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PRESTORMINGTM
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C: P-SIA-A-GS

A
GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I
Serial: 202301
INDIAN POLITY I
TEST – 1
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

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 .

SIA-A-GS I (1-A)
 .
1. Which among the following constitutes the Select the correct answer using the codes given
strongest argument in favour of democracy? below:

(a) The democratically elected leaders know (a) 1 only

the best interest of the people. (b) 2 and 3
(b) The decisions are taken after many (c) 2 only
consultations and discussions.
(d) 1 and 3
(c) The existence of democracy enhances the
dignity of citizens.
(d) Democracy solves the socio-economic 4. "The Constitution of the Union and of the
problems of a nation. States is a single frame from which neither can
get out and within which they must work" This
2. What is/are the point(s) of convergence with statement refers to the
respect to the ‘System of Government’ in the
(a) Federal structure in the Indian
USA and India?
Constitution
1. The Executive is dependent upon a majority (b) Rigidity in amending the Indian
in Legislature. Constitution
2. There is a periodic assessment of the
(c) Separation of the Powers under the Indian
responsibility of the Executive.
Constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes given (d) The nature of an integrated Judiciary under
below: the Constitution
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
5. Which among the following is not explicitly
(c) Both 1 and 2
stated in the Constitution of India but implicitly
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
provided under it?

1. Doctrine of Eminent Domain

3. Consider the following about the Charter Act of
2. Doctrine of Basic Structure
1813.
3. Doctrine of Eclipse
1. The company’s monopoly over trade with
Choose the correct answer from the options
India completely ended.
below:
2. The constitutional position of the British
territories in India was defined explicitly for (a) 1 and 2 only

the first time. (b) 1 only

3. Christian missionaries were also permitted (c) 3 only
to come to India and preach their religion. (d) 1 and 3 only

SIA-A-GS I (2-A)
 .
6. Liberty means the absence of constraints on Choose the correct answer from the options
individuals. Consider the following statements below:
about Liberty.
(a) 1 only
1. Positive Liberty means no external
(b) 1 and 3
authority can interfere in the exercise of
(c) 3 only
free will.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Negative Liberty means Freedom as an
expansion of opportunities to express one’s
self. 9. Recently, the Prime Minister of India launched

Which of the statements given above is/are the Har Ghar Tiranga movement. Consider the

correct? following statements.

(a) 1 only 1. It is an initiative to hoist the National Flag

(b) 2 only at homes to celebrate Azadi ka Amrut
(c) Both 1 and 2 Mahotsav, marking the 75th year of Indian
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Independence
2. The National Flag was adopted on 22nd
7. The provisions under this 'part' of the Indian July 1947.
Constitution are criticized as a 'little more than
3. The Constitution has detailed rules and
a manifesto of aims and aspirations.’ What is
instructions regarding the description,
'part' here referred to?
display and hoisting of the National Flag.
(a) PART I
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) PART III
(c) PART IV correct?

(d) PART IV(A) (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

8. With regards to “Protection in respect of (c) 2 only

conviction for offenses” as mentioned in Article (d) 2 and 3

20 of the Constitution of India, which of the
below statements is/are correct?
10. The Constitution of India provides for a
1. It Prohibits Retrospective criminal
legislation. (a) Single Polity and Dual citizenship

2. The immunity from self-incrimination (b) Dual Citizenship and Dual Polity
extends to civil proceedings.
(c) Single citizenship and Dual Polity
3. It provides immunity from double jeopardy,
including Prosecution for an offence. (d) Single citizenship and Single Polity

SIA-A-GS I (3-A)
 .
11. Several factors induced the makers of the Select the correct answer using the codes given
Indian Constitution to choose the below:
Parliamentary system of Government compared (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
to other forms of Government. Which one of the
(b) 2 and 3 only
following is not one such?
(c) 3 and 4 only
(a) It can provide effective leadership in
emergencies. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) It provides continuity of policy and is more

efficient. 14. Which among the following mechanism(s)
(c) The country already had some experience in is/are carried out in a Parliamentary form of
running the parliamentary system. Government to ensure the responsibility of the
(d) It has enough safeguards to check against Executive to the Legislature?
the personality cult.
1. No-confidence motion
2. Adjournment Motion

12. Consider the following statements with regard 3. Debate on President's address

to the Government of India Act 1919. Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
1. It Introduced Diarchy for the first time in
the Centre. (a) 1 only
2. Bicameralism was introduced for the first (b) 1 and 2 only
time through this Act. (c) 2 only
3. Members of both the Upper and Lower (d) 1, 2 and 3
Houses were elected directly as well as
nominated.
15. Racial discrimination in India is explicitly
Which of the statements given above is/are prohibited under which Article of the
correct? Constitution of India?

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Article 23

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Article 14
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Article 16
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Article 17

16. The Freedom of speech and expression can be

13. Which of the following rights are assured under
restricted by the state on certain grounds
the Right to Life and Liberty of the Indian
provided under the Constitution. Which one
Constitution?
among the following is not such a restriction?
1. Right to die through Passive Euthanasia (a) Law and order
(b) Morality
2. Right to appropriate Life Insurance Policy
(c) Friendly relations with foreign States
3. Right not to be subjected to Narco Analysis
(d) Defamation
test

4. Right to travel abroad

SIA-A-GS I (4-A)
 .
17. Which among the following is Fundamental Select the correct answer using the codes given
Duties? below:
(a) Renounce the Practice derogatory to woman
(a) 1 only
(b) Protection, improvement and
(b) 2 only
implementation of Policies to safeguard the
environment and the forest (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) State shall provide free and compulsory (d) Neither 1 nor 2
education to all children in the age group of
six to fourteen years
(d) Protection of all monuments, places and 20. Consider the following countries:
objects
1. Belarus

2. Poland
18. Consider the following Assertion and Reason
3. Russia
statements.
4. Latvia
Assertion (A): The State legislature cannot
5. Ukraine
make a law to punish the persons practicing
untouchability. How many of the above countries have a border

Reason (R): The subject matter 'untouchability' with Estonia?

falls in the sphere of the Union List.
(a) Two only
Choose the correct answer using the codes
(b) Three Only
given below:
(c) Four Only
(a) Both 'A' and 'R' are individually true and 'R'
(d) Five Only
is the correct explanation of A'.
(b) Both' A' and 'R' are individually true but' R'
is not the correct explanation of A'.
21. With reference to the framing of the
(c) 'A' is true but 'R' is false.
(d) 'A' is false but 'R' is true. Constitution, which of the following is not
correct?

19. With reference to the committees of (a) Jawaharlal Nehru opined that weak central
reorganization of the states, Consider the authority would be incapable of ensuring
following statements.
peace
1. Fazl Ali commission supported linguistic (b) The Draft Constitution provided three lists
and cultural homogeneity, so it accepted
of subjects for making legislation.
the one language one state formula.
(c) B.R.Ambedkar wanted a stronger centre
2. Justice J.C.Shah commission was set up by
the Government of India for the than what it was under the British regime
reorganization of the state of Punjab, (d) None of the above statements
Haryana and Uttarakhand.

SIA-A-GS I (5-A)
 .
22. How many of the below provisions in the 25. Consider the following statements:
Constitution of India have been amended in the
1. The Constitution of India provides a
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act?
compromise between the doctrines of
1. Preamble
Parliamentary sovereignty and Judicial
2. Fundamental Rights
Supremacy.
3. Directive Principles
2. The Parliament of India can be considered
4. Fundamental Duties
sovereign in the sense of legal omnipotence.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below: Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) One option only
(b) Two options only (a) 1 only
(c) Three options only (b) 2 only
(d) All the four options (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
23. Consider the following statements regarding
Amendments to the Constitution of India.
26. As per the Indian Constitution, the Separation
1. All the Amendments to the Indian of Judiciary from Executive is provided under
Constitution since 1950 have been passed which of the following Article?
by both houses of Parliament.
(a) Article 40
2. An Amendment to the Indian Constitution
(b) Article 45
must be approved by both houses of
(c) Article 50
Parliament. (d) Article 51
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
27. As of now, the Right to Property, under Article
(a) 1 only 300A, could be considered as a right in which
(b) 2 only of the following ways?
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Constitutional Right
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Statutory Right
3. Fundamental Right

24. Provision of Right to Education is included 4. Human Right

under which of the following rights? Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) Cultural and educational rights
(b) Right to Equality (a) One option only
(c) Right to Freedom (b) Two options only
(d) None of the above (c) Three options only
(d) All the four options

SIA-A-GS I (6-A)
 .
28. Consider the following statements regarding 31. Among the following organizations, which is the
the Indian Constitution. nodal agency for monitoring cyber security
1. Any expansion of Fundamental Rights incidents in India?
under the Indian Constitution solely rests
(a) Indian Computer Emergency Response
only on the Parliament of India.
2. The concept of Equality before law System
guarantees the idea of similarity of (b) Indian cybercrime coordination centre
treatment as well as identical treatment. (c) National Cybercrime Threat Analytics Unit

Which of the statements given above is/are (d) National Cybercrime Reporting
correct?

