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ISC2 Practice Questions

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ISC2 Practice Questions

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arunshan
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© © All Rights Reserved
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Home / Cybersecurity /

25 Free Questions on Certified in


Cybersecurity Certification

25 Free
Questions On
Certified In
Cybersecurity
Certification
Cybersecurity / By Senthil

In today’s interconnected digital


landscape, the threat landscape
continues to evolve, making
cybersecurity a paramount concern
for organizations and individuals
alike. As the demand for skilled
cybersecurity professionals
continues to rise, certifications play
a crucial role in validating expertise
and ensuring the competency of
professionals in this field.
One such esteemed certification is
the Certified in Cybersecurity
Certification, which offers a
comprehensive and standardized
framework for cybersecurity
excellence. The Certified in
Cybersecurity (CC) certification
serves as a testament to an
individual’s expertise in
cybersecurity principles, practices,
and technologies, instilling
confidence in their ability to
safeguard critical assets and
combat emerging threats.

Here are our newly updated 25 Free


questions on the Certified in
Cybersecurity (CC) certification
exam which are very similar to the
practice test as well as the real
exam. Whether you’re preparing for
the certification exam or simply
looking to assess your cybersecurity
expertise, these Certified in
Cybersecurity (CC) questions will
provide valuable insights into the
key concepts, skills, and best
practices associated with this
certification.

Let’s dig in!

Table of Contents
1. Exam Format for Certified in
Cybersecurity Certification
Exam
2. Top 25 Certified in
Cybersecurity Certification Free
Questions
3. Domain: Network Security
4. Domain: Network Security
5. Domain: Network Security
6. Domain: Network Security
7. Domain: Network Security
8. Domain: Network Security
9. Domain: Network Security
10. Domain: Network Security
11. Domain: Security Operations
12. Domain: Network Security
13. Domain: Network Security
14. Domain: Network Security
15. Domain: Network Security
16. Domain: Network Security
17. Domain: Network Security
18. Domain: Network Security
19. Domain: Network Security
20. Domain: Network Security
21. Domain: Network Security
22. Domain: Network Security
23. Domain: Network Security
24. Domain: Network Security
25. Domain: Network Security
26. Conclusion

Exam Format For


Certified In
Cybersecurity
Certification Exam
Top 25 Certified In
Cybersecurity
Certification Free
Questions
The below listed Certified in
Cybersecurity (CC) certification
questions align with the latest
syllabus and reflect the real-world
relevance of the CC exam.

Whether you’re aiming to bridge


knowledge gaps or enhance your
cybersecurity expertise, this
comprehensive list of CC questions
will prove invaluable. By dedicating
time to mastering these questions,
you will be better equipped to
approach the actual CC exam with
confidence, ensuring a successful
outcome on your first attempt.

Take advantage of this opportunity


to upskill and solidify your
understanding of key concepts in
the cybersecurity field with these
thoughtfully crafted CC exam
simulator questions.

Domain: Network
Security
Question 1: Which one is the most
common security threat with IoT
devices?
A. Logical Network Segmentation
B. Lack of device management
C. Lack of system update against a
new vulnerability
D. Backdoor

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Lack of system updates, when a


new vulnerability is found, is the
most common issue with IoT
devices. In the case of most
embedded systems with the
programming directly on the chips,
it would require physical
replacement of the chip to patch
the vulnerability. For many systems,
it may not be cost-effective to have
someone visit each one to replace
a chip, or manually connect to the
chip to reprogram it.

Option A is incorrect since logical


network segmentation is the best
way to isolate IoT environments
from other devices on the network
and it is not a security threat.

Options B and D are the correct


security threats against IoT devices
but except for Option C, the other
two options do not have very
common security against most IoT
devices hence if we have to choose
the most common security threat in
IoT devices then Option C is correct,
and Option B & D are incorrect.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network Security

Question 2: Which of the below is a


challenge in micro-segmentation in
cyber security?

A. Reducing the attack surface


B. Easy to configure and map to a
business need
C. Secure Critical Applications
D. Improves Regulatory Compliance
Posture

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Deployment of network-based
micro-segmentation is not very
granular because it is extremely
difficult to map business
segmentation needs to networking
constructs.

