ACTION AND USE OF MEDICINE

1. Which of the following is diamorphine? (a) Codeine (b) Thebaine (c) Fentanyl (d) Heroin
2. All the following factor(s) affect rate of absorption Except? (a) Water and lipid solubility
(b) Polarity, (c) Molecular size (d) Temprature
3. Which of the following drug will increase level of uric acid? (a) Topiroxostat (b)
Probenecid (c) Bendroflumethiazide (d) allopurinol
4. The following effects are sympathomimetic EXCEPT? (a) increase heart rate (b) decrease
peristalsis (c) pupil constriction (d) decrease uterine tone (tocolysis).
5. The local anaesthetic with significant vasoconstriction effect is? (a) Cocaine (b) Procaine
(c) Bupivacaine (d) Tetracaine
6. The normal range of Fasting blood glucose is? (a) 3-4 mmol/L (55-75 mg/dL) (b) 4-8
mmol/L (75-150 mg/dL) (c) 8-10 mmol/L (150-180 mg/dL) (d) 5-6
mmol/L(90-110mg/dL)
7. Which of the following antacids should not be used in dialysis patients? (a) Aluminum
hydroxide (b) Magnesium hydroxide (c) Calcium carbonate (d) a and c
8. A source of anticarcinogenic drugs is? (a) Belladona (b) Nux vomica (c) Vinca rosea (d)
Cascara
9. For which of the following condition is the drug Etanercept indicated? (a) Arthritis (b)
Gout (c) Diabetes (d) Carcinomas
10. Humulin is the brand name for a group of biosynthetic human insulin products, from
which of the following is it derived? (a) Beef (b) Recombinant DNA technology (c)
Human donors (d) Filteration of bovine insulin
11. Characteristics of Pyrogens include the following Except? (a) They usually cause a
febrile reaction in humans (b) They may cause pain in the back and leg (c) They may
cause chills (d) Cough.
12. All the following Over The Counter (OTC) products should NOT be taken concomitantly
with Ciprofloxacin Except? (a) Magnesium Hydroxide (b) Ferrous Sulphate (c) Calcium
citrate (d) Acetaminophen
13. Long standing hypertension may cause tissue damage to many organs, which of the
following organs may not be affected? (a) Brain (b) Heart (c) Lungs (d) Kidneys
14. Rubella also known as _______ (a) German measles (b) three-day measles (c) Mumps (d)
a and b
15. Conjunctivitis may be caused by all Except (a) bacterial or viral infection (b) Chemical
Burns (c) allergy (d) Fever.
16. The hormone that controls the level of calcium and phosphorus in blood is secreted by?
(a) Thyroid gland (b) Parathyroid gland (c) Pituitary gland (d) Thymus
17. Diabetes established when the following occurs except? (a) Fasting Blood Glucose Level
more than 125mg/dl (b) Blood Glucose level after meals more than 200mg/dl (c)
random blood glucose more than 200mg/dl (d) When taken too much sugar everytime.
18. The drug of choice for hypoparathyroidism? (a) Parathormone (b) Pamidronate (c)
Calcium lactate (d) Vitamin D
19. Praziquantel is used in the treatment of? (a) amoebiasis (b) toxocariasis (visceral larva
migrans) (c) paragonimiasis (lung fluke) (d) trypanosomiasis (African sleeping sickness)
20. Nystatin is used to treat? (a) monilial diarrhea (b) Candida infections (c) Trichomoniasis
(d) a and b
21. Gastrin is released in response to the following Except? (a) food intake (b) hypercalcemia
(c) Digested protein (d) Hyperglycaemia
22. The dose of drug is 0.06 mg, how many doses are contained in 96 mg of the drug? (a)
1600 doses (b) 160 doses (c) 360 doses (d) 3600 doses
23. Which of the following is NOT observed as a complication of Diabetes? (a) Neuropathy
(b) Blindness (c) Peripheral neuropathy (d) hypotension
24. What are the advantages of using tablet over liquid dosage for? (a) enhanced stability (b)
Ease of administration (c) Greater accuracy of dosing (d) Readily available for
absorption than Liquid.
25. Mr. Ahmed have angina and type 2 DM, as result he is prescribed the medicines listed
below, which one of the following medicines is most likely to cause severe headache?
(a) gliclazide (b) enalapril (c) isosorbide mononitrate (d) nifedipine
26. Castor oil is classified as which type of laxative? (a) Lubricant (b) Stool softening (c)
Irritant (d) Bulk producing
27. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated when used with sildenafil? (a)
Fluoroquinolones (b) Organic nitrates (c) Penicillins (d) Calcium channel blockers
28. Cromolyn is used in the following EXCEPT? (a) Preventing food allergy (b) Local
application to the eye (c) Local application to the nose (d) Local application to the skin
29. All of the following drugs may be used for the therapy of hypertensive emergency crisis
EXCEPT? (a) Furosemide (b) Diazoxide (c) Nifedipine (d) Propranolol
30. All of the following are common iodine deficiency symptoms EXCEPT? (a) Goiter (b)
Intellectual disability (c) Growth retardation (d) Decreased early and late pregnancy
miscarriage
31. Which of the following drugs cause K (Potassium) retention? (a) ACEI (b) Loop diuretics
(c) Calcium channel blocker (d) Amiloride
32. Ofloxacin is classified as a (an) (a) Antifungal (b) Antiviral (c) Broad-spectrum antibiotic
(d) Narrow spectrum antibiotic
33. Macrolide groups include all these except (a) Azythromycin (b) Gentamycin (c)
Erythromycine (d) Clarithromycin
34. The following are anticonvulsants except (a) Carbamazepine (b) Benzodiazepine (c)
SuccinylCoA (d) Ethosuccimide
35. Β-lactam antibiotics includes the following Except (a) Trimethroprim (b) Cephalosporin
(c) Sulfactrazine (d) Erythromycin.
36. Which of the following is not an Aminoglycoside? (a) Metronidazole (b) Gentamycin
(c) Neomycin (d) Tobramycin
37. The following are antimicrobial drugs affecting bacteria protein synthesis except (a)
Tetracycline (b) Chloramphenicol (c) Macrolide (d) Gentamycin
38. The following are penicillins except ______ (a) Ofloxacin (b) Amoxicillin (c) Ampicillin
(d) Dicloxacillin
39. All these have dermatologically applied drugs except _____ (a) Paracetamol (b) Glycerin
(c) Clotrimazole (d) Diclofenac
40. ______ refers to when the effects of drug get lessened then desired due to abuse and the
dosage must be increased. (a) Efficacy (b) Tolerance (c) First Pass (d) Metabolism
41. The process whereby drug ability produces a desired chemical change in the body is
called ___ (a) Local effect (b) Efficacy (c) Tolerance (d) System effect
42. Metabolism is the process of breaking down of drugs by ____ (a) Liver (b) Kidney (c)
Stomach (d) Bile duct
43. De material medica was a work written and compiled by the Greek physician known as
________________Friedrich Serturner (a) Pedanius Dioscorides (b) Marie Curie (c)
Gerhard Domagk (d) Rudolf Buccheim
44. The father of pharmacology is known as ___________ (a) Rudolf Buccheim (b) Paul
Ehrlich (c) Pharmakon logos (d) Oswald Schmiedeberg (e) Pedanius Dioscorides
45. The four major stages of pharmacokinetics includes; (a) Absorption, Distribution,
Metabolism and Excretion (b) Absorption, Metabolism, Excretion and Biotransformation
(c) Digestion, Absorption, Distribution and Excretion (d) Metabolism, Absorption,
Distribution and Urination
46. Which is FALSE about sources of drugs? (a) Mineral sources are also sources of drug (b)
Plant source is the oldest drug source (c) The leaves of Atropa belladonna give
Anthracine, a purgative. (d) The flowers of Papaver somniferum give Morphine, an
opioid analgesic (e) Castor oil seeds give castor oil.
47. Which statement is FALSE on the Branches of pharmacology? (a) Pharmacokinetics
refers to what the drug does to the body. (b) Pharmacodynamics literally means ‘Drug
Power’ (c) Pharmacokinetics refers to what the body does to the drug. (d) Therapeutics
deals with the art and science of treatment of diseases. (e) Pharmacoepidemiology,
Pharmacoeconomics, Chemotherapy are all branches of pharmacology.
48. Which of the following is NOT true about asthma (a) It is allergic response (b)
Inflammation is usually present (c) It is inheritable (d) It is a communicable disease (e)
There is mucus hypersecretion
49. Combination of two drugs that causes an effect that is greater than the sum of the
individual effects of each drug alone. This defines __________ (a) Additive effect (b)
Adverse effect (c) Synergism (d) Cumulative effect (e) Side effect
50. Half life (t ½) is the time required to _____ (a) Change the amount of a drug in plasma by
half during elimination (b) Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active
metabolite (c) Absorb a half of an introduced drug (d) Bind a half of an introduced drug
to plasma proteins
51. What phenomenon can occur in case of using a combination of drugs? (a) Tolerance (b)
Tachyphylaxis (c) Accumulation (d) Synergism
52. Hypnotic drugs are used to treat ______ (a) Psychosis (b) Sleep disorders (c) Epilepsy (d)
Parkinson disease
53. Hypnotic drugs should _______ (a) Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect (b) Induce
absence of sensation (c) Produce drowsiness, encourage the onset and maintenance of
sleep (d) Prevent mood swings in patients with bipolar affective disorders
54. The drug of choice in the treatment of petit mal (absence seizures) is _____ (a) Phenytoin
(b) Ethosuximide (c) Phenobarbital (d) Carbamazepin
55. Bronchodilators are essential in managing _______ (a) Cough (b) Asthma (c) Pharyngitis
(d) Nasopharyngitis (d) Mumps
56. Diarrhea is often characterized with the following except _______ (a) Frequent passage
of loose stools (b) Dehydration (c) Abdominal cramps (d) fever
57. These are antimotility agents with the exception of? (a) Loperamide (b) Codeine (c)
Benzonatate (d) Diphenoxylate
58. Which of the following is NOT an adsorbent? (a) Magnesium hydroxide (b) Activated
attapulgite (c) Kaolin (d) Magnesium trisillicate
59. Antispasmodics include the following EXCEPT? (a) Dicyclomine (b) Propantheline (c)
Hyoscine (d) Methylcysteine
60. Which is the odd one? (a) Abacavir (b) Tenofovir (c) Zidovudine (d) Nelfinavir
61. Which of the following is a Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor? (a) Efavirenz
(b) Didanosine (c) Stavudine (d) Enfurvitide
62. All of these are protease inhibitors EXCEPT? (a) Atazanavir (b) Ritonavir (c)
Ganciclovir (d) Lopinavir
63. Which of the following groups of antibiotics demonstrates a bacteristatic effect? (a)
Carbapenems (b) Macrolides (c) Aminoglycosides (d) Cephalosporins
64. Tick the drug belonging to antibiotics-macrolides. (a) Neomycin (b) Doxycycline (c)
Erythromycin (d) Cefotaxime
65. All these antibiotics are aminoglycosides, EXCEPT _____ (a) Gentamycin (b)
Streptomycin (c) Clindamycin (d) Neomycin
66. Antibiotics inhibiting the bacterial cell wall synthesis are _____ (a) Beta-lactam
antibiotics (b) Tetracyclines (c) Aminoglycosides (d) Macrolides
67. Tick the antibiotic for cancer chemotherapy. (a) Cytarabine (b) Doxorubicin (c)
Gentamycin (d) Etoposide.
68. Which of the following is not a Diuretic? (a) Spironolactone (b) Amiloride (c)
Phentolamine (d) Furosemide
69. The following are beta blockers with the exception of? (a) Carvedilol (b) Lisinopril (c)
Atenolol (d) Propranolol
70. Which does not belong to the class of Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors? (a)
Enalapril (b) Ramipriln (c) Lisinopril (d)Propanolol
71. The Angiotensin Receptor Blockers include the following except? (a) Olmesartan (b)
Valsartan (c) Simvastatin (d) Losartan
72. The following are classes of antihypertensives EXCEPT (a) Alpha receptor agonists (b)
Alpha receptor blockers (c) Beta blockers (d) Calcium Channel Blockers
73. Vasodilators used as antihypertensives includes all Except (a) Nitroglycerine (b)
Nitroprusside (c) Methyldopa (d) Nifedipine
74. _________is the oldest class of antibiotics (a) Tetracycline (b) Penicillin (c) Macrolides
(d) Aminoglycosides
75. The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is ____ (a) Active transport
(carrier-mediated diffusion) (b) Filtration (aqueous diffusion) (c) Endocytosis and
exocytosis (d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)
76. What is implied by Active Transport? (a) Transport of drugs trough a membrane by
means of diffusion (b) Transport without energy consumption (c) Engulf of drug by a cell
membrane with a new vesicle formation (d) Transport against concentration gradient
77. What does the term “bioavailability” mean? (a) Plasma protein binding degree of
substance (b) Permeability through the brain-blood barrier (c) Fraction of an uncharged
drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route administration (d) Amount of
a substance in urine relative to the initial dose
78. Drug metabolism can take place via any of the following EXCEPT (a) Hydrolysis (b)
Conjugation (c) Isomerization (d) Polymerization
79. Which does not belong to the class of Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors? (a)
Verapamil (b) Enalapril (c) Ramipril (d) Nifedipine
80. Which of the following route of administration is least likely to give a systemic effects
(a) Oral (b) Sublingual (c) Topical (d) Rectal
81. Which route of drug administration is not a parenteral route (a) Rectal (b) Intramuscular
(c) Intravenous(d) Sub-cutanous
82. ______________ is defined as taking five or more medication than medically necessary
