CHIEF PATRON

MRS. SONA SETH

DEPUTY COMISSIONER, KVS, RO, LUCKNOW

PATRON
MRS. ARCHANA JAISWAL
ASSISTANT COMISSIONER, KVS, RO, LUCKNOW

COORDINATOR
MR. R. C. PANDEY
PRINCIPAL, KV IIT KANPUR

CORE TEAM
MS. ANVITA BAJPAI PGT (PHYSICS) KV AFS MEMAURA,
LUCKNOW
MR. NAGESHWAR PRASAD PANDEY PGT (PHYSICS) KV BARABANKI
MR. GOVIND SHARAN SHARMA PGT (PHYSICS) KV BKT, LUCKNOW
MS. MEENU RANA PGT (PHYSICS) KV CHAKERI NO. 1
KANPUR
MR. AWADH NARAIN PGT (PHYSICS) KV IIT, KANPUR
MS. DEEPSHIKHA SAXENA PGT (PHYSICS) KV IIT, KANPUR
 Table of content

1. LIST OF PARTICIPANTS
2. CBSE CIRCULAR DATED 3-4-2024 ON ASSESSMAENT AND EVALUATION
PRACTICES OF THE BOARD FOR THE SESSION 2024-25
3. OFFICE ORDER OF KVS, RO, LUCKNOW REGARDING ONE DAY TRAINING OF CO-
ORDINATORS AND RESOURCE PERSONS
4. LIST OF VARIOUS CO-ORDINATORS AND RESOURCE PERSONS (SUBJECT-WISE)
5. LETTER SENT TO ALL KV OF LUCKNOW REGION REGARDING THREE DAYS
WORKSHOP OF PGT (PHYSICS) FROM KV IIT KANPUR
6. SESSION / DAY WISE SCHEDULE OF PHYSICS WORKSHOP
7. REPORT ON FIRST DAY OF WORKSHOP
8. REPORT OF SECOND DAY OF WORKSHOP
9. REPORT OF THIRD DAT OF WORKSHOP
10. COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS OF CLASS XI
11. COMPETENCY BASED QUESTIONS OF CLASS XII
 List of Participants
S.No. NAME OF PARTICIPANT NAME OF KV
1 MR. PRADEEP SHARMA AFS, BAREILLY
2 MR. PANKAJ RASTOGI AFS, BAREILLY
3 MR. ARUN KUMAR ALIGANJ I SHIFT, LUCKNOW
4 MR. DINESH KUMAR ALIGANJ I SHIFT, LUCKNOW
5 MR. PAWAN ALIGANJ II SHIFT, LUCKNOW
6 MR. ASHUTOSH SRIVASTAVA AMC II SHIFT, LUCKNW
7 MS. SEEMA NIGAM ARMAPUR NO., l,KANPUR
8 MS. KRISHMA YADAV ARMAPUR NO. l,KANPUR
9 MR. PRADEEP KUMAR ARMAPUR NO. l,KANPUR
10 MR. INDRA MOHAN PANDEY BALRAMPUR
11 MR. BRAJESH KUMAR SINGH CHAKERI NO. 1 KANPUR
12 MR. ABHINESHWAR KANAUJIYA CHAKERI NO. 1 KANPUR
13 MR. SHIV KUMAR CHAKERI NO.2 KANPUR
14 MR. OM PRAKASH TIWARI CHAKERI NO.2 KANPUR
15 MR. PRAVEEN GUPTA CHAKERI NO. 3 KANPUR
16 MR. AMIR AHMAD AYODHYA CANTT
17 MR. VIVEK MISHRA GOMTI NAGAR I, SHIFT LKO
18 MR. ADIL PARVEZ ANSARI GOMTINAGAR II SHIFT
19 MR. RAMASHRAY PRASAD YADAV IIM LUCKNOW
20 MR. ALOK TRIVEDI IIT Kanpur
21 MS. BIMLA RANI JLA BAREILLY
22 MR. ANIL KUMAR JLA BAREILLY
23 MR. SUNIL KUMAR JRC BAREILLY
24 MR. VIVEK GANGWAR JRC BAREILLY
25 MR. ANUJ GUPTA KANPUR CANTT I SHIFT
26 MR. SANJEEV KUMAR KANPUR CANTT II SHIFT
27 MR. GAURAV SINGH LUCKNOW CANTT
28 MR. DEEPAK SRIVATAVA MATI AKBARPUR I SHIFT
29 MR. AMIT SRIVASTAVA MATI AKBARPUR I SHIFT
30 MR. SHIV KISHOR MCF LALGANJ
31 MS. AKANKSHA JAIN NER BAREILLY
32 MS. MADHULIKA SAXENA NTPC DIBIYAPUR
33 MR. ATUL KUMAR AWASTHI OEF KANPUR
34 MS. SMRITI SRIVASTAVA OEF KANPUR
35 MR. VIBHAV KUMAR PANDEY PILIBHIT
36 MR. ASHOK KUMAR YADAV RAEBAREILY I SHIFT
37 MR. ANURAG JAISWAL RAEBAREILY I SHIFT
38 MR. ADARSH KUMAR SINGH RAEBAREILY II SHIFT
39 MR. R.P PANDEY RDSO LUCKNOW
40 MR. Y. K. AWASTHI RRC FATEHGARH
41 MR. MOHAN LAL SHARMA RRC FATEHGARH
42 MR. ASHUTOSH MISHRA SGPGI LUCKNOW
43 MR. ARJUN SINGH SHAHJAHANPUR CANTT I SHIFT
44 MR. MUNESH KUMAR SHAHJAHANPUR CANTT II SHIFT
45 MR. VISHWAJEET SAGAR OCF SHAHJAHANPUR I SHIFT
46 MS. ABHA PANT OCF SHAHJAHANPUR II SHIFT
47 MR. PANKAJ PANT SHIVGARH
48 MR. JAVED IQBAL SITAPUR I SHIFT
49 MR. KAMAL KISHORE BAJPAI SITAPUR II SHIFT
50 MR. SANJAY GUPTA UNNAO
 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, LUCKNOW REGION
SESSION / DAY WISE SCHEDULE OF PHYSICS WORKSHOP ON “CONTENT ENRICHMENT
AND PEDAGOGICAL PRACTICES IN PHYSICS”(2024-25)

D SESSION 1 T SESSION 2 SESSION 3 L SESSION 4 T SESSION 5

A (9:00 – 10:30 E (10:45 – 12:15 (12:15 – 1:30 U (2: 30 – 4:00 E (4:15 – 5:30
Y AM) A PM) PM) N PM) A PM)
- C -
D BLOOM’S B COMPETENCY BASED (CLASS XII) H (CLASS XII) B (CLASS XI)
TAXONOMY AND ASSESSMENT AND CBQ from Unit I (both SELF INDUCTANCE, Centre of mass and
A COMPETENCY BASED R EVALUATION chapters) ( MUTUAL R ROTATIONAL MOTION
Y ASSESSMENT AND E ( By Mrs Anvita Bajpai) and POLARISATION OF 1 INDUCTANCE, AC E (Conservat
EVALUATION DIELECTRIC AND
1 (By Mr G S Sharma)
A FACTORS AFFECTING
H GENERATOR
TRANSFORMER
AND
A ion of
angular
K CAPACITANCE OF A O (INCLUDING K momentu
( CAPACITOR U ACTIVITIES) along ( m and
(INCLUDING with CBQ applicatio
1 ACTIVITIES) R (BY Mrs Anvita 1 n) along
5 (By Ms Meenu Rana) ) Bajpai) 5 with CBQ
M M of Work
energy
I I and Power
N N ( By Mr N.
P. Pandey)
(CLASS XII) ) (CLASS XII) (CLASS XI) (CLASS XII) ) POCSO ACT,
D
KIRCHHOFF’S LAWS, MAGNETIC FIELD ON LAWS OF MOTION GRAVITATIONAL CORPORAL
A WHEATSTONE THE AXIS OF A (PROBLEM ACTIVITIES) POTENTIAL AND PUNISHMENT AND
Y BRIDGE, FACTORS CURRENT CARRYING along with CBQ POTENTIAL GENDER
AFFECTING CIRCULAR (BY Mr PRAVIN ENERGY along with SENSITIZATION
2 RESISTIVITY COIL,TORQUE ON A GUPTA) CBQ of Mechanical ( Mr R. C. Pandey,
along with CBQ of CURRENT CARRYING Properties of fluids PRINCIPAL KV IIT KNP)
E.M.Waves COIL PLACED IN (By Ms Meenu
( By Mr Awadh UNIFORM MAGNETIC Rana)
Narain) FIELD, MOVING COIL
GALVANOMETER AND
ITS CONVERSION INTO
AMMETER AND
VOLTMETER
along with CBQ
(By Mr G S Sharma)

D TALK OF (CLASS XII) HUYGEN’S (CLASS XII) LECTURE BY POST TEST AND
PROF. H.C.VERMA ON THEORYAND ITS PHOTOELECTRIC Assistant Prof. Mr. I.M.Pandey
A COMPETANCY EXPLANATION EFFECT, GRAPH Rohit Medwal on the topic Waves
Y (RETD. FROM IIT ANALYSIS, EINSTEIN’S (Dept of Physics and Oscillations
KANPUR) ( By Mr N. P. Pandey) EXPLANATION, IITK)
3 DEVIATION FROM
WAVE NATURE OF
MATTER
( By Mrs Anvita Bajpai)
 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGTHAN, LUCKNOW REGION
WORKSHOP ON SUBJECT ENRICHMENT AND PEDAGOGICAL PRACTICES: 20 -22 AUGUST 2024
VENUE: KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA, IIT KANPUR
REPORT: 20/08/2024 (FIRST DAY)

A 3- days Workshop of Physics teachers of Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangthan, Lucknow

Region on the topic “Subject Enrichment and Pedagogical Practices” began with the
lightning of Lamp by Mr R C Pandey, Course Director and Principal, KV IIT, Kanpur.
Participants of workshop were welcomed by the shining stars of KV IIT Kanpur. After a
brief introduction of participants, work shop started with motivational speech of Mr R C
Pandey, Course Director and Principal, KV IIT, Kanpur. In his speech, he emphasised on
teaching as per standards of NEP 2020. Participants were advised to update themselves
for competency based teaching in their class rooms.
In the first session of workshop, Mr G S Sharma, Resource person and PGT Physics
Kendriya Vidyalaya BKT Lucknow introduced the concept of Bloom’s Taxonomy to the
participants in an interactive manner. It was followed by the presentation on features of
competency based learning and its importance in class room teaching.
In the second session of workshop started with a presentation of Ms Anvita Bajpai, PGT
Physics, KV AFS, Memaura on the topic ‘Competency Based Questions’ on various topics
of Physics. This session was highly interactive and fruitful for the teachers.
Next session was taken by the Ms Meenu Rana, Resource Person and PGT Physics, KV No
1, AFS, Chakeri on the topic ‘Electrostatics’. She explained the concept of dielectric in a
befitting manner. Her presentation on polarisation of dielectric in external electric field
was commendable. The session was highly informative and interactive.
After a good lunch, next session was taken by Ms Anvita Bajpai, PGT Physics, KV AFS,
Memaura on the topic ‘Electromagnetic Induction’. She explained the concepts of the
topic very well. She also discussed competencies based questions in detail.
Last session of the day was taken by Mr N P Pandey, PGT Physics, KV Barabanki on topic
‘System of particles and rotational motion’. In his presentation, he focussed on the
applications of rotational motion in daily life situation.
At last, Mr R C Pandey, Course Director and Principal, KV IIT, Kanpur concluded the day
with the summarization of whole day activities and instructions for the next day.
 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGTHAN, LUCKNOW REGION
WORKSHOP ON SUBJECT ENRICHMENT AND PEDAGOGICAL PRACTICES: 20 -22 AUGUST 2024
VENUE: KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA, IIT KANPUR
REPORT: 21/08/2024 (SECOND DAY)

Opening Session
The workshop commenced with a serene start, where all participants engaged in ‘Om
chanting’ followed by a heartfelt prayer. This set a positive tone for the day and
fostered a sense of unity and focus among the attendees.
Talk on POCSO Act 2012
The first session of the day was an important talk on the Protection of Children from
Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act 2012, delivered by the Course Director and Principal of
the host venue, Mr. R.C. Pandey. The session emphasized the critical role of teachers in
safeguarding children’s rights and ensuring a safe learning environment. Mr. Pandey
elaborated on the legal responsibilities of educators under the POCSO Act and
provided valuable insights into identifying and addressing potential issues within the
school setting.
Pre-Test for Teachers
Following the informative session on the POCSO Act, to gauge the understanding and
assimilation of the topics covered, a 30-minute written pre-test was administered to
the teachers. The test served as a tool to assess the effectiveness of the sessions and
the readiness of the participants to apply the concepts in their teaching. The results of
the test will inform future training needs and ensure that the content is aligned with
the teachers’ current knowledge levels.
Sessions on Subject Topics
The workshop proceeded with sessions dedicated to various subject topics. These
sessions were conducted by learned resource persons and members of the Core-Group
from different Vidyalayas within the region. Each session focussed on specific areas of
Physics, providing in-depth knowledge and practical teaching strategies. The resource
persons shared their expertise on the following topics:
Topic 1: Moving charges & magnetism with special focus on finding the direction of the
magnetic field on the axis of a current carrying circular coil, torque acting on the
current carrying coil, Moving Coil Galvanometer and its conversion into ammeter and
voltmeter. Session was conducted by Mr G. S. Sharma, Resource person and PGT
Physics, KV BKT, Lucknow.
Demonstration of Moving Coil Galvanometer
An insightful demonstration on the functioning of a moving coil galvanometer was
conducted, focusing on the angle between the magnetic moment and the radial field.
This hands-on demonstration provided a deeper understanding of the underlying
principles, making it easier for teachers to convey these concepts to their students
effectively.
Topic 2: Problem solving techniques in Laws of motion emphasizing on the Free Body
diagrams, Graphical analysis and friction. Session conducted by Mr Praveen Gupta, PGT
Physics, KV No. 3 AFS Chakeri, Kanpur.
Topic 3: Gravitational Potential Energy and Gravitational Potential with a focus on the
misconceptions and implications of the concepts. Session conducted by Ms Meenu
Rana, PGT Physics PM Shri KV No. 1 AFS Chakeri, Kanpur.
These sessions were highly interactive, with participants actively engaging in
discussions and sharing their experiences. The collaborative atmosphere allowed for a
fruitful exchange of ideas and best practices, which will undoubtedly enhance the
teaching methodologies of the attendees. Along with this, weighting of Competency
Based Questions prepared by the participants on various chapters was also done.
Breaks and Refreshments
Two tea breaks were scheduled during the workshop—one in the morning and another
in the evening. These breaks provided participants with an opportunity to relax and
engage in informal discussions with their peers. A working lunch was also provided,
offering a nutritious meal while allowing participants to continue networking and
sharing insights.
Conclusion
Day 2 of the workshop concluded with positive feedback from the participants, who
appreciated the valuable content, practical demonstrations, and the overall structure
of the event. The combination of subject enrichment, legal education, and practical
demonstrations ensured that the workshop was both comprehensive and impactful.
The knowledge and skills gained from Day 2 of this workshop are expected to
significantly enhance the teaching practices of the participants, ultimately benefiting
their students.
 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGTHAN, LUCKNOW REGION
WORKSHOP ON SUBJECT ENRICHMENT AND PEDAGOGICAL PRACTICES: 20 -22 AUGUST 2024
VENUE: KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA, IIT KANPUR
REPORT: 22/08/2024 (THIRD DAY)

Day 3 (20.08.2024) started with the morning prayer by venue Principal, resource
persons along with participants. After prayer the first session of the day was taken by
the eminent physicist and retired professor of IIT Kanpur Mr. H.C.Verma. He
emphasized on the competency and developing of thinking capacity of students and
teachers during classroom teaching. He encouraged teachers to focus on developing
analytical power and critical thinking of students. He also discussed questions of
Physics to develop critical thinking among teachers also. The session was really
motivating and encouraging to us.
After tea break the second session was taken by Mr.N.P.Pandey on the topic Huygen’s
theory and its applications. Sir discussed the topic very efficiently with suitable
examples. Sir also discussed the questions on the topic ‘Ray Optics’ prepared by the
participants.
The third session was taken by Mrs. Anvita Bajpai on the topic ‘Dual Nature of radiation
and Matter’.She discussed Photoelectic Effect and its observation. The session was
interactive and fruitful. After this we all moved for lunch.
After lunch, the session was taken by Mr. Rohit Medwal Professor IIT Kanpur on the
topic ‘Magnetic Material and its Applications’. He gave information about how the
storage devices are being compact and use of magnetic material in it. The session was
really interactive and innovative. We all were enlighted by his lecture.
The next session was taken by Mr. I.M.Pandey on the topic Waves and Oscillations. He
discussed the topic very efficiently. He also emphasized on preparation of competency
based assessment items.
After this we all moved for tea break.
After tea break Post test was conducted. After giving test impression of this three days
workshop on ‘Content Enrichment and Pedagogical Practices in Physics’ was given by
Dr. K. K. Bajpai and Mrs Seema Nigam on the behalf of all participants. The workshop
got over with the blessings and good wishes of our respected venue Principal.
COMPETENCY
BASED
QUESTIONS
OF CLASS XI
 Chapter 1:-Units and Measurement
MCQs
1. Which of the following is dimensionless
a) force/acceleration b) velocity/acceleration c) volume/area
d) energy/work
2. The pair of the quantities having the same dimensions is
a) displacement, velocity b) time, frequency c) wavelength, focal length
d) force, acceleration
3. The dimensions of universal gravitational constant is
a) [M-1L 3T -2 ] b) [M1L 1T -2 ] c) [M-1L 2T -2 ]
d) [M1L -1T -1 ]
4. If x = a + bt + ct2 , where x is in metre and t in second, then what is the unit of ‘c’?
a) m/s b) m/s2 c) kgm/s d) m2 /s
5. Which of the following equation is dimensionally not correct,
(a) ½ mv2 = mgh (b) v = u + at (c) p = ma (d) F = ma
6. ) The area enclosed by a circle of diameter 1.06 m with correct number of significant figures is,
(a) 0.88 m2 (b) 0.882m2 (c) 1.88 m2 (d) 0.882026 m2
7. The number of significant figures in a pure number 410 is
(1) Two (2) Three (3) One (4) Infinite
8. : Dimensions cannot be used to
(a) To check dimensional correctness of a formula.
(b) Convert units
(c) To find the value of constant of proportionality in an equation.
(d) To deduce a relation among physical quantities.
9. If a calculated value 2.7465 g contains only three significant figures, the two insignificant digits in
it are
(a) 2 and 7 (b) 7 and 4 (c) 6 and 5 (d) 4 and 6
10. The Van-der Waals equation is ( P + a/V2 ) (V-b)= RT, where P is pressure, V is molar volume and
T is the absolute temperature of the given sample of gas. R is called molar gas constant, a and b are
called Vander walls constants
The dimensional formula for b is same as that for
(A) P (B) V (C) PV2 (D) RT
 (SAQ-2 Marks)
1. The distance covered by a particle in time t is given by X = a+bt+ct2+dt3. Find the dimensions
of a, b, c and d.
2. If the unit of force is 1kN, unit of length 1km and the unit of time is100s, what will be the unit
of mass?
3. If velocity, time and force were chosen as the base quantities, find the dimensions of mass.
4. Write the SI unit and dimensional formula of the following:
(i) Pressure (ii) Power
5. If E and G respectively denote the energy and gravitational constant , then find out the
dimensional formula for E/G.
(SAQ -3marks)
1.The wave length λ associated with a moving electron depends on its mass m, velocity v and Plank’s
constant h. Prove dimensionally that λ ∝ h/mv.
2.Derive by the method of dimensions, an expression for the volume of a liquid flowing out per second
through a narrow pipe. Assume that the rate of flow of liquid depends on (i) the coefficient of viscosity
‘η’ (ii) the radius ‘r’ of the pipe and (iii) the pressure gradient (p/l) along the pipe. Take K = π/8.
3.The depth x to which a bullet penetrates a human body depends upon (i)coefficient of elasticity ‘η’
and (ii)kinetic energy Ek .Using the method of dimensions show that:
x ∝ [Ek / η ]1/3
4. The frequency ‘ν’ of vibration of a stretched string depends upon:
(i) the length ‘l’ of the string (ii) its mass per unit length ‘m’ and (iii) the tension T in the string. Obtain
dimensionally an expression for the frequency ‘ν’
5. Convert 5J into ergs using dimensional analysis.
Assertion - Reason
Read the Assertion and Reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
1. Assertion :When we change the unit of measurement of a quantity, its numerical value changes.
Reason : Smaller the unit of measurement, smaller is its numerical value.
2. Assertion : Number of significant figures in 0.005 is one and that in 0.500 is three.
Reason : This is because zeros are not significant.
3. Assertion :Dimensional constants are the quantities whose value are constant.
Reason : Dimensional constants are dimensionless.

2- Case study based questions

Case study – 1
Rules for Arithmetic Operations with Significant Figures
The result of a calculation involving approximate measured values of quantities (i.e. values with
limited number of significant figures) cannot be more accurate than the original measured values
themselves on which the result is based. In general, the final result should not have more significant
figures than the original data from which it was obtained. In multiplication or division, the final result
 should retain as many significant figures as are there in the original number with the least significant
figures. In addition or subtraction, the final result should retain as many decimal places as are there in
the number with the least decimal places. The final result of a calculation is shown with the precision
that is consistent with the precision of the input measured values.
Answer the following-
1. If mass of an object is measured to be 4.237 g and its volume is measured to be 2.51 cm 3,then,
density should be reported to ……… significant figures.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
2. What is the correctly rounded result based on significant figures for the sum of the numbers
436.32 g , 227.2 g and 0.301 g.
(a) 663.8 g
(b) 663.82 g
(c) 663.821 g
(d) 663.8

3. When subtracting 23.456 from 45.6, which of the following correctly represents the number of
decimal places in the result?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

4. The length of an object reported after measurement to be 287.5 cm. which digit is uncertain?
5. Each side of a cube is measured to be 7.203 m. What is the total surface area of the cube to
appropriate significant figures ?

Case study – 2
The dimensions of base quantities and combination of these dimensions describe the nature of physical
quantities. Dimensional analysis can be used to check the dimensional consistency of equations,
deducing relations among the physical quantities, etc. A dimensionally consistent equation need not be
actually an exact (correct) equation, but a dimensionally wrong or inconsistent equation must be wrong.
–
Answer the following-

1. Which of the following statements about dimensional consistency is true for the equation F=ma?
(a) The dimensions of force should be [M1L1T−2] and mass has dimensions [M1L0T0] and
acceleration has dimensions [M0L1T−2]. The equation is dimensionally consistent.
(b) The dimensions of Force should be [M1L0T−1], and mass has dimensions [M1L1T0] and
acceleration has dimensions [M0L0T−1]. The equation is dimensionally inconsistent.
(c) The dimensions of Force should be [M1L1T−2], and mass has dimensions [M1L0T0] and
acceleration has dimensions [M1L1T−2]. The equation is dimensionally consistent.
(d) The dimensions of Force should be [M0L1T−2], and mass has dimensions [M1L0T0] and
acceleration has dimensions [M0L1T−2]. The equation is dimensionally inconsistent.
2. To convert a measurement of force from newton (N) to dyne, knowing that 1 N=105 dyne, which of
the following is the correct dimensional analysis for the conversion?

(a) 1 N=105 dyne, so dimensional method cannot be used for such conversion.
(b) 1 N=105 dyne, where newton has dimensions [M1L1T−2] and dyne has dimensions [M1L1T−2].
(c) 1 N=105 dyne, but dimensions are not required for conversion.
(d) 1 N=105 , with different dimensional formulas for newtons and dyne.

3. To deduce the formula for the period T of a simple pendulum, given that T depends on the length L
of the pendulum and acceleration due to gravity g, we assume that T∝ La⋅ gb . Using dimensional
analysis, what should be the values of a and b if the dimensions of T, L, and g are [T1, [L1], and
[LT−2] respectively?

(a) a = 1 , b = - 1
2 2
(b) a = 1 , b = −1
2
(c) a = 1 , b = - 1
2
(d) a = 1 , b = −1

4. Which of the following physical quantities has/have dimensions of [M1L2T−3]?

(a) Work
(b) Power
(c) Energy
(d) Force

5. If velocity, time and force were chosen as basic quantities, find the dimensions of mass.

Long Answer type questions:

1. A new system of units is proposed in which unit of mass is α kg, unit of length β m and unit of time
𝛾 s. How much will 5 J measure in this new system.
2. (a) Write any two limitations of dimensional analysis.

(b) If velocity of light c, Planck’s constant h and gravitational constant G are taken as fundamental
quantities then express mass, length and time in terms of dimensions of these quantities.

3.a) Give an example of

(i) a physical quantity which has a unit but no dimensions.
(ii) a physical quantity which has neither unit nor dimensions.
b) An artificial satellite is revolving around a planet of mass M and radius R, in a circular orbit of
radius r. From Kepler’s Third law, if T is the period of revolution of a satellite around a
common central body, the square of the period of revolution (T2 ) is proportional to the cube of
the radius of the orbit (r3). Show using dimensional analysis, that
 where k is a dimensionless constant and g is acceleration due to gravity.

