define these terms; (i) Estuary. (ii) Marsh (iii) Salinity.
4. State two adaptive features of sea weed. (b) With the aid od annoted diagrams only explain fission in
Amoeba.
5. What is a Forest? (ii) State three characteristics of a forest. (iii) List the stratas in the forest. (b) State any two
adaptive features of any two organisms in an aridland habitat. (c) Mention six major ecological zones of
marine habitat and give one example of organism found in these zones respectively.
6. Name four materials transported in animals and plants. (b) Outline two needs of diffusion in animals. (c)
Difine the following terms; (i) Conjugation (ii) Copulation (iii) Universal Donor (iv) Universal Recipient.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: BIOLOGY S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.
(OBJECTIVES)
1. A change in the environment of an organism is termed ___. A. sensitivity. B. impulse. C. stimulus. D.
response.
2. Which of the following is not a classification of living things by Whittaker? A. protozoa. B. monera. C. fungi.
D. Protista.
3. The two important physiological processes involved in the absorption and transport of material in plant are __.
A. diffusion and plasmolysis. B. flaccidity and turgidity. C. osmosis and diffusion. D. plasmolysis and
capillarity.
4. Which of the following organism has both plant and animal features? A. Amoeba. B. chlamydomonas. C.
spirogyra. D. paramecium.
5. The scientist who discovered the honey comb structure of the cell is __. A. Felix Dujardin. B. Robert Hooke.
C. Charles Darwin. D. Whittaker.
6. At what level of organisation is Euglena? A. cellular. B. tissue. C. colony. D. system.
7. A disadvantage of complexity in higher animals is ___. A. increase in size. B. internal structural
specialisation. C. slower rate of expulsion of waste product. D. efficiency of work.
8. Which of the following is not a category of classification? A. class. B. order. C. system. D. division.
9. The organelle of movement in paramecium is ___. A. pseudopodia. B. cilia. C. flagella. D. anthena.
10. Tapeworm is a hermaphrodite because it ___. A. reproduces sexually. B. has 3 body division. C. possess
both male and female reproductive organ. D. reproduces asexually.
11. Which of the following reagents is used for test of starch? A. iodine solution. B. Sudan III solution. C.
million’s reagent. D. benedict solution.
12. The following are examples of heterotrophic nutrition except. A. commercialism. B. Holophytism. C.
symbiosis. D. saprophytism.
13. Which part of a plant cell contains cellulose? A. membrane. B. cytoplasm. C. cell wall. D. vacuole.
14. The process by which a drop of ink spreads uniformly in a beaker of water is called. A. absorption. B.
diffusion. Osmotic pressure. D. osmosis.
15. The flow of water from dilute solution to concentrated solution across a selective permeable membrane is
called. A. Osmosis. B. diffusion. C. plasmolysis. D. haemolysis.
16. Animal’s stores food as ___. A. glucose. B. starch. C. glycogen. D. Aminoacid.
17. Animal cell is different from plant cell because of presence of ___. A. food vacuole. B. cytoplasm. C. cell
wall. D. cell membrane.
18. The structure which produces the greatest variety of digestive enzymes is ___. A. pancrease. B. stomach.
C. small intestine. D. salivary gland.
19. The following has heterodont dentition except. A. rabbit. B. lizard. C. man. D. sheep.
20. In testing for starch the leaf is boiled in alcohol to ___. A. soften the cell. B. kill the cell. C. decolorize the
leaf. D. enable chemicals to penetrate the leaf.
21. Oxygenated blood is carried from the lungs to the heart by the ___. A. renal artery. B. pulmonary vein. C.
aorta. D. hepatic portal vein. E. interior vena cava.
22. An individual with blood group AB can receive blood from those in blood group(s) ___. A. AB only. B. A, B
and O. C. B only. D. AB and O only. E. A and B only.
23. The blood component that has the greatest affinity for oxygen and carbondioxide is __. A. blood plasma. B.
erythrocytes. C. lymphocytes. D. thrombocytes. E. leucocytes.
24. The translocation of food materials in flowering plants takes place in the. A. xylem. B. phloem. C. cambium.
D. leaves. E. sclerenchyma.
25. Mammalian blood transports oxygen because it contains the pigment called. A. keratin. B. haemoglobin. C.
melanin. D. artery. E. vein.
26. The cell membrane consists of ___. A. carbohydrate and lipids. B. starch and cellulose. C. lipids and
protein. D. water and sugar.
27. The organ which is sensitive to light in Euglena is the ___. A. gullet. B. eyespot. C. contractile vacuole. D.
flagellum.

28. Carbondioxide enters the stomata during photosynthesis through the process known as ___. A. active
transport. B. inhalation. C. diffusion. D. transpiration.
29. Which of the following is not a tissue found in plants. A. epidermis. B. phloem. C. mesophyll. D. xylem.
30. One of the similarities between Algal and Mosses is their possession of ____. A. stem. B. leaves. C.
chlorophyll. D. root.
31. The following are organs except. A. hair. B. rhizome. C. heart. D. tongue.
Below is a list of the levels of organization in organisms. Use it to answer questions 32 – 34.
I. Tissue. II. System. III. Cell. IV. Organ.
32. The correct sequence of the levels in an increasing order of complexity is ___. A. III, I, IV, II. B. I, II, III, IV.
C. III, IV, I, II. D. IV, III, II, I.
33. The most complex level of organisation is ___. A. II. B. IV. C. III. D. I.
34. The least complex level of organisation is ____. A. IV. B. III. C. II. D. I.
35. Enzymes can be inactivated by a chemical substance in the body called ___. A. catalyst. B. inhibitors. C.
substrate. D. activators.
36. Macronutrients essential for synthesis of chlorophyll are ___. A. iron and magnesium. B. iron and calcium.
C. magnesium and calcium. D. iron and phosphorous.
37. An example of a saprophytic relationship is a/an __. A. vulture feeding on decayed meat. B. mushroom
growing on decaying vegetation. C. boy eating a stale bread. D. earthworm feeding on decaying vegetation.
38. Lack of vitamin E in man causes ___. A. ricket. B. sterility. C. scurvy. D. haemorrhage.
39. The enzyme ptyalin can be found in the ____. A. stomach. B. mouth. C. pancrease. D. small intestine.
40. The space between the incisor and premolar in the dentition of an herbivore is called __. A. carnassial. B.
diastema. C. molar. D. canine.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer FOUR questions only)
1. Define Living and Non-Living things respectively. (b) Give four examples of living and non-living things. (c)
State four differences between plant and animal. (d) Explain two importance of Biology to life.
2. Mention four levels of organisation and give three examples in each. (b) Outline two advantages and
disadvantage of complexity of organisation in higher animal. (c) What is Species?
3. List the seven categories used in classification sequencially. (b) State two characteristics in each of the
following vertebrates. (i) Pisces/Fish (ii) Aves/Bird (iii) Mammals (iv) Reptila.
4. Define Cell. (b) State three cell theory. (c) Mention four structures in a cell and state their one functions. (d)
State two similarities between plant and animal cell.
5. Draw and label fully a typical animal cell. (b) Name four conditions necessary for photosynthesis. (c) Write
these symbol in words. (i) H2O (ii) CO2 (iii) H (iv) O2 (v) CH2O (vi) C6H12O6

