Combinepdf
Combinepdf
2 What can be said about the height of the Tropopause in the Northern
Hemisphere?
A. 25kHZ
B. 25MHZ
C. 8.33MHZ
D. 8.33kHZ
A. the angle between the relative airflow and the chord line
C. the angle between the blade chord and the plane of rotation
B.
distortion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration in
the resonance frequency.
B. Both increase
D. Both decrease
B. 328.6 - 335.4 M HZ
9 During a climb a blocked static pressure supply line causes the ASI to:
B. over-indicate
C. under-indicate
D. be unaffected
10 What is the correct phrase for a pilot to use to advise ATC of being ready
to take-off?
A. Request takeoff.
B. Request departure.
B.
diversion of exhaust gases by the waste gate using energy that would otherwise
be wasted
C. connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil
13 What is the shortest distance between two points on the Earth's globe
called:
A. Lambodrome
B. Great circle
C. Airway
D. Rhumb Line
D.
provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse weather
B.
It is the maximum weight that an aircraft can be loaded to without useable fuel.
C.
It is important as exceeding the MZFW may mean that there is insufficient lift to get
the aircraft airborne.
Finish Review
AON Aviation Knowledge Test 2
1 A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor during a
right turn, experiences:
A. Coriolis illusion/effect
B. Pressure vertigo
C. Autokinetic illusion
D. Barotrauma
A. 12 NM
B. 13 NM
C. 16 NM
D. 15 NM
B.
Titanium alloy is used in aircraft construction because of its good wear and high
temperature tolerance
C.
Steel is used in aircraft because it is strong and heavy but has poor corrosion
resistance
D.
Aluminium alloys are used in aircraft construction because they are light, easily
machined and have good wear resistance
5 If an extra load is loaded into an aircraft the stall speed is likely to:
A. Change depending on whether the load was placed FWD or AFT of the C of G
C. Decrease
D. Increase
C. Astigmatism
A. astigmatism
A.
By increasing the flap setting in severe turbulence at constant speed the stall
speed will be reduced and the risk for exceeding the structural limits will be
decreased.
B.
Flap extension in severe turbulence at constant airspeed moves the centre of
pressure aft, which increases the structural limitation margins.
C.
Flight in severe turbulence may lead to a stall and/or structural limitations being
exceeded.
D.
Flap extension in severe turbulence at constant speed increases both the stall
speed and the structural limitation margins.
A.
modern batteries are more stable and have virtually eliminated the risk of a thermal
runaway occurring
B.
batteries are not sensitive to damage because of their solid construction and sealed
casing
C.
the risk of a battery fire is reduced during charging as the charging current will be
cut off if a fire is detected
D.
batteries are considered dangerous goods if transported due to the risk of thermal
runaway and the substances inside
18 The inbound track to the navigation aid serving a hold is 250°, your
aircraft heading is 002°. What is the correct sector to join the hold?
A. Sector 2 (offset)
D. Sector 1 (parallel)
Finish Review
2 A DME & VOR are co-located and a morse ident is detected 4 times in 30
secs. Which of the following statements is true?
A. VOR callsign once every 30 secs and lower in pitch than the DME ident
B. DME callsign 3 times every 30 secs and higher in pitch than the VOR ident
C. DME callsign once every 30 secs and higher in pitch than the VOR ident
D. VOR callsign once every 30 secs and higher in pitch than the DME ident
3 ELR is 1°C/100m:
A. Absolute instability
B. Conditional stability
D. Absolute stability
4 Power is:
B. Expressed in Joules
5 You are flying IFR in VMC and experience a complete radio failure. What
action should you take?
A.
Continue VMC and land at the nearest aerodrome squawking 7600. Report arrival
to ATC after landing
B.
Continue as per last ATC clearance for 20 minutes after which revert to your filed
flight plan. Squawk 7500 and land as close as possible to your EAT/ETA. Report
arrival to ATC after landing
C.
Continue as per last ATC clearance for 30 minutes after which revert to your filed
flight plan. Squawk 7600 and land as close as possible to your EAT/ETA. Report
arrival to ATC after landing
D.
Continue as per last ATC clearance for 20 minutes after which revert to your filed
flight plan. Squawk 0000 and land as close as possible to your EAT/ETA. Report
arrival to ATC after landing
A.
Diversion of exhaust gases by the waste gate using energy that would otherwise
be wasted
D. Subsidence, inversion
B. Increase CL Max
11 If you are flying IFR to a destination with no alternate, when must the
weather forecast be good for you to continue?
