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34 views7 pages

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© © All Rights Reserved
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 AON Aviation Knowledge Test 1 

1 Which of the following are all aerodynamic balances?

A. Inset hinge, mass balance and spring tab.

B.  Horn balance, balance tab and internal balance.

C. Horn balance, inset hinge and mass balance.

D. Internal balance, anti-balance tab and servo tab.

 Flag this question

2 What can be said about the height of the Tropopause in the Northern
Hemisphere?

A. It increases from south to north

B.  It decreases from south to north

C. It remains constant throughout the year

D. It remains constant from north to south

 Flag this question

3 The minimum separation between VHF frequencies in Europe is:

A. 25kHZ

B. 25MHZ

C. 8.33MHZ

D.  8.33kHZ

 Flag this question

4 Propeller blade angle is:

A. the angle between the relative airflow and the chord line

B. dependent upon RPM and TAS

C.  the angle between the blade chord and the plane of rotation

D. the difference between effective pitch and geometric pitch

 Flag this question

5 Flutter may be caused by a:

A. low airspeed aerodynamic stall.

B. 
distortion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration in
the resonance frequency.

C. high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.

D. roll control reversal.

 Flag this question

6 What is the effect on Mach No and TAS when climbing at a constant


CAS?

A. Mach No increases, TAS is constant

B.  Both increase

C. Mach No is constant, TAS increases

D. Both decrease

 Flag this question

7 Leaving ground effect at a given angle of attack the:

A. Induced drag decreases.

B.  effective angle of attack decreases.

C. lift will remain constant

D. nose tends to pitch down.

 Flag this question

8 The ILS Localiser operates in the following frequency band:

A. 108.0 - 112.0 kHz

B. 328.6 - 335.4 M HZ

C.  108.0 - 112.0 MHZ

D. 328.6 - 335.4 kHz

 Flag this question

9 During a climb a blocked static pressure supply line causes the ASI to:

A. over-indicate then under-indicate

B. over-indicate

C.  under-indicate

D. be unaffected

 Flag this question

10 What is the correct phrase for a pilot to use to advise ATC of being ready
to take-off?

A. Request takeoff.

B. Request departure.

C.  Ready for departure.

D. Ready for take-off.

 Flag this question

11 A turbo-supercharger impeller is driven by:

A. excess torque from the reduction gearbox

B. 
diversion of exhaust gases by the waste gate using energy that would otherwise
be wasted

C. a ram air turbine

D.  a connection through a gearbox connected to the crankshaft

 Flag this question

12 The purpose of an ignition switch is to:

A. connect the battery to the magneto

B.  control the primary circuit of the magneto

C. connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil

D. connect the secondary coil to the distributor

 Flag this question

13 What is the shortest distance between two points on the Earth's globe
called:

A. Lambodrome

B.  Great circle

C. Airway

D. Rhumb Line

 Flag this question

14 The skin of a modern pressurised aircraft:

A. is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle

B. houses the crew and the payload

C.  is a primary load bearing structure carrying much of the loads

D.
provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse weather

 Flag this question

15 When an aircraft fitted with a classic air-driven artificial horizon


decelerates after landing, a wrong indication will be displayed showing a:

A. climbing turn to left

B.  descending turn to left

C.  descending turn to right.

D. climbing turn to right.

 Flag this question

16 What is the purpose of trim tabs?

A. to reduce control effectiveness

B. to reduce stick forces during manoeuvres

C. to increase control effectiveness

D.  to reduce stick forces to zero

 Flag this question

17 What does TEM stand for in the context of Human Performance?

A.  Threat and Error Management

B. Trusted Equipment Mechanic

C. Time Limited Evacuation Medical

D. Tango, Echo, Mike

 Flag this question

18 Which of the following statements regarding an electric circuit is correct?

A. an electric current is only able to flow in an open circuit

B. the magnitude of the current is proportional to the resistance

C. lower diameter wires are able to carry a higher current

D.  too high a current may lead to the circuit overheating

 Flag this question

19 The weight of an aeroplane, which is in level non accelerated flight, is


said to act:

