Porattam LSGS Test Series Full Length Test 4- Paper I

ANSWER KEY
1.Consider the following statements with reference to the United Indian Patriotic
Association:

I. It was founded by C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu.

II. It supplemented the objective of the Indian National Congress for constitutional
reform in the late 19th century.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) Only I

B) Only II

C) Both I and II

D) Neither I nor II

Answer: D

Explanation:

Let's examine each statement:

I. This statement is incorrect. The United Indian Patriotic Association was not
founded by C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj, and Veeresalingam Pantulu. It was
actually founded by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan in 1888.

II. This statement is incorrect. Opposed to the Indian National Congress, the group
aimed to develop close ties between the Muslim community and the British Raj and
foster Hindu-Muslim unity.

Correct Answer

The correct answer is Option D: Neither I nor II.

2.Match list – I with list – II and select the correct answer with the help of the code
given below :

List – I (Author)

a. C. V. Raman Pillai
b. Katancherry Namboothir

c. Sheikh Zainuddin

d. Ramapurathu Warrier

List – II (Work)

i. Kuchelavritham

ii. Rama Raja Bahadur

iii. Tuhfatul Mujahideen

iv. Mamankam kilippattu

A) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

B) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

C) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i

D) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

Answer: C

Explanation:

Analysis of Authors and Works:

1. C. V. Raman Pillai is a renowned Malayalam novelist known for historical

novels, particularly "Rama Raja Bahadur" which depicts the history of
Travancore.

2. Katancherry Namboothiri wrote "Mamankam Kilippattu," describing the

famous Mamankam festival of Thirunavaya.

3. Sheikh Zainuddin authored "Tuhfatul Mujahideen," a historical work in

Arabic about the Portuguese activities in Malabar.

4. Ramapurathu Warrier is famous for "Kuchelavritham Vanchipattu," a

classical Malayalam poem.

Correct Answer: Option 3 (a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i)

3.Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. The Expedition of the Thousand led by Garibaldi resulted in the capture of Sicily
and Naples.

II. The First War of Italian Independence was a decisive victory for the Italian states.

III. The Second War of Italian Independence resulted in the annexation of Lombardy
to the Kingdom of Sardinia.

A) Only Statement I is true

B) Statements I and II are true

C) Only Statement III is true

D) Statements I and III are true

Answer: D

Explanation:

Let's examine each statement:

I. The Expedition of the Thousand led by Garibaldi resulted in the capture of Sicily and
Naples. This statement is correct. In 1860, Giuseppe Garibaldi led a group of
volunteers known as the "Thousand" to Sicily and Naples, successfully conquering
these regions for the cause of Italian unification.

II. The First War of Italian Independence was a decisive victory for the Italian states.
This statement is incorrect. The First War of Italian Independence (1848-1849) ended
in defeat for the Italian states against Austria. It did not result in significant territorial
gains or unification progress.

III. The Second War of Italian Independence resulted in the annexation of Lombardy
to the Kingdom of Sardinia. This statement is correct. The war, fought in 1859, led
to the defeat of Austria and the annexation of Lombardy to the Kingdom of Sardinia,
a crucial step in the unification process.

Correct Answer

Option 4: Statements I and III are true.

4.Consider the following leaders:

1. Taraknath Das

2. Lala Hardayal

3. Kartar Singh Sarabha

4. Rash Behari Bose

How many of the above leaders were related to the Ghadar movement?

A) 1, 2 and 4

B) 1 and 4

C) 2 and 3

D) 1, 2,3 and 4

Answer: D

Explanation:

Correct Answer

The correct answer is Option 4: All four leaders - Taraknath Das, Lala Hardayal,
Kartar Singh Sarabha, and Rash Behari Bose - were associated with the Ghadar
movement.

5.Identify the ruler of Travancore from the following description

1. The regime saw the abolition of monopoly of pepper and tobacco.

2. Varkala tunnels were constructed and opened.

3. The 1st systematic census of Travancore taken

4. The ‘Janmi-Kudiyan Proclamation’ of Travancore was issued.

A) Ayilyam Thirunal

B) Utradam Tirunal

C) Visakham Tirunal

D) Sri Mulam Tirunal

Answer: A
 Explanation:

Let's analyze each ruler and their contributions to Travancore:

Ayilyam Thirunal (1860-1880): During his reign, several significant reforms were
implemented. The state monopoly over pepper and tobacco trade was abolished,
making trade more accessible to merchants. The Varkala tunnel construction was
completed in 1867, which was a major engineering achievement. The first systematic
census of Travancore was conducted in 1875, providing valuable demographic data.

Utradam Tirunal (1847-1860): While he implemented some reforms, the mentioned

achievements don't align with his period. His reign preceded these developments.

Visakham Tirunal (1880-1885): Though he was a progressive ruler known for

educational reforms; these specific achievements weren't during his time.

Sri Mulam Tirunal (1885-1924): While he issued several important proclamations,

including land reforms, the specific events mentioned occurred before his reign.

Correct Answer: Ayilyam Thirunal

Ayilyam Thirunal is the correct answer as all the mentioned developments occurred
during his reign (1860-1880).

6.Facts relating to Abhinava Bharat Yuvak Sangham

i. A.V. Kunhambu, the founder, was inspired by revolutionaries during his

imprisonment in the Civil Disobedience Movement.

ii. The Sangham was instrumental in mobilising rural youth and peasantry in the
freedom struggle against British imperialism.

iii. During 1935-36, the Sangham became a centre for propaganda among the
peasantry by conducting meetings and discussions on political situations.

iv. The Sangham organised jathas of youth to influence landlords to meet the
demands of the peasants.

A) i, ii, iii are correct

B) i, ii, iii, iv are correct

C) iii and iv are correct

D) i and ii are correct

Answer: B

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement about Abhinava Bharat Yuvak Sangham:

Statement i: A.V. Kunhambu was indeed inspired by revolutionaries during his

imprisonment during the Civil Disobedience Movement. This led him to establish the
Sangham, making this statement true.

Statement ii: The Sangham played a crucial role in mobilizing rural youth and
peasants in the freedom struggle. It was particularly active in the Malabar region and
successfully brought together young people from rural areas, making this statement
accurate.

Statement iii: During 1935-36, the organization conducted numerous meetings and
discussions focusing on political situations, effectively spreading awareness among
the peasantry. This statement is historically accurate.

Statement iv: The Sangham did organize youth jathas to influence landlords
regarding peasants' demands. This was one of their key strategies to address
agrarian issues in the region.

Correct Answer: Option 2

Option 2 is correct as all four statements (i, ii, iii, and iv) are accurate regarding the
Abhinava Bharat Yuvak Sangham. The organization was a significant force in the
pre-independence political movements of Kerala, particularly in Malabar. Under A.V.
Kunhambu's leadership, it combined nationalist aspirations with peasant
mobilization, making it unique among contemporary organizations. The Sangham's
activities were multifaceted - from political awareness campaigns to direct action
through youth jathas, all aimed at addressing both national independence and local
agrarian issues. Its work during 1935-36 was particularly notable for strengthening
the peasant movement in Malabar.

7.Consider the following statements about the Mahila Rashtriya Sangh (Women's
National Association):

1. It was founded by Sarala Devi Chaudhurani in Bengal in 1910.

2. The organization aimed to provide military training to women.

3. It promoted Swadeshi goods and nationalist ideologies.

4. It was directly affiliated with the Indian National Congress.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A) Only one

B) Only two

C) Only three

D) All four

Answer: B

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement about the Mahila Rashtriya Sangh:

Statement 1: True - Sarala Devi Chaudhurani, niece of Rabindranath Tagore, did

establish the Mahila Rashtriya Sangh in Bengal in 1910. This was one of the earliest
women's organizations with nationalist objectives.

Statement 2: False - While the organization focused on women's empowerment and

nationalist activities, it did not provide military training to women. The organization
primarily focused on social and cultural activities, promoting self-reliance and
nationalist consciousness among women.

Statement 3: True - The Mahila Rashtriya Sangh was actively involved in promoting
Swadeshi goods and spreading nationalist ideologies among women. They organized
exhibitions, meetings, and cultural programs to promote indigenous products and
nationalist values.

Statement 4: False - Though the organization supported the nationalist movement,

it was not directly affiliated with the Indian National Congress. It maintained its
independent identity while working towards similar nationalist goals.

Correct Answer: Option 2 (Only two)

Only statements 1 and 3 are correct, making two statements true. The Mahila
Rashtriya Sangh was indeed founded by Sarala Devi Chaudhurani in Bengal in 1910,
and it actively promoted Swadeshi goods and nationalist ideologies. However, it did
not provide military training to women, and it wasn't directly affiliated with the Indian
National Congress. The organization played a significant role in mobilizing women
for the nationalist cause through cultural and social activities, rather than through
 military training. It maintained its autonomous status while working parallel to other
nationalist organizations of the time.

8.With reference to the proposals of the Wavell Plan, consider the following statements:

1. Caste Hindus and Muslims were to have equal representation.

2. The Governor-general cannot exercise his veto on the advice of ministers.

3. All members of the executive council were to be Indians.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) Only one

B) Only two

C) All three

D) None

Answer: A

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement about the Wavell Plan of 1945:

Statement 1: Caste Hindus and Muslims were to have equal representation - This
is CORRECT. The Wavell Plan proposed parity between Caste Hindus and Muslims
in the Executive Council, with each group getting equal number of seats.

Statement 2: The Governor-general cannot exercise his veto on the advice of

ministers - This is INCORRECT. Under the Wavell Plan, the Governor-General
retained his veto power and could override the decisions of ministers. This was one
of the major points of contention among Indian leaders.

Statement 3: All members of the executive council were to be Indians - This is

INCORRECT. While the plan proposed increasing Indian representation, it still
maintained some British representation. The Commander-in-Chief would remain
British and would be a member of the council.

Correct Answer: Option 1 (Only one)

Only Statement 1 is correct among the given statements. The Wavell Plan,
announced in June 1945, was a significant attempt to break the political deadlock
in India. Its key features included:
 • Equal representation for Caste Hindus and Muslims in the Executive Council

• Retention of the Governor-General's veto powers

• Mixed composition of the Executive Council with both Indian and British
members

• The Commander-in-Chief would continue to be British

The plan ultimately failed due to disagreements over the selection of Muslim
representatives and Congress's opposition to the principle of parity between Caste
Hindus and Muslims.

9.Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Latin American revolutions were primarily driven by the desire to maintain
colonial ties with Spain.

2. Miguel Hidalgo is known for initiating the Mexican War of Independence.

3. The Latin American revolutions resulted in the immediate establishment of stable

democracies.

A) Only Statement 2 is true

B) Statements 1 and 3 are true

C) Only Statement 1 is true

D) 1, 2, and 3 statements are false

Answer: A

Explanation:

Let's examine each statement:

1. This statement is false. The Latin American revolutions were primarily driven
by a desire for independence from Spain, not to maintain colonial ties.

2. This statement is true. Miguel Hidalgo, a Catholic priest, is indeed known for
initiating the Mexican War of Independence with his famous "Grito de Dolores"
(Cry of Dolores) in 1810.
 3. This statement is false. While the revolutions led to independence, they did
not result in immediate stable democracies. Many countries experienced
periods of instability and authoritarian rule following independence.

Correct Answer

Option 1: Only Statement 2 is true. Miguel Hidalgo's role in initiating the Mexican
War of Independence is accurately stated. The other two statements are incorrect, as
the revolutions sought independence from Spain, not to maintain ties, and they did
not immediately result in stable democracies.

10.Which of the following statements are wrong based on the Malabar rebellion of 1921?

1 The Battle of Pookottur was a major event that took place as part of the Malabar
Rebellion.

2 The British appointed the Logan commission to investigate the reasons for the
Malabar rebellion.

3 Uroob wrote the novel 'Sundarikalum Sundaranmarum' based on the Malabar

Rebellion

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) 3 only

D) 1 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Let's examine each statement:

1. The Battle of Pookottur was indeed a major event during the Malabar Rebellion
of 1921. This statement is correct.

2. The Logan Commission was not appointed to investigate the Malabar

Rebellion of 1921. It was actually established in 1881 to study the land
tenancy system in Malabar. This statement is incorrect.

3. Uroob (P.C. Kuttikrishnan) did write the novel 'Sundarikalum

Sundaranmarum' based on the Malabar Rebellion. This statement is correct.
 Correct Answer

The correct answer is Option 2: "2 only".

More Information

AR Nape Commission appointed to inquire into Wagon Tragedy.

11. Match the Following:

Unit Use

a. Dobson Unit i. to represent the stochastic health risk of ionizing radiation

b. Sieverts ii. to measure the thickness of the ozone layer

c. Beaufort Scale iiii. Empirical measure that relates wind speed to observed conditions
at sea or land

d. Albedo iv. measure of the reflectivity of the earth’s surface

A) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

B) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

C) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

D) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

Answer: A

Explanation:

Here's the explanation for the matching question: Let's analyze each unit and its
corresponding use:

Dobson Unit (DU): This is specifically designed to measure the thickness of the ozone
layer in Earth's atmosphere. One Dobson Unit represents a layer of ozone that would
be 0.01 mm thick under standard temperature and pressure.
 Sievert (Sv): This is the SI unit used to measure the health effect of ionizing radiation
on the human body. It's commonly used in radiation protection and safety
measurements.

Beaufort Scale: Developed by Francis Beaufort in 1805, this empirical measurement

system relates wind speed to observed conditions at sea or on land, ranging from 0
(calm) to 12 (hurricane force).

Albedo: This is a measure of the reflectivity of a surface, expressed as the ratio of

reflected radiation to incident radiation. It ranges from 0 (complete absorption) to 1
(complete reflection).

Correct Answer

Option 1: a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv is the correct answer because: - Dobson Unit (a) correctly
matches with measuring ozone layer thickness (ii) - Sieverts (b) correctly matches
with measuring radiation health risk (i) - Beaufort Scale (c) correctly matches with
wind speed measurement (iii) - Albedo (d) correctly matches with surface reflectivity
measurement (iv) All other options have incorrect pairings that don't align with the
scientific definitions and uses of these units. This matching represents the standard
scientific applications of these measurement units in atmospheric and
environmental science.

12.Which one of the following statements is not true?

A) Amphan is the first super cyclonic storm in the Bay of Bengal since 1999 and is
also featured as the costliest cyclone ever recorded in the basin.

B) Tauktae is the extremely severe cyclonic storm in the Arabian Sea that took
landfall in the Indian state of Gujarat.