C. Slant range in NM
D. Slant range in SM
A.
Steel is used in aircraft because it is strong and heavy but has poor corrosion
resistance
C.
Titanium alloy is used in aircraft construction because of its good wear and high
temperature tolerance
D.
Aluminium alloys are used in aircraft construction because they are light, easily
machined and have good wear resistance
14 What is the speed limitation in the hold for class A & B aircraft below
14000 ft?
A. 170 kt
B. 240 kt
C. 230 kt
D. 280 kt
A. Decreases
B. Increases
D. 50 NM from land
A.
It is the maximum weight that an aircraft can be loaded to without useable fuel
D.
It is important as exceeding the MZFW may mean that there is insufficient lift to get
the aircraft airborne
A. The aeroplane
B. The glider
C. Both
D. Neither
A.
Provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse weather
A. 1.30Vs
B. 1.12Vs
C. 1.20Vs
D. Greater than Vs
B. Barely readable
C. Unreadable
D. Perfectly readable
A. Class D
B. Class C
C. Class B
D. Class A
A. 12v80Ah
B. 24v80Ah
C. 12v160Ah
D. 12v40Ah
A. increasing the rpm and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor
B. decreasing the rpm and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor
C. increasing the rpm and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor
D. decreasing the rpm and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor
13 You are flying IFR in VMC and experience a complete radio failure. What
action should you take?
A.
Continue as per last ATC clearance for 20 minutes after which revert to your filed
flight plan. Squawk 7500 and land as close as possible to your EAT/ETA. Report
arrival to ATC after landing
B.
Continue as per last ATC clearance for 30 minutes after which revert to your filed
flight plan. Squawk 7600 and land as close as possible to your EAT/ETA. Report
arrival to ATC after landing
C.
Continue as per last ATC clearance for 20 minutes after which revert to your filed
flight plan. Squawk 0000 and land as close as possible to your EAT/ETA. Report
arrival to ATC after landing
D.
Continue VMC and land at the nearest aerodrome squawking 7600. Report arrival
to ATC after landing
A. Slant range in SM
B. Slant range in NM
C. 30 - 300 MHz
18 If you are flying at FL300 in an air mass that is 15°C warmer than a
standard atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
A. -60°C
B. -45°C
C. -30°C
D. -15°C
A. Mature stage
B. Cumulus stage
D. Dissipating stage
C. connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil
2 How do you know you are in an over taking position with regards to another aircraft at night?
A. may feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may cause him to land short
D. establishes a slower than normal approach speed with the risk of stalling out
A. Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end.
B. Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to the end of the runway
C. Amber lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end
11 What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to establish radio contact with an
aeronautical station?
A. The rudder control is moved to the right, the right aileron moves up and the left down
B. The aileron control is moved to the left and the right aileron moves up and the left down
C. The aileron control is moved to the right and the right elevator goes up and the left one down
D. The aileron control is moved to the right, the right aileron goes up and the left one down
15 If an extra load is loaded into an aircraft the stall speed is likely to?
A. Decrease
C. Change depending on whether the load was placed FWD or AFT of the C of G
D. Increase
16 If an aeroplane lands below its Max Structural Landing Mass, but above its Performance Limited Landing Mass for the
arrival airfield:
1) It might not have sufficient runway length to stop safely
2) Tire temperature limits could be exceeded
3) It will increase structural fatigue
4) Physical damage might be suffered as a result of the extra mass
5) A go-around might not be achievable
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A. 1, 2, 4
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 2, 3, 5
D. 1, 2, 4, 5
17 Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he/she receives an instruction from ATC which he/she cannot carry out?
A. UNABLE
B. NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION
C. UNABLE TO FOLLOW
D. DISREGARD
A. Pressurised
B. Unpressurised
C. Conditioned
D. Different, with the mains being unpressurised and the nose pressurised
19 An aircraft passes overhead a DME station at 12000 ft above the station. At that time the DME reading will be?
B. Approximately 2 nm.
D. 0 nm.
A. An inversion
B. An inversion aloft
D. An isothermal layer
Finish Review
1 When the met observer reports the amount of cloud present at a station, it will be given as:
B. The amount of cloud, in tenths of the sky covered, using the term oktas
C. The amount of cloud, in quarters of the sky covered, using the term oktas
D. The amount of cloud, in eighths of the sky covered, using the term oktas
2 After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the
instrument approach?
A.
Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC
B. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3 minutes
C.