A. vertically through the datum point

B. vertically through the centre of pressure

C.  vertically through the centre of gravity

D. always along the vertical axis of the aeroplane

 Flag this question

20 With regards to the Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW):

A. It is lower than the Maximum Take-Off Weight by the weight of a payload.

B. 
It is the maximum weight that an aircraft can be loaded to without useable fuel.

C.
It is important as exceeding the MZFW may mean that there is insufficient lift to get
the aircraft airborne.

D. ls more relevant to aircraft with fuselage fuel tanks.

 Flag this question

Finish Review
 AON Aviation Knowledge Test 2 

1 A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor during a
right turn, experiences:

A.  Coriolis illusion/effect

B. Pressure vertigo

C. Autokinetic illusion

D. Barotrauma

 Flag this question

2 The balance arm is:

A.  The distance from the CG to the CP

B.  The distance from the datum to the CG

C. The distance from the CG to the static margin

D. The distance from the datum to the CP

 Flag this question

3 An aircraft is approaching a DME Beacon at 40000 ft, and slang range is


15 NM. What is the ground distance to the nearest NM?

A. 12 NM

B.  13 NM

C. 16 NM

D. 15 NM

 Flag this question

4 Which of the following statements is true?

A. Super-alloys are used because of their excellent corrosion resistance

B.
Titanium alloy is used in aircraft construction because of its good wear and high
temperature tolerance

C.
Steel is used in aircraft because it is strong and heavy but has poor corrosion
resistance

D. 
Aluminium alloys are used in aircraft construction because they are light, easily
machined and have good wear resistance

 Flag this question

5 If an extra load is loaded into an aircraft the stall speed is likely to:

A. Change depending on whether the load was placed FWD or AFT of the C of G

B. Stay the same

C. Decrease

D.  Increase

 Flag this question

6 When selecting a fuse for an aircraft electrical circuit, the governing


factor is:

A. the energy of the circuit

B.  the power requirement of the circuit

C.  the resistance of the circuit

D. the voltage of the circuit

 Flag this question

7 The result of empty field myopia is:

A.  Focusing is limited to between 1 and 2 meters

B. A tendency to suffer from cataracts in the long term

C. Astigmatism

D. A build-up of pressure with the eye

 Flag this question

8 Which of the following statements regarding an electric circuit is correct?

A. Lower diameter wires are able to carry a higher current

B. An electric current is only able to flow in an open circuit

C.  Too high a current may lead to the circuit overheating

D. The magnitude of the current is proportional to the resistance

 Flag this question

9 Following an indication of unserviceability of an air conditioning pack


whilst on stand, what do you consult first?

A. The Configuration Deviation List.

B. The Quick Reference Handbook (QRH).

C.  The Minimum Equipment List (MEL).

D. Ops Manual Part A

 Flag this question

10 The result of Empty Field Myopia is:

A. astigmatism

B. a build-up of pressure within the eye

C.  focusing is limited to between 1 and 2 meters

D. a tendency to suffer from cataracts in the long term

 Flag this question

11 The oil in an oleo-pneumatic strut:

A. Support the weight of the aircraft

B.  Limits the speed of extension and compression of the strut

C.  Limits the speed of compression of the strut

D. Lubricates the piston within the cylinder

 Flag this question

12 In relation to Persons with Reduced Mobility (PRM's):

A. PRM's must be seated adjacent to emergency exits.

B.  The commander must be notified when PRM's are carried.

C. There is no requirement to notify the commander when PRM's are carried.

D. The commander may be notified when PRM's are carried.

 Flag this question

13 Following an indication of unserviceability of an air conditioning pack


whilst on stand, what do you consult?

A. The configuration deviation list

B. OPS Manual Part A

C.  The Minimum Equipment List (MEL)

D. The Quick Reference Handbook (QRH)

 Flag this question

14 Which of the following statements is true?

A.
By increasing the flap setting in severe turbulence at constant speed the stall
speed will be reduced and the risk for exceeding the structural limits will be
decreased.

B.
Flap extension in severe turbulence at constant airspeed moves the centre of
pressure aft, which increases the structural limitation margins.

C. 
Flight in severe turbulence may lead to a stall and/or structural limitations being
exceeded.

D.
Flap extension in severe turbulence at constant speed increases both the stall
speed and the structural limitation margins.