(a) Pharmacovigilance (b) Drug interaction (c) Polypharmacy (d) Medication error
83. ___________ is essentially the listing of available and affordable medicine that are
relevant to the treatment of disease in a particular country (a) National Drug Formulary
(b). Essential Drug (c) National Health Policy (d) Sustainable Development Goal
84. An Antagonist will (a) Not bind to a receptor (b) Prevent other drugs from binding to a
receptor (c) Improve the action of agonist (d) Accelerate a normal body process
85. A reaction between two or more drugs that involves prescriptive medications, over the
counter drugs, herbs and supplement is termed (a) Drug - Food Interaction (b) Drug - Age
Interaction (c) Drug – Drug Interaction (d) Drug – alcohol interaction
86. World Health Organization introduced the concept of essential medicines in___(a) 1977
(b)1982 (c) 1975 (d) 1877
87. What group of drug is Erythromycin? (a) Macrolides (b) Aminoglycosides (c) Penicillins
(d) Quinolones
88. Certain factors affect the rate of absorption of drugs after administration except (a)
Molecular size of the drug (b) PH (c) Humidity of the environment (d) Taste of the drug
89. A form of drug interactions which involves taking a decongestant for cold and resulting
increase in pressure in people with high blood pressure is an example of ____________
(a) Drug – Drug Interaction (b) Drug – Food Interaction (c) Drug – Sex Interaction (d).
Drug – Disease Interaction
90. Pharmacology embraces all the following except__ (a) Toxicology (b) Pharmacokinetics
(c) Pharmacopoeia (d) Morphology (e) Pharmacodynamic
91. Pharmacodynamics is the study of____________ (a) drug interaction (b) drug
administration (c) drug absorption (d) drug mode of action (e) drug excretion
92. Which of the following drugs undergoes marred hydrolysis in the GI tract? (a) Aspirin (b)
PencillinG (c) Paracetamol (d) Hydrocortisone
93. The drug of choice for treatment of methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection
is? (a) Cloxacillin (b) Vancomycin (c) Erythromycin (d) Amikacin
94. Correct statements concerning aspirin include all of the following EXCEPT ____ (a) It
inhibits mainly peripheral COX (b) It does not have an anti-inflammatory effect (c) It
inhibits platelet aggregation (d) It stimulates respiration by a direct action on the
respiratory center
95. Neuroleptics are used to treat _____ (a) Neurosis (b) Psychosis (c) Narcolepsy (d)
Parkinsonian disorders
96. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a phenothiazine aliphatic derivative. (a)
Thiothixene (b) Risperidone (c) Chlorpromazine (d) Diazepam
97. Pick out the bronchodilator drug related to xanthine. (a) Atropine (b) Orciprenaline (c)
Adrenaline (d) Theophylline
98. Indicate the laxative drug belonging to osmotic laxatives. (a) Docusate sodium (b)
Bisacodyl (c) Phenolphthalein (d) Sodium phosphate
99. The mechanism of stimulant purgatives is _____ (a) Increasing the volume of non-
absorbable solid residue (b) Increasing motility and secretion (c) Altering the consistency
of the feaces (d) Increasing the water content
100. The following Ergot derivative is used for treatment of acute migraine attack ____ (a)
Paracetamol (b) Sumatriptan (c) Ergotamine (d) Metoclopramide
PRIMARY HEALTH CARE
1. PHC focuses on: (a) provision of modern health facilities (b) provision of medical
doctors in all health facilities (c) universal provision of health care services based on
needs (d) establishment of rural hospital
2. In WHO definition of health, three aspects of health identified are: (a) physical, metal and
environmental (b) physical, mental and economical (c) physical, mental and spiritual (d)
physical, mental and social
3. Primary Education in hospitals and clinic setting linked to following treatment
procedures, medication and home care and rehabilitations procedures is termed:
(a)Family life education (b) Patient Education (c) Nutrition Education (d) School Health
Education
4. Targets for health education exclude (a) Patients (b) Clients (c) Village d. Health
educators
5. Ability to make and maintain acceptable interactions with other people explains: (a)
Physical health (b) Social health (c) Mental health (d) Infirmity
6. Health education is aimed at discouraging the following harmful traditional practices
except ______ (a) Spousal inheritance (b) Female genital mutilation (c) Food taboo (d)
Prolonged breast feeding
7. One of the following is not a component of good communication (a) Audience (b)
Encoder (c) Feedback (d) Radio
8. Which of the following is a highly sensitive organ in the female? (a) clitoris (b) ovaries
(c) vulva (d) vagina
9. Functions of the uterus are all except ___ (a) push the fertilized egg towards the uterus
(b) expel its contents (c) shelter the fetus d. prepares and shed its linning every month
10. Ovarian hormones are ______________ (a) progrestron and testosterone (b) luteirizing
hormones (c) oestrogen and progrestron (d) oestrogen and follicle stimulating hormones
11. One of these is not experienced during the menstrual cycle ___ a. increased frequency of
maturation b. increased amount of discharge c. increased height d. slight breast
tenderness
12. The testicles produce a hormone known as ___ a. testestorone b. testisterone c.
testosterone d. hormone
13. The main function of the male urethra is an outlet for ___ a. urine and blood b. urine c.
urine and fluid d. urine and semen
14. Factors which affect health in Nigeria include all except (a) Cultural factors (b) Social
factors (c) Marital factors (d) Economic factors
15. P H C is an essential health care because (a) It creates a sense of belonging (b) It ensures
continues education for health workers (c) It provides job opportunities to the grass roots
worker (d) It provides the basic health needs of the people
16. Environmental factors negatively affecting the health of the community include the
following except (a) Air pollution (b) Poor refuse disposal (c) Industrial waste disposal
(d) Portable water supply
17. The three tiers of health care delivery in Nigeria include (a) Nursery, Primary and
Secondary (b) Primary, Secondary and Tertiary (c) Secondary, Primary and Tertiary (d)
Promotive, Preventive and Rehabilitative
18. The characteristics of tertiary level health care include all except one (a) Close to the
grass root (b) Take referral from the secondary level (c) Provides very specialized care
(d) Refers back to secondary or primary as the case may be
19. The following are functions of food except______________ (a) maintenance of life (b)
for growth and development (c) production of calories (d) reproduction of life
20. The most accepted definition of health was dated in the year _________ (a) 1946 (WHO)
(b) 1948 (WHO) (c) 1848 (WHO) (d) 1984 (WHO)
21. External genitalia in female include _______ (a) testes (b) clitoris (c) ovary (d)scrotum
22. Colostrum is the ______________ milk (a) White (b) Orange (c) Blue (d) Yellow
23. First appearance of menstruation is called (a) Puberty (b) Menopause (c) Menarche (d)
Andropause
24. During breast feeding the baby’s mouth should grab the (a) Ampulla (b) Areola (c)
Nipple (d) The lactiferous ducts
25. The sex of the baby is determined by the (a) Father (b) Mother (c) Child (d) Uncle
26. Balance diets definition include all EXCEPT (a) Eating a balance of carbohydrates,
proteins and fats (oils) (b) Eating a variety of foods (c) Eating a variety of unbalanced
snacks and junk foods (d) Eating foods that provide the optimum levels of the various
minerals and vitamins that the body requires.
27. Balance nutrition include all EXCEPT (a) Drinking of plenty clean water (b) Regular
eating from each of six food groups (c) Regular eating of vegetables only
28. The six food groups include all EXCEPT (a) Grains (b) Vegetables (c) Soft drinks (d)
Fruits
29. The constituents of the six food groups in varying degree include all EXCEPT (a)
Proteins (b) Mineral drinks (c) Carbohydrates (d) Fats
30. A.E.F.I. stands for _______ (a) Adverse Event Following Immunization (b) Adverse
Effect Following Immunization (c) Advance Effect Following Immunization (d) Advance
Event Following Immunization
31. Medically, Fx, FRx or # signifies _____________ (a) burns (b) dislocation (c) fracture
(d) shock
32. ________ is the defined as the state of complete physical, mental and social well-being
and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity in all matters relating to reproduction
system, it's function and process. (a) maternal health (b) health (c) family planning (d)
reproductive health
33. Asphyxia means ____________ (a) inability to move (b) weakness (c) lack of oxygen (d)
low blood pressure
34. The tongue has ________ common taste buds (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) none
35. ________ is the escape of blood from blood vessel which may be within or outside the
body cavity. (a) wound (b) burn (c) bleeding (d) blood escape
36. Initially Nigeria governments adopted __________ components of PHC. (a) 8 (b) 10 (c)
12 (d) 15
37. The causative organism of COVID 19 is _________. (a) Covid 19 virus (b) Corona virus
(c) Corona Covid 19 (d) corola virus
38. _________ is a type of blood that is responsible for blood clotting (a) white blood cells
(b) plasma (c) platelet (d) serum
39. The first stage of shock is called ________ (a) decompensated (b) high (c) progressive
(d) compensated
40. ________ is the route of vitamin A administration. (a) subcutaneous (b) oral (c)
intravenous (d) intradarmal
41. Choose the correct definition or description of a fracture (a) Dislocation of the bone joints
(b) Abrasion of a bone (c) Corrosion of the bone (d) Breakage in the continuity of the
bone
42. The condition where a bone breaks through the skin is called (a) Closed fracture (b)
Simple fracture (c) Open fracture
43. The condition where the bone did not penetrate the skin on both ends of the bone is called
(a) Open fracture (b) Compound fracture (c) Simple fracture
44. Splinting is defined as (a) A device to immobilize an injured part of the body (b) A
device to mineralize an injured part of the body (c) A device to mobilize an injured part
of the body
45. The causes of burns include all EXCEPT (a) Steams (b) Dry heat (c) Corrosive chemical
agent
46. 82. The causes of scalds include all EXCEPT (a) Radiation (b) Hot liquid (c) Steams
47. These are functions of fats EXCEPT (a) make layers of cell membranes (b) Are
important insulators (c) they are all cholesterols (d) They are efficient energy storage
components
48. Deficiency effects of vitamin A include all EXCEPT (a) Impaired vision and eye defects
(b) Osteroporosis (c) Impaired immunity (d) Anemia
49. These are sources of vitamin D EXCEPT (a) Fish (b) Fish oil (c) Exposure of bare skin to
sunlight (d) Peanuts
50. These are all correct about vitamin E EXCEPT (a) May be sourced from some nuts (b)
Nervous problems of the extremities (c) Anemia in premature infants (d) Deficiency is
very common
51. Deficiency effects of vitamin B12 include all EXCEPT (a) Neuropathy of the extremities
(b) Gastritis decreases its gut absorption (c) mental deficits (d) High blood pressure
52. What distinguishes primary health care from primary care? (a) A focus on primary,
secondary and tertiary intervention (b) Provision of interventions specific to the health
need (c) Works within a multidisciplinary framework (d) Planning and operation of
services is centralized
53. The main aim of public health is to improve health by: (a) Providing medical intervention
appropriate for the individual (b) Performing research to compare the effectiveness of
 treatments (c) Promoting health and preventing disease in populations (d) Providing
advice on risk markers and genetics to families
54. Legislation enacted by the Federal Government with the aim of reducing health-related
risk factors, such as increasing taxation on harmful products, has been due to: (a) Public
health advocacy (b) Primary care (c) Health education (d) Product manufacture
55. Iodine deficiency: a. Occurs especially in areas close to the sea b. Is unlikely to be seen in
mountainous areas c. Only results from the lack of iodine in drinking water (d) Can result
in permanent mental retardation
56. Establishment of safe communities and parks is an example of: a. Biomedical
intervention b. Behavioral intervention c. Structural intervention d. Political intervention
57. The most important requirement of a vaccine is: a. Safety b. Ability to stimulate antibody
production c. Ability to stimulate an immune response d. The proportion of infections
prevented
58. Unemployment or underemployment strongly influences an individual’s: (a) Physical,
mental and social health (b) Biological and genetic endowment (c) Cultural attributes (d)
Family support
59. Which of the following is not part of the component of primary health care? (a)
Education (b) Immunization (c) Urban development (d) Accessibility
60. Which of the following is correct of PHC? (a) It is a grass root management approach to