Chapter-2 Motion in a Straight Line

Multiple Choice Questions
1. A boy starts from point A and travels 32 m to point B in straight line. If he takes 30 minute to do
so, his average velocity is-
(a) 44 m/s
(b) 32 m/s
(c) 16 m/s
(d) 0.02 m/s
2. A boy travels from a point A to point B on a circular path of radius R. If points A and B are
diametrically opposite, the ratio of distance travelled and the displacement is-
(a) π/2
(b) π
(c) 2π
(d) 4π
3. Which of the following statements about distance is true:
(a) It always decreases with time
(b) It can never be less than magnitude of displacement
(c) It cannot be positive
(d) It cannot be zero
4. The numerical ratio of velocity to speed is:
(a) Either less than or equal to 1
(b) Equal to 1
(c) Greater than 1
(d) Less than 1
5. Two escalators move people up and down between floors of a shopping mall at the same rate,
either up or down. What of the following statements regarding the motion of the escalators is
true?
(a) The escalators have different speeds and velocities.
(b) The escalators have the same velocity, but different speeds.
(c) The escalators have the same speed and velocity.
(d) The escalators have the same speed, but different velocities.
6. The displacement of a particle starting from rest (at t = 0) is given by s = 6t2-t3 The time in
seconds at which the particle will attain zero velocity again, is
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 8
7. An object is in uniform motion along a straight line if it
(a) moves equal distances in equal intervals of time.
(b) does not move
(c) moves equal distances in unequal intervals of time.
(d) moves unequal distances in unequal intervals of time
8. Which of the following is not an example of a rectilinear motion?
(a) A car moving in a circular path
(b) A rain drop falling towards the earth
(c) A car moving on a straight road
(d) A wooden block sliding down the inclined plane
9. Choose the incorrect statement
(a) Velocity is a vector quantity
(b) Velocity can be positive, negative or zero
(c) Velocity gives no idea about the direction of motion of the objects
(d) Time rate of change of displacement is called velocity
2 Marks questions
1. Draw position-time graph for uniform motion of an object in straight line and show that the slope of
graph gives velocity of the object.
2. Draw velocity-time graph for uniformly accelerated motion of an object and show that the slope of
graph gives acceleration of the object.
3. The position of an object moving along x-axis is given by x = a + bt2 where a = 8.5 m, b = 2.5 m s–2
and t is measured in seconds. What is its velocity at t = 0 s and t = 2.0 s.
4. Show that area under v-t graph of uniformly accelerated body in straight line gives distance travelled
by the body in given time interval.
5. A particle is thrown upwards. It attains a height (h) after 5 seconds and again after 9s comes back.
What is the speed of the particle at a height h?
3 Marks Questions
1. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 20 m s–1 from the top of a multistorey building.
The height of the point from where the ball is thrown is 25.0 m from the ground. (a) How high will the
ball rise? (b) how long will it be before the ball hits the ground? Take g = 10 m s–2.
2. Figure gives the x-t plot of a particle in one-dimensional motion. Three different equal intervals of
time are shown. In which interval is the average speed greatest, and in which is it the least? Give the sign
of average velocity for each interval.

3. A woman starts from her home at 9.00 am, walks with a speed of 5 km/h on a straight road up to her
office 2.5 km away, stays at the office up to 5.00 pm, and returns home by an auto with a speed of 25
km/h. Choose suitable scales and plot the x-t graph of her motion.
4. Using graphical method derive second equation
Assertion – Reason type questions
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of
Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D. If both Assertion and Reason are false.

1. Assertion – Two bodies of different masses (10 kg and 1 kg) dropped in vacuum reach the
ground simultaneously.
Reason- Time taken is independent of mass.

2. Assertion: A body is having constant speed but its velocity may vary.
Reason: Speed is scalar but velocity is vector.

3. Assertion- A body covers first half with 40 m/s and second half with 60 m/s of a journey, its
average speed will be 50 m/s.
Reason – The average speed can be calculated by the formula of mean value.

Case Study type questions –

1. The time rate of change of position of the object in any direction is called speed of the object.
If an object covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, then its speed is called uniform
speed and if it covers unequal distances in equal intervals of time, then its speed is called non
uniform or variable speed. The ratio of the total distance travelled by the object to the total
time taken is called average speed of the object. The speed may be positive or zero but never
negative. The speed-time graph of a particle moving along a fixed direction is shown in
following Fig.
Read the paragraph and answer the questions –
 i) Predict the figure and correlate with an example.
ii) Calculate the distance covered in 12 sec
iii) Calculate the average velocity of the body after 12 sec.

2. If the position of an object is continuously changing w.r.t. its surrounding, then it is said to
be in the state of motion. Thus, motion can be defined as a change in position of an object
with time. It is common to everything in the universe. In the given figure, let P,Q and R
represent the position of a car at different instant of time

R O Q P
--│-----│-----│-----│-----│-----│-----│-----│-----│-----│-----│-----│-----│----│----│- X-axis
-160 -120 -80 -40 0 40 80 120 160 200 240 280 320 360 400 (in m)
(i) The displacement of the car form the point P to R
(ii) The path length of the car from O to P and from P to R.
(iii). Write any two differences between them.
Long Answer type question –
1. Draw velocity time graph of a body having velocity u at t = 0 and v at time t = t and moving with
constant acceleration ‘a’. From the graph derive a relation to find distance covered in time ‘t’.
A car starting from rest , accelerates at the rate ‘a’ through a distance ‘s’, then it continues at
constant speed for time ‘t’ and then decelerates at the rate ‘a/2’ and comes to rest. If the total
distance covered in 15 sec then show that
𝟏
S = 𝟕𝟐 at 2
2. Draw velocity time graph of a body having velocity u at t = 0 and v at time t = t and moving with
constant acceleration ‘a’. From the graph derive third equation of motion.
A stone is dropped from a high tower and after 2 sec another stone is projected vertically upward
with a speed of 40 m/s. When and where the second meets the first.
 3. Draw velocity time graph of a body having velocity u at t = 0 and v at time t = t and moving with
constant acceleration ‘a’. From the graph derive a relation to find the distance covered in tth second
of the motion.

Chapter 3-Motion in a plane

MCQ
1. A body is projected with a velocity u at an angle with the horizontal. The velocity of the body will
become perpendicular to the velocity of projection after a time t given by
2𝑢 𝑠𝑖𝑛Ɵ 𝑢 𝑠𝑖𝑛Ɵ 2𝑢 𝑢
(a) (b) (c) (d)
𝑔 𝑔 𝑔 𝑠𝑖𝑛Ɵ 𝑔 𝑠𝑖𝑛Ɵ

2. A body is projected horizontally from a point above the ground. The motion of the body is given by
the equations x = 2t and y = 5t2 where x and y are horizontal and vertical displacements at time t. The
trajectory of the body is:
(a) Straight line (b) circle (c) ellipse (d) parabola
3. A particle moves with a constant speed v along a circular path of radius r and completes the circle
in time T. The acceleration of the particle is:
(a) 2πr/T (b) 2πv/T (c) 2π r2/T (d) 2π v2/ T
4. The magnitude of the resultant of two equal vectors is equal to the magnitude of either vector.
Then the angle between the two vectors is:
(a) 150° (b) 120° (c) 90° (d) 60°
5. Zero vector or null vector is a necessity because,
(a) Zero as a number should be used (b) There are no such zero vectors, it is only a scalar
(c) When two vectors are equal, the resultant should be a vanishing vector with arbitrary direction
(d) It helps in the dot product of two scalars
6. A water fountain on the ground sprinkles water all around it. If speed of water coming out of the
fountain is v, the total area around the fountain that gets wet is:
𝜋𝑣 4 𝜋 𝑣2 𝜋𝑣 2 𝜋𝑣 4
(a) (b) 𝑔2
(c) (d)
2𝑔2 𝑔 𝑔2

7. If the resultant of n forces of different magnitudes acting at a point is zero, then the minimum value
of n is (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
8. The ceiling of a hall is 40m high. For maximum horizontal distance, the angle at which the ball can
be thrown with a speed of 56m/s without hitting the ceiling of the hall is(take g = 9.8m/s):
(a) 25o (b) 30o (c) 45o (d) 60o
9. A body is projected at t=0 with a velocity 10 ms-1 at an angle of 600 with the horizontal. The radius
of curvature of its trajectory at t=1s is R. Neglecting air resistance and taking acceleration due to
gravity g=10 ms-2, the value of R is-
(a) 2.5 m (b) 10.3 m (c) 2.8 m (d) 5.1 m

10. A particle moving with uniform speed in circular path maintains:

(a) Constant velocity but varying acceleration
(b) Varying velocity and varying acceleration
(c) Constant velocity
(d) Constant acceleration

02 MARKS QUESTIONS

1. An aircraft is flying at a height of 3400 m above the ground. If the angle subtended at a ground
observation point by the aircraft positions 10.0 s apart is 30°, what is the speed of the aircraft?

2. Prove that the path of one projectile as seen from another projectile is a straight line.

3. A stone tied to the end of a string 80 cm long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed.
If the stone makes 14 revolutions in 25 s, what is the magnitude and direction of acceleration of the
stone?

4. What will be the effect on horizontal range of a projectile when its initial velocity is doubled keeping
angle of projection same?

5. A person sitting in a train moving at constant velocity throws a ball vertically upwards. How will the
ball appear to move to an observer?
i. Sitting inside the train
ii. Standing outside the train

03 MARKS QUESTIONS

1. A cyclist is riding with a speed of 27 km/h. As he approaches a circular turn on the road of radius 80
m, he applies brakes and reduces his speed at the constant rate of 0.50 m/s2 every second. What is
the magnitude and direction of the net acceleration of the cyclist on the circular turn?
2. A projectile shot at an angle of 60° above the horizontal ground strikes a vertical wall 30 m away at
a point 15 m above the ground. Find the speed with which the projectile was launched and the speed
with which it strikes the wall.

3. A man whirls a stone round his head on the end of a string 4 m long. Can the string be in a
horizontal plane? If the stone has a mass of 0.4 kg, and the string will break if the tension in it exceeds
8 N, what is the smallest angle the string can make with the horizontal? What is the speed of the
stone? (take g = 10 ms−2)

4. A ball is thrown from a roof top at an angle of 45° above the horizontal. It hits the ground a few
seconds later. At what point during its motion, does the ball have
(a) greatest speed.
(b) smallest speed.
(c) greatest acceleration?

5. A ball is thrown from the top of a tower with an initial velocity of 10 ms-1 at an angle of 300
with the horizontal. If it hits the ground at a distance of 17.3 m from the base of the tower, calculate
height of the tower. Given g=10 ms-2.

Assertion -Reason Questions

1. Assertion: A projectile launched at an angle of 45° has the maximum range.

Reason: At 45°, the horizontal component of velocity is equal to the vertical component, resulting in the longest
possible range.

2. Assertion: A projectile launched with a higher initial velocity will have a longer time of flight.
Reason: A higher initial velocity results in a higher maximum height and a longer time spent in the air.

3. Assertion: A projectile launched at an angle of 30° will have the same range as one launched at an angle of
60°.
Reason: The range of a projectile is symmetric about the angle of 45°, so angles equidistant from 45° will have
the same range.

In each of these questions, the assertion describes a situation related to projectile motion, and the reason explains
why that situation occurs.
Long Questions(5 Marks)

1. Define centripetal acceleration. Derive the expression for the centripetal acceleration ofabody moving with
uniform speed v along a circular path of radius ‘r’. Explain how it acts along the radius towards the centre of the
circula rpath.
2. Define projectile. Show that the path of a projectile is parabolic. Find the angle of projection at which the
horizontal range and maximum height of the projectile are equal.
3. State the law of parallelogram of vector addition and find the magnitude and direction of the resultant of two
vectors inclined at an angle with each other.

Chapter 4- Laws of Motion

Multiple Choice Questions
Q.1-What is the angle of friction between two surfaces in contact if the coefficient of friction is 1/(3)½ ?
(a) 0o (b) 60o (c) 90o (d) 30o
 Q.2- An object of mass m lies on the floor of a lift .When the lift moves upwards with an acceleration
‘a’
then reaction on the object will be
(a) m(g+a) b) m(a-g) c) zero d) mg

Q.3- Force of action and reaction never cancel each other as they are
(a) always equal (b) always opposite
(c) acting on same body (d) acting on different bodies

Q.4- How much net force is required to move a body uniformly along a straight line.
(a) 1N (b) F=ma (c) F=mv2/r (d) no force is
required

Q.5-A body of mass 50 kg slides over a horizontal distance of 1 m. If coefficient of friction between their
surfaces is 0.2, then work done against friction is (Take g = 9.8 ms-2 )
(a) 72 J (b) 98 J (c) 56 J (d) 34 J

Q.6- A force of 5N changes the velocity of a body from 10m/s to 20 m/s in 5 second. How much force is
required to bring about the same change in 2 second?
(a) 12.5 N (b) 13N (c) 125N (d) 10N

Q.7-The motion of particle of mass m is described by y=ut+ ½ gt2. The force acting on the particle will
be
(a) F=mg (b) F=dm/dt (c) 10N (d) F=mv2/r

Q.8- Newton’s third law is applicable whether the bodied are at

(a) rest (b) motion
(c) both rest and motion (d) none of these

Q.9-A cricket player catches a ball of mass 0.1 kg moving with a speed of 10 m/s in 0.1 s. Force exerted
by him is :
(a) 10 N (b) 5N (c) 2N (d) 1N

Q.10-A person swimming in a fresh water pool obeys:

(a) Newton’s second law (b) Gravitational law
(c) Newton’s third law (d) Newton’s first law

2 Mark Questions
1Q. Show that Newton’s second law of motion is the real law of motion.
[2]
2Q. Why is it easier to pull a lawn roller than to push it? Explain.
[2]
3Q. A cricketer moves his hand backward while holding a catch. Explain why?
[2]
4Q. A ball moving with momentum 15 kgms-1 strikes against the wall at an angle of 30˚ and reflected with
the same momentum at the same angle. Calculate impulse.
[2]
5Q.Two blocks of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are placed in contact with each other on a frictionless horizontal
surface. If we apply a push of 5 N on the heavier mass, than find the force on the lighter mass.
[Ans: 2N] [2]
6Q. A 1000 kg car rounds a curve on a flat road of radius 50 m at a speed of 14 m/s. Will the car make
turn or will skid if the coefficient of friction is 0.6?

3 Mark Questions

1Q. State the law of conservation of linear momentum. Derive it from Newton’s third law of motion.
[3]
2Q. Define limiting friction. Write down the laws of limiting friction(any four).
[3]
3Q. Define “coefficient of friction” and “angle of friction”. Obtain the relation between them.
[3]
4Q. A man of mass 70 kg stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is;
(a) moving downwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 m/s².
(b) moving upwards with a uniform speed of 10 m/s.
(c) when the lift cable breaks and falls freely under gravity. What would be the reading on the scale
in each case?(Take g = 9.8 m/s²)
[3]

5Q. Derive an expression for the maximum speed with which a vehicle can safely negotiate a curved road
banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of friction between the wheels and the road is .
[3]
6Q. Three blocks are connected as shown on a horizontal frictionless table, and pulled to right with a
force of 60 N. If m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 20 kg and m3 = 30 kg, prove that T1/T2 = 1/3.
[3]

Chapter 4-Work, Energy, and Power

MCQs

1. A mass of 2 kg is moving with a velocity of 4 m/s on a frictionless surface. A constant force of 6 N is

applied in the direction of motion for 3 seconds. What is the final kinetic energy of the mass?
A) 64 J B) 72 J C) 80 J D) 96 J
2. A particle moves under a force field where the potential energy function is given by
U(x) = 5x2 - 3x. What is the force acting on the particle when x = 2 m?
A) -7 N B) -13 N C) -17 N D) -21 N
3. A spring with a spring constant of 200 N/m is stretched by 0.25 m. How much work is done in
stretching the spring?
A) 6.25 J B) 12.5 J C) 25 J D) 50 J
4. A 0.5 kg ball is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 20 m/s. Assuming air resistance
is negligible, what is the maximum height reached by the ball?
A) 10 m B) 15 m C) 20 m D) 25 m
5. A 10 kg object is moving at a speed of 5 m/s. If a net force of 50 N is applied in the direction of
motion for 2 seconds, what is the change in kinetic energy?
A) 250 J B) 500 J C) 750 J D) 1000 J
6. A pendulum bob of mass 1 kg swings to a maximum height of 0.5 m. What is its speed at the lowest
point of the swing?
A) 2 m/s B) 3 m/s C) 4 m/s D) 5 m/s
7. A satellite in a circular orbit around Earth has a total energy of -2 x 109 J. What is the kinetic energy
of the satellite?
A) 1 x 109 J B) 2 x 109 J C) 3 x 109 J D) 4 x 109 J
8. A 3 kg object falls from a height of 10 m. If 30% of the mechanical energy is lost due to air
resistance, what is the speed of the object just before hitting the ground?
A) 10 m/s B) 11 m/s C) 12 m/s D) 13 m/s
9. A force F is applied to a 2 kg block moving on a horizontal surface. The velocity of the block
increases uniformly from 2 m/s to 8 m/s over a distance of 10 m. What is the work done by the force F?
A) 30 J B) 40 J C) 50 J D) 60 J

2-Mark Questions
1. A block of mass 5 kg is released from rest on a frictionless incline of angle 30°. Calculate the speed
of the block after it has traveled 4 m along the incline.
2. Potential energy stored in a stretched or compressed spring , explain the energy transformation when
the spring is released.
3. A car of mass 1200 kg is moving at a speed of 30 m/s. It comes to rest after traveling 150 m due to a
constant frictional force. Calculate the work done by the frictional force.
4. Explain the concept of power and derive the relation between power, force, and velocity for a
constant force acting on a body.
5. A mass of 2 kg is dropped from a height of 10 m on to a spring with a spring constant of 200 N/m.
Calculate the maximum compression of the spring.
6. A 50 W motor lifts a mass of 10 kg to a height of 10 m. Calculate the time taken to lift the mass if
the motor operates at full .
7.How the conservation of mechanical energy applies to a pendulum in motion. Use the example of a
pendulum bob released from a certain height.

3-Mark Questions
1. A 5 kg object moving at 10 m/s collides elastically with a 10 kg object at rest. Calculate the
velocities of both objects after the collision.
2. Explain the concept of potential energy in a gravitational field and derive the expression for
gravitational potential energy for an object of mass m at a height h from the ground.
3. A bullet of mass 10 g is fired horizontally with a velocity of 200 m/s into a block of wood of mass 1
kg initially at rest on a frictionless surface. Calculate the velocity of the block after the bullet embeds
itself in the block.

4. A pendulum of length 2 m is released from an angle of 30° with the vertical. Calculate the speed of
the pendulum bob at the lowest point.
5. A force acts on a 2 kg body along a straight line such that F = 6 - 2x, where F is in newtons and x in
meters. Calculate the work done by this force as the body moves from x = 0 to x = 3 m.
REASON ASSERTION QUESTION
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If assertion and reason are false.

1.Assertion , No work is done if the displacement is zero

Reason: Work done by the force is defined to be the product of component of the force in the direction
of the displacement and the magnitude of displacement.

2.Assertion: The change in kinetic energy of a particle is equal to the work done on it by the net force.
Reason: Change in kinetic energy of particle is equal to the work done in case of a system of one
particle.

3.Assertion:The work done by a conservative force such as gravity depends on the initial and final
positions only
Reason: The work done by a force can not be calculated if the exact nature of the force is not known.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS:

1. Work energy theorem states that – change in kinetic energy of a body is equal to the work done
by the net force. In deriving the theorem, it is assumed that force is effective only in changing
the K.E. When the force and displacement are in same direction, K.E increases and work done
is positive. When the force and displacement are in opposite direction, K.E decreases and work
done is negative. When the body is in uniform motion, K.E does not change and work done by
centripetal force is zero.

(i) A body of mass 10 kg initially at rest, acquires a velocity of 10 m/s. The work done is:
(a) -500J (b) 500J (c) 50J (d) - 50J

(ii) How much work must be done by a force on 50 kg body in order to accelerate from rest to 20
m/s in 10s?

(a) 103 J (b) 104 J (c) 2X103 (d) 4X104 J

(iii) A gun of mass M fires a bullet of mass m with maximum speed v. The KE of gun will be?

(a) ½ mv2 (b) 1/2 Mv2 (c) more than ½ mv2

(d) less than½ mv2

(iv) An unloaded car moving with velocity v on a frictionless road can be stopped in a distance s.
If the passengers add 40% to its weight and breaking force remains the same then the stopping
distance will be

(a) 1.4 s (b) 1.5 s (c) 1.6 s (d) 1.8 s

2. A force is conservative. (i) if the work done by the force in displacing the body is independent of
the path followed by the particle and (ii) if the work done by the force in moving a particle around
any closed path is zero. Gravitational force, electrostatic force and elastic force are conservative
forces A force is if it can be defined from the scalar potential energy function U (x) by the relation:
F (x) = du(X)/dx If the work done by the force in displacing the body, depends on the path followed
by the particle, then the force is non- conservative force. Force of friction and viscosity are non-
conservative force.

(i) A particle moves along a curve of unknown shape but magnitude of force F is constant and
always act along the tangent to the curve, then

(a) F may be conservative

(b) F must be conservative

(c) F may be non-conservative.

(d) F must be non- conservative.

(ii) Which of the following is not a conservative force?

(a) Gravitational force

(b) electrostatic force

(c) Force of friction

(d) magnetic force

 (iii) The potential energy of a body is given by U= A-Bx2 , x is displacement. The magnitude of the
force acting on the particle is:

(a) Constant

(b) proportional to x

(c) proportional to x2

(d)inversely proportional to x

(iv) The potential energy of a system increases if work is done:

(a) upon the system by a non-conservative force

(b) by system against the conservative force

(c) by the system against non-conservative

(d) upon the system by a conservative force

Long answer questions

1.(a) Discuss the motion of a body in a vertical circle. Find the expression for minimum velocity at the
lowest and highest points while making a loop.

(b) A bullet of mass 0.01 kg travelling with a speed of 500m/s strikes a block of mass 2 kg which is
suspended by a string of length 5 m. The centre of gravity of block is found to rise a vertical distance
of .1m. What is the speed of the bullet after it emerges from the block?

2.(a) Define the term potential energy. Give some examples.

(b) Create a graph that depicts the variation of potential energy, kinetic energy, and total energy of a
body falling freely on earth from h?

3.A body of mass 2 kg initially at rest moves under the action of an applied horizontal force of 7 N on a
table with coefficient of kinetic friction = 0.1. Compute the
(a) Work done by the applied force in 10 s
(b) Work done by friction in 10 s
(c) Work done by the net force on the body in 10 s
(d) Change in kinetic energy of the body in 10 s and interpret your results.
 Chapter 6: SYSTEMS OF PARTICLES AND ROTATIONAL MOTION

MULTIPLES CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q1 Two bodies have their moments of inertia I and 2I respectively about their axis of rotation. If their kinetic
energies of rotation are equal, their angular momentum will be in the ratio.

A. 1:2
B. 2:1
C. 1:√ 2
D. √ 2 :1

Q2 The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis is 1.2 kg m2. Initially the body is at rest. In order to
produce a rotational kinetic energy of 1500 J, an angular acceleration of 25 rad/s2 must be applied about that
axis for a duration of

A. 4s
B. 2s
C. 8s
D. 10

Q3. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating about its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same
mass and same radius is also rotating about its geometrical axis with an angular speed twice that of the
sphere. The ratio of their kinetic energies of rotation (Esphere /Ecylinder ) will be

A. 1:4
B. 3:1
C. 2:3
D. 1:5

Q4 Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m with moments of inertia IA and IB(IB>IA) have equal
kinetic energy of rotation. If LA and LB be their angular momenta respectively, then

A. LA>LB
B. LA=2LB
C. LB>LA
D. LA=LB2

Q5 A rod of length L is hinged from one end. It is brought to a horizontal position and released. The angular
velocity of the rod, when it is in vertical position is
 A. √ 2gL
B. √ 3gL
C. √ g2L
D. √ gL

Q6 child is standing with folded hands at the centre of a platform rotating about its central axis. The kinetic
energy of the system is K. The child now stretches his arms so that the moment of inertia of the system doubles.
The kinetic energy of the system now is

A. K2
B.
K4
C. 2K
D. 4K

Q7 A mass m is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to the x-axis, away from the origin. Its
angular momentum with respect to the origin:

A. Is zero
B. Remains constant
C. Goes on increasing
D. Goes on decreasing

Q8 A cubical block of side 30cm is moving with velocity 2ms−1 on a smooth horizontal surface. The surface
has a bump at a point O as shown in figure. The angular velocity (in rad/s) of the block immediately after it hits
the bump, is:

A. 13.3
B. 5.0
C. 9.4
D. 6.7

Q9 A Particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v making an angle of 45° with the horizontal.
The magnitude of the angular momentum of the projectile about the point of projection, when the
particle is at its maximum height h is :
 A. m𝑣 3 /4√2𝑔
B. Zero
C. m𝑣 2 /√2𝑔
D. m√2𝑔ℎ3

Q10. The earth circles around the sun once a year. The work which would have to be
done on the earth to bring it to rest relative to the sun is,(ignore the rotation of earth about its own
axis)given that the mass of the earth = 6×1024 kg and distance between sun and earth is 1.5×108 km.

A. 2.7×1030 J
B. 2.7×1031 J
C. -2×1033 J
D. -2.7×1033 J

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2Marks )

Q1-A wheel rotates with a constant acceleration of 2.0 rad/s2 . If the wheel starts from rest, how many
revolution will it make in first 10 s ?

Q2- A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg/m2 about its axis,rotates at 50 rpm about this axis. Find the
torque that can stop the wheel in one minute?