Option A is incorrect since micro-


segmentation reduces the attack
surface.
Option B is correct since
configuration of micro-
segmentation and map to network
based on business requirements is
a big challenge in micro-
segmentation.

Option C is incorrect since micro-


segmentation helps to secure
critical applications.

Option D is incorrect since micro


segmentation helps to improve
regulatory compliance also.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 3: Which type of security
control micro-segmentation
supports?

A. Logical rules
B. Physical rules
C. Logical and physical rules
D. Network-defined rules

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
These are logical rules, not physical
rules, and do not require additional
hardware or manual interaction
with the device (that is, the
administrator can apply the rules to
various machines without having to
physically touch each device or the
cables connecting it to the
networked environment).

Option A is correct since micro


segmentation is based on logical
rules where admin is not required to
touch the system physically to
implement these rules.

Option B is incorrect since micro


segmentation does not require
touching the system physically to
implement these rules.

Option C is incorrect as mentioned


in options A and B.

Option D is incorrect since there is


no keyword or methodology named
network defined rules.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 4: Which of the below
methods is best for hosting
streaming video files for the
company’s remote users where we
can ensure that the data is protected
while it’s streaming?

A. Symmetric encryption
B. Hashing
C. Asymmetric encryption
D. VLANs

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Symmetric encryption offers


confidentiality of data with the least
amount of processing overhead,
which makes it the preferred means
of protecting streaming data.

Option A is correct since symmetric


encryption is best for secure
streaming communication.

Option B is incorrect since hashing


would not provide confidentiality of
the data.

Option C is incorrect since


asymmetric encryption provides
more overhead compared to
symmetric encryption hence it
would not be the best choice.

Option D is incorrect since VLANs are


useful for the logical segmentation
of networks, but do not serve a
purpose of streaming data to
remote users.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 5: Which of the below
technologies does not guarantee a
network’s security?
A. VLAN
B. Firewall
C. IDS/IPS
D. VPN

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

VLANs do not guarantee a network’s


security. Most of the time that traffic
cannot be intercepted because
communication within a VLAN is
restricted to member devices.
However, there are attacks that
allow a malicious user to see traffic
from other VLANs (so-called VLAN
hopping).
Option A is correct since VLAN alone
does not guarantee a network’s
security; rather VLAN technology is
used for improving the overall
security of a network.

Options B, C and D are incorrect


since Firewall, IDS/IPS, and VPN
provides network security.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 6: Which of the below VLAN
configurations could be a threat to
network security?

A. Separate the data center from all


other network traffic
B. VOIP and the rest of the network
are using different VLANs
C. A VLAN is configured to
communicate with other VLANs
D. NAC (Network Access Control)
systems use VLANs to control
whether devices connect to the
corporate network or to a guest
network

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Main purpose of using VLANs is
micro segmentation. If two VLANs
are talking to each other then
segmentation is not there and if one
vlan is hacked by an external
hacker, he would be able to get
access to the entire network.

Options A and B are incorrect since


in both cases VLAN is providing
proper network segmentation.

Option C is correct since network


segmentation is not happening
here and this could lead to network
security threat.

Option D is not correct since proper


network segmentation is in place
here.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 7: Which of the below
technologies/protocols does not
necessarily provide encryption?

A. SSH
B. TLS
C. SSL
D. VPN

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

VPN is not necessarily an encrypted


tunnel. It is simply a point-to-point
connection between two hosts that
allows them to communicate.
Secure communications can be
provided but only if the security
protocols have been selected and
correctly configured to provide a
trusted path over an untrusted
network
Options A, B and C are incorrect
since TLS (Transport Layer Security),
SSH (Secure Shell), SSL (Secure
Socket Layer) as the name implies,
provide encryption.

Option D is correct since VPN doesn’t


give a guarantee of encrypted
traffic. It can provide encryption
using security protocols but not
necessary.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network
Security
Question 8: Which of the below
technologies/devices can help to limit
the broadcast traffic within a
network?

A. Firewall
B. VLAN
C. IDS
D. Switch

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
In large corporate networks, VLANs
can be used to limit the amount of
broadcast traffic within a network.
This is most common in networks of
more than 1,000 devices and may
be separated by department,
location/building, or any other
criteria as needed.