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: DATA PROCESSING S. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.
(OBJECTIVES)
1. The property of a system software that enables it to execute more than one program at a time is referred to
as ___. A. compiling. B. multitasking. C. virtual memory. D. load module.
2. The 3 man principle that lies behind ARIEL are ____ except. A. write ahead legging. B. logging changes
during undo. C. atomicity. D. repeating history during redo.
3. In crash recovery the phase that undoes all uncommitted changes leaving the database in a consistent state
is called. A. redo phase. B. undo phase. C. analysis phase. D. repeating history during redo phase.
4. The practice of linking 2 or more computer together to share resources is called. A. data sharing. B.
passwording. C. networking. D. browsing.
5. _____ is the process of encoding message that will not allow workers access. A. encryption. B. decryption.
C. password. D. algorithm.
6. The process of salvaging data from damaged, failed, corrupted in accessible secondary storage media is
termed ___. A. data security. B. data recovering. C. encryption.
7. Preventing data from corruption and un-authorised access is referred to as. A. data integrity. B. data
security. C. data coding. D. data passwording.
8. Which of the following is not an example of malware. A. avast. B. virus. C. worms. D. Trojan.
9. The computer professional who is responsible for connectivity and data security is. A. computer programmer.
B. computer operator. C. network administrator. D. computer engineer.
10. The precaution taken in the computer environment against possible danger are termed __. A. safety
measures. B. maintenance measures. C. curative measures. D. preventive measures.
11. In a graphic package, cropping an image means. A. filling the image with a new colour. B. changing the size
of the image by stretching it. C. turning the image through angle 60 0. D. changing the size without stretching
it.
12. A special effect that controls the way slide appears in power point presentation is ____. A. clip art. B.
animation. C. transition. D. media.
13. Microsoft ____ is a software suit/bundle consisting a set of computer application packages. A. access. B.
word. C. office. D. excel.
14. The process of transferring file from personal computer to a web server is called. A. E-mailing. B. uploading.
C. browsing. D. downloading.
15. The acronym LCD stands for ___. A. light colour display. B. light crystal display. C. liquid crystal display. D.
all of the above.
16. Which of the following is referred to as point of consistency in crash recovery. A. consistency state. B.
consistent and unstable state. C. usable state. D. usable and consistent state.
17. The exchange of information over a network follows a set of rules called. A. channels. B. transfer rules. C.
protocols. D. transmission.
18. When typing, pressing Ctrl V implies __. A. saving item. B. redoing item. C. pasting item. D. undoing item.
19. The process of making changes to the content of a word document is referred to as. A. previewing. B.
formatting. C. editing. D. setting.
20. A user friendly operating system makes use ____. A. graphical unified interface. B. text user interface. C.
graphical user interface. D. none of the above.
21. Which of the following describe short distance in computer network. A. local area network. B. personal area
network. C. wide area network. D. metropozital network.
22. Information that stimulate only the sense of hearing are referred to as ___. A. visual. B. audio. C. audio-
visual. D. audience.
23. Information arranged in either descending or ascending order is known as. A. collating the numbers. B.
sorting the numbers. C. summarising the numbers. D. interpretation.
24. Which of these measures would not secure data in database is. A. data security. B. data sharing. C. data
integration. D. all of the above.

25. One of the advantage of a parallel database is ____. A. data sharing. B. data security. C. faster processing
of data. D. uniform memory access.
26. In a relational database management system files are organized as relative and ___. A. tuple. B. modules.
C. tables. D. forms.
27. Software that obstruct the smooth running of the system is known as ____. A. database. B. virus. C.
malware. D. anti-virus.
28. One source of database security threat is ____. A. equipment theft. B. encryption. C. decoding. D.
passwording.
29. Saving a file in different location from your pc is called. A. passwording. B. backup. C. authorisation. D.
none of the above.
30. The first page of a website is known as. A. house page. B. home page. C. browser. D. protocol.
31. Which of the following is not a type of information security? A. access control. B. backup. C. spills. D.
encoding.
32. ARIELS means __. A. Algorithm for recovering isolation semantics. B. algorithm recovering isolation exploit
semantics. C. algorithm for recovery and isolation exploiting semantic.
33. The failure of either a program or a disk drive is __. A. accident. B. recovering. C. crash. D. crasher.
34. The 3 phase of recovering are __. A. redo, undo, copy. B. undo, indo, paste. C. analysis, redo, undo.
35. H.T.T.P means ___. A. hypertext transfer protocol. B. higher technology to pointer. C. hope to treat pain. D.
all of the above.
36. One unique information about the 2 indexes is ___. A. they are used to type. B. they are used to key data.
C. they have same value for index. D. none of the above.
37. One who manage the database of the company is called. A. database administering. B. database doctor. C.
database administrator.
38. One unique information about database is ___. A.is organise. B. not organise. C. shortness. D. tall.
39. When a pointer from an index row of a non-clustered index point another data row is called. A. way locator.
B. row locator. C. cell pointer. D. indicator.
40. ____ is the duty of an/a database administrator. A. opening and closing file. B. providing database formed
for the users. C. sitting and chatting with other database administrator. D. locating people in their working
area.
41. Which of these is not characteristics of modern economy. A. digital. B. mechanical. C. technology driven.
D. all of the above.
42. Microsoft power point is example of ____ package. A. power package. B. digital package. C. none of the
above. D. decorative package.
43. Data model is a technique for ____ a system data. A. retrieving and documenting. B. organising and
retrieving. C. organising and documenting. D. all of the above.
44. We can classify an index based on ____. A. purpose. B. types. C. size. D. clustered and non-clustering.
45. Storing data or fie in a way it can penetrated is known as. A, file management. C, file manage.
46. Malware means ____. A. malicious word. B. maltreat software. C. malicious warning. D. none of the above.
47. Computer which provides internet service is known as. A. internet undors. B. merchandise. C. service
provider. D. internet data providers.
48. The way database is structured is related to ___. A. conceptual modelling. B. data management. C.
database model. D. all of the above
49. The smallest unit of storage is known as. A. byte. B. kilobyte. C. bit. D. beat.
50. The intersection of rows and column is called. A. ceil. B. record. C. field. D. cell.
51. Instruction given to the computer to obey and solve problem is called. A. peoples ware. B. software. C.
hardware. D. none of the above.
52. Microsoft access is a ____ program. A. windows. B. DOS. C. present. D. database.
53. Negative impact of ICT is related to ___. A. employment. B. fraud. C. data processing. D. computer.
54. Page up, shift, delete key are referred to as ___ keys. A. special. B. function. C. alt keys. D. none of the
above.