Q3-A sphere rolls on a horizontal surface.

Is there any point of the sphere which has a vertical velocity?

Q4. The wheel of a motor accelerated uniformly from rest, rotates through 2.5 radian during the first
second. Find the angle rotated during the next second ?
Q5. A wheel of perimeter 220 cm rolls on a level road at a speed of 9 km/h. How many revolutions
does the wheel make per second ?
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 Mark)
Q1. The density of a rod AB continuously increases from A to B.

Is it easier to set it in rotation by clamping it at A and applying a perpendicular forces at B or by

clamping it at B and applying the force at A?
Q2. The wheel of a motor accelerated uniformly from rest, rotates through 2.5 radian during the first
second. Find the angle rotated during the next second ?
Q3. A sphere of radius a and mass m rolls along a horizontal plane with constant speed v0 . It
encounters an inclined plane at angle θ and climbs upward. assuming that it rolls without slipping,how
far up the sphere will travel?

Q 4. A hollow sphere, a solid sphere, a disc and a ring all having same mass and radius are rolled down
on an inclined plane.

If no slipping takes place, which one will take smallest time to cover a given length?
Q5. Consider a uniform rod of mass M = 4m and length L pivoted about its centre. A mass m moving
π
with velocity v making angle θ = 4 to the rod long axis collides with one end of the rod and sticks to it.

Find the angular speed of the rod mass system just after the collision?
REASON ASSERTION TYPE QUESTION
A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If assertion and reason are false.

1.Assertion:When a fire cracker (rocket) explodes in mid air, its fragments fly in such a way that they
continue moving in the same path, which the fire cracker would have followed, had it not exploded.

Reason: Explosion of cracker (rocket) occurs due to internal forces only and no external force acts for
this this explosion.

2.Assertion: The moment of inertia of a body depends on its shape and mass distribution.

Reason: Moment of inertia is a measure of an object's resistance to rotational motion and is influenced
by both its mass distribution and shape.

3.Assertion: The angular momentum of an object is conserved when no external torques act on it.

Reason: Angular momentum is the product of the moment of inertia and angular velocity, and any
change in these quantities leads to a change in angular momentum.
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS:

1. Angular momentum is the rotational analogue of linear momentum. According to the law of the
conservation of angular momentum, the angular momentum of a body in the absence of
external torque is conserved. Angular momentum of a body about an axis of rotation is the
product of moment of inertia & angular velocity of the body.

Now answer the following Questions:

i)The SI unit of angular momentum is

a)Nm b)kgm-1s-1 c)kg m2s-1 d)kg2m2s-1

ii)If there is no external torque acting on system of particles, which of the following will be
constant?

a)Impulse b)Force c)Linear momentum d) Angular momentum

iii) An earth satellite is moving around the earth in circular orbit.In such case, which of the
following is conserved?

a)Velocity b)angular velocity c) angular momentum d)linear momentum

iv)A ballet dancer takes the advantage of

a) law of conservation of linear momentum b) law of conservation of angular momentum

c) law of conservation of energy d) law of inertia

2. The forces change the translational state of the motion of the rigid body, i.e. they change its total
linear momentum. But this is not the only effect the forces have. The total torque on the body may
not vanish. Such a torque changes the rotational state of motion of the rigid body, i.e. it changes the
total angular momentum of the body.

A rigid body is said to be in mechanical equilibrium, if both its linear momentum and angular
momentum are not changing with time, or equivalently, the body has neither linear acceleration nor
angular acceleration. This means

(I) The total force, i.e. the vector sum of the forces, on the rigid body is zero;
 ∑ 𝐹=0 If the total force on the body is zero, then the total linear momentum of the body does not
change with time. This gives the condition for the translational equilibrium of the body.

(II) The total torque, i.e. the vector sum of the torques on the rigid body is zero,

∑ 𝜏=0 If the total torque on the rigid body is zero, the total angular momentum of the body does
not change with time. This gives the condition for the rotational equilibrium of the body. With the
help of above comprehension, choose the most appropriate alternative for each of the following
questions:

i) Which of the following is NOT a condition for an object to be in static equilibrium?

a. The object is not moving. b. It is in translational equilibrium.

c. It is in rotational equilibrium. d. It is moving with constant velocity.

ii) The easiest way to open a heavy door is by applying the force

a. Near the hinges b. In the middle of the door

c. At the edge of the door far from the hinges d. Anywhere on the door.

iii) If a system is in translational equilibrium, it must have the conditions:

a. ∑M=0 b. Constant acceleration c. ∑F=0 d. Positive forces only

iv) The moment of a 50 N force 20 cm away from the pivot point will be...
 a. 500 N b. 20 Nm c. 10 Nm d. 15 Nm

3. The centre of mass of a body or a system of bodies is the point which moves as though all of the
mass were concentrated there and all external forces were applied to it. Hence, a point at which the
entire mass of the body or system of bodies is supposed to be concentrated is known as the centre
of mass. If a system consists of more than one particle (or bodies) and net external force on the
system in a particular direction is zero with centre of mass at rest. Then, the centre of mass will not
move along that direction. Even though some particles of the system may move along that
direction.

(i) All the particles of a body are situated at a distance R from the origin. The distance of centre of
mass of the body from the origin is

(a) = R (b) ≤ R (c) > R (d) ≥ R

(ii) Two balls of same masses start moving towards each other due to gravitational attraction, if the
initial distance between them is L. Then, they meet at

(a) L/2 (b) L (c) L/3 (d) L/4

(iii) The centre of mass of a system of two particles divides, the distance between them

(a) in inverse ratio of square of masses of particles

(b) in direct ratio of square of masses of particles

(c) in inverse ratio of masses of particles

(d) in direct ratio of masses of particles

(iv) Two particles A and B initially at rest move towards each other under a mutual force of
attraction. At the instant, when the speed of A is v and the speed of B is 2v, the speed of centre of
mass of the system is

(a) zero (b) v (c) 1.5 v (d) 3v

Long answer questions

1. i) Initial angular velocity of a circular disc of mass M is ω. Then two small spheres of mass m are
attached gently to two diametrically opposite points on the edge of the disc. What is the final angular
velocity of the disc?

ii) If earth were to shrink suddenly, what would happen to the length of the day?
2. (a) A child stands at the centre of a turntable with his arms outstretched. The turntable is set rotating
with an angular speed of 40 rev/min. How much is the angular speed of the child if he folds his hands
back and thereby reduces his moment of inertia to 2/5 times the initial value? Assume that the turntable
rotates without friction,

(b) Show that the child’s new kinetic energy of rotation is more than the initial kinetic energy of
rotation. How do you account of this increase in kinetic energy?

3. (a) Prove that the time rate of change of the angular momentum of a particle is equal to the
torque acting on it.

(b) Find the torque of a force F=-3i +j+5k acting at appoint r = 7i+3j+k .

(c) A planet revolve around the sun under the effect of gravitational force exerted by the sun.
Why is the torque on the planet due to the gravitational force zero?

Mechanical Properties of Solids

Type -1 questions
MCQ
1- A force F is needed to break a copper wire having radius R. The force needed to break a copper
wire of radius 2R will be
(a) F/2
(b) F/4
(c) 2F
(d) 4F
2- Four wires A,B,C,D made of the same material and radius have different lengths. The graphs in
the figure show the elongation- load variation. The longest wire is

(a) B elongation A
(b) A B C
(c) D D
(d) C
Load
3- The bulk modulus of a spherical object is B. If it is subjected to uniform pressure P the
fractional decrease in radius will be
(a) P/B
(b) B/3P
(c) 3P/B
 (d) P/3B
4- A copper wire and a steel wire of the same diameter and length are connected end to end and a
force is applied, which stretches their combined length by 1 cm. the two wires will have
(a) Different stresses and strain
(b) The same stress and strain
(c) The same strain but different stresses
(d) The same stress but different strains
5- There is no change in volume of a wire due to change in its length on stretching. The Poisson’s
ratio of the material of the wire is
(a) +0.50
(b) -0.50
(c) +0.25
(d) -0.25
6- A fixed volume of iron is drawn into a wire of length L. The extension x produced in this wire
by a constant force F is proportional to
1
(a) 𝐿2
1
(b) 𝐿

(c) L2
(d) L
7- When a certain weight is suspended from a long uniform wire, its length increases by 1cm. If
the same weight is suspended from another wire of the same material and length but having a
diameter half of the first one, then the increase in length will be-
(a) 0.5cm
(b) 2cm
(c) 4cm
(d) 8cm
8- A uniform cube is subjected to volume compression. If each side is decreased by 1%, then bulk
strain is
(a) 0.03
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.06
(d) 0.01
 9- When a block of mass m is suspended by a long wire of length L. the length of the wire
becomes (L+l). The elastic potential energy stored in the extended wire is-
(a) mgL/2
(b) mgL
(c) mgl
(d) mgl/2
10- The stress-strain graph of two materials are shown in figure

(a) Material(ii) is more elastic than material (i) and hence material (ii) is more brittle.
(b) Material (i) and (ii) have the same elasticity and the same brittleness.
(c) Material (ii) is elastic over a larger region of strain as compared to (i).
(d) Material (i) is more brittle than material (ii).
2 marks question

1- Following is the data given for four wires of the same material-
Wire length diameter tension

Wire1 50cm 0.5mm T

Wire2 100cm 1.0mm 2T

Wire3 200cm 2.0mm T

Wire4 300cm 3.0mm 2T

Arrange the wires in the increasing order of extension in them.

2- A wire of length L and radius r is clamped rigidly at one end. When the other end of the wire is
pulled by a force f, its length increases by l. Another wire of the same material of length 2L and
radius 2r, is pulled by a force 2f. Find the increase in length of this wire.
3- To what depth must a rubber ball be taken in deep sea so that its volume is decreased by 0.1%.
Given the bulk modulus of elasticity of rubber is 98×108 N/m2 and the density of sea water is
103 kg/m3.
4- A crane is pulling a car out of a ditch by means of two steel cables 10 m long and radius 5mm.
when the car just begins to move, the tension in the each cable is 500 N. how much has the
cable stretched? (Ys= 2×1011N/m2)
 5- The normal density of a material is ρ and its bulk modulus of elasticity is K. What will be the
magnitude of increase in density of material, when a pressure P is applied uniformly on all
sides?
3marks question
1- Two different types of rubber are found to have the stress-strain curves as shown in the

figure
(i) In what ways do these curves suffer from the stress-strain curve of a metal wire?
(ii) Which of the two rubbers A and B would you prefer to be installed in the working of
a heavy machinery?
(iii) Which of these two rubbers would you choose for a car tyre?
2- A bar of cross section A is subjected to equal and opposite tensile force F at its ends. If there
is a plane through the bar making an angle θ, with the plane at right angles to the bar in the
figure

(i) Find the tensile stress at this plane in terms of F, A and θ.

(ii) What is the shearing stress at the plane in terms of F, A and θ?
(iii) For what value of θ is tensile stress a maximum.
3- Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. However, wire 1 has a
cross-sectional area A and wire 2 has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the wire 1
increase by ∆𝑥 on applying force F, how much force is needed to stretch wire 2 by the same
amount?
4- A steel rod of length 2l, cross sectional area A and mass M is set rotating in a horizontal
plane about an axis passing through the centre. If Y is the young’s modulus for steel, find
the extension in the length of the rod. (Assume the rod is uniform.)
5- A steel rod (Ys= 2×1011N/m2 and α= 10-50/0c) of length 1m and area of cross section 1cm2 is
heated from 00c to 2000c, without being allowed to extend or bend. What is the tension
produced in the rod?
A. Assertion and reasons based questions.
DIRECTION: In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a
corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Mark the correct answer as:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
 (b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
1. Assertion: Steel is more elastic than rubber.
Reason: if same load is loaded on the steel and rubber wire of same cross-section area, the strain of
steel is very much less than that of rubber.
2. Assertion: A hallow shaft is found to be stronger than a solid shaft made of same material.
Reason: The torque required to produce a given twist in hollow cylinder is greater than that required to
twist a solid cylinder of same size and material.
3. Assertion: The materials which have very small range of plastic extension are called brittle
material.
Reason: If the stress is increased beyond the elastic limit, the material will break.
B. CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS.(Attempt Any four questions)
1. The graph shown below shows qualitatively the relation between the stress and the strain as the
deformation gradually increases. Within Hooke’s limit for a certain region stress and strain
relation is linear. Beyond that up to a certain value of strain the body is still elastic and if
deforming forces are removed the body recovers its original shape.

i. If deforming forces are removed up to which point the curve will be retraced?
(a) up to OA only
(b) up to OB
(c) up to C
(d) Never retraced its path
ii. In the above question, during loading and unloading the force exerted by the material
are conservative up to
(a) OA only
(b) OB only
(c) OC only
(d) OD only
iii. During unloading beyond B, say C, the length at zero stress in now equal to
(a) Less than original length
(b) Greater than original length
(c) Original length
(d) Can’t be predicted
iv. The breaking stress for a wire of unit cross-section is called
(a) Yield point
(b) Elastic fatigue
(c) Tensile strength
(d) Young’s modulus
v. Substances which can be stretched to cause large strains are called
(a) Isomers
(b) Plastomers
(c) Elastomers
(d) Polymers
2. (Attempt Any four questions)
When a wire is under the action of tensile stress, its length increases but its diameter decreases. The
strain produced in the direction of applied force is called longitudinal strain and that produced in the
perpendicular direction is called lateral strain. Within the elastic limit the ratio of lateral strain to the
longitudinal strain is called Poisson’s ratio.

The negative sign indicates that longitudinal and lateral strains are in opposite manner.
i. A long piece of rubber is wider than its thickness. When it is stretched in length by some
amount,
a. Its thickness decreases but its width increases.
 b. Its thickness decreases but its width remains constant.
c. Its thickness increases but its width decreases.
d. Both its thickness and width decreases.
ii. In an experiment, a student observes the value of passion’s ratio is 0.4. Identify the nature
of substance.
iii. The minimum and maximum values of Poisson’s ratio for metal lies between.
a. -∞ to +∞
b. 0 to +1
c. -∞ to +1
d. 0 to 0.5
iv. The value of Poisson’s ratio of a material of wire whose volume remains constant under an
external normal stress is
a. -1
b. +1
c. 0
d. .5
v. If longitudinal strain for a wire is 0.03 and its Poisson’s ratio is 0.5, then its lateral strain is
a. 0.015
b. 0.6
c. 16.16
d. 0.0161
C. LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS.
1. a. A steel wire of length 4.7 m and cross-sectional area 3.0 × 10-5 m2 stretches by the
same amount as a copper wire of length 3.5 m and cross-sectional area of 4.0 × 10–
5 m2 under a given load. What is the ratio of Young’s modulus of steel to that of

copper?
b. Show the graphical variation of a solid in between compression and applied force.
2. The graphs given below in between stress and strain for different materials.
 (i)

(ii)

(iii)
Identify the types of material on the basis of above graphs. Write down the minimum tree properties of
each.
3. A composite wire of uniform diameter 3.0 mm consisting of a copper wire of length of
length 2.2m and a steel wire of length 1.6m stretched under a load by 0.7mm. Calculate the
load, given that the Young’s modulus for copper is 1.1x1011 Pa and for steel is 2.0 x1011 Pa.
 MECHANICAL PROPERTY OF LIQUID
TYPE - I QUESTIONS, FLUID MECHANICS
MCQ
1. Radius of an air bubble at the bottom of the lake is r and it becomes 2r when the air bubbles rises
to the top surface of the lake. If P cm of water be the atmospheric pressure, then the depth of the
lake is
(a) 2p (b) 8p
(c) 4p (d) 7p
2. Water flows through a frictionless duct with a cross-section varying as shown in fig. Pressure p at
points along the axis is represented by

P P

(a) x
(b)
x

O v

(b) (d)
t O

3. The weight of an aeroplane flying in air is balanced by

(a) Upthrust of the air which will be equal to the weight of the air having the same volume as
the plane
(b) Force due to the pressure difference between the upper and lower surfaces of the wings,
created by different air speeds on the surface
(c) Vertical component of the thrust created by air currents striking the lower surface of the
wings
(d) Force due to the reaction of gases ejected by the revolving propeller

4. When a body falls in air, the resistance of air depends to a great extent on the shape of the body, 3
different shapes are given. Identify the combination of air resistances which truly represents the
physical situation. (The cross sectional areas are the same).
R
(a) 1<2<3 (b) 2<3<1 R R

(c) 3<2<1 (d) 3<1<2

W W W
(1) (2) (3)
Disc Ball Cigar shaped
5. A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. The whole system as shown falls freely under
gravity. The upthrust on the body due to the liquid is
(a) Zero
(b) Equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
(c) Equal to the weight of the body in air
(d) Equal to the weight of the immersed position of the body
6. A small spherical solid ball is dropped from a great height in a viscous liquid. Its journey in the
liquid is best described in the diagram given below by the
(a) Curve A
A
B
(b) Curve B

Velocity (v)
(c) Curve C C
D
(d) Curve D
Time (t)

7. The adjoining diagram shows three soap bubbles A, B and C prepared by blowing the capillary
tube fitted with stop cocks, S1, S2 and S3. With stop cock S closed and stop cocks S1, S2 and S3
opened C
S
(a) B will start collapsing with volumes of A and C S1
S3 S2

increasing A B

(b) C will start collapsing with volumes of A and B increasing

(c) C and A both will start collapsing with the volume of B increasing
(d) Volumes of A, B and C will become equal at equilibrium
8. Water falls from a tap, down the streamline
(a) Area decreases (b) Area increases
(c) Velocity remains same (d) Area remains same
9. If a water drop is kept between two glass plates, then its shape is

(a) (b)

(c) (d) None of these

10. In the state of weightlessness, a capillary tube is dipped in water, then water
(a) Will not rise at all
(b) Will rise to same height as at atmospheric pressure
(c) Will rise to less height than at atmospheric pressure
(d) Will rise up to the upper end of the capillary tube of any length

SHORT ANSWER (2 MARKS QUESTIONS )

11. Explain why atmospheric pressure decreases with an increase in altitude?
12. What will be the surface tension of a liquid at its boiling point?
13. Due to which property of water, tiny particles of camphor dance on the surface of water, Explain.
14. Water is coming out of a hole made in the wall of tank filled with fresh water. If the size of the
hole is increased, will the velocity of efflux change?
15. Hydrostatic pressure is a scalar quantity even though pressure is force divided by area, and force
is a vector. Explain?
16. Two ballons that have same weight and volume contains equal amounts of helium. One is rigid
and other is free to expand as outside pressure decreases. When released, which balloon will rise
higher?
SHORT ANSWER (3 MARKS QUESTIONS )

17. Radius of a soap bubble is increased from R to 2R then what will be the work done in this process
in terms of surface tension?
18. Two communicating vessels contain mercury. The
diameter of one vessel is n times larger than the h
Water
diameter of the other. A column of water of height h is
poured into the left vessel. What will be the mercury
Mercury
level rise in the right-hand vessel (s = relative
density of mercury and  = density of water)?

19. A vertical U-tube of uniform inner cross section contains mercury in

both sides of its arms. A glycerin (density = 1.3 g/cm3) column of
length 10 cm is introduced into one of its arms. Oil of density 0.8
gm/cm3 is poured into the other arm until the upper surfaces of the oil and
glycerin are in the same horizontal level. Find the length of the oil
column, Density of mercury = 13.6 g/cm3
20. The diagram shows a cup of tea seen from above. The tea has been stirred and is now rotating
without turbulence. A graph showing the speed v with which the liquid is crossing points at a
distance X from O along a radius XO would look like

O X
A large number of water drops each of radius r combine to have a drop of radius R. If the surface
tension is T and the mechanical equivalent of heat is J, then what will be the rise in temperature?

Questions : Type 2
1. Assertion: The velocity of flow of a liquid is smaller when pressure is larger and vice-versa.
Reason: According to Bernoulli's theorem, for the streamline flow of all ideal liquid, the total energy
per unit mass remains constant.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
D. If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

2. Assertion : The water rises higher in a capillary tube of small diameter than in the capillary tube
of large diameter.
Reason : Height through which liquid rises in a capillary tube is inversely proportional to the
diameter of the capillary tube.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
D. If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

3. Assertion : Hot soup tastes better than the cold soup.

Reason : Hot soup has high surface tension and it does not spread properly on our tongue.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
D. If Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

1. Equation of continuity is a fundamental equation of liquid flow and is a special case of the
general law of conservation of mass. Consider an incompressible and non viscous liquid
flowing slowly and steadily through a pipe of non-uniform cross-section. Let A and B be
two different sections of a pipe having cross-sectional area A 1 and A 2 respectively. Let
v1 and v 2 be the respecstive velocities of the liquid flow through these cross sections.
According to the equation of continuity of flow A 1 v1 = A2V2 or A v = constant i.e., the
velocity of liquid flow at any section of the pipe is inversely proportional to area of cross-
section of the pipe at that section.
(i) State equation of continuity.
(ii) Water flows through a horizontal pipe of diameter 2 cm at a speed of 3 cm s-1. The pipe
has a nozzle of diameter 5 mm at its end. Determine the speed of water emerging from the
nozzle.
(iii) What is meant by streamline flow?
(iv) Still water runs deep, why?
 2. Suppose that an incompressible fluid is flowing through the pipe of varying cross-sectional
area, in a steady flow. Its velocity must change as a consequence of equation of continuity.
A force is required to produce this acceleration, which is caused by the fluid surrounding it,
the pressure must be different in different regions. Bernoulli’s equation is a general
expression that relates the pressure difference between two points in a pipe to both velocity
changes (kinetic energy change) and elevation (height) changes (potential energy change).
The statement of Bernoulli’s relation is: As we move along a streamline the sum of the
pressure (P), the kinetic energy per unit volume and the potential energy per unit volume
(ρgh) remains a constant. Note that in applying the energy conservation principle, there is
an assumption that no energy is lost due to friction. In practice, it has a large number of
useful applications and can help explain a wide variety of phenomena for low viscosity
incompressible fluids.

(1) Bernoulli’s equation for steady, non-viscous, incompressible flow expresses the
(a) conservation of linear momentum (b) conservation of angular momentum (c)
conservation of mass (d) conservation of energy
(2) Applications of Bernoulli’s theorem can be seen in
(a) dynamic lift of aeroplane (b) dynamic lift due to spining cricket ball
(c) Paint spray gun. (d) in all of above
(3) Bernoulli’s equation holds good
(a) for non-steady
(b)in that situation, velocity and pressure are constantly fluctuating in time
(c) in that situation velocity and pressure are not constantly fluctuating in time
(d)In all the above cases
(4) Bernoulli’s equation ideally applies to fluids with
(a) with zero viscosity (b) with high viscosity
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

Long answer type questions:

1. Define capillarity. Deduce Ascent’s formula. What will happen if the tube of insufficient
height is used for capillarity?
2. State and prove Bernoulli’s theorem also give the assumptions made. How it is used for
Venturi meter to find the speed of liquid?
3. (i) Derive an expression for excess pressure inside a soap bubble.
(ii) A film of soap solution is extended from 10×10cm to 20×20cm. The surface tension of
the solution is 50 dynes/cm. Find the amount of work done in this process and the surface
energy of the film.
4. Define the terminal velocity? Derive the Stoke’s formula for a freely falling sphere through
a viscous liquid.
 Thermal properties of matter
MCQ’s

Q. 1 A hot cup transfers its energy

(a) From surrounding to cup till equilibrium establishes

(b) From cup to surrounding till equilibrium establishes

(c) In both ways

d) No transfer of heat takes place

Q. 2 Which one of the following is a reliable standard fixed point?

(a) Boiling point of water

(b) Melting point of ice

(c) Tripple point of water

(d) None of the above

Q. 3 The value of absolute zero is

(a) 273.150C (b) -273.150C

(c) 1000C (d) 180.150C

Q. 4 Why is Pyrex preferred for making thermometers over ordinary glass?

(a) It has a higher coefficient of volume expansion

(b) It has a smaller coefficient of volume expansion

(c) Not easy to break

(d) It is inexpensive

Q. 5 In order to obtain absolute zero,

(a) Volume of gas is kept constant and temperature is measured in terms of pressure

(b) Pressure of gas is kept constant and temperature is measured in terms of volume

(c) Temperature of gas is kept constant and volume is measured in terms of pressure

(d) None of the above

Q. 6 The volume thermal expansion coefficient for an ideal gas at constant pressure
is:
(a) 1/T

(b) 1/3T

(c) 1/2T

(d) 1/5T

Q. 7 Water has the maximum density at

(a) 40C

(b) 1000C

(c) 00C

(d) 100C

Q. 8 The SI unit of specific heat capacity is

(a) J kg-1K-1

(b) J kg-1K-2

(c) J kg-2K-1

(d) J-1kgK-1

Q. 9 During change of state of a matter

(a) Temperature remains constant

(b) Temperature changes

(c) Mass changes

(d) Density remains constant

Q. 10 The SI unit of latent heat is

(a) Jkg-1K-2

(b) Jkg-1

(c) Jkg

(d) Jkg-2K-1
 2 Marks Questions

Q. 1 The triple points of neon and carbon dioxide are 24.57 K and 216.55 K
respectively. Express these temperatures on the Celsius and Fahrenheit scales.

Q. 2 The-electrical resistance in ohms of a certain thermometer varies with temperature

according to the approximate law: R = R0 [1 + α (T – T0)].
The resistances is 101.6 Ωat the triple-point of water 273.16 K, and 165.5 Ωat the normal
melting point of lead (600.5 K). What is the temperature when the resistance is 123.4 Ω ?