Option A is incorrect since a firewall


can be used to block the traffic, but
it is not suitable to limit the
broadcast traffic within a network.

Option B is correct since VLANs are


generally used to limit the amount
of broadcast traffic within a
network.
Option C is not correct since IDS
(intrusion Detection System) is used
to detect any intruder in a
corporate network and not for
limiting the traffic.

Option D is not correct since switch


is not used for packet or traffic
filtering

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 9: While securing data from
the public, an organization employs
two-factor authentication (2FA), role-
based access control, tokenization,
and air-gapped networks. Which
concept of cyber security is being
applied here by this organization?

A. Defense in depth
B. Data security
C. Logical access control
D. Security through obscurity

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Different methods of cyber security


are used here which falls under the
defense in depth category.

Option A is correct since multiple


ways of data protection is used
here which is called the defense in-
depth concept.

Option B is not correct since only


data security is not used, we can
see logical access control and other
concepts are also used.

Option C is not correct since logical


access is controlled but using
different methods so only logical
access control is not the right
concept.
Option D is not correct security
through obscurity (STO) means
vulnerability will not be exposed
publicly due to the design
architecture of the system and on
that idea, the system will remain
unimpacted. However, this is not the
case in the above question hence
option D is wrong.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module 2: Understand Network
(Cyber) Threats and Attacks

Domain: Security
Operations
Question 10: What is the right time to
plan for security?

A. Pre-deployment
B. Post-deployment
C. Testing Phase
D. Monitoring Phase

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: From the very


beginning, we need to plan for
security, even before the data is
introduced into the network.

Option A is correct because a robust


security plan should be in place
before data is going to deploy in the
network so that each byte of data
would be secured.

Options B & D are incorrect because


once data is entered into the
network it would be exposed to the
outside world and delaying a
security plan can compromise the
data.

Option C is not correct since it


depends on when data is entered
into the network. The option doesn’t
give a clear picture of where the
testing phase is going on.

Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter
5-Module 1: Understand Network
(Cyber) Threats and Attacks

Domain: Network
Security
Question 11: To ensure the availability
of a data center, it is best to plan for
both resilience and ___________ of
the elements in the facility.

A. Uniqueness
B. Security
C. Redundancy
D. Incident response

Correct Answer: C
Explanation:

Availability is guaranteed by
ensuring that elements of the data
center are replicated in case any
given individual element fails.

Option A is incorrect since it is the


opposite of redundancy because if
any single element is unique, that
could become a single point of
failure and affect the overall
operation.

Option B is incorrect; while security


is required but not an integral part
of availability while resilience &
redundancy is a MUST-have
requirement for the availability of
an element in the data center.

Option C is correct since resilience &


redundancy is a MUST-have
requirement for an element in the
data center.

Option D is incorrect since planning


for incident response is not related
to the availability of data center
elements.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network
Security
Question 12: How many temperature
sensors are required to measure the
actual operating temperature of the
environment in a Data Center Rack?

A. Four
B. Three
C. Two
D. One

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
It is recommended that a rack
have three temperature sensors,
positioned at the top, middle and
bottom of the rack, to measure the
actual operating temperature of the
environment.

Options A, C and D are incorrect


since it is recommended to have
Three temperature sensors,
positioned at the top, middle, and
bottom.

Option B is correct as explained


above.

Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter
4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 13: To prevent fire mashups
in the data center, fire suppression
systems are required. Which of the
below fire suppression technique is
best for the data center?

A. Sprinkler System
B. Dry Water Pipes
C. Overhead Water Tank
D. Fire extinguisher
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The Fire mashup risk can be


reduced somewhat by using a dry-
pipe system that keeps the water
out of the pipes over the data
center. These systems have a valve
outside the data center and will be
operated only when a sensor
indicates a fire is present. Since
water is not held in the pipes above
the data center, the risk of leaks is
reduced.

Option A is incorrect since the


sparkler system is very much useful
to stop spreading fire but at the
same time it will damage the
electronic equipment, hence it is not
advisable to install a sprinkler
system inside the data center.

Option B is correct since dry pipes


are located inside the data center
but without water hence leakage
issue won’t be there, and those
pipes would be activated only in
that case if fire is present in the
data center whereas other solutions
like sprinkler system would become
active when fire is present at any
location of the building and can
damage the electronic equipment.