55. Software meant to operate the hardware and provide means for running application software is ____
software. A. platform. B. operation. C. systeming. D. system.
56. Devices drivers, operating system, utilities makes up the what? Programming software. B. application
software. C. system software. D. all of the above.
57. Which of these is volatile memory. A. ram. B. sheep. C. rom. D. EPROM.
58. Output of the printer is called. A. hardware. B. hardcopy. C. softcopy. D. soft copying.
59. All are same except ----. A. doors. B. DOS. C. window. D. Unix.
60. Ctrl Y stands for ____. A. young. C. redo. C. undo. D. copy.
 SECTION B: THEORY (answer FOUR questions)

1. Define the term Networking and Network. (ii) What are the classes of network explain each. (iii) Crash
recovery simply is said to be what?
2. Database Security implies what? (ii) Differentiate between database index and data base administrator, give
2 duties of database administrator. (iii) What are the 4 resources that can be shared on network.
3. Outline 4 types of Index. (ii) Enumerate and explain 4 factors that can bring about the need for database
security. (iii) What are the 4 sources of virus and the 2 signs of virus.
4. File organisation is said to be? (ii) List out the 4 types of file organisation and define 2 of the ones listed. (iii)
Define Virus and Anti-Virus.
5. Briefly explain the following terms; (i) Home page. (ii) Internet. (iii) Graphic Package (iv) Server. (v) Modem
(vi) Enumerate 4 examples of Networking.
6. The term Network Topology implies? (ii) What are the 3 examples of network topology. (iii) Operating System
simply means ____? (iv) List 2 examples of search engines.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: DATA PROCESSING S. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.
(OBJECTIVES)
1. Without normalization what happen? A. arrange data into logical groups. B. minimize the amount of
duplicated data. C. organize the data when modified. D. database system can be inaccurate and cannot
produce the data.
2. Examples of entity include all except one. A. events. B. places. C. forms. D. concepts.
3. Entity relationship can be defined as. A. data model base on relationship. B. table with multiple columns and
rows. C. a thing or object in real world that is distinguishable from other objects. D. a medium which project
team members from different backgrounds.
4. A column is the. A. horizontal line in a table. B. vertical line in a table. C. block line in a table. D. diagonal
line in table.
5. Which diagram can be drawn when a relational database is to be design? A. schema diagram. B. database
diagram. C. entity relationships. D. attributes relationship.
6. Representation of the data structure in a pictorial form is called. A. input stage of data modelling. B. picture
stage of data modelling. C. structure stage of data modelling. D. output stage of data modelling.
7. How many tables are in normal form? A. 5. B. 3. C. 2. D. 1.
8. Which of these normal form removes repeating field by creating a new table where the origin and new table
are linked together with a master detail one-to-many relationship. A. second. B. first. C. 2 nd and 3rd. D. 3rd.
9. Primary keys, unique keys and foreign keys are _____. A. characteristics of keys. B. examples of keys. C.
components of keys. D. types of keys.
10. While typing with the computer, a student’s presses ctrl key and letter ‘A’ at the same time, the student is. A.
highlighting the work. B. deleting his work. C. saving the documents. D. typing with capital letter ‘A’.
11. The components of entity relationship include all except one. A. attributes. B. entities. C. forms. D.
relationship.
12. A column or combination of columns that uniquely identifies each row is known as. A. primary keys. B.
unique keys. C. column keys. D. foreign keys.
S/N Surname Last name Age Gender
1 Peter James 17 M
2 Okeke Amara 15 F
3 Ezeogu Juliet 19 F
4 Daniel Uche 20 M
5 Amaka Victor 14 F
13. The table above is an example of _____ database model. A. relationship. B. referential. C. relational. D.
model.
14. Data model can be defined as. A. relationship among data object. B. formation and documentation of data.
C. conceptual representation of data structures required by the database. D. objects used in calculating data.
15. A data that represents the actual structure of a database table and column is known as. A. physical model.
B. conceptual data model. C. database model. D. structural data model.
16. When a data is stored in a two-dimensional table with no repeating groups, the table is said to be in ___. A. a
third normal form. B. Second normal form. C. First normal form. D. normal form.
17. In hierarchical model, each record is broken down into pieces of records called. A. row. B. column. C.
segment. D. structure.
18. The full meaning of RDBMS is. A. relational database management system. B. relationship database
management system. C. refined database management system. D. referential database management
system.
19. _____ is a column in a table that maintains specific information about record. A. field. B. rows. C. column.
D. table.