C) Remal was the first depression and the first cyclonic storm of 2024 which
affected Maharashtra and Odisha.

D) Mocha was a powerful and deadly tropical cyclone in the North Indian Ocean
which affected Myanmar and parts of Bangladesh in May 2023.

Answer: C Explanation:

Let's examine each option:

 Option 1: This statement is true. Cyclone Amphan was indeed the first super cyclonic
storm in the Bay of Bengal since 1999 and was recorded as the costliest cyclone in
the basin.

Option 2: This statement is correct. Cyclone Tauktae was an extremely severe

cyclonic storm that made landfall in Gujarat in May 2021.

Option 3: This statement is false. Remal was not the first depression or cyclonic
storm of 2024, nor did it affect Maharashtra and Odisha. This option contains
incorrect information.

Option 4: This statement is accurate. Cyclone Mocha was a powerful tropical cyclone
that affected Myanmar and parts of Bangladesh in May 2023.

Correct Answer

The correct answer is Option 3.

13.Consider the following statements :

1) The Indian climate is characterised by the complete reversal of the wind system
with the change of season in a year.

2) The Tibetan plateau is warmed during the summer months, due to which an area
of high pressure is created.

3) During the positive phase of the Indian Ocean Dipole, the western part of the
Indian Ocean, near the African coast, becomes colder compared to the eastern
Indian Ocean.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 and 3

D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:

 1. This statement is correct. The Indian climate is indeed characterized by a
complete reversal of wind systems with seasonal changes, known as the
monsoon system.

2. This statement is incorrect. During summer, the Tibetan plateau gets heated
up, creating an area of low pressure, not high pressure. This low pressure
draws in moisture-laden winds from the Indian Ocean.

3. This statement is incorrect. During the positive phase of the Indian Ocean
Dipole (IOD), the western part of the Indian Ocean becomes warmer, while the
eastern part near Indonesia becomes cooler

Correct Answer

The correct answer is Option 3: 2 and 3.

14. ’Operation Belur Mekhna’ was recently introduced in which among the following
districts of Kerala?

A) Idukki

B) Pathanamthitta

C) Wayanad

D) Palakkad

Answer: C Explanation:

Correct Answer: Wayanad

Operation Belur Mekhna was introduced in Wayanad district as a joint initiative

between Kerala and Karnataka forest departments. The operation aims to monitor
and manage elephant movements through the Belur Mekhna corridor, which
connects the forests of both states. This region serves as a crucial elephant passage,
and the operation was designed to reduce human-elephant conflicts in the area. The
initiative includes: - Regular monitoring of elephant movements - Early warning
systems for local communities - Coordinated efforts between both state forest
departments - Implementation of preventive measures to reduce crop damage This
operation is particularly significant as Wayanad shares borders with both Karnataka
and Tamil Nadu, making it a critical area for wildlife movement and conservation
efforts.
15.Arrange the following greenhouse gases according to the global warming potential
in increasing order.

1) Nitrous oxide

2)Sulfur hexafluoride

3)Carbon dioxide

4) Methane

A) 3412

B) 3214

C) 1342

D) 4132

Answer: A

Explanation:

The global warming potential (GWP) of greenhouse gases over a 100-year period can
be arranged in increasing order as follows:

Carbon dioxide (CO₂): GWP of 1

Methane (CH₄): GWP of approximately 27-30

Nitrous oxide (N₂O): GWP of approximately 273

Sulfur hexafluoride (SF₆): GWP of approximately 23,50012

So, the correct order is: 3, 4, 1, 2.

16.Consider the following statements:

1) The world's first Genetically Modified (GM) rubber plant developed by Rubber
Research Institute was planted in West Bengal.

2) Rubber Board is headquartered at Kottayam under the administration of the

Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.

3) The GM rubber has additional copies of the gene MnSOD, or manganese-containing

superoxide dismutase, which is expected to tide over the severe cold conditions.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?

 A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 and 3

D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:

1) This statement is incorrect. The world's first GM rubber plant was actually planted
in Assam, not West Bengal.

2) This statement is incorrect. The Rubber Board is indeed headquartered in

Kottayam, but it falls under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the
Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.

3) This statement is correct. The GM rubber plant does contain additional copies of
the MnSOD gene, which is expected to help it withstand cold conditions.

Correct Answer

The correct answer is Option 1: 1 and 2.

More Information

The world's first GM rubber plant was developed by the Rubber Research Institute
of India (RRII) and was planted at the institute's Sarutari research farm in Guwahati,
Assam, in June 2021. This genetically modified rubber plant is designed to thrive in
the diverse agro-climatic conditions of Northeast India, potentially expanding rubber
cultivation to non-traditional areas. The additional MnSOD gene is expected to
protect the plant from environmental stresses, particularly the cold conditions
prevalent in this region.

17. Which of the following best describes the Walker Circulation?

A) A north-south atmospheric circulation pattern over the equator.

B) An east-west atmospheric circulation pattern over the tropical Pacific Ocean.

C) A vertical circulation pattern in the atmosphere over the Indian Ocean.

 D) A circulation pattern that only occurs during El Niño events.

Answer: B Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 2

The Walker Circulation is an east-west atmospheric circulation pattern over the

tropical Pacific Ocean. Named after Gilbert Walker, this circulation pattern is
characterized by air rising over the western Pacific warm pool near Indonesia, moving
eastward at high altitudes, descending over the eastern Pacific cold waters, and
returning westward near the surface. This circulation pattern is crucial for
understanding tropical weather patterns and climate phenomena like El Niño-
Southern Oscillation (ENSO). During normal conditions, it creates a pressure
gradient that drives the trade winds across the Pacific, maintaining the temperature
contrast between the eastern and western Pacific. When this circulation weakens, it
can lead to El Niño conditions, affecting global weather patterns.

18. Consider the following pairs:

1) Solapur Chaddar - Maharashtra

2) Pattachitra - Jharkhand

3) Pochampalli Ikat - Tamil Nadu

4)Bidriware - Karnataka

How many of the above is/are correct ?

A) Only 1 pair

B) Only 2 pairs

C) Only 3 pairs

D) All four pairs

Answer: B

Explanation:

Let's examine each pair:

1. Solapur Chaddar - Maharashtra: This is correct. Solapur in Maharashtra is

famous for its cotton chaddar (blanket).
 2. Pattachitra - Jharkhand: This is incorrect. Pattachitra is a traditional painting
style from Odisha and West Bengal, not Jharkhand.

3. Pochampalli Ikat - Tamil Nadu: This is incorrect. Pochampalli Ikat is a textile

art from Telangana, not Tamil Nadu.

4. Bidriware - Karnataka: This is correct. Bidriware is a metal handicraft that

originated in Bidar, Karnataka.

Based on this analysis, we can see that only two pairs (1 and 4) are correct.

Correct Answer

Option 2: Only 2 pairs are correct.

19.Consider the following statements on biosphere reserves of India:

1) The Nilgiri sub-cluster includes the Mudumalai, Mukurthi, Nagarhole, Bandipur

and Silent Valley national parks

2) Pachmarhi BR lies in the centre of the Aravalli - Vindhya Range

3) Agasthyamala reserve is home to Kani tribes

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 and 3

D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:

Statement 1: The Nilgiri Sub-Cluster is indeed composed of Mudumalai, Mukurthi,

Nagarhole, Bandipur, and Silent Valley national parks, along with other protected
areas. This forms part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and is correct.

Statement 2: This is incorrect. Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve lies in Madhya

Pradesh's Satpura Range, not in the Aravalli-Vindhya Range. It encompasses three
protected areas: Satpura National Park, Bori Sanctuary, and Pachmarhi Sanctuary.
 Statement 3: This statement is correct. Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve, located in
the Western Ghats of Kerala and Tamil Nadu, is home to the Kani tribes, who are
known for their traditional knowledge of medicinal plants and sustainable living
practices.

Correct Answer: Option 2 (1 and 3)

The correct answer is Option 2 because only statements 1 and 3 are accurate.

20.Which satellite is part of the European Space Agency’s Copernicus program and
provides multispectral imaging for land and ocean monitoring?

A) Landsat 8

B) Sentinel-2

C) Terra

D) Gaofen-12

Answer: B

Explanation:

Let's analyze each satellite option:

Landsat 8: This is an American Earth observation satellite launched in 2013 as part

of NASA/USGS Landsat program. While it provides multispectral imaging, it's not
part of the European Copernicus program.

Sentinel-2: This is indeed part of the European Space Agency's Copernicus program.
It consists of two identical satellites (Sentinel-2A and Sentinel-2B) that provide high-
resolution multispectral imaging for land and ocean monitoring.

Terra: This is NASA's flagship Earth observation satellite launched in 1999. While it
carries important instruments for Earth observation, it's not associated with the
European Copernicus program.

Gaofen-12: This is a Chinese high-resolution Earth observation satellite, part of the

China High-resolution Earth Observation System (CHEOS). It's not related to the
European Copernicus program.

Correct Answer: Option 2 (Sentinel-2)

 Sentinel-2 is the correct answer because it is specifically designed as part of the
European Space Agency's Copernicus program. The Sentinel-2 mission comprises
twin satellites that orbit 180° apart, providing high-resolution multispectral images
of Earth's surface every 5 days at the equator. The satellites carry an innovative wide-
swath high-resolution multispectral imager (MSI) with 13 spectral bands, making
them particularly effective for:

• Land cover/change detection

• Agricultural monitoring

• Forest monitoring

• Coastal water monitoring

• Natural disaster mapping

This capability perfectly matches the description in the question regarding

multispectral imaging for land and ocean monitoring.

21.Consider the following statements regarding Article 46:

1. It directs the state to promote educational interests of SCs, STs, and weaker
sections

2. It mandates protection from social injustice and exploitation

3. It also acts as the basis for reservation in educational institutions

4. It specifically mentions economic interests of scheduled tribes

Which statements are correct?

A) 1, 2 and 3 only

B) 1, 2 and 4 only

C) 2, 3 and 4 only

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:
 Statement 1: True - Article 46 explicitly directs the state to promote educational
interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other weaker sections of society
with special care.

Statement 2: True - The article specifically mentions that the state shall protect them
from social injustice and all forms of exploitation.

Statement 3: True

Statement 4: True - The article specifically mentions promoting the economic

interests of Scheduled Tribes, recognizing their unique vulnerabilities and needs.

Correct Answer: All of the above

22.Consider the following statements about termination of Indian citizenship:

1. Voluntary acquisition of citizenship of another country automatically leads to

termination of Indian citizenship.

2. The Central Government cannot deprive a naturalized citizen of citizenship if the

registration was obtained through fraud.

3.The government has absolute discretion to reject an application for naturalization

without assigning any reason.

A) Only statement 1 is correct

B) Only statements 1 and 3 are correct

C) Only statements 2 and 3 are correct

D) All statements are correct

Answer: B

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:

Statement 1: This is correct. According to Section 9(1) of the Citizenship Act, 1955,
if any citizen of India voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, they
automatically lose their Indian citizenship. This is a clear provision to prevent dual
citizenship.

Statement 2: This is incorrect. Under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, the Central
Government has the power to deprive a naturalized citizen of their citizenship if it
 was obtained through fraud, false representation, or concealment of material facts.
This is an important safeguard against fraudulent citizenship claims.

Statement 3: This is correct. The government has complete discretion in matters of

naturalization. According to Section 6 of the Citizenship Act, the government can
reject an application for naturalization without providing any reasons. This is
considered an act of state policy where judicial intervention is limited.

Correct Answer: Option 2 - Only statements 1 and 3 are correct

23.Which of the following is NOT a constitutional duty of the Prime Minister under
Article 78?

A) Communicate all decisions of the Council of Ministers to the President

B) Submit for President's consideration matters on which a minister has taken a

decision

C) Furnish information relating to administration of affairs of the Union

D) Advise the President on appointment of state Governors

Answer: D Explanation:

Let's analyze each option according to Article 78 of the Constitution, which outlines
the Prime Minister's duties towards the President:

Option 1: This is a constitutional duty explicitly mentioned in Article 78(a). The

Prime Minister must communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of
Ministers relating to the administration of Union affairs and proposals for legislation.

Option 2: This is mentioned under Article 78(b), which requires the Prime Minister
to submit for the President's consideration any matter where a Minister has taken a
decision but the President's consideration is required.

Option 3: This is covered under Article 78(c), which mandates that the Prime
Minister shall furnish such information relating to the administration of Union
affairs and proposals for legislation as the President may call for.

Option 4: This is not explicitly mentioned as a constitutional duty under Article 78.
While the Prime Minister does advise the President on governor appointments in
practice, this is a conventional role rather than a constitutional obligation under
Article 78.
 Correct Answer

Option 4: Advise the President on appointment of state governors

24. For how many years after the commencement of the Constitution was English
allowed to continue as an official language according to Article 343?

A) 10 years

B) 15 years

C) 20 years

D) 25 years

Answer: B Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 2 (15 years)

According to Article 343 of the Indian Constitution, English was allowed to continue
as an official language for a period of 15 years from the commencement of the
Constitution (i.e., from January 26, 1950 to January 25, 1965). This provision was
made to ensure a gradual and smooth transition from English to Hindi as the official
language of the Union.

The 15-year period was carefully chosen to: - Allow adequate time for non-Hindi
speaking regions to prepare for the transition - Enable government machinery to
adapt to the change - Provide time for necessary translations and documentation -
Train administrative staff in Hindi.

After this period, the Official Languages Act, 1963, was enacted, which allowed for
the continued use of English even after 1965, along with Hindi, for official purposes.
This decision was made to address concerns from non-Hindi speaking states and
ensure administrative efficiency.

25.Consider the following statement:

Under Article 312A of the Indian Constitution, Parliament has the power to vary or
revoke the conditions of service of officers belonging to All India Services who were
appointed before the creation of new service conditions.

A) The statement correctly represents Article 312A but omits the requirement of
consultation with state governments

B) The statement is incorrect as Article 312A deals only with state services
 C) The statement is incorrect as Parliament cannot modify service conditions of
officers appointed before new conditions

D) The statement is entirely correct

Answer: D Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 4

Option 4 is correct because it precisely captures the essence of Article 312A. This
article was added to the Constitution to ensure that Parliament has the authority to
modify service conditions of All India Service officers, even those appointed before
new conditions were created.

26.Who among the following was the first woman to serve as a Chief Election
Commissioner of India?

A) Fathima Beevi

B) B. Nagamma Nayak

C) Shakila Shamim

D) V.S. Ramadevi

Answer: D Explanation:

Fathima Beevi: She was the first female judge of the Supreme Court of India and
later served as the Governor of Tamil Nadu. However, she never served as Chief
Election Commissioner.