Option C is incorrect since keeping


the overhead water tank may cause
leakage issues in the long term
which will again damage the
equipment.

Option D is incorrect since


traditional fire extinguishers will
cause irreparable damage to
servers. Water and foam-based fire
extinguishers can also conduct
electricity

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

NOTE: – Special fire extinguishers


are also available which are best for
data center, but CC exam guide
doesn’t talk about it rather it says
dry water pipe is best solution. So, in
case exam has given an option
something like mentioned in below
link then choose those fire
extinguisher as best option
otherwise please choose dry water
pipe as best option.

https://resources.impactfireservices
.com/which-fire-protection-
system-is-best-for-server-rooms-
and-data-centers

Domain: Network
Security
Question 14: When choosing a cable
type for a data center, one should
look for the lowest attenuation. Which
of the below cable types have the
highest attenuation?

A. Glass Cable
B. Optical Fiber
C. Copper Wires
D. Twisted Cables

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Attenuation means the loss or


reduction in the amplitude or
strength of a signal as it passes
along its length. As the signal
travels through, some of the signal
will be absorbed which is highest in
comparison with other cable types.

Option A is incorrect since Glass


Cable is having the lowest
attenuation and best fit for the data
center.

Option B is incorrect since Optical


fibers are also a very good
conductor of signals compared to
copper wire.

Option C is correct since copper


cables are having the highest
attenuation.
Option D is incorrect since coaxial
cables are also copper wires but
have less attenuation.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 15: When choosing a cable
type for a data center, someone
should look for the lowest
attenuation. Which of the below cable
type is best for the data center where
the signal needs to travel from one
rack to far located last rack?

A. Glass Cable
B. Optical Fiber
C. Copper Wires
D. Twisted Cables

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

Glass cable has the lowest


attenuation, meaning the loss or
reduction in the amplitude or
strength of a signal as it passes
along its length would be less in
glass cables.
Option A is correct since Glass Cable
is having lowest attenuation and
best fit for the data center.

Option B is incorrect since Optical


fibers are also very good
conductors of signals compared to
the copper wire but have higher
attenuation compared to glass
fiber, so it is 2nd best choice but not
the first.

Option C is incorrect since copper


cables are having highest
attenuation so not the best fit in a
data center for long-distance
communication, however for the
lowest distance like a switch to a
server, copper cables are preferred
because of their low cost.

Option D is incorrect since coaxial


cables are also copper wires but
have less attenuation compared to
traditional cables, however, having
higher attenuation compared to
glass cables or optical fiber cables.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 16: Which of the below
agreements needs to be signed to
establish a common legal term that
establishes a “conditional
agreement” between client and
Vendor?

A. MOU
B. MOA
C. NDA
D. SLA

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

A memorandum of agreement
(MOA) or cooperative is a
document written between parties
saying the client & vendor to work
together on an agreed-upon
project or meet an agreed-upon
objective. It is a written
understanding of the agreement
between two or more parties. The
MOA can also be a legal document
that holds the parties responsible
for their commitment to work.

Option A is incorrect since MOU


stands for memorandum of
understanding which tends to be
used for simple common-cause
agreements which are not legally
binding.

Option B is correct since MOA is


similar to MOU but establishes
common legal terms that establish
a “conditional agreement” between
two parties.

Option C is incorrect Since NDA


(non-disclosure agreement) is a
legally binding agreement but not
for business understanding rather it
is related to non-disclosure of
confidential information.

Option D is incorrect since SLA


(service level agreement) defines
the expectations and level of quality
that a client or customer receives
from a SaaS vendor.

Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter
4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 17: Tracy, an owner of a
Tech startup has outsourced his infra
management to an MSP (Managed
Service Provider) Company. Which
document needs to be signed by a
Managed Service provider to protect
the Client’s confidential agreement?

A. NDA
B. SLA
C. MOA
D. MOU

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

An NDA (non-disclosure
agreement) is a legally binding
agreement between a client and
vendor that says both parties
cannot share confidential
information with the public.

Option A is correct since NDA legally


protects a party or parties’
confidential information to become
public.
Option B is incorrect since SLA
(service level agreement) defines
the expectations and level of quality
that a client or customer receives
from a SaaS vendor.