20. In a relational database are management system, files are organized as relations and ___. A. tables. B.
tuple. C. forms. D. modules.
21. The precautions to be taken in order to prevent hazards while working in the computer room is known as. A.
laboratory rules and regulations. B. human issues. C. safety measure. D. muscular skeletal precaution.
22. The process of designing a relational database include ____. A. creating relationship in a table. B. making
sure the table contains a primary key. C. making sure that a table contains only data directly related to
primary key. D. marching two tables together.
23. Which of these is the significance of data model? A. involves representation of the data. B. its labour
intensive. C. physical data model. D. involves stage of planning.
24. The three most common database model include one of the following. A. file. B. folder. C. network. D.
chart.
25. A schema diagram is any diagram that attempts to show the structure of ____. A. model in database. B.
data in a database. C. relational. D. relationship.
26. A relationship works by ___. A. marching data in key field. B. providing a unique identifier. C. bring related
information back. D. provides a rapid search path.
27. The formation and documentation of existing process and events that occur during application software
design and development is known as. A. data. B. relational model. C. database. D. data modelling.
28. The data that represent the actual structure of a database table and column is known as. A. logical data
model. B. structural data model. C. database model. D. physical model.
29. In database management system (DBMS), linking entities is used to prevent. A. relationship. B. attributes.
C. objects. D. relations.
30. Relationships between tables in a relational model are created by ___. A. foreign keys. B. composite keys.
C. candidate keys. D. determinants.
31. Foreign leys can be defined as. A. keys used to identify a record in a table. B. key used to specify topics. C.
keys that are the copies of the primary key.
32. Which relationship is used to relate one record from the primary table with many records in the related
tables? A. one-to-one. B. one-to-many. C. many-to-many. D. one-to-two.
33. When reading about somebody/someone that is dead, it is said to be. A. attributes. B. entity. C.
relationship. D. events.
34. The conceptual representation of data structure required by the database is. A. relational model. C=b. data
model. C. data model. D. database.
35. The horizontal line drawn across the table is called. A. row column. B. row. C. column row. D. column.
36. Which of these is not an example of entity. A. concepts. B. places. C. events. D. forms.
37. All except one is the component if entity relationship. A. labels. B. relationship. C. attributes. D. entities.
38. Output stage of data modelling involves. A. representation of the data structure in a pictorial form. B.
involves storing procedures. C. stage of planning and analysing.
39. The process of efficiently organizing data in a database is. A. normalization of form. B. data redundancy. C.
resign of normalization. D. model pattern.
40. Which of these is not an example of entity? A. forms. B. places. C. concepts. D. events.
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer FOUR questions only)
1. Define Entity. (b) Enumerate the components of entity relationships. (c) List 4 examples of entity.
2. Draw the normalize and un-normalize table. (b) Differentiate between the two tables. (c) Expalin the types of
normal form.
3. Why was Relational Database developed? (b) Write out one benefit f relational database model. (c) What
are the terms in relational database model?
4. Enumerate 3 data modelling approach. (b) Write full meaning of; (i) ISDM (ii0 IDEAS (iii) SIF (iv) CEDS (c)
Write three significance of data model.
5. Write short notes on the following; (i) Attributes (ii) Relationships (iii) Entities (b) With illustration, explain
Network Model. (c) What is Standard Model? (d) Write out the SQL statements.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: DATA PROCESSING S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.
(OBJECTIVES)
1. Napier bone machine is developed by __. A. John Pascal. B. Jacquard. C. John Napier. D. Edmund
Gunter.
2. Keyboard is used for ___. A. writing. B. saving. C. displaying. D. typing.
3. To save your work, you use. A. Alt + S. B. enter. C. ctrl +S. D. ctrl + P.
4. A.T.M stands for. A. account time monitor. B. automatic time machine. C. automated teller machine.
5. _____ is a type of computer. A. hybrid. B. printer. C. mini. D. monitor.
6. ____ is an ICT gadgets. A. radio. B. watch. C. touch light. D. calculator.
7. Father of computer is known as ___. A. John Babbage. B. Charles Babbage. C. Napier Bone. D. Pascal
Blaise.
8. I.C.T stands for. A. intercontinental time. B. intercontinental communication teller. C. information and
communication technology.
9. The last stage of data processing is known as. A. output. B. input. C. processing. D. none of the above.
10. V.D.U can also be called. A. monitor. B. CPU. C. television. D. all of the above.
11. 110102 is equivalent to ___ in decimal. A. 22. B. 40. C. 26. D. 44.
12. The equivalent of 2410 in octal is. A. 101. B. 300. C. 11000. D. 30.
13. Data processing has ___ stages? A. 16. B. 3. C. 6. D. 2.
14. Computer in the bank can be used to perform. A. watch television. B. calculation. C. magic. D. watch
pictures.
15. I.C. means ___. A. information computer. B. integrated circuit. C. inputting centre. D. none of the above.
16. _____ is a source of information. A. solar system. B. magazine. C. compiler. D. none of the above.
17. Generation of computer that makes use of transistor is called. A. 1st. B. 2nd. C. 3rd. D. 4th.
18. Inventor of slide rule is known as. A. William Shakespeare. B. Blaise Pascal. C. William Oughtred. D.
Napier bone.
19. Ctrl + P is for ___. A. post. B. position. C. print. D. paint.
20. Raw fact or figure can be said to be __. A. data. B. information. C. number. D. letter.
21. All these are same except. A. slow. B. versatility. C. accuracy. D. speed.
22. Abacus means ___. A. calculator. B. computer. C. counting board. D. counting.
23. The equivalent of 1810 in binary is ___. A. 01001. B. 11001. C. 10010. D. 10101.
24. We have ____ generation of computer. A. 50. B. 15. C. 55. D. 5.
25. Base 16 ranges from ____. A. 1-16. B. 0-16. C. 0-15. D. 1-15.
26. The early counting device include the following except. A. animal. B. eyes. C. legs. D. hands.
27. The equivalent of 1510 in binary is ____. A. 10002. B. 0111. C. 11102. D. 1111.
28. Another name for decimal is ____. A. donary. B. demary. C. denary. D. Decalogue.
29. ____ is example of operating system. A. management. B. Linux. C. software’s. D. none.

30. Ctrl + B stands for ____. A. beautify. B. black. C. bold. D. brave.

31. There are ____ types of booting. A. 30. B. 20. C. 12. D. 2.
32. A.L.U. stands for ___________
33. PAN means ____. A. personal manager. B. personal area network. C. private arrangement note. D. all of
the above.
34. One example of 4th generation of computer is ____. A. plasma tv. B. laptop. C. ceiling fan. D. fridge.
35. Projector is example of ___ device. A. processing. B. output. C. input. D. none.
36. F1 – F10 key means. A. frequency key. B. familiar key. C. fill colour key. D. function key.
37. Ctrl + Z is for. A. redo. B. undo. C. print. D. zip up.
38. H.L.L. means _____. A. high level language. B. high liquid level. C. highest language level.
39. BASIC means _______________
40. Light pen is a _____ device. A. output. B. input. C. all of the above. D. bolding.

SECTION B: THEORY (Answer ALL questions)

1. The term Operating System means? (ii) Differentiate between Data and Information. (iii) Give 4 functions of
Operating System.
2. Enumerate the 5 generation of computer and state what each uses. (ii) Digitalization of data means. (iii)
Give 2 examples of operating system.
3. Define the following terms; (i) Digital Divide. (ii) Enumerate the 3 component of computer and give one
example of each mentioned.
4. Convert 1110002 to decimal. (ii) Convert 13010 to binary. (iii) Enumerate 2 benefits of digitalization. (iv) What 2
places can you apply the use of I. C. T and how is it use there.
5. Enumerate 5 engines and their inventors. (ii) Why is Napier Bone machine named by that? (iii) Define Word
Processing and Word Processor.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

4.