 Flag this question

15 Which of the following statements is correct?

A.
modern batteries are more stable and have virtually eliminated the risk of a thermal
runaway occurring

B.
batteries are not sensitive to damage because of their solid construction and sealed
casing

C.
the risk of a battery fire is reduced during charging as the charging current will be
cut off if a fire is detected

D. 
batteries are considered dangerous goods if transported due to the risk of thermal
runaway and the substances inside

 Flag this question

16 In relation to persons with Reduced Mobility (PRM's):

A. The commander may be notified when PRM's are carried

B.  The commander must be notified when PRM's are carried

C. There is no requirement to notify the commander when PRM's are carried

D. PRM's must be seated adjacent to emergency exits

 Flag this question

17 A hot busbar is one that:

A.  is permanently connected to the battery

B. supplies galley power

C. carries all me non-essential loads

D. is connected to the battery in an emergency

 Flag this question

18 The inbound track to the navigation aid serving a hold is 250°, your
aircraft heading is 002°. What is the correct sector to join the hold?

A.  Sector 2 (offset)

B. Sector 1 (parallel) or sector 3 (direct)

C. Sector 2 (offset) or sector 3 (direct)

D.  Sector 1 (parallel)

 Flag this question

19 A logarithmic scale is fitted to the vertical speed indicator in order to:

A. make the instrument more sensitive.

B.  make lower values of vertical speed easier to read

C.  Reduce pressure error.

D. Reduce manoeuvre error.

 Flag this question

20 To achieve the maximum range over the ground with a headwind, a


turbojet should fly:

A.  At a speed faster than 1,32 VMD

B. At a speed where the GS to drag ratio is greatest

C.  At a speed where the GS to PREQ ratio is greatest

D. At a speed slower than 1,32 VMD

 Flag this question

Finish Review

Copyright © Pilot Assessments 2024 


 AON Aviation Knowledge Test 3 

1 What does TEM stand for in the context of Human Performance?

A.  Threat and Error Management

B. Trusted Equipment Mechanic

C. Tango, Echo, Mike

D. Time Limited Evacuation Medical

 Flag this question

2 A DME & VOR are co-located and a morse ident is detected 4 times in 30
secs. Which of the following statements is true?

A. VOR callsign once every 30 secs and lower in pitch than the DME ident

B. DME callsign 3 times every 30 secs and higher in pitch than the VOR ident

C.  DME callsign once every 30 secs and higher in pitch than the VOR ident

D. VOR callsign once every 30 secs and higher in pitch than the DME ident

 Flag this question

3 ELR is 1°C/100m:

A. Absolute instability

B. Conditional stability

C.  Neutral when dry

D. Absolute stability

 Flag this question

4 Power is:

A. The rate at which charge is transferred

B. Expressed in Joules

C.  The rate at which a component uses energy

D. A measure of the energy being used by a component

 Flag this question

5 You are flying IFR in VMC and experience a complete radio failure. What
action should you take?

A. 
Continue VMC and land at the nearest aerodrome squawking 7600. Report arrival
to ATC after landing

B.
Continue as per last ATC clearance for 20 minutes after which revert to your filed
flight plan. Squawk 7500 and land as close as possible to your EAT/ETA. Report
arrival to ATC after landing

C. 
Continue as per last ATC clearance for 30 minutes after which revert to your filed
flight plan. Squawk 7600 and land as close as possible to your EAT/ETA. Report
arrival to ATC after landing

D.
Continue as per last ATC clearance for 20 minutes after which revert to your filed
flight plan. Squawk 0000 and land as close as possible to your EAT/ETA. Report
arrival to ATC after landing

 Flag this question

6 A turbo-supercharger impeller is driven by:

A. 
Diversion of exhaust gases by the waste gate using energy that would otherwise
be wasted

B. Excess torque from the reduction gearbox

C. A ram air turbine

D. A connection through a gearbox connected to the crankshaft

 Flag this question

7 When selecting a fuse for an aircraft electrical circuit, the governing


factor is:

A. The voltage of the circuit

B. The resistance of the circuit

C. The energy of the circuit

D.  The power requirement of the circuit

 Flag this question

8 What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, for


thunderstorms formed by lifting processes, over land?