B. Nagamma Nayak: She was a prominent social worker and politician but did not
serve as Chief Election Commissioner of India.

Shakila Shamim: This name is incorrect and does not appear in the list of Chief
Election Commissioners of India.

V.S. Ramadevi: She served as the Chief Election Commissioner of India from 26th
November 1990 to 11th December 1990. She was indeed the first woman to hold this
prestigious position.

Correct Answer: V.S. Ramadevi

V.S. Ramadevi created history by becoming the first woman Chief Election
Commissioner of India in 1990.
27.For amending provisions requiring special majority in Parliament, which of these
conditions must be fulfilled?

I. Majority of the total strength of each House.

II. 2/3rd majority of members present and voting.

III. President's prior recommendation.

IV. Absolute majority in both Houses.

Select the correct combination:

A) I and II only

B) II and III only

C) III and IV only

D) I and IV only

Answer: A

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 1 (I and II only)

The correct combination is Option 1 because: 1. A bill for constitutional amendment

must be passed by each House of Parliament by a majority of the total membership
of that House (Condition I). 2. It must also be passed by a majority of not less than
two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting (Condition II). This is
known as the "special majority" requirement under Article 368. The other conditions
mentioned (President's prior recommendation and absolute majority) are not
requirements for constitutional amendments requiring special majority. The
President's assent is needed only after the bill is passed, and the concept of absolute
majority is different from the special majority required for constitutional
amendments.

28.With reference to the legal enforceability of Directive Principles of State Policy,

consider the following statements:

1. Courts can issue writs to directly enforce Directive Principles

2. Parliament can make laws to implement Directive Principles without violating

Fundamental Rights
 3. State governments cannot be compelled by courts to implement Directive
Principles.

A) Only statement 2 is correct

B) Statements 1 and 3 are correct

C) Statements 2 and 3 are correct

D) All statements are correct

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1: Courts cannot directly enforce Directive Principles through writs.

Unlike Fundamental Rights, DPSPs are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be
enforced by courts. This statement is incorrect.

Statement 2: Parliament can indeed make laws to implement Directive Principles,

but these laws must not violate Fundamental Rights. The Supreme Court has held
that there should be a harmonious construction between Fundamental Rights and
DPSPs. This statement is correct.

Statement 3: Courts cannot compel state governments to implement Directive

Principles as they are merely guidelines and not legally enforceable. While courts can
use DPSPs for interpreting laws, they cannot force governments to implement them.
This statement is correct.

Correct Answer: Option 3 - Statements 2 and 3 are correct

29.In the landmark case M.C. Mehta vs. State of Tamil Nadu (1996), the Supreme Court
held that children cannot be employed in:

A) Match factories and fireworks industries only

B) Any hazardous Industries

C) Only government establishments

D) Only private sector industries

Answer: B

Explanation:
 Correct Answer: Option 2

The M.C. Mehta case (1996) was a landmark judgment that interpreted Article 24 of
the Constitution, which prohibits child labor. The Supreme Court held that children
below 14 years cannot be employed in any hazardous industries.

30.Which of the following statements regarding the functions of UPSC are correct?

1. It conducts examinations for appointments to All India Services

2. It serves as an advisory body for disciplinary matters affecting government

servants

3. It must be consulted on matters related to methods of recruitment to civil services

A) Only 1 and 2 are correct

B) Only 2 and 3 are correct

C) Only 1 and 3 are correct

D) All statements are correct

Answer: D

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement about the UPSC's functions:

Statement 1: The UPSC conducts examinations for appointments to All India

Services (IAS, IPS, IFS) and Central Services (Group A and Group B). This statement
is correct as per Article 320 of the Constitution.

Statement 2: The UPSC serves as an advisory body in disciplinary matters affecting

government servants, including cases relating to appeals and memorials. This
includes matters like dismissal, reduction in rank, or imposing penalties. This
statement is correct.

Statement 3: According to Article 320, the UPSC must be consulted on matters

related to methods of recruitment to civil services/posts, principles of promotion,
and transfers. This statement is also correct.

Correct Answer: Option 4 - All statements are correct

 The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is a constitutional body established
under Article 315 of the Constitution. All three statements accurately describe its
key functions:

• It conducts prestigious examinations like Civil Services Examination,

Engineering Services Examination, Combined Defence Services Examination,
etc.

• It plays a crucial advisory role in disciplinary matters, ensuring fair treatment

of civil servants

• Its consultation is mandatory on matters related to recruitment methods,

principles governing promotions and transfers, and disciplinary matters

These functions collectively ensure transparency, fairness, and merit-based

recruitment in India's civil services, making UPSC one of the most important
constitutional bodies in maintaining administrative efficiency.

31.In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that which of the following
represents the correct position regarding Fundamental Rights and Directive
Principles?

A) Directive Principles are superior to Fundamental Rights

B) Fundamental Rights are superior to Directive Principles

C) Both are complementary and supplementary to each other

D) Both are independent and have no relationship with each other

Answer: C

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 3

In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court established that Fundamental
Rights and Directive Principles are complementary and supplementary to each other.
The Court emphasized that these two features of the Constitution are not meant to
be in conflict but rather work together as a harmonious whole. The judgment stated
that the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of balance between
Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles, and that they together constitute the
"conscience of the Constitution."
32.Consider the following statements about Parliamentary proceedings:

1.Special Leave Petition (SLP) can be filed only in Supreme Court.

2.Any member of Parliament can introduce a Public Bill.

3.The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is one-tenth of

the total Strength of the House.

4.A Money Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha with prior recommendation of
the Speaker.

Which of the following is/are incorrect?

A) 1, 2 and 3 only

B) 2, 3 and 4 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:

1. Special Leave Petition (SLP) can be filed only in Supreme Court - This statement
is correct. SLP can only be filed in the Supreme Court under Article 136 of the
Constitution.

2. Any member of Parliament can introduce a Public Bill - This statement is

incorrect. Only ministers can introduce Public Bills (also known as Government
Bills). Private members (any MP who is not a minister) can only introduce Private
Member Bills.

3. The quorum to constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament is one-tenth of

the total strength - This statement is incorrect. According to Article 100 of the
Constitution, the quorum is one-tenth of the total number of members of the
House.

4. A Money Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha with prior recommendation of
the Speaker - This statement is incorrect. A Money Bill can be introduced only in
 Lok Sabha, but it requires prior recommendation of the President, not the
Speaker.

Correct Answer

Option 2: 2, 3 and 4 is the correct answer.

33.Consider the following statements regarding Article 17 and untouchability:

1. The practice of untouchability in any form is punishable by law.

2. The term 'untouchability' has been explicitly defined in the Constitution.

3. Article 17 is enforceable against both state and private individuals.

A) Only statement 1 is true

B) Only statement 3 is true

C) All statements are true

D) Only statements 1 and 3 are true

Answer: D Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:

Statement 1: This statement is correct. Article 17 abolishes untouchability, and its

practice in any form is forbidden. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 (formerly
known as Untouchability Offences Act) makes the practice of untouchability a
punishable offense.

Statement 2: This statement is incorrect. The Constitution does not explicitly define
the term 'untouchability'. This was deliberately left undefined to ensure a broad
interpretation that could cover all forms of social disabilities imposed on people due
to their birth into certain castes.

Statement 3: This statement is correct. Article 17 is one of the few fundamental

rights that is enforceable against both the state and private individuals. Most other
fundamental rights are primarily enforceable against the state, but Article 17 creates
a constitutional obligation on everyone to not practice untouchability.

Correct Answer: Option 4 - Only statements 1 and 3 are true.

34.Consider the following statements about Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):

1. CAT exercises original jurisdiction in matters related to recruitment and service

conditions of Group A officers only.

2. Article 323A was added through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976

3. Members of defence forces are excluded from CAT's jurisdiction

A) Only statements 1 and 2 are correct

B) Only statement 1 is correct

C) Only statements 2 and 3 are correct

D) All statements are correct

Answer: C Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:

Statement 1: This is incorrect. CAT exercises jurisdiction over matters related to

recruitment and service conditions of persons appointed to public services and posts
under the Central Government and Union Territories, including both Group A and
other civil services.

Statement 2: This is correct. Article 323A was indeed added to the Constitution
through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. This article provides for the
establishment of administrative tribunals for public service matters.

Statement 3: This is correct. Members of defence forces are explicitly excluded from
the jurisdiction of CAT as per Article 323A. This exclusion is because defence forces
have their own specialized tribunals like the Armed Forces Tribunal to deal with
service matters.

Correct Answer: Option 3 (Only statements 2 and 3 are correct)

35.Consider the following statements:

1. The Constituent Assembly approved India's membership of the Commonwealth in

May 1949.

2. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee's "Vande Mataram" was adopted as the National Song
on January 26, 1950.
3. Objective Resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on December 13, 1946 and
was adopted on January 22, 1947

Which of the following statements are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 3 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1: This is correct. The Constituent Assembly of India approved India's

membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949. This was a significant decision as
it maintained India's diplomatic ties with Britain and other Commonwealth nations
while preserving India's status as a sovereign republic.

Statement 2: This is incorrect. While "Vande Mataram" was indeed written by

Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, it was adopted as the National Song on January 24,
1950, not January 26, 1950.

Statement 3: This is correct. The Objective Resolution was moved by Jawaharlal

Nehru on December 13, 1946, in the Constituent Assembly. It was debated upon and
finally adopted on January 22, 1947. This resolution later became the basis for the
Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

Correct Answer: Option 2 (1 and 3 only)

The correct answer is Option 2 because only statements 1 and 3 are accurate.

36.The fundamental cause (s) of obesity according to the World Health Organization
(WHO) are:

1. Caloric imbalance

2. Dietary changes

3. Decreased physical activity

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) All of the above

Answer: D Explanation:

Let's analyze each option by understanding the fundamental causes of obesity

according to WHO:

Option Analysis:

• Caloric imbalance occurs when calorie intake exceeds calorie expenditure,

leading to excess fat storage. This is indeed a fundamental cause of obesity.

• Dietary changes, particularly the global shift towards increased intake of

energy-dense foods high in fats and sugars but low in vitamins and minerals,
contribute significantly to obesity.

• Decreased physical activity, largely due to increasingly sedentary forms of

work, changing modes of transportation, and increasing urbanization, is
another major factor in obesity development.

WHO recognizes that obesity is a complex condition influenced by multiple factors.

The organization emphasizes that all three mentioned factors - caloric imbalance,
dietary changes, and decreased physical activity - work together in contributing to
the global obesity epidemic.

Correct Answer: Option 4 (All of the above)

This is the correct answer because WHO explicitly states that obesity results from a
combination of:

• A fundamental caloric imbalance between calories consumed and calories expended

• Global dietary pattern changes towards increased consumption of energy-

dense foods

• A trend towards decreased physical activity due to modern lifestyles

These factors are interconnected and mutually reinforcing. For example, dietary
changes affect caloric balance, while decreased physical activity reduces calorie
expenditure. Together, they create the perfect conditions for obesity development.
 Therefore, WHO considers all three as fundamental causes, making Option 4 the
most comprehensive and accurate answer.

37.From the statements given below, pick out the correct statement (s) about Montreal
Protocol?

1. Montreal Protocol was adopted on September 16, 1987.

2. The Parties are assisted by the Ozone Secretariat, which is based at UN

Environment Programme headquarters in Nairobi, Kenya.

3. The Multilateral Fund for the Implementation of the Montreal Protocol was
established in 1991.

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1 and 3 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement about the Montreal Protocol:

Statement 1: The Montreal Protocol was indeed adopted on September 16, 1987. This
was a landmark international agreement designed to protect the ozone layer by
phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances.

Statement 2: This statement is correct. The Ozone Secretariat, which serves as the
protocol's administrative body, is headquartered at the UN Environment Programme
(UNEP) in Nairobi, Kenya. The secretariat assists parties in implementing the
protocol and maintains crucial documentation.

Statement 3: This statement is also accurate. The Multilateral Fund was established
by the London Amendment to the Montreal Protocol in 1990 and began operations
in 1991. Its primary purpose is to assist developing countries in complying with their
protocol obligations.

Correct Answer: Option 4 (All of the above)

 All three statements provided about the Montreal Protocol are factually correct. The
Montreal Protocol represents one of the most successful international environmental
agreements, and these statements highlight key aspects of its structure and
implementation:

1. Its adoption date (September 16, 1987) marks the beginning of coordinated
global action against ozone depletion

2. The Ozone Secretariat in Nairobi serves as the protocol's administrative

backbone

3. The Multilateral Fund (established 1991) has been crucial in helping

developing nations meet their protocol commitments

This comprehensive framework has led to the successful phase-out of 98% of ozone-
depleting substances globally, making it one of the most effective environmental
protection treaties in history.

38.A correct diagnosis is essential to treat children with cancer because each cancer
requires a specific treatment regimen that may include surgery, radiotherapy, and
chemotherapy. What are the components of early diagnosis?

1. Awareness of symptoms by families and primary care providers.

2. Accurate and timely clinical evaluation, diagnosis, and staging (determining

the extent to which a cancer has spread).

3. Access to prompt treatment.

A) Only 1 and 2

B) Only 1 and 3

C) Only 2 and 3

D) All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:

Let's analyze each component of early cancer diagnosis in children:

1. Awareness of symptoms: Family members and primary healthcare providers

must be aware of early warning signs of childhood cancers. This includes recognizing
 symptoms like unexplained fever, persistent pain, unusual lumps, or sudden weight
loss. Early recognition of these symptoms is crucial for timely intervention.

2. Accurate clinical evaluation and staging: Once symptoms are identified, proper
medical evaluation including physical examinations, laboratory tests, imaging
studies, and biopsies are essential. Staging determines how far the cancer has
spread, which is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment protocol.

3. Access to treatment: After diagnosis and staging, immediate access to

appropriate treatment facilities and specialists is vital. Delays in starting treatment
can significantly impact the prognosis and survival rates.

Correct Answer: Option 4 (All of the above)

The correct answer is Option 4 because all three components are essential and
interconnected for early diagnosis and successful treatment of childhood cancers.
These components form a critical chain where:

• Without awareness (Component 1), symptoms might be missed or ignored

• Without proper evaluation and staging (Component 2), the wrong treatment
might be administered

• Without prompt access to treatment (Component 3), even accurate diagnosis

would be ineffective

Missing any one of these components can lead to delayed diagnosis and poorer
outcomes. Therefore, all three components must work together as an integrated
system for effective early diagnosis and treatment of childhood cancers.