Q. 3 A large steel wheel is to be fitted on to a shaft of the same material. At 27

°C, the outer diameter of the shaft is 8.70 cm and the diameter of the central hole in
the wheel is, 8.69 cm. The shaft is cooled using ‘dry ice’. At what temperature of the
shaft does the wheel slip on the shaft? Assume coefficient of linear expansion of the
steel to be constant over the required temperature range αsteel= 1-20 x 10-5K-1.

Q. 4 A brass wire 1.8 m long at 27 °C is held taut with little tension between two
rigid supports. If the wire is cooled to a temperature of – 39 °C, what is the tension
developed in the wire, if its diameter is 2.0 mm ? Coefficient of linear expansion of
brass = 2.0 x 10-5K-1; Young’s modulus of brass = 0.91 x 1011 Pa

Q. 5 A copper block of mass 2.5 kg is heated in a furnace to a temperature of

500°C and then placed on a large ice block. What is the maximum amount of ice that
can melt? Specific heat of copper is 0.39 Jg-1°C-1. Heat of fusion of water = 335 Jg-1.

3 Marks Questions

Q. 1 Answer the following:

(a) The triple-point of water is a standard fixed point in modem thermometry. Why ? What
is wrong in taking the melting point of ice and the boiling point of water as standard fixed
points (as was originally done in the Celsius scale) ?
(b) There were two fixed points in the original Celsius scale as mentioned above which
were assigned the number 0 °C and 100 °C respectively. On the absolute scale, one of the
fixed points is the triple-point of water, which on the Kelvin absolute scale is assigned the
number 273.16 K. What is the other fixed point on this (Kelvin) Scale ?
(c) The absolute temperature (Kelvin scale) T is related to the temperature tc on the Celsius scale tc =
T – 273.15 .Why do we have 273.15 in this relation, and not 273.16 ?

Q. 2 At what temperature and pressure can the solid, liquid and vapour phases
of CO2 co-exist in equilibrium ?
(b) What is the effect of decrease of pressure on the fusion and boiling point of CO2 ?
(c) What are the critical temperature and pressure for CO2 ? What is their
significance 1
Q. 3 A ‘thermacole’ icebox is a cheap and efficient method for storing small
quantities of cooked food in summer in particular. A cubical icebox of side 30 cm has a
thickness of 5.0 cm. If 4.0 kg of ice is put in the box, estimate the amount of ice
remaining after 6 h. The outside temperature is 45°C, and coefficient of thermal
conductivity of thermacole is 0.01 Js-1 m-1 °C-1 [Heat of fusion of water = 335 x 103 J
kg-1 ].
 Q. 4 Explain why:
(a) a body with large reflectivity is a poor emitter.
(b) a brass tumbler feels much colder than a wooden tray on a chilly day.
(c) an optical pyrometer (for measuring high temperatures) calibrated for an ideal
black body radiation gives too low a value for the temperature of a red hot iron piece
in the open, but gives a correct value for the temperature when the same piece is in the
furnace.
Q. 5 At boiling point of a liquid, how much is the specific heat ?

INSTRUCTIONS: Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other
labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) are as given below (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is
false. (d) A is false and R is true/ false
Q1. Assertion (A) : A closed room can be cooled by opening the door of a refrigerator.
Reason (R) : Heat flows from higher temperature to lower temperature.
Q2. Assertion (A) : Food gets cooked well in a pressure cooker
Reason (R) : Boiling point of water increases with pressure
Q3. Assertion (A) : For a change in temperature of a substance by 150C, corresponding
change on Kelvin scale be 288 K
Reason (R) : K = 273 + C

CASE STUDY 1: BLACK BODY RADIATION

Black body radiation is a term used to describe the relationship between an object’s
temperature and the wavelength of electromagnetic radiation it emits. A black body is an
idealized object that absorbs all electromagnetic radiation it comes in contact with. It then
emits thermal radiation in a continuous spectrum according to its temperature. The
wavelength of maximum emission shifts towards lower wavelength side as the temperature
of black body increases hence mT = b, that is called Wien’s displacement law. The area
under the curve represents the total energy emitted by the perfect black body per unit area
per second and it is found ET4

1. The wavelength of radiation emitted by a black body depends upon

(a) The nature of the surface (c) The area of the surface
(b) The temperature of the surface (d) All of the above
2. Three stars A, B and C have surface temperature TA, TB, TC respectively. Star A appears bluish,
star B reddish, and star C yellowish. Then
(a) TA >TB > TC (c) TA >TC > TB
(b) TB > TC > TA > (d) TC >TB > TA

3. For an enclosure maintained at 1000K the maximum radiation occurred at wavelength ‘’. If
the temperature is raised to 2000 K , the peak will shift to
(a) 3/2 (c) 5/2
(b) 7/2 (d) /2

4. A black body is heated from 270C to 1270C. The ratio of their energies of radiations emitted
(a) 3:4 (c) 9:16
(b) 27: 16 (d) 81:256

CASE 2: ABSORPTION OF HEAT BY SOLIDS AND LIQUIDS

In determining and then using the specific heat of any substance, we need to know the
conditions under which energy is transferred as heat. For solids and liquids, we usually
assume that the sample is under constant pressure (usually atmospheric) during the transfer.
It is also conceivable that the sample is held at constant volume while the heat is absorbed.
This means that thermal expansion of the sample is prevented by applying external
pressure. When energy is absorbed as heat by a solid or liquid, the temperature of the
sample does not necessarily rise. Instead, the sample may change from one phase, or state,
to another. Matter can exist in three common states: In the solid state, the molecules of a
sample are locked into a fairly rigid structure by their mutual attraction. In the liquid state,
the molecules have more energy and move about more. They may form brief clusters, but
the sample does not have a rigid structure and can flow or settle into a container. In the gas,
or vapour, state, the molecules have even more energy, are free of one another, and can fill
up the full volume of a container.
1. Thermal equilibrium implies equality of:
(a) Energy (b) internal energy (c) K.E. (d) Temperature
2. Heat is
(a) energy in transit (b) P.E. of molecules
(c) K.E. of molecules (d) P.E. and K.E. of molecules
3. A beaker is completely filled with water at 4°C. It will overflow
(a) When heated but not when cooled (b) when cooled but not when heated
(c) Neither when heated nor when cooled (d) both when cooled or heated
4. By increasing the temperature of a liquid, its
(a) Volume and density increases (b) volume and density decreases
(c) Volume increases and density decrease (d) volume decreases and density
increases
OR
Heat is absorbed by a body but its temperature does not rise. Which of the following
statement is true about the phenomenon?
(a) Only P.E. of intermolecular force fields increases. (b) Only K.E. of vibration
increases. (c) No increase in internal energy takes place. (d) Increase in
K.E. is balanced by decrease in P.E
 LONG QUESTIONS:
1. (a) Show that the coefficient of cubical expansion of an ideal gas at constant pressure is equal
to the reciprocal of its absolute temperature.
(b) If the volume of a block of metal changes by 0.12%, when it is heated through 200C, what
is the coefficient of linear expansion of solid.
2. (a) A sphere, a cube and a disc, all made of same material and having same mass are initially
heated to 2000 C. Which of these cool fastest and which one slowest when left in air at room
temperature? Give reason for your answer.
(b) As a physicist, you put heat into a 500 g solid sample at the rate of 10.0 kJ/ min, while
recording its temperature as a function of time. You plot your data and obtain the graph shown
in figure.
(i) What is the latent heat of fusion for this solid?
(ii) What is the specific heat of solid state of the material?

3. Explain: (a) After some time of the switching on an electric heater, the temperature of the
heater becomes constant although current remains continuously flowing through it.
(b) It is hotter at the same distance over the top of a fire than in front of it
(c) A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm radiates 450 W power at 500 K. If the
radius were halved and the temperature doubled, find the power radiated in watt.

THERMODYNAMICS
Q1.Which of the following graphs between pressure and volume correctly shows isochoric change

Q2.Match list I with List II

List I List II
(p) Isothermal (i) Pressure constant
(q) Isochoric (ii) Temperature constant
(r) Adiabatic (iii) Volume constant
(s) Isobaric (iv) Heat content is constant
Choose` the correct answer from the options given below
(a) p--iii, q--ii, r--i, s—iv
 (b) p--ii, q--iv, r--iii, s--i
(c) p--ii, q--iii, r--iv, s--i
(d) p--i, q--iii, r--ii, s—iv
Q3. When heat is given to a gas in an isothermal change, the result will be
(a) External work done
(b) Rise in temperature
(c) Increase in internal energy
(d) External work done and also rise in temperature
Q4. When a system is taken from the initial state i to final state f along the path iaf, it is found that
Q=50 cal and W=20 cal if along the path ibf Q=36 cal , then W along the path
ibf is
(a) 6 cal

(b) 16 cal
(c) 66 cal
(d) 14 cal

Q5.The change in internal energy , When a gas is cooled from 9270 is to 270 is
(a) 100%
(b) 300%
(c) 200%
(d) 75%

Q6.The work done of 146 K J is performed in order to compress 1 kilo mole of a gas
adiabatically and in this process the temperature f the gas increases by7 0 The gas is
(R=8.3J mol-1K-1)
(a) Diatomic
(b) A mixture of monoatomic and diatomic
(c) Monoatomic
(d) Triatomic

Q7.for a monoatomic gas work done at constant pressure is W. the heat supplied at constant
volume for the same rise in the temperature is
(a) W/2
(b) 3W/2
(c) W
(d) 5W/2

Q8. A diatomic gas does 100 J os work when it is expanded isobarically. The heat given to the gas
during process is
 (a) 700 J
(b) 350 J
(c) 175 J
(d) 1050 J

Q9. 1 g mole of an ideal gas at STP to a reversible adiabatic expansion to double its volume . Find
the change in internal energy (CP/CV=1.4)
(a) 1169.5 J
(b) 769.5 J
(c) 1369.5 J
(d) 969.5 J

Q10.During Adiabatic expansion of a gas its temperature

(a) Falls
(b) Remains constant
(c) Rises
(d) Becomes zero
(2 Marks questions)
Q11. When is the heat supplied to a system equal to the increase in its internal energy?

Q12. Out of solid, liquid and gas of the same mass and at the same temperature, which one has the
greatest internal energy? Which one least? Justify.

Q13A gas does work during adiabatic expansion . What is the source of mechanical energy
so produced.?

Q14Name the thermo dynamical variables defined by

(i) Zeroth Law and
(ii) First Law of thermodynamics

Q15 State two limitations of the First Law of thermodynamics

(3 Marks questions)
Q16. Explain Why
(a) Two bodies at different temperatures T1 and T2 if brought in thermal contact do not
necessarily settle to mean temperature (T1+T2)/2 .
(b)The coolent in a chemical or nuclear plant should have a high specific heat.
© Air pressure in a car tyre increases during driving.

Q17, Show that the slope of an adiabatic curve at any point is γ times the slope of an isothermal curve
at the corresponding point.

Q18(i) Why a gas has two principal specific heat capacities?

(ii)Which one is greater and , Whuy?
(iii) Of what significance is the difference between theses two specific heat capacities and
their ratio?
Q18. Discuss whether the following phenomena are reversible :
(i) Water fall
(ii) Rusting of iron
(iii)Electrolysis

Question1. Read the two statements carefully to mark the correct option out of the options
given
below:
(a) If both the Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(b) If both the Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not the correct explanation
of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(e) If the assertion and reason both are false.

(i) Assertion: When a bottle of cold carbonated drink is opened, a slight fog forms around
the opening.
Reason: Adiabatic expansion of the gas causes lowering of temperature and condensation of
water vapours.

(ii) Assertion: Air quickly leaking out of a balloon becomes cooler.

Reason: The leaking air undergoes adiabatic expansion.

(iii) Assertion: Thermodynamic process in nature is irreversible.

Reason: Dissipative effects cannot be eliminated.

(Case Study Based Questions)

Question 2. Case study – 1

Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics states that two systems in thermal equilibrium with a third
system separately are in thermal equilibrium with each other. The Zeroth Law clearly
suggests that when two systems A and B, are in thermal equilibrium, there must be a
physical quantity that has the same value for both. This thermodynamic variable whose
value is equal for two systems in thermal equilibrium is called temperature (T). Thus, if A
and B are separately in equilibrium with C, TA = TC and TB = TC. This implies
that TA = TB i.e. the systems A and B are also in thermal equilibrium. Zeroth Law of
Thermodynamics leads to the concept of internal energy of a system. We know that every
bulk system consists of a large number of molecules. Internal energy is simply the sum of
the kinetic energies and potential energies of these molecules. A certain amount of heat is
supplied to the system’ or ‘a certain amount of work was done by the system its energy
changes.
(i) Three thermodynamic systems are at temperature of 500 c .what can we say about
them?
a) Heat flows between them
b) It obeys Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
c) Temperature of one system will increase and temperature of remaining two will decrease
d) None of these
(ii) Zeroth law of thermodynamics helped in the creation of which scale?
a) Temperature b) Heat energy c) Pressure d) Internal energy
3) State Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics.
4) Define Internal energy of system.

Question 3. Case Study: 2

Kelvin-Planck statement: No process is possible whose sole result is the absorption of
heat from a reservoir and the complete conversion of the heat into work.
Clausius statement: No process is possible whose sole result is the transfer of heat from a
colder object to a hotter object. It can be proved that the two statements above are
completely equivalent.
A thermodynamic process is reversible if the process can be turned back such that both the
system and the surroundings return to their original states, with no other change anywhere
else in the universe. A reversible process is an idealized motion. A process is reversible
only if it is quasi-static (system in equilibrium with the surroundings at every stage) and
there are no dissipative effects. For example, a quasi-static isothermal expansion of an ideal
gas in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless movable piston is a reversible process.
The free expansion of a gas is irreversible. The combustion reaction of a mixture of petrol
and air ignited by a spark cannot be reversed. Cooking gas leaking from a gas cylinder in
the kitchen diffuses to the entire room. The diffusion process will not spontaneously reverse
and bring the gas back to the cylinder. The stirring of a liquid in thermal contact with a
reservoir will convert the work done into heat, increasing the internal energy of the
reservoir. The process cannot be reversed exactly; otherwise it would amount to conversion
of heat entirely into work, violating the Second Law of Thermodynamics. Irreversibility is a
rule rather an exception in nature.
(i) The diffusion process is
a) Reversible process
b) Irreversible process
(ii) A quasi-static isothermal expansion of an ideal gas in a cylinder fitted with a
frictionless movable piston is
a) Reversible process
b) Irreversible process
(iii) State Kelvin Planck statement.
(iv) State Clausius statement.
OR
Define reversible processes and irreversible processes of thermodynamics.

(Long Answer Questions)

Question 4. A certain volume of dry air at NTP is allowed to expand 4 times its original
volume under
(i) Isothermal conditions (ii) Adiabatic conditions.
Calculate the final pressure and temperature in each case ϒ =1.4
Question 5. Two moles of He gas (y = 5/3) Jare initially at temperature 27°C and occupy a
volume of 20 litres. The gas is first expanded at constant pressure until the volume is
 doubled. Then it undergoes an adiabatic change until the temperature returns to its initial
value
(a) Sketch the process on a P-V diagram
(b) What are the final volume and pressure of the gas?
(c) What is the work done by the gas?

Question 6. Two samples of an ideal gas initially at the same temperature and pressure are
allowed to expand from a volume V to 2V, one isothermally and other adiabatically. In
which case, will

(a) the work done be more?

(b) the final pressure be more?
(c) the final temperature be more?

Justify your answers.

OSCILLATION

Multiple Choice Questions (1 marks each)

1. Which of the following is the correct definition of oscillation?
a) A linear motion from one point to another b) A random back-and-forth movement
c) A repetitive to-and-fro motion about an d) A circular motion around a fixed point
equilibrium position

2. Which of the following quantities remains constant in simple harmonic motion?

a) Displacement b) Velocity
c) Acceleration d) Total Energy

3. The time-period of a simple pendulum depends on which of the following factors?

a) Mass of the pendulum bob b) Amplitude of the oscillation
c) Length of the pendulum d) Damping force

4. Which of the following statements about angular frequency (ω) is correct?

a) It’s measured in m/s² b) It’s reciprocal of the time-period (T)
c) It’s constant for all types of oscillations d) It’s directly proportional to amplitude

5. The restoring force in simple harmonic motion is directly proportional to:

a) Displacement b) Velocity
c) Acceleration d) Time period

6. What is the frequency of Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM)?

a) Number of oscillations per unit time b) Time for one oscillation
c) Time taken for motion to reverse direction d) Same as angular frequency

7. A particle is undergoing SHM with amplitude 10cm. The maximum speed it achieves is 1m/s. Find
the time it takes to reach from the mean position to half the amplitude.
a) π/60 s b) π/30 s
c) π/15 s d) π/40 s
8. In Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM), what is the phase difference between velocity and
acceleration?
a) 0 b) π
c) π/2 d) π/3

9. The time period of a thin magnet is 4s. If it is divided into two equal halves, then the time period of
each part will be:
a) 4s b) 1s
c) 2s d) 8s

10. The maximum velocity for particle in SHM is 0.16 m/s and maximum acceleration is 0.64 m/s2.
The amplitude is
a) 4 × 10-2 m b) 4 × 10-1 m
c) 4 × 10 m d) 4 × 100 m
Very Short Answer Type Questions (2 marks each)
1. The bob of a vibrating simple pendulum is made of ice. How will the period of swing will change
when the ice starts melting?
2. At what distance from the mean position, is the kinetic energy in a simple harmonic oscillator equal
to potential energy?
3. What is the relation between uniform circular motion and S.H.M? What is the minimum condition
for a system to execute S.H.M? Give some practical examples of Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM).
4. The piston in the cylinder head of a locomotive has a stroke (twice the amplitude) of 1.0 m. If the
piston moves with simple harmonic motion with an angular frequency of 200 rad/min, what is its
maximum speed?
5. What is the ratio of frequencies of the vertical oscillations when two springs of spring constant K
are connected in series and then in parallel?
Short Answer Type Questions (3 marks each)
1. Show that the total energy of a body executing SHM is independent of time.
2. A particle moves such that its acceleration ‘a’ is given by a = -b x where x = displacement from
equilibrium position and b is a constant. Find the period of oscillation.
3. Determine the time period of a simple pendulum of length = l when mass of bob = m kg
4. Which of the following examples represent periodic motion? Justify.
(a) A swimmer completing one (return) trip from one bank of a river to the other and back.
(b) A freely suspended bar magnet displaced from its N-S direction and released.
(c) A hydrogen molecule rotating about its centre of mass
(d) An arrow released from a bow.
5. The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of moon is 1.7m/ s2. What is the time-period of a
simple pendulum on the surface of moon if its time-period on the surface of earth is 3.5 s? (g on the
surface of earth is 9.8m/s2)
6. I.Simple harmonic motion is the simplest form of oscillation. A particular type of periodic motion
in which a particle moves to and fro repeatedly about a mean position under the influence of a
restoring force is termed as simple harmonic motion (S.H.M).
7. A body is undergoing simple harmonic motion if it has an acceleration which is directed towards a
fixed point, and proportional to the displacement of the body from that point.
8. 1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of simple harmonic motion?
(a) The motion is periodic.
(b) The motion is along a straight line about the mean position.
(c) The oscillations are responsible for the energy conversion.
(d) The acceleration of the particle is directed towards the extreme position.

2. The equation of motion of a simple harmonic motion is

3. Which of the following expressions does not represent simple harmonic motion?
(a) x = Acoswt + Bsinwt
(b) x = Acos(wt + a)
(c) x = Bsin(wt + b)
(d) x = Asinwt cos2wt
4. The time period of simple harmonic motion depends upon
(a) amplitude
(b) energy
(c) phase constant
(d) mass
5. Which of the following motions is not simple harmonic?
(a) Vertical oscillations of a spring
(b) Motion of a simple pendulum
(c) Motion of planet around the Sun
(d) Oscillation of liquid in a U-tube

II.In our daily life, we come across various types of motions: such as periodic, non-periodic,
oscillatory and non oscillatory. The study of oscillatory motion is of great importance as its
concepts are required for the understanding of many physical phenomena, for example
(i) vibrating strings produces pleasant. sounds in musical instruments like the sitar, guitar or the
violin
(ii) the oscillations of the atoms in solid about their mean positions to convey the sensation of
temperature.
All oscillatory motions are periodic motions but all periodic motion may not be oscillatory. An
oscillatory motion is further classified as harmonic and non-harmonic oscillation.
1.Which of the following is the correct definition of oscillation?
a) A linear motion from one point to another
b) A random back-and-forth movement
c) A repetitive to-and-fro motion about an equilibrium position
d) A circular motion around a fixed point
2.The average velocity of a particle executing SHM in one complete vibration is :
a)Aω/2
b)0
c) Aω2/2
d) None of the above
3.Give example of periodic motion which are not oscillatory.
4.On what factor does the time period of a simple harmonic oscillator depends?
5.What are periodic functions? Express one graphically.

Assertion-Reason type questions

(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(C) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

1. Assertion : A particle of mass 0.1 kg executes SHM under a force F = (–10 x) newton. Speed of
article at mean position is 6 m/s. Then amplitude of oscillations is 0.6 m.
Reason : There is a conservation of mechanical energy.
2. Assertion : The maximum velocity is SHM is vm. The average velocity
during motion from one extreme position to other extreme position
will be 2vm/∏.
Reason : Average velocity is the mean of the maximum and minimum velocity of particle is SHM.
3. Assertion : The length of a simple pendulum is increased by 4%. The corresponding decrease in
time period will be 2%.
Reason : t α√l

Long Answer Type Questions

1. A particle is in simple linear harmonic motion between two points, A and B, 10 cm apart. Take
the direction from A to B as the positive direction and give the signs of velocity, acceleration, and
force on the particle when it is:
a) At the end A,
b) At the end B,
c) At the midpoint of AB going towards A
d) At 2 cm away from B going towards A,
e) At 3 cm away from A going towards B, and

2. A person normally weighing 50 kg stands on a massless platform which oscillates up and down
harmonically at a frequency of 2.0 s-1 and an amplitude 5.0 cm. A weighing machine on the
platform gives the persons weight against time.
(a) Will there be any change in weight of the body, during the oscillation?
(b) If answer to part (a) is yes, what will be the maximum and minimum reading in the machine
and at which position?

3. A body of mass m is attached to one end of a massless spring which is suspended vertically from
a fixed point. The mass is held in hand so that the spring is neither stretched nor compressed.
Suddenly the support of the hand is removed. The lowest position attained by the mass during
oscillation is 4cm below the point, where it was held in hand.
(a) What is the amplitude of oscillation?
(b) Find the frequency of oscillation?

WAVES
Q.1 When two waves of the same frequency and amplitude are superimposed in phase, the
resulting wave will have:
a) Lower amplitude b) Higher frequency
c) Lower frequency d) Higher amplitude
 Q.2 In a longitudinal wave, the particles of the medium move:
a) Perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation
b) Along the direction of wave propagation
c) In random directions
d) In circular orbits
Q.3 The phenomenon of the bending of waves around obstacles is called:
a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Diffraction d) Interference
Q.4 The frequency of the note produced by plucking a given string increases as
a) The length of the string increases b) The tension in the string increases
c) The tension in the string decreases d) The mass per unit length of the string increases
Q.5 The equation of a sound wave is
y = 0 . 0015 sin(62 . 4 x + 316 t)
The wavelength of this wave is
(a) 0.2 unit (b) 0.1 unit (c) 0.3 unit (d) Cannot be calculated
y = 0 . 25 sin(100 t + 0 . 25 x )
Q.6 The equation of a plane progressive wave is given by . The frequency
of this wave would be
50 100
Hz Hz
(a)  (b)  (c) 100 Hz (d) 50 Hz

Q.7 A tuning fork produces wave in medium. If the temperature of the medium changes then which
of following will change
(a) Time period (b) Wavelength (c) Frequency (d) Amplitude

Q.8 Velocity of sound in air

I. Increases with temperature II. Decreases with temperature
III. Increase with pressure IV.Is independent of pressure
V. Is independent of temperature
Choose the correct answer.
(a) Only I and II are true (b) Only I and III are true
(c) Only II and III are true (d) Only I and IV are true

Q.9 The frequency of a sound wave is n and its velocity is v. If the frequency is increased to 4n, the
velocity of the wave will be
2v 4v v /4
(a) v (b) (c) (d)

Q.10 In stationary longitudinal waves, nodes are points of

(a) Minimum pressure (b) Maximum pressure
(c) Minimum pressure variation (d) Maximum pressure variation

SECTION-B
Q. Calculate the speed of sound in dry hydrogen at NTP, assuming its density at NTP conditions as
0.089 kg m-3 and γ=1.41.

Q.12 How will the fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe be affected if instead of air ,it is
filled with a gas heavier than air ?
Q.13 The frequency of the first overtone of a closed organ pipe is same as that of first overtone of
an open organ pipe. What is the ratio of their lengths?
Q.14 Define standing waves and its types?
Q.15 Write the all the factors affecting velocity of sound?
SECTION-C
Q.16 Write newtons formula for velocity of sound in gases .how do laplace correct it,explain?
Q.17 Write characteristics of standing waves.