(a) 1 only 32. Which of the following Supreme Court verdicts

(b) 2 only is either directly or indirectly related to the
(c) Both 1 and 2 Right to Life and Liberty under Article 21 of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Indian Constitution?

1. AK Gopalan Case
29. Why the Board of Control for Cricket in India
(BCCI) could not be considered a ‘State’ under 2. Maneka Gandhi’s case
Article 12 of the Indian Constitution? 3. Puttaswamy Case
1. It is not created by any law of the Parliament.
4. Vishaka Guidelines
2. The Government does not have any share
capital in the BCCI. Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below: (a) 1 and 2 only

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

30. “When personal liberty is taken away by

33. Which one of the following is common for both
competent legislation, then the judiciary
the Indian political system and the British
cannot set the affected person free.” This
statement implies which one of the following political system?
concepts? (a) Republican System
(a) Procedure Established by Law
(b) Prime Minister from either house of
(b) Due Process of Law
Parliament
(c) A law passed with reasonable restrictions
(d) A law passed during the National (c) Political neutrality of Speaker
Emergency (d) Bicameralism

SIA-A-GS I (7-A)
 .
34. Consider the following statements: 3. To quash the order or decision of the
inferior court or tribunal.
1. The directives, enshrined in Part IV of the
Indian Constitution, require legislation for Select the correct answer using the codes
its implementation. given below:
2. The Judiciary cannot issue the Writ of (a) 1 only
Mandamus against the state to enforce (b) 1 and 2 only
DPSP. (c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?

(a) 1 only 37. Consider the following provisions of the Indian

(b) 2 only Constitution:

(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Fundamental Rights

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
Which one of the following amendments has
35. With reference to the Red Sanders, consider the
made changes in all of the given above parts?
following statements:
(a) 86th Amendment Act
1. It has fallen into the ‘Critically Endangered’
(b) 1st Amendment Act
category in the International Union for
(c) 44th Amendment Act
Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List.
(d) 97th Amendment Act
2. It is an Indian endemic tree species with a
restricted geographical range on the
38. With reference to the working of the
Eastern slope of Western Ghats.
constitution assembly, Consider the following
3. It has therapeutic properties and an
Pairs:
aromatic variety of sandalwood that mostly
Head of Committee
grows in rocky, hilly regions. Committee
Which of the statement given above is/are not
correct? 1. Jawaharlal - States Committee
Nehru
(a) 1 only 2. G. V. Mavlankar - House Committee
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Dr.Rajendra - Rule of Procedure
(c) 3 only
Prasad committee
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Sardar Patel - Minorities and
36. What are the common objectives of Prohibition Tribal and
as well as Certiorari under the Writ Jurisdiction Excluded areas
of the Indian Constitution? Committee
How many pair(s) given above is/are correctly
1. To ensure the jurisdiction of an inferior
matched?
court or tribunal is properly exercised.
2. To ensure that the functioning of the (a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
inferior courts is within the limits of its
(c) Only three pairs
jurisdiction.
(d) All the pairs

SIA-A-GS I (8-A)
 .
39. After the expansion of the scope of Article 19 by 42. Recently, a volcano erupted on the Southern
the Supreme Court, which of the following Pacific Island of Tonga, which triggered
provisions are included under its ambit? Tsunami waves around the Pacific. Consider
the following statements regarding this
1. Right to Access the Internet
2. Right to be Informed volcano:

3. Right not to Listen 1. It is an Above-sea Volcanic Eruption

Choose the correct answer from the options consisting of two small uninhabited

below: islands, Hunga-Ha’apai and Hunga-Tonga.

2. The Tonga Islands occur along the Ring of
(a) 1 only
Fire - a perimeter of heightened volcanic
(b) 2 and 3 only
and seismic activity that encircles the
(c) 3 only
Pacific Ocean basin.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Around 90% of the world’s earthquakes and
80% of the world’s largest earthquakes

40. Which of the following river is not a part of the occur in the Pacific Ring of Fire.
Cauvery river basin? Which of the statements given above are

(a) Shimsha correct?

(b) Arkavathi (a) 1 and 2 only

(c) Suvarnavathi (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Manjeera (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

41. Mandamus can be issued under which of the

following circumstances? 43. With respect to the Constitution of India, which
1. To indirectly restrain an authority from of the following statements holds good?
exercising statutory functions. 1. Equality before the law
2. Against CJI acting in his/her judicial 2. Primacy of the rights of the individual as
capacity. defined by the courts.
3. To enforce contractual obligations against a 3. Source of the Rights of an Individual is the
Private body performing public duty. Constitution.
Choose the correct answer from the options Choose the correct answer from the options
below:
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
(d) 1, 2 and 3

SIA-A-GS I (9-A)
 .
44. With reference to the making of the Indian 46. Part III of the Indian Constitution has
Constitution, which of the following statements provisions for both Indian citizens and
is/are not correct? foreigners other than enemy aliens. Which of

1. The demand for a Constituent Assembly for the following rights are available exclusively for

India was accepted by the British through Indian citizens?

the August Offer. 1. Freedom of Speech and Expression

2. The Constituent Assembly had only elected 2. Freedom to Manage religious affairs
members 3. Right of Minorities to establish and
3. Satyendra Prasad Sinha served as the
administer educational institutions.
temporary President of the Constituent
Choose the correct answer from the options
Assembly.
below:
Choose the correct answer from the options
(a) 1 only
below:
(b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
47. ‘Academic Bank of Credit’ was in the news
recently. In this context, consider the following
45. On the eve of Republic Day, the Padma awards statements:
were announced. In this regard, consider the
1. It is proposed under the National Education
following statements about the Padma Awards:
Policy 2020.
1. It was instituted in 1954 along with Bharat
2. It is set up by IIT Delhi.
Ratna.
3. This allows students to pursue up to 50
2. The awards are given in three categories.
percent of a course from institutions other
3. None of the awardees rejected the awards
than the one with which they are enrolled.
till date.
Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

SIA-A-GS I (10-A)
 .
48. Consider the following statements regarding 50. Recently Airtel Payment Bank Ltd. has become
the Fundamental Rights in India: Scheduled Bank. Consider the following
statements.
1. The Right to vote is a Fundamental Right
available to citizens only. 1. Airtel Payments Bank Ltd. is registered
under the Second Schedule to The Banking
2. Right to know about the candidates
Regulation Act,1949.
contesting the election is a fundamental
2. Due to schedule status, Airtel Payment
right of the voters.
Bank Ltd. has to follow the guidelines such
3. Non-Resident Indians (NRI) are provided as 9% of CRAR, followed by Scheduled
with Electoral Photo Identity Card(EPIC) to Commercial Banks in India.
vote in the elections in India. 3. Also, it can lend money to its customer.

Which of the above statements is /are correct? Which of the above statement is/are not

(a) 1 only correct?

(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3 (d) None of the above

49. Which of the following are part of Fundamental 51. With reference to India, consider the following

rights in India? statements:

1. Right to elementary education until the age 1. Unlike in the USA, Naturalized citizens can

of 14 years of age become the Head of state.

2. Oath of Allegiance is mandatory for
2. Right to Speedy trial in all stages
Naturalization.
3. Right to Sleep 3. Citizens living outside India continuously

4. Right to Free and Fair Trial for 7 years will be deprived of their
citizenship
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below: Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) All the above

SIA-A-GS I (11-A)
 .
52. The Advisory Board for extending the period of 55. Recently The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle
detention for a person detained by order of the (SSLV) is developed by the Indian Space
Government of India should be constituted on Research Organisation for launching a satellite
the recommendation of, in space. Consider the following statement
(a) The Supreme Court of India related to SSLV:
(b) The Parliament of India
1. It has been designed to meet “Launch on
(c) The High Court of Delhi
Demand” requirements and with the
(d) The President of India
capability to support multiple orbital drop-
offs.
53. In the Constitution of India, Article 31(A) deals
2. It has four stages, an alternate solid-liquid
with, “Saving of laws providing for the
vehicle with the capability to launch up to
acquisition of estates, etc.”. Here the term
500 kg of satellite mass.
“estate” refers to,
3. Antrix corporation limited will be the sole
1. Any land held under the Ryotwari
nodal agency for its development.
settlement.
Which of the statement given above is/are not
2. Any land held for purposes of agriculture,
including wasteland. correct?

3. Structures occupied by agricultural (a) 1 and 2 only

labourers. (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the following statements is/are (c) 3 only
Correct? (d) 1 and 3 only

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only 56. Consider the following statements with respect

(c) 1 and 3 only to the definition of ‘State’ in the Indian context:

(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Article 12 defines ‘State’, which includes
not only Executive and legislative organs of

54. Which of the following are the characteristics of the Union and States but also local bodies.

Liberalism? 2. Article 36 defines ‘State’ as a permanent

1. Individual Liberty territory that implements the policies as
2. Nationalisation of Industries enshrined in directive principles.
3. Limited State Which of the following statements are correct?
4. Democracy (a) 1 only
Which of the above elements are correct? (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) All of the above

SIA-A-GS I (12-A)
 .
57. Consider the following Rights: 60. Consider the following statements;

1. Right to Freedom of religion 1. Fundamental Rights enshrined in the

2. Right to Life and personal liberty Constitution of India are available against
3. Right to Form Cooperative societies state action only.
4. Abolition of Untouchability
2. DPSP does not create any justiciable right
5. Right to reside in any part of the territory of
in favour of any individual.
India
Which of the above statements is/are part of Which of the above statements is/are correct?
the Right to Freedom in the Constitution of
(a) 1 only
India?
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 5 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

58. With reference to recent deaths related to

61. Which of the following statement(s) regarding
COVID-19 in India, the “Right to decent burial”
the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is/are
is protected under which article of the
Constitution of India? correct?