39.From the statements given below, pick out the correct statement (s) about excretory
system?

1. The proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs 100% of filtered glucose and amino
acids under normal physiological conditions.

2. The descending limb of Loop of Henle is impermeable to sodium but highly

permeable to water.

3. Ultrafiltration in glomerulus involves active transport of proteins and glucose

along with water.

A) Only 1 and 2
 B) Only 1 and 3

C) Only 2 and 3

D) All of the above

Answer: A

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:

1. Statement 1 is correct: The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) does reabsorb 100%
of filtered glucose and amino acids under normal physiological conditions. This is
an essential function that prevents the loss of valuable nutrients from the body.

2. Statement 2 is correct: The descending limb of the Loop of Henle is indeed

impermeable to sodium but highly permeable to water. This characteristic is
crucial for the countercurrent multiplication system that concentrates urine.

3. Statement 3 is incorrect: Ultrafiltration in the glomerulus is a passive process

driven by hydrostatic pressure, not active transport. Moreover, proteins are
typically too large to pass through the glomerular membrane under normal
conditions. Only small molecules like water, glucose, and ions are filtered.

Correct Answer

Option 1 (Only 1 and 2) is the correct answer. This is because: - Statements 1 and 2
accurately describe the physiological processes in the nephron - Statement 3
contains a fundamental error in describing ultrafiltration as an active process - The
glomerular filtration barrier prevents the passage of most proteins - The process of
ultrafiltration is based on pressure differences and selective permeability, not active
transport.

40.From the following, select the guidelines set by WHO for controlling road traffic noise
pollution.

1. Reduce traffic flow and restrict truck traffic.

2. Improve the choice of appropriate tyres and road surfaces.

3. Construct road tunnels.

4. Reduce the green space.

A) Only 1, 2 and 3

B) Only 1, 3 and 4

C) Only 2, 3 and 4

D) All of the above

Answer: A

Explanation:

Let's analyze each guideline for controlling road traffic noise pollution according to
WHO:

1. Reduce traffic flow and restrict truck traffic: This is a valid WHO guideline as
reducing the volume of vehicles, especially heavy vehicles like trucks, directly
reduces noise levels. Heavy vehicles typically generate more noise than lighter
vehicles.

2. Improve choice of appropriate tyres and road surface: This is also a WHO-
recommended measure. Using noise-reducing road surfaces and proper tyres can
significantly decrease road noise. Smoother surfaces and specialized tyres can
reduce friction noise.

3. Construction of road tunnels: This is another valid WHO guideline. Tunnels help
contain and redirect traffic noise, preventing it from spreading to surrounding areas,
especially in residential zones.

4. Reduce green space: This is incorrect and contradicts WHO guidelines. In fact,
WHO recommends increasing green spaces as they act as natural noise barriers and
help absorb sound waves.

Correct Answer: Option 1 (Only 1, 2 and 3)

This is the correct answer because these three measures are legitimate WHO
guidelines for controlling road traffic noise pollution. The fourth option about
reducing green space is incorrect as it would actually worsen noise pollution. WHO
specifically recommends:

• Traffic management measures including flow reduction

• Infrastructure modifications like road surface improvements

• Sound barriers and tunnels for noise containment

 • Increasing, not reducing, green spaces for natural noise absorption

Therefore, only options 1, 2, and 3 align with WHO's guidelines for controlling road
traffic noise pollution.

41.Match the pairs correctly:

Column A:

1. Lyme disease

2. Leishmaniasis

3. Toxoplasmosis

4. Nipah

Column B:

a. Domestic cat

b. Fruit bat

c. Black-legged tick

d. Sandfly

A) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b

B) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

C) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b

D) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

Answer: B Explanation:

Let's analyze each disease and its vector/carrier:

Option Analysis:

1. Lyme disease is transmitted by black-legged ticks (also known as deer ticks),

making 1-c correct.

2. Leishmaniasis is spread through the bite of infected sandflies, making 2-d

correct.

3. Toxoplasmosis is primarily transmitted through contact with infected

domestic cats or their feces, making 3-a correct.
 4. Nipah virus's natural hosts are fruit bats of the Pteropus genus, making 4-b
correct.

Correct Answer: Option 2 (1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b)

This is the correct answer because:

1. Lyme disease (1) is transmitted by black-legged ticks (c)

2. Leishmaniasis (2) is transmitted by sandflies (d)

3. Toxoplasmosis (3) is primarily associated with domestic cats (a)

4. Nipah virus (4) has fruit bats (b) as its natural reservoir

These associations are well-established in epidemiology and represent the primary

vectors or carriers responsible for disease transmission to humans. Understanding
these relationships is crucial for disease prevention and control measures.

42.From the following statements given below, pick out the correct statement (s).

1. A lack of iron, folate and vitamins B12 and A can lead to anaemia.

2. Severe iodine deficiency leads to condition like stillbirth, spontaneous

abortion and congenital anomalies.

A) Only 1

B) Only 2

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:

Statement 1: "A lack of iron, folate and vitamins B12 and A can lead to anaemia."
This statement is correct. Anemia is a condition where the body doesn't have enough
healthy red blood cells to carry adequate oxygen to tissues. Iron is essential for
hemoglobin formation, while folate and vitamin B12 are crucial for red blood cell
production. Vitamin A also plays a role in iron metabolism and mobilization.
 Statement 2: "Severe iodine deficiency leads to condition like stillbirth, spontaneous
abortion and congenital anomalies." This statement is also correct. Iodine is crucial
for proper thyroid function and fetal development. During pregnancy, severe iodine
deficiency can indeed cause serious complications including stillbirth, spontaneous
abortion, and various congenital abnormalities. It can also lead to cognitive
impairment and developmental issues in the fetus.

Correct Answer: Option 3 (Both 1 and 2)

Both statements are scientifically accurate and well-established in medical literature.

The first statement correctly identifies the key nutrients whose deficiency can cause
anemia. Iron deficiency is the most common cause of anemia worldwide, while folate
and B12 deficiencies lead to megaloblastic anemia. The second statement accurately
describes the serious consequences of severe iodine deficiency during pregnancy.
This is why iodine supplementation and iodized salt are recommended in many
countries as public health measures. Therefore, since both statements are correct,
Option 3 is the right answer.

43. From the statements given below, pick out the incorrect statement about diabetes.

A) Type 1 diabetes is also known as juvenile diabetes.

B) Type 2 diabetes occur when the body becomes resistant to insulin or doesn't make
enough insulin.

C) The symptoms of type 1 diabetes occur suddenly.

D) Type 1 diabetes can currently be prevented.

Answer: D Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement about diabetes:

Option 1: Type 1 diabetes is indeed known as juvenile diabetes because it typically

develops in children and young adults. This statement is correct.

Option 2: This statement accurately describes Type 2 diabetes. It occurs when cells
become resistant to insulin (insulin resistance) or when the pancreas doesn't produce
enough insulin to maintain normal blood glucose levels. This is correct.
 Option 3: This is an accurate statement. Type 1 diabetes symptoms typically appear
suddenly and can include increased thirst, frequent urination, extreme hunger,
unexplained weight loss, and fatigue. This is correct.

Option 4: This statement is incorrect. Currently, there is no known way to prevent

Type 1 diabetes. Unlike Type 2 diabetes, which can often be prevented or delayed
through lifestyle modifications, Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition that
cannot be prevented with current medical knowledge.

Correct Answer

Option 4 is the incorrect statement, making it the correct answer to this question.
Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the body's immune system
attacks and destroys insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas. Despite extensive
research, there are currently no known methods to prevent Type 1 diabetes. This
distinguishes it from Type 2 diabetes, which can often be prevented or delayed
through lifestyle changes such as maintaining a healthy weight, regular exercise,
and proper diet. Scientists are still researching potential prevention strategies for
Type 1 diabetes, but as of now, there is no proven way to prevent its occurrence.

44. The scheme for transgenders run by the Government of Kerala:

A) Sahachari

B) Karuthal

C) Pariraksha

D) Pratheeksha

Answer: B

Explanation:

Correct Answer

The correct answer is Option 2: Karuthal. Social Justice Department has introduced
a noble initiative known as ‘Karuthal’. The main objective of the scheme is to cater
assistance to such needy transgenders who require immediate support during crisis
or facing emergency situations.

The other three schemes namely Sahachari, Pariraksha and Pratheeksha are
targeted for differently abled people.
45.Match the Environmental Acts with their year of implementation:

Column A (Acts):

1. Wildlife Protection Act

2. Water Prevention and Control of Pollution Act

3. Forest Conservation Act

4. Environment Protection Act

Column B (Year):

a. 1974

b. 1972

c. 1986

d. 1980

A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

C) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b, 4-d

D) 1-d, 2-c, 3-a, 4-b

Answer: B

Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 2

Option 2 (1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c) is correct because it accurately matches the acts with
their implementation years: - The Wildlife Protection Act was enacted in 1972 to
protect wildlife and establish protected areas - The Water Prevention and Control of
Pollution Act came in 1974 as India's first environmental regulation - The Forest
Conservation Act was implemented in 1980 to protect and preserve forest areas - The
Environment Protection Act was enacted in 1986 as an umbrella legislation following
the Bhopal Gas Tragedy These acts represent key milestones in India's environmental
legislation history, each addressing specific aspects of environmental protection. The
chronological order of these acts also reflects the evolving environmental
consciousness and regulatory framework in India during the 1970s and 1980s.
46.If the angle between the force applied and the direction of motion is 90 degrees, how
much work is done?

A) Maximum work is done

B) Some work is done

C) No work is done

D) Work done is equal to the force

Answer: C

Explanation:

Let's analyze this question using the concept of work in physics: Work done is
mathematically expressed as W = F·d·cosθ, where: - F is the applied force - d is the
displacement - θ is the angle between force and displacement

Let's examine each option:

Option 1: Maximum work is done - Incorrect. Maximum work occurs when force and
displacement are in the same direction (θ = 0°).

Option 2: Some work is done - Incorrect. When force is perpendicular to

displacement, the work done is not "some" but specifically zero.

Option 3: No work is done - Correct. When θ = 90°, cos(90°) = 0, therefore W =

F·d·cos(90°) = 0.

Option 4: Work done is equal to the force - Incorrect. Work and force have different
units (Joules vs Newtons) and cannot be equated.

Correct Answer: Option 3

When a force acts perpendicular to the direction of motion (θ = 90°), no work is done.
This is because work is the product of force, displacement, and the cosine of the
angle between them. At 90 degrees, cos(90°) = 0, making the work done zero
regardless of the magnitude of force or displacement. A practical example is when
you carry a heavy box horizontally - while you're applying an upward force to counter
gravity, no work is done by this upward force as it's perpendicular to the horizontal
motion. This is a fundamental principle in physics that helps us understand energy
transfer in various mechanical systems.

47.Polarization of light can be achieved by:

A) Passing light through a prism

B) Reflecting light off a surface

C) Passing light through a narrow slit

D) Using a diffraction grating

Answer: B

Explanation:

Let's analyze each option for achieving polarization of light:

Option 1: Passing light through a prism

A prism can separate light into different colors through dispersion, but it doesn't
cause polarization. The prism only changes the direction of light based on
wavelength.

Option 2: Reflecting light off a surface

This is correct. When unpolarized light reflects off a non-metallic surface at a
specific angle (Brewster's angle), the reflected light becomes partially or completely
polarized. This phenomenon is called polarization by reflection.

Option 3: Passing light through a narrow slit

A narrow slit causes diffraction of light but doesn't result in polarization. While it
affects the direction of light waves, it doesn't select any specific plane of vibration.

Option 4: Using a diffraction grating

Diffraction gratings separate light into its component wavelengths similar to a
prism, but they don't cause polarization.

Correct Answer: Option 2

Reflection off a surface can indeed cause polarization of light. When light strikes a
surface at Brewster's angle (θB = tan⁻¹n, where n is the refractive index of the
reflecting medium), the reflected light becomes plane-polarized. This principle is
widely used in polarizing filters and sunglasses. The reflected light vibrates
perpendicular to the plane of incidence, while the refracted light contains the
remaining polarization components. This natural phenomenon is particularly
noticeable when light reflects off non-metallic surfaces like glass or water, which is
why polarized sunglasses are effective at reducing glare from such surfaces.
48.In a convex lens system, if the object distance (u) and image distance (v) are equal,
and the image is real and inverted, what is the position of the object in terms of focal
length (f)?

A) At f

B) At 2f

C) At 3f

D) At 4f

Answer: B Explanation:

When dealing with a convex lens system, let's analyze each option using the lens
formula and given conditions:

1. At f: If the object is placed at focal length, the image would be formed at infinity,
which doesn't satisfy our condition of u = v.

2. At 2f: When an object is placed at 2f, the image is formed at 2f on the other side
of the lens. This creates a real, inverted image of the same size as the object,
satisfying our condition that u = v.

3. At 3f: If the object is at 3f, using the lens formula 1/f = 1/u + 1/v, the image would
be formed at 1.5f, which doesn't satisfy u = v.

4. At 4f: Placing the object at 4f would result in the image being formed at 1.33f
approximately, again not satisfying u = v.

Correct Answer: Option 2 (At 2f)

This is the correct answer because: 1. When an object is placed at twice the focal
length (2f), the image is formed at 2f on the other side of the lens. 2. We can verify
this using the lens formula: 1/f = 1/u + 1/v 1/f = 1/2f + 1/2f 1/f = 1/f (equation
balanced) 3. At this position: - Object distance (u) = 2f - Image distance (v) = 2f -
Image is real and inverted - Image size equals object size (magnification = -1) This is
the only position that satisfies all the given conditions: equal object and image
distances, real and inverted image.

49.A person weighs 600 N on Earth's surface. If they were to be transported to a location
where the acceleration due to gravity is one-third of its value on Earth's surface, their
mass would be:
A) 20.4

B) 61.2

C) 183.6

D) 200

Answer: B Explanation:

Let's solve this step by step:

Understanding the key concepts:

• Weight (W) = mass (m) × acceleration due to gravity (g)

• Mass remains constant regardless of location

• Given: Weight on Earth = 600 N and new g = ⅓ × g(Earth)

Calculation steps:

1. First, find the mass using Earth conditions: 600 N = m × 9.8 m/s² m = 61.2
kg

2. Mass remains constant at 61.2 kg in the new location

Analysis of options:

• 20.4 kg: This is incorrect as mass doesn't change with location

• 61.2 kg: This is correct as it represents the actual mass of the person

• 183.6 kg: This is three times the correct mass

• 200 kg: This is an arbitrary value with no relation to the calculation

Correct Answer: 61.2 kg

The mass of an object is an intrinsic property that doesn't change with location.
While the person's weight would change to 200 N (⅓ of 600 N) in the new location,
their mass remains constant at 61.2 kg. This can be verified by using W = mg:

On Earth: 600 N = 61.2 kg × 9.8 m/s²

At new location: 200 N = 61.2 kg × (⅓ × 9.8 m/s²)
50.A satellite is in a circular orbit around Earth at an altitude where the gravitational
acceleration is g/4 (where g is the gravitational acceleration at Earth's surface). If the
satellite's mass is 500 kg, what is the gravitational force acting on it?

