001.

The following is a slice of information across the engineering artifact sets sufficient to A
satisfy all stakeholders that the vision can be achieved within the parameters of the
business case
A Architecture baseline B Architecture description
C Architecture D Model
002. The following are the reasons for project failures C
A Poor Architectures B Immature processes
C Poor Architectures and Immature D There will be no project failures
processes
003. One of the following describes architecturally significant structures and functions of the A
design model
A Design B Process
C Component D Deployment
004. One of the following describes concurrency and control thread relationships among the B
design component and deployment views
A Design B Process
C Component D Deployment
005. The most critical product of a software product is __________________ B
A Software Documentation B Software Architecture
C Test Document D Maintenance
006. One of the following best describes the architecture B
A A tangible design concept B An intangible design concept
C A concrete modeling concept D A direct plan
007. An architecture is C
A Software Plan B Software Sketch
C Software System Design D Requirement plan
008. A View is _________ of the model that abstracts a specific relevant perspective A
A Subset B Superset
C Similar to D Superior
009. One of the following is not a structural diagram D
A Class B Object
C Component D Sequence
010. One of the following is a structural Diagram C
A Sequence B Collaboration
C Class D State Chart
011. One of the following is a behavioral Diagram A
A Collaboration B Class
C Object D Deployment
012. One of the following describes the architecturally significant elements of the design B
model
A Use Case View B Design View
C Process Vies D Component view
013. The requirements model addresses the behavior of the system as seen by its D
A End Users B Analysts
C Testers D End Users, Analysts and Testers
014. Which of the following describes how the systems critical use cases are realized by the A
elements of the design model
A Use case view B Class view
C Deployment view D Requirement view
015. One of the following describes concurrency and control thread relationships among the C
design, component and deployment views.
A Design B Process
C Component D Deployment
016. One of the following describes the structure of the deployment set D
 A Design B Process
C Component D Deployment
017. The activities of the process are organized into how many workflow C
A 3 B 5
C 7 D 10
018. Controlling the process and ensuring win conditions for all stake holders is _________ A
A Management workflow B Environment workflow
C Requirements workflow D Design workflow
019. Automating the process and evolving the maintenance environment_______ B
A Management workflow B Environment workflow
C Requirements workflow D Design workflow
020. Analyzing the problem space and evolving the requirement artifacts is called C
Requirements artifacts___________
A Management workflow B Environment workflow
C Requirements workflow D Design workflow
021. Which of the following addresses the executable realization of the system D
A Use Case View B Process View
C Component view D Deployment view
022. Generally, an architectural baseline shall include B
A Requirements B Design
C Implementation D Deployment
023. Which of the following addresses the runtime collaboration issues C
A Use Case View B Design View
C Process View D Component view
024. Which of the following describes the architecturally significant elements of the D
implementation set
A Use Case View B Design View
C Process View D Component view
025. Which of the following represents the state of the overall architecture and the complete A
deliverable system
A Iteration B Increment
C Can be call as both Iteration and D Deliverable
Increment
026. Which of the following represents the work in progress that will be combined with the B
preceding iterations to the next iteration.
A Iteration B Increment
C Can be call as both Iteration and D Deliverable
Increment
027. The system wide events that are held at the end of each development phase are called A
A Major Milestones B Minor Milestones
C Status Assessments D Deliverables
028. The iteration-focused events that are conducted to review the content of an iteration in B
detail to authorize the continued work
A Major Milestones B Minor Milestones
C Status Assessments D Deliverables
029. Assessing the trends in process and product quality_____________ B
A Management workflow B Assessment workflow
C Requirements workflow D Design workflow
030. Transitioning the end products to the user is termed as ___________ D
A Management workflow B Assessment workflow
C Requirements workflow D Deployment workflow
031. Modeling the solution and evolving the architecture and design D
artifacts______________
A Management workflow B Environment workflow
 C Requirements workflow D Design workflow
032. Programming the components and evolving the implementation and deployment A
artifacts_____
A Implementation Workflow B Environment workflow
C Requirements workflow D Design workflow
033. Sufficiency of the product and document artifacts are the concerns of ____________ D
A Customers B Users
C Architects D Mainteners
034. The Lifecycle objectives milestones occurs at the end of ___________ phase A
A Inception B Elaboration
C Construction D Development
035. The Lifecycle architecture milestones occurs at the end of ___________ phase B
A Inception B Elaboration
C Construction D Transition
036. Initial Operational Capability Milestone occurs in the _____________________ phase C
A Inception B Elaboration
C Construction D Transition
037. Consistency with requirements and usage scenarios, potential for accommodating B
growth, quality attributes are the concerns of _____________
A Customers B Users
C Architects D Developers
038. Product line compatibility, requirements changes, tradeoff-analysis, completeness and C
consistency, balance among risk, quality and usability are the concerns of
_____________
A Customers B Users
C Architects D Developers
039. The periodic events that provide management with frequent and regular insight to the C
progress being made
A Major Milestones B Minor Milestones
C Status Assessments D Deliverables
040. Schedule and budget estimates, feasibility, risk assessment requirements A
understanding, progress, product line compatibility_________________
A Customers B Users
C Architects D Developers
041. A delineation of all significant work is provided by A
A Work Break Down Structure B Work Hierarchy
C Plan Hierarchy D Tree Hierarchy
042. Which of the following WBS organize the planning elements around the process A
framework rather than the product framework?