(a) Article 19 1. It clarifies the ultimate sanction behind the

(b) Article 29 making of the Constitution.
(c) Article 21 2. It grants power to the organs of the
(d) Article 14
Government.
3. It has an enacting clause that brings the
59. Consider the following statements:
Constitution into force.
1. The Constitution of India provides for free
Select the correct answer using the codes given
and compulsory education to a child
below:
between the age group of 6 to 14 years.

2. The Right to Education Act 2009 prohibits (a) 1 and 2 only

screening procedures for the admission of (b) 2 and 3 only
children in schools. (c) 1 only
3. The Right to Education Act, 2009, is (d) 1 and 3 only
applicable to minority and religious
educational institutions.
62. Consider the following Fundamental rights
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only under Part-III of the Indian Constitution?
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. Freedom of Conscience
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. Cultural and Educational Rights
(d) 1 and 2 only
3. Freedom of Speech and Expression

SIA-A-GS I (13-A)
 .
Which of the above rights are considered as 65. Consider the following statements:
part of Individual Freedom?
1. The Parliament of India can make a
(a) 1 and 2 only discriminative law in favour of women for
(b) 1 and 3 only affirmative reasons.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. Currently, only four states in India are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
eligible to provide employment based on
reservation with respect to residence within
63. Consider the following statements:
the state.
Assertion (A): The right to marry the person of Which of the above statements is/are not
one's choice is an example of Classical correct?
Liberalism.
(a) 1 only
Reason (R): Classical Liberalism always (b) 2 only
privileges the rights of the individuals over (c) Both 1 and 2
community values. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Choose the correct answer using the codes
given below: 66. Consider the following provisions of the Indian

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are individually true, and ‘R’ Constitution.

is the correct explanation of ‘A’ 1. Equality before law under Article 14

(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are individually true, but ‘R’ 2. Abolition of untouchability under Article 17
is not the correct explanation of ‘A’
3. Protection of life and personal liberty under
(c) ‘A’ is true, but ‘R’ is false
Article 21
(d) ‘A’ is false, but ‘R’ is true
Which of the provisions are associated with the
‘socialist’ principles?
64. Arrange the following locations from North to
South: (a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
1. Depsang Plains
2. Karakoram Pass (c) 1 and 3

3. Daulat Beg Oldie (d) 1, 2 and 3

4. Hot spring
67. With reference to the Indian Constitution, the
Select the correct answer using the below
concept of ‘principled distance’ is related to
codes:

(a) 1-2-3-4 (a) Federalism

(b) 1-2-4-3 (b) Socialism

(c) 2-3-1-4 (c) Secularism

(d) 2-1-4-3 (d) Separation of Powers

SIA-A-GS I (14-A)
 .
68. A new state ‘X’ is created by separating a part 71. Various parts of India, especially North India,
of the territory from State ‘A’. On which of the have been experiencing a severe cold wave.
below occasions the Constitution mandates the Warnings for the severe cold waves have been
recommendation of the President? issued in several northern states. Consider the
1. Introduction of Bill in either House of following statements about the cold wave:
Parliament
1. Strong streams of western disturbances
2. Introduction of Bill in the Legislature of running through the southern belt are
State ‘A’
causing this.
Select the correct answer using the codes given 2. A cold wave is the same for the plains and
below: the mountains.
(a) 1 only 3. The IMD calls it “a condition of air
(b) 2 only temperature which becomes fatal to the
(c) Both 1 and 2 human body when exposed.”
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above are not
correct?
69. The capital of Indonesia has been shifted from
(a) 1 and 2 only
Jakarta to East Kalimantan recently. The name
(b) 2 and 3 only
of the New Capital will be called as
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Bandung
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Surabaya
(c) Nusantara
(d) Medan 72. Consider the following situations:

1. Governor summoning the session of the

70. A ‘law’ made under Article 2 and Article 3 is assembly after the CM lost his majority in
not to be considered as an amendment of the the house.
Constitution under Article 368. What does this 2. Non-performance of constitutional duty by
connote? a Chief Minister.

1. Such a law need not follow the procedure of 3. A Chief Minister disqualified under the

amendment mentioned in Article 368. Anti-defection law carries out the functions
2. Such a law does not make any changes to of the office.
the provisions of the Constitution. In which of the above-mentioned situations
Select the correct answer using the codes given does the writ of Quo Warranto apply?
below: (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

SIA-A-GS I (15-A)
 .
73. Consider the following pairs: 75. The Prohibition of Employment as Manual
Countries Status of Rights Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013,
was enacted in accordance with which of the
Is the only democracy
1. Australia -
with No Bill of Rights following provisions of the Constitution of
India?
A Democracy with no
2. Britain - Legislation concerning 1. Article 21
Human Rights
2. Article 23
Has a Human Rights Act 3. Article 46
3. Canada -
passed by Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes given

Did not contain any below:

4. USA - Fundamental Rights in
(a) 1 and 2 only
its original Constitution
(b) 2 and 3 only
How many pairs given above are correctly
matched? (c) 1 and 3 only

(a) Only one pair (d) 1, 2 and 3

(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs 76. Recently Aroma Mission was launched by the
Government of India for the development of a
local economy. Consider the following
74. Consider the following statement regarding
statements about Aroma Mission.
National Commission for Safaikaramcharis:
1. It is launched by the Union Ministry of
1. It is a Non-statutory body established
Science & Technology through the Council
under National Commission for
of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR).
Safaikaramcharis Act 1993.
2. It involves the cultivation of Saffron in the
2. It recommends to the Government
Kashmir Himalayas.
regarding specific programmes for the
welfare of Safaikaramcharis, it enquires 3. It will help to boost the Start-ups in India
program in Jammu & Kashmir regions.
into the complaint and punishes the
lawbreakers. Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 only

(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only (c) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

SIA-A-GS I (16-A)
 .
77. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs 79. “Darvaza gas crater” recently seen in news
approved the scheme for Green Energy Corridor located in which of the following countries?
(GEC) Phase-II for the Intra-State Transmission
System (InSTS). Consider the following (a) Pakistan
statements: (b) Afghanistan
1. The Green Energy Corridor Project aims to (c) Turkey
synchronize electricity produced from
(d) Turkmenistan
renewable sources with conventional power
stations in the grid.
2. It is a joint venture of the Government of 80. With reference to the composition of the

India and the Government of France. Constituent Assembly, consider the following:
3. It was implemented under the International
1. The representatives were directly elected by
solar alliance.
4. It is fully funded by both Government of the people as per the first past the post
India and the World Bank. system.
Which of the statement given above is/are not 2. Each province and princely state were to be
correct?
allocated the seat in proportion to their
(a) 1, 2 and 3
respective geographical extent.
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 Which of the statement given above is/are not
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 correct?

(a) 1 only
78. Justice in terms of Social, Economic and
(b) 2 only
Political is mentioned in the Preamble. Which
of the following are included under the term (c) Both 1 and 2

‘Justice’ as mentioned in the Preamble of the (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Indian Constitution?

1. Equal treatment for equals.

81. The Global Risks Report was released recently
2. Equal Voice in the Government
3. Recognition of the special needs. by
4. Well-being of all people.
(a) United Nations Office for Disaster Risk
5. Elimination of inequalities in Wealth and
Reduction
property
(b) World Economic Forum
Which of the statement given above is/are
correct? (c) United Nations Office for the Coordination

(a) 1, 3 and 4 of Humanitarian Affairs

(b) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Global Facility for Disaster Reduction and
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
Recovery
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

SIA-A-GS I (17-A)
 .
82. Women played a significant role during the 84. With reference to the Fundamental Duties,

freedom struggle and shaped the future of India consider the following statements:
after Independence. Consider the following
1. Fundamental Duties help in court in
statement related to the important political
examining and determining the
position held by women in free India:
constitutional validity of the law.
1. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur was the only women 2. Fundamental Duties serve warnings
minister in the 1st Government formed in against anti-national and anti-social
free India (1947). activities.
2. There was no women member in the Interim
Which of the statements given above is/are not
Government headed by the Viceroy Mount
correct?
Batten.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statement given above is/are not
(b) 2 only
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 85. The Preamble is a keynote to the Constitution

of India. Which of the following statements

83. With reference to the Indian context, consider regarding the Preamble is/are correct?

the following statements:

1. It is based on the provisions of the
1. Right to Equality abolishes titles conferred Instrument of Instructions in the
to citizens or foreigners by the state, but it Government of India Act of 1935.
doesn’t prohibit academic distinctions. 2. The Berubari Union Case of 1960 held that
2. Bharat Ratna award winner can use this in the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
his/her visiting card expressed as the
Select the correct answer using the codes given
recipient of the Bharat Ratna award.
below:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