A) 1225 N

B) 2500 N

C) 5000 N

D) 1000 N

Answer: A Explanation:

Let's solve this step by step:

Understanding the given information:

- Mass of satellite (m) = 500 kg

- Gravitational acceleration at that altitude = g/4

- Gravitational force (F) = mass × acceleration

Analysis of options:

To find the gravitational force, we need to multiply the mass by the gravitational
acceleration at that altitude:

F = m × (g/4)

F = 500 × (9.8/4)

F = 500 × 2.45

F = 1225 N

Correct Answer: Option 1 (1225 N)

This is the correct answer because:

1. The gravitational force depends on both the mass of the object and the
gravitational acceleration at that location

2. At the satellite's altitude, the gravitational acceleration is g/4 = 9.8/4 = 2.45

m/s²

3. When we multiply this by the satellite's mass (500 kg), we get 1225 N
51.The electron configuration of an oxygen ion (O²⁻) is

A) 1s² 2s² 2p⁴

B) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶

C) 1s² 2s² 2p⁵

D) 1s² 2s² 2p³

Answer: B Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 2 (1s² 2s² 2p⁶)

This is correct because: - O²⁻ has gained 2 electrons compared to neutral oxygen -
The added electrons fill the 2p orbital completely - The final configuration has 10
electrons total (8 from oxygen + 2 gained) - This configuration is particularly stable
as it achieves the noble gas configuration of neon - The 2p orbital is now completely
filled with 6 electrons, giving the stable octet configuration This explains why oxygen
readily forms O²⁻ in ionic compounds, as it achieves a stable electronic configuration
similar to the nearest noble gas.

52. A perfect crystalline solid shows anisotropic behavior while an amorphous solid
shows isotropic behavior. This difference primarily arises due to:

A) The difference in their molecular masses

B) The periodic arrangement of constituent particles in crystalline solids versus

random arrangement in amorphous solids

C) The difference in their melting points

D) The presence of long-range order in amorphous solids versus short-range order

in crystalline solids

Answer: B Explanation:

Let's analyze each option:

Option 1: Molecular mass doesn't determine whether a solid exhibits isotropic or

anisotropic behavior. Properties like molecular mass affect physical characteristics
like density but don't influence directional properties.

Option 2: This is the key difference between crystalline and amorphous solids. The
regular, repeating arrangement of particles in crystalline solids leads to different
 properties in different directions (anisotropic), while random arrangement in
amorphous solids results in uniform properties in all directions.

Option 3: Melting point is a physical property that depends on the strength of

intermolecular forces. While crystalline solids typically have sharp melting points
and amorphous solids soften over a range of temperatures, this isn't the cause of
their iso/anisotropic behavior.

Option 4: This option is incorrect because it reverses the actual arrangement.

Crystalline solids have long-range order, while amorphous solids have only short-
range order.

Correct Answer: Option 2

The periodic arrangement of constituent particles in crystalline solids versus random

arrangement in amorphous solids is the correct explanation. In crystalline solids,
particles are arranged in a regular, repeating pattern throughout the crystal. This
ordered arrangement means that properties like mechanical strength, refractive
index, and electrical conductivity can vary depending on the direction in which
they're measured (anisotropic behavior). In contrast, amorphous solids have
randomly arranged particles with no long-range order. This random arrangement
means that properties are the same regardless of the direction of measurement
(isotropic behavior). Common examples include crystalline quartz (anisotropic)
versus glass (isotropic).

53. A gas sample occupies 2.5 L at 27°C. If the temperature is increased to 127°C while
maintaining constant pressure, what will be the new volume? (Assume ideal gas
behavior)

A) 3.33 L

B) 3.75 L

C) 4.17 L

D) 2.92 L

Answer: A

Explanation:
 This question tests understanding of Charles's Law, which states that for a fixed
amount of gas at constant pressure, the volume is directly proportional to its
absolute temperature.

Let's analyze this step by step:

First, convert temperatures to Kelvin:

Initial temperature (T₁) = 27°C + 273 = 300 K

Final temperature (T₂) = 127°C + 273 = 400 K

Using Charles's Law: V₁/T₁ = V₂/T₂

Where V₁ = 2.5 L (initial volume)

Rearranging to solve for V₂:

V₂ = V₁ × (T₂/T₁)

V₂ = 2.5 L × (400 K/300 K)

V₂ = 2.5 L × 1.33

V₂ = 3.33 L

Correct Answer

Option 1: 3.33 L is correct. This follows directly from Charles's Law calculations.
When temperature increases from 300 K to 400 K, the volume must increase
proportionally.

This problem demonstrates how gas volume expands proportionally with absolute
temperature when pressure remains constant, a fundamental principle in gas
behavior.

54.In a closed system at constant temperature and pressure, if the number of moles of
a gas is increased from n₁ to 2n₁, maintaining Avogadro's law, what is the relationship
between V₁ and V₂?

A) V₂ = V₁/4

B) V₂ = V₁/2

C) V₂ = V₁

D) V₂ = 2V₁
 Answer: D Explanation:

Let's analyze this problem using Avogadro's law and the conditions given:

Understanding the conditions: - Temperature (T) is constant - Pressure (P) is

constant - Number of moles increases from n₁ to 2n₁ - System is closed

Analysis of options:

Option 1 (V₂ = V₁/4): This suggests volume decreases to one-fourth, which contradicts
Avogadro's law.

Option 2 (V₂ = V₁/2): This suggests volume decreases to half, again contradicting
Avogadro's law.

Option 3 (V₂ = V₁): This suggests volume remains constant despite doubling moles,
violating Avogadro's law.

Option 4 (V₂ = 2V₁): This correctly shows that volume doubles when moles double.

Correct Answer: Option 4 (V₂ = 2V₁)

This is correct because: 1. According to Avogadro's law, at constant temperature and

pressure, volume (V) is directly proportional to the number of moles (n). V ∝ n 2.
When moles increase from n₁ to 2n₁, the volume must increase proportionally: V₂/V₁
= 2n₁/n₁ = 2 Therefore, V₂ = 2V₁ This relationship perfectly demonstrates Avogadro's
law, which states that equal volumes of gases at the same temperature and pressure
contain equal numbers of molecules. When we double the number of moles while
keeping temperature and pressure constant, the volume must double to maintain
the same molecular density.

55.What is the coordination number of each carbon atom in diamond?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 8

Answer: B Explanation:

Let's analyze each option by understanding the crystal structure of diamond:

 Option 1 (2): This is incorrect. A coordination number of 2 is found in graphite's
planar layers, but not in diamond's tetrahedral structure.

Option 2 (4): This is the correct coordination number for diamond. Each carbon
atom forms covalent bonds with four other carbon atoms in a tetrahedral
arrangement.

Option 3 (6): This is incorrect. A coordination number of 6 is found in some metallic

crystal structures like body-centered cubic (BCC), but not in diamond.

Option 4 (8): This is incorrect. A coordination number of 8 is found in some face-

centered cubic (FCC) structures, but not in diamond.

Correct Answer: Option 2 (4)

In diamond, each carbon atom exhibits sp³ hybridization and forms four equivalent
covalent bonds with four neighboring carbon atoms. These bonds are arranged in a
tetrahedral geometry, with bond angles of 109.5° between them. This tetrahedral
arrangement gives diamond its characteristic three-dimensional network structure,
where each carbon atom is at the center of a tetrahedron with four other carbon
atoms at the corners.

This coordination number of 4 is fundamental to diamond's properties: - It creates

an extremely rigid and strong crystal structure - Results in diamond's high melting
point - Contributes to diamond's extreme hardness - Creates a wide band gap,
making diamond an electrical insulator

This tetrahedral arrangement with a coordination number of 4 distinguishes

diamond from other carbon allotropes like graphite, which has a coordination
number of 3 within its layers.

56.A car travels a certain distance at a speed of 50 km/h. If the same distance is covered
at a speed of 60 km/h, the time taken is reduced by 1.5 hour. Find the distance
traveled.

A) 445 km

B) 450 km

C) 460 km

D) 500 km
 Answer: B Explanation:

Let's solve this step by step:

To find the distance, we'll use the relationship between speed, distance, and time.
Let's say the distance is 'd' kilometers.

When speed = 50 km/h:

Time taken = d/50 hours

When speed = 60 km/h:

Time taken = d/60 hours

Given that the difference in time is 1.5 hours:

d/50 - d/60 = 1.5

Solving this equation:

(60d - 50d)/(50 × 60) = 1.5

10d/3000 = 1.5

10d = 4500

d = 450

Correct Answer

Option 2: 450 km is the correct answer.

57. Find the next term in the series √2,2,2√2,4,4√2, ….

A) 6

B) 8

C) 6√2

D) 8√2

Answer: B Explanation:

First, let's identify the pattern in the given series:

√2, 2, 2√2, 4, 4√2, ...

Looking at the terms:

 1. 1st term: √2

2. 2nd term: 2 (which is 2 × 1)

3. 3rd term: 2√2 (which is 2 × √2)

4. 4th term: 4 (which is 2√2 × √2)

5. 5th term: 4√2 (which is 4 × √2)

The pattern is multiplication of √2.

So, the next term is

4√2 × √2 = 8

Correct Answer

Option 2: 8 is the correct answer.

58.A train runs on every Sunday and Tuesday. If 1st January 2024 is a Wednesday,
then in 2024, for how many days the train would have run?

A) 104

B) 105

C) 106

D) None of the above

Answer: A Explanation:

Let's solve this step by step:

1. First, let's identify that 2024 is a leap year (divisible by 4), so it has 366 days.

2. Since January 1st, 2024, is a Wednesday: - First Sunday falls on January 5th -
First Tuesday falls on January 7

3. To count total days: - Number of Sundays: From Jan 5 to Dec 29 = 52 days -

Number of Tuesdays: From Jan 7 to Dec 31 = 52 days

Correct Answer: Option 1 (104)

The train runs 104 days in 2024 because we have 52 Sundays + 52 Tuesdays = 104
days

59.The value of 28÷ {(5 of 4-6)} ×8(7-2) is:

A) 20

B) 40

C) 80

D) 120

Answer: C Explanation:

To evaluate this expression, we need to follow the order of operations (BODMAS):

1. Evaluate the expressions inside the parentheses:

5 of 4 = 20

7-2 = 5

2. Replace the expressions with their values:

28÷ {(20-6)} ×8(5)

3. Evaluate the expression inside the parentheses:

20-6 = 14

4. Replace the expression with its value:

28÷ 14 ×8(5)

5. Multiply 8 and 5:

8(5) = 40

6. Replace the multiplication with its value:

28÷ 14 ×40

7. Divide 28 by 14:

28÷ 14 = 2

8. Replace the division with its value:

2 ×40

9. Multiply 2 and 40:

2 ×40 = 80

Correct Answer (Option 3: 80)

 The value of 28÷ {(5 of 4-6)} ×8(7-2) is 80.

60. Find the last digit in the multiplication of

21×22×23×24×26×27×28×29

A) 2

B) 4

C) 6

D) 8

Answer: C

Explanation:

Let's solve this step by step:

1. First, let's understand that we only need to find the last digit of the multiplication.
For this, we only need to consider the last digits of each number in the multiplication.

2. Let's write out the last digits of each number:

1. 21 → 1

2. 22 → 2

3. 23 → 3

4. 24 → 4

5. 26 → 6

6. 27 → 7

7. 28 → 8

8. 29 → 9

3. Now, we need to multiply: 1 × 2 × 3 × 4 × 6 × 7 × 8 × 9

4. Let's solve in parts:

1. 1 × 2 = 2

2. 2 × 3 = 6
 3. 6 × 4 = 24 (last digit 4)

4. 4 × 6 = 24 (last digit 4)

5. 4 × 7 = 28 (last digit 8)

6. 8 × 8 = 64 (last digit 4)

7. 4 × 9 = 36 (last digit 6)

Correct Answer

Option 3: 6 is the correct answer.

61.Find the odd one.

A) Watt

B) Horsepower

C) Joule

D) Erg per second

Answer: C Explanation:

Let's analyze each option to understand their relationship with power measurement:

Watt: It is the SI unit of power, defined as one joule per second (J/s). It measures
the rate at which energy is transferred.

Horsepower: It is a non-SI unit of power, originally created to compare the output of

steam engines to the power of draft horses. 1 horsepower equals approximately 746
watts.

Joule: This is a unit of energy or work, not power. It represents the energy
transferred when applying a force of one newton through a distance of one meter.

Erg per second: This is a unit of power in the CGS system. One erg per second
equals 10⁻⁷ watts, making it another valid measure of power.

Correct Answer

Option 3: Joule is the odd one out.

62.Find the value of X if, X0.4/49 =56/X2.6

A) 12
 B) 14

C) 16

D) 18

Answer: B Explanation:

Let's solve this step by step:

1) First, let's rearrange the equation:

X0.4/49 = 56/X2.6

2) Cross multiply:

X0.4 × X2.6 = 49 × 56

3) Simplify the left side using laws of exponents:

X0.4 + 2.6 = 49 × 56

X3 = 2744

4) Take cube root of both sides:

X = ∛2744

Correct Answer: Option 2: 14

63.Anandu said to Manu, ‘‘That boy in black shirt is younger of the two brothers of the
daughter of my father’s wife’’. How is the boy in black shirt related to Anandu?

A) Nephew

B) Brother

C) Uncle

D) Father

Answer: B Explanation:

Let's break down the statement and analyze the relationship step by step:

1. "Father's wife" = Anandu's mother

2. "Daughter of my father's wife" = Anandu's sister

3. "Two brothers of the daughter" = Two brothers of Anandu's sister

 4. "Younger of the two brothers" = The younger brother among the two

Correct Answer: Brother

The correct answer is Option 2

64.If 721 = 4, 532 = 20 then 813 =

A) 13

B) 12

C) 15

D) 9

Answer: B Explanation:

Let's break down the problem:

1. Multiplying the individual digits of the number (7, 2, and 1)

2. Subtracting the sum of the individual digits from the product

Let's apply this pattern to the numbers:

721: 7×2×1 = 14, and 7+2+1 = 10, so 14 - 10 = 4

532:5×3×2 = 30, and 5+3+2 = 10, so 30 - 10 = 20

Now, let's apply the same pattern to 813:

8×1×3 = 24, and 8+1+3 = 12, so 24 - 12 = 12

Therefore, the correct answer is indeed 12.