A Evolutionary Work Break Down B Conventional Work Break Down
Structure Structure
C Structured Work Break Down D Coding Work Break Down Structure
Structure
043. One of the following Work Break Down Structures are prematurely decomposed, B
planned and budgeted in either too little or too much detail.
A Evolutionary Work Break Down B Conventional Work Break Down
Structure Structure
C Structured Work Break Down D Coding Work Break Down Structure
Structure
044. The following develops a characterization of the overall size, process, environment, A
people and quality required for the project
A Project Manager B Requirement Analyst
C Designer D Developer
045. An informal iteration milestone that is conducted at the end of each iteration to assess B
 the degree to which the iteration achieved the objectives is known as
__________________
A Iteration Readiness review B Iteration Assessment review
C Process Assessment review D Software Assessment review
046. Hierarchy of elements that decomposes the project plan into the discrete work tasks is A
termed as ____________
A Work Break Down Structure B Work Hierarchy
C Plan Hierarchy D Tree Hierarchy
047. Product release mile stone at the end of _______________ phase C
A Inception B Elaboration
C Construction D Transition
048. An informal iteration milestone that is conducted at the start of each iteration to review A
the detailed iteration plan and the evaluation criteria that have been allocated to this
iteration is known as_______________
A Iteration Readiness review B Iteration Assessment review
C Process Assessment review D Software Assessment review
049. Which of the following is responsible for ensuring that a software project complies with B
all organizational and business unit software policies.
A SEPA B PRA
C SEEA D SEI
050. Which of the following is responsible for automating the organizations process C
A SEPA B PRA
C SEEA D SEI
051. Which of the following provides human resources support , project independent D
research and development and other critical software engineering assets.
A SEPA B PRA
C SEEA D INFRASTRUCTURE
052. Which of the following is a skill set of Database specialist A
A Storage and retrieval of data B Experience in display organization
C Specialists in executing multiple D Specialists with experience in
software objects algorithms
053. What is SEPA A
A Software Engineering Process B Software Engineering Product
Authority Authority
C Software Engineering People D Software Engineers People
Authority Association
054. Which of the following facilitates the exchange of information and process guidance A
both to and from project practitioners
A SEPA B PRA
C SEEA D SEI
055. Which of the following are the iteration profiles of a typical project i)One iteration in D
inception: an architecture prototype. ii)Two Iterations in elaboration: architecture
prototype and architecture baseline. iii)Two iterations in construction: alfa and beta
releases. iv)One iteration in transition phase: Product release.