A. Low temperatures, low humidity

B.  High temperature, high humidity

C. High air pressure (>1013 hPa), high temperatures

D.  Subsidence, inversion

 Flag this question

9 An under-inflated tyre on a dry runway:

A. Will cause the tyre temperature to decrease

B. Increases viscous aquaplaning speed

C.  Increases wear on the shoulder

D. Increases wear on the crown

 Flag this question

10 An increase in wing loading will:

A. Decrease the take-off speeds

B. Increase CL Max

C. Decrease the minimum gliding angle

D.  Increase the stall speed

 Flag this question

11 If you are flying IFR to a destination with no alternate, when must the
weather forecast be good for you to continue?

A.  1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA

B. 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA

C. 3 hours before to 1 hour after ETA

D. 3 hours before to 3 hours after ETA

 Flag this question

12 What distance does the DME display:

A. Line of sight distance in feet

B. Line of slight distance in NM

C.  Slant range in NM

D. Slant range in SM

 Flag this question

13 Which of the following statements is true?

A.
Steel is used in aircraft because it is strong and heavy but has poor corrosion
resistance

B. Super-alloys are used because of their excellent corrosion resistance

C.
Titanium alloy is used in aircraft construction because of its good wear and high
temperature tolerance

D. 
Aluminium alloys are used in aircraft construction because they are light, easily
machined and have good wear resistance

 Flag this question

14 What is the speed limitation in the hold for class A & B aircraft below
14000 ft?

A.  170 kt

B. 240 kt

C. 230 kt

D. 280 kt

 Flag this question

15 At high altitude, the stall speed (IAS):

A. Decreases

B.  Increases

C. Decreases until the tropopause

D.  Remains the same

 Flag this question

16 A logarithmic scale is fitted to the vertical speed indicator in order to:

A.  Make lower values of vertical speed easier to read

B. Make the instrument more sensitive

C. Reduce pressure error

D. Reduce manoeuvre error

 Flag this question

17 When are lifejackets required?

A. 100 NM from land

B. 400 NM from land

C. 300 NM from land

D.  50 NM from land

 Flag this question

18 The phrase "all stations" is used to transmit to:

A. All stations named in the following message

B. All stations except those named in the following message

C.  A broadcast to all stations on frequency

D. Aircraft requesting a radio check

 Flag this question

19 The ILS Outer Marker is identified by:

A. A white cockpit light and a modulating frequency of 400 Hz

B.  A blue cockpit light and a modulating frequency of 400 Hz

C. An amber cockpit light and a modulating frequency of 1300 Hz

D. A blue cockpit light and a modulating frequency of 3000 Hz

 Flag this question

20 With regards to the Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW):

A. 
It is the maximum weight that an aircraft can be loaded to without useable fuel

B. It is lower than the Maximum Take-Off Weight by the weight of a payload

C. Is more relevant to aircraft with fuselage fuel tanks

D.
It is important as exceeding the MZFW may mean that there is insufficient lift to get
the aircraft airborne

 Flag this question


 AON Aviation Knowledge Test 4 

1 An aeroplane is head-on with a glider. Who has right of way?

A. The aeroplane

B.  The glider

C. Both

D.  Neither

 Flag this question

2 If an aircraft climbs in the Standard Atmosphere below the Tropopause,


at a Constant TAS the Mach Number will?

A. Depend on the rate of change of density with altitude

B. Decrease because the local speed of sound is decreasing

C. Increase because the local speed of sound is increasing

D.  Increase because the local speed of sound is decreasing

 Flag this question

3 The skin of a modern pressurized aircraft:

A.
Provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse weather

B.  Is a primary load bearing structure carrying much of the loads

C. Is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle

D. Houses the crew and the payload

 Flag this question

4 Compared with stalling airspeed (Vs) in a given configuration, the


airspeed at which the stick shaker will be triggered is?

A.  1.30Vs

B. 1.12Vs

C. 1.20Vs

D.  Greater than Vs

 Flag this question

5 When selecting a fuse for an aircraft electrical circuit, what is the


governing factor?

A. the voltage of the circuit

B.  the power requirement of the circuit

C. the resistance of the circuit

D. the energy of the circuit

 Flag this question

6 Readability 1 means that the transmission is?

A. Loud and clear

B.  Barely readable

C.  Unreadable

D. Perfectly readable

 Flag this question

7 Which of the following are all aerodynamic balances?

A. Inset hinge, mass balance and spring tab.

B.  Horn balance, balance tab and internal balance.

C. Horn balance, inset hinge and mass balance.

D. Internal balance, anti-balance tab and servo tab.

 Flag this question

8 Which VDF bearing is accurate within 5 degrees?

A. Class D

B. Class C

C.  Class B

D.  Class A

 Flag this question

9 Two 12v40 Ah batteries connected in parallel will produce?

A.  12v80Ah

B. 24v80Ah

C. 12v160Ah

D. 12v40Ah

 Flag this question

10 The ILS Localizer operates in which frequency band?

A. 328.6 - 335.4 MHz

B.  108.0 - 112.0 MHz

C. 108.0 - 112.0 kHz

D. 328.6 - 335.4 kHz

 Flag this question

11 An aircraft lands at an aerodrome of another Contracting State for


technical reasons. What freedom of the air is applicable in this case?

