MODULE 4 6. Which is not correct for calculating air-standard efficiency?

A. All processes are reversible

1. In a diesel engine fuel is injected: B. Specific heat remains unchanged at all temperatures
A. At the beginning of compression stroke C. No account of the mechanism of heat transfer is considered
B. Before the end of compression stroke D. Gases dissociate at higher temperature
C. At the end of compression stroke
D. After the end of compression stroke Answer: D

Answer: B 7. According to Pettlier Thomson effect

A. Heat can be converted into work
2. A Bell-Coleman cycle is a reversed: B. Work can’t be converted into heat
A. Stirling cycle C. All of the above
B. Brayton cycle D. None of the above
C. Joule cycle
D. Carnot cycle Answer: B

Answer: C 8. What cycle is used in thermal power plant?

A. Brayton
3. Ericson cycle consists of the following four processes: B. Reversed carnot
A. Two isothermals and two constant volume C. Rankine
B. Two isothermals and two constant isentropics D. Carnot
C. Two isothermals and two constant pressure
D. Two adiabatics and two constant pressure Answer: C

Answer: B 9. Substance is flowing in a pipe of 200 mm inside diameter at an average velocity of

3 m/sec. at a given section of the pipe line the pressure is 1.5 MN/m 2 absolute.
4. The constant pressure gas turbine works on the principle of: What is the flow work of 0.5 cubic meter, expressed in joules passing this section?
A. Carnot cycle A. 25000 J
B. Bell-Coleman cycle B. 75000 J
C. Rankine cycle C. 100000 J
D. Brayton cycle D. 1 J

Answer: B Answer: B

5. A steam nozzle changes:

A. Kinetic energy into heat energy
B. Heat energy into potential energy
C. Potential energy into heat energy
10. An insulated 2 kg box falls from a balloon 3.5 km above the earth. The change in
D. Heat energy into kinetic energy
the internal energy of the box after it has hit the earth’s surface will be
Answer: D approximately:
 A. 70000 kJ B. It represents a straight line on pv versus v plot
B. 7 kJ C. It has three roots of identical value at the critical point
C. 68.6 kJ D. The equation is valid for diatomic gases only
D. 0 kJ
Answer: C
Answer: C
16. A passout turbine mostly operates on low pressure in the range:
11. A control volume refers to: A. 10-20 kg/cm2
A. A fixed region in space B. 50-100 kg/cm2
B. A reversible process C. 100-150 kg/cm2
C. An isolated system D. 150-300 kg/cm2
D. A specified mass
Answer: A
Answer: A
17. Rankine cycle efficiency for fixed steam temperature of any volume up to critical
12. Which of the following gas can be measured the lowest temperature? temperature will be maximum for steam pressure of:
A. Nitrogen A. Critical pressure
B. Helium B. 200 kg/cm2
C. Oxygen C. 100 kg/cm2
D. Hydrogen D. 203.5 kg/cm2

Answer: B Answer: A

13. In actual gases the molecular collisions are 18. A Lungstorm turbine is:
A. Plastic A. Reaction turbine
B. Elastic B. Impulse turbine
C. Inelastic C. Outward radial flow turbine
D. Inplastic D. Inward flow impulse turbine

Answer: C Answer: C

14. The Beattie-Bridgeman equation of state is quite accurate in cases of: 19. Dryness factor of steam is:
A. All pressures above atmospheric pressure A. Weight of dry steam/weight of stuff
B. Densities less than about 0.8 times the critical density B. Weight of moisture/weight of dry steam
C. Near critical temperature C. (weight of stuff-weight of moisture)/weight of stuff
D. None of the above D. All of the above

Answer: B Answer: A

15. Which of the following statements about Van der Waals equation is correct? 20. Centrifugal blowers can supply:
A. It is valid for all pressure and temperature A. Large volume of air at low pressures
 B. Small volumes of air at high pressures B. Variable pressures
C. Large volumes of air at high pressures C. Compound pressures
D. Small volumes of air at low pressures D. Positive and negative pressures

Answer: A Answer: D

21. For gas turbines compressors generally used are of: 26. In a condensing steam engine:
A. Lobe type A. Condensed steam is supplied
B. Centrifugal type B. Steam condenses inside cylinder
C. Axial flow type C. Steam condenses as soon as it leaves the cylinder
D. Reciprocating type D. Exhaust steam is condensed in the condenser

Answer: C Answer: D

22. Select the one that is a safety device on a compressor: 27. The performance of a reciprocating compressor can be expressed by:
A. relief valve A. Isothermal work/indicated work
B. strainer B. Adiabatic work/indicated work
C. over speed shut down C. Isothermal work/adiabatic work
D. over pressure shut down D. Adiabatic work/adiabatic input