Options C & D are incorrect since


MOA & MOU are related to a mutual
understanding with or without legal
bindings but not related to non-
disclosure of secret information.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network
Security
Question 18: Which of the following is
required to be protected by redundant
power?

A. HVAC
B. UPS
C. Utility
D. Generator

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

HVAC is a data center cooling unit


that needs to be protected by a
redundant power supply, which is
provided by the other three options.

Option A is correct since HVAC, a


data center cooling unit needs to
be protected by a redundant power
supply because if the HVAC is out of
service due to some reason and the
data center temperature goes up
and beyond the threshold limit then
it may create serious damage to
data center equipment.

Options B, C & D are incorrect since


these options are the source of
redundant power supply and don’t
need to be protected by redundant
power.
Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module 3: Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 19: Being a CSC (cloud
service customer) Jhulan opted for a
bunch of server instances and
configured them to run her own
software. Is this an example of a
cloud deployment model?

A. SecaaS
B. PaaS
C. SaaS
D. IaaS

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Purchasing server instances from


CSP (cloud service provider) and
installing an OS/software to run
your own application is an example
of IaaS i.e., infrastructure as a
service model.

Option A is incorrect since SecaaS is


security as a service and doesn’t
provide any specific infra for
running software.
Option B is incorrect since these
options are a source of redundant
power supply and don’t need to be
protected by redundant power.

Option C is incorrect since PaaS


provides a flexibility to build your
own application, deploy it and host
it, while the ask was opted for some
server instances and run your own
application. Hence, PaaS is not the
right answer.

Option D is correct since IaaS


(Infrastructure as a service)
provides flexibility to opt for server
instances and configure them to
run your own software.
Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module-3- Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 20: As per NIST SP 800-145
which one is not the cloud
characteristics?

A. Ubiquitous
B. Convenient
C. On-demand
D. Dedicated resource pool
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

The cloud model provides a shared


pool of configurable computing
resources such as network, server,
storage etc. hence dedicated
resource pool is not a correct
answer.

Options A, B and C are incorrect


since Ubiquitous, Convenient & On-
demand are features of the Cloud
model.

Option D is correct since the cloud


model provides a shared resource
pool rather than dedicated
resources.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module-3- Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 21: Which of the below
features provides redundancy in the
cloud model?

A. Different shared resources


B. Different deployment models
C. Different availability zones
D. Power backups

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Cloud service providers have


different availability zones so that if
one goes down, activities can shift
to another. Customers don’t have to
maintain a whole data center with
all the redundancy that requires
rather a cloud service provider does
that for customers.

Option A is incorrect since different


shared resources such as
networking, servers, etc. don’t
provide cloud redundancy.

Option B is incorrect since different


deployment models don’t provide
cloud redundancy.

Option C is correct since different


availability zones provide cloud
redundancy and if any one of the
availability zones go down, so in
that region cloud customers would
be shifted to another availability
zone automatically without any
impact.

Option D is incorrect since different


shared resources such as
networking, server etc. doesn’t
provide cloud redundancy.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module-3- Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 22: Which of the below can
be a disadvantage to working with an
MCSP (managed cloud service
provider)?
A. Optimization
B. Migration
C. Infrastructure Management
D. Security & Transparency

Correct Answer: D

Explanation:

Cloud MSPs, like public cloud


services, use a multi-tenant model.
This means that providers are
responsible for many customers at
once and that the data of all
customers is stored in one location.
Your system might be affected by
another customer’s provider not
having strict security rules in place.
For example, if an MCSP is handling
a migration and accidentally
uploads the wrong data to your
storage then it would be a serious
issue. Another important factor is
transparency, you should be aware
of what security
compliance/audit/regulatory
certifications your MSCP has which
will prove its transparency in
providing the right service.

Option A is incorrect since


optimization is an advantage
provided by MCSP.

Option B is incorrect since


managing migration to the cloud is
an advantage provided by MCSP.
Option C is incorrect since resource
management which includes
infrastructure as well is an
advantage provided by MCSP.

Option D is correct since the MCSP


process can pose a security risk as
mentioned in the explanation
section.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module-3- Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 23: Which one of the below
terms & conditions mentioned in an
SLA is not related to cloud security?