65.The difference between compound interest and simple interest on an amount of

money in two years at the rate of 8% is Rs. 3,456. Then the principal amount is

A) Rs. 6,00,000

B) Rs. 5,40,000

C) Rs. 3,50,000

D) Rs. 4,00,000

Answer: B Explanation:
Let's solve this step by step:

1. First, let's recall the formula for difference between CI and SI for 2 years:

CI - SI = P × (r/100)²

2. Given that:

- Rate (r) = 8%

- Time (t) = 2 years

- CI - SI = Rs. 3,456

3. Putting these values in the formula:

3,456 = P × (8/100)²

3,456 = P × 0.0064

P = 3,456/0.0064

P = 5,40,000

Correct Answer: Option 2 (Rs. 5,40,000)

66. Which of the following sentences uses an adverb of manner incorrectly? A) She
quick ran to catch the busB) The bird sang sweetly in the morningC) He carefully
examined the documentD) The children played happily in the
garden Answer: A Explanation:

Let's analyze each option to understand how adverbs of manner are used:

Option 1: "She quick ran to catch the bus" - This sentence incorrectly uses the
adjective 'quick' instead of the adverb 'quickly' to modify the verb 'ran'. Adverbs of
manner describe how an action is performed, and they typically end in '-ly'.

Option 2: "The bird sang sweetly in the morning" - This sentence correctly uses the
adverb 'sweetly' to describe how the bird sang. The '-ly' form properly modifies the
verb 'sang'.

Option 3: "He carefully examined the document" - This sentence correctly uses the
adverb 'carefully' to describe how he examined the document. The '-ly' form properly
modifies the verb 'examined'.
 Option 4: "The children played happily in the garden" - This sentence correctly uses
the adverb 'happily' to describe how the children played. The '-ly' form properly
modifies the verb 'played'.

Correct Answer

Option 1 is the correct answer as it contains the incorrect usage of an adverb of

manner. The sentence "She quick ran to catch the bus" is grammatically incorrect
because it uses the adjective 'quick' instead of the adverb 'quickly'. When describing
how an action is performed (in this case, how she ran), we need an adverb, not an
adjective. The correct sentence should be "She quickly ran to catch the bus."
Remember that adverbs of manner typically end in '-ly' when they're derived from
adjectives, though there are some exceptions (like 'fast' and 'well').

67. Which pair of words represents homonyms that are both related to financial
transactions?

A) Bank - Bank

B) Cheque - Check

C) Principal - Principle

D) Capital - Capitol

Answer: B Explanation:

Let's analyze each option:

Option 1 (Bank - Bank): This is a homonym where "bank" can refer to a financial
institution or the edge of a river. While one meaning is financial, the other isn't
related to transactions.

Option 2 (Cheque - Check): These are homonyms where both meanings can relate to
financial transactions. "Cheque" is a written order to a bank to pay money, while
"check" can mean to verify financial records or accounts.

Option 3 (Principal - Principle): These are homophones but not homonyms.

"Principal" can refer to the head of a school or a sum of money invested, while
"principle" means a fundamental truth or rule.
 Option 4 (Capital - Capitol): These are similar-sounding words but not homonyms.
"Capital" can refer to financial assets or wealth, while "capitol" refers to a building
where a legislature meets.

Correct Answer

Option 2 (Cheque - Check) is the correct answer. These words are true homonyms
that both relate to financial transactions: - "Cheque" is specifically a financial
instrument used for payment - "Check" in financial context can mean: 1. To verify
financial records 2. To stop or control (as in "checking an account") 3. American
spelling of "cheque" This pair uniquely satisfies both requirements of the question:
they are homonyms (same pronunciation, different spelling) and both words are
commonly used in financial contexts. None of the other options provide two words
that are both consistently related to financial transactions.

68. Identify the correctly structured sentence:

A) The news are not good today.

B) Mathematics are my favorite subject.

C) Physics are difficult to understand.

D) Statistics is becoming increasingly important in research.

Answer: D Explanation:

Let's analyze each option by understanding subject-verb agreement rules,

particularly for collective and abstract nouns:

Option 1: "The news are not good today" is incorrect. 'News' is a singular noun
despite ending in 's' and requires a singular verb 'is'. The correct form would be "The
news is not good today."

Option 2: "Mathematics are my favorite subject" is incorrect. 'Mathematics' is treated

as a singular noun in English, representing a field of study. It should take the
singular verb 'is': "Mathematics is my favorite subject."

Option 3: "Physics are difficult to understand" is incorrect. Like mathematics,

'Physics' is a singular noun representing a scientific discipline. The correct form
should be "Physics is difficult to understand."
 Option 4: "Statistics is becoming increasingly important in research" is correct.
Though 'statistics' can be plural when referring to numerical facts, when referring to
the field of study, it's treated as singular.

Correct Answer

Option 4 is correct. This sentence follows proper subject-verb agreement rules. When
referring to academic subjects or fields of study (like statistics, mathematics,
physics), we treat them as singular nouns requiring singular verbs. Additionally, in
this context, 'statistics' refers to the discipline rather than numerical data points,
making it a singular subject. The verb 'is' correctly agrees with this singular subject,
and the rest of the sentence is properly structured with the present continuous tense
"is becoming" followed by the appropriate modifiers.

69. In the sentence "The meeting was called off due to bad weather," what does the
phrasal verb "called off" mean?

A) Postponed

B) Cancelled

C) Scheduled

D) Arranged

Answer: B Explanation:

Let's analyze each option for the phrasal verb "called off":

Option 1 (Postponed): While this seems close in meaning, "postponed" specifically

means to delay something to a later time or date. When something is postponed,
there's an intention to reschedule it.

Option 2 (Cancelled): This is the exact meaning of "call off" in this context. When
something is called off, it is cancelled completely with no immediate plans to
reschedule.

Option 3 (Scheduled): This meaning is actually opposite to what "call off" means.
Scheduling something means setting a time for it to happen, not cancelling it.

Option 4 (Arranged): Similar to "scheduled," this option means to organize or plan

something, which is not what "call off" means.

Correct Answer
 Option 2: Cancelled is the correct answer.

The phrasal verb "call off" means to cancel or abandon a planned event or activity.
In the given sentence, "The meeting was called off due to bad weather" means the
meeting was cancelled because of poor weather conditions. This phrasal verb is
commonly used in both formal and informal contexts when plans are completely
cancelled rather than just delayed or rescheduled.

For example: - The game was called off due to rain - They called off their engagement
- The strike was called off after negotiations

In all these cases, "called off" indicates a complete cancellation rather than a
postponement or rescheduling.

70. Identify the sentence with the incorrect use of a relative pronoun:

A) The man whom you met is my uncle.

B) The book which I bought is interesting.

C) The person who's house we visited is away.

D) The dog that bit the postman was caught. Answer: C Explanation:

Let's analyze each option to understand the usage of relative pronouns:

Option 1: "The man whom you met is my uncle" - This is correct usage. 'Whom' is
the appropriate relative pronoun here as it serves as the object of the verb "met" in
the relative clause.

Option 2: "The book which I bought is interesting" - This is correct usage. 'Which' is
properly used to refer to an inanimate object (the book) in the relative clause.

Option 3: "The person who's house we visited is away" - This is incorrect. 'Who's' is
a contraction of 'who is' but here we need the possessive form 'whose'. The correct
sentence should be "The person whose house we visited is away."

Option 4: "The dog that bit the postman was caught" - This is correct usage. 'That'
can be used as a relative pronoun for both animate and inanimate objects.

Correct Answer

Option 3 is incorrect. This is a common error in the use of relative pronouns. The
sentence uses "who's" (a contraction of who is) instead of the possessive relative
pronoun "whose". When showing possession in a relative clause, we must use
 "whose" regardless of whether we're referring to people or things. The correct form
would be: "The person whose house we visited is away." This error is similar to
confusing "its" (possessive) with "it's" (contraction of it is). Remember that "who's"
always means "who is" or "who has", while "whose" shows possession.

71. Which of these words is formed using both a prefix and a suffix?

A) Wonderful

B) Dislike

C) Disagreeable

D) Helpful

Answer: C Explanation:

Let's analyze each word to understand its formation:

Option 1: Wonderful

This word is formed by adding only a suffix "-ful" to the base word "wonder". It doesn't
contain a prefix.

Option 2: Dislike

This word uses only a prefix "dis-" attached to the base word "like". No suffix is
present.

Option 3: Disagreeable

This word contains both a prefix "dis-" and a suffix "-able" attached to the base word
"agree", making it the only word in the options that uses both.

Option 4: Helpful

This word is formed by adding only a suffix "-ful" to the base word "help". No prefix
is used.

Correct Answer

Option 3: Disagreeable is the correct answer. Here's why:

• Prefix: "dis-" (meaning "not" or "opposite of")

• Base word: "agree"

• Suffix: "-able" (meaning "capable of being")

 The word "disagreeable" is formed by first adding the prefix "dis-" to "agree" to create
"disagree" (meaning not agree), and then adding the suffix "-able" to form
"disagreeable" (meaning capable of being unpleasant or unfriendly). This makes it
the only word among the options that demonstrates the use of both a prefix and a
suffix in its formation.

72. Which word is spelled correctly?

A) Accommodate

B) Accommodate

C) Accommodate

D) Accomadate

Answer: B Explanation:

Let's analyze each spelling option for the word "accommodate":

Option 1: Accommodate

This is a common misspelling where only one 'm' is used. This error occurs because
many people don't realize the word requires double consonants.

Option 2: Accommodate

This is the correct spelling with both double 'c' and double 'm'. The word comes from
Latin "accommodare," and maintains its double consonants in English.

Option 3: Accommodate

This spelling is incorrect as it's missing one 'c'. The word requires both double 'c' and
double 'm' to be spelled correctly.

Option 4: Accomadate

This is incorrect as it uses 'a' instead of 'o' before 'd'. This is another common mistake
due to pronunciation confusion.

Correct Answer

Option 2: Accommodate is the correct spelling. This word is notorious for being
frequently misspelled due to its double consonants. To remember the correct
spelling, keep in mind that:
 • It has two pairs of double letters: 'cc' and 'mm'

• The word can be broken down as ac + com + mod + ate

• There's only one 'o' before 'd'

A helpful memory trick is to remember that the word can "accommodate" two 'c's and
two 'm's, just as it means to make room for or provide space for something or
someone.

73.Which combination correctly matches the one-word substitutes with their

meanings?

i. Misogynist - One who hates women

ii. Misanthrope - One who hates mankind

iii. Philogynist - One who loves women

iv. Philanthropist - One who loves mankind

A) i and ii only

B) i, ii and iii only

C) ii, iii and iv only

D) i, ii, iii and iv

Answer: D Explanation:

Let's analyze each word and its meaning systematically:

Misogynist: This word comes from the Greek 'miso' (hatred) and 'gyne' (woman). It
refers to a person who dislikes, despises, or strongly prejudices against women.
Statement (i) is correct.
Misanthrope: Derived from Greek 'miso' (hatred) and 'anthropos' (mankind), this
refers to a person who dislikes humankind and avoids human society. Statement (ii)
is correct.
Philogynist: From Greek 'philo' (loving) and 'gyne' (woman), this word describes
someone who loves or respects women. Statement (iii) is correct.
Philanthropist: Coming from Greek 'philo' (loving) and 'anthropos' (mankind), this
refers to someone who seeks to promote the welfare of others, especially through
generous donations of money to good causes. Statement (iv) is correct.
 Correct Answer: Option 4

Option 4 is correct because all four statements accurately match the one-word
substitutes with their meanings. These words form two complementary pairs: -
Misogynist (hatred of women) vs. Philogynist (love of women) - Misanthrope (hatred
of mankind) vs. Philanthropist (love of mankind) The prefix 'miso-' indicates hatred
or dislike, while 'philo-' indicates love or fondness. The roots '-gyne' and '-anthropos'
refer to women and mankind respectively. Understanding these word parts helps in
remembering these one-word substitutes and their meanings. All four matches are
etymologically and definitionally accurate.

74. The French phrase "coup de grâce" literally means:

A) Strike of grace

B) Final blow

C) Death strike

D) Merciful end

Answer: A Explanation:

Let's analyze each option for the French phrase "coup de grâce":

Option 1: Strike of grace - This is the literal translation of the French phrase.
"Coup" means "strike" or "blow," and "grâce" means "grace" or "mercy" in French.
This translation accurately reflects the original French words.

Option 2: Final blow - While this captures the practical meaning of how the phrase
is often used, it's not the literal translation of the words themselves.

Option 3: Death strike - This is incorrect as the word "death" doesn't appear in the
original French phrase, though the phrase is often used in contexts involving death.

Option 4: Merciful end - This represents the contextual meaning but not the literal
translation of the words.

Correct Answer

Option 1: Strike of grace is the correct answer.

 The French phrase "coup de grâce" comes from combining two French words: -
"Coup" = strike/blow - "de" = of - "Grâce" = grace/mercy

While the phrase is commonly used to mean "a final blow" or "an action that ends
something," particularly in the context of ending suffering, the question specifically
asks for the literal meaning. The phrase originated from the practice of delivering a
final, merciful blow to end the suffering of a wounded person or animal, hence its
literal translation is "strike of grace." This literal meaning eventually evolved into its
current usage, which generally refers to any final action that brings something to an
end.

75.Identify the correct transformation from interrogative to assertive:

Will she ever come home?

A) She is not coming home.

B) She might not come home.

C) She would not come home.

D) She will never come home.

Answer: D Explanation:

Let's analyze the transformation of the interrogative sentence "Will she ever come
home?" to its assertive form:

Analysis of Options:

• Option 1: "She is not coming home" changes both the tense (from future to
present continuous) and loses the essence of "ever," making it incorrect.

• Option 2: "She might not come home" introduces uncertainty with "might"
which wasn't present in the original question, making it incorrect.

• Option 3: "She would not come home" changes the auxiliary verb from "will"
to "would," altering the meaning, making it incorrect.

• Option 4: "She will never come home" maintains the future tense with "will"
and correctly transforms "ever" to its negative form "never," making it the
correct transformation.