SIA-A-GS I (18-A)
 .
86. 22nd Commonwealth Games was held recently 88. Consider the following events in the history of
British India:
in Birmingham, England. Consider the
1. Establishment of the Supreme Court of
following statements about Commonwealth
Calcutta
countries. 2. Abolition of Secretary of State
3. Constitution of Governor General’s
1. The Commonwealth is an association of
Legislative Council
countries historically connected to the 4. Abolition of Council of India
erstwhile British Empire. Arrange the above in chronological order:
2. Soon after becoming Republic, India (a) 1-2-3-4
became a member of the Commonwealth. (b) 1-3-4-2
3. Commonwealth membership does not affect (c) 1-3-2-4
India’s sovereignty in any way. (d) 4-2-3-1

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct? 89. Consider the following statements regarding
the powers of the Parliament to reorganize the
(a) 1 only
Indian States. Which of the following are
(b) 1 and 2 only considered Constitutional Amendments under
(c) 1 and 3 only Article 368?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Altering the boundary of a state.
2. Establish a new state
87. Consider the following pairs: 3. Admit new states into the Union of India
Protected areas State
Select the correct answer using the codes given
1 Nauradehi Wildlife - Haryana below:
Sanctuary
(a) 1 and 2 only
2 Gandhi Sagar - Gujarat (b) 1 and 3 only
Wildlife Sanctuary (c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
3 Kuno Palpur - Madhya Pradesh
National Park
90. Various laws constituted in British India
4 Mukundara Tiger - Rajasthan provided for the representation of various
Reserve sections of the society. Who among the
following were given representation by means of
How many of the above pairs is/are matched
a Separate Electorate?
correctly?
1. Muslims
(a) Only one pair
2. Women
(b) Only two pairs 3. Anglo Indians
(c) Only three pairs 4. Europeans
(d) None of the above 5. Depressed classes

SIA-A-GS I (19-A)
 .
Select the correct answer using the codes given Select the correct answer using the codes given
below: below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1,2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 only

91. Recently Anaimalai Tiger Reserve has been in

the news due to man-animal conflict. Which of 93. He was a true luminary credited with
the following statements is not correct about enlightening the western world about
the Anaimalai Tiger Reserve? Hinduism. Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose had
called him the “maker of modern India.” He
1. It is located in two states.
preached ‘neo-Vedanta’, an interpretation of
2. It is habited by indigenous people from the
Hinduism through a Western lens, and believed
Toda community.
in combining spirituality with material
3. Anaimalai Tiger Reserve lies north of the progress. He has been credited for writing
Palakkad gap in the Southern Western books like ‘Raja Yoga’, ‘Jnana Yoga’ and ‘Karma
Ghats. Yoga’.

Choose the correct answer from the options Which of the below personality matches the

below: above statements?

(a) 1 only (a) Swami Vivekananda

(b) Srimanta Sankardev
(b) 2 only
(c) Gharib Nawaz
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Samarth Ramdas
(d) 1, 2 and 3

94. The recent incidents at the Pangong Tso lake

92. Which of the following legislations were area between Indian and Chinese soldiers on

repealed with the commencement of the the LAC was in the news. Consider the following

Constitution of India? statements about Pangong Tso lake.

1. Government of India Act of 1935 1. It is the world’s highest saltwater endorheic

lake.
2. Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act
2. More than two-thirds of the lake is under
of 1949
Chinese control, while the remaining one-
3. Indian Independence Act of 1947 third of it lies in India.
3. It is one of the Ramsar sites in India.

SIA-A-GS I (20-A)
 .
Which of the statement given above is/are 97. Consider the following about the Charter Act of
correct? 1853:

(a) 1 only 1. All restrictions on European immigration

(b) 1 and 2 and the acquisition of property in India
(c) 3 only were lifted.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Covenanted civil service was thrown open to
the Indians.
95. With reference to the Working of Constituent 3. It Introduces the local representation in the
Assembly, consider the following: governor-General Executive council.

1. Satyendranath Sinha, the oldest member, Which of the statement given above is/are not
was elected as temporary president of the correct?
Assembly, following the French Practice.
(a) 1 only
2. H.C. Mukherjee was elected as the Vice-
(b) 2 only
President of the Constituent Assembly.
(c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statement given above is/are
(d) 3 only
correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 98. The first phase of the Census and collection of

(c) Both 1 and 2 details to update the National Population

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Register (NPR) has been postponed until
September. Consider the following statements
with regards to Census.
96. With reference to Battery technology, consider
the following statements: 1. The Census provides information on the

1. Electrolytic cell brings chemical reaction by size, distribution and socio-economic,

using an external source of voltage. demographic and other characteristics of

2. In a galvanic cell, both oxidation and the country's population.
reduction take place. 2. The Census was first started under British
3. Fuel cells are galvanic cells designed to Viceroy Irwin.
convert fuel combustion energy directly into 3. The first synchronous Census in India was
electrical energy. held in 1881.

Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 3 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

SIA-A-GS I (21-A)
 .
99. Sir Creek is a 96-km strip of water disputed
area between India and

(a) Bangladesh
(b) Nepal

(c) China
(d) Pakistan

100. A Community platform famously known as

Github has been in the news recently. In this

context, consider the following statements

about Github:

1. It is the world’s largest open-source

developer community platform where users

upload their projects and code for others to

view, edit and tweak.
2. It allows multiple users to edit the content,
one person at a time.

3. Open source software development

platforms like Github in India are managed

by Digital India Corporation (DIC).

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

*****

SIA-A-GS I (22-A)
 .

SIA-A-GS I (23-A)
 .
PRESTORMING - 2023
POLITY – I EXPLANATION
INDEX

Q.1) ............................................................................................................................................ 4
Q.2) ............................................................................................................................................ 4
Q.3) . ........................................................................................................................................... 6
Q.4) ............................................................................................................................................ 8
Q.5) .......................................................................................................................................... 10
Q.6) .......................................................................................................................................... 11
Q.7) .......................................................................................................................................... 12
Q.8) .......................................................................................................................................... 13
Q.9) .......................................................................................................................................... 15
Q.10) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………16
Q.11) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….17
Q.12) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 18
Q.13) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 19
Q.14) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….20
Q.15) ………………… ...................................................................................................................... 21
Q.16) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 22
Q.17) ……… ................................................................................................................................. 23
Q.18) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………... 24
Q.19) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….25
Q.20) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….26
Q.21) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. . 27
Q.22) .......................................................................................................................................... 27
Q.23) ……... ................................................................................................................................. 28
Q.24) ……………. ........................................................................................................................... 31
Q.25) ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…32
Q.26) ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……33
Q.27) .......................................................................................................................................... 33
Q.28) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….34
Q.29) …………………………………………………………………..………………………………………………………………. 35
Q.30) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….36