providing health care services to communities (b) It is only practiced in the developed
countries (c) It is electronically based (d) It cannot be practice in the local level
61. Nigeria primary health care was adopted in the Nigeria health policy of what year? (a)
1980 (b) 1986 (c) 1983 (d) 1991
62. In 1985,…….. was appointed the minister of health who adopted PHC in 52 local
government areas. (a) Professor Olikoye Ransome Kuti (b) Professor Yemi Osinbajo (c)
Pharm N.A.E Mohammed (d) Dora Akinluyi
63. Component of first aid box may include the following except? (a) Simple anagelsics (b)
Plaster (c) Ultrasound scan machine (d) Gentian violet
64. Reasons for first aid include the following except? (a) Risk reduction (b) Reduced
severity of injury (c) Increased mortality rate (d) Quick intervention
65. Emergency conditions includes the following except? (a) Shock (b) Bleeding (c) Burns
(d) Headache
66. ABC in management of emergency conditions means. (a) Airway, breathing and
circulation (b) Aute bowel condition (c) Arterial bleeding condition (d) Airway blockage
67. Shock may result from the following except. (a) Trauma (b) Heat stroke (c) Blindness (d)
Severe blood loss
68. First degree burns usually affect _____ (a) Superficial skin layer (b) Deep lying tissue
(c) Bones (d) Fatty muscle
69. CPR in emergency procedure means. (a) Cardiac pumping rate (b) Cardioperitoneum
rate (c) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (d) Cardiac palpitation rate
70. An immediate and temporary care given to a victim of an accident or sudden illness
before the services of an health care provider is called (a) Medical care (b) Primary
health care (c)First aid (d) Intensive care
71. Which of the following is not advisable when you are controlling bleeding? (a) Applying
a direct pressure (b) Elevate the injured part of the lessen blood flow (c) Applying
tourniquet (d) Pouring lukewarm water to the site of bleeding
72. ______________is a break in the continuity of the bone (a) Dislocation (b) Fraction (c)
Bruises (d) sprain
73. A device to immobilize an injured part of the body is called (a) Splinting (b) Plaster (c)
Rope (d) Tourniquet
74. The part of the tongue that is sensitive to saltiness and sweetness (a) Tip (b) Back (c)
Middle (d) sides
75. The part of the teeth that is vascularized and sensitive is called (a) Pulp (b) Enamel (c)
Gum (d) Cusp
76. Which of the following is not an oral health disease? (a) Periodontal disease (b) Dental
caries (c) Halitosis (d) Peritonitis
77. Which of the following is an emergency drug? (a) Adrenaline (b) Amoxycilline (c)
Diclofenac (d) Omeprazole
78. As a first aider; you are an eye witness to an accident case, which one of the following is
wrong (a) Call for help (b) Attend to the unconscious victim before the conscious victims
(c) Attend to the conscious before the unconscious victims (d) Do not panic
79. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is an example of (a) Pulmonary disease (b) Cardiac
disease (c) Pneumonia (d) Life saving procedures
80. One of the following is a not part of the objectives of family planning counseling (a) To
increased awareness about family/child spacing method (b) To provide ambiguous
information about family planning to clients (c) To assist clients in choosing a family
planning method (d) To promote client-provider interaction in discussing family planning
81. Advantages of family planning includes include all but one of these (a) Remove of
unwanted pregnancy (b) Promote good health (c) Allows women to have multiple sexual
partners (d) Gives way for planning the future
82. One of the following prevents unwanted pregnancy as well as STDs (a) Male condoms
(b) Hormonal contraceptive (c) Vasectomy (d) Diaphragm
83. A burn is as a result of hot liquid is called (a) Thermal burn (b) Scalds (c) Radiation
burns (d) Hydrolytic burns
84. Weakness, dizziness, palor, cold sweat and unconscious are signs and symptoms of. (a)
Cardiac arrest (b) Heart failure (c) Fainting (d) Acute asthmatic attack
85. Some of the features of primary health care in Nigeria health system are the following
except. (a) Inequity (b) An element of the health system (c) Sustainability and self
reliance (d) Community participation
86. Levels of health care system in Nigeria include the following except (a) Secondary level
(b) Primary level (c) Intermediary level (d) Tertiary level
87. All the following are very common health issues among aged/elderly except (a) Poverty
(b) Arthitis (c) Eye sight failing (d) Diabetes
88. The type of care needed by a pregnant woman is called (a) Pregnant care (b) Post natal
care (c) Conception care (d) Antenatal care
89. The food requirement of an individual depends among others of these except (a) Age (b)
Sex (c) Culture (d) Body weight
90. Some basic laboratory test conducted during antenatal clinic visit include all but one (a)
Bloodgroup (b) Rhesus factor (c) DNA testing(d) urinalysis
91. Routine antenatal examination are all under the listed except (a) Blood grouping (b)
Blood pressure measurement fundal height evaluation (c) Weight and height taking (d)
Fundal height evaluation
92. The major hormone that is involved in breast milk expression is (a) Prolactin (b)
Progesterone (c) Oxytocin (d) Pituitary hormone
93. Which one of these family planning is consider unsafe? (a) IUCD (b) Injectable
contraceptives (c) Implant (d) Withdrawal method
94. The total or partial removal of the external female genitalia is called…(a) Female genital
mutilation (b) Female contraceptives (c) Sexual assault (d) Female sexual culture
95. Vaccines exist for the following diseases except (a) Whooping cough (b) Measles(c)
Snake bite (d) Yellow fever
96. Immunoglobulins include all except ____ (a) IgO (b) IgM (c) IgE (d) IgA
97. Most tertiary health care facilities are under the control (a) Federal government (b) State
government (c) Local government (d) University government
98. General hospital are under (a) Local government (b) Secondary government (c) Primary
health care (d) City government
99. One of these is not your responsibility as a first aider (a) Assess the situation quickly (b)
Protect the casualties and others from possible dangers (c) Try to save the casualties even
if your life is in danger (d) Try to identify as far as possible the nature of illness or injury
affecting the casualties
100. Everyone benefit from family planning except (a) The mother (b) The children (c) The
community member (d) The father
BASIC DISPENSING THEORY
1. The term used to describe an injection that is given just under the skin is (a)
Subcutaneous (b) Intramuscular (c) Epidural (d) Intravenous (e) Intrathecal
2. The class of pharmaceutical ingredients that resist any change in pH of a formulation is
……… (a) Diluent (b) Antioxidant (c) Buffer (d) Opacifier (e) Disintegrant
3. Dry granulation involves the following except (a) a liquid is added to a powder with
agitation to produce agglomeration or granules. (b) compacting the powder by means of
tablet press (c) milling the compact to obtain the granules (d) sieving and milling
4. The following are examples of binders used in the formulation of pharmaceutical tablets
except (a) Corn starch (b) Gelatin (c) Acacia (d) Talc
5. Adhesive materials used to hold powders to form granules are called (a) Binders (b)
Diluents (c) Disintegrants (d) Glidants (e) Lubricants
6. Sources of drugs include _____ except (a) Plants (b) Animals (c) Minerals (d) Synthetic
substances (e) gas
7. Which is not an advantage of pharmaceutical powders (a) No difficulty swallowing (b)
Easy to adjust dose (c) Rapid onset of action (d) bad odur
8. The following are examples of ingredients used in making dusting powders except (a)
Talc (b) Kaolin (c) Zinc oxide (d) Aspartame
9. RIRV means ______ (a) Request, in-order-voucher (b) Requisition, issue and Receipt
voucher (c) Request, issue and Receipt voucher (d) Raise, invoice, for recipient view
10. Good storage condition is important (a) To maintain the integrity of commodities (b) To
sustain best practices (c) To check the temperature of the store (d) To check the centre of
gravity of the store
11. FEFO means (a) First, expose will be firs to be out (b) Flow, expose, flow out (c) The
same as FIFO (d) First to Expire First Out
12. ICC means (a) Ibadan Central Council (b) Means Bin Card (c) Is important for effective
Inventory Management (d) Inventory Control Card
13. Pipeline in Logistics entails (a) Time it takes deliveries from the manufacturers to the
facilities (b) Pipeline treated with chlorine (c) Different stages a commodity passes (d) A
and C
14. Losses are generally? (a) Negative (b) Positive (c) Either negative or positive (d) Expiry
is an example of loss
15. Seed capital in DRF refers to (a) Grains of seed need for Agriculture purpose (b) Initial
capital required to start DRF operations (c) Save effective and employment development
(d) things need in pharmacy
16. DRF means (a) Drugs Revolving Fund (b) Drugs Reserve Fund (c) Drainage Rain Freed
(d) Drug Ready Form
17. The following is NOT a reason why DRF can fail. (a) Poor planning (b) Small initial
capital (c) Non-chalant attitude of health workers (d) Too much money earmarked for
the operation
18. Steps involved in stocking medicines EXCEPT (a) Receipt of medicine (b) Completion
of ledger form (c) Stacking medicine on shelves (d) Using the drug
19. Quantification is? (a) Forecasting and supply planning (b) Same as forecasting (c) The
quantity of medicine consumed (d) B and C
20. In Procurement and Supply chain management (PSM) cycle LMIS is referred to as? (a)
Peripheral part of the cycle (b) Selection of products to the bought (c) The engine that
drives the program (d) Quality monitoring of the programme
21. Quality Data entails (a) Timeliness and Accuracy (b) Tidiness and cleanliness (c)
Timeliness, Accuracy and completeness (d) good books
22. Quantity Received is always considered to be? (a) The quantity of commodities received
from main source (b) Quantity required from a facility for redistribution (c) To be
consumed within a period of time (d) The quantity of drugs to be used per month
23. Ointments are ___________ preparations. (a) Solid (b) Semi-solid (c) Liquid (d) gas.
24. The base used for ointments are ________ (a) Anhydrous (b) Hydrous (c) Hydrate (d)
salts
25. A prescription can either be an order from all except: (a) Doctor (b) Pharmacist (c)
Dentist (d) Veterinary practitioner
26. Q.S. means (a) Up to (b) Quantity sufficient (c) Quantity sent (d) Quarters
27. Mouthwashes help to __________ except (a) Cleanse the cavity (b) Deodorize the cavity
(c) Throat infections (d) Antibacterial
28. Which of these statements is false about lotions? (a) They are for external use (b) Alcohol
can be included (c.) They can be applied to broken skin (d) They should be applied
without friction
29. Phenol has a ______ effect when used in gargles and mouthwashes. (a) Bacteriostatic (b)
Bacteriocidal (c) Fungicidal (d) Fungistatic
30. Hora Somni means (a) Night and morning (b) At bedtime (c) Every morning (d) As
directed
31. There are ______ major groups of thickening agents (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 3
32. Examples of tablets are all except (a) Layered (b) Chewable (c) Lozenges (d) Catchets
33. Examples of liquid preparations for internal use are all except (a) Mouthwashes (b)
Gargles (c) Collodions (d) Throat paints
34. There are basically ____ types of capsules (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
35. None are examples of filtration except (a)Semi-filtration (b) Fine filtration (c) Cause
filtration (d) Rough filtration
36. To get an emulsion of pH of 3, type ______gelatin can be used (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
37. Hydrocarbon bases include the following except (a) Hard paraffin (b) Lanolin (c)
White/yellow soft paraffin (d) Liquid paraffin
38. Poorly manufactured tablets may have small pinholes on the surface. This phenomenon is
known as (a) Leaching (b) Picking (c) Mottling (d) Chipping
39. An unequal distribution of color on a tablet is known as ------ (a) Mottling (b) Picking (c)
Chipping (d) Lamination
40. The durability of a tablet to combined effects of shock and abrasion is evaluated by using
(a) Hardness tester (b) Disintegration test apparatus (c) Friabilator (d) Screw gauge
41. Which of the following is not a semisolid dosage form (a) Paste (b) Creams (c)
Ointments (d) Suspensions
42. One of the following can be used to mask unpleasant taste (a) Aspartame (b) Magnesium
(c) stearate (d) Tragacanth
43. The need for dosage forms includes all the following except: (a) Placement of drugs
within body tissues (b) Masking of taste and odour (c) Ease of swallowing (d) for easy
absorption of drugs
44. In wet granulation, which of the following is TRUE? (a) Over wetting results into soft
granules (b) Dry mass is passed through suitable sieves (c) Liquid binders are required.
45. Tablet excipients used to improve flow properties of granules formed are called