A. Data Location
B. Data Access
C. Data Portability
D. Change Management Process

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Data portability is related to data


migration from one cloud to
another and not related to security.

Option A is incorrect since data


location is related to security
controls.

Option B is incorrect since data


access is related to security
controls.

Option C is correct since data


portability is related to migrating
the data from one cloud to another
cloud like AWS to GCP etc. and not
specifically related to security.

Option D is correct since the change


management process is also
related to Information security.

Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter
4-Module-3- Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network Security

Question 24: Which of the below


definitions represents the DMZ
(Demilitarized Zone) in IT Security?

A. A DMZ is a network area that is


designed to be accessed by outside
visitors but is still isolated from the
private network of the organization
B. A DMZ is a physically protected
area in an IT organization where
outside visitors are allowed with
permission
C. A DMZ is a network area that is
designed to be accessed by outside
visitors but is still not used for
hosting public web, email, files, and
other resource servers
D. A DMZ is a network area that is
designed to be accessed by outside
visitors which includes
organizations’ private networks

Correct Answer: A

Explanation:

A DMZ is a network area that is


designed to be accessed by outside
visitors but is still isolated from the
private network of the organization.
The DMZ is often the host of public
web, email, files, and other resource
servers.

Option A is correct since DMZ is a


network area that allows outside
visitors to access the network
without touching the company’s
private network.

Option B is incorrect since DMZ is not


a physically protected area.

Option C is incorrect since DMZ is a


network area that allows outside
visitors to access the network which
includes hosting public web, emails,
files, etc.
Option D is incorrect since DMZ is a
network area that allows outside
visitors to access the network but
without accessing the company’s
private network.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module-3- Understand Network
Security Infrastructure

Domain: Network
Security
Question 25: Which one of the below
is the right statement about defense
in depth?
Defense in depth uses a layered
approach when designing the
security posture of an organization

Defense in depth is good for


administrative and technological
controls but not for physical control

Defense in depth provides good


physical control but not
administrative and technological
controls

Defense in depth uses a single-


layer approach when designing the
security posture of an organization

Correct Answer: A
Explanation:

A DMZ is a network area that is


designed to be accessed by outside
visitors but is still isolated from the
private network of the organization.
The DMZ is often the host of public
web, email, files, and other resource
servers.

Option A is correct since defense in


depth is a layered approach that
takes care of all types of security
controls including physical,
administrative, and technological.

Option B is incorrect since defense


in depth takes care of all types of
security controls which includes
physical, administrative, and
technological.

Option C is incorrect since defense


in depth takes care of all types of
security controls which includes
physical, administrative, and
technological.

Option D is incorrect since defense


in depth is not a single-layer
approach.

Reference:

ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter


4-Module-3- Understand Network
Security Infrastructure
Conclusion
Hope the aforementioned selection
of questions for the Certified in
Cybersecurity (CC) certification has
proven helpful to you. The CC
certification is an essential starting
point for individuals aspiring to
build a successful career in the
cybersecurity field, regardless of
their level of expertise.

To maximize your chances of


success, it is highly recommended
that you thoroughly cover all the
objectives of the Certified in
Cybersecurity (CC) certification
exam. This will ensure you approach
the exam with confidence and
increase your likelihood of passing it
on your first attempt.

To further enhance your


preparation, Whizlabs offers a range
of resources, including practice
tests, video courses, hands-on labs,
and a sandbox environment. These
resources are regularly updated to
align with the latest Certified in
Cybersecurity (CC) certification
exam content and will provide you
with valuable insights and practical
experience.

Embrace the opportunity to


strengthen your cybersecurity
expertise, solidify your
understanding of the CC
certification objectives, and
practice until you feel fully prepared
to tackle the real exam.

If you have any doubt about this


blog post, contact us, experts,
today!

 About the Author

 More from Author

About Senthil
Senthil Kumar is a
Data Research
and Analytics Lead with over
6+ years of experience in the
field. He is a highly skilled
data analyst, able to use his
analytical abilities to turn
business objectives into
actionable insights.With
strong planning and
organizational skills, and an
unwavering focus on the
customer, Senthil is able to
deliver successful projects
that align with the
organization's objectives. He
is able to think both laterally
and pragmatically, which
enables him to come up with
innovative solutions that drive
the organization's success.


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