Q.18 Define organ pipe ,explain formation of standing waves in closed organ pipe?
Q.19 Define organ pipe ,explain formation of standing waves in closed organ pipe?
Q.20 Define beats ,why do needs two sources of nearly equal frequencies for formation of beats?
ASSERTON REASON TYPE QUESTIONS :

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If the assertion and reason both are false.
Q.1. Assertion : The velocity of sound increases with increase in humidity.
Reason : Velocity of sound does not depend upon the medium.
Q.2. Assertion : Compression and rarefaction involve changes in density and pressure.
Reason : When particles are compressed, density of medium increases and when they are rarefied,
density of medium decreases
Q.3. Assertion : Sound travel faster in solids than gases.
Reason : Solid possess greater density than gases.

1. CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS :

Q.1. Transverse waves forms if the particles of the medium vibrate at right angle to the direction of
wave motion energy propagation, the wave is called transverse wave. These are propagated as
crests and troughs.\

Longitudinal waves forms if the particles of the medium vibrate in the direction of wave motion,
the wave is called longitudinal. These are propagated as compressions and rarefactions and wave is
also known as pressure or compressional wave. Wave on spring or sound waves in air are examples
of longitudinal waves.

1. In a transverse wave, the particles of the medium

(a) vibrate in a direction perpendicular to the direction of the propagation
(b) vibrate in a direction parallel to the direction of the propagation
(c) move in circle
(d) move in ellipse.
2. A transverse wave consists of
(a) only crests
(b) only troughs
(c) both crests and troughs
(d) rarefactions and compressions
3. Ultrasonic waves produced by a vibrating quartz crystal are
(a) only longitudinal
(b) only transverse
(c) both longitudinal and transverse
(d) neither longitudinal nor transverse
4. Sound waves travel fastest in
(a) solids
(b) liquids
(c) gases
(d) vacuum
5. Sound waves in air cannot be polarized because
(a) their speed is small
(b) they require medium
(c) they are longitudinal (d) their speed is temperature dependent

Q.2. What happens if a pulse or a wave meets a boundary? If the boundary is rigid, pulse travelling
along a stretched string and being reflected by the boundary. Assuming there is no absorption of
energy by the boundary, the reflected wave has the same shape as the incident pulse i.e. crest is
reflected as crest and trough as trough but it suffers a phase change of π or 1800 on reflection. This
is because the boundary is rigid and the disturbance must have zero displacement at all times at the
boundary. By the principle of superposition, this is possible only if the reflected and incident waves
differ by a phase of π, so that the resultant displacement is zero. This reasoning is based on
boundary condition on a rigid wall. If on the other hand, the boundary point is not rigid but
completely free to move (such as in the case of a string tied to a freely moving ring on a rod), the
reflected pulse has the same phase and amplitude (assuming no energy dissipation) as the incident
pulse. The net maximum displacement at the boundary is then twice the amplitude of each pulse.
An example of non- rigid boundary is the open end of an organ pipe. To summaries, a travelling
wave or pulse suffers a phase change of π on reflection at a rigid boundary and no phase change on
reflection at an open boundary. We considered above reflection at one boundary. But there are
familiar situations (a string fixed at either end or an air column in a pipe with either end closed) in
which reflection takes place at two or more boundaries. In a string, for example, a wave travelling
in one direction will get reflected at one end, which in turn will travel and get reflected from the
other end. This will go on until there is a steady wave pattern set up on the string. Such wave
patterns are called standing waves or stationary waves.

1) A travelling wave or pulse suffers a phase change of π on reflection at

a) a rigid boundary
b) open boundary

2) A travelling wave or pulse suffers no phase change on reflection at

a) a rigid boundary
b) open boundary
3) What are stationary waves?
4) Write a note on reflection of travelling wave from rigid boundary.
5) Write a note on reflection of travelling wave from open boundary.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Q.1. What are stationary waves?. Explain the formation of stationary waves and also write down
the characteristics of stationary waves.
Q.2. Explain the concepts of fundamental frequency, harmonics and overtones in detail.
Q.3. A transverse harmonic wave on a string is described by
y(x, t) = 3.0 sin (36 t + 0.018 x + π/4)
where x and y are in cm and t in s. The positive direction of x is from left to right.
(a) Is this a travelling wave or a stationary wave? If it is travelling, what are the speed and
direction of its propagation ?
(b) What are its amplitude and frequency?
(c) What is the initial phase at the origin?
(d) What is the least distance between two successive crests in the wave?
COMPETENCY
BASED
QUESTIONS
OF CLASS XII
CHAPTER 1
ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q.1. An electric dipole placed in a non-uniform electric field can experience -
(a) a force but not a torque (b) a torque but not a force
(c) both force and torque (d) neither force nor torque

Q.2. Two charges are at a distance d apart in air. Coulomb force between them is F. If a
dielectric material of dielectric constant K is placed between them, the Coulomb force now
becomes-
(a) F/K (b) FK (c) F/K2 (d) K2F

Q.3. A point charge situated at a distance r from a short electric dipole on its axis, experiences a force
F. Ifthe distance of the charge is 2r, the force on the charge will be
(a) F/16 (b)F/8 (c) F/4 (d)F/2
Q.4. An electric dipole is placed at an alignment angle of 30o with an electric field of 2 × 105 NC–1. It
experiences a torque equal to 8 N m. The charge on the dipole if the dipole length is 1 cm is
 (a) 4 µC (b) 7 µC (c) 8 mC (d)2 mC
Q.5. The magnitude of electric field due to a point charge 2q, at distance r is E. Then the magnitude of
electric field due to a uniformly charged thin spherical shell of radius Rwith total charge q at a distance
r/2, (r >>R) will be
(a) E/4 (b) 0 (c) 2E (d) 4E
Q.6. Which charge configuration produces a uniform electric field?
(a) point charge (b) uniformly charged infinite line
(c) uniformly charged infinite plane (d) uniformly charged spherical shell

Q.7. Eight equal charges each +Q is kept at the corners of a cube. Net electric field at the Centre of
the cube.
(a) kQ/r2 (b) 2kQ/r2 (c) 8kQ/r2 (d) 0
Q.8. Three charges +Q, q, +Q are placed respectively, at distance 0, d/2 and d from the origin, on the x-
axis. If the net force experienced by +Q placed at x = 0 is zero, thenvalue of q is –
(a) +Q/4 (b) –Q/2 (c) +Q/2 (d) –Q/4
Q.9- Two identical small conducting balls B1 and B2 are given -7pC and +4pC charges
respectively. They brought in contact with a third identical ball B3 and then separated. If the final
charge on each ball is -2pC, the initial charge on B3 was –
(a) -2pC (b) -3pC (c) -5pC (d) -15pC
Q.10- Four Gaussian surfaces are given below with charges inside each Gaussian surface.
Rank the electric flux through each Gaussian surface in increasing order.

(a) D < C < B < A (b) A < B = C < D

(c) C < A = B < D (d) D > C > B > A

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS

Q.1. Calculate coulomb force between two alpha particles separated by a distance of 3.2 x 10-15 m in
air.
Q.2. Two point charges of +16 µC and -9 µC are placed at 8 cm apart in air. Determine the position of
the point at which the resultant field is zero.
Q.3. An infinite line charge produces a field of 9 x 104 NC-1 at a distance of 4 cm. Calculate the linear
charge density.
Q.4. Three charges +q, +q and -2q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle with side ‘a’.
What is the dipole moment of the system?
Q.5. Two plane sheets of charge densities + σ and –σ are kept in air, as shown in figre. What are the
electric field intensities at points A and B?

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

Q.1. Find the magnitude and direction of electric field at point P in given figre-

Q.2. A hollow cylindrical box of length 1 m and area of cross-section 25 cm2 is placed in a three
⃗ = 50x î,
dimensional coordinate system as shown in figre . The electric field in the region is given by E
-1
where E is in NC and x is in metres.

Find-
(i) Net flux through the cylinder,
(ii) charge enclosed by the cylinder.
Q.3. Two small identical electrical dipoles AB and CD, each of dipole moment p ⃗ are kept at an angle of
0 ⃗ pointing along the x-axis as shown in figre
120 to each other in an external electric field E

Find the-
(i) Dipole moment of the arrangement, and
(ii) magnitude and direction of the net torque acting on it.
Q.4. Two thin concentri and coplanar spherical shells, of radii a and b (b > a)carry charges, q and Q,
repectively. Find the magnitude of the electric field, at a point distant x, from their common centre for
(i) 0 < x < a (ii) a ≤ x < b (iii) b ≤ x < ∞
Q.5. A cube of side L is kept in space as shown in the figure. An electric field 𝐸 = (Ax+B)̂i NC-1 exists in
the region. Find the net charge enclosed by the cube.

ASSERTION REASON BASED QUESTIONS

Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
1) Assertion: The tires of aircraft are slightly conducting.
Reason: If a conductor is connected to ground, the extra charge induced on conductor will
flow to ground.
2) Assertion: On disturbing an electric dipole in stable equilibrium in an electric field, it returns
back to its stable equilibrium orientation.
Reason: A restoring torque acts on the dipole on being disturbed from its stable equilibrium.
3) Assertion: Charging is due to transfer of electrons.
Reason: Mass of a body decreases slightly when it is negatively charged.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

Q.1.When electric dipole is placed in uniform electric field, its two charges experience equal and
opposite forces, which cancel each other and hence net force on electric dipole in uniform electric field
is zero. However, these forces are not collinear, so they give rise to some torque on the dipole. Since net
force on electric dipole in uniform electric field is zero, so no work is done in moving the electric dipole
in uniform electric field. However, some work is done in rotating the dipole against the torque acting on
it.
 ⃗ is 𝐏
A. The dipole moment of a dipole in a uniform external field 𝐄 ⃗ . Then the torque τ acting
on the dipole is
(a) τ= ⃗Px ⃗E
(b) τ = ⃗P. ⃗E
(c) τ = 2(P⃗ +E ⃗)
(d) τ = (P⃗ +E ⃗)

B. An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges, each of magnitude 1.0 μC separated
by a distance of 2.0 cm. The dipole is placed in an external field of 105 NC-1. The
maximum torque on the dipole is
(a) 0.2 x 10-3 Nm
(b) 1x 10-3 Nm
(c) 2 x 10-3 Nm
(d) 4x 10-3 Nm

C. Torque on a dipole in uniform electric field is minimum when θ is equal to

(a) 0°
(b) 90°
(c) 180°
(d) Both (a) and (c)

D. When an electric dipole is held at an angle in a uniform electric field, the net force F and
torque τ on the dipole are
(a) F= 0, τ = 0
(b) F≠0, τ≠0
(c) F=0, τ ≠ 0
(d) F≠0, τ=0

E. An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field of intensity E. The dipole

acquires a position such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle with the direction of the
field. Assuming that potential energy of the dipole to be zero when 0 = 90°, the torque and
the potential energy of the dipole will be respectively

(a)PEsinθ , -PEcosθ (b) PEsinθ , 2PEcosθ

(c) PEsinθ, -2PEcosθ (d) PEcosθ, -PEsinθ

Q.2.Smallest charge that can exist in nature is the charge of an electron. During friction it is only the
transfer of electron which makes the body charged. Hence net charge on anybody is an integral
multiple of charge of an electron (1.6 x 10-19 C) i.e., q=±ne
where r= 1, 2, 3, 4 ….
Hence nobody can have a charge represented as 1.8e, 2.7e, 2e/5, etc.
Recently, it has been discovered that elementary particles such as protons or neutrons are elemental
units called quarks.

A. Which of the following properties is not satisfied by an electric charge?

(a) Total charge conservation.
(b) Quantization of charge.
(c) Two types of charge.
(d) Circular line of force.

B. Which one of the following charges is possible?

(a) 5.8 x 10-18 C
(b) 3.2 x 10-18 C
(c) 4.5 x 10-19 C
(d) 8.6 x 10-19 C

C. If a charge on a body is 1 nC, then how many electrons are present on the body?
(a) 6.25 x 1027
(b) 1.6 x 1019
(c) 6.25 X 1028
(d) 6.25 X 109

D. If a body gives out 109 electrons every second, how much time is required to get a total charge
of 1 from it?
(a) 190.19 years
(b) 150.12 years
(c) 198.19 years
(d) 188.21 years

E. A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a negative charge of 3.2 x 10-7C.
Calculate the number of electrons transferred.
(a) 2 x 1012
(b) 3 x 1012
(c) 2 x 1014
(d) 3 x 1014

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

Q.1.(a) Using Gauss’ law, derive an expression for the electric field intensity at any point outside a
uniformly charged thin spherical shell of radius R and charge density a C/m2. Draw the field lines
when the charge density of the sphere is
(i) positive,
(ii) negative.
(b) A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 2.5 m in diameter has a surface charge density of 100
µC/m2. Calculate the
(i) charge on the sphere
(ii) total electric flux passing through the sphere

Q.2) Define electric dipole moment. Is it a scalar or a vector? Derive the expression for the electric
field of a dipole at a point on the equatorial plane of the dipole.

Q.3) (a) Deduce the expression for the torque acting on a dipole of dipole moment P → in the presence
of a uniform electric field E.
(b) Consider two hollow concentric spheres, S1 and S2, enclosing charges 2Q and 4Q respectively as
shown in the figure.

(i) Find out the ratio of the electric flux through them.
(ii) How will the electric flux through the sphere S1 change if a medium of dielectric constant ‘εr‘ is
introduced in the space inside S1, in place of air? Deduce the necessary expression.

CHAP TER 2

ELECTRIC CHARGE AND FIELD & ELECTRIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Question 1
Assertion (A): The electrostatic force between two-point charges decreases as the distance between
them increases.
Reason (R): The electrostatic force between two-point charges is directly proportional to the product
of their charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Question 2:
Assertion (A): A conductor in electrostatic equilibrium has zero electric field inside it.
Reason (R): The charges in a conductor move to the surface to maintain electrostatic equilibrium.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Question 3:
Assertion (A): The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor increases if a dielectric material is inserted
between the plates.
Reason (R): A dielectric reduces the potential difference for a given charge on the plates of a capacitor.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. The parallel plate capacitor consists of two parallel metal plates X and Y each of area A, separated
by a distance d, having a surface charge density σ as shown in figure. The medium between the plates
is air. A charge +q is given to the plate X. It induces a charge –q on the upper surface of earthed plate
Y. When the plates are very close to each other, the field is confined to the region between them. The
electric lines of force starting from plate X and ending at the plate Y are parallel to each other and
perpendicular to the plates. The capacitance is directly proportional to the area (A) of the plates and
inversely proportional to their distance of separation (d). The capacitance (C) of the parallel plate
capacitor is given by C= ϵ0A/d. if the region between the two plates is filled with dielectric like mica or
oil. Its capacitance increased by ϵr times of the medium.

(i) The potential difference between the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor is Q is magnitude of
charge on each plate of area A separated by a distance d
(a)Qd/(εoA) (b) dεo/AQ (c) Ad/(εoQ) (d) QA/dεo
(ii) A capacitor is charged by a battery and the charging battery is disconnected and a dielectric slab is
inserted in it. Then for the capacitor
(a) Charge remains constant (b) Charge increases
(c) Potential difference remains constant (d)
Potential difference increases
(iii) A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance of 10 μF. If the
distance between two plates is doubled then the new
capacitance will be
(a) 20 μF (b) 15 μF (c) 10
μF (d) 5 μF
(iv) Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor does not depend
on:
(a) Area of the plates
(b) Type of metal used for plates
(c) Separating distance between the plates
(d) Dielectric constant of the medium between the plates
(v) A parallel plate air capacitor with no dielectric between the plates is connected to a constant
voltage source. What happens to the capacitance if a dielectric of dielectric constant k = 2 is inserted
between the plates?
(a) Capacitance decreases (b) Capacitance increases by two times
(c)Capacitance remains unchanged (d) insufficient data
2. Faraday cages shield their contents from static electric fields. An electric field is a force field
surrounding a charged particle, such as an electron or proton. These cages often look distinctly, well,
cage like. Some are as simple as chain-link fences or ice pails. Others use a fine metallic mesh.
Regardless of their exact appearance, all Faraday cages take electrostatic charges, or even certain types
of electromagnetic radiation, and distribute them around the exterior of the cage.
(i). Which of the following material can be used to make a Faraday cage?
a) Plastic
b) Glass
c) Copper
d) Wood
(ii). Example of a real-world Faraday cage is
a) car
b) plastic box
c) lightning rod
d) metal rod
(iii). What is the electrical force inside a Faraday cage when it is struck by lightning?
a) The same as the lightning
b) Half that of the lightning
c) Zero
d) A quarter of the lightning
(iv). An isolated point charge +q is placed inside the Faraday cage. Its surface must have charge equal
to-
a) Zero b) +q c) –q d) +2q

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION

Q.1.(a) What is a dielectric? A dielectric slab of thickness t is kept between the plates of a parallel
plate capacitor separated by distance d. Derive the expression for the capacitance of the capacitor for
t<<d.
(b) A 600pF capacitor is charged by a 200 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is
connected to another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. How much electrostatic energy is lost in the process?

Q.2. (a) Derive an expression for the potential energy of a dipole in a uniform electric field. Discuss the
conditions of stable and unstable equilibrium.
(b) Find the amount of work done in rotating an electric dipole of dipole moment 3.2×10-8 Cm from its
position of stable equilibrium to the position of unstable equilibrium, in a uniform electric field of
intensity 104 N/C.

Q.3. (a) Define electric flux. Write its S.I. unit.

(b) Using Gauss’s law, obtain the electric flux due to a point charge ‘q’ enclosed in a cube of side ‘a’.
(c) Show that the electric field due to a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet at any point distant x
from it, is independent of x.
 CHAPTER 3
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
MCQ (1 MARK QUESTIONS)
Q 1 Kirchhoff’s first law of electric junction is based on
(a) Law of conservation of energy
(b) Law of conservation of charge
(c) Law of conservation of angular momentum
(d) Law of conservation of mass
Q 2 Kirchhoff’s second law of close loop is
(a) Law of conservation of charge
(b) Law of conservation of energy
(c) Law of conservation of angular momentum
(d) Law of conservation of mass
Q 3 A cell of emf 4 V and internal resistance 0.5 Ohm is connected to a 7.5 Ohm external
resistance. The terminal potential difference of cell is
(a) 3.75 V
(b) 4.25 V
(c) 4 V
(d) 0.375 V
Q 4 In a Wheatstone bridge, all the four arms have equal resistance R. If the resistance of
galvanometer arm is also R, the equivalent resistance of the combination as seen by battery
is
(a) R/2
 (b) R/4
(c) R
(d) 2 R
Q 5 Two cells, one of emf 18 V and internal resistance 2 Ohm and other of emf 12 V and
internal resistance 1 Ohm are connected in parallel. The equivalent emf of this combination
is
(a) 30 V
(b) 18 V
(c) 15 V
(d) 14 V
Q 6 As temperature increases, the electric resistance
(a) Increases for both conductors and semiconductors
(b) Decreases for both conductors and semiconductors
(c) Increase for conductors but decreases for semiconductors
(d) Decreases for conductors and increases for semiconductors
Q 7 The ratio of current density and Electric field is called
(a) Resistivity
(b) Conductivity
(c) Drift velocity
(d) Mobility
Q 8 A current of 0.8 A flows in a conductor of 40 Ohm for 1 minute. The heat produced in the
conductor will be
(a) 1445 J
(b) 1536 J
(c) 1569 J
(d) 1640 J
Q 9 Potential difference across a cell in a open circuit is 6 V. It becomes 4 V when a current
of 2 A is drawn from it. The internal resistance of the cell is
(a) 1 Ohm
(b) 1.5 Ohm
(c) 2 Ohm
(d) 2.5 Ohm
Q 10 To supply maximum current, cells should be connected in
(a) Parallel
 (b) Series
(c) Mixed grouping
(d) Depend upon internal and external resistance

2 MARKS QUESTIONS
Q 1 Two wires, one of copper and other of manganin, have the same resistance and equal
thickness. Which wire is longer? Justify your answer.
Q 2 Define the term mobility of the charge carrier in a current carrying conductor. Obtain the
relation for mobility in terms of relaxation time.
Q 3 Plot a graph showing variation of Voltage and current drawn from the cell.
How can one get information from this plot about the emf of the cell and the internal
resistance.
Q 4 State Kirchhoff’s laws .
Q 5 A Voltmeter of 998 Ohm is connected across a cell of emf 2 V and internal resistance 2
Ohm. Find the potential difference across the Voltmeter and across the terminal of the cell.

3 MARK QUESTIONS
Q 1 On the basis of electron drift derive an expression for resistivity of a conductor in terms
of the number density of free electrons and relaxation time. On what factors does the
resistivity of a conductor depend?
Q 2 Define Wheatstone bridge. Derive the expression for the balance condition of Wheatstone
bridge using Kirchhoff’s laws.
Q 3 A potential difference V is applied across a conductor of length l and uniform cross-
section area A. How will the
(I) Electric field E
(II) Drift velocity Vd and
(III) Current density be affected when
(a) V is doubled and
(b) I is halved (keeping other factors constant)
Q4
Find the electric current in 20 Ohm resistance and 40 Ohm resistance in the above circuit

Q 5.

Find the value of three currents shown in the above electric circuit.

ASSERTION - REASON BASED QUESTION

A statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R). Choose the correct
answer out of the following choices.
(a) A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
(1) Assertion: Electromotive force is larger than the potential difference across any circuit
element.
Reason: The EMF of a source is equal to the maximum potential difference between its
terminals when it is in the open circuit.
(2) Assertion: Alloys of metals have greater resistivity then their constituent metals.
 Reason: Resistivity of a material is directly proportional to the relaxation time of the
electrons.
(3) Assertion: The conductivity of a metal decreases within increase in temperature.
Reason: The resistivity of a semiconductor decreases rapidly with increase in
temperature.
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION
Read the paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
(1) Collisions are the basic cause of resistance. When a potential difference is applied across
a conductor, its free electrons get accelerated. On their way, they frequently collide with the
positive metal ions i.e., their motion is opposed and this opposition to the flow of electrons is
called resistance. Larger the number of collisions per second, smaller is the relaxation time,
and larger will be the resistivity. The number of collisions that the electrons make with the
atoms/ions depends on the arrangement of atoms or ions in a conductor. So, the resistance
depends on the nature of the material (copper, silver, etc.) of the conductor.
(i) The charge careers in electrolytic liquids are
(a)Electrons (b) Protons (c) Ions (d) Holes
(ii) A wire of uniform cross section and length 'L' has a resistance of 8 Ohm. It is cut into two
equal parts. Each part is stretched uniformly to length L and connected in parallel. Find the
equivalent resistance of the combination so formed.
(a) 16 ohm (b) 32 ohm (c) 2 ohm (d) 8 ohm
(iii) What will be the change in the resistivity of a conductor if relaxation time of charge
carriers is doubled.
(a) remain the same (b) get doubled (c) become half (d) become four times.
(iv) Resistance of an ideal voltmeter is
(a) zero (b) between 1 to 10 ohm (c) 1000 ohm (d) Infinite
(2). When the terminals of a cell are connected to a conductor of resistance R, and electric
current I flows through the circuit. The electrolyte of cell also offers some resistance in the
path of current, like the conductor. This resistance offered by electrolyte is called internal
resistance of cell (r). It depends upon the nature of electrolyte, the area of electrode immersed
in the electrolyte and temperature. Due to internal resistance, a part of energy supplied by the
cell is wasted in the form of heat.
When no current is drawn from the cell, the potential difference between the two electrodes
is known as emf of cell (E). When a current drawn from the cell, the potential difference
between the electrode is termed potential difference (V).
( i ) Choose the incorrect statement
(a) The potential difference (V) between the two terminals of a cell in a closed circuit is always
less than emf (E) during discharge of cell.
(b) The potential difference(V) between the two terminals of a cell in a closed circuit is always
less than emf (E) during charging the of cell.
(c)When current is drawn from the cell then, V=E -Ir.
(d)The graph between potential difference(V) between the terminals of cell and electric
current(I) is a straight line with a negative slope.
(ii) During charging of a cell with 2 A current, potential difference across the terminals of the
cell becomes 8 volts. If internal resistance of the cell is to 2 ohms. The EMF of the cell will
be -
(a) 12 V (b) 6V (c) 4V (d) 8 V
(iii) The plot of the variation of potential difference across a combination of three identical
cells in series versus current is given here. What is the EMF of each cell?

(a) 2V (b) 6V (c) 18 V (d) Zero

(iv) Which of the following statement is incorrect. The internal resistance of a cell
(a) It is directly proportional to the concentration of the electrolyte.
(b) It is directly proportional to the distance between the two electrodes.
(c) It varies inversely as the common area of the electrodes immersed in the electrolyte.
(d) It increases with the increase in temperature of the electrolyte.
LONG QUESTION
Q1. (i)State the two Kirchoff's law for Electrical circuit.
(ii)On which fundamental laws above two laws are based?
(iii) ABCDA is a uniform circular wire of resistance 2 ohm. AOC and BOD are two
wires along two perpendicular diameters of the circle each having same resistance one ohm.
A battery of 4 V is connected between the points A and calculate the current in arm BO.
Q2. (i) What is a Wheatstone bridge? On what factors does the sensitivity of Wheatstone
bridge depends?
(ii) Calculate the current drawn from the battery by the network of resistors (in ohm) in the
figure given below:
 CHAPTER 4
Moving Charges And Magnetism
SECTION-A
Q.1.Two wires carrying currents I1 and I2 lie, one slightly above the other, in a horizontal plane as
shown in figure. The region of vertically upward strongest magnetic field is

(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

Q. 2. Two parallel conductors carrying current of 4.0 A and 10.0Aare placed 2.5 cm apart in
vacuum. The force per unit length between them is
(A) 6.4 x 10-5 N/m (B) 6.4 x 10-2 N/m (C) 4.6 X 10-4 N/m (D) 3.2 x 10-4 N/m
Q.3.If an ammeter is to be used in place of a voltmeter, then we must connect with the ammeter a
A. low resistance in parallel
B. low resistance in series
C. high resistance in parallel
D. high resistance in series
Q.4. The magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying circular loop of radius R is B1,
magnetic field at a point on its axis at a distance R from the centre of the loop is B2. Then the
ratio (B1/B2) is
A. 2/ (2)1/2
B. 1/ (2)1/2
C. 2(2)1/2
D. 2
Q.5. A current carrying wire kept in a uniform magnetic field, will experience a maximum force
when it is
(A) Perpendicular to the magnetic field.
 (B) Parallel to the magnetic field.
(C) At an angle of 45° to the magnetic field.
(D) At an angle of 60° to the magnetic field.