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: FURTHER MATHEMATICS S. S. 1 TIME: 2HRS.
2 a+2 b−5
1. An operation ∆ is defined on the set R of real number such that a ∆ b = for a, b E R. find the
2
neutral in R under the operation∆ . A. 10. B. 5. C. 3 ½. D. 2 ½. E. 1 ½.
2. Solve 3x (81-1) ÷ 3 –x-2 = 1. A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4. E. 5.
3. If log 10x –log (4x-2) = 1, find the value of x. A. 5/2. B. 2. C. 3/2. D. 2/3. E. ½.
4. Solve 22x – 6 (2x) + 8 =0. A. x=-4 or 2. B. x=-2 or 1. C. x=-1 or 2. D. x=1 or 2. E. x=2 or 4.
5. Given that 1/82-3x = 2x+2, find 2x. A. -2. B. 1. C. 0. D. 1. E. 2.
6. If X x y = √ (xy ), where the positive square root os taken, find 7 x 63. A. 16. B. 18. C. 21. D. 23. E. 24.
1
7. Rationalize the expression . A. √ 2−√ 3 . B . √ 2+ √ 3 . C .−√ 2−√ 3. D . √ 3−√ 2. E .− √ 3−√ 2.
√3+ √ 2
8. Solve 9x-1 = 81x-1. A. -2. B. -1. C. 1. D. 2. E. 3.
9. If the universal set ∪={ x : x is a natural number∧1 ≤ x ≤ 9 } P={ 1≤ x ≤ 4 } ∧Q={2 , 4 , 6 , 8} find (P∪Q)1. A.
{1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9}. B. {1,2,3,4,6,8}. C. {4,5,6,7}. D. {5,7,9}. E. {2,4}.
10. If P= {x: 2 ≤ x< 16 , x is a prime number }∧Q={x :2≤ x ≤ 13 , x is odd }n|(P ∪ Q)+ n( p ∪ Q). A. 12. B. 13. C.
26. D. 35.
11. Given that P and Q are sets of real numbers, such that P= {x:
≤ x ≤ 3 }∧Q={−3< x<2 }, find P ∪ Q . A .−2< x <2. B . 0 ≤ x <3. C . 3< x ≤ 3. D .0 ≤ x 2.
12. If P = {
1 ≤ x ≤6 }∧Q={x :2< x <9 }where xER , find P∩Q . A . {x :2 ≤ x ≤ 6 }B . {x :2 ≤ x< 6 }. C . {x : 2< x< 6 }. D. {x :2< x ≤ 6 }.
13. If 52x-4 – 1=0, solve for x. A. 4.5. B. 2.5. C. 2.1. D. 2.0. E. 1.0.
14. If 52x+1 + 52x = 150, find the value of x. A. 4. B. 3. C. 2. D. 1.
15. Simplify 8n x 2n÷ 43n. A. 2-n. B. 21-n. C. 2n, D. 2n+1.
−3 −2
16. ½ of 64x = 16x-1 find the value of x. A. -2. B. . C .−1. D . .
2 3
17. If 3ny – 6(3y = 27, find y. A. 3. B. -1. C. 2. D. -3. E. 1.
18. Solve for x in the equation 32x – 12(3x) + 27 = 0. A. 3,9. B. 2,1. C. -3,9. D. -1,2.
−8 −4 8
19. Solve the equation 125(x+3) = 5. A. . B. . C . , D .3.
3 3 3
125 2 4 2
20. Simplify (216)-2/3 x (0.16)-2/3. A. .B .C. .D. .
288 125 225 225
21. Without using tables find the numerical value of log749 + log7(1/7). A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 7. E. 0.
22. Evaluate log3 54 + log3 6 – log3 4. Without using table. A. 3. B. 4. C. 9. D. 81.
23. Simplify 2 – log255. A. 1 ½. B. 2 ½. C. 5 ½. D. ½.
24. Evaluate log4 0.3 – log4 0.48 + log4 0.05. A. -8. B. -5/2. C. -2/5. D. -1/8.
25. Evaluate log0.20 125. A. 1/5. B. -1/3. C. -3/5. D. -3.
26. Solve the equation log√2 16 = x. A. 8. B. 4. C. 2. D. √ 2
27. Given that logx 256 = 2, find log8 (1/x). A. -4/3. B. -1. C. -1/12. D. 5/4. E. 3/2.

28. Without using tables, find the value of x in the expression log 10(x+8) – log10(x-1) = 1. A. 2. B. -5. C.
-7. D. 3.
29. Find x, given that 6log (x+4) = log 64. A. -3. B. -2. C. 14. D. 9.
30. Solve the equation log8 x – 4log8 x =2. A. 5/2. B. ½. C. ¼. D. 2/3.
31. Which of the following binary operation is not commutative. A. axb = a+b-ab. B. axb = 3a+3b –ab.
C. axb = 1/a+1/b.
32. A binary operation is defined by axb = a 2 - b2 + ab where a and b are real number. Evaluate
√ 3 x √ 2 . A . √ 6−1. B .1+ √ 6 . C . 1−√ 6 . D. √ 6 .
33. The binary operation ¿is defined on the set R of real numbers by a
¿ b=a+ b−2 a , bER . find theidentity element under∗¿ . A. 4-a. B. 0. C. 2. D. a-2.
34. A binary operation ¿ is defind on the set of integens (z) by a ¿ b=¿a2-b2 for all a,b∈≡. Find the value
of x if 3¿x = 23. A. 26. B. 23. C. 20. D. 17. E. 3 a-b
35. Calculate the inverse function a-1 in the binary operation ∆ such that fr all a,b ∈R a
ab 25 25 a a a
∆ b= . A . . B .− . C . . D .− . E . .
5 a a 25 5 5
36. A binary operation ∆ is deined by x ∆ y=¿ xy, if x ∆ 2 = 2-x find the values of x. A. 2, 2. B. 1, 2. C. 2, -2. D. 1,
-1. E. 1, -2.
37. Find the identity element under the binary operation ¿ defined by c¿ d = c+d+2cd for all c,d,ER. A. 1+2c. B.
1+2d. C. c+d. D. 0. E. 1.
38. Express the sued √ 75∈its basic form . A. 2√ 5. B. 5√ 3 . C. 3√ 5. D. 5√ 2 .
39. Simplify 3√ 18+4 √ 72 – 5√ 50 . A. 5√ 2 . B. 6√ 3 . C. 2√ 10. D, -10√ 2 .
40. Express 5√ 7 as a complete square root? A. √ 175 . B. √ 125 . C. √ 225 . D. √ 185 .
SECTION B: THEORY (Answer any FOUR questions)
1. All the 62 students in SS3 of a named school take either Mathematics, or Physics or Chemistry, 40 take
Mathematics, 42 take Physics, 38 take Chemistry, 20 take Mathematics and Physics, 28 take Physics and
Chemistry, while 25 take Mathematics and Chemistry. How many take (i) Mathematics, Physics and
Chemistry (all the 3 subjects) (ii) Mathematics but neither Physics nor Chemistry.
2. Solve 22x + 4 (2x) – 32 = 0.
3. A binary operation ¿ is defined on the set R by x∗y =x+ y+ xy for all x,y ∈ R . Show whether or not ¿ is
(i) Commulative (ii) Associative.
4. Evaluate (i) 6 log48 – log432. (ii) log4 0.3 – log4 0.48 + log4 0.05.
2 √2−3
5. Simplify ( 5 √ 3−2 √ 3 ) ( √ 27+3 √ 7 ) (ii)
3+√ 8