Answer: B Answer: A

23. In a four stage compressor system first and third pressure are 1 and 9 kg/cm 2 28. Compression ratio in engine is:
respectively. What will be the fourth stage delivery pressure? A. Discharge pressure/suction pressure
A. 9 kg/cm2 B. Stroke volume/clearance volume
B. 81 kg/cm2 C. Stroke volume/(stroke volume+clearance volume)
C. 27 kg/cm2 D. (stroke volume+clearance volume)/stroke volume
D. 243 kg/cm2
Answer: B
Answer: C
29. Stoichiometric ratio is:
24. Generally steam turbines in power station operate at: A. Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by volume
A. 3000 rpm B. Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by weight
B. 1000 rpm C. Theoretical mixture of air for complete combustion
C. 4000 rpm D. Actual ratio of air to fuel for maximum efficiency
D. 500 rpm
Answer: B
Answer: A

25. A compound pressure gauge is used to measure:

A. Complex pressures 30. Hot spots are:
 A. Do not exist in engines A. Increased
B. The hottest spots in engines B. Decreased
C. The spots where heavier functions of fuel are vaporized C. Independent of compression ratio
D. Hottest point within the engine cylinder D. Depends on other factors

Answer: C Answer: A

31. Flash point for diesel fuel oil should be: 36. During idling in a compression ignition the air fuel ratio may be of the order of:
A. Minimum 49 C A. 30
B. Maximum 49 C B. 200
C. Maximum 200 C C. 150
D. Maximum 300 C D. 100

Answer: A Answer: A

32. A regenerator in a gas turbine 37. Vapour lock is:

A. Reduces heat loss during exhaust A. Lock of vaporization of fuel to atmospheric pressure
B. Allows use of higher compression ratio B. Excess fuel supply to engine because of faster evaporation
C. Improves thermal efficiency C. Complete or partial stoppage of fuel supply because of vaporization of
D. Allows use of fuels of inferior quality fuel in supply steam
D. Locking carburetor jets because of vapour pressure
Answer: C
Answer: C
33. Morse test is conducted on:
A. Single cylinder engines 38. Flash point of a liquid is the temperature at which:
B. Multi cylinder engines A. The fuel emits the vapors at a rate which produces an inflammable
C. VEE engines mixture with air
D. Vertical engines B. The fuel spontaneously ignites
C. The fuel ignites with clearly visible flash
Answer: B D. The fuel ignites without a spark

34. Prony break is used for testing of: Answer: A

A. Small engines
B. Large engines 39. Volumetric efficiency of a well designed engine may be in the range:
C. Engines having small flywheel A. 75 to 90 %
D. High speed engines B. 60 to 75 %
C. 30 to 50 %
Answer: A D. Below 30 %

35. The mean effective pressure of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio will Answer: A
increase if cut off ratio is:
40. Scavenging efficiency of a four-stroke diesel engine is: A. Volumetric analysis of the flue gases
A. 80-90% B. Gravimetric analysis of the flue gases
B. 60-80% C. Smoke density analysis of the flue gases
C. Below 60% D. All of the above
D. 100-95%
Answer: A
Answer: D
45. Piston rings are made of:
41. The thermal efficiency of a dual cycle engine with fixed compression ratio and A. Alloy steel
fixed quantity of heat and with increase in pressure ratio, will: B. Carbon steel
A. Increase C. Copper
B. Remain the same D. Cast iron
C. Decrease
D. Depends on other factors Answer: D

Answer: A 46. Total on solid impurities in feed water for a boiler depend upon:
A. Boiler pressure
42. Loss of power is due to: B. Quantity of steam to be generated
A. Poor compression C. Type of fuel available
B. Restricted exhaust D. Quantity of steam
C. Clogging of air cleaner
D. Low injection pressure Answer: A

Answer: D 47. Tidal power is the power generated from;

A. Waves of the ocean
43. Detonation of pinging noise is due to: B. Rise and fall of tides
A. Early timing of fuel injection C. Thermal energy of ocean water
B. Late timing of fuel injection D. Raw sea water
C. Head of piston carbonized
D. Valve springs weak or broken Answer: B

Answer: B 48. Load curve refers to the plot of:

A. Load versus generating capacity
B. Load versus current
C. Load versus time
D. Load versus cost of power

Answer: C

44. An orsat apparatus is used for:

49. In power station practice “spinning reserve” is: 54. In a four stroke engine if a valve opens 25C before bottom dead center and closes
A. Reserve generating capacity that is in operation but not in service 10C after top dead center, the valve should be:
B. Reserve generating capacity that is connected to the bus and ready to A. Puppet valve
take load B. Exhaust valve
C. Reserve generating capacity that is available for service but not in C. Inlet valve
operation D. Spring valve
D. Capacity of the part of plant that remains under maintenance
Answer: B
Answer: B
55. In a vapour compression cycle the lowest temperature is found in:
50. On which factor bursting pressure of boiler does not depend? A. Receiver
A. Tensile strength of the shell B. Condenser
B. Thickness of the shell C. Expansion valve
C. Diameter of the shell D. Evaporator
D. Shear strength of the shell
Answer: D
Answer: D
56. The moisture in the refrigeration system can be removed with the help of:
51. On which does the working pressure of a boiler does not depend? A. Driers
A. Tensile strength of the shell B. Evaporators
B. Thickness of shell C. Dehumidifiers
C. Factor of safety D. Coolers
D. Type of fuel being fired
Answer: A
Answer: D
57. Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing point temperature?
52. Sticking valves: A. Freon 12
A. Valve tappet clearance incorrect B. Ammonia
B. Valve springs of defective material C. Freon 22
C. Valve guides gummed D. Freon 11
D. Lubricating oil of poor quality
Answer: C
Answer: B
58. During compression in a vapour compression cycle when the refrigerant is
53. Total sulphur content in a diesel fuel oil must not exceed: superheated.
A. 0.1% A. COP is reduced
B. 0.5% B. COP remains unchanged
C. 0.2% C. Work done is increased
D. 0.15% D. Refrigerating effect is reduced

Answer: B Answer: A
59. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is given by: 64. Horsepower per ton of refrigeration is expressed as:
A. COP = Input / Output A. 4.75/COP
B. COP = Work spent to cause the refrigerating effect over Desired B. 4.75 x COP
refrigerating effect C. COP/4.75
C. COP = Desired refrigerating effect over work spent to cause the D. 4.75 x COP x 2
refrigerating effect
D. COP = Net refrigerating cycle over ideal refrigerating cycle Answer: C

Answer: C 65. The highest temperature in vapour compression cycle is produced during:
A. condenser discharge
60. A Bell-Coleman cycle is; B. expansion valve
A. reversed Otto cycle C. evaporator
B. reversed Joule cycle D. compressor discharge
C. reversed Rankine cycle
D. reversed Carnot cycle Answer: D

Answer: B 66. Which type of compressor is used in the refrigeration system?

A. Reciprocating
61. Critical temperature is that temperature above which: B. Centrifugal
A. A gas will never liquefy C. Rotary Sliding vane
B. A gas gets immediately liquefy D. all of the above
C. Water gets evaporated
D. Water will never evaporate Answer: D

Answer: A 67. A thermometer in vapour compression system is installed in the main line close to
the compressor:
62. Rating of domestic refrigerator is of the order of: A. Because it helps the operator in adjusting compressor for greatest
A. 0.1 ton efficiency
B. 50 tons B. Because temperature indicates whether liquid or vapour refrigerant is
C. 100 tons going to compressor
D. 4 tons C. All of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Answer: A
63. The COP of a domestic refrigerator is:
A. less than 1
B. more than 1
C. equal to 1
D. depend upon the make of it

Answer: B
68. Which refrigerant has highest critical point temperature? 73. For a heat pump cycle that operates between the condenser temperature of 27 oC
A. Ammonia and evaporator temperature of -23oC, the Carnot COP will be equal to:
B. Freon 11 A. 0.5
C. Freon 12 B. 1.5
D. Freon 22 C. 5
D. 6
Answer: B
Answer: D
69. A Carnot refrigerator extracts 100 kcal of heat per minute from a cold room
which is maintained at 15C and it is discharged to atmosphere 30C. the 74. The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon can be detected by:
horsepower needed to run the unit would be: A. halide torch which on detection forms greenish flame lighting
A. 1 to 1.5 B. sulphur sticks which on detection from white smoke
B. 1.5 to 2 C. using certain reagents
C. 2 to 2.5 D. smelling
D. 5.5 to 6
Answer: A
Answer: B
75. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle plotted on pressure-enthalpy
70. White ice is: diagram represents:
A. fast cooled water A. compression of the refrigerant vapour
B. sub cooled water B. evaporation of the refrigerant liquid
C. due to dissolved air, gases and impurities C. condensation of the refrigerant vapour
D. formed by blowing air during freezing D. metering of the refrigerant liquid