Correct Answer: Option 4

 The correct transformation is "She will never come home." Here's why:

1. When converting an interrogative sentence beginning with "Will" to assertive

form, we maintain the auxiliary verb "will"

2. The word "ever" in a negative statement becomes "never"

3. The question mark is replaced with a period

4. The word order changes from interrogative (Will + subject) to assertive (Subject
+ will)

This transformation maintains the original meaning while changing it from a

question to a statement. The negative form is appropriate here because the
interrogative sentence implies doubt or negativity about the subject's return.

76.മഞ്ഞ്‌
്‌എന്ന്‌പദത്തിന്റെ്‌പര്യായമല്ലാത്തത്്‌?

A) തുഷാര്ം

B) ഹസ്തി

C) നീഹാര്ം

D) ഹിമം

Answer: B Explanation:

ഹസ്തി്‌എന്നാൽ്‌ആന്‌എന്നാണ്്‌അർത്ഥം.

ഗജം, കര്ി, ഹസ്തി, ഇഭം, കുംഭി, ദവിപം.്‌ എന്നിവയും്‌ ആനയുറെ്‌

പര്യായങ്ങൾ്‌ ആണ്.

1. മഞ്ഞ്‌-്‌ തുഷാര്ം്‌,ഹിമം,നീഹാര്ം്‌,അവശ്യായം്‌,തുഹിനം

2. പ്പഭാതം്‌-്‌ഉഷസ്സഞ, കാല്യം, വിഭാതം

3. ര്ാപ്തി്‌–്‌നിശ്, നിശ്ീഥിനി, ര്ജനി, നക്തം, അല്ലഞ, തമി

4. ഇര്ുട്ടഞ്‌–്‌തമസ്സഞ, തിമിര്ം, ധ്വാന്തം, അന്ധകാര്ം

77. തിഥി്‌നനാക്കാറത്‌വര്ുന്നവന്‍്‌-്‌ഒറ്റപ്പദമാക്കുക

A) അതിഥി
 B) അപ്ഗഗണ്യന്‍

C) അതികായന്‍

D) അജയന്‍

Answer: A Explanation:

തിഥി ന ോക്കോതത വരുന്നവന്‍ - അതിഥി

അപ്ഗഗണ്യന്‍്‌-്‌ ഒന്നാമനായി്‌ഗണ്ിക്കറപ്പട്ടവന്‍

അതികായന്‍്‌ -്‌വല്ിയ്‌ശ്ര്ീര്ം്‌ഉള്ളവന്‍

അജയന്‍്‌ -്‌മറ്റാർക്കും്‌ജയിക്കാന്‍്‌കഴിയാത്തവന്‍

78. മന്ദം്‌ -്‌വിപര്ീത്‌പദം്‌ഏത്്‌?

A) ശ്ീഘ്െം

B) വവര്ം

C) ഗര്ിമ

D) സമം

Answer: A Explanation:

മന്ദം്‌എന്ന്‌പദത്തിന്റെ്‌വിപര്ീതം്‌ ശ്ീഘ്െം, പ്ദുതം്‌എന്നിവയാണ്.

1. മന്ദം്‌× ശ്ീഘ്െം, പ്ദുതം

2. ല്ഘിമ(ഭാര്ക്കുെവ്്‌)്‌× ഗര്ിമ്‌(ഭാര്ം)

3. വവര്ം്‌× സഖ്യം

4. സമം്‌× വിഷമം, അസമം

79.നിര്ൂപകന്‍്‌-്‌എതിർല്ിംഗം്‌ഏത്്‌?

A) നിര്ൂപിക

B) നിര്ൂപികി
 C) നിര്ൂപ്പിക

D) നിര്ൂപക

Answer: D Explanation:

നിര്ൂപകന്‍്‌-്‌എതിർല്ിംഗം്‌നിര്ൂപക്‌ആണ്

80.ശ്ര്ിയായ്‌പദനമത്്‌?

1. തീയ്യതി

2. തീയതി

3. തിയ്യതി

A) ഒന്നഞ്‌മാപ്തം്‌ശ്ര്ി

B) ഒന്നും്‌ര്ണ്ും്‌മാപ്തം്‌ശ്ര്ി

C) ര്ണ്ും്‌മൂന്നും്‌ശ്ര്ി

D) എല്ലാം്‌ശ്ര്ി

Answer: C Explanation:

ശ്ര്ിയായ്‌ര്ൂപം്‌:്‌തീയതി, തിയ്യതി്‌എന്നിവയാണ്

81.നമഘം്‌:്‌സമാനപദം്‌കറണ്ത്തുക

A) അബ്ദി

B) അംബുദം

C) അബ്ദം

D) അംബുജം

Answer: B Explanation:

നമഘം്‌എന്നതിന്റെ്‌ സമാനപദം്‌അംബുദം്‌.

അബ്ദി്‌-്‌സമുപ്ദം്‌

അബ്ദം്‌-്‌ആണ്ഞ
 അംബുജം്‌ -്‌താമര്

82. ശ്ര്ിയായ്‌വാകയനമത്്‌?

A) പ്പായാധ്ികയം്‌റെന്ന്‌ മഹാവയക്തികറെ്‌നാം്‌തീര്ച്ചയായും്‌

ബഹുമാനിനച്‌പറ്റൂ

B) പ്പായാധ്ികയം്‌റെന്ന്‌മഹത്്‌ വയക്തികറെ്‌നാം്‌തീര്ച്ചയായും്‌

ബഹുമാനിനച്‌പറ്റൂ

C) പ്പായാധ്ികയമുള്ള്‌മഹാവയക്തികറെ്‌നാം്‌ബഹുമാനിനച്‌പറ്റൂ

D) പ്പായാധ്ികയം്‌റെന്ന്‌മഹാവയക്തികറെ്‌നാം്‌ ബഹുമാനിനച്‌പറ്റൂ

Answer: C Explanation:

ശ്ര്ിയായ്‌ വാകയം്‌ :്‌ പ്പായാധ്ികയമുള്ള്‌ മഹാവയക്തികറെ്‌ നാം്‌

ബഹുമാനിനച്‌പറ്റൂ്‌എന്നതാണ്.

83.വശ്ല്ിയുറെ്‌റപാര്ുൾ്‌തിര്ിചെിയുക്‌ ്‌-്‌സിംഹാവനല്ാകനം

A) അവസാനനിമിഷം

B) സ്ഥാനനമാഹികൾ

C) ഇല്ലാത്ത്‌വസ്തു

D) ആറക്‌കൂെി്‌നനാക്കുക

Answer: D Explanation:

സിംഹാവനല്ാകനം്‌ വശ്ല്ിയുറെ്‌ റപാര്ുൾ്‌ ആറക്‌ കൂെി്‌ നനാക്കുക്‌

എന്നാണ്.

1. പപ്ന്തണ്ാം്‌മണ്ിക്കൂർ്‌-്‌അവസാനനിമിഷം

2. വഭമീകാമുകന്‍മാർ്‌-്‌സ്ഥാനനമാഹികൾ

3. മുയൽ്‌റകാമ്പഞ്‌-്‌ഇല്ലാത്ത്‌വസ്തു

84.പര്ിഭാഷറപ്പെുത്തുക്‌-്‌nothing is worth than this day.

 A) വില്റപ്പട്ട്‌ഒന്നും്‌ ഇന്നില്ല്‌.

B) ഈ്‌ദിവസങ്ങൊണ്്‌ഏറ്റവും്‌വില്റപ്പട്ടത്.

C) ഇന്നിറനക്കാൾ്‌വില്റപ്പട്ടതായി്‌ഒന്നുമില്ല.

D) എല്ലാ്‌ദിവസങ്ങെ ം്‌വില്റപ്പട്ടതാണ്.

Answer: C Explanation:

nothing is worth than this day എന്നതിന്റെ്‌ ശ്ര്ിയായ്‌ പര്ിഭാഷ്‌ -്‌

ഇന്നിറനക്കാൾ്‌വില്റപ്പട്ടതായി്‌ഒന്നുമില്ല.

85.പിര്ിറചഴുതുക്‌:്‌ തൃപ്പാദം

A) തൃ്‌+്‌പാദം

B) തിര്ു്‌+്‌പ്പാദം

C) തിര്ു്‌+പാദം

D) തൃ്‌+്‌പ്പാദം

Answer: C Explanation:

തിര്ു്‌+പാദം്‌ =്‌തൃപ്പാദം്‌എന്നാകുന്നു്‌.

ആനദശ്്‌ സന്ധി്‌ പ്പകാര്ം്‌ ,തൃപ്പാദം്‌ പിര്ിറചഴുതുനമ്പാൾ്‌ തിര്ു്‌ എന്ന്‌

ശ്ബ്ദത്തിന്്‌നശ്ഷം്‌ഏറതങ്കില്ും്‌ദൃഢം്‌വന്നാൽ്‌' തിര്ു്‌' എന്നത്്‌ തൃ്‌എന്നഞ്‌

മാെും.

ഉദാ്‌:്‌തിര്ു്‌+്‌കാൽ്‌=്‌തൃക്കാൽ

തിര്ു്‌+നകാവിൽ്‌=്‌തൃനക്കാവിൽ

86.Consider the following statements:

1. Ernakulam became India's first constitution-literate district

2. Pullampara became the first fully digital literate Gram Panchayat in India
 3. Kollam is the first in the state to achieve complete digital literacy

A) Statement 1 is correct

B) Statement 1 and 3 are incorrect

C) Statement 3 is correct

D) All three statements are correct

Answer: B Explanation:

Correct Answer

Option 2 (Statement 1 and 3 are incorrect)

1. Ernakulam became India’s first constitution literate district: This statement

is incorrect. Kollam is actually India’s first constitution literate district.

2. Pullampara became the first fully digital literate Gram Panchayat in India:
This statement is correct. Pullampara in Thiruvananthapuram district
achieved this milestone.

3. Kollam is the first in the state to achieve complete digital literacy: This
statement is incorrect. Ernakulam is the first district in Kerala to achieve
complete digital literacy.

4. So, the correct statement is: Pullampara became the first fully digital literate
Gram Panchayat in India

87.Consider the following statements:

1. As per ISFR 2021, the total forest cover of the country is 7,13,789 square
kilometer which is 21.71% of the geographical area of the country.

2. Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by
Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra.

3. Pakke Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh has the highest forest cover.

Which of the above given statement is/are correct:

A) 1 only
 B) 1 and 3 only

C) 1 and 2 only

D) 1,2 and 3 only

Answer: D Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 4.

India State of Forest Report-2021:

1. It is an assessment of India’s forest and tree cover, published every two years
by the Forest Survey of India.

2. The first survey was published in 1987, and ISFR 2021 is the 17th.

3. The forest and tree cover in the country continues to increase with an
additional cover of 1,540 square kilometres over the past two years.

4. India’s forest cover is now 7,13,789 square kilometres, 21.71% of the

country’s geographical area, an increase from 21.67% in 2019.

5. The states that have shown the highest increase in forest cover are Telangana
(3.07%), Andhra Pradesh (2.22%) and Odisha (1.04%).

6. Five states in the Northeast – Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya,

Mizoram and Nagaland have all shown loss in forest cover.

7. Area-wise: Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed
by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra.

8. Pakke Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh has the highest forest cover.

9. Buxa (West Bengal), Anamalai (Tamil Nadu) and Indravati reserves

(Chhattisgarh) have shown an increase in forest cover while the highest losses
have been found in Kawal (Telangana), Bhadra (Karnataka) and the
Sunderbans reserves (West Bengal).

88. Consider the following statements:

1. Alamikkali is a folk-art form popular in the district of Kollam

2. Kaavi art is a type of mural painting predominantly seen in the Konkan region
as well as in parts of coastal Maharashtra and Karnataka.
Which of the above given statement is/are correct:

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 2 (2 only)

Option 2 is the correct answer because only statement 2 is accurate.

Alamikkali

1. It is a folkart form popular in Kerala's northern district of Kasaragod.

2. It had its origin at Alamippally, a place near Kanhangad.

3. This art form is hailed as an example for the amity between Hindu and Muslim
community members.

4. The art form is performed in memory of Husayn ibn Ali, who was killed in the
Battle of Karbala.

5. The Alamikkali artists will have their bodies coloured in black and white spots
over them.

6. The costume includes a dhoti upto the knees, pointed hat, artificial
moustache, bamboo stick and a cloth bag on the shoulder.

7. The lyrics include dialogues and snippets on good thoughts.

8. The Hanafi community which performed the dance stopped it by 1963.

9. Later it had a revival under the initiative of cultural organisations.

Kaavi Art

1. Kaavi art is a form of murals found in Konkan region especially in temples of

Goa, parts of coastal Maharashtra and Karnataka.

2. Kaavi murals can also be seen in old houses, small shrines.

 3. The term Kaav in Konkani refers to Indian red pigment, which is the only color
used in this painting, is obtained from the laterite soil.

4. Reddish brown murals against white sandblasted backgrounds are the

specialties of Kaavi art.

5. The painting is done on wet plaster in a manner similar to frescoes.

89.VTL CH1 and VTL CH2 are varieties of:

A) Coconut

B) Cocoa

C) Arecanut

D) Rubber

Answer: B Explanation:

Correct Answer IS OPTION 3

The Prime Minister introduced two coconut varieties — Kalpa Suvarna and Kalpa
Shatabdi — and two cocoa varieties — VTL CH1 and VTL CH2

VTL CH1:

A stable, early-bearing hybrid with a medium canopy. It's ideal for high-density
planting under coconut and arecanut shades. VTL CH1 is resistant to tea mosquito
bug and black pod rot, and can tolerate low moisture stress. It's recommended for
cultivation in Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.

VTL CH2:

An early-bearing, high-yielding hybrid that's resistant to black pod rot disease. It's
suitable for planting under coconut and arecanut gardens. VTL CH2 has similar
processing values and dry bean yields as VTL CH1, but it can also be cultivated in
Andhra Pradesh and Gujarat

90.Who is the founder and CEO of Huawei?

A) Jack Ma

B) Lei Jun

C) Ren Zhengfei
 D) Pony Ma

Answer: C Explanation:

Let's analyze each option:

Jack Ma: He is the co-founder of Alibaba Group, not Huawei. He's one of China's
most prominent business figures but has no connection with Huawei's founding or
management.

Lei Jun: He is the founder and CEO of Xiaomi Corporation, another Chinese
technology company. While he's a significant figure in Chinese tech, he's not
associated with Huawei.