(a) Binders (b) Lubricants (c) Glidants

46. Tablet excipients that promotes spread of coating on tablets/ granules. (a) Binders (b)
Plasticizer (c) Glidant
47. SHELLAC is used in: (a) Sub -coating (b) Compression coating (c) Seal coating (d) Film
coating
48. The part of the tableting machine where granules for tableting flow into for compression
is called: (a) Pinches (b) Tableting hole (c) Die (d) Punches
49. Capsule sizes usually used are: (a) 0 – 4 (b) 00 – 3 (c) 0 – 3 (d) 000 – 5
50. Suppositories described as Aurinaria are: (a) Meant for nasal insertion (b) Urethral
bougies (c) Ear insertion (d). Vagina
51. Capsule shells are made from (a)Methylcellulose (b) Acacia (c) Gelatin (d) water
52. The concentration of sucrose in syrup is: (a) 66.67%w/v (b) 55.56%w/v (c) 65.67%w/v
(d) 56.57%w/v
53. There are basically ____ types of granulation (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
54. The basic types of emulsion that we have are (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
55. Which of these is not an instability process in syrups? (a) Fermentation (b) Hydrolysis (c)
hydrogen (d) granulation
56. Solutions can be as all except: (a)Throat paints (b) Throat sprays (c) Ear drops (d) Water
57. There are basically___ types of suspension (a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 6
58. There are _____ types of plastic: (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 1
59. Dusting powder can be used for all these purposes except: (a) Medical (b) Cosmetic (c)
Surgical (d) None of the above
60. _____ is the most widely used dosage form (a) Granules b) Syrups (c) Injections (d)
Tablets
61. ______ precedes cracking (a) Creaming (b) Phase inversion(c) Flocculation (d) molting
62. Divided powder contains: (a)Simple powder (b) Complex powder (c) Compound powder
(d) A and C
63. A prescription calls for 10 units of a drug to be taken 3 times a day. How much will the
patient take after 7 days? (a) 30 units (b) 70 units (c) 210 units (d) 310 units
64. For administering drugs with unpleasant taste, we can make use of (a) Granules (b)
Lozenges (c) Divided powders (d) Tablets
65. Bases used in pastes are all except: (a)Hydrocarbon base (b) Water miscible bases (c)
Water soluble bases (d) Absorption bases
66. Bulk powders can be administered (a)Externally only (b) Internally only (c) Externally or
internally (d) Diagnostically
67. An example of a diluent used in granulation is (a)Lactose (b) Mannose (c) Sucrose (d)
Fructose
68. The rate of filtration can be increased by all of the following except (a) Increasing the
pressure difference across the filter (b) Using a medium of high porosity (c) Reducing
the viscosity of the liquid (d) Diluting the liquid
69. Suppositories and Pessaries are usually packaged in: (a) Tin only (b) Tin, Aluminium and
Plastics (c) Blister packs and Tin (d) Tin, Plastics and Rubber
70. Calcium Stearate and Mineral oil are examples of: (a) Tablet Glidants (b) Tablet
Lubricants (c) Adsorbents (d) Surfactants
71. Carnauba Wax is an example of: (a) Tablet Glidants (b) Polishing agents (c) Adsorbents
(d) Surfactants
72. A prescription for a drug to be taken at night would have which of the following written:
(a) P.O (b) qqh (c) nocte (d) stat
73. "gtts" on a prescription means: (a) As much as possible. (b) Receive (c) Drops (d) Every
hour
74. N - acetyl – Para-aminophenol is what kind of name: (a) Therapeutic (b) Generic (c)
Chemical (d) Reference
75. In Tablet Sugar coating, a SUB- COAT is basically made up of: (a) Sucrose and Dusting
agent (b) Sucrose and Carnauba wax (c) Sucrose only (d) Sucrose and Adhesive
76. "Optic" route of administration (a) Eye (b) Nose (c) Throat (d) Ear
77. Hard shell capsules are produced from (a) Glycero -gelatin solution (b) Cellulose solution
(c) Nitro- cellulose solution (d) Gelatin solution
78. Bulk powders can be prescribed in form of (a) Catches (b) Pessaries (c) Granules (d)
Capsules
79. Environmental hazards include (a) Sand (b) Dust (c) Temperature (d) Noise
80. Labels can be printed in all except: (Red (b) Black (c) Blue (d) Yellow
81. Membrane filters are used for : (a) Ophthalmic solutions (b) Suspensions (c) Emulsions
(d) Fermentation
82. Mayonnaise is an example of an: (a) Emulsion (b) Mixture (c) Suspension (d) Food
83. Emulsion types can be determined by all except: (a) Conductivity test (b) Solubility test
(c) Staining test (d) Miscibility test
84. All of these are examples of creams except: (a) Lypholized creams (b) Hydrophilic
creams (c) Hydrophobic creams (d) Lipophilic creams
85. Irreversible instability is formed by (a) Breaking (b) Creaming (c) Cracking (d) Phase
inversion
86. We have ____ major classes of syrups (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 4
87. Types of additional labels include all except: (a) First in First out (b) Shake the bottle (c)
Not to be taken (d) Inflammable
88. Pan coating involves the following processes except: (a) Sealing (b) Disintegrating (c)
Polishing (d) Smoothing
89. What is Lead Time? (a) The time when the service is provided at the facility level (b) The
time when an order is placed and the time when is available for use (c) The time leads to
consumption time (d) The same thing as pipeline
90. Consumption data entails (a) The quantity of commodities that goes to the end users (b)
Quantities issued out from the store (c) Quantities consumed by the patients before dying
(d) A and C
91. Months of stock is the (a) Months it takes for commodities to leave our shelves (b)
Months a stock will last before it finishes (c) Months of the year when drugs are supplied
(d) A and B only
92. The following are examples of hard capsules except (a) Cap ampiclox (b) Cod liver oil
(c) Cap Ampicillin (d) Cap Amoxicillin
93. Lactose is used as (a) Diluent (b) Glidant (c) Lubricant (d) Disintegrant
94. Substances used to increase the bulk volume of tablets are called …. (a) Glidants (b)
Fillers (c) Disintegrants (d) Sorbents
95. …………….. is added to most tablet formulation to facilitate a break up or disintegration
of the tablet, when it contacts water in the GIT. (a) Binder (b) Disintegrant (c) Lubricants
(d) Bulking agent
96. Tablets are often coated for the following reasons Except…… (a) To mask bitter tastes
(b) To make swallowing easier (c) To protect drug from the external environment (d) For
easy Identification
97. The principal use of Magnesium stearate in pharmaceuticals is as a/an … (a) Lubricant
(b) Disintegrator (c) Antacid (d) Binder
98. ________ are used to give the tablet a more pleasant taste. (a) Sorbents (b) Flavouring
agents (c) Colourants (d) lubricant
99. The process of tablet manufacturing can be classified into (a) Die filling—tablet
formation—tablet ejection (b) Die filling—tablet ejection—tablet formation (c) Tablet
formation—tablet ejection—die filling (d) Tablet formation—die filling—tablet ejection
100. Shaving creams, hand creams are examples of ……… (b) Oily creams (b) Sterol creams
(c) Aqueous creams (d) Triethanolamine creams
USE OF ENGLISH