1
 .
Q.31) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………… 37
Q.32) ………………… ...................................................................................................................... 39
Q.33) ……….……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………41
Q.34) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 41
Q.35) ………………… ...................................................................................................................... 43
Q.36) ……………….. ....................................................................................................................... 45
Q.37) ……………….. ....................................................................................................................... 46
Q.38) ………………… ...................................................................................................................... 48
Q.39) ……………………………………… ................................................................................................ 49
Q.40) ………………… ...................................................................................................................... 51
Q.41) ……………….. ....................................................................................................................... 52
Q.42) .......................................................................................................................................... 53
Q.43) ………………… ...................................................................................................................... 54
Q.44) ……………. ........................................................................................................................... 55
Q.45) …………………………………… ................................................................................................... 57
Q.46) .......................................................................................................................................... 58
Q.47) ……… ................................................................................................................................. 59
Q.48) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 60
Q.49) ……… ................................................................................................................................. 61
Q.50) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 62
Q.51) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 63
Q.52) .......................................................................................................................................... 65
Q.53) …………. .............................................................................................................................. 67
Q.54) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 68
Q.55) .......................................................................................................................................... 69
Q.56) ……… ................................................................................................................................. 70
Q.57) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 71
Q.58) .......................................................................................................................................... 73
Q.59) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 74
Q.60) ……… ................................................................................................................................. 75
Q.61) .......................................................................................................................................... 75
Q.62) …………… ............................................................................................................................ 77
Q.63) ……… ................................................................................................................................. 78
Q.64) ………… ............................................................................................................................... 79
Q.65) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 80
2
 .
Q.66) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 81
Q.67) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 83
Q.68) .......................................................................................................................................... 83
Q.69) .......................................................................................................................................... 86
Q.70) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 86
Q.71) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 89
Q.72) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 91
Q.73) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 93
Q.74) ……….. ............................................................................................................................... 94
Q.75) .......................................................................................................................................... 95
Q.76) .......................................................................................................................................... 96
Q.77) .......................................................................................................................................... 97
Q.78) .......................................................................................................................................... 98
Q.79) ………. ................................................................................................................................ 99
Q.80) …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..100
Q.81) ………. .............................................................................................................................. 101
Q.82) ........................................................................................................................................ 102
Q.83) ……… ............................................................................................................................... 103
Q.84) ……… ............................................................................................................................... 105
Q.85) ………. .............................................................................................................................. 106
Q.86) ........................................................................................................................................ 107
Q.87) ………. .............................................................................................................................. 108
Q.88) …………. ............................................................................................................................ 109
Q.89) ........................................................................................................................................ 111
Q.90) ........................................................................................................................................ 112
Q.91) ........................................................................................................................................ 113
Q.92) ........................................................................................................................................ 115
Q.93) ........................................................................................................................................ 117
Q.94) ........................................................................................................................................ 118
Q.95) ………. .............................................................................................................................. 120
Q.96) ………… ............................................................................................................................. 121
Q.97) ………….. ........................................................................................................................... 122
Q.98) ………. .............................................................................................................................. 123
Q.99) ………. .............................................................................................................................. 124
Q.100) ………….. ........................................................................................................................... 125
3
 .
Q.1) Which among the following constitutes the strongest argument in favour of democracy?
(a) The democratically elected leaders know the best interest of the people.
(b) The decisions are taken after many consultations and discussions.
(c) The existence of democracy enhances the dignity of citizens.
(d) Democracy solves the socio-economic problems of a nation.
EXPLANATION:
In a democracy the Government has to respond to the needs of the people, they are accountable to the
people of the country but it is not in all cases that the elected leaders always know the best interests
of the people.
Eg- Tamil People protesting for their own rights in Sri Lanka (Democratically elected). So, Option (a)
is not correct.
Decisions taken in a democracy are based on discussions, consultations and meetings always involves
many persons. When a number of people put their heads together, they are able to point out possible
mistakes in any decision and it takes more time but there is a big advantage, even if it takes time over
important decisions. Thus, democracy improves the quality of decision-making.
But it is not always that many people are involved in decision making as it hampers the decision
making process itself. Eg- Cabinet is the highest decision making body in some democracies like
Britain. So, Option (b) is not correct.
Democratic form of government enhances the dignity of citizens, by providing them equal status and
opportunity to each and every one of them. All individuals have equal rights in electing representatives.
Democratic government's selection, governance, and change revolve around the people's wishes. Poor
and least educated have the same status as the rich and educated. So, Option (c) is correct.
Democracy is not a solution for all problems. It has not ended poverty in our country and in other
parts of the world. It only ensures that people take their own decision, which does not guarantee that,
the decision taken will be good. Hence, it cannot be sure that the democracy will solve the socio-
economic problems of the nation. So, Option (d) is not correct.

Q.2) What is/are the point(s) of convergence with respect to the ‘System of Government’ in the USA
and India?
1. The Executive is dependent upon a majority in Legislature.
2. There is a periodic assessment of the responsibility of the Executive.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

4
 .
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
In USA both the members of the executive and legislative are elected separately and they execute their
work in their spheres, so the executives are independent of legislature. So, Statement 1 could be
eliminated.
In a parliamentary system like India, the Council of Ministers (Executive) is dependent on the support of
the majority in the legislature. This also means that the Council of Ministers may be removed at any time
and a new Council of Ministers will have to be put in place. (Parliamentary form of government)
Whereas in the USA, they have a Presidential form of Government in which the President is directly elected
by the people and is not either dependent or accountable to the legislature. Hence, there is no
convergence, with respect to the given matter (Executive dependent upon majority in the legislature),
in the USA and India. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Having a fixed tenure for the Head of the State in both the Presidential form of Government in USA and
the Parliamentary form of Government in India, the Elections are held periodically which ensures the
assessment of the responsibility of the executive. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
COMPARING PARLIAMENTARY AND PRESIDENTIAL SYSTEMS
PARLIAMENTARY SYSTEM PRESIDENTIAL SYSTEM
Features: Features:
 Dual executive.  Single executive.
 Majority party rule  President and legislators are elected separately
 Collective responsibility. for a fixed term.
 Political homogeneity  Non-responsibility
 Double membership.  Political homogeneity may not exist.
 The leadership of the prime minister.  Single membership
 Dissolution of Lower House.  Domination of president
 Fusion of powers.  No dissolution of Lower House
 Separation of powers
Merits: Demerits:
 Harmony between legislature and  The conflict between the legislature and executive
executive. Responsible government.  Non-responsible government
 Prevents despotism.  May lead to autocracy
 Wide representation  Narrow representation
Demerits: Merits:
 Unstable government  Stable government
 No continuity of policies.  Definiteness in policies
 Against separation of powers  Based on the separation of powers
 Government by amateurs  Government by experts

5
 .
Q.3) Consider the following about the Charter Act of 1813.
1. The company’s monopoly over trade with India completely ended.
2. The constitutional position of the British territories in India was defined explicitly for the first
time.
3. Christian missionaries were also permitted to come to India and preach their religion.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The charter Act of 1813 doesn’t completely end the monopoly of the east India company in India,
however, the company’s monopoly in trade with china and trade in Indian tea remained with that
company for 20 more years. Whereas in the 1833 charter Act, the company’s commercial activity was
completely banned and it became a purely administrative body. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
In charter Act 1813, for the first time, the Constitutional position of the British territories in India was
defined explicitly which means the EIC was given the power to retain the possession of territories and
the revenue for 20 more years (until 1833-so comes charter Act of 1833), which also asserted crowns
sovereignty over British processions in India. So, Statement 2 is correct.
1813 Charter act Legally permitted Christian missionaries to come to India and preach Christianity
while engaged in religious conversion. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Constitutional Development During British Rule

1793 - The Regulating Act

1750 - 1800 1784 - The Pitts India Act

1793 - The Charter Act

1813 - The Charter Act

1800 - 1858 1833 - The Charter Act

1853 - The Charter Act

Constitutinal
Developements 1858 - The Government of India
Act
1858 - 1900 1861 - The Indian Councils Act

1892 - The Indian Councils Act

1909 - The Indian Councils Act

1919 - The Government of India
1900 - 1947
Act
1935 - Government of India Act

6
 .
 It laid the foundation for central administration by British in India.
 Governor of Bengal now became the Governor General of Bengal
(Warren Hastings was the first governor general),
The Regulating Act, 1773  Made Governors of Madras and Bombay subordinate of GG of
Bengal.
 An executive council headed by GG was created.
 It led to the establishment of Supreme Court in Calcutta in 1774.
 The act distinguished
The Pitt’s India o the commercial function of the company under Court of
Act, 1784 Directors and
o the political functions under the Board of Control.
 End the monopoly of trade of East India Company in India.
The Charter Act, 1813
 But it retained the trade with China and the trade in tea.
 Made Governor General of Bengal as Governor General of India.
(William Bentinck was the first Governor General of India).
 It vested all civic and military powers in him.
 It further deprived the legislative powers of Bombay and Madras.
 The act made the Company as a purely administrative body and
The Charter Act, 1833 ended its commercial activities.
 Company’s trade with China and tea with India also ended.
 The Territories of the company in India were now to be governed in
the name of British Crown.
 The slavery was abolished in 1843 by Lord Ellenborough as a
result of this act.
 The act separated the executive and legislative functions of the
Governor General council.
The Charter Act, 1853
 It led to open competition in Civil services and made the civil
services open to Indians.
 It transferred the power from East India Company to British crown.
 The designation of Governor General was now made as Viceroy
(Lord Canning was the first viceroy).
The Government of India
 Viceroy was the direct representative of British crown.
Act, 1858
 It abolished the office of Board of Control and Court of Directors
and thus ended the dual government system in India.
 A new office of Secretary of State was created.
 This act initiated the process of decentralization in India.
 It restored the powers to the Governors of Bombay and Madras.
Indian  It gave recognition to the portfolio system (introduced by Lord
Councils Act, Canning in 1859), under which a member of Viceroy’s council was
1861 made in charge of one or more department of government and was
authorized to issue final orders on behalf of council on matters of
his department.
Indian Councils Act,1892  The first achievement of the Indian National Congress.

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 It had increased the number of “additional members” in both
central and provincial Legislative Council.
 The members were allowed only to discuss the budget and criticize
the financial policy of the government.
 It legally recognized the principle of election to the councils.
The Indian Councils
 Communal representation was introduced for the first time in the
Act, 1909 (Minto-
interests of Muslims.
Morley Reforms)
 Separate electorates were provided for the Muslims.
 Dyarchy was introduced in the provinces.
 Provincial subjects were divided into “Reserved Subjects” and
“Transferred Subjects”.
 The Reserved subjects were to be administered by the Governor and
The Government of his Executive Council.
India Act, 1919  The Transferred subjects were to be administered by the Governor
(Montague-Chelmsford and his ministers.
Reforms)  A bicameral (Two Chambers) legislature was set up at the centre. It
consisted of “the Council of States” and “the Legislative Assembly”.
 The salary of the Secretary of State for India were to be paid out of the
British revenues. So far, it was paid out of the Indian revenues.
 A High Commissioner for India was appointed at London.
 Had provision for the establishment of an All India Federation at the
Centre, consisting of the Provinces of British India and the Princely
States. (Didn’t come into existance)
 Divided the pwers into three lists - Federal, Provincial and
Concurrent.
 Introduced Dyarchy at the Centre. The Governor-General and his
The Government of
councillors administered the “Reserved subjects”. The Council of
India Act, 1935
Ministers administered the “Transferred” subjects.
 Abolihed Dyarchy in Provincial level and introduced Provincial
Autonomy.
 Extended the Separate Electorates to Sikhs, Europeans, Indian
Christians and Anglo Indians.
 Esatblishment of a Federal Court at Delhi.