Answer: C Answer: B

71. Clear ice: 76. Select the one in which secondary refrigerant is used:
A. Is pure ice a. Domestic refrigerator
B. Contains dissolved gases b. Room air conditioner
C. Contains dissolved air c. Deep freezer
D. Is formed by blowing air during freezing d. Ice plant

Answer: D Answer: D

72. Dry ice is: 77. The secondary refrigerant used in milk chilling plant is generally
A. free from water A. Brine
B. free from dissolved air or gases B. Ammonia solution
C. does not contain impurities C. Glycol
D. solidified form of carbon dioxide D. Sodium silicate

Answer: D Answer: C
78. A refrigerant cycle is generally a/an: 83. Which refrigerant is used for the air – conditioning of passenger air craft cabin?
A. Open cycle A. Ammonia
B. Closed cycle B. Freon 12
C. Mixed cycle C. Freon 11
D. Hybrid cycle D. Air

Answer: B Answer: D

79. Refrigerant no. R – 717 is: 84. Oil separator in a refrigeration cycle is installed between the:
A. Ammonia A. Compressor and condenser
B. Freon 22 B. Condenser and evaporator
C. Freon 12 C. Metering device and evaporator
D. Methyl chloride D. Evaporator and compressor

Answer: A Answer: A

80. In which part of the vapour compression cycle there is abrupt change in pressure 85. A flash chamber in installed in the refrigeration circuit as so to:
and temperature: A. Improve overall heat transfer coefficient
A. Solenoid valve B. Reduce pressure losses through the evaporator
B. Evaporator valve C. Reduce the size of evaporator by avoiding vapors going to evaporator
C. Expansion valve D. All of the above
D. Drier
Answer: D
Answer: C
86. In case during air conditioning of a space the sensible heat added as 100 kcal/sec
81. A plate or vane used to direct or control movement of fluid or air within the and latent heat added is 50 kcal/sec, then the sensible heat factor is given by:
confined area is called: A. 0.255
A. Baffle B. 0.333
B. Bellows C. 0.500
C. Regulator D. 0.670
D. Diffuser
Answer: D
Answer: A
87. The psychrometric chart in air conditioning determines the
82. Brazing is used for joining two: A. Wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures
A. Two ferrous metal B. Psychrometric temperature requirements
B. One ferrous and non – ferrous material C. Saturation temperature and relative humidity
C. Two non – ferrous materials D. Moist air condition
D. Two non – metals
Answer: D
Answer: C
88. The color of the flame of halide torch, in case of leakage of Freon refrigerant will 93. In sensible heating cooling, following parameter remains unchanged:
change to: A. Dry bulb temperature
A. Yellow B. Wet bulb temperature
B. Red C. Relative humidity
C. Green D. Humidity ratio
D. Orange
Answer: D
Answer: C
94. Boiling temperature of Freon 12 is:
89. The drift loss in cooling towers is about: A. – 33.33 C
A. 1 % only B. – 78.5 C
B. 12 to 15 % C. – 29.8 C
C. 10 to 20 % D. – 40 C
D. 30 to 40 %
Answer: C
Answer: C
95. Boiling temperature of Freon 22 is:
90. Cooling towers are used for cooling water: A. – 33.33 C
A. To be injected in circulating air B. – 78.5 C
B. To be used for humidification C. – 29.8 C
C. To be used for filtration of air D. – 40 C
D. To be used for cooling the compressor
Answer: D
Answer: D
96. The following gas is preferred in refrigeration system:
91. By which of the following processes heat mainly dissipates in cooling towers? A. Freon 11
A. Conduction B. Freon 12
B. Convection C. CO2
C. Radiation D. NH3
D. Evaporation
Answer: B
Answer: D
97. In a hot wire anemometer the rate loss from sensing element is a function of:
92. Which one is commonly used liquid absorbent? A. Mass rate of flow
A. Silica gel B. Pressure
B. Activated alumina C. Velocity of flow
C. Ethylene glycol D. All of the above
D. Any one of the above
Answer: C
Answer: C
98. Curtis turbine is:
A. An impulse turbine
B. A pressure compounded turbine
C. A velocity compounded turbine
D. A velocity pressure compounded turbine

Answer: D

99. Which one is a displacement compressor?

A. Reciprocating compressor
B. Vane blower
C. Centrifugal blower
D. Axial flow compressor

Answer: B

100.Choking is:
A. Change of mass flow rate in proportion to pressure ratio
B. Change of mass flow rate in inverse proportion to pressure ratio
C. Fixed mass flow rate irrespective of pressure ratio
D. All of the above

Answer: C