A i) Only B ii) Only
C iii) Only D i),ii),iii) & iv)
056. The system wide events that are held at the end of each development phase are called A
A Major Milestones B Minor Milestones
C Status Assessments D Deliverables
057. Automation needs grow depending on C
A Scale B Effort
C Scale and Effort D User
058. An organizations policies, procedures, and practices for managing a software intensive A
line of business
 A Metaprocess B Macroprocess
C Microprocess D Megaprocess
059. The projects policies, procedures and practices for producing a complete software B
product within certain cost, schedule and quality control
A Metaprocess B Macroprocess
C Microprocess D Megaprocess
060. The projects teams policies, procedures and practices for achieving an artifact of the C
software process
A Metaprocess B Macroprocess
C Microprocess D Megaprocess
061. Which of the following is a skill set of Domain Applications D
A Storage and retrieval of data B Experience in display organization
C Specialists in executing multiple D Specialists with experience in
software objects algorithms
062. Which of the following is a skill set related to commercial component A
A Detailed Knowledge on components B Experience in display organization
central to the system
C Specialists in executing multiple D Specialists with experience in
software objects algorithms
063. Which of the following is a skill set of GUI specialist B
A Storage and retrieval of data B Experience in display organization
C Specialists in executing multiple D Specialists with experience in
software objects algorithms
064. Which of the following is a skill set of OS and Networking specialist C
A Storage and retrieval of data B Experience in display organization
C Specialists in executing multiple D Specialists with experience in
software objects algorithms
065. In the SCO which of the following includes the name of the person responsible for A
implementing the change
A Resolution B Assessment
C Disposition D Metrics
066. What is CCB A
A Configuration Control Board B Configuration Change Board
C Change Challenge Board D Configuration Commitment Board
067. The following field describes the assessment technique as either inspection, Analysis, B
Demonstration, or test
A Resolution B Assessment
C Disposition D Metrics
068. Written, pending, CCB review are assigned to which state of the CCB A
A Proposed B Accepted
C Rejected D Archived
069. One of the following is a matured version of development environment C
A The Prototyping Environment B The Development Environment
C The Maintenance Environment D The testing Environment
070. What is SCO A
A Software Change Order B Software Clash Order
C Software Configuration Order D Software Configuration
071. The following includes the test bed for prototyping project architectures to evaluate the A
tradeoffs
A The Prototyping Environment B The Development Environment
C The Maintenance Environment D The testing Environment
072. The following includes full suite of development tools needed for round-trip engineering B
A The Prototyping Environment B The Development Environment
C The Maintenance Environment D The testing Environment
073. What is Type 0 Category of change A
A Critical Failure B A bug or a defect that can be worked
around
C Change or Enhancement D Change is necessitated by an update
to the requirements
074. What is Type 1 Category of change B
A Critical Failure B A bug or a defect that can be worked
around
C Change or Enhancement D Change is necessitated by an update
to the requirements
075. What is Type 2 Category of change C
A Critical Failure B A bug or a defect that can be worked
around
C Change or Enhancement D Change is necessitated by an update
to the requirements
076. What is Type 3 Category of change D
A Critical Failure B A bug or a defect that can be worked
around
C Change or Enhancement D Change is necessitated by an update
to the requirements
077. CCB- Completely resolved is represented by which state D
A Proposed B Accepted
C Rejected D Closed
078. Named collection of software components and supporting documents that is subject to A
change management
A Configuration baseline B Requirements Baseline
C System baseline D Testing Baseline
079. CCB- Approved for resolution is represented in which state B
A Proposed B Accepted
C Rejected D Archived
080. CCB- Accepted but postponed until a later release is assigned to which state D
A Proposed B Accepted
C Rejected D Archived
081. In which of the following the independent test team assesses whether the SCO is D
completely resolved.