Ren Zhengfei: He is indeed the founder and former CEO of Huawei. He founded the
company in 1987 with an initial investment of 21,000 yuan. He served as the CEO
until 2019 and remains a crucial figure in the company.

Pony Ma: His real name is Ma Huateng, and he is the founder and CEO of Tencent
Holdings, one of Asia's most valuable companies. He has no association with Huawei.

Correct Answer

Option 3: Ren Zhengfei is the correct answer. He founded Huawei in 1987 in

Shenzhen, China. Starting as a small reseller of telecommunications equipment, Ren
built Huawei into one of the world's largest technology companies. His background
as a former People's Liberation Army engineer and his vision for technological
innovation helped shape Huawei's growth. Under his leadership, Huawei became a
global leader in telecommunications equipment and smartphones. While he stepped
down as CEO in 2019, he remains the company's founder and key figure. The
company now operates in over 170 countries and has become one of the world's
largest telecommunications equipment manufacturers.

91.Consider the following statements:

1. The International Olympic Committee was founded in 1894, and the first
modern Olympic Games were held in Athens in 1896.

2. The Indian men’s hockey team has won a total of nine gold medals in the
Summer Olympics
 3. India won seven medals at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics, and six medals at the
2024 Paris Olympics.

Which of the above given statement is/are correct:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1,2 and 3

Answer: C Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option is 3.

1. The International Olympic Committee (IOC) was founded in 1894, and the first
modern Olympic Games were held in Athens, Greece in 1896.

2. In 1894, French historian and pedagogue Pierre de Coubertin established the

IOC to promote international understanding through sports

3. The first modern Olympic Games were held in Athens, 1896

4. The first Olympic Games featured 241 athletes from 14 nations competing in
nine sports

5. The 1900 Summer Olympics in Paris saw the first official participation of
women in Olympic events, including croquet, golf, sailing, and tennis

6. The Indian men's hockey team has won eight gold medals in the Summer
Olympics: Years won: 1928, 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956, 1964, 1980

7. India won seven medals at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics, and six medals at the
2024 Paris Olympics.

8. Paris Olympics: India finished 71st in the medal tally with six medals,
including one silver and five bronze.

9. Tokyo 2020: India finished 48th in the medal tally.

92.Consider the following statements about Tenzing Norgay National Award:

 1. This Award is the highest national recognition for outstanding achievements
in the field of adventure on land, sea and air.

2. This award was first given in 1994.

3. The 2023 recipients of the Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award are
Parveen Singh, Anshu Kumar Tiwari, and the Savita Kanswal.

Which of the above given statement is/are correct:

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 2 and 3 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 1,2 and 3 only

Answer: D Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 4 (1, 2, and 3)

1. All three statements provided in the question are correct. The award
represents the highest national recognition in adventure sports, was
established in 1994, The award carries a cash prize of ₹15 lakh, a certificate,
and a bronze statue of Tenzing Norgay.

2. The Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award is given to individuals who

have made outstanding achievements in adventure activities

The 2023 recipients of the Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award are:

1. Parveen Singh

2. Late Savita Kanswal, posthumous

3. Skydiver Anshu Kumar Tiwari

93. Consider the following statements:

1. Eravikulam National Park is the largest national park in Kerala

2. Idukki has the highest forest cover in Kerala

3. Idukki district is the largest district in Kerala

4. The Wayanad district was formed on November 1, 1980.

 Which of the above given statement is/are incorrect:

A) Only two statements

B) All four statements

C) None of the above

D) Only one statement

Answer: C Explanation:

Correct Answer is Option 3.

1. Eravikulam National Park is the largest national park in Kerala. It was

declared a Sanctuary in 1975 with the intention of protecting the indigenous
population of Nilgiri Tahr (highly endangered mountain goat). However, in
1978, it was declared as a National Park considering it’s ecological, faunal,
geomorphological and Zoological Significance. This is also the land of
“Neelakurinji”, the flower that blooms once in twelve years. The Park is breath
takingly beautiful and is easily comparable to the best of mountain ranges in
the Alps. With the highest peak south of the Himalayas – the Anamudi,
located here, nature enthusiasts have ample opportunities for trekking
expeditions and wildlife spotting.

2. Idukki has the highest forest cover in Kerala: Idukki has the highest forest
cover in Kerala, with 3,770 sq km of forest

3. Idukki district is the largest district in Kerala:Idukki district has regained its
status as the largest district in Kerala after a recent government order
expanded the land area of Edamalakkudy village in Devikulam taluk.Idukki
has surpassed Palakkad to once again become the largest district in the state.

4. The Wayanad district was formed on November 1, 1980: The district was
formed on 1 November 1980 as the 12th district in Kerala, by carving out
areas from Kozhikode and Kannur districts

94.The causative organism of seasonal epidemics is

1. Influenza A virus

2. Influenza B virus

3. Influenza C virus
 4. Influenza D virus

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1 and 3 only

C) 1 and 4 only

D) 2 and 4 only

Answer: A Explanation:

Let's analyze each type of influenza virus and their role in seasonal epidemics:

Influenza A virus: This is one of the main causes of seasonal flu epidemics in
humans. It can undergo rapid genetic changes (antigenic drift and shift) and is
responsible for most seasonal flu outbreaks.

Influenza B virus: Like Influenza A, this virus also causes seasonal epidemics but
is generally less severe. It mutates more slowly than Influenza A and only affects
humans and seals.

Influenza C virus: This virus typically causes mild respiratory infections and is not
known to cause epidemics. It's relatively stable and doesn't pose a significant public
health concern.

Influenza D virus: This primarily affects cattle and is not known to cause illness in
humans or contribute to seasonal epidemics.

Correct Answer: Option 1 (1 and 2 only)

This is the correct answer because:

• Influenza A and B viruses are the only types that cause seasonal epidemics in
humans

• These two viruses have the ability to undergo antigenic changes that allow
them to evade human immune responses

• Both are included in seasonal flu vaccines due to their epidemic potential

• While Influenza C can cause infections, it doesn't cause epidemics

• Influenza D doesn't affect humans and is irrelevant to seasonal epidemics

 Understanding this distinction is crucial for healthcare professionals as it helps in
predicting, preventing, and managing seasonal flu outbreaks.

95.Consider the following statements about Wrestling:

1. Freestyle wrestling was included in the Olympic programme for the St. Louis
Games in 1904 and also at the London 1908 Games.

2. India’s first wrestling superstar was Ghulam Mohammad Baksh

3. In 1952, Khashaba Dadasaheb Jadhav won a bronze medal at the Helsinki

Olympics.

4. Udey Chand became the first Indian wrestler to win a world championship
medal.

Which of the following statements is/ are correct:

A) Only one statement

B) Only two statements

C) Only three statements

D) All four statements

Answer: D Explanation:

Correct answer is option 4

1. Wrestling in India, however, traces its origin way back to the fifth century
BCE. In the global context, the martial art form is said to have existed, in a
primitive form, since 7000 BCE.

2. In India, the early form of wrestling was known as ‘malla-yuddha’ (hand-to-

hand combat) and several references to it can be found in ancient epics like
the Ramayana and Mahabharata

3. Freestyle wrestling was included in the Olympic programme for the St. Louis
Games in 1904 and also at the London 1908 Games.

4. Udey Chand became the first Indian wrestler to win a world championship
medal

5. India’s Sakshi Malik made history at Rio 2016, winning Olympic bronze in the
58kg, to become the first Indian woman wrestler to win an Olympic medal.
96. Consider the following statements:

1. This is a project which provides health care and support to elderly above the
age of 65 years residing at Corporation/Municipal Areas in the state.

2. This project mainly provides free medicines through mobile clinics, Palliative
care, Help desk to the old age.

3. The project implemented as a joint initiative to LSGD in the area

4. The project started its function on 2010-11 financial year in Kollam and
Trivandrum Corporation and extended to 12 district headquarters in 11-12
financial year.

Name the scheme:

A) Aardram

B) Vayomithram

C) Vayoamritham

D) Vayomadhuram

Answer: B Explanation:

Let's analyze each option by understanding the key features of these health schemes:

Option Analysis:

1. Aardram: This is a Kerala government initiative to make government hospitals

people-friendly by improving their basic infrastructure and services.

2. Vayomithram: This matches all the given statements as it's specifically

designed for elderly care in urban areas, providing mobile clinics and support
services for those above 65 years.

3. Vayoamritham: Vayo Amrutham is a project that provides healthcare to the

elderly in government old age homes in Kerala, India. The project is a joint
effort between the Indian Systems of Medicine and the Social Justice
Department. It was launched in 2014-15

4. Vayomadhuram: The Social Justice Department under Government of Kerala

has introduced a new initiative titled “Vayomadhuram” which provides
glucometers freely to elderly diabetic persons coming under BPL category.
 Correct Answer: Vayomithram

Vayomithram is the correct answer because it perfectly matches all the given criteria:

1. It specifically targets elderly citizens above 65 years in Corporation/Municipal

areas

2. Provides free medicines through mobile clinics and palliative care

3. Operates as a joint initiative with Local Self Government Department (LSGD)

4. Was launched in 2010-11 in Kollam and Thiruvananthapuram Corporations

before expanding to other district headquarters

The scheme is implemented by Kerala Social Security Mission under the Social
Justice Department and has been successful in providing comprehensive healthcare
support to the elderly population in urban areas of Kerala.

97.Consider the following statements about Shooting:

1. India have won seven medals in shooting at the Olympics

2. At Paris 2024, Manu Bhaker became the first Indian woman to win a medal
in shooting at the Olympics.

3. Swapnil Kusale, Sarabjot Singh, Vijay Kumar, Gagan Narang are notable
sports personalities in shooting

4. Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore secured silver at Athens 2004 Olympics in

shooting.

Which of the above given statement is/are correct:

A) Only one statement

B) Only two satatement

C) Only three statement

D) All four statements

Answer: D Explanation:

Correct Answer: option 4.

 1. India have won seven medals in shooting at the Olympics. Rajyavardhan
Singh Rathore started with a silver at Athens 2004 while Manu Bhaker won
two at Paris 2024.

2. Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore secured silver at Athens 2004 Olympics in

shooting.

3. At Paris 2024, Manu Bhaker became the first Indian woman to win a medal
in shooting at the Olympics. She later became the first Indian to win two
medals at a single edition of the Olympics after she clinched a bronze with
Sarabjot Singh in the mixed team event.

4. At Paris 2024, Manu Bhaker became the first Indian woman to win a medal
in shooting at the Olympics.

5. Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore,Abhinav Bindra,Gagan Narang, Vijay

Kumar,Manu Bhaker,Manu Bhaker-Sarabjot Singh,Swapnil Kusale are
notable sports personalities in shooting

98. Consider the following statements about the Reserve Bank of India:

1. Sir Osborne Smith was the first Governor of the Reserve Bank

2. The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1934, in accordance

with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

3. Shaktikanta Das is serving as the current & 25th governor of the Reserve
Bank of India

Which of the above given statement is/are correct:

A) 1 only

B) 1 and 3 only

C) 1,2 and 3 only

D) 1 and 2 only

Answer: B Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 2 (1 and 3 only)

The correct answer is Option 2 because only statements 1 and 3 are accurate. Here's
why: -
 1. Statement 1 is correct as Sir Osborne Smith was indeed appointed as the first
Governor of RBI in 1935. -

2. Statement 2 is incorrect because while the RBI Act was passed in 1934, the
bank was established and began its operations on April 1, 1935, not 1934. -
Statement 3 is correct as Shaktikanta Das is currently serving as the 25th
Governor of RBI.

3. The Reserve Bank of India was established on April 1, 1935 in accordance

with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

4. The Central Office of the Reserve Bank was initially established in Calcutta
but was permanently moved to Mumbai in 1937. The Central Office is where
the Governor sits and where policies are formulated.

5. Though originally privately owned, since nationalization in 1949, the Reserve

Bank is fully owned by the Government of India.

99.Consider the following statements:

1. Europa Clipper, Lunar Flashlight, Artemis I,SWOT are space launches of

NASA

2. Angara-A5 rocket, Soyuz MS-26 mission, Cosmos 2576 are space launches of
Russia.

Which of the above given statement is/are correct:

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 3 (Both 1 and 2)

1. NASA's SpaceX Crew-9 mission

2. Launched on September 28, 2024, this mission carried NASA astronaut Nick
Hague and Roscosmos cosmonaut Aleksandr Gorbunov to the International
Space Station. The crew will conduct over 200 science experiments, including
 studies on blood clotting, moisture effects on plants, and vision changes in
astronauts.

3. Europa Clipper

4. Launched on October 14, 2024, this spacecraft is on its way to Jupiter to

study Europa, a moon with a large subsurface ocean that may support life.
The spacecraft will use the gravity of Mars and Earth to increase its
momentum and reach Jupiter in April 2030.

5. Artemis I :The uncrewed mission tested the Orion spacecraft and Space
Launch System (SLS) rocket. The Orion spacecraft traveled over 1.4 million
miles around the Moon and splashed down in the Pacific Ocean on December
11, 2022

6. SWOT:The SWOT mission brings together two communities focused on a

better understanding of the world's oceans and its terrestrial surface waters.
U.S. and French oceanographers and hydrologists and international partners
have joined forces to develop this satellite mission to make the first global
survey of Earth's surface water, observe the fine details of the ocean's surface
topography, and measure how water bodies change over time.

100. Who are the beneficiaries of Vidhyajyothi, Vidhyakiranam, Swasraya, Pariraksha

scheme:

A) Senior citizens

B) Differently Abled citizens

C) Transgenders

D) Women

Answer: B Explanation:

Correct Answer: Option 2 - Differently Abled citizens

These schemes are part of Kerala's comprehensive welfare program for differently-
abled citizens.

1. Vidyajyothi scheme- Financial aid for uniforms and study materials to PwD
students
2. Vidyakiranam scheme-Educational assistance to children of disabled parents:
Social Justice Department has initiated a new comprehensive scheme called
‘Vidyakiranam’ that provides educational assistance to children of differently
abled parents (disability for both parents/ disability for anyone parent) who
are economically deprived. From each category educational assistance will be
provided to 25 children from each district for duration of 10 months.

3. Pariraksha scheme:The main objective of the scheme is to cater assistance to

such needy differently abled persons who are in a crisis or facing emergency
situations. Without which the crisis can take a toll on their physical and
psychological health.

4. Swasraya: Social Justice Department has devised an innovative scheme called

“Swasraya” which provides self-employment assistance to such Parents
(Mother/Father/Guradians) or those who are who are unable to earn a
livelihood due to their disability. An amount of Rs 35,000/- is being provided
to the beneficiaries as one time assistance.