Q.6. A straight conducting rod of length I and mass m is suspended in a horizontal

plane by a pair of flexible strings in a magnetic field of magnitude B. To remove the
tension in the supporting strings, the magnitude of the current in the wire is
(A) mgl/B (B) mgB/l (C) mg/lB (D) lB/mg

Q.7. A constant current is flowing through a solenoid. An iron rod is inserted in the
solenoid along its axis. Which of the following quantities will not increase?
A. The magnetic field at the center
B. The magnetic flux linked with the solenoid
C. The rate of heating
D. The self-inductance of the solenoid
Q.8. Two concentric and coplanar circular loops P and Q have their radii in the ratio 2:3.
Loop Q carries a current 9 A in the anti-clockwise direction. For the magnetic field to be
zero at the common centre, loop P must carry
A. 3 A in clockwise direction
B. 9 A in clockwise direction
C. 6 A in anti-clockwise direction
D. 6 A in the clockwise direction.
Q.9. Magnetic field due to a straight solenoid at any point inside it is B = µ0ni. Magnetic field
at the end of the solenoid is
(A)B (B) B/2 (c) 2B (D) B/4
Q.10.The deflecting torque acting on the coil of a galvanometer is
(A) inversely proportional to number of turns.
(B) Inversely proportional to current flowing.
(C) Inversely proportional to area of the coil.
(D) Directly proportional to magnetic field strength.
SECTION-B
Q.1.An ammeter of resistance 0.8 Ω can measure current up to 1.0 A. Find the value of shunt resistance
required to convert this ammeter to measure a current up to 5.0 A.
Q.2. A galvanometer of resistance 16 Ω shows full scale deflection for a current of 4 mA. How will
you convert it into a voltmeter to measure a voltage up to the 3V?
Q.3. A circular loop carrying a current 5 A, produces a magnetic field of π mT, at its centre. Find the
value of magnetic moment of the loop.
Q.4. An iron ring of relative permeability μr has windings of insulated copper wire of n turns per metre.
When the current in the windings is I, find the expression for the magnetic field in the ring.
Q.5. A circular coil of ‘N’ turns and radius ‘R’ carries a current ‘I’. it is unwound and rewound to
make another coil of radius ‘R/2’, current ‘I’ remaining the same. Calculate the ratio of the magnetic
moments of the new coil and the original coil.
SECTION-C
Q.1. (a) It is not advisable to use a galvanometer as such to measure current directly. Why?
(b) Why should the value of resistance connected in parallel to a galvanometer be low?
(c) Is the reading shown by an ammeter in a circuit less than or more than the actual value of current
flowing in the circuit? Why?
Q.2. Briefly explain why and how a galvanometer is converted into an ammeter and a voltmeter.
Q.3. Obtain the expression for the deflecting torque acting on the current carrying rectangular coil of a
galvanometer in a uniform magnetic field. Why is a radial magnetic field employed in the moving coil
galvanometer?
Q.4. A circular loop of radius R carries a current I. Obtain the expression for the magnetic field at the
point on its axis at a distance x from its centre.
Q.5. A square loop of side 5 cm carrying a current of 0.2 A in the clockwise direction is placed at a
distance of 10 cm from an infinitely long wire carrying a current of 1A as shown. Calculate
(i) the resultant magnetic force, and
(ii) the torque, if any, acting on the loop.

Assertion Reason Questions:

Options:
1. Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation for the
assertion.
2. Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation for the
assertion.
3. The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
4. The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1
Assertion (A): A current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field experiences a force that is
perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the direction of current.
Reason (R): The direction of the force on a moving charge in a magnetic field is given by the right-
hand rule.

Question 2
Assertion (A): When the velocity of a charged particle moving perpendicular to a magnetic field
increase, the magnetic force on the particle also increases.
Reason (R): The magnetic force on a charged particle is directly proportional to its velocity.

Question 3
Assertion (A): A magnetic field cannot do work on a charged particle.
Reason (R): The magnetic force on a charged particle is always perpendicular to the direction of the
particle's velocity.

Case Based
1. Moving coil galvanometer operates on Permanent Magnet Moving Coil (PMMC) mechanism.
Moving coil galvanometers are of two types
(i) Suspended coil
(ii) Pivoted coil type or tangent galvanometer,
Its working is based on the fact that when a current carrying coil is placed in a magnetic field, it
experiences a torque. This torque tends to rotate the coil about its axis of suspension in such a way that
the magnetic flux passing through the coil is maximum.

(i) A moving coil galvanometer is an instrument which

(a) is used to measure emf
(b) is used to measure potential difference
(c) is used to measure resistance
(d) is a deflection instrument which gives a deflection when a current flows through its coil
(ii) To make the field radial in a moving coil galvanometer.
(a) number of turns of coil is kept small
(b) magnet is taken in the form of horse-shoe
(c) poles are of very strong magnets
(d) poles are cylindrically cut
(iii) The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is
(a) directly proportional to torsional constant of spring
(b) directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil
(c) inversely proportional to the area of the coil
(d) inversely proportional to the current in the coil
(iv) To increase the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer, we should decrease
(a) strength of magnet
(b) torsional constant of spring
(c) number of turns in coil
(d) area of coil

Long Answer

Q.1. a) Two parallel currents attract each other. Calculate the force of attraction.
b) Two long wires carrying current I1 and 12 are arranged as shown in the figure. The one carrying
current I1 is along the x-axis. The other carrying current, I2 is along a line parallel to the y-axis given
by x = 0 and z =d. Find the force exerted at 02 because of the wire along the x-axis.

Q.2. a) A Current carrying circular loop will have magnetic field at its center. Calculate the magnetic
field and show its direction.
b) A current carrying loop consists of 3 identical quarter circles of radius R, lying in the
positive quadrants of the x-y, y-z and z-x planes with their centres at the origin, joined
together. Find the direction and magnitude of B at the origin
Q3 a) In the given figure identify the direction of current. And then write the force on the conductor.

b) A 100-turn rectangular coil, ABCD (in XY plane), is hung from one arm of a balance. A mass of
500g is added to the other arm to balance the weight of the coil. A current 4.9 A passes through the
coil, and a constant magnetic field of 0.2 T acting inward (in xz plane) is switched on such that only
arm CD of length 1 cm lies in the field. How much additional mass ‘m’ must be added to regain the
balance?

CHAPTER 5
MAGNETISM AND MATTER
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

A. The following figures show the arrangement of bar magnets in different configurations.
Each magnet has magnetic dipole. Which configuration has the highest net magnetic dipole
moment?

B. There are four light-weight-rod samples; A, B, C, D separately suspended by threads. A

bar magnet is slowly brought near each sample and the following observations are noted:
(i) A is feebly repelled
(ii) B is feebly attracted
(iii) C is strongly attracted
(iv) D remains unaffected
C. Which one of the following is true?
i. C is of a diamagnetic material
ii. D is of a ferromagnetic material
iii. A is of a non-magnetic material
iv. B is of a paramagnetic material

D. Two equal bar magnets are kept as shown in the figure. The direction of the resultant
magnetic field, indicated by arrowhead at the point P is: (approximately)
Options:

E. A uniform magnetic field, parallel to the plane of the paper existed in space
initially directed from left to right. When a bar of soft iron is placed in the field
parallel to it, the lines of force passing through it will be represented by

F. A sensitive magnetic instrument can be shielded very effectively from outside

magnetic fields by placing it inside a box of:
i. Teak wood
ii. Plastic material
iii. Soft iron of high permeability
iv. A metal of high conductivity

G. A long magnetic needle of length 2L, magnetic moment M and pole strength m units is
broken into two pieces at the middle. The magnetic moment and pole strength of each piece
will be:

i. M/2, m/2
ii. M, m/2
 iii. M/2, m
iv. M, m
H. Rod of an unknown material is suspended freely between two pole pieces of magnet as
shown in figure. What will be the permeability of this material?

(i) less than one and small

(ii) equal to one
(iii) slightly greater than one
(iv) very large
I. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field in four different orientations
i,ii,iii & iv arrange them in the decreasing order of potential Energy

J. Pick the correct options.

(a) Magnetic field is produced by electric charges only.
(b) Magnetic poles are only mathematical assumptions having no real existence.
(c) A north pole is equivalent to a clockwise current and a south pole is equivalent to an
anticlockwise current.
(d) A bar magnet is equivalent to a long, straight current
K. Choose the correct option

i. (a), (b)
ii. (b), (c)
iii. (c), (d)
iv. (a), (d)
L. The relative permeability (μ) of a ferromagnetic substance varies with temperature (T)
according to the curve

(i) A
(ii) B
(iii) C
(iv) D

2 MARK QUESTIONS
1. A solenoid of 500 turns/m is carrying a current of 3A. Its core is made of iron which
has a relative permeability of 5000 Determine the magnitude of magnetic intensity,
magnetisation and magnetic field inside the core.
2. An iron rod 0.2 m long 10 m in diameter and of permeability 1000 is placed inside a
long solenoid wound with 300 turns per meter. If a current of 0.5 A is passed through
the rod find magnetic moment of rod.
3. A magnet of moment M is lying in a magnetic field of induction B. W, is the work
done in turning it from 0 to 60° and W, is the work done in turning it from 30° to
90°. Then find ratio of w1 and W2.
4. A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires 3√J of work to
turn it through 60°. What will be the torque needed to maintain the needle in this
position?
5. A bar magnet of length L and magnetic dipole moment M is bent in the form of an
arc as shown in figure. What will be the new magnetic dipole moment?

3 MARKS QUESTIONS
 1. Compare the magnetic properties of diamagnetic, paramagnetic and ferromagnetic
substance.
2. Define the term magnetic moment of a current loop. Write the expression for the
magnetic moment when an electron revolves at a speed around an orbit of radius in
hydrogen atom.
3. A) From a molecular viewpoint, discuss the temperature dependence of
susceptibility for diamagnetism, Para magnetism and ferromagnetism.
B) A permanent magnet in the shape of a thin cylinder of length 10 cm has M =
106A/m. Calculate the magnetisation current IM.
4. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.6X10-4 m2,
carrying a current of 4.0 A, is suspended through its center allowing it to turn in a
horizontal plane.
(a) What is the magnetic moment associated with the solenoid?
(b) What is the force and torque on the solenoid if a uniform horizontal magnetic
field of 7.5 × 10−2 T is set up at an angle of 30º with the axis of the solenoid?
5. The figure shows the variation of intensity of magnetization versus the applied
magnetic field intensity, H, for two magnetic materials A and B:

(a) Identify the materials A and B.

(b) Why does the material B, has a larger susceptibility than A, for a given field at
constant temperature?
(c) Which material has greater permeability?
TYPE 2 QUESTIONS
CASE STUDY
When the atomic dipoles are aligned partially or fully, there is a net magnetic moment in the
direction of the field in any small volume of the material. The actual magnetic field inside
material placed in a magnetic field is the sum of the applied magnetic field and the magnetic
field due to magnetization. This field is called magnetic intensity (H).H = 𝑩/ 𝝁ₒ - M
Where M is the magnetization of the material, μₒ is the permittivity of vacuum and B is the
total magnetic field. The measure that tells us how a magnetic material responds to an
external field is given by a dimensionless quantity is appropriately called the magnetic
susceptibility: for a certain class of magnetic materials, intensity of magnetization is
directly proportional to the magnetic intensity.
(i) Magnetization of a sample is
a) volume of sample per unit magnetic moment b) net magnetic moment per unit
volume
 c)ratio of magnetic moment and pole strength d) ratio of pole strength to magnetic
moment
(ii)Identify the wrongly matched quantity and unit pair.
(a) Pole strength Am (b). Magnetic susceptibility dimensionless number
(c) Intensity of magnetization A m⁻¹ (d) Magnetic permeability Henry m
iii) A bar magnet has length- 3 cm, cross-sectional area 2 cm² and magnetic moment 3
Am².The intensity of magnetization of bar magnet is
a) 2× 10⁵ A/m b) 3× 10⁵ A/m c)4× 10⁵ A/m d)5× 10⁵ A/m
iv)A solenoid has a core of a material with relative permeability 500 and its windings carry
a current of 1A. The number of turns of the solenoid is 500 per metre. The magnetization of
the material is nearly a)2.5× 10³ Am⁻¹ b)2.5× 10⁵ Am⁻ ¹ c)2.0× 10³ Am⁻¹
d)2.0× 10⁵ Am⁻¹
v)The relative permeability of iron is 6000. Its magnetic susceptibility is
a) 5999 b)6001 c)6000 ×10⁻⁷ d)6000× 10⁷
CASE STUDY 2 --MAGNETIC MOMENT OF ELECTRON
In the Bohr model of the Hydrogen atom, the electron revolves around a positively charged
nucleus such as a planet revolves around the sun. The force which binds the electron-proton
system is the electrostatic force. There will be a magnetic moment associated with this
circulating current given by M = I A.
1.What will be the magnetic moment of the electron in the first orbit of H-atom?
(a)𝑒𝑣𝑟 /2 (b)/ 2𝑟 (c) 𝑒𝑣/ 2𝑟𝑚 (d)𝑣𝑟/ 2𝑚
2. The relation between magnetic moment and angular momentum for an electron revolving
in the first orbit of H-atom is
(a) M = 𝑒 /2𝑚 L (b) L = 𝑒/ 2𝑚 M (c) M = 𝑒𝐵/ 2𝑚 L (d) L = 𝑒𝐵/ 2𝑚 M
3. The angle between magnetic moment vector and angular momentum vector is
(a) 0° ( b)45° (c)90° (d)180°
4. The value of gyroscopic ratio M/L
(a) depends on the value of charge (b) is a constant quantity
(c) depends on mass of the particle (d) depends on the axis of rotation.
ASSERTION AND REASON BASED QUESTIONS
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(C) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(D) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
1)Assertion: We cannot think of a magnetic field configuration with three poles
Reason: A bar magnet does exert a torque on itself due to its own field.
2)Assertion: A current carrying solenoid behaves like a bar magnet.
Reason :The circular loop in which the direction of current is clockwise behaves like the
South Pole and the one having anticlockwise current behaves like the North Pole.
3)Assertion: Permanent magnets retain their ferromagnetic property for a long period of
time
Reason: Steel is a diamagnetic material.
LONG QUESTION
1.(I)The susceptibility of a magnetic material is – 2.6 × 10-5. Identify the type of magnetic
material and state its two properties.
(II)(a) How does a diamagnetic material behave when it is cooled to very low temperatures?
(b) Why does a paramagnetic sample display greater magnetization when cooled
2)(a)Which physical quantity has the unit Wb / m2? Is it a scalar or a vector quantity?
(b)An electron in the ground state of a hydrogen atom is revolving in an anti - clockwise
direction in a circular orbit. The atom is placed normal to the electron orbit makes an angle
of 0 30 in the magnetic field. Find the torque experienced by the orbiting electron?
3)(a) A short bar magnet of magnetic moment =M 0.32J / T is placed in a uniform magnetic
field of 0.15T. If the bar is free to rotate in the plane of the field, which orientation and
would correspond to its a) Stable equilibrium? What is the potential energy of the magnet in
this case?
(b)The figure shows the variation of intensity of magnetization versus the applied magnetic
field intensity, H, for two magnetic materials A and B :

I A B

H
(a) Identify the materials A and B.
(b) Why does the material B, has a larger susceptibility than A, for a given field at constant
temperature?
CHAPTER 6
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

TYPE-2 QUESTIONS
ASSERTION REASON
Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select
the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
(1). Assertion: As the magnetic field increases, the magnetic energy stored in a solenoid
increases.
Reason: magnetic energy stored in a solenoid is proportional to the square of magnetic field
strength.
(2). Assertion- When two coils are wound on each other, the mutual induction between coil
is maximum
Reason -- Mutual induction doesn’t depend on the orientation of the coils .
(3) Assertion-

Figure shows a horizontal solenoid connected to a battery and a switch. A copper ring is
placed on a smooth surface, the axis of the ring being horizontal. As the switch is closed, the
ring will move away from the solenoid.
Reason: Induced emf in the ring, e=-dΦ/dt

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

CASE STUDY-1
Read the para given below and answer the questions that follow:
Self-Induction. When a current I flow through a coil, flux linked with it is φ = LI, where L is
a constant known as self-inductance of the coil.

Any charge in current sets up an induced emf in the coil. Thus, self-inductance of a coil is the
induced emf set up in it when the current passing through it changes at the unit rate. It is a
measure of the opposition to the growth or the decay of current flowing through the coil. Also,
value of self-inductance depends on the number of turns in the solenoid, its area of cross-
section and the permeability of its core material.
 (i) The inductance in a coil plays the same role as
(a)inertia in mechanics
(b) energy in mechanics
(c) momentum in mechanics
(d) force in mechanics
OR
(i) A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil of inductance 5 H. The magnetic flux linked with
the coil is
(a) 0.5 Wb
(b) 12.5 Wb
(c) Zero
(d) 2Wb
(ii)The inductance L of a solenoid depends upon its radius R as
(a) L∝R
(b) L∝1/R
(c) L∝R2
(d) Does not depend on R
(iii) The unit of self-inductance is
(a) Weber ampere
(b) Weber -1ampere
(c) Ohm second
(d) Farad
(iv) The induced emf in a coil of 10 henry inductance in which current varies from 9 A to 4
A in 0.2 second is-

(a) 200 V
(b) 250 V
(c) 300 V
(d) 350 V
CASE STUDY-2
Migration Of Birds: The migratory birds’ patterns are one of the mysteries in the field of
science. For example, every winter birds from Siberia fly unerringly to water spots in
the Indian sub- continent. There has been a suggestion that electromagnetic induction may
provide a clue to the migratory patterns. The earth’s magnetic field has existed throughout
evolutionary history. It would be of great benefit to migratory birds to use this field to
determine the direction. As far as we know birds contains no ferromagnetic materials. So,
electromagnetic induction seems to be the only reasonable mechanism to determine the
direction. Consider the optimal case where the magnetic field B, the velocity of the bird v
and two relevant points of its anatomy separated by a distance, all three
are mutually perpendicular. From the formula for motional emf i.e., ε=Blv Certain kinds of
fishes are able to detect small potential differences. However, in these fishes, special cells
have been identified. Thus, the migration patterns of birds continue to remains a mystery.
i. An emf is produced in a coil, which is not connected to an external voltage source. This
can be due to-
(a) the coil being in a time varying magnetic field
(b) the coil moving in a time varying magnetic field
(c) the coil moving out of constant magnetic field
(d) All of the above
ii. A circular coil expands radially in a region of magnetic field and no electromotive force
is produced in the coil. This can be because-
(a) the magnetic field is in the same plane as the circular coil and it may or may not vary
(b) the magnetic field has a perpendicular (to the plane of the coil) component whose
magnitude is decreasing suitably
(c) there is constant magnetic field in the perpendicular (to the plane of their coil) direction.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
iii. A migratory Siberian bird is flying in the sky with a velocity of 10 m/s and the distance
between two feathers is 2 cm. The earth’s magnetic field B perpendicular to the feather is 4
x 10-5T. Then emf generated between the two feathers is-
(a) 4 μV (b) 6 μV (c) 8 μV (d) 10 μV

OR
iii An airplane having a wing span of 35 m flies due north with speed of 90 m/s, given B = 4
X 10-5T. the potential difference between the tips of the wings will be-
(a) 0.126 V
(b) 1.26 V
(c) 12.6 V
(d) 0.013 V
iv. A moving conductor’s coil produces an induced emf. This is in accordance with-
(a) Lenz’s Law
(b) Coulomb’s Law
(c) Faraday’s Law
(d) Ampere’s Law
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS(5 MARKS)
Q1. (a) Draw a labelled diagram of a.c. generator. Derive the expression for the
instantaneous value of the emf induced in the coil.
(b) A circular coil of cross-sectional area 200 cm2 and 20 turns is rotated about the vertical
diameter with angular speed of 50 rad/s in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 3.0 ×10-2
T. Calculate the maximum value of the current in the coil.
Q 2. (a) Describe a simple experiment (or activity) to show that the polarity of emf induced
in a coil is always such that it tends to produce a current which opposes the change of
magnetic flux that produces it.
(b) The current flowing through an inductor of self-inductance L is continuously increasing.
Plot a graph showing the variation of (i) magnetic flux versus the current (ii) induced emf
versus dl/dt (iii) magnetic potential energy stored versus the current.
Q3. (a) Explain the meaning of the term mutual inductance. Consider two concentric
circular coils, one of radius r1 and the other of radius r2 (r1 < r2) placed coaxially with
Centre’s coinciding with each other. Obtain the expression for the mutual inductance of the
arrangement.
(b) Calculate the self-inductance of a coil using the following data obtained when an AC
source of frequency 200/π Hz and a DC source is applied across the coil.
AC Source DC Source
S.No V(Volts) I(A) S.No V(Volts) I(A)
1 3 0.5 1 4 1.0
2 6 1.0 2 6 1.5
3 9 1.5 3 8 2.0

CHAPTER -7
ALTERNATING CURRENT (TYPE-1 QUESTIONS)

(1 MARKS QUESTIONS)

Q1. An AC voltage source of variable angular frequency ω and fixed amplitude V connected in series
with a capacitance C and an electric bulb of resistance R (inductance zero). When ω is increased
(a) The bulb glows dimmer
(b) The bulb glows brighter
(c) Net impedance of circuit is unchanged
(d) Total impedance of the circuit increases
Q2. The variation of the instantaneous current I(t) and the instantaneous emf E(t) in a circuit is as
shown in the following fig. Which of the following statements is correct:

(a) The voltage lags behind the current by π/2

(b) The voltage leads the current by π/2
(c) The voltage and the current are in phase
(d) The voltage leads the current by π
Q3. The figure shows variation of R, XL and XC with frequency f in a series L, C, R circuit. Then for

what frequency point, the circuit is inductive.

(a) A
(c) C
(b) B
(d) A and B
Q4. When ac- source is connected across series R-L-C combination, maximum power loss will occur provided
(a) Current and voltage are in phase (b) Current from source is minimum
(c) Inductance is minimum (d) Capacitance is maximum
Q5. The core of a transformer is laminated, so as to
(a) Make it light weight (b) make it robust and strong
(c) Increase the secondary voltage (d) reduce energy loss due to eddy current
Q6. In a transformer, the no. of turns of primary and secondary coil are 500 and 400 respectively. If 220 V is
supplied to the primary coil, then ratio of currents in primary and secondary coils is
(a) 4:5 (b) 5:4 (c) 5:9 (d) 9:5
Q7. Identify the correct combination for a step-down transformer.
(a) k < 1; Vs > Vp, Is > Ip, Ns < Np
(b) k > 1; Vs < Vp, Is > Ip, Ns > Np
(c) k > 1; Vs > Vp, Is < Ip, Ns > Np
(d) k < 1; Vs < Vp, Is > Ip, Ns < Np
Q8. The power factor of LCR circuit at resonance is
(a) 0.707 (b) 1 (c) Zero (d) 0.5
Q9. What will be the phase difference between virtual voltage and virtual current, when the current in the circuit is
wattless
(a) 90° (b) 45° (c) 180° (d) 60°
Q10. In LCR circuit, the capacitance is changed from C to 4C. For the same resonant frequency,
the inductance should be changed from L to
(a) 2L (b) L / 2 (c) L / 4 (d) 4 L

(2 MARKS QUESTIONS)
Q11. The standard equation of an ac voltage is given by V= 311 sin 314t. Find :
rms voltage, frequency.
Q12. The instantaneous current and voltage of an a.c.: circuit are given by
i = 10 sin 300 t A and V = 200 sin 300 t V. What is the power dissipation in
the circuit?
Q13. Mention the two characteristic properties of the material suitable for making core of a
transformer.
Q14. Define power factor. State the conditions under which it is (i) maximum and (ii) minimum.
Q15. An output voltage of an ideal transformer connected to 240 V ac mains is 24V. When the
transformer used to light a bulb 24V, 24W Calculate the current in the primary of the circuit.
(3 MARKS QUESTIONS)

Q16. With the help of a phasor diagram derive an equation for current in a series
LCR circuit. Draw wave form of current and voltage clearly showing the phase
difference. It is observed that the sum of voltages across different
components in a series LCR circuit are some times more than the applied
voltage. How will you justify this?
Q17. Derive an equation for power in a LCR circuit. How can you make the power
factor maximum?
Q18. Describe briefly, with the help of a labelled diagram, the working of a step-up transformer.
Q19. A 2 μF capacitor, 100 Ω resistor and 8 H inductor are connected in series with an ac source.
(i) What should be the frequency of the source such that current drawn in the circuit is maximum?
What is this frequency called?
(ii) If the peak value of emf of the source is 200 V, find the maximum current.
(iii)Draw a graph showing variation of amplitude of circuit current with changing frequency of applied voltage in a
series LRC circuit for two different values of resistance R1 and R2 (R1 > R2).
Q20. Describe briefly, with the help of a labelled diagram, the basic elements of an ac generator.
State its underlying principle.
Type 2 Questions
Read the two statements carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:
(a) If both the Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both the Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(i) Assertion : Choke coil is preferred over a resistor to control the current in an AC circuit.
Reason: Power factor of an ideal inductor is zero.