A Proposed change B Accepted Change
C In Progress Change D In assessment Change
082. Which of the following is the focus of the Highest organization level A
A Strategic long term process B Tactical and short term process
improvements improvement
C Efficiency in achieving quality D Compliance with customer
requirements
083. Which of the following is the focus of the Intermediate line-of business level B
A Strategic long term process B Tactical and short term process
improvements improvement
C Efficiency in achieving quality D Compliance with customer
requirements
084. Which of the following is the focus of the lowest business level D
A Strategic long term process B Tactical and short term process
improvements improvement
C Efficiency in achieving quality D General Technology insertion and
education
085. The CCB assigns a unique identifier and accepts, archives and rejects each proposed B
change
 A Proposed change B Accepted Change
C In Progress Change D In assessment Change
086. The CCB in which of the following the responsible person analyzes, implements and C
tests a solution to satisfy the SCO
A Proposed change B Accepted Change
C In Progress Change D In assessment Change
087. What is Type 3 Category of change D
A Critical Failure B A bug or a defect that can be worked
around
C Change or Enhancement D Change that are not accommodated
by the other categories
088. The change that is drafted and submitted to the CCB is called A
A Proposed change B Accepted Change
C In Progress Change D In assessment Change
089. Which of the following is a Quality indicator B
A Work and Progress B Breakage and Modularity
C Budgeted cost and expenditures D Staffing and team dynamics
090. Which of the following is a Quality indicator B
A Work and Progress B Rework and adaptability
C Budgeted cost and expenditures D Staffing and team dynamics
091. Which of the following is defined as the average extent of change A
A Breakage B Modularity
C Rework D Adaptability
092. What is average breakage trend over time B
A Breakage B Modularity
C Rework D Adaptability
093. Which of the following is a management indicator A
A Staffing and Team Dynamics B Change traffic and stability
C Rework and adaptability D Mean Time Between Failures
094. Which of the following is a Quality indicator B
A Work and Progress B Change traffic and stability
C Budgeted cost and expenditures D Staffing and team dynamics
095. Which of the following is a management indicator A
A Work and progress B Change traffic and stability
C Rework and adaptability D Mean Time Between Failures
096. Which of the following is a management indicator A
A Budgeted cost and expenditure B Change traffic and stability
C Rework and adaptability D Mean Time Between Failures
097. How is Agile planning different from the traditional approach to planning D
A Agile planning is done only once B Agile planning is not iterative
C Agile planning places emphasis on D Agile planning places emphasis on
plan planning and iterative
098. Which of the following is not a characteristic of good user story D
A Value B Negotiable
C Estimatable D Dependant
099. A person who makes decision and practices Scrum to the core is performing what role A
A Pig B Chicken
C Scrum Master D Scrum Team
100. What does Timeboxed means in Agile terms D
A Fast B Flexible
C Frequent D Fixed
101. What is SPCP A
A Software Project Control Panel B Software Product Change Panel
C Software plan control panel D Software product control panel
102. MTBF means A
A The average time between software B The Maturity between Failures
faults
C The Minimum time between failure D The Maximum time between failures
103. What is the average cost of cahnge C
A Breakage B Modularity
C Rework D Adaptability
104. What is the average rework trend over time D
A Breakage B Modularity
C Rework D Adaptability
105. The working culture of an Agile team is B
A Collective B Collaborative
C Connective D Contemplative
106. An Agile approach values B
A Process over People B People over Process
C Plans over Process D Plans over people
107. Which of the following best supports Agile A
A To produce working product early and B To produce working product after
incrementally documentation has been signed off
C To produce simple prototypes early, D To produce products without any
but no finished product until the end technical integrity
of the product
108. According to Agile Manifesto what carries more value A
A Individuals and interactions over B Individuals and interactions over
process and tools people and technique
C Individuals and interactions over D Individuals and interactions over
projects and tools products and tools
109. Who can be the best user proxy B
A Scrum Master B Customers
C Agile Coach D Developer
110. Iterative development is NOT a good idea for B
A Back end development B Front end development
C Middleware development D Software development
111. Which of the following is a characteristic of an Agile leader C
A Task focused B Process oriented
C Supportive D Disinterested
112. Which of the following are the tools that support Agile B
A Puppet B JIRA
C TeamCity D AWS
113. Which of the following is important in regard to DevOps D
A Developing B Testing
C Production D Devlepment, Testing and Production
114. Which of the following are the tools that support DevOps A
A Puppet B JIRA
C Bugzilla D Kanboard
115. Agile addresses the gaps between C
A Adresses the gap in Customer B Adresses the gap in Developer
communications Communications
C Adresses the gap in both customer D Does not address any gap
and developer communications
116. DevOps addresses the gaps between C
A Developer communications B IT Operations Communications
C Developer and IT operations D Does not address any gap
Communications
117. Devops is considered as practice A