At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time,
whichever is later
3 What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large aeroplane that has just taken
off:
A. The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
D. The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.
4 Using the 1 on 60 rule calculate the height on a 3 degree glide path of an aircraft 4.5 NM from touchdown
A. 1480 ft
B. 1420 ft
C. 1370 ft
D. 1230 ft
B. Is a fixed vertical plane from which all the arm distances are measured
C. Is the point through which all the forces of gravity are said to act
D. Is a vertical plane through which all the forces of gravity are said to act
A. a cold front has passed the station in the morning, and rear side weather prevailed in the afternoon
B. a cold front in the morning, and a warm front in the afternoon have passed the station
C. a warm front in the morning, and a cold front in the afternoon have passed the station
D. a warm front has passed the station in the morning, and warm sector weather prevailed in the afternoon
A. Teardrop only
B. Direct only
C. Parallel only
B. Static inverter
C. Rotary converter
A. Shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude
D. Shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established
A. Is used to calculate the correct position of the CG due to different locations of the fuel tanks
B. Is a standard value given by EASA and can be used for different types of aircraft
D. Is the difference between the zero fuel mass index and the DOI
12 The signal from pilot to the signalman (marshaller) which means "brakes applied" is:
B. Arms extended, palms outwards, then move hands inwards to cross in front of the face
C. Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of face, then clench fist
D. Hands crossed in front of the face, palms outwards, then move arms outwards
13 Which of the following sequences might be encountered when flying into a microburst?
A. Increased headwind, followed by down-draught, followed by increased tailwind on the approach, or following take-off.
B.
Increased headwind, followed by down-draught, followed by increased tailwind on the approach. Increased tailwind, followed by
down-draught, followed by increased headwind following take-off.
C.
Increased headwind, followed by down-draught, followed by increased tailwind on take off. Increased tailwind, followed by down-
draught, followed by increased headwind on the approach.
D.
Increased tailwind, followed by down-draught, followed by increased headwind on the take-off. Increased headwind, followed by
down-draught, followed by increased tailwind on the approach.
14 You are on a flight in accordance with IFR in IMC, exactly on the current flight plan route.
At 18:36 UTC you receive and acknowledge the following instruction form the radar controller:
"Turn immediately, continue heading 050 degrees until further advised".
At 18:37 UTC you find out that radio communication cannot be established again. You will:
A. 200 feet
B. 100 feet
C. 50 feet
D. No decision height
A. The aircraft basic operation weight + payload. And must not exceed the maximum design zero fuel weight
B. The aircraft basic operation weight + payload. And must not exceed the maximum design take off weight
C. Automatic fuel heating by the engine oil so as to prevent icing in fuel filter
D. Jet engine oil cooling through thermal exchange with fuel flowing from tanks
B. To increase wing camber, and prevent separation of the airflow when trailing edge flaps are lowered
A.
A fly-by waypoint is a waypoint which requires turn anticipation to allow tangential interception of the next segment of a route or
procedure
B. A turn via a fly-over waypoint is always shorter than a turn via a fly-by waypoint
C. A fly-by waypoint is a waypoint at which a turn is initiated in order to join the next segment of a route or procedure
D.
A fly-over waypoint is a waypoint which requires turn anticipation to allow tangential interception of the next segment of a route or
procedure
20 What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3 degree glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt?
A. 600 ft/min
B. 950 ft/min
C. 550 ft/min
D. 800 ft/min
Finish Review
A. Aircraft 1
B. Aircraft 2
C. Aircraft 3
D. Aircraft 4
C. Drizzle
D. Freezing rain
C.
If the 150 Hz modulations predominates, the needle on the CDI moves to the right
of centre
D. When both modulations are received, the aeroplane will be on the centre line
A. 5 only
B. 12 only
C. 13 only
D. 5 and 13
A. Spiral dive
B. Dutch roll
C. Buffeting
D. Tuck under
7 A pilot making an approach sees 3 red lights and 1 white light on the
wingbar of a PAPI.
This means that:
A. 3 only
B. 8 only
C. 10 only
D. 3 and 8
A. Parallel or teardrop
B. Parallel only
C. Direct only
11 Entering a holding pattern at FL110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the
maximum speed?
C. Is the take-off mass minus the basic empty mass and crew mass
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 8 only
D. 10 only
14 Rudder controls:
A. Yaw
B. Pitch
C. Turn
D. Roll
B. As height
C. As flight level
D. As altitude
A. 210
B. 450
C. 490
A. 5 only
B. 12 only
C. 13 only
D. 5 and 13
A. 9 and 6
B. 9 only
C. 6 only