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

5.

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: FURTHER MATHEMATICS S. S. 2 TIME: 2HRS.
1. Find the coefficient of x4 in the binomial expression of (1+x)6. A. 32. B. 15. C. 24. D. 6.
2. If the equation x2 + px + 9=0 has equal roots, find the value of P. A. ± 16. B . ±5. C . ± 6. D . ± 4.
3. For what values of K does the equation; Kx 2 + (K+1 x + K=0 have equal roots? A. 1, -3. B. 2, 4. C. 3, -2. D.
1, -1/3.
4. If ∝ and β are the roots of the equation 3x2 – x – 5=0, find the equation whose roots are 2 ∝ - 1/ β∧2 β−1/∝.
A. x2 + 2x-1. B. x2+x-4. C. 3x2-2x+1. D. x2+4x+1.
5. One of the roots of the equation 2x2-x+c = 0 is double the other root. Find C. A. 3. B. ½. C. 1/9. D. 16.
6. If the roots of the equation x2 + Kx – 10=0 are ∝∧β∧∝2 + β 2 = 29. Find the possible values of K. A. ± 3. B.
± 2.C .± 4. C. ± 6.
7. If one of the roots of the equation x2 – ax + 8=0 is the square of the other roots. Find the value of a. A. 6. B.
14. C. 29. D. 10.
8. What is the value of K if (x-1) is a factor of x3 + x2 – Kx + 1. A. 4. B. 11. C. 15. D. -6.
9. The remainder on dividing x3 + Px2– x – 1 by (x+1) is 1, find the value of P. A. 2. B. 11. C. -14. D. 8.
10. (x-1) and (x+3) are factors of x2 – bx – 12. Find a and b. A. 2, 5. B. 3, 4. C. 2, -11. D. -1, 1.
11. If P= x3 - x2 + 3x – 4 and Q = x – 3 find P/Q. A. x 2+5x -12 rem 11. B. 3x2 – 2x+5 rem 14. C. x2+2x+9 rem 23.
D. 2x2+x+1 rem 5.
12. If 9x-2) is a factor of the polynomial x3-4x2 +px+16, find P. A. 12. B. -5. C. 17. D. -14.
13. If the polynomials x2 + x2 – 4x + 5 and x3 + 3x – 7 have the same remainder when they are divided by (x-a),
find the possible value of a. A. 3, 4. B. 1, 2. C. 2, 3. D. 2, 5.

Use the following question to answer question 14-17.

If P is a statement “she is slim” and q is the statement “she is beautiful” express each of the
following statements in the symbolic form using p and q.
14. She is slim but not beautiful. A. p ⋀ q . B . p ⋁ q . C . p ˄ q . D . p ˅ q .
15. She is fat and beautiful. A. p˅ q . B . p ˄ q . C . p ˅ q . D. p ˅q .
16. She is slim and beautiful. A. p˅ q . B . p ˅ q . C . p ˄ q . D . p ˅q .
17. It is false that she is slim or beautiful. A. p ˅q . B . p ˄ q .C . p ˄ q . D . p ˅ q .
18. If (1+4x)5 = 1+Ax+Bx2+Cx3 …. Find the values of the constants A, B and C. A. 20, 40, 120. B. 20, 160, 640.
C. 60, 120, 240. D. 30, 90, 180.
19. Given that (1+3x)4 = 1+Px +Qx2 …. Find 3P+2Q. A. 120. B. 114. C. 144. D. 247.
20. If (1+2x)6 = 1+ Px + Qx2+ …. Find the values of the constant P and Q. A. 12, 60. B. 6, 10. C. 18, 72. D. 30,
81.
21. Given that tan x = 5/12, what is the value of Sin x + Cos x? A. 17/13. B. 5/13. C. 13/12. D. 12/13.
22. If sin x = 12/12, where 00< x < 900 find the value of 1 – cos2x. A. 0.1479. B 0.2417. C. 0.1526. D. 0.8520.

Express the following in radians as a multiple of π .

π π π
23. 600. A. . B . .C . . D. 3 π
4 2 3
2 4π 3
24. 1200. A. π .B. . C . 2 π . D. π
3 3 2
5
25. 7200. A. 5 π . B . 4 π .C . π . D. 2 π .
2
 Express the following angles (in radians) in degree measure without using tables.
26. 3 π . A. 1200. B. 3200. C. 5400. D. 2700.
2π
27. . A. 2400. B. 1200. C. 720. D. 330
3
π
28. . A. 250. B. 28.5. C. 66.5. D. 22.5.
8
1 1 1 −1
29. find the value of m which will make x 2−x +m a perfect square . a . . b . . c . . d .
2 3 4 3
Determine the nature of roots of the following quadratic equations.
30. X2 – 3x – 2 =0. A. real and distinct. B. imaginary. C. real and equal. D. equal and distinct.
31. X2 – 6x + 9=0. A. real and equal. B. imaginary. C. distinct. D. imaginary and distinct.
32. 2x2– 2x + 5 = 0. A. imaginary. B. real and equal. C. real and distinct. D. real and imaginary.
If ∝ and β are the roots of the equation 2x2 – 7x – 3 = 0, find the value of
33. ∝+ β . A. -5/2. B. ½. C. 7/2. D. 3/2.
34. ∝2 + β 2.
35. A polynomial is divided by f (x+1) = x3 + 3x2 – 4x+2. Find f(2). A. -8. B. -2. C. 2. D. 8
36. Sin2 ϴ + cos2 ϴ = x, what is x? A. 1. B. sec2 ϴ. C. cosec2 ϴ. D. cot2 ϴ.
37. The connective word for implication is one of the following. A. and. B. if then. C. if and. D. only if.
38. Solve the equation for angles between 00 and 1800. 6sin2 x + sinx – 1 =0. A. 25. B. 19.5. C. 30. D. 45.
39. In a truth table for conjunction proposition. If p is true and q is false the p˄q is false. What is the connective
word for the symbol ˄. A. if and. B. and. C. or. D. not.
40. Solve x2 + x – 42. A. 7,3. B. 5,6. C. -7,6. D. 7,6.