A To bring development and operations B To coordinate with the development
teams together team
C To coordinate operations team D To Coordinate with the customers
118. Prime foucs of Devops C
A Testing B Delivery
C Testing and Delivery D Customer
119. Which of the following is not a feature of continuous delivery B
A Automate Everything B Gathering requirements
C Continuous Improvement D Bug fixes and experiments
120. Which of the Devops principle focuses on product and service thinking C
A Customer Centric Interaction B Continuous Improvement
C Create with end in mind D Create with developer in mind
121. DevOps is an extension of ______________ A
A Agile B Waterfall
C Spiral D Prototype Model
122. Give the full form of Devops A
A Development and Operations B Digital and Operations
C Drive and Operations D Drive and Operation profiles
123. Which of the following best describes the goal of Devops A
A Establish environment to release B Establish an environment where the
more reliable applications faster release of applications is valued more
than its quality
C Establish an environment where D Establish an environment where
application development performs all change management does not control
the operation tasks application releases
124. Which of the following does not suite for DevOps implementation B
A Google Cloud B IBM
C Microsoft Azure D Amazon Web Services
125. Which of the following is the popular scripting language of Devops. B
A Java B Python
C C D C++
126. DevOps culture is about ________ between Dev and Ops B
A Speed B Collaboration
C Stability D Accuracy
127. Which of the following is delivered at the end of the sprint C
A A document containing test cases for B An architectural design of the solution
the current sprint
C An Increment of Done Software D Wireframes designs for User interface
128. Which of the following are the primary stakeholders of Devops D
A Design Engineers B Quality Assurance
C Testers D Design Engineers, Quality Assurance
& Testers
129. Which of the following best describes Telemetry B
A Widely known SaaS tool to plan and B Process of recording the behavior of
execute DevOps projects systems
C Communication tool used by DevOps D Its just a word
teams at geographically distributed
locations
130. Which of the following are the Business advantages of DevOps D
A Less Stable operating environments B Faster delivery of features
C More time available to add value D Less Stable operating environments
and Faster delivery of features
131. What is the purpose of Git A
 A Version Control System tool B Continuous integration tool
C Containerization tool D Continuous Monitoring tool
132. In a DevOps environment when does testing occur B
A After development but before release B During development and after release
C Only after release D Only during development
133. Which of the following is the tool that support infrastructure in regard to DevOps A
A Docker B GitHub
C GitLab D Bitbucket
134. Which of the following supports collaborative coding A
A Gitlab B Jenkins
C AWS D Bitbucket
135. Which of the following is the tool for Source control and collaborative filtering A
A Github B CHEF
C Docker D puppet
136. What is sprint Review A
A Activity to introspect and Adapt B Activity to seek approval for the work
done
C Activity to improve Scrum process D Activity to plan for the release
137. Who should necessarily attend the Daily Standup Meeting A
A The Development Team B The Scrum Team
C The Development Team and the D The Development Team and the
Product Owner Scrum Master
138. Cost effectiveness is the advantage of which of the following Scrum adoption pattern A
A Start Small B Go All In
C Public Display D Agility or Stealth Mode
139. Which of the following is the primary technologies used by teams practicing DevOps C
A C++ B Java
C Python D C
140. Which of the following is the main role of tester in SCRUM D
A Create test cases and test scenarios B Finding bugs
C Create automation scripts D There is no role as a tester
141. What does a BurnDown chart display B
A Project Progress B Amount of remaining work
C The speed of the team D The capability of team members
142. Which of the following is the outcome of each sprint C
A Test cases B An architectural design solution
C An Increment of the completed D Design
software
143. Which of the tools support continuous delivery A
A AWS B Github
C Gitlab D docker
144. Which of the tools support Automated Testing A
A snyk B Jenkins
C AWS D Gitlab
145. Which of the following supports Deployment Dashboards A
A Jira Software B Aws
C APPDYNAMICS D slack
146. Which of the tools support Application and service performance monitoring A
A AppDynamics B Jira
C Aws D Jira
147. Modularity refers to A
A Average breakage trend over time B Maximum breakage
C Minimum breakage D No concerned with time
148. Github supports C
 A Source control B Collaborative filtering
C Source Control and Collaborative D Development
filtering
149. Agile addresses the gaps between_________ and ____________ Communications C
A Customer and Tester B Developer and User
C Customer and Developer D Developers and Product Owners
150. In a Sprint when is it completed C
A When all the Sprint Backlog items are B When the time box expires
completed
C When the testing is complete D When the sprint Backlog tasks are
completed
151. The main component of the daily standup meeting A
A The Development Team B The Scrum Team
C The Development Team and the D The Development Team and the
Product Owner Scrum Master
152. Which of the following does not have its footprint in DevOps B
A Google Cloud B IBM
C Microsoft Azure D Amazon Web Services
153. DevOps culture is about collaboration between C
A Developers B Operations
C Developers and Operations D Testers and Users