A.  2nd freedom of the air

B.  3rd freedom of the air

C. 4th freedom of the air

D. 5th freedom of the air

 Flag this question

12 The rigidity of a gyro is improved by?

A. increasing the rpm and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor

B. decreasing the rpm and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor

C.  increasing the rpm and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor

D. decreasing the rpm and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor

 Flag this question

13 You are flying IFR in VMC and experience a complete radio failure. What
action should you take?

A.
Continue as per last ATC clearance for 20 minutes after which revert to your filed
flight plan. Squawk 7500 and land as close as possible to your EAT/ETA. Report
arrival to ATC after landing

B.
Continue as per last ATC clearance for 30 minutes after which revert to your filed
flight plan. Squawk 7600 and land as close as possible to your EAT/ETA. Report
arrival to ATC after landing

C.
Continue as per last ATC clearance for 20 minutes after which revert to your filed
flight plan. Squawk 0000 and land as close as possible to your EAT/ETA. Report
arrival to ATC after landing

D. 
Continue VMC and land at the nearest aerodrome squawking 7600. Report arrival
to ATC after landing

 Flag this question

14 What distance does the DME display?

A. Slant range in SM

B.  Slant range in NM

C. Line of sight distance in feet

D. Line of slight distance in NM

 Flag this question

15 To achieve the maximum range over the ground with a headwind, a


turbojet should fly?

A. at a speed slower than 1.32VMD

B.  at a speed faster than 1.32VMD

C. at a speed where the GS to PREQ ratio is greatest

D. at a speed where the GS to drag ratio is greatest

 Flag this question

16 What is the frequency range of the airband?

A.  118.0 - 137.0 MHz

B. 1080 - 717.975 MHz

C. 30 - 300 MHz

D.  108.0 - 137.0 MHz

 Flag this question

17 Loads must be adequately secured in order to?

A. Avoid any C of G movement during flight

B. Prevent excessive "G" loading during the landing flare

C.  Avoid unplanned C of G movement and aeroplane damage

D. allow steep turns

 Flag this question

18 If you are flying at FL300 in an air mass that is 15°C warmer than a
standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?

A. -60°C

B. -45°C

C.  -30°C

D. -15°C

 Flag this question

19 During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds


characterized by roll clouds most likely to occur?

A.  Mature stage

B. Cumulus stage

C. Cumulus stage and mature stage

D. Dissipating stage

 Flag this question

20 The purpose of an ignition switch is to:

A. connect the battery to the magneto

B.  control the primary circuit of the magneto

C. connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil

D. connect the secondary coil to the distributor

 Flag this question


 AON Aviation Knowledge Test 5 

1 The phrase "take-off" is used by a pilot:

A. Never. It is used only by a ground station

B.  Only to acknowledge take-off clearance

C. Only to request immediate clearance

D. After the aircraft is airborne

 Flag this question

2 How do you know you are in an over taking position with regards to another aircraft at night?

A.  You will see a white and a red light

B. You will see a white and a green light

C.  You will see a white light

D. You will not see the anti-collision light

 Flag this question

3 The rate of climb is approximately equal to?

A.  The still air gradient multiplied by the TAS

B.  The angle of climb multiplied by the TAS

C. The still air gradient divided by the TAS

D. The angle of climb divided by the TAS

 Flag this question

4 The phrase "say again" means?

A. Say the word "again"

B. Repeat the last section of the message

C.  Repeat the entire message

D. Send all your messages twice

 Flag this question

5 A pilot approaching an upslope runway

A.  may feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may cause him to land short

B. is performing a steeper than normal approach, landing long

C. establishes a higher than normal approach speed

D. establishes a slower than normal approach speed with the risk of stalling out

 Flag this question

6 Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems.