(ii) Assertion : A bulb connected in series with a solenoid is connected to AC source. If a soft iron core is
introduced in the solenoid; the bulb will glow brighter.
Reason: On introducing soft iron in the solenoid, the electrical inertia increases.
(iii) Assertion : A capacitor blocks direct current in the steady state.
Reason: The capacitive reactance of the capacitor is inversely proportional to frequency
of the source of emf.
(Long Answer Questions)
(a) Define the value of the alternating current which is used to be measured using an ac ammeter.
(b) Find the root mean square value of the alternating current having instantaneous value
i = ia cos ωt + ib sin ωt
(c) In the given figure alternating current is given by
i1 = 3 cos ωt and i2 = 4 sin ωt
Find the current i3 .
Question 3. (a) A device ‘X’ is connected to an ac source. The
variation of voltage, current and power in one complete cycle is
shown in the figure.
(i) Which curve shows power consumption over a full cycle?
(ii) What is the average power consumption over a cycle?
(iii) Identify the device ‘X’
(b) A charged 30 μF capacitor having initial charge 6 mC is
connected to a 27 mH inductor. What is the angular
frequency of free oscillations and the total energy stored in the circuit at any time?
Question 4. (a) With the help of a diagram, explain the principle of a device which changes a low voltage into a high
voltage but does not violate the law of conservation of energy. Give any one reason why the device may not be
100% efficient.
(b) A circular coil of cross-sectional area 200 cm2, 20 turns and resistance 6 Ω is rotated
about the vertical diameter with angular speed of 50 rad s–1 in a uniform magnetic field
of magnitude 3.0 × 10–2 T. Calculate the rms value of the current in the coil.
Question 5. Case Study : Series LCR Circuit
In a series LCR circuit resistance R, inductance L and capacitance C are connected in series
and an alternating source of voltage v = v0 sin ωt is applied across it. On account of being in series, the current (i)
flowing through all of them is the same. The voltage VR across resistance and current i are in the same phase,
voltage VL across inductance will lead the current by angle 90° while the voltage VC across capacitance will lag
behind the current by angle 90°.Clearly VR and (VC – VL) are mutually perpendicular as applied voltage across the
circuit is v, the resultant of VR and (VC –VL) will also be v. The impedance of the circuit is given by Z =
v
√R2 + (XC − XL )2 , Current is given by i = Z
and average power consumed in the circuit over one complete
1
cycle is P = v0 i0 cos ϕ At XC = XL the Impedance is minimum and current becomes maximum.
2

(i) In a series LCR circuit with a voltage source of frequency n. The current leads voltage by π/4. Show that
1
C= 2πn (2πn L+R)

(ii) Under which conditions would the rms currents in the two circuits be the same?

(a) (b)

(iii) An LCR circuit with 100 Ω resistance is connected to an ac source of 200 V and angular frequency 300
rad/s. When only the capacitance is removed, the current lags behind the voltage by 60 0. When only the
inductance is removed, the current leads voltage by 600. Calculate the current and the power dissipated in
the LCR circuit.
OR
In a series LCR circuit, when the resultant voltage leads current, the driving frequency is decreased slightly.
Identify the correct matches for column I in the column II.
Column I Column II
a. Current amplitude (p) Increases
b. Phase constant (q) Decreases
c. Power developed in resistor (r) Remains same
d. Impedance (s) May increase or decrease
 (t) Becomes maximum in resonance

Question 5. Case Study: LR Circuit

A circuit contain a resistor of resistance R and an inductor of

inductance L connected in series. The applied voltage is
V =V0 sin ωt.
The voltage across resistor VR and that across inductor is VL. The voltage
π
VR and current I are in the same phase, while the voltage VL leads the current by an angle 2 . Thus, VR and VL are

mutually perpendicular. The resultant of VR and VL is the applied voltage i.e., V = √VR2 + VL2
But VR = R I, VL = XL I =ωL I
∴ where XL = ωL is inductive reactance

Impedance Z = √R2 + XL 2
(i) When an inductor coil is connected to an ideal battery of emf 10 V, a constant current 2.5A flows. When
the same inductor coil is connected to an AC source of 10 V and 50Hz then the current is 2 A. Find out
inductance of the coil.
(ii) An inductor L of reactance XL is connected in series with a bulb B to
an ac source. Explain briefly how does the brightness of the bulb
change when
(a) number of turns of the inductor is reduced
(b) an iron rod is inserted in the inductor and
(c) a capacitor of reactance XC = XL is included in the circuit.
(iii) An ac source of angular frequency is f applied across a resistor R and a capacitor L is series. The current
registered is i. If now the frequency of the source is changed to f/3 (but maintaining the same voltage), the
current in the circuit is found to be halved. Calculate the ratio of reactance to resistance at the original
frequency.
OR
An alternating voltage E = E0 sin ωt is applied to a circuit containing
a resistor R connected in series with a black box. The current in
the circuit is found to be
I = Io sin (ωt + π/4).
a) State whether the element in the black box is a capacitor or inductor.
b) Draw the corresponding phasor diagram and find the impedance in terms of R.
 RAY OPTICS
MCQ

1. 45o

45o

Velocity of red colour in air/vacuum is c and velocities of red, green and violet colours in glass is c/1.5, c/1.6 and
c/1.7 respectively. Which colour will suffer total internal reflection
a. Red
b. Green
c. Violet
d. All of them

2.

O
.

10 cm 10 cm

Focal length of both the mirrors is 10 cm. The distance of final image of point O from the pole of concave mirror after
single reflection from both the mirrors is
a. 30 cm
b. 40 cm
c. 10 cm
d. 20 cm

3. A point object is placed 20 cm before a convex mirror of focal length 20 cm. Final image is formed at
a. Infinity
b. 20 cm in front of mirror
c. 20 cm in behind the mirror
d. 10 cm in behind the mirror

4. A concave lens
a. Always makes virtual image
b. Always make real image of virtual object.
c. Always make virtual image of virtual object.
d. Can make real image of a virtual object.

5. An air bubble is trapped in water. In appearance it looks like a convex lens but when a beam of parallel rays are
focused towards its center, then the rays are
a. Converged
b. Diverged
c. Passes unaffected
d. Reflected

6. The only situation in which a ray of light passes un-deviated through an equilateral prism is
a. Light ray is incident parallel to the base of prism
b. Light ray is incident normal to one face of the prism
c. Prism is immersed in a liquid of refractive index greater than that of prism’s material
d. Prism is immersed in a liquid of refractive index equal to that of prism’s material

7. Choose the correct option

a. Monochromatic light ray which is maximum deviated through the prism travels fastest through the material
of prism.
b. There are two angle of incidences which produce minimum deviation in equilateral glass prism.
c. Convex lens behave as a diverging lens when placed in a medium of refractive index less than that of lens’s
material.
d. To a fish in a pond the trees outside the pond appears taller than their actual height.

8. When a light ray passes from one optical medium to another

a. Wavelength changes
b. Frequency changes
c. Wavelength and frequency both changes
d. Wavelength changes but velocity remains constant

9. Objective of telescope is of large aperture as compared to eyepiece because

a. Rays coming from far objects are diminished
b. Large aperture is free from chromatic aberration
c. Large aperture is free from spherical aberration
d. Large aperture produces more magnified image as compared to small aperture

10. Velocity of red light in vacuum is c. The velocity of blue light in glass of refractive index 1.5 is
a. c
b. c/1.5
c. greater than c/1.5
d. 1.5c

Question 11. Read the two statements carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given
below:
(a) If both the Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both the Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

(i) Assertion : The resolving power of a telescope is more if the diameter of the objective lens is
more.
Reason : Objective lens of large diameter collects more light.

(ii) Assertion : A lens, whose radii of curvature are different, is forming the image of an object
placed on its axis. If the lens is reversed, the position of the image will not
change.
Reason : As per Lens maker’s formula focal length in both the cases is same.

(iii) Assertion : Diamond glitters brilliantly.

Reason : Diamond does not absorb sunlight.

Very Short Answer ( 2 Marks)

1. A small air bubble is trapped in a spherical paper weight of radius 5 cm at 2 cm from the centre of sphere.
If refractive index of glass is 1.5 and bubble is observed from the closest edge locate the position of image
of bubble.
2. A glass slab of thickness 4 cm is placed over a paper having a tiny spot. When observed from the position
just above the spot find the position of the spot. The distance through which its image shifts due to slab. (R.I.
of glass is 1.5)

3. Plane surface of the plano-convex lens of focal length 20 cm is silvered. Find the position of the point on the
principal axis of lens from its optical centre where if the object is placed then image is formed at the object
itself? Given that refractive index of material of lens is 1.5.

4. An equi bi-convex lens of focal length 5 cm is cut into two halves by a plane perpendicular to the principal axis. A
parallel beam of light parallel to principal axis is incident on one of the two halves. Find the distance of the point on
the principal axis from the optical centre of the lens where the rays will converge?

5. A lens is making an image of twice the size of object. This image cannot be obtained on the screen. If object distance
is 10 cm find the focal length of the lens?

Very Short Answer (3 Marks)

1. A curved mirror is producing magnified image of twice the size of object on the screen placed 10 cm away from
its pole. Find the distance of the point on principal axis from the pole where the rays parallel to principal either strikes
or appears to be coming from. Also name this point.

2. A point source of light is illuminated at depth h below the free surface of water. If refractive index of water
is 4/3, find the area on the surface of water from where the light emerges out?

3. A fish in a spherical container of radius 10 cm observes a flower kept 20 cm away from the centre of the container.
If refractive index of water is 4/3 find the position of image of flower observed by the fish.

4. Find the minimum angle of incidence for which monochromatic light gets deviated by an equilateral prism.
Given that critical angle for glass air interface is 42 o . (Sin18 o = 0.3 and Sin27 o = 0.45).

5. Complete the following ray diagrams

(i) (ii)

F F’ F’ F
. . . .

Long Answer Questions

Case study – The Lens maker’s formula

The lens maker’s formula relates the focal length (f) of the lens to the refractive index of its
material (n2), refractive index of the surrounding medium (n1) and the radii of curvature
of its surfaces (R1 & R2) as
1 𝑛2 1 1
= ( −1) ( − )
𝑓 𝑛1 𝑅1 𝑅2
The formula is used to manufacture a lens of a particular focal length from the material of
a given refractive index. For this reason, it is called the lens maker’s formula. The nature of
the lens is said to be converging if its focal length is positive and diverging if negative.

(i) When this lens half is immersed in liquid of refractive index 1.2 , the focal
length of the will be
(a) 80 cm (b) 20 cm (c) - 40 cm (d) 40 cm

(ii) When the whole lens is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.6, the nature of the
lens will be
(a) Converging (b) Diverging (c) Same as glass pate (d) none

(iii) The refractive index of the medium in which the focal length of the lens becomes infinity is
(a) 1.3 (b) 1.2 (c) 1.5 (d) 1.4

(iv) A biconvex lens L made of a material of refractive index 3⁄2 has two surfaces each of
radius of curvature 20 cm and is kept in air. The focal length of the lens is
(a) 10 cm (b) 20 cm (c) - 20 cm (d) 40 cm
OR
If this lens is cut in two lens halves along the dotted line shown in figure,
the focal length of each part is
(a) 10 cm (b) 20 cm (c) - 20 cm (d) 40 cm

Question 3. Case Study: A prism of solid transparent medium bounded by three rectangular faces with a triangular
base and a top. A ray of light incident at angle I on one face of a prism suffers two refractions on passing through a
prism. Hence it deviates through a certain angle 𝛿 from its original path. The angle of deviation becomes minimum
(𝛿 = 𝛿𝑚 ) for a certain value of angle i. In such a condition, the refracted ray inside the prism becomes parallel to its
base. An expression for the refractive index μ of the material of the prism can be obtained in terms of angle A and
angle 𝛿𝑚 .
(a) Show in figure the variation of angle 𝛿 with angle of incidence i.
(b) Show that for a prism of small angle A, the refractive index μ of its material can be written as
𝛿
𝜇 = 1 + 𝐴𝑚
(c) A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that both the angle
of incidence and angle of emergence are equal to the angle of prism A. Find the
refractive index of the material of the prism, in terms of A.
OR
A ray of light passes through a prism of angle 750, as shown in the figure. The
refractive index of the material of the prism, with respect to its surrounding is
√2. Find the angle of incidence i.

(Long Answer Questions)

Question 4. The convex surface of a thin concavo-convex lens of glass of refractive index 1.5 has a radius
 of curvature 20 cm. The concave surface has a radius of curvature 60
cm. The convex side is silvered and placed on a horizontal surface as
shown in the figure.
Where should a pin be placed on the optic axis such that its image
is formed at the same place?
(ii) The concave part is filled with water of refractive index 4/3. Find the distance through
which the pin should be moved, so, that the image of the pin coincides with the pin.
Question 5. (a) A glass prism of refractive index 1.56 is immersed in
water (R.I. = 4/3). The beam of light incident normally on the face AB is totally
reflected to reach the face BC, Show that sin θ = 8/9
(b) On the hypotenuse of a right angled prism of refractive index 1.5, a drop of
liquid is placed as shown. A ray of light falls normally on the AB. What should
be the maximum value of refractive index of liquid, so that it gets totally reflected
at face AC?
Question 6. A light ray travelling in a medium of refractive index μ1 is incident
on a parallel faced glass slab making an angle of θ with the glass surface. The
refractive index of the medium on the other side of the glass slab is μ3 (>
μ1). Find the angular deviation suffered by the light ray.

WAVE OPTICS

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

Q.1 If two light waves represented by Y1= 4sinωt and Y2 =3sin(ωt+π/3) interfere at a point thenthe amplitude of
resulting wave will be about

(a) 7 (b)6 (c)5 (d)3.5

Q.2 If the amplitudes ratio of two light sources producing sustained interference is 3:5 then the ratio of intensities at
maxima and minima is

(a)25:16 (b) 5:3 (c) 16:1 (d) 25:9

Q.3Which two light waves produced sustained interference
(a) Y= asinωt +asin2ωt (b)Y = asin2ωt +b cos2ωt (c)Y= asin(ωt+3πt)+bsinωt (c)Y=acosωt
+acosωt
 Q.4 The Youngs double slit experiment is performed with blue and green light of wavelength 4360A and 5460A
respectively .If X1 and X2 are the distances of 4th maxima from the central onefor blue and green respectively
the
(a) X1= X2 (b) X1>X2 (c) X1<X2 (d) none of these

Q5 In Young’s Double experiment, when two light waves form third minimum intensity, then
(a) Phase difference of 3π (b)phase difference of 5π/2
(b) (c)path difference of 3λ (d)path difference of 5λ/2

Q6 Intensity at center in YDSE is I. If one slit is covered then intensity at center will be

(a) I (b) 2I (c) I/4 (d) I/2

Q7 What happens to the fringe pattern if the path of the slits a glass plate which absorb50% energy interposed

(a) The bright fringes become brighter and dark fringes becomes darker.
(b) No fringes are observed .
(c) The width decreases .
(d) None.
Q8 Diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of red light . What happens if the red light is replaced by blue
light
(a) No change .
(b) Diffraction band become narrower.
(c) Diffraction band become broader.
(d) Bands disappears

Q9 Two coherent sources if intensities I and 4I superpose then the resultant intensities
(a) 5I
(b) 9I
(c) 3I
(d) I

Very Short answer type questions

Q.1 What is effect on the Interference pattern in Young’s Double slit experiments when
(A) The screen is moved closer to the slit
(B) The separation between slit is increased.

Q.2 Find the intensity at the point on screen where the interfering of equal intensity have a path difference
(i) λ/4 and (ii)λ/3
 Q.3 Draw the graph showing the intensity distribution of fringes with phase angle due the diffraction
through single slit.

Q.4 Why is the interference pattern not detected when two coherent sources are whether far apart or
infinitely close to each other.

Short answer type questions

1Two coherent lights waves of intensities 5x10-2 Wm-2 is superimposed and producedThe interference pattern on
screen at appoint where path difference between the waves is λ/6. Find the
(a) phase difference between the waves(b)resultant
intensity at the point

Q.2 Define wave front. Use Huygens principle to show how the plane wavefrontpropogates from
denser to rarer medium . Hence verify the Snell law of reflection

Q.3 Two monochromatic light waves Y1= A cosωt and Y2= Acos(ωt+φ) are superposed.
Show that the maximum intensity in interference pattern is four times of the intensity due to each waves .
write condition for constructive and destructive interference

Q.4 The distance between two slits in YDSE is 0.03cm .The fourth bright fringe is obtained at the distance of
1cmfrom central fringe on the screen placed at the distance of 1.5m from slits . Calculate the wavelength of
light .
ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Select the correct answer to following questions from the codes(a), (b) , (c) and (d) as given below:-

(a) If both Assertions and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanations of the Assertions.
(b) If both Assertions and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanations of the Assertions.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(e) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
(i) Assertion (A): Interference pattern has maxima that are all equally bright and are
large in number in comparison to the diffraction pattern that has
maxima of decreasing intensity and fewer in number.
Reason (R): Interference is the result of the superposition of the waves from
two different wave fronts whereas diffraction is the result of the
wavelets from different points of the same wave front.
(ii) Assertion (A): When monochromatic light passes through a narrow opening a
pattern of alternate dark and bright fringes is produced.
Reason (R): The edges of the opening become sources of secondary waves,
which superpose to produce the pattern.
(iii) Assertion (A): In a diffraction pattern, the intensity of the secondary maxima
 decreases as the order of the maxima increases.
Reason (R): The path difference between the waves from different parts of the
aperture (Wave front) increases with increasing order of maxima.

2. CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION:

Read the following passages and answer the that follow:

(I) Two sources of light with same frequency and stable phase difference are coherent sources. These
sources have same wavelength. But two independent sources cannot be coherent because light is
emitted by individual atoms and not by the bulk of matter. Even the tiniest source consist of
millions of atoms , and emission of light by the takes place independently . An atom emits an
unbroken wave in about 10-8 due to its transition from a higher energy state to a lower energy state
.The light emitted by the commonly used monochromatic source remains coherent for about 10 -8
seconds after which the atoms responsible for emission of light get changed. Two coherent sources
can be obtained from a single source. These methods were used in Young’s double slit experiment
where same source passes the light from two different slits at equal distance .

A) Which of the following is called interference term?

a) I1 + I2
b)2√I1I2 cosФ
c) 2√I1I2
d) I= I1 + I2+2√I1I2 cosФ
B) If cosФ=-1, the intensity is:
(a)(√ I1 + √I2)2 b) (√ I1 - √I2)2
(c)0 d) (√ I1 - √I2)
C) Which of the following is coherent source?
(a) Sunlight b) Night lamp
(c)LED d) Sodium lamp
D) How many times the interference pattern changes in one second?
E) If the average intensity is I= I1 + I2 at every point. What will be the average interference term?

(II) The figure below is photograph of the shadow cast by a coin using a (nearly) point
source of light, a laser in this case. The bright spot is clearly present at the centre.

Notice also the bright and dark fringes beyond the shadow. These resemble the interference fringes of a
double slit. Indeed, they are due to interference of waves diffracted around the disk , and the whole is
referred to as a diffraction pattern. A diffraction pattern exists around any sharp object illuminated by a p
source, as shown in figure. We are not always aware of them because most source of light In everyday l
are not point sources, so light from different parts of the source washes out the pattern.
 i) What is the penetration of light into the region of geometrical shadow called?

ii)what should be the size of an obstacle to observe diffraction?

iii)Both, light and sound wave produce diffraction. Why is it more difficult to observe diffraction with lig
wave?
iv)On what factor does angular width of central maximum depends?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Q1. A) Differentiate between wave front and a ray.
B) State Hyugen’s principle and verify laws of reflection using suitable diagram.
C) In young’s double slit experiment, the slits S1 and S2 are 3mm apart and the screen is placed 1.0m
away from the slits. It is observed that the fourth bright fringe is at a distance of 5mm from the sec
dark fringe. Find the wavelength of light used.

Q2. A) Define a wavefront. How is it different from a ray?

B) Using Hyugen’s construction of secondary wavelets, draw a diagram showing the passage of a plan
wavefront from a denser to a rarer medium. Using it verify Snell’s law.
C) In a double slit experiment using the light of wavelength 600nm and the angular width of the fringe
formed on a distant screen is 0.1∘. Find the spacing between two slits.

Q3. A) Describe any two characteristics features which distinguish between interference and diffraction
phenomena. Derive the expression for the intensity at a point of the interference pattern in Young’s double slit experime

B) In the diffraction due to a single slit experiment, the aperture of the slit is 3mm. If monochromatic
light of wavelength 620nm is incident normally on the slit, calculate the separation between the fir
order minima and the third order maxima on one side of the screen. The distance between the slit
the screen is 1.5m.

DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. A particle is dropped from height H. the de Broglie wave length of the particle as a function
of height is proportional to
(a) H (b) H1/2
(c) H0 (d) H-1/2
2. The wavelength of a photon needed to remove a proton from a nucleus which is bound to
the nucleus with 1 MeV energy is nearly
(a) 1.2 nm (b) 1.2 x 10-3 nm
(c)1.2 x 10-6 nm (d) 1.2 x 101 nm
3. A proton, a neutron, an electron and an α- particle have the same energy. Then their de
Broglie wavelength compare as
(a) λp = λn > λe > λα (b) λα < λp = λn > λe
(c) λe < λp = λn > λα (d) λe = λp = λn = λα
4. A metallic plate exposed to white light emits electrons. For which of the following colours
of light, the stopping potential will be maximum
(a) blue (b) yellow
(c) red (d) violet
5. The work function for a metallic surface is 4.14 eV. The threshold wavelength for this
metal surface is
(a) 4125 A0 (b) 2062.5 A0
(c) 3000 A0 (d) 6000 A0
6. In the graph between the stopping potential ( on y-axis) and the frequency of incident
radiation ( on x- axis) for a metal. The product of the slope of the straight line obtained and
the magnitude of charge on an electron is equal to
(a) h (b) h/e
(c) 2h/e (d) h/2e
7. Light of frequency 6.4 x 1014 Hz is incident on a metal of work function 2.14 eV. The
maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is about
(a) 0.25 ev (b) 0.51 eV
(c) 1.02 eV (d) 0.10 eV
8. Photons of energies 1 eV and 2 eV are successively incident on a metallic surface of work
function 0.5 eV. The ratio of kinetic energy of the most energetic photoelectrons in the two
cases will be
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 4
9. The kinetic energy of a proton and that of an α- particle are 4 eV and 1 eV respectively. The
ratio of the de Broglie wavelength associated with them, will be
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 4 : 1
10. Two particles A1 and A2 of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2 ) have the same de Broglie
wavelength. Then
(a) Their momenta are the same (b) Their energies are the same

(c) Energy af A1 is less equal to the energy (d) Energy of A1 is more than the energy of
of A2 A2
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS ( 2MARKS )
1 Two metals A and B have work functions 4 eV and 10 eV respectively. Which metal has the
highest threshold wavelength?
2 Red light however bright is it, cannot produce the emission of electrons from a clean zinc
surface but even a weak Ultraviolet radiation can do so. Why?
3 If the intensity of the incident radiation on a photosensitive surface is doubled, how does
the kinetic energy of emitted electrons get affected?
4 An α- particle and a proton are accelerated from rest through the same potential difference
V. Find the ratio of their de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them.
5 Work function of sodium is 2.3 eV. Does sodium show photoelectric emission for light of
wavelength 6800 A0 ?
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS )
1. Two metals X and Y, when illuminated with appropriate radiations emit photoelectrons. The
work function of X is higher than that of Y. Which metal will have higher value of cut off
frequency & why?
2. The threshold frequency of a metal is f. When the light of frequency 2f is incident on the
metal plate, the maximum velocity of photo-electrons is v1. When the frequency of the
incident radiation is increased to 5f, the maximum velocity of photo-electrons is v2. Find
the ratio v1:v2 .
3. The given graph shows the variation of photoelectric current (I) with applied voltage (V )
for two different materials and for two different intensities of the incident radiations.
Identify the pair of curves that corresponds to
(i) different materials but same intensity of incident radiation
(ii) different intensities but same material.

4. The graph below shows variation of photocurrent with collector plate potential for different
frequencies of incident radiation.
(i) Which physical parameter is kept constant for the three curves?
(ii) Which frequency (ν1 , ν2 or ν3 ) is the highest ?
5. (i) Show on a graph the variation of the de-Broglie wavelength (λ ) associated with an
electron with the square root of accelerating potential V.
(ii) Show graphically the variation of the de-Broglie wavelength (λ ) with the potential (V)
through which an electron is accelerated from rest.

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering
these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

1) Assertion: The photon behaves like a particle.

Reason: If E and P are the energy and momentum of the photon, then p = E / c .

2) Assertion : In an experiment on photoelectric effect, a photon is incident on an electron from one direction
and the photoelectron is emitted almost in the opposite direction. It violate the principle of conservation of
linear momentum.
Reason : It does not violate the principle of conservation of linear momentum.

3) Assertion : Two sources of equal intensity always emit equal number of photons in any time interval.
Reason : Two sources of equal intensity may emit equal number of photons in any time interval.