SECTION B: THEORY (Answer any FOUR questions)

1 1
1. If ∝∧β are the roots of the equation x2 + 2x – 3=0. Find the value of (i) ∝2 + β 2 (ii) ∝−β (iii) + (iv) ∝2 + β
∝ β
2

2. If (x+3) and (x-3) are factors of f(x)=ax 3 + bx2 – 11x+c and f(x) leaves a remainder of 12 when divided by (x-1)
find (a) The value of a, b and c (b) Hence otherwise factorize completely.
3. Consider the following statements, p: it is simple q: it can be solved, (i)
p ˅q (ii ) p ˄ q . ( iii ) p ⇒ q ( iv ) q ⇒ p . ( v ) p⇒ q . ( vi ) p ⇒ q .
4. Using the binomial theorem, expeand (1+2x)5, simplifying all the terms. (a) Use your expansion to calculate
the value of (1.02)5, correct to six significant figures.
5. Solve the following equation for angles between 0 and 3600. 1 + SinѲ - 2 Cos2Ѳ = 1.

DIOCESE ON THE NIGER

6.

ARCHBISHOP ONYEMELUKWE MEMORIAL SECONDARY SCHOOL ODOAKPU ONITSHA

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION 2020/2021 ACADEMIC SESSION.
SUBJECT/CLASS: FURTHER MATHEMATICS S. S. 3 TIME: 2HRS.
 2 a+2 b−5
1. An operation ∆ is defined on the set R of real numbers such that a ∆ b = for a, bER. Find the
2
neutral element in R under the operation ∆ . A. 10. B. 5. C. 3 ½. D. 2 ½. E. 1 ½.
2. If a and β are the root of 3x2 – 4x + 1 =0 find the value 1/a + 1/ β . A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4. E. 5.
3. Solve 3x(81-1) ÷ 3-x-2 = 1. A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. D. 4. E. 5
4. If log10x – log (4x-2)=1, find the value of x. A. 5/2. B. 2. C. 3/2. D. 2/3. E. ½.

5. Find the value of F-1(x) when F9x) is 3x3. A.

√3 x . B . 1 x 1 .C . 9x2. D. 1/3x3. E. x 1/3.
3 3 3
6. If sin 4x = - Cos 5x, which of the following is correct. i. x is an acute angle. Ii. X is right angled. Iii. X is a
reflex angle. A. I only. B. I and II only. C. I and III only. D. I, II and III only. E. II and III only.
√2 √2 √3 2 3
7. Evaluate, without using tables, Cos 300 Sin750 – Sin300 Cos 750. A. . B. . C. . D. . E. .
4 2 3 √2 √3
11−3 x 2x 5x 2 5 2 4
8. Resolve . Into partial fractions. A. . B. . C. . D. . E. −
( x−1)(x +3) x−1 x+3 x−1 x−1 x−1 x +3
9. Solve 22x – 6 (2x) +8=0. A. x=-4 pr 2. B. x=-2 or 1. C. x=-1 or 2. D. x=1 or 2. E. x=2 or 4.
10. Find the positive value of square root of 8-2 √ 15. A. √ 3+ √ 5 . B 2¿
11. In a class of 30 students the mean age of 10 of them is nx. If the mean age of the remaining student is mx.
x x x 2x
Calculate the mean age of the whole distribution. A. ( n+2 m ) . B . ( 2 n+m ) . C . ( n+m ) . D . ( n+2 m)
3 3 3 3
12. If P= {4 3} and q (6), calculate the angle between p and q. A. 560. B. 540. C. 530. D. 510.
13. For what value of x is 5x2 – 3x-4 less than 4x2 + x-7? A. -3> X < 1. B. 1<x>3. C. -1 < x < 3. D. -3< x <-1.
14. If ∝ and β are the roots of the equation ¼ x2 + 3x -2=0, the value of 2¿ ∝ + 2/ β is. A. -20. B. -3. C. 3. D. 8.
E. 12.
15. If 2 1 0 = 8 what is the value of x? A. -9. B. -3. C. 0. D. 3. E. 9.
3 1 x=
1 -1 1
16. The quadratic equation whose roots are log 24 and log2 ½ is. A. x2-x-2=0. B. x2-3x-4=0. C. x2-3x+4=0. D. x2-
3x+2=0. E. x2+x-2=0.
17. Cot2ϴ tan2ϴ + Sin2ϴ Sec2ϴ simplified is. A. Cot2ϴ. B. Sin2ϴ. C. Cos2ϴ. D. tan2ϴ. E. Sec2ϴ.
18. If (2x-1) is a factor of 2x3+x3-Kx+1 what is the value of constant K? a. -12. B. 06. C. -3. D. 3. E. 6.
19. The derivative of Sin3x with respect to x is. A. Ӡ cos3x+2sin3x. B. 3sin3x+2cos3x. C. 3cos3x+2sin3x.
-2x -2x -2x -4x