Instruction: Read the passage carefully and give appropriate answer to the question.
There are about 980 flying mammals referred to as bats. They are the only real flying mammals
on Earth. Most bats feed on a diet of insects. Some feed on flowers and fruits, but the most
interesting are the vampire bats of the Americas, which suck the blood of large birds and other
mammals. Unfortunately, these vampire bats are capable of transmitting rabies and are for this
reason considered dangerous. The other types of bats are of no danger to man and are even
considered helpers of nature by way of their diet which helps control the insect population in
various areas of the world. Although the misunderstood bat has represented fear and terror in the
west, it is seen as a sign of good luck and long life in the east.
1. The majority of the bat population _____. A) are vampires. B) transmit many illnesses. C)
feed on a diet of insects. D) are dangerous to man.
2. According to the passage the bat is misunderstood because_____. A) it is capable of
transmitting rabies. B) it has been associated with fear in the west. C) its value as a natural
enemy of insects is not generally known. D) it is the only flying mammal.
3. The insect population of the world _____. A) is controlled by bats. B) represents fear and
terror to bats of the east. C) is eaten by vampire bats. D) is maintained at normal levels
because bats eat them, in certain areas.
4. Vampire bats are capable of transmitting A) Rabbies B) Fear C) Terror D) Hunger
5. Bats are of ______ categories A) Vampire B) Flying mammals C) Dangerous D) East

Fill in the gap with appropriate answer

6. Two dozens of cows ______ lying peacefully in the shade. A) were B) was C) has been D)
is
7. The Town Council ______ against raising the rents of its houses. A) are B) were C) is D)
aren’t
8. A ______ of vitamin C results in skin infections and slow healing. A) short B) shortage C)
shorten D) shortly
9. What is the difference in ______ between the Amazon and the Nile? A) long B) wide C)
length D) deep
10. How many of ______ are present in class? A) the girls B) girls C) girls’ D) the girl’s
11. This isn’t ______ bottle. A) a big enough B) big enough C) big enough a D) enough big a
12. Several new dams are being constructed. This will help to control floods and provide water
for______. A) irrigate B) irrigated C) irrigating D) irrigation
13. A problem of fundamental ______ for the developing countries is that of slowing down
population growth. A) importance B) vital C) urgent D) serious
14. His sister ______ tennis on Wednesday. A) play B) plays C) go to D) practice
15. George ______ television before bed. A) looks B) going to watch C) looking D) watches
16. ______ you at home yesterday morning? A) Did B) Were C) Are D) Will
17. He ______ late yesterday. A) be B) were C) is D) was
18. They ______ ready in class yesterday. A) didn’t B) aren’t C) weren’t D) don’t
19. Yesterday he ______ lunch in a restaurant. A) had B) has C) eats D) is having
20. Where ______ Mary and Julia going? A) is B) are C) do D) does

Find the synonym of the following words written in capitals

21. Everybody PROTESTED to be examined again. A) were for B) were against C) were after
D) were before
22. Small children sometimes FEAR the dark. A) are afraid of B) are terrible C) are angry D)
are in love
23. She thought that he was BRAVE. A) coward B) courageous C) strong D) quiet
24. The great Russian poet Pushkin was a REMARKABLE man. A) careless B) clever C) hard
D) extraordinary
25. The time will come, no doubt, when a man will BE ALLOWED to be very angry only on
special days. A) be passed B) be settled C) be permitted D) be taken
26. I want you to accept the invitation of your English DOCTOR friend. A) boy B) physician
C) physicist D) girl
27. You’ve made 2 BAD MISTAKES in your test. A) wrong things B) blunders C) an error D)
misprints
28. When I met my friend she WAS VERY ANXIOUS about something. A) took care of B)
was troubled C) got angry D) looked for
29. She was AWFULLY sorry for her. A) respectfully B) politely C) terribly D) cordially
30. Don’t paint IN A HURRY. A) exactly B) irritably C) hastily D) specially
31. Our traditions are very ANCIENT and our people are proud of them. A) present B) old C)
modern D) real
32. I didn’t know she was so LEARNED. A) well read B) bookish C) accomplished D)
ignorant
33. One day my brother told the story to one of his FRIENDS. A) advisers B) enemies C)
assistants D) backers
34. Nobody knew he was leaving the country; only Anne knew the TRUTH. A) loyalty B)
honor C) belief D) lie
35. Why did they TURN him OUT? A) dismiss B) employ C) refuse D) free
36. This is a SHARP knife. A) new B) slow C) blue D) dull
37. The train LEAVES ON TIME. A) is late B) is slow C) is fast D) express train
38. Tom DUG OUT his money and ran away. A) burned B) broke C) forgot D) buried
39. I heard him speaking but was too tired to listen to him and CONCENTRATE. A) solve B)
relax C) release D) rebuild
40. He was rather RUDE to me last night. A) savage B) brutal C) violent D) polite

Fill in the gap with appropriate word

When I go to the doctor, I tell the __41__ my name and take a seat in the __42__ room. My
doctor is very busy so I have to make a(an) __43__ before I go to see him. He asks me what’s
wrong with me, I tell him the __44__ of my illness, for example high temperature, difficulty in
breathing, or pains, and then he will usually __45__ me. He’ll listen to my heart with his __46__,
he’ll hold my wrist to feel my __47__, he’ll take my __48__ with his __49__. The problem is
usually something simple and he might give me a __50__ for some medicine, which I take to the
__51__. Of course, if I needed more serious __52__, I’d have to go to hospital. There I’d be put
in a bed in a(an) __53__ with 10 or 20 other people. If there were something seriously wrong
with me, I might need a(an) __54__.
41. A) receptionist B) chemist C) ward D) appointment
42. A) operation B) ward C) waiting D) examine
43. A) agreement B) attempt C) speech D) appointment
44. A) treatments B) pulse C) symptoms D) prescription
45. A) operate B) bill C) treat D) examine
46. A) periscope B) pulse C) symptom D) stethoscope
47. A) skin B) pulse C) symptoms D) blood
48. A) pulse B) temperature C) blood D) heart
49. A) meter B) barometer C) thermometer D) kilometer
50. A) prescription B) bill C) receipt D) medicine
51. A) receptionist B) chemist C) biologist D) therapist
52. A) treatment B) threat C) symptom D) stethoscope
53. A) operation room B) ward C) waiting room D) dormitory
54. A) operation B) receipt C) prescription D) examining

Fill in the gap with appropriate meaning to the idioms

55. To "bear in mind" means _____. A) to forget something B) to be crazy C) to remember

something
56. To "beat around the bush" means _____. A) to not know B) to avoid a question C) to go on
a hike
57. To "beef up" means _____. A) to go crazy B) to have fun C) to make something stronger
58. "Behind the scenes" means _____. A) in a different place B) privately C) in a difficult
position
59. "Below the belt" means _____. A) good B) secretly C) unfairly
60. To "call it a day" means _____. A) to quit B) it becomes evening C) to say good morning
61. To "call the tune" means _____. A) to sing a song B) to give orders C) to give advice
62. To "carry off" means _____. A) to move B) to kill C) to drop
63. To put the "cart before the horse" means _____. A) to plan ahead B) that you can't do
something C) to do things in the wrong order
64. To "catch on" means _____. A) to understand B) to be punished C) to grab something
65. To "be caught short" means _____. A) to be in an embarrassing situation B) to take a short
sleep C) not to have enough of something when needed
66. "Cheap skate" means _____. A) a winter sports activity B) someone who doesn't spend
much money C) something that isn't expensive
67. To "check up" means _____. A) to search B) to investigate C) to make a mark to show
something has been counted
68. To "cheer up" means _____. A) to become happy B) to become sad C) to become lost
69. "Chicken feed" means _____. A) a lot of food B) a small amount of money C) A group of
people gathering together

Find the words which are out of the logic list:

70. A) scour B) voyage C) trip D) journey
71. A) resign B) step down C) quit D) swap
72. A) scatter B) squash C) crush D) squeeze
73. A) thick B) enormous C) immense D) huge
74. A) drought B) harvest C) mow D) crop
75. A) rescue B) slaughter C) kill D) murder
76. A) suggest B) reiterate C) advice D) recommend
77. A) soup B) chop C) mince D) steak
78. A) choice B) prediction C) decision D) preference
79. A) hold over B) slate C) run down D) slag off
80. A) nude B) bare C) bashful D) unclothed
81. A) proficient B) clumsy C) skilful D) expert
82. A) shortage B) riches C) wealth D) affluence
83. A) battle B) fight C) settlement D) combat
84. A) wealthy B) penniless C) broke D) needy
85. A) interest B) profit C) advantage D) confidence