Q.4) "The Constitution of the Union and of the States is a single frame from which neither can get out
and within which they must work" This statement refers to the
(a) Federal structure in the Indian Constitution
(b) Rigidity in amending the Indian Constitution
(c) Separation of the Powers under the Indian Constitution
(d) The nature of an integrated Judiciary under the Constitution

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EXPLANATION:
 Article 1 states that India, that is, Bharat, is a Union of States. This implicitly expresses the nature
of federation in India is such that, India is an Integral whole, and only for the administrative
convenience the country has been divided into federal units, and both the Center as well as the states
are bound by the law of the land, that is, the Indian Constitution.
 Unlike the American Federation Indian States have ‘No Right to secession’ and Indian Federation is
‘Indestructible’.
 The Statement is the question was given by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar when he attempted to explain the
nature of Indian Federation in the Constituent assembly as, "The Constitution of the Union and of
the States is a single frame from which neither can get out and within which they must work."
So, Option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
FEDERAL FEATURES OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION
Dual Polity  The Constitution establishes a dual polity consisting of the Union at the
Centre and the states at the periphery.
 Each is endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned
to them respectively by the Constitution.
Written  The Constitution is not only a written document but also the lengthiest
Constitution Constitution in the world.
 Originally, it contained a Preamble, 395 Articles (divided into 22 Parts) and
8 Schedules.
 At present (2019), it consists of a Preamble, about 470 Articles (divided into
25 Parts) and 12 Schedules
Division Of  The Constitution divided the powers between the Centre and the states in
Powers terms of the Union List, State List and Concurrent List in the Seventh
Schedule.
 The Union List consists of 98 subjects (originally 97), the State List of 59
subjects (originally 66) and the Concurrent List of 52 subjects (originally 47
Supremacy  The Constitution is the supreme (or the highest) law of the land. The laws
Of The enacted by the Centre and the states must conform to its provisions.
Constitution Otherwise, they can be declared invalid by the Supreme Court or the high
courts through their power of judicial review.
Rigid  The division of powers established by the Constitution as well as the
Constitution supremacy of the Constitution can be maintained only if the method of its
amendment is rigid.
 Hence, the Constitution is rigid to the extent that those provisions which are
concerned with the federal structure (i.e., Centre-state relations and judicial
organisation) can be amended only by the joint action of the Central and
state governments
Independent  The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the

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Judiciary Supreme Court for two purposes: one, to protect the supremacy of the
Constitution by exercising the power of judicial review; and two, to settle the
disputes between the Centre and the states or between the states.
Bicameralism  The Constitution provides for a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper
House (Rajya Sabha) and a Lower House (Lok Sabha).
 The Rajya Sabha represents the states of the Indian Federation, while the
Lok Sabha represents the people of India as a whole.

Q.5) Which among the following is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but implicitly
provided under it?
1. Doctrine of Eminent Domain
2. Doctrine of Basic Structure
3. Doctrine of Eclipse
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
Doctrine of Basic Structure is based on judicial innovation. So, Statement 2 could be eliminated.
Eminent Domain is power of the sovereign to acquire property of an individual for public use without the
necessity of his consent. This power is based on sovereignty of the State. Payment of just compensation
to the owner of the land which is acquired is part of exercise of this power. Eminent domain power is
regarded as an inherent power of the State to take private property for public purpose.
The Constitution of India also recognizes the power of eminent domain.
Acquisition or taking possession of private property which is implied in clause (1) of Article 31a of Indian
Constitution, such taking must be for public purpose. The other condition is that no property can be
taken, unless the law authorizes such appropriation contains a provision for payment of compensation
in the manner as laid down in the clause.
Article 300-A reads as, “No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law”.
The current status is that, the State can acquire any private property for public purposes only by the
authority of law (300-A) and also while doing so just compensation has to be paid (31a) and therefore
Eminent domain is implicit in the Indian constitution through the above articles. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
The Doctrine of Basic Structure is neither explicitly nor implicitly stated in the Constitution of India but
derived as Judicial innovation by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), which
tells that the constituent power of Parliament under Article 368 does not enable it to alter the ‘basic
structure of the Constitution. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Doctrine of Eclipse states that any law which is inconsistent with fundamental rights is not invalid
as such. It is not totally dead but overshadowed by the fundamental right.

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It is implicitly contended in Article 13(1) of the Indian Constitution which states that any law which was
made before the commencement of the constitution must be consistent with part III of the Indian
Constitution.
If any statute is inconsistent with the provisions provided under part III of the Indian constitution such
statute shall become void. At the same time, such a statute shall not be treated as dead but will be in
moribund condition until and unless it is abolished by the Parliament.
Through Article 13, Doctrine of Eclipse is thus implicit in Indian Constitution. So, Statement 3 is
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
DOCTRINE OF BASIC STRUCTURE
About  The basic structure doctrine is an Indian judicial norm that the Constitution
of India has certain basic features that cannot be changed or destroyed
through amendments by the parliament.
 The basic features of the Constitution have not been openly defined by the
Judiciary.
 At least, 20 features have been described as “basic” or “essential” by the
Courts in numerous cases, and have been incorporated into the basic
structure.
Cases Related  The following cases are associated with the evolution of the Basic Structure
Concept of the constitution
 Shankari Prasad Case (1951)
 Sajjan Singh case (1965)
 Golaknath case (1967)
 Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
 Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain case (1975)
 Minerva Mills case (1980)
 Waman Rao Case (1981)
 Indra Sawhney and Union of India (1992)
 S.R. Bommai case (1994)

Q.6) Liberty means the absence of constraints on individuals. Consider the following statements about
Liberty.
1. Positive Liberty means no external authority can interfere in the exercise of free will.
2. Negative Liberty means freedom as an expansion of opportunities to express one’s self.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
The basic meaning for negative is restraint one’s action, whereas positive means indulging in an activity.
It also extends for positive and negative liberty. So, Statement 1 and 2 could be eliminated.
Positive liberty recognizes that one can be free only in society and hence tries to make that society such
that it enables the development of the individual. It must provide opportunities by enabling positive
conditions in material, political and social domains for the development of an individual. It means
freedom as the expansion of opportunities to express one’s self. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Negative liberty seeks to define and defend an area in which the individual would be inviolable, in which
he or she could ‘do, be or become’ whatever he or she wished to ‘do, be or become’. This is an area in
which no external authority can interfere in the exercise of free will. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
LIBERTY
Liberty The term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals,
and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individual
personalities.
In Preamble The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of thought, expression, belief,
faith, and worship, through their Fundamental Rights, enforceable in a court of
law, in case of violation.
Borrowed From The ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in our Preamble have been taken
from the French Revolution (1789–1799).

Q.7) The provisions under this 'part' of the Indian Constitution are criticized as a 'little more than a
manifesto of aims and aspirations.’ What is 'part' here referred to?
(a) PART I
(b) PART III
(c) PART IV
(d) PART IV(A)
EXPLANATION:
The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ (PART IV) denotes the ideals that the State should keep
in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the constitutional instructions or
recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters. They aim at realising
the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution.
They embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’. In that sense, K C Wheare called them a ‘manifesto of aims
and aspirations’ and opined that they serve as mere ‘moral homily’. So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY
Constitutional  The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the
Provisions Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.

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 The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution
of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution. Dr B.R. Ambedkar
described these principles as ‘novel features of the Indian Constitution.
 The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the
philosophy of the Constitution and are the soul of the Constitution.
Features  The Directive Principles, though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in
examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law.
 The Supreme Court has ruled many times that in determining the
constitutionality of any law if a court finds that the law in question seeks to
give effect to a Directive Principle, it may consider such law to be ‘reasonable’
about Article 14 (equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save
such law from unconstitutionality.
Role  They facilitate stability and continuity in domestic and foreign policies in
political, economic and social spheres despite the changes in the party in
power.
 They are supplementary to the fundamental rights of the citizens. They are
intended to fill in the vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic
rights.
 Their implementation creates a favourable atmosphere for the full and proper
enjoyment of the fundamental rights of the citizens. Political democracy,
without economic democracy, has no meaning.
 They enable the opposition to exercise influence and control over the
operations of the government. The Opposition can blame the ruling party on
the ground that its activities are opposed to the Directives.
 They serve as a crucial test for the performance of the government. The people
can examine the policies and programmes of the government in light of these
constitutional declarations.
 They serve as a common political manifesto. ‘A ruling party, irrespective of its
political ideology, has to recognise the fact that these principles are intended
to be its guide, philosopher and friend in its legislative and executive act