D. 3cos3x-2sin3x. E. 3cos3x+2sin3x.
-2x -4x

20. The equation of a circle with centre (-7,7) which passes through the point (0,1) is. A. x 2+y2-14x – 14y+13=0.
B. –x2+y2+14x-14y+13=0. C. x2+y2+14x – 14y+13=0. D. x2+y2-14x+14y-13=0. E. x2+y2+14x –14y-13=0.
4 n 2−2 n
21. The formula for the sum of n terms of a sequence is given by Sn= . The third term of the sequence
n
is. A. 4. B. 6. C. 10. D. 18. E. 22.
22. If log√8 1/32=x then x is. A. 10/3. B. -5/3. C. -5/6. D. 5/3. E. 10/3.
0.2 x +1 0.7 x−11
23. What is the range of values of x for which the linear inequality. − < 0-1. A. x>5.5. B. x<5.5.
2 3
C. x.5. D. x > -5. E. x < -5.5.
625 -1/4
24. [ ] x ∛ 125p3q-3r-6 simplified is. A. qr2/6p. B. 5p/6qr2. C. 25p/6qr. D. 5p/qr. E. 6p/qr2
1296
25. If the second term of a geometric progression is 4 and the fifth term is 1/16, the seventh term is. A. 1/4096.
B. 1/256. C. 8. D. 256. E. 4096.
1 1
26. If a= 1+ and b = 1- , then the value of a2+b2 is. A. 0. B. ¼. C. 1. D. 2. E. 3.
√2 √2
4 4 −4 √5
27. The sum to infinity of the sequence 4, 4/ , 4/5, …..is. A. .B . C. 5 √ 5. D . 5. E . 5+√ 5.
√5 5√5 √5 4
28. The maximum value of the function y= 2+3x – 4x2 is. A. -23/16. B. 5/16. C. 13/16. D. 41/16. E. 59/16.
29. If the polynomial 8x3 +2x2+x -2 is divided by 4x-1, the remainder os. A. -1/4. B. -3/2. C. 1/8. D. ½. E. ¼.
30. The range of values of x for which 14x+31 ≤ 5is . A. -2
1 1 1 1
≤ x ≤ . B .−2< x < . C .− ≤ x ≤2. D . x ≤−2∨≥ . E . x <−2∨x> 1/2.
2 2 2 2
31. If the mean of 2,5, (x+1), (x+2), 7 and 9 is 6 find the median. A. 6.5. B. 6.0. C. 5.5. D. 5.0
32. Given that P and Q are two non-empty subsets of the universal set, U. Find Pn(OUQ 1). A. P. B. P1. C. Q.
D. Q1.
33. Find the coordinates of the centre of the circle 3x2+3y2 – 6x+9y-5=0. A. [-3, 9/2]. B. [-1,3/2]. C. [1, -3/2]. D.
[3, -9/2].
34. Find the coefficient of the third term in the binomial expression of (2x+ 3y/4) 3 in descending powers of x. A.
27/64 y2. B. 27/8 t2. C. 8y2. D. 9y2.
9
35. Evaluate ∫ ❑ √ x dx . A. 3. B. 9. C. 18. D. 27.
0
36. If y= (5-x)-3, find dy/dx. A. -15/(5-x)4. B. -3/(5-x)4. C. 3/(5-x)4. D. 15/(5-x)4.
37. Which of the following vectors is perpendicular to [3−1 ¿ ? A. [-31]. B. [13]. C. [1-3]. D. [31].
38. Find, correct to the nearest degree, the angle between P=12i – 5j and q=4i+3j. A. 59 0. B. 600. C. 750. D.
760.
39. Given that X and Y are independents such that p(x) = 0.5, p(y)=m and p(xUY)=0.75. find the value of m. A.
0.6. b. 0.5. c. 0.4. d. 0.3.
40. Evaluate xlim1 (1-x). A. -1. B. – ½. C. ½. D. 1.
2
(x -3x+2)
SECTION B: THEORY
1. Solve (log2m)2 – log2m3 = 10.
2. A binary operation ¿ is define on the set of rational numbers by m ¿n = m2 – n2/2mn, n ‡ o∧m ‡ o (a) find -2 ¿ 2
(b) Show whether or not ¿ is associative .
3. If ∝ and β are the roots of 3x2 + 5x + 1 =0 evaluate 27( ∝3 + β 3)
4. Find the gradient of xy2+x2y = 4xy at the point (1,3).
5. The table below shows the distribution of lengths of 20 iron rods measured in metres.

Length(m) 1.0 – 1.1 1.2 – 1.3 1.4 – 1.5 1.6 – 1.7 1.8 – 1.9

Frequency 2 3 8 5 2

Using an assumed mean of 1.45 calculate the mean of the distribution.

6. Points (2,1) and (6,7) are opposite verticals of a square which is inscribed in a circle. Find (a) centre of the
circle. (b) equation of the circle.
7. Solve: tan (2x – 15) – 1 = 0 for values of x such that 00≤ x ≤ 3600.
8. There are 8 boys and 6 girls in a class. If two students are selected at random from the class, find the
probability that they are (a) of the same sex (b) different sex.

SECTION B: (PART I) Answer TWO questions

9. Write down the binomial expansion of (1+x) 4 (ii) Use the result in (9ai) to evaluate correct to three decimal

places ( 54 ) . (b) The first second and fifth terms of a linear sequence (A.P) are three consecutive terms at an
4

exponential sequence (G.P). if the first term of the linear sequence is 7. Find its common difference.
10. Find the centre and radius of the circle which passes through the point (7,5), (6, -2) and (-1, 1). (b) Evaluate
2

∫ ❑ (2x 2
– 3x + 5)dx.
1

dy
11. (ai) Give that x3y2 – 2xy + 3xy3 = 6 find . (aii) f(x) = x2 – 4x2 + 4x +1, find the gradient of f(a) at x=3. (b)
dx
Solve the equation 5Cos2x – 12Cos x + 4 =0 for x in the interval 00 ≤ x ≤ 3600.

PART II (Answer ONE question only)

12. The table below shows the frequency distribution of the ages of patients in a clinic.

Age (years) 17-19 20-22 23-38 29-34 35-43

No of patients 6 9 12 18 18

(a) Draw a histogram for the distribution. (b) Find, correct to two decimal places, the mean of the patents.
13. In a school, the ratio of those who passed to those who failed in a History test is 4:1. If 7 students are
selected at random from the school, find, correct to two decimal places, the probability that (i) at least 3
students passed the test (ii) Between 3 and 6 students failed the test (b) A tair die is throuwn five times, find
the probability of obtaining a six three times.

PART III (Answer ONE question only)

14. (a) A body P of mass q kg is suspended by two light inextensible strings AB and AD attached to the horizontal
table. The strings are inclined at 300 and 600 respectively to the horizontal and the tension in AB is 48N. If the
system is in equilibrium (i) Sketch a diagram to represent the information (ii) Calculate the tension in DB (iii)
Find the value of q. (Take g = 10m/s 2). (b) A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 20m/s. Find
correct to two decimal palces (i) Maximum height reached by the ball (ii) Time taken to reach maximum
height (Take g=10ms-2).
15. Given that a = 3i + 4j, b = 2(i+j), c = -i+3j, find the unit vector in the direction of a+ 2b+c. Hence, determine
the angle the unit vector makes the horizontal axis. (b) A force 20N inclined to the horizontal pulls a block of
wood through 5m in 5 seconds over a smooth horizontal surface. Find the workdone and hence, find the
power. (c) A bullet is fired from the top of a mountain 40M above the ground with a speed of 60m/s at an
elevation of 300. Calculate the maximum height reached above the ground (Take g = 10ms-2)