Fill in the gap with appropriate answer

86. ______ is a substance for treating an illness, especially that you drink. A) ointment B)
bandage C) medicine D) plaster
87. ______ is a piece of cloth that you wrap around an injury. A) bandage B) ointment C) cast
D) injection
88. He broke his leg, so doctor made a ______ around his broken leg. A) cast B) ointment C)
medicine D) plaster
89. ______ is a special material used for sticking on your skin to cover small wounds. A) cast
B) medicine C) ointment D) plaster
90. ______ is a hard cover fitted over your arm, leg etc to support a broken leg. A) injection
B) cast C) tablet D) capsule
91. He had had a big hole in his tooth before the dentist made ______ in the hole. A) injection
B) cast C) filling D) medicine
92. Doctors use ______ for cleaning patient’s skin before injection. A) plaster B) bandage C)
cotton wool D) cast
93. ______ is a kind of chair used by people who cannot walk. A) wheel chair B) stool C)
rocking chair D) armchair
94. Doctor gave the patient a ______ on which the medicine the patient should take was
written. A) prescription B) medicine C) capsule D) cast
95. After the eye test, the optician told me that I should wear a pair of ______. A) fillings B)
glasses C) casts D) masks
96. During the operation, doctors were wearing ______ which were covering all face except
eyes. A) casts B) masks C) bandage D) sling
97. ______ is a substance that you rub into your skin as a medical treatment. A) tablet B)
cotton wool C) medicine D) ointment
98. When the lesson ended, I put my glasses into the ______. A) glasses case B) pen case C)
bookcase D) briefcase
99. ______ is an equipment that doctors use to listen to someone’s heart or breathing. A)
stethoscope B) heart controller C) blood pressure D) headphones
100. The doctor who does operations in the hospital is called ______. A) surgeon B) dentist C)
nurse D) optician
PHARMACY TECHNICIAN PRACTICE
1. A pharmacist is
(a) A person who has attended a University and is a qualified Pharmacist.
(b) A person who is trained to sell drugs
(c) A person who has gone to the University and is licensed to sell, manufacture and
compound drugs.
(d) A person who was trained at a College of Health Technology to sell, manufacture and
compound drugs.
2. Functions of a Pharmacist include the following except
(a) Production of drugs
(b) Sales of drugs
(c) Research and development of new drugs
(d) Protecting food vendors by giving licenses to them in order to sell.
3. Role of a Pharmacy Technician
(a) To fight for rights
(b) To sell goods
(c) To assist and work directly with the Pharmacists
(d) To sell drugs and provisions
4. A Pharmacy Technician must do the following except
(a) Be cautious
(b) Be attentive to patients
(c) Must be firm
(d) Must be uncontrollable when the need arises
5. Which body controls the registration of Pharmacy Technician?
(a) S.O.N.
(b) P.C.N
(c) P.S.N.
(d) E.F.C.C.
6. Which body maintains the registration for Pharmacy Technician?
(a) NAFDAC
(b) ICPC
 (c) PSN
(d) PCN
7. NAFDAC means
(a) National Agency For Food, Drink Administration and Control
(b) National Agency For Food, Drug Administrative and Control
(c) National Agency For Drug, Administrative and Control
(d) National Agency For Food, Administration and Control
8. PCN means
(a) Pharmacist Control of Nigeria
(b) Pharmacists Council of Nigeria
(c) Pharmacist Congress of Nigeria
(d) Pharmacy Council of Nigeria
9. NDLEA means
(a) National Drug and Law Enforcement Agency
(b) National Drug Law Enforcement Agency
(c) National Drugs Legal Enforcement Agency
(d) National Drugs Law Entrepreneurship Agency
10. NDLEA is
(a) Federal Agency
(b) State Agency
(c) Local Agency
(d) Intermediate Agency
11. PCN was established
(a) By Decree 92 of 1992
(b) By Decree 93 of 1991
(c) BY decree 91 of 1992
(d) By decree 93 of 1992
12. PCN was established to
(a) Correct drug trafficking
(b) Stop production of fake drugs
 (c) Regulate and control the practice of Pharmacy in Nigeria and to regulate and control
Pharmaceutical education in Nigeria.
(d) Screen and prosecute drug trafficking at the airports
13. NAFDAC was established in
(a) 1993
(b) 1991
(c) 1990
(d) 1992
14. NAFDAC has
(a) 8 Zonal offices
(b) 4 zonal offices
(c) 6 zonal offices
(d) 36 zonal offices
15. The Hospital Management Board is under
(a) Ministry of Youth and Sports
(b) Ministry of Health and Justice
(c) Ministry of Works
(d) Ministry of Health
16. PSN was established to
(a) Encourage bickering
(b) Encourage production of fake drugs
(c) Maintain a high standard of professionalism among Pharmacists and Pharmacy
Technicians
(d) Fight the doctors and other professional in the local government
17. The PSN has its head office in
(a) Lagos
(b) Kano
(c) Abuja
(d) Port Harcourt
18. PSN has branches in
(a) 37 states
 (b) 34 states
(c) 36 states
(d) Only in Abuja
19. PCN is a
(a) State Agency
(b) Local Government Agency
(c) Federal Agency
(d) International Agency
20. Standard Organization of Nigeria was formed in
(a) 1972
(b) 1973
(c) 1983
(d) 1971
21. The Registrar is the apex officer for
(a) PSN
(b) PCN
(c) ASSOPAS
(d) NMDDC
22. The Pharmacist Council is headed by a
(a) Chairman
(b) Director
(c) Registrar
(d) Director General
23. SON means
(a) Standard Office of Nigeria
(b) Standard Organisation of Nigeria
(c) Security Officers of Nigeria
(d) Shop Owners of Nigeria
24. Which of the following is not a course taken as Pharmacy Technician
(a) Pharmacognosy
(b) Basic Dispensing Theory
 (c) Basic Dispensing Practical
(d) Anatomy and Physiology
(e) Primary Health Care
25. A Pharmacy Technician works under the direct supervision of
(a) A senior Pharmacy Technician
(b) A Pharmacist
(c) A Doctor
(d) A physiotherapist
26. HMB means
(a) Health Maintenance Board
(b) Hospital Management Board
(c) Hospital Maintenance Board
(d) Health Management Board
27. A poison is
(a) A prescription drug
(b) Over the counter drug
(c) Can be used freely
(d) Can be sold freely
28. The following are controlled drugs except
(a) Diazepam
(b) Misoprostol
(c) Ascorbic acid
(d) Mifepristone
29. The following are dangerous drugs except
(a) Chlorpromazine
(b) Oxytocin
(c) Misoprostol
(d) Griseofulvin
30. Which of the following is true about the location of a pharmacy
(a) A Pharmacy Shop can be located within a car park
(b) A Pharmacy Shop can be located within a market
 (c) A Pharmacy shop can be located in a metal container
(d) A pharmacy shop should be at least 200 meters radius away from an existing
pharmacy
31. One of these drugs are banned substance
(a) Carbamazepine
(b) Codeine
(c) Pioglitazone
(d) Triamcilonone
32. In Pharmacy Practice, patient confidentiality is
(a) Not necessary
(b) Important
(c) Compulsory
(d) Necessary
33. Specializations in pharmacy excludes;
(a) Academic and research pharmacy
(b) Engineering pharmacy
(c) Hospital and community pahrmaacy
(d) Industrial pharmacy
34. The commissioner of Health is in charge of
(a) Sales
(b) Health issues
(c) Promotional materials
(d) Road maintenance
35. As the Red Cross sign is for medical facility, so is Rx symbol synonyms to ____
(a) Pharmacy Technician
(b) Pharmacist
(c) Pharmacy
(d) Nurse
36. WHO means
(a) World Human Organization
(b) World Harmony Organization
(c) World Health Organization
 (d) Where Health Originates
37. Dispensing involves;
(a) Drug purchase and supply
(b) Giving drugs to patient
(c) Irrational drug use
(d) Writing a prescription to patients
38. P.P.A means _____
(a) Poisons and Pharmacist Acts
(b) Poisons and Pharmacy Act
(c) Pharmacy and Pharmaceutical Act
(d) Poisons and Pharmaceutical Acts
39.
40. Dispensing involves
(a) Giving drugs with specific instructions
(b) Giving out drugs with little instructions
(c) Giving out drugs with no instructions
(d) Giving drugs sometimes with specific instructions
41. The chief Executive officer of PCN is
(a) Secretary
(b) Registrar
(c) Chairman
(d) Director
42. Poisons are supposed to be kept in
(a) Poison flask
(b) Poison cupboard
(c) On shelves
(d) Refrigerator
43. PCN was established to
(a) Correct drug trafficking
(b) Stop production of fake drugs
(c) Regulate and control the practice of Pharmacy in Nigeria and to regulate and control
Pharmaceutical education in Nigeria.
 (d) Screen and prosecute drug trafficking at the airports
44. A pharmacy technician should have knowledge of the following except
(a) Inventory control
(b) Record control
(c) Administration of IV drugs
(d) Managing supplies
45. One of the steps in drug procurement is selection, which is dependent on one of the
following
(a) Quantification
(b) Qualification
(c) Eradication
(d) Storage
46. Which of the following is not and Over-the-Counter drug?
(a) Vitamin c
(b) Strepsil
(c) Insulin
(d) Ibuprofen
47. Which of the following is true?
(a) SON promotes sub-standardization of products produced or imported drugs into
Nigeria
(b) SON promotes standardization of products produced or imported into Nigeria
(c) SON regulates sales of products
(d) SON deregulates the oil sector
48. Which of the following is not part of a pharmacy technician training?
(a) Hospital and community pharmacy experience
(b) Laboratory practicals and extemporaneous preparations
(c) Vocational training, skill acquisition and prescribing
(d) Entrepreneurial concepts introduction
49. Pharmacy practice settings are subject to supervision by which of the following in matters
of unwholesome products?
(a) NAFDAC
 (b) NDLEA
(c) Federal Government of Nigeria
(d) EFCC
50. Where was the first pharmacy premises located in Nigeria?
(a) Kano
(b) Onitsha
(c) Lagos
(d) Jos
51. Which of the following is not the role of the pharmacist?
(a) Diagnosis
(b) Research
(c) Public education
(d) Compounding
52. The pharmacy technician is allowed to perform which of the following:
(a) Supervise his fellows
(b) Performs pharmacy-related functions
(c) Oversee other Pharmacy technician’s tasks
(d) Inject patient
53. Which government parastatal is responsible for the formulation and implementation of
national health policy?
(a) PCN
(b) Federal Government
(c) Federal Ministry of Health
(d) W.H.O.
54. The details on the disposal of poisons are discussed in __________ sections of the Poisons
and Pharmacy Act Cap 535, 1990, LFN.
(a) 7-9
(b) 10-14
(c) 15-31
(d) 20-25
55. Who oversees the Federal Ministry of health?
 (a) Commissioner of Health
(b) Medical Practitioner
(c) Minister of Health
(d) Pharmacist
56. The first dispensers to have been trained by the European in pharmacy history in Nigeria
were meant to work in which of the following:
(a) Government hospital
(b) Private sectors
(c) Abroad
(d) Home
57. In terms of National health disaster such as Ebola, which government parastatal
coordinates delivery of health services?
(a) NEMA
(b) FMOH
(c) NAFDAC
(d) PCN
58. Which of this is not a good quality of a pharmacy technician?
(a) Good communication skills
(b) Ability to control self in the mist of provocation
(c) Dislike people