Q.8) With regards to “Protection in respect of conviction for offenses” as mentioned in Article 20 of the
Constitution of India, which of the below statements is/are correct?
1. It Prohibits Retrospective criminal legislation.
2. The immunity from self-incrimination extends to civil proceedings.
3. It provides immunity from double jeopardy including Prosecution for an offence.
Choose the correct answer from the options below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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EXPLANATION:
According to Article 20(1), No person can be convicted except for the violation of an offence under the
law prevalent at the time of commission of the act charged as an offence. It prohibits retrospective
legislation only for Criminal laws.
Any retrospective increase in the penalty (or) the punishment for an offence provided is valid for civil
and tax laws and not for criminal laws. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Article 20(3) prohibits the compulsion to give self-incriminating evidence only in criminal proceedings
and not for civil proceedings.
An accused cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself/herself. So, Statement 2 is not
correct.
Article 20(2) states that No person shall be prosecuted and punished for same offence more than once
which means that, this article provides immunity from double jeopardy not only against Punishment
for an offence but also against Prosecution. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Retrospective Law  Also known as ex post facto law.
 Retrospective laws are laws that are passed today and make changes in
the people’s rights and responsibilities that were available in the past.
Status of  Article 20(1) of the Indian constitution prohibits retrospective effect of
Retrospective Law in legislation in criminal offences.
India  According to Article 20(1), No person can be convicted for any offence
except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of the
act charged as an offence, none be subjected to a punishment greater
than that which might have at the time of the commission of the offence.
 But this retrospective legislation can be applied for civil and tax laws.
Civil Law vs Criminal Civil Law Criminal Law
Law 1. It deals with the disputes 1. It deals with crime and the
between individuals, legal punishment for
organizations etc., criminal offenses.
2. The initiation of a case starts 2. The case is filed by the
with the filing of a complaint Government against the
by the aggrieved party accused.
3. It aims at protecting 3. It aims to protect the public
individual interests against interests against the
one another Wrongdoer
4. Burden of proving the 4. Burden of proving the
evidence lies on the person evidence always lies on the
who filed the case. State

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Q.9) Recently, the Prime Minister of India launched the Har Ghar Tiranga movement. Consider the
following statements.
1. It is an initiative to hoist the National Flag at homes to celebrate Azadi ka Amrut Mahotsav,
marking the 75th year of Indian Independence
2. The National Flag was adopted on 22nd July 1947.
3. The Constitution has detailed rules and instructions regarding the description, display and
hoisting of the National Flag.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
‘Har Ghar Tiranga’ is a special campaign under the aegis of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav (from August 13
to 15). It is a special movement to encourage people to bring the Tiranga home and to hoist it to mark
the 75th year of India’s independence.
The idea behind the initiative is to invoke the feeling of patriotism in the hearts of the people and to
promote awareness about the Indian National Flag. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Indian national flag is rectangular, with stripes in three colors namely saffron, white, and green. The
Constituent Assembly adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The Flag code of India is a set of laws and conventions concerning the use, display, and hoisting of the
Indian national flag in the country. It was brought into effect on January 26, 2002. So, Statement 3 is
not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
HAR GHAR TIRANGA MOVEMENT
About  “Har Ghar Tiranga” campaign to encourage people to bring the Tiranga home and
hoist it to mark the 75th year of India’s independence.
 The idea behind the initiative is to invoke the feeling of patriotism in the hearts of
the people and to celebrate Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav.
 This campaign aims to have flags hoisted across the country from 13th to 15th
August 2022.
Ministry  Har Ghar Tiranga is an initiative by the Ministry of culture.
 The ministry has launched the Har Ghar Tiranga website that allows Indian citizens
to pin the national flag virtually.
THE FLAG CODE OF INDIA
About  The Flag code of India is a set of laws and conventions concerning the use,
display, and hoisting of the Indian national flag in the country.
 The Flag Code of India, 2002, states that a member of the public, private
organization, or educational institute is allowed to hoist the national flag on all

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days and occasions, ceremonial or otherwise, consistent with the dignity and
honor of the flag.

Started  It came into effect on January 26, 2002.

 The Code has been divided into three parts

Parts
FLAG CODE-THREE General description of the
national flag

Display of the flag by

members(public, private
PARTS

organisations, and other

institutions

Display of the national flag

by central and state
governments, and their
organisations/agencies.

Amendments  On July 20, 2022, the Centre amended the Flag Code of India, allowing the national
To The Code flag to be flown both during the day and at night if it is displayed in the open or the
house of a member of the public.
 Earlier, the tricolor could be hoisted only between sunrise and sunset.
 In an earlier amendment dated December 30, 2021, the government had allowed
the use of machine-made and polyester flags. Previously, such flags were not
allowed to be used.

Q.10) The Constitution of India provides for a

(a) Single Polity and Dual citizenship
(b) Dual Citizenship and Dual Polity
(c) Single citizenship and Dual Polity
(d) Single citizenship and Single Polity

EXPLANATION:
 Though the Indian Constitution is federal and envisages a dual polity (Centre and states), it
provides for only single citizenship, that is, Indian citizenship. The citizens in India owe allegiance
only to the Union. There is no separate state citizenship. The other federal states like USA and
Switzerland, on the other hand, adopted the system of double citizenship.
 The Constitution establishes a dual polity consisting of the Union at the Centre and the states at
the periphery. Each is endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them
respectively by the Constitution. So, Option (c) is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SALIENT FEATURES OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION
Single  In India, all citizens irrespective of the state in which they are born or reside enjoy
Citizenship the same political and civil rights of citizenship all over the country and no
discrimination is made between them.
 Despite the constitutional provision for single citizenship and uniform rights for all
the people, India has been witnessing communal riots, class conflicts, caste wars,
linguistic clashes and ethnic disputes.
 This means that the cherished goal of the Constitution-makers to build a united and
integrated Indian nation has not been fully realised.
Dual Polity  The Union government deals with matters of national importance like defence,
foreign affairs, currency, communication and so on.
 The state governments, on the other hand, look after the matters of regional and
local importance like public order, agriculture, health, local government and so on.

Q.11) Several factors induced the makers of the Indian Constitution to choose the Parliamentary system
of the government compared to other forms of government. Which one of the following is not one
such?
(a) It can provide effective leadership in emergencies.
(b) It provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) The country already had some experience in running the parliamentary system.
(d) It has enough safeguards to check against the personality cult.

EXPLANATION:
In the Parliamentary system of the government, parliaments can provide effective leadership during
emergenc period and have played an essential function in the policy debate during crises, particularly in
the discussion and debate about the types of economic measures that should be put in place to avoid
economic collapse and personal hardship, and takes restrictive measures to choke off it. So, Option (a)
is correct.
Unlike the Presidential form of government, the parliamentary form of government is more likely to be
unstable and the formulation of long-term policies is challenging and may not be effectively implemented,
because, a change in the ruling party after the elections is usually followed by changes in the policies of
the government. So, Option (b) is not correct.
When the Constitution of India was written, India already had some experience in running the
parliamentary system under the Acts of 1919 and 1935. This experience had shown that in the
parliamentary system, the executive can be effectively controlled by the representatives of the people.
So, Option (c) is correct.
The makers of the Indian Constitution wanted a government that would have a strong executive branch,
but at the same time, enough safeguards should be there to check against the personality cult. So,
Option (d) is correct.

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 .
Q.12) Consider the following statements with regards to the Government of India Act, 1919.
1. It Introduced Diarchy for the first time in the Centre.
2. Bicameralism was introduced for the first time through this Act.
3. Members of both the Upper and Lower Houses were elected directly as well as nominated.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Government of India Act of 1919 was enacted by the British Parliament and came into force in 1921
and it is also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms. The Act provided for a dual form of governance
that is "dyarchy" for the major provinces.
The Act divided the provincial subjects into two parts– transferred and reserved. The transferred subjects
were to be administered by the Governor with the aid of Ministers responsible to the legislative council.
The reserved subjects, on the other hand, were to be administered by the Governor and his executive
council without being responsible to the legislative council.
The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the Centre. However, this
provision of the act did not come into existence.
Thus the GOI,1919 Act provides dyarchy only at the Provincial level and not the centre. So, Statement
1 is not correct.
The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in
the country. Thus, the Indian legislative council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an
Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly). So, Statements 2 is correct.
The members of the both houses were elected as well as nominated from the provinces. The Lower house
had 145 members (both directly elected as well as nominated)with the tenure of 3 years and the Upper
House had 60 members (both directly elected as well as nominated)with the tenure of 5 years So,
Statements 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
GOVERNMENT OF INDIA ACT OF 1919
Other Important  It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating
Provisions the central and provincial subjects. The central and provincial legislatures
were authorized to make laws on their respective list of subjects. However, the
structure of government continued to be centralized and unitary.
 It required that three of the six members of the Viceroy’s Executive Council
(other than the Commander-in-Chief) were to be Indian.
 It extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate
electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans.
 It granted a franchise to a limited number of people on the basis of property,
tax, or education.

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 It created a new office of the High Commissioner for India in London and
transferred to him some of the functions hitherto performed by the Secretary
of State for India.
 It provided for the establishment of a public service commission. Hence, a
Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 for recruiting civil
servants.
 It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and
authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
 It provided for the appointment of a statutory commission to inquire into and
report on its working after ten years of its coming into force.