A.  Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end.

B. Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to the end of the runway

C. Amber lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end

 Flag this question

7 One advantage of using VHF for voice communications over HF is?

A. VHF has longer range than HF at night time

B. VHF has longer range than HF

C. VHF range is only restricted by the curvature of the earth

D.  VHF is less affected by atmospheric noise and electrical equipment

 Flag this question

8 The purpose of the primary stops in a control system is?

A.  To set the range of movement of the control surface

B. To limit control movement to one direction only

C. To adjust the neutral position of the control column

D. To set the control surface neutral position

 Flag this question

9 When are lifejackets required?

A. 300nm from land

B. 400nm from land

C. 100nm from land

D.  50nm from land

 Flag this question

10 The best L/D ratio of an aircraft in a given configuration is a value that:

A. Varies with Indicated Air Speed

B. Varies depending upon the weight being carried

C. Varies with air density

D.  Remains constant regardless of Indicated Air Speed changes

 Flag this question

11 What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with an
aeronautical station?

A. Squawk mode A code 7500

B. Divert to the alternate airport

C.  Try to establish communication with other aircraft or aeronautical stations

D. Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight

 Flag this question

12 To roll the aircraft to the right:

A. The rudder control is moved to the right, the right aileron moves up and the left down

B. The aileron control is moved to the left and the right aileron moves up and the left down

C. The aileron control is moved to the right and the right elevator goes up and the left one down

D.  The aileron control is moved to the right, the right aileron goes up and the left one down

 Flag this question

13 What is the purpose of the wing main spar?

A.  To withstand bending and torsional loads

B. To withstand compressive and torsional loads

C. To withstand compressive and shear loads

D. To withstand bending and shear loads

 Flag this question

14 Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines?

A. For severe squall lines a TAF is issued

B.  For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued

C. Severe squall lines always move from northwest to southeast

D. Severe squall lines only occur in the tropics

 Flag this question

15 If an extra load is loaded into an aircraft the stall speed is likely to?

A. Decrease

B. Stay the same

C. Change depending on whether the load was placed FWD or AFT of the C of G

D.  Increase

 Flag this question

16 If an aeroplane lands below its Max Structural Landing Mass, but above its Performance Limited Landing Mass for the
arrival airfield:
1) It might not have sufficient runway length to stop safely
2) Tire temperature limits could be exceeded
3) It will increase structural fatigue
4) Physical damage might be suffered as a result of the extra mass
5) A go-around might not be achievable
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A.  1, 2, 4

B. 1, 2, 3

C.  1, 2, 3, 5

D. 1, 2, 4, 5

 Flag this question

17 Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he/she receives an instruction from ATC which he/she cannot carry out?

A.  UNABLE

B. NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION

C. UNABLE TO FOLLOW

D. DISREGARD

 Flag this question

18 Main and nose wheel bays are:

A. Pressurised

B.  Unpressurised

C. Conditioned

D. Different, with the mains being unpressurised and the nose pressurised

 Flag this question

19 An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 ft above the station. At that time the DME reading will be?

A. FLAG/OFF, the aircraft is within the cone of silence.

B.  Approximately 2 nm.

C. Fluctuating and not significant.

D. 0 nm.

 Flag this question

20 If temperature remains constant with an increase in altitude there is:

A. An inversion

B. An inversion aloft

C. Uniform lapse rate

D.  An isothermal layer

 Flag this question

Finish Review

Copyright © Pilot Assessments 2024


 AON Aviation Knowledge Test 6 

1 When the met observer reports the amount of cloud present at a station, it will be given as:

A. Clear, scattered, broken or overcast

B. The amount of cloud, in tenths of the sky covered, using the term oktas

C. The amount of cloud, in quarters of the sky covered, using the term oktas

D.  The amount of cloud, in eighths of the sky covered, using the term oktas

 Flag this question

2 After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the
instrument approach?

A. 
Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC

B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3 minutes

C.
At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time,
whichever is later

 Flag this question

3 What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that has just taken
off:

A. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.