(d) Ability to listen well
59. The following type of foods are not fit to be registered for use in Nigeria except?
(a) Counterfeit
(b) Unadulterated
(c) Unwholesome
(d) Fake
60. The first informal training of pharmacy in Nigeria was at which location?
(a) Ogun
(b) Lagos
(c) Zaria
(d) Ibadan
61. Which of the following should pharmacy technician be involved in?
(a) Consultation
(b) Compounding
(c) Counseling
(d) Creating
62. The main focus in hospitals, without whom health providers would not render services is?
(a) Patient
(b) Consultant
(c) Medical Director
(d) Chief Medical Director
63. Dispensing, sales, custody and supply of poisons and drugs is discussed in part_________
of the Poisons and Pharmacy Act Cap 535, 1990, LFN. (a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 4
64. Which of these does not require registration by the Pharmacists Council of Nigeria?
(a) Pharmacist
(b) Pharmacy Premises
(c) Pharmacy Technician
(d) Medical Laboratory
65. Any substance that produces a harmful effect to the human body is termed as ______
(a) Drug
(b) misxture
(c) poison
(d) paste
66. The following drugs are regarded as poison except ____
(a) Levofloxacin
(b) Diazepam
(c) Pentazocine
(d) Bromazepan
67. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) All poisons are drugs but not all drugs are poisons
(b) All drugs are Poisons but not all poisons are drugs
(c) All drugs must be swallowed or injected
 (d) Drugs are meant to harm patients
68. Ideal prescription should be written on the following except:
(a) Prescription Sheet
(b) Medication order
(c) Patient Medication Record
(d) Graph sheet
69. For a prescription to be valid, which of the following may not be necessarily confirmed:
(a) Patient’s details
(b) Prescribers details
(c) Date and correctness of the prescription
(d) Patient’s relative details
70. One distinguishing quality of pharmacy technicians is that they must be good in one of the
following:
(a) Calculations
(b) Exercise
(c) Theory
(d) Objective
71. Which of these is the importance of documents generated and stored in hospitals?
(a) Litigation purposes
(b) Ensure continuity of treatment
(c) Publicity
(d) Research
72. Confidentiality is enhanced by any of these except:
(a) Sharing information with fellow provider for purpose of helping patient
(b) Health provider shares patients’ health details with his/her own family
(c) Disagree to share sensitive details with others outside the pharmacy unit
73. For a layman to understand drugs have been supervised before importation into the
country, what identity is common?
(a) Good packaging
(b) Batch number
(c) Expiration dates
 (d) NAFDAC number
74. Which of the following are not under the control of State’s Hospital Management boards?
(a) General Hospitals
(b) Cottage hospitals
(c) All of the above
(d) Federal Medical Centres
75. Which of the following is not advised for any health worker?
(a) Neatness
(b) Wearing excessive make-up and jewelries at work
(c) Punctuality
(d) Non-judgmental
76. This is not true about professional ethics
(a) Ethics is moral rules or principles of behavior
(b) Ethics is principles/rules for righteous behaviour
(c) Ethics deals with the values and values judgments in human affairs
77. Which of the following would a patient be prescribed an albuterol Inhaler for ?
(a) Hypertension
(b) Asthma
(c) Smoking Cessation
(d) Post Myocardial Infarction
78. A code of professional standards containing aspect of fairness and duty to the pharmacy
profession is known as ___________
(a) Pharmacy ethics
(b) Pharmacy duty
(c) Pharmacy role
(d) Pharmacy obligations
79. The limitation of a pharmacy technician is ___________
(a) they can counsel patients
(b) they cannot handle poison
(c)they can take new prescription over the phone
(d) They can take decision on their own.
80. The term used in corporate domain that generally refers to workers’ ability to get along
well with others in order to get the job done is called _____
(a) Team work
(b) Interpersonal skills
(c) Intrapersonal skills
81. A prerequisite skill needful to dispense useful information to clients and customers about
their prescriptions and medicines is _____
(a) Team spirit
(b) Assertive skill
(c) Interpersonal skill
82. This is not one of the goals of the national drug policy.
(a) Sustainable availability of essential medicines
(b) Promotion of irrational use of essential medicines
(c) Stimulation of increased local production of essential medicines
83. __________ are the links between doctors and patients
(a) Nurse
(b) Pharmacy technician
(c) Pharmacists
(d) Scientists
84. In Nigeria (Africa), the first pharmacy was opened by an European named___________
(a) Mr John Dickson
(b) Mr Richard Zaccheus
(c) Dr Robertson Daniel
(d) Dr Fredrick Lord
85. CGMP means ____
(a) Category good management practice
(b) Current Good Management practice
(c) Capital Good management practice
(d) Current good Manufacturing practice
86. Pharmacy was introduced into Nigeria by a/an ___________
(a) European
 (b) German
(c) Nigerian
(d) Jew
87. A pharmacist is a professional in one of these:
(a) Drug manufacture
(b) Proper drug use
(c) Drugs side effects and adverse effects
(d) Surgery
88. Which types of antibiotic inhibit growth and reproduction of bacteria, but do not kill
bacteria?
(a) Bactericidal
(b) Anti-Bacterial
(c) Hypo-Allergenic
(d) Bacteriostatic
89. When was the first pharmacy established in Nigeria?
(a) 1997
(b) 1897
(c) 1887
(d) 1889
90. In becoming a certified pharmacy technician the candidate is assessed in all the following
courses except ___________
(a) Action and uses of medicine
(b) Basic dispensing theory
(c) Indigenous language
(d) Anatomy and physiology
91. The disciplines in pharmacy may include these except
(a) Pharmacolognosy
(b) Pharmacology
(c) Clinical pharmacy
(d)Dentology
92. The Chief Executive Officer of the pharmacists council of Nigeria (PCN) is called the ___
 (a) Chairman
(b) Provost
(c) Registrar
(d) Vice chancellor
93. _____ is the most widely used dosage form
(a) Granules
(b) Syrups
(c) Injections
(d) Tablets.
94. Elixir should be stored in
(a) Closely tight amber bottle
(b) jar
(c) Tube
(d) plastic
95. The different separation techniques in pharmacy exclude one of these:
(a) Distillation
(b) Sieving
(c) Milling
(d) Filtration
96. Bases for ointments include all except:
(a)Hydrocarbon
(b) Absorption
(c) Water soluble
(d) Concentrated base.
97. Characteristics of an ideal emulsifier is/are:
(a) Non-irritant
(b) Non-toxic
(c) Inert
(d) Reactive
98. The scope of pharmacy technician include the following except
(a) Compounding
(b) Management
(c) Inventory
(d) Sterile techniques
99. POM refers to ___________
(a) Poison only medicine
(b) Prescription only memdicine
(c) Pharmacy only medicine
(d) Pomade Only Mixture
100. When dispensing poison, the following information are required to be documented except
___________
(a) name of the receiver
(b) name of the prescriber
(c) name of the dispenser
(d) Name of the eye witness
101.
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY
1. One of these is the power house of the cell:
a. Nucleus
b. Cellulose
c. Chloroplast
d. Mitochondria
2. The human body is made up of ONE of the following groups in order to development.
a. Cells, tissues, organs, systems
b. Cells, organs and system
c. Cells systems, organs and cell organelles
d. Cells, tissues, systems and organs
3. One of these is NOT true about cell:
a. The smallest unit of life
b. Found in all organs of the body
c. Is not found in plants
d. Is capable of survival outside the body if placed in appropriate medium
4. Animal cell does NOT possess one of the following
a. Mitochondrion
b. Nucleus
c. Cell membrane
d. Chloroplast
5. Which of the following groups of organs and structures do not belong to one region in the
abdominal cavity.
a. Uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries
b. Stomach, left kidney, pancreas
c. Heart, aorta, pulmonary artery
d. Liver, left kidney, gall bladder.
6. The abdominal cavity is made up of:
a. Heart, lungs, liver, oesophagus
b. Brain, kidneys, scrotum, intestines
c. Hand, feet, liver, kidney, lungs
 d. Liver, spleen, kidney, adrenal glands, intestine
7. The heart is located in one of the following:
a. Middle media stinum
b. Entire thoracic cavity
c. Abdominal cavity
d. Pelvic cavity
8. One of the following is referred to as the suicide bag of the cell:
a. Lysosomes
b. Nucleus
c. Mitochondria
d. Excretion
9. All but ONE are characteristics of a living cell:
a. A nutrition
b. Respiration
c. Enzymes
d. Excretion
10. Cells are made up of:
a. Pinocytosis
b. Osmosis
c. Diffusion
d. Protoplasm
11. The largest cavity in the body is;
a. Cranial cavity
b. Abdominal cavity
c. Pelvic cavity
d. Thoracic cavity
12. Which of the fundamental cavities of the body is described as funnel shaped.
a. Thoracic cavity
b. Pelvic cavity
c. Cranial cavity
d. Abdominal cavity
13. The basic details of a cell structure is identified using_________________
a. Microscope
b. Electron microscope
c. Binoculars
d. Light microscope
14. __________________is the study of groups of specialized cells and cell products that work
together to perform specific functions
a. Histology
b. Cytology
c. Anatomy
d. Physiology
15. Microscopic anatomy include;
a. Cytology
b. Histology
c. Cytology and histology
d. Microscopy
16. ______________ enables you to see the basic details of cell structure
a. Microscope
b. Binoculars
c. Light microscope
d. Electron microscope
17. The human body develops from a single cell called;
a. Embryo
b. Zygote
c. Monocyte
d. Phagocyte
18. The period between two cell division is called
a. Cell phase
b. Cell cycle
c. Interphase
d. Cell maturation
19. _____________ is a division of anatomy
a. Microscopic anatomy
b. Gross anatomy
c. Macroscopic anatomy
d. All of the above
20. ____________ synthesize proteins for use within the cell;
a. Ribosomes
b. Lysosomes
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. Golgi apparatus
21. The following are associated with the removal of waste products from the body EXCEPTS:
a. Urinary system
b. Respiratory system
c. Endocrine system
d. Skin
22. Another name for superficial fascia is ________
a. Adipose layer
b. Subcutaneous layer
c. Bone
d. Cartilage
23. ____________ contributes to the homeostasis of the body fluids
a. Calcium
b. Vitamin D
c. Calcitriol
d. Skin
24. The anatomical term anterior refers to;
a. The front
b. The back
c. The middle
d. The side
25. The anatomical term posterior refers to :
 a. The front
b. The back
c. The side
d. The upper part
26. The anatomical term superior refers to:
a. Close to the head
b. Close to the feet
c. Close to the side
d. Close to the back
27. The major functions of connective tissue include the following except:
a. Structural support
b. Protection
c. Insulation D
d. Production of enzymes
28. ______________ is a process by which newly formed cells in the basal layers undergo a