Case-Study

According to wave theory of light, the light of any frequency can emit electrons from metallic surface provided the
intensity of light be sufficient to provide necessary energy for emission of electrons, but according to experimental
observations, the light of frequency less than threshold frequency cannot emit electrons; whatever be the intensity of
incident light. Einstein also proposed that electromagnetic radiation is quantized.

If photoelectrons are ejected from a surface when light of wavelength λ1 = 550 nm is incident on it. The stopping
potential for such electrons is VS1 =0.19V . Suppose the radiation of wavelength λ2 = 190 nm is incident on the
surface.
(i) Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because
(A) there is a minimum frequency of light below which no photoelectrons are emitted.
(B) the maximum K.E. of photoelectric depends only on the frequency of light and not on its intensity.
(C) even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated, the photo electrons leave the surface immediately.
(D) electric charge of the photoelectrons is quantized.
(a) A, B, C
(b) B, C
(c) C, D
(d) A, D, C

(ii) In photoelectric effect, electrons are ejected from metals, if the incident light has a certain maximum
(a) wavelength
(b) frequency
(c) amplitude
(d) angle of incidence

(iii) the stopping potential VS2 of surface will be

(a) less than VS1
(b) greater than VS1
(c) equal to VS1
(d) depends on intensity of incident light

(iv) The slope of stopping potential vs frequency graph is

(a) is equal for all matels
(b) is different for different metals
(c) is dependent on frequency of incident light
(d) is dependent on intensity of incident light

2.According to wave picture, light is an EM wave consisting of electric and magnetic fields with
continuous distribution of energy over the region of space of wave. This wave nature didn't
explain the photoelectric effect. The needs to be supplied with more energy than work function
of material. We know photoelectric emission is an instantaneous process. Photon is called quanta
of energy.
1. The kinetic energy of the electron emitted depends on which parameter?
(a) Frequency of incident light.
(b) Intensity of incident light.
(c) Work function of material.
(d) Potential applied.

2. Does the matter wave picture elegantly incorporated the Heisenberg's uncertainty
principle?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) May be
(d) Can't say
3. How does amplitude of electric and magnetic fields vary with intensity of radiation?
(a) If the intensity increases then amplitude also increases.
(b) Intensity increases and amplitude decreases.
(c) Amplitude does not depend on intensity.
(d) None of the above.
 4. Is there any specific region of absorption of electron on wavefront?
(a) Continuously over the right of wavefront.
(b) Continuously over the left of wavefront.
(c) Continuously over the entire wavefront.
(d) None of the above.

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

1.Using a helium-neon laser, monochromatic light with a wavelength of 632.8 nm is made. 9.42 mW is the released
energy.
(a) Determine each photon’s energy and momentum within the light beam.
(b) How many photons arrive at a target exposed to this beam on average each second? (take the assumption that the
beam has a uniform cross-section smaller than the target region), and
(c) How fast must an atom of hydrogen move in order to match the momentum of a photon?

2. An electron and a photon each have a wavelength of 1.50 nm. Find

(i) their momenta,
(ii) the energy of the photon and
(iii) kinetic energy of the electron.

3.Draw a graph showing the variation of stopping potential with frequency of incident radiation for two
photosensitive materials having work functions W1 and W2 (W1 > W2).
Write two important conclusions that can be drawn from the study of these plots

ATOMS
Multiple Choice Questions
1.Rutherfrd’s a -particle experiment showed that the atoms have
(a) proton (b) nucleus (c) neutron (d) electrons
2. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13 6. eV . What is the potential energy of the electron in this state?
(a) 0 eV (b) 1 eV (c) 2 eV (d) -27 2. eV
3. If the energy of hydrogen atom in ground state is -13 6. eV, then its energy in the first excited state will be
(a) -3 4. eV (b) -6 8. eV (c) -27 2. eV (d) -52 4. eV
4. A hydrogen atom makes a transition n = 5 to n = 1 orbit. The wavelength of photon from emitted is λ . The
wavelength of photon emitted when it makes a transition from n = 5 to n = 2 orbit is
(a) (8/7) λ (b) (16/7) λ (c) (24/7 λ (d) (32/7) λ
5. Which series comes in visible region of hydrogen spectrum?
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series (c) Paschen series (d) Bracket series
6.Rutherford model of atom was unstable because
(a) nuclei will break down (b) electron move in circular orbit
(c) orbiting electrons radiate energy (d) electrons are repelled by the nucleus
7. Which of the following spectral series in hydrogen atom gives spectral line of 4860 Å?
(a)Lyman (b) Balmer (c) Paschen (d) Brackett
8. The total energy of an electron in 1st excited state of hydrogen atom is about -3.4eV.
What is the kinetic energy of electron in this state?
(a) -3.4 ev (b) 3.4 eV (c) 0.34 eV (d) -0.34 eV
9. In Bohr’s theory of model of hydrogen atom, name the physical quantity which equals to an
integral multiple of h/2π?
(a) Momentum (b) Angular momentum
(c) Angular frequency (d )Angular velocity
10. In which of the following system will the radius of first orbit be minimum ?
(a) hydrogen atom (b) deuterium atom
(c) singly ionized helium (d) doubly ionized lithium
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS ( 2 MARKS )
1. Write two important limitations of Rutherford nuclear model of the atom.
2. What is the ratio of radii of the orbits corresponding to first excited state and ground state, in a hydrogen atom?
3. State Bohr’s quantisation condition for defining stationary orbits.
4. Derive an expression for the radius of nth Bohr’s orbit in Hydrogen atom.
5. Sate the drawbacks of Bohr’s atomic theory.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS ( 3 MARKS )

1. Given the value of the ground state energy of hydrogen atom as -13 6. eV, find out its kinetic and potential energy
in the ground and second excited states ?
2. What is the ratio of radii of the orbits corresponding to first excited state and ground state, in a hydrogen atom?
3. In a hydrogen atom, when an electron jumps from second orbit to first orbit, What is the wavelength of spectral
line emitted by hydrogen atom?
4. The electron in a given Bohr orbit has a total energy of -1 5eV Calculate its
1. Kinetic energy 2. Potential energy 3. Wavelength of radiation emitted, when this electron makes a transition to the
ground state.
5. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. If an electron makes a transition from an energy level -
0.85 eV to 3 4. eV, Calculate the wavelength of the spectral line emitted. To which series of hydrogen spectrum does
this wavelength belong?
ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
Directions:
In the following questions, two statements are given- one
labeled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct
answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given
below
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true
1.Assertion : Both the Thomson's as well as the Rutherford's models
constitute an unstable system.
Reason : Thomson's model is unstable electrostatically while
Rutherford's model is unstable because of electromagnetic radiation of
orbiting electrons.
2. Assertion: Bohr's orbits are regions where the electron may be
found with large probability
Reason: The orbital picture in Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom
was inconsistent with the uncertainty principle.
3.Assertion: Bohr's model with its planet-like electron is not
applicable to many electron atoms.
Reason: Unlike the situation in the solar system, where planet
planet gravitational forces are very small as compared to the
gravitational force of the sun on each planet, the electron-electron
electric force interaction is comparable in magnitude to the electron
nucleus electric force
CASE STUDY TYPE QUESTION
1] Everything around us which has mass and occupies space is matter.An atom is the basic unit of matter. It cannot
be broken down further using any chemical means because it is the basic building block of an
element. Every state of matter solid, liquid, gas, and plasma is composed of either atom either it is neutral (unionized),
or ionized atoms. An atom is made up of three particles known as protons, neutrons, and electrons. And these particles
are also made up from sub-particles. Among these three particles, protons have a positive charge while electrons carry
a negative charge and the third particle neutrons have no electrical charge. And the charge of atoms depends on the
number of protons and electrons, i.e. an atom is electrically neutral if the number of protons and electrons are equal.
If an atom has more or fewer electrons than protons, then it has an overall negative or positive charge, respectively.
These atoms are extremely small or you can say their typical sizes are around 100 picometers. So, the dense region
consisting of protons and neutrons at the centre of an atom is known as the atomic nucleus of an atom. Every atom is
composed of such nucleus and some elections will be surrounding it. Studying these atoms and Nuclei will help us to
have a thorough understanding of matter. Studying about the nucleus and its reactions will help us to understand more
about nuclear energy, which is a very useful renewable energy. That's why it is very important to study about Atoms
and Nuclei.
(i) What is the basic unit of matter?
(a) Atom (b) Electron (c) Proton (d) Neutron
(ii) Which particle is responsible for the ionization of the atom?
(a) Positron (b) Electron (c) Proton (d) Neutron
(iii) If number of protons in an atom is equal to number of electrons +2.
Then the atom is said to be
(a) Single ionized positive ion (b) Single ionized positive atom
(c) Double ionized positive ion (d) Double ionized positive atom
(iv) Which is the densest part of an atom?
(a) The exact central part of the atom.
(b) The region at the centre of atom containing neutrons and protons.
(c) Outer edge of the atom
(d) None of the above

2.To study about atom various scientists, perform various experiments and suggest various models of an atom with
some explanation. For example, Thomson gives the "plum pudding" model in which he said
that atom consists of a positive material known as "pudding" with some negative materials ("plums") distributed
throughout. Later, famous scientist, Rutherford gives Rutherford's model of the atom after
performing an Alpha Particle scattering experiment. According to this model, an atom consists of a small, positively-
charged nucleus and negativelycharged electrons orbiting around it in an orbital. These orbits can have different sizes,
energy, etc. And the energy of the orbit is also related to its size, i.e. the lowest energy is found in the smallest orbit.
If the electron is orbiting in nth orbit then we will study about its
Velocity in nth orbit, Radius of nth orbital, Energy of electron in nth orbit, etc. Energy is also emitted due to the
transition of electrons from one orbit to another orbit. This energy is emitted in the form of photons
with different wavelengths. This wavelength is given by the Rydberg formula. When electrons make transitions
between two energy levels in an atom various spectral lines are obtained. The emission spectrum of the hydrogen
atom has been divided into various spectral series like Lyman series, Balmer series, Paschen series Etc.
(i) The formula which gives the wavelength of emitted photon when electron jumps from higher energy state to
lower was given by
(a) Balmer (b) Paschen
(c) Lymen (d) Rydberg
(ii) What is true about Bohr’s atomic Model
(a) His model was unique totally different from other
(b) His model is a modification of Rutherford atomic model.
(c) His model is a modification of Thomson atomic model.
(d) None of the above
(iii) Bohr’s atomic model is applicable for
(a) All types of atoms (b) Only for hydrogen atom
(c) For hydrogen like atoms (d) For H2 gas
(iv) The cause of rejection of Rutherford atomic model was
(a) It was totally wrong (b) It could not justify its stability
(c) Rutherford was unable to explain it (d) None of the above

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Q.1 (i) The radius of the innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3×10-11m. Calculate its radius in
n= 2 orbit.
(ii) The total energy of an electron in the second excited state of the
hydrogen atom is -1.57 eV. Find out its
(a) Kinetics energy and
(b) Potential energy in this state.
Q.2 Would the Bohr's formula for the H-atom remains unchanged, if proton had a charge (+4/3) e, and electron had
a charge (-3/4) e. where,e =1.6 x 10 -19C. Give reasons for your answer
.
Q.3 Find the ratio of energies of photons produced due to transition of an
electron of H-atom from its
(i) Second permitted energy level to the first level and
(ii) The highest permitted energy level to the first permitted level

NUCLEI

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS(2 MARKS)

Q 1. Define the term, mass defect. How is it related to stability of the nucleus ?
Q 2. (i) Distinguish between isotopes and isobars.
(ii) Two nuclei have different mass numbers A1 and A2. Are these nuclei necessarily the
isotopes of the same element ? Explain.
Q 3. Four nuclei of an element undergo fusion to form a heavier nucleus, with release of energy. Which of the two -
the parent or the daughter nucleus would have higher binding energy per nucleon ?
Q 4. Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 8 : 125 . What is the ratio of their nuclear radii?
Q 5. Plot a graph showing the variation of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

Q 6. (a) Distinguish between nuclear fission and fusion giving an example of each.
(b) Explain the release of energy in nuclear fission and fusion on the basis of binding
energy per nucleon curve.
Q 7. (a) How is the size of a nucleus found experimentally? Write the relation between
the radius and mass number of a nucleus.
(b) Prove that the density of a nucleus is independent of its mass number.
Q 8. a) State two distinguishing features of nuclear force.
(b) Draw a plot showing the variation of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation.
Mark the regions on the graph where the force is (i) attractive, and (ii) repulsive.
Q 9. Draw a plot of the binding energy per nucleon as a function of mass number for a large number of nuclei, 2 ≤
𝐴 ≤ 240. How do you explain the constancy of binding energy per nucleon in the range 30 ≤ 𝐴 ≤ 170 using the
property that nuclear force is short-ranged?
Q 10. (a) The mass of a nucleus in its ground state is always less than the total mass of its constituents – neutrons
and protons. Explain.
(b) Plot a graph showing the variation of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation.

MULTIPLE – CHOICE QUESTIONS

Q 11. The binding energy per nucleon is almost constant for many nuclei. It shows that
nuclear forces are
(a) Charge independent (b) saturated in nature
(c) strongest force (d) attractive in nature
Q 12. One requires an energy En to remove a nucleon from a nucleus and an energy Ee to
remove an electron from an atom. Then
(a) En = Ee (b) En > Ee (c) En < Ee (d) En > Ee.
12 40
Q 13. The ratio of nuclear densities of 6C and 20Ca
(a) 12:40 (b) 1:1 (c) 6:20 (d) 40:12
Q 14. Which of the following nuclei is most stable
(a) even-even (b) odd-odd (c) odd-even (d) even-odd
Q 15. Nuclear force is:
(a) strong, short range and charge independent force
(b) charge independent, attractive and long range force
(c) strong, charge dependent and short range attractive force
(d) long range, change dependent and attractive force
Q 16. Two spherical nuclei have mass numbers 216 and 64 with their radii R1 and R2 respectively. The ratio R1 and
R2 is
a) 3:2 b) 1:3 c)1:2 d)2:3
Q 17. The mass number of a nucleus is
(A) Always less than its atomic number
(B) Always more than its atomic number
(C) Sometimes equal to its atomic number
(D) Sometimes less than and sometimes more than its atomic number
Q 18. n a fission reaction
236
92U 117X + 117Y + n + n
The binding energy per nucleon of X and Y is 8.5 MeV whereas that of 236U is 7.6 MeV. The total energy liberated
will be about
(A) 200 KeV (B) 2 MeV (C) 200 MeV (D) 2000 MeV
Q 19. The mass of an atomic nucleus is less than the sum of masses of its constituents. This mass defect is converted
into
(A) Heat energy (B) Light energy
(C) Electrical energy (D) Energy which binds nucleons together
Q 20. FPP, Fnn and Fnp are the nuclear forces between proton-proton, neutron-neutron and neutron-proton
respectively. Then relation between them is
a) FPP= Fnn Fnp b) FPP Fnn= Fnp
c) FPP= Fnn= Fnp d) FPP Fnn≠ Fnp

ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Directions: These questions consist of two statements, Assertion and Reason. While
answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four
responses.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(C) Assertion is true, reason is false.
(D) Assertion is false, reason is true.

Q 1. Assertion: Density of all nuclei is same.

Reason: Radius of nucleus is directly proportional to the cube root of mass number.
Q 2. Assertion: It is not possible to use Cl(35) as a fuel for fusion energy.
Reason: The binding energy of Cl(35) is too small.
Q 3. Assertion: Nuclei having mass number about 60 are most stable.
Reason: When two or more nuclei are combined into a heavier nucleus, then binding
energy per nucleon increases.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

Q 4. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
SIZE OF THE NUCLEUS
It has been found that a nucleus of mass number A has a radius R = R0 A1/3 where R0 = 1.2 × 10–15 m (=1.2 fm; 1 fm
= 10–15 m). This means the volume of the nucleus, which is proportional to R3 is proportional to A. Thus, the density
of nucleus is a constant, independent of A, for all nuclei. Different nuclei are like a drop of liquid of constant
density. The density of nuclear matter is approximately 2.3 × 1017 kg m–3. This density is very large compared to
ordinary matter, say water, which is 103 kg m–3. This is understandable, as most of the atom is empty.

i. Ratio of radii of the nuclei with mass numbers 1 and 8 is

(a) 1:8 (b) 8:1 (c) 2:1 (d) 1:2
ii. Two nuclei have mass number in the ratio 1: 8. The ratio of their nuclear densities is
(a) 1:8 (b) 8:1 (c) 1:1 (d) None of the above
iii.If the radius of the (A = 27, Z=13) Al nucleus is taken to be RAl,then the nucleus of (A=125, Z = 53) Te nucleus
is nearly
(a) 3/5 RAl (b) (13/53)1/3 RAl (c) (53/13)1/3 RAl (d) 5/3 RAl
iv. Density of a nucleus is
(a) inversely proportional to mass number A (b) directly proportional to mass number A2
(c) independent of mass number A (d) None of the above

Stability of Nucleus
Neutrons and protons are identical particle in the sense that their
masses are nearly the same and the force, called nuclear force. Nuclear force is the strongest
force. Stability of nucleus is determined by the neutron proton ratio or mass defect or packing
fraction. Volume of nucleus depends on the mass number. Whole mass of the atom (nearly
99%) is present at the nucleus.

Q.5 (i) The correct statements about the nuclear force is/are
(a) charge independent (b) short range force
(c) non-conservative force (d) all of these.
(ii) The range of nuclear force is the order of
(a) 2 x 10-10 m (b) 1.5 x 10-20 m (c) 1.2 x 10-4 m (d) 1.4 x 10-15 m
(iii) A force between two protons is same as the force between proton and neutron. The
nature of the force is
(a) electrical force (b) weak nuclear force
(c) gravitational force (d) strong nuclear force
(iv) two protons are kept at a separation of 40 A0. Fn is the nuclear force and Fe is the
electrostatic force between them. Then
(a) Fn <<Fe (b) Fn= Fe (c) Fn >> Fe (d) Fn ≈ Fe
(v) All the nucleons in an atom are held by
(a) nuclear forces (b) Vander waal’s forces
(c) tensor forces (d) coulomb forces

LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS

Q 6. (a) The figure shows the plot of binding energy (BE) per nucleon as a function of mass number A. The letters
A, B, C, D and E represent the positions of typical nuclei on the curve. Point out,giving reasons, the two processes
(in terms of A, B, C, D and E),one of which can occur due to nuclear fission and the other due to nuclear fusion.
(b) Write any two characteristic properties of nuclear force.

Q 7. (a) The mass of a nucleus in its ground state is always less than the total mass of its constituents – neutrons and
protons. Explain.
(b) Plot a graph showing the variation of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their
separation.

Q 8. (a) James Chadwick, in 1932, studied the emission of neutral radiations when Beryllium.
Nuclei were bombarded with alpha particles. He concluded that emitted radiations were
neutrons and not photons Explain.
(b) Two nuclei may have the same radius, even though they contain different number of protons and neutrons.
Explain.
(c) Distinguish between isotopes and isobars.

SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES

1. A p-type semiconductor is
(A) positively charged
(B) negatively charged
(C) uncharged
(D) uncharged at 0K but charged at higher temperatures

2. Barrier potential of a P-N junction diode does not depend on

(A) doping density
(B) diode design
(C) temperature
(D) forward bias

3. When p-n junction diode is forward biased then

(A) the depletion region is widened and barrier height is reduced
(B) the depletion region is reduced and barrier height is increased
(C) both the depletion region and barrier height are increased
(D) both the depletion region and barrier height are reduced

4. How does the electrical conductivity of a semiconductor vary with temperature?

(A) decreases with the rise in its temperature.
(B) increases with the rise in its temperature.
(C) does not change with the rise in its temperature.
(D) first increases and then decreases with the rise in its temperature

5. An n-type semiconducting Si is obtained by doping intrinsic Si with :

(A) Al (B) B (C) P (D) In

6. When a p-n junction diode is subjected to reverse biasing :

(A) the barrier height decreases and the depletion region widens.
(B) the barrier height increases and the depletion region widens.
(C) the barrier height decreases and the depletion region shrinks.
(D) the barrier height increases and the depletion region shrinks.
7. Which is reverse biased diode?

8. In a germanium semiconductor wafer, X portion is made by doping with arsenic (Z= 33). Y portion is made by
doping indium (Z = 49) and connected to a battery as shown, which of the following statements is correct?

(A) X is P-type, Y is N-type and the junction is forward biased.

(B) X is N-type, Y is P-type and the junction is forward biased.
(C) X is P-type, Y is N-type and the junction is reverse biased.
(D) X is N-type, Y is P-type and the junction is reverse biased

9.In the circuit, if the forward voltage drop for the diode is 0.5 V, the current will be-

(A) 3.4 A (B) 3.6 A (C) 3.9 mA (D) 3.4 mA

10. The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. What is the current flowing in the circuit?

(A) 1.71 A (B) 2 A (C) 2.31 A (D) 1.33 A

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARKS)

1. The ratio of the number of free electrons to holes for materials A and B are 1 and <1 respectively. Name
the type of semiconductor to which A and B belong.

2. Find the equivalent resistance of the network shown in figure between the points A and B when pn
junction diode is ideal and:

(a) A is at higher potential

(b) B is at higher potential

3. Figure shows a piece of semiconductor ( pure one) S in series with a variable resistors R and a source of
constant voltage V. S is heated and the current is kept constant by adjustment of R. Which of the
following factors will decrease during the process? Why?
a. The drift velocity of the conduction e
b. The resistivity of S
c. The number of conduction electrons in S.

4. Find the current I for the network. Barrier voltage of Si diode is 0.7V
 5. Following voltage waveform is fed into a half wave rectifier that uses a silicon
diode with a threshold voltage of 0.7V. Draw the output voltage waveform.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARKS)

1. An AC signal is fed into two circuits X and Y and the corresponding output in the two cases have the
waveforms as shown below-

a) Identify the circuits X and Y.

b) Draw the circuit diagram and briefly explain the working of circuit Y.
c) How does the output waveform from circuit Y get modified when a capacitor is connected across the
output terminals parallel to the load resistor.

2. A pure Si crystal has 5X1028 atoms m-3. It is doped by 1ppm concentration of

pentavalent As. Calculate the number of electrons and holes. Given that ni = 1.5X1016 m-3.

3. The ratio of number density of free electrons to holes, ne/nh, for three different materials, A, B and C are
(i) equal to one, (ii) more than one and (iii) less than one respectively. Name the type of semiconductor
to which A, B and C belong. Draw labelled energy band diagrams for the materials.

4. Calculate the value of output voltage V0 and Current I if Silicon diode and germanium diode conduct at
0.7 V and 0.3 V respectively (refer figure), If now Germanium diode is connected 12 V in reverse
polarity, find new value of output voltage V0 and Current I.
 5. If each diode in Figure has a forward bias resistance of 25 ohm and infinite resistance in reverse bias,
what will be the values of current I1, I2, I3 and I4

ASSERTION-REASON QUSETIONS

A. If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

B. If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

C. If assertion is true but reason is false.

D. If assertion and reason are false.

1.Assertion : The energy gap between the valence band and conduction band is greater in silicon than a germanium.
Reason : Thermal energy produces fewer minority carriers in silicon than in germanium.

2. Assertion : C, Si and Ge have same lattice structure but C is not a semiconductor.

Reason : The ionization energy is highest for C.

3. Assertion : Silicon is preferred over germanium for making semiconductor devices.

Reason : The energy gap for germanium is more than the energy gap of silicon.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

SEMICONDUCTOR:

A pure semiconductor germanium or silicon, free of every impurity is called intrinsic semiconductor. At
room temperature, a pure semiconductor has very small number of current carriers (electrons and holes).
Hence its conductivity is low. When the impurity atoms of valency 5 or 3 are doped in a pure
semiconductor we get respectively n- type or p- type extrinsic semiconductor. The conductivity of extrinsic
conductor is much higher than that of intrinsic semiconductor.

(i) How can we increase the conductivity of a pure semiconductor ?

(ii) The impurity atoms added in intrinsic semiconductor to make it an extrinsic semiconductor are called.
(iii) C, Si and Ge have same lattice structure. Why is C insulator while Si and Ge intrinsic semiconductors ?

pn- JUNCTION DIODE:

 p-n junction is a semiconductor diode. It is obtained by bringing p- type semiconductor in close contact with n-
type semiconductor. A thin layer is developed at the p-n junction which is devoid of any charge carrier but has
immobile ions. It is called depletion layer. At the junction a potential barrier appears, which does not allow the
movement of majority charge carriers across the junction in the absence of any biasing of the junction. p-n
junction offers low resistance when forward biased and high resistance when reverse biased.

(i) What changes occur in barrier height and depletion region for forward biased p-n junction diode ?

(ii) What changes occur in barrier height and depletion region for reverse biased p-n junction diode ?

(iii)What is threshold voltage? Write its value for germanium diode and silicon diode.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. a) Draw the energy band diagrams for metals, insulators and semiconductors.
b) Give two points of difference between intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors.

2. a) Explain the terms ‘depletion layer’ and ‘potential barrier’ in a p-n junction diode. How are the width of
depletion layer and value of potential barrier affected when the p-n junction is (i) forward biased and (ii) reverse
biased ?

b) Draw the circuit diagrams used to study forward characteristics and reverse characteristics of a p-n junction
diode.

3. a) What is the basic component used in design of a rectifier ?

b) Which characteristic property of the component helps it to change AC to DC ?

c) Draw the circuit diagrams for half wave rectifier and a full wave rectifier ? Also draw the input and output
waveforms.
THANK YOU