B. A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.

C. A crosswind will move both vortices clear of the runway.

D.  The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.

 Flag this question

4 Using the 1 on 60 rule calculate the height on a 3 degree glide path of an aircraft 4.5 NM from touchdown

A. 1480 ft

B. 1420 ft

C.  1370 ft

D. 1230 ft

 Flag this question

5 Select the correct statement for the Datum:

A. Is a point from which all the arm distances are measured

B.  Is a fixed vertical plane from which all the arm distances are measured

C. Is the point through which all the forces of gravity are said to act

D. Is a vertical plane through which all the forces of gravity are said to act

 Flag this question

6 On a summer day, the following observations are made in Zurich:


0450Z 24009 KT 7000 SCT040 SCT120 15/12 Q1014 NOSIG =
0650Z 24010KT 6000 SCT040 SCT120 17/13 Q1012 NOSIG =
0850Z 23014KT 8000 BKN100 19/13 Q1009 BECMG 26020G35KT TS =
1050Z 28022G33KT 4000 TSRA SCT015 SCT050CB OVC080 16/14 Q1006 BECMG NSW = 1250Z 31016KT 9999
SCT025TCU BKN030 13/09 Q1009 NOSIG =
1450Z 30012KT 9999 SHRA BKN020TCU 14/10 Q1011 NOSIG =
1650Z 30009KT SCT025 BKN035 13/10 Q1013 RESHRA NOSIG =
1850Z 28006KT 9999 SCT040 11/09 Q1014 NOSIG =
2050Z 26004KT CAVOK 10/08 Q1015 NOSIG =
You conclude, that...

A.  a cold front has passed the station in the morning, and rear side weather prevailed in the afternoon

B.  a cold front in the morning, and a warm front in the afternoon have passed the station

C. a warm front in the morning, and a cold front in the afternoon have passed the station

D. a warm front has passed the station in the morning, and warm sector weather prevailed in the afternoon

 Flag this question

7 See the figure below.


You receive this ATC clearance ".....CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO
RADIAL..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

A. Teardrop only

B.  Direct only

C. Parallel only

 Flag this question

8 In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a:

A. 3 phase current transformer unit

B. Static inverter

C. Rotary converter

D.  Transformer Rectifier Unit

 Flag this question

9 An accumulator in a hydraulic system will:

A.  Store fluid under pressure

B. Increase pressure surges within the system

C. Reduce fluid temperature and pressure

D. Reduce fluid temperature only

 Flag this question

10 The Transition Level:

A.  Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude

B. Is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command

C.  Is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP

D. Shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established

 Flag this question

11 The fuel index:

A.  Is used to calculate the correct position of the CG due to different locations of the fuel tanks

B. Is a standard value given by EASA and can be used for different types of aircraft

C. Is only used for aeroplanes with wing tip tanks

D.  Is the difference between the zero fuel mass index and the DOI

 Flag this question

12 The signal from pilot to the signalman (marshaller) which means "brakes applied" is:

A. Fist clenched in front of the face then fingers extended

B. Arms extended, palms outwards, then move hands inwards to cross in front of the face

C.  Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of face, then clench fist

D. Hands crossed in front of the face, palms outwards, then move arms outwards

 Flag this question

13 Which of the following sequences might be encountered when flying into a microburst?

A.  Increased headwind, followed by down-draught, followed by increased tailwind on the approach, or following take-off.

B.
Increased headwind, followed by down-draught, followed by increased tailwind on the approach. Increased tailwind, followed by
down-draught, followed by increased headwind following take-off.

C.
Increased headwind, followed by down-draught, followed by increased tailwind on take off. Increased tailwind, followed by down-
draught, followed by increased headwind on the approach.

D.
Increased tailwind, followed by down-draught, followed by increased headwind on the take-off. Increased headwind, followed by
down-draught, followed by increased tailwind on the approach.

 Flag this question

14 You are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly on the current flight plan route.
At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction form the radar controller:
"Turn immediately, continue heading 050 degrees until further advised".
At 18:37 UTC you find out that radio communication cannot be established again. You will:

A.  Return to you current flight plan route

B. Continue on a heading of 050 for 30 minutes

C. Continue on a heading 050 for 15 minutes

D. Continue on a heading 050 for 7 minutes

 Flag this question

15 The Cat I minimum decision height is:

A.  200 feet

B. 100 feet

C. 50 feet

D. No decision height

 Flag this question

16 The actual zero fuel weight is:

A.  The aircraft basic operation weight + payload. And must not exceed the maximum design zero fuel weight

B. The aircraft basic operation weight + payload. And must not exceed the maximum design take off weight

C. The aircraft basic operating weight + trip fuel

 Flag this question

17 In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows:

A. Fuel cooling so as to prevent vapor creation likely to unprime nozzles

B. Fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected

C. Automatic fuel heating by the engine oil so as to prevent icing in fuel filter

D.  Jet engine oil cooling through thermal exchange with fuel flowing from tanks

 Flag this question

18 The purpose of a leading edge droop is:

A. To give a more cambered section for high-speed flight

B.  To increase wing camber, and prevent separation of the airflow when trailing edge flaps are lowered

C. To increase the wing area for take-off and landing

 Flag this question

19 What is correct about Fly-by / Fly-over waypoints and turns?

A. 
A fly-by waypoint is a waypoint which requires turn anticipation to allow tangential interception of the next segment of a route or
procedure

B. A turn via a fly-over waypoint is always shorter than a turn via a fly-by waypoint

C. A fly-by waypoint is a waypoint at which a turn is initiated in order to join the next segment of a route or procedure

D.
A fly-over waypoint is a waypoint which requires turn anticipation to allow tangential interception of the next segment of a route or
procedure

 Flag this question

20 What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3 degree glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?