developmental process as they are pushed to the surface
a. Dermisation
b. Keratinization
c. Stratification
d. Epidermal growth factor
29. Examples of positive feedback mechanism include:
a. Blood clotting and uterine contraction during labour
b. Body temperature and blood clotting
c. A and B
d. Body massage
30. One of the following can cause Homeostatic imbalance:
a. Disease
b. Balanced diet
c. Exercise
d. Drinking of water
31. The atoms that are most frequently found in the human body include:
 a. Carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
b. Carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen
c. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen
d. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen nitrogen, lithium
32. The following are the body transport systems EXCEPT
a. Blood
b. Hormone
c. Circulatory system
d. Lymphatic system
33. The following are the materials which the body needs to take in except;
a. Oxygen
b. Food
c. Carbon – dioxide
d. Water
34. The following are to be excreted from the body except
a. Carbondioxide
b. Urine
c. Faeces
d. Oxygen
35. The following are activities undertaken by individual for protection and survival except
a. Reproduction
b. Movement
c. Staying in sunlight
d. Intake of raw materials
36. The following are the importance of electrolytes to the body except;
a. Some act as buffers
b. Some conduct electricity essential for muscle and nerve functions
c. Some act as hormones
d. Some exert osmotic pressure keeping body fluids in their own compactments.
37. The PH of blood is ____________
a. 7.35 to 7.45
 b. 5.4 to 7.5
c. 1.5 to 3.5
d. 4.5 to 8
38. One of the following acids is found in the stomach
a. H2So4
b. HNO3
c. HCI
d. Citric acid
39. The following are the stages of cell division except
a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Betaphase
40. The following are true about nucleus except
a. It is the central mass enclosed within a nuclear membrane
b. Chromosomes are located inside the nucleus
c. It produces mitochondria
d. It controls the reproduction of the cell
41. The following are means of transporting substances across cell membrane except
a. Solubility in water
b. Solubility in lipids
c. Diffusion
d. Charge on ions
42. In meiosis, one of the following happens
a. The process occurs in all parts of the body
b. The process will results in haploid number of chromosomes
c. The process will result in 46 number of chromosomes
d. The process will result in 24 numbers of chromosomes.
43. The following are fundamental tissues in the body except
a. Epithelial tissue
b. Muscle tissue
 c. Cartilage
d. Nervous tissue
44. Cuboidal epithelium is found in the following except
a. Thyroid gland
b. Ovaries
c. Kidneys
d. Respiratory tract
45. Columnar epithelium is found in one the following systems;
a. Digestive system
b. Respiratory system
c. Muscular system
d. Skeletal system
46. The squamous epithelium provides inner lining for the following structure except;
a. Blood vessels
b. The stomach
c. Heart
d. Lymphatics
47. Patient with blood group O can only receive blood from:
a. Group AB
b. Group O
c. Group AD
d. Group B
48. High blood pressure as a disease can affect one of the following systems of the body;
a. Respiratory system
b. Skeletal system
c. Cardiovascular system
d. Muscular system
49. Child with haemoglobin less than 7.5% is said to be suffering from:
a. Hemoglobinaemia
b. Excess blood loss
c. Hyperthermia
 d. hypovolaemia
50. Risk factors associated with hypertension may not include one of these:
a. Smoking
b. Noise
c. Stress
d. Lack of exercise.
51. One of the following is a complication of hypertension;
a. Occasional throbbing headache
b. Dysphasia
c. Forgetfulness
d. Stroke
52. The pulse rate of a newborn at birth is:
a. 180 beats/ minutes
b. 100 beats / minutes
c. 90 beats / minute
d. 60 – 80 beats / minutes
53. Deficiency of vitamins B 12 causes:
a. Nutritional anemia
b. Haemorrhagic anemia
c. Permicious anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
54. Universal donors are people with one of the following blood groups
a. AB
b. A
c. B
d. O
55. Vomiting of blood is known as:
a. Hematemesis
b. Haemoptysis
c. Haematuria
d. haematoma
56. Which of these cells does not have nucleus;
a. eosinophil
b. Mature red blood cells
c. Epithelial cells
d. White blood cell
57. Which of these is not sign of shock;
a. Shallow breathing
b. Rapid pulse
c. Weak pulse
d. Clammy skin
58. The following except one are the signs of heart problem in a person.
a. Blueness of the lips and fingers
b. Clubbibng of the fingers
c. Emphysema
d. Rapid breathing
59. Normal range of time for blood to clot outside the body is
a. 11-15 seconds
b. 5-10 seconds
c. 5-25 seconds
d. 1-5 seconds
60. One of the following is a phagocyte;
a. Basophil
b. Eosinophil
c. Neutrophil
d. Lymphocyte
61. Which of the following are the most numerous out of all the blood cells:
a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Platelets
d. eosinophils
62. Which of the following is NOT part of the plasma
 a. Nutrient materials
b. Oxygen
c. Chemical substance
d. Urine
63. The rate of heart beats in a new born at birth is
a. 130 beats per minute
b. 120 beats per minute
c. 80 beats per minute
d. 180 beats per minute
64. The first tooth to erupt in a child is
a. Incisor
b. Premolar
c. Canine
d. Molar
65. Cirrhosis is a condition that commonly affects
a. The liver
b. The heart
c. The spleen
d. The kidney
66. Halitosis is another name for
a. Body odour
b. Bad breath
c. Sweet smell form the mouth
d. Loss of sense of smell
67. Gingivitis is an inflammation of
a. The tongue
b. The tooth
c. Gum
d. Mouth
68. The following are main organs of digestion except
a. Buccal cavity
 b. Liver
c. Stomach
d. intestine
69. The enzyme present in the saliva is:
a. Lipase
b. Amylase
c. Trypsin
d. None of the above
70. One of the following is not part of the of the accessory organs of digestion
a. Pancreas
b. Stomach
c. Salivary glands
d. Liver
71. Periodontal structures include;
a. Alveolar bone
b. Incisor
c. Temporal bone
d. Palate
72. Permanent adult teeth are divided into
a. Incisor, bicuspids, canines, molars
b. Incisor, canines, premolars, molars
c. Incisors, canines, cuspids, molar
73. Primary dentition includes
a. Incisor, canines and molars
b. Incisor, canines, premolars and molars
c. Incisors, patella and mandible
d. Maxilla, mandible and molar
74. Milk teeth consist of:
a. 8 incisors, 4 canines, and 8 molars
b. 8 incisors, 8 canines, 4 molars, 4 premolars
c. 8 incisors, 8 canines, 4 premolars
 d. 4 incisors, 8 canines, and 8 premolars
75. Distal surface of tooth is the surface:
a. Facing the cheek
b. Facing away from the median line
c. Facing the median line
d. Facing the lips
76. Food substance when eaten and absorbed in the body performs the following except
a. Produce energy
b. Promote growth
c. Inflame organs
d. Repair tissues
77. Which of the following adversely affects the children’s teeth
a. Fluoride in water
b. Tetracycline
c. Chloroquine
d. Milk
78. Before it can be absorbed into the blood stream, protein must be broken down into;
a. Amino acids
b. Hydrochloric acid
c. Glycogen
d. Glucose
79. Beri-beri is caused by:
a. Lack of vitamin C
b. Lack of vitamin A
c. Lack of vitamin B
d. Lack of vitamin F
80. The end product of digestion of carbohydrate is:
a. Glucose
b. Amino acid
c. Nitrates
d. Fatty acids and glycerol
81. Night blindness can be prevented by
a. Cassava and egg
b. Yams and beans
c. Cocoyam and pineaplples
d. Palm oil and carrots
82. The tongue is attached to by its base to the hyoid bone by
a. Tonsil
b. Gum
c. Frenulum
d. Palate
83. Nutrients are chemical substances which
a. Provide materials that can promote growth, repair of worn out tissues and
reproduction.
b. Furnish the body with materials from which it can produce heat and energy
supply nd substance that regulate production and reproduction
c. Provide materials for synthesis for vital organs only
d. Aid digestion of food materials.
84. Exclusive breastfeeding means:
a. Giving breast milk only to the baby in the 1st 6 months of life.
b. Giving breast milk to the baby in the 1st 6 weeks of life
c. Giving breast milk to the baby in the 1st 2 years of life.
d. Giving breast milk only to the baby in the 1st 4 years of life.
85. The following are found in the pancreastic juice EXCEPT
a. Amylase
b. Lipase
c. Trypsinogen
d. Ptyalin
86. Colostrum differs from mature milk because it contains\:
a. Less protein than mautre milk
b. Much more immunoglobins and lactofearin
c. Less fat and lactose
 d. More sodium and zine
87. The benefits of breast milk to family and community include EXCEPT:
a. It is cheap, therefore it contributes to food security and family is self-sufficient
b. It prevents problem of empty uterus
c. It helps in the involution of the uterus
d. It makes women play more efficient roles in the community.
88. In correcting marasmus in a child, the mother is encouraged to feed the child with:
a. rice, maize, beans, plantain, groundnut
b. millet, vegetable, beans, fish, fruits
c. beans, yams, rice, meat, carrot
d. rice, pomade, potatoes, vegetable
89. One of the following is not a content of the gastric juice;
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Pepsin
c. Renin
d. Success entericus
90. One of the following is not part of the small intestine:
a. Jejunum
b. Ileum
c. Duodenum
d. Caecum
91. One of the following sentences is not true of Diabetes Mellitus:
a. It is a metabolic disease
b. It is hereditary
c. It does not occur in children
d. It can lead to blindness
92. Which if these is not a symptom of Diabetes Mellitus
a. Excessive thirst
b. Polyuria
c. Weight gain
d. Excessive hunger
93. The hormone that enhances ovarian production of oestrogen during the first half of the
menstrual cycle in the:
a. Growth hormone
b. Follicle stimulating hormone
c. Luteinizing hormone
d. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
94. Growth hormone is produced in one of the following endocrine organs
a. Anterior pituitary gland
b. Posterior pituitary gland
c. Adrenal gland
d. Thymus
95. Another name for antidiuretic hormone is
a. Erythropoietin
b. Vasopressin
c. Growth hormone
d. Oxytoxin
96. Which of the following hormones is produced in the Islets of Langerhans
a. Glucagon
b. Adrenalin
c. Thyroxine
d. Oxytoxin
97. Calcitonin is produced in one of the following endocrine organs:
a. Adrenal gland
b. Thyroid gland
c. Pineal gland
d. thymus
98. Adrenalin is produced by one of the following
a. Adrenal medulla
b. Adrenal cortex
c. Pituitary gland
d. Pineal gland
99. Glucagon is secreted by
a. Alpha cells of Islets of Langerhans
b. Betall cells of Islets of Langerhans
c. Delta cells of Islets of Langerhans
d. Gamma cells of Islets of Langerhans.
100. Melatonin is produced by
a. Adrenal gland
b. Pineal gland
c. Thyroid gland
d. Pituitary gland
101. Erythropoietin is secreted by
a. The liver
b. The kidney
c. The lung
d. The pancreas