A.  600 ft/min

B. 950 ft/min

C. 550 ft/min

D. 800 ft/min

 Flag this question

Finish Review

Copyright © Pilot Assessments 2024


 AON Aviation Knowledge Test 7 

1 See the below figure.


The course selector of each aircraft is set to 360 degrees.
Which aircraft would have FROM indication on the TO/FROM indicator
and the CDI pointing left of center?

A. Aircraft 1

B.  Aircraft 2

C. Aircraft 3

D. Aircraft 4

 Flag this question

2 What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold


front?

A. Light to moderate continuous rain

B.  Showers associated with thunderstorms

C. Drizzle

D. Freezing rain

 Flag this question

3 On a localiser the modulations are at 150 Hz and 90 Hz.


Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The 90 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the centre line

B.  The 150 Hz modulation predominates to the right of the centre line

C.
If the 150 Hz modulations predominates, the needle on the CDI moves to the right
of centre

D. When both modulations are received, the aeroplane will be on the centre line

 Flag this question

4 When climbing at a constant mach number below the tropopause


through an inversion:

A.  The CAS will decrease and the TAS will increase

B. The CAS will increase and the TAS will decrease

C. The CAS and TAS will both increase

D. The CAS and TAS will both decrease

 Flag this question

5 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "B" correspond?

A. 5 only

B. 12 only

C. 13 only

D.  5 and 13

 Flag this question

6 Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper?

A. Spiral dive

B.  Dutch roll

C. Buffeting

D. Tuck under

 Flag this question

7 A pilot making an approach sees 3 red lights and 1 white light on the
wingbar of a PAPI.
This means that:

A. He is above the approach slope

B. He is on the centre line axis

C.  He is below the approach slope

D. He is on the prescribed glide slope

 Flag this question

8 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "E" correspond?

A. 3 only

B.  8 only

C. 10 only

D.  3 and 8

 Flag this question

9 In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will:

A. Increase longitudinal static stability

B. Not influence longitudinal static stability

C.  Decrease longitudinal static stability

D. Not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal

 Flag this question

10 See the figure below.


You receive this ATC clearance ".....CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC.
HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..."
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?

A. Parallel or teardrop

B. Parallel only

C.  Direct only

 Flag this question

11 Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the
maximum speed?

A. 230 kts TAS

B. 240 kts IAS

C. 240 kts TAS

D.  230 kts IAS

 Flag this question

12 The Operating Mass:

A. Is the maximum zero fuel mass less the traffic load

B. Is the landing mass minus the traffic load

C. Is the take-off mass minus the basic empty mass and crew mass

D.  Is the take-off mass minus the traffic load

 Flag this question

13 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "D" correspond?

A. 1 only

B.  2 only

C. 8 only

D. 10 only

 Flag this question

14 Rudder controls:

A.  Yaw

B. Pitch

C. Turn

D. Roll

 Flag this question

15 The sweepback on a wing will:

A. Cause the stall to occur at lower angles of attack

B. Reduce the possibility for the wing tip to stall

C.  Increase the possibility of a wing tip stall

D. Have no effect on the stall characteristics

 Flag this question

16 The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will


be reported:

A. According to pilot's choice

B. As height

C. As flight level

D.  As altitude

 Flag this question

17 A particular instrument departure procedure requires a minimum climb


rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a ground speed of
140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?

A. 210

B. 450

C.  490

 Flag this question

18 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "C" correspond?

A. 5 only

B.  12 only

C. 13 only

D. 5 and 13

 Flag this question

19 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "A" correspond?

A.  9 and 6

B. 9 only

C. 6 only

 Flag this question

20 The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are:

A. GEN, ENR, RAC, AD

B. GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, ENR, FAL

C. GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, MAP

D.  GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)

 Flag this question

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