Q.13) Which of the following rights are assured under the Right to Life and Liberty of the Indian
Constitution?
1. Right to die through Passive Euthanasia
2. Right to appropriate Life Insurance Policy
3. Right not to be subjected to Narco Analysis test
4. Right to travel abroad
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to
the procedure established by law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. The rights
that are assured under this Article are,
 The Right to die with dignity (Allowed Passive Euthanasia under certain conditions but not
Active Euthanasia but it does not include the Right to die)
 Right to freedom from noise pollution
 Right to appropriate Life Insurance Policy - (LIC of India Vs Consumer Education and Research
Centre and others Case)
 Right to travel abroad
 Fair and speedy trial in investigations
 Right against Custodial Violence – (Rajjammal vs State of Tamil Nadu)
 Right of the Victim not to undergo Narco analysis test – (Sher Singh Vs State of Punjab Case)
 Ban on Khap panchayats – (Arumugam Servai Vs State of Tamil Nadu case)
 Right to Information
So, Option (d) is correct

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ARTICLE 21 OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION
Some Rights Under  Right to live with human dignity
Article 21  Right to a decent environment including pollution-free water and
air and protection against hazardous industries
 Right to livelihood
 Right to privacy
 Right to shelter
 Right to health
 Right to free education up to 14 years of age
 Right to free legal aid
 Right against solitary confinement
 Right to a speedy trial
 Right against handcuffing
 Right against inhuman treatment
 Right against delayed execution
 Right to travel abroad
 Right against bonded labour
 Right against custodial harassment
Euthanasia in Indian Passive Euthanasia - Not giving medication or not performing a surgery
Context that would save the patient's life are instances of passive euthanasia
Active Euthanasia - the physician deliberate act, usually the
administration of lethal drugs, to end an incurably or terminally ill
patient's life
In India, Active Euthanasia is a crime. Section 309 of the Indian Penal
Code (IPC) deals with the attempt to commit suicide and Section 306 of
the IPC deals with abetment of suicide – both actions are punishable.
 In 2011, the Supreme Court, in a landmark judgment in Aruna
Ramachnadran Shaunbag’s case, allowed Passive euthanasia
stating there is no statutory provision in our country prohibiting
Passive Euthanasia. Also the SC laid down the procedure for the
same until the Parliament creates a law on this subject.

Q.14) Which among the following mechanism(s) is/are carried out in a Parliamentary form of
Government to ensure the responsibility of the Executive to the Legislature?
1. No-confidence motion
2. Adjournment Motion
3. Debate on President's address
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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 .
EXPLANATION:
The Constitution of India provides for a parliamentary form of government, where the Executive is
responsible to the Parliament for its policies and acts. The parliamentary democracy provides for
assessment of accountability of the executive to the legislature through instruments such as
adjournment motion, no-confidence motion. So, Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Article 87 of the constitution provides two instances when the President specially addresses both Houses
of Parliament at the beginning of the first Session after each general election when the reconstituted
lower house meets for the first time. The President also addresses both the houses at beginning of the
first session of each year.
The President’s speech essentially highlights the government’s policy priorities and plans for the
upcoming year. The address provides a broad framework of the government’s agenda and direction.
After the President or Governor delivers the address, a debate takes place not only on the contents of the
address but also the broad issues of governance in the country.
Therefore, the failure of Motion of Thanks on the President’s address in parliament amounts to defeat of
the Government as a whole. By doing so, it ensures that the Executive is made responsible to the
legislature. So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.15) Racial discrimination in India is explicitly prohibited under which Article of the Constitution of
India?

(a) Article 23
(b) Article 14
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 17
EXPLANATION:

Article 23 of the constitution Prohibits traffic in human beings and other similar forms of forced labor.
Whereas it does not explicitly mention racial discrimination. So, Option (a) is not correct.
Article 14 says that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection
of the laws within the territory of India. It provides equality before the law to every person without
discriminating on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Whereas it does not explicitly
mention racial discrimination. So, Option (b) is not correct.
Racial discrimination is any discrimination against any individual on the basis of their skin color, or
racial or ethnic origin. It is explicitly mentioned and prohibited under Article 15 and 16 of the Indian
Constitution.
Article 16 of the Indian Constitution deals with “Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment”
which states that
(1) There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment
to any office under the State.

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(2) No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any
of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of, any employment or office under the
State. So, Option (c) is correct.
Article 17 of the Constitution abolishes “untouchability” and forbids its practice in any form. Though it
prohibits the practice of untouchability in any form, it does not mention the prohibition of racial
discrimination explicitly. Also, Untouchability is not defined anywhere in the constitution. So, Option
(d) is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
Article 15 It provides that
(1) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race,
caste, sex, and place of birth or any of them.
(2) No citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of
them, be subject to any disability, liability, restriction or condition with regard to
(a) access to shops, public restaurants, hotels and places of public entertainment; or
(b) The use of wells, tanks, roads and places of public resort maintained wholly or
partly out of State funds or dedicated to the use of the general public.
 Article 15 prohibits state from discriminating against any person on grounds of religion,
race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
 However, the state can make special policies of protective discrimination for welfare of
women, children, socially and educationally backward classes, and SCs and STs.
 It also prohibits discrimination in terms of restriction to any person from access to
shops, public restaurant, hotels and places of public entertainment, or use of wells,
tanks, bathing ghats, roads and places of public restaurant which are maintained wholly
or partly out of state funds or which are dedicated to the use of general public.

Q.16) The Freedom of speech and expression can be restricted by the state on certain grounds provided
under the Constitution. Which one among the following is not such a restriction?
(a) Law and order
(b) Morality
(c) Friendly relations with foreign States
(d) Defamation
EXPLANATION:
Article 19(a) guarantees the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression to all citizens of India. But this
right is subjected to reasonable restrictions that may be imposed by law relating to
 Defamation
 Contempt of court
 Decency/Morality
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 Security of the state
 Friendly relationship with foreign state
 Incitement to an Offence
 Public Order (to maintain public peace and safety)
 Matters on the grounds of sovereignty and integrity of India
Supreme Court made its judgement in Angoori Devi vs Union of India case, made a distinction between
‘Public order’ and ‘Law and order’.
 An Act affecting ‘Law and order’ – If the gravity of the act is confined only to an individual without
directly/indirectly affecting the life of the community.
 An Act affecting ‘Public order’ – If the gravity of the act endangers the Public peace and safety which
may directly/indirectly affect the life of the community.
Thus, Article 19(a) imposes reasonable restrictions on the state to implement law only based on the
maintenance of ‘Public order’ and not on the maintenance of ‘Law and order’. So, Option (a) is not
correct.

Q.17) Which among the following is Fundamental Duties?

(a) Renounce the Practice derogatory to woman.
(b) Protection, improvement and implementation of Policies to safeguard environment and the forest.
(c) State shall provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen
years.
(d) Protection of all monuments, places and objects.
EXPLANATION:
Practices that are derogatory to the dignity of the woman includes acts such as dowry murders, rape,
sexual harassment, indecent representation, glorification of the practices of sati, stripping and
parading of lower caste women, witchcraft laws and the Atrocities Act.
Article 51A(e) of Fundamental Duty states, “to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood
amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities
and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women”. So, Option (a) is correct.
Under Article 48A of the Indian Constitution- Protection, improvement and implementation of Policies
to safeguard environment and the forest is a directive to state where protecting and improving the
natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living
creatures is a fundamental duty to all its citizens. Implementation of the policies is the duty of the
state and it is not the duty of the citizen. So, Option (b) is not correct.
Articles 21A- declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of
the age of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right whereas it is the duty of the state and Under
Article 51A (k) Providing compulsory education and opportunities for education to his child or ward
between the age of six and fourteen years is a fundamental duty to parents and guardians. So, Option
(c) is not correct.
Article 51A of the Indian constitution mentions Safeguarding of public property and to abjure violence
which includes protection of public monuments, public property and it does not include private
property, private places and objects.

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Also, DPSP under Article 49 declares the obligation of the state to Protect the monuments, Places and
other objects of National importance as below.
It shall be the obligation of the State to protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic
interest, [declared by or under law made by Parliament] to be of national importance, from spoliation,
disfigurement, destruction, removal, disposal or export, as the case may be. So, Option (d) is not
correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
 The fundamental Duties of Indian Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of erstwhile USSR.
 The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976 enacted the Fundamental Duties and added
a new part, namely, Part IVA which consists of only one Article, that is, Article 51A.
 Under Part IV ‘A’, Article 51A of the Indian Constitution describes the following "Fundamental
Duties" (i.e., the duty of every citizen of India).
 In 1976 the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee recommended fundamental duties, the need, and
necessity of which were felt during the operation of the internal emergency (1975–1977).
Key Facts  Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to
foreigners. The Constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement
by the courts.
 Like the Directive Principles, the fundamental duties are also non-
justiciable. There is no legal sanction against their violation.
 Parliament is free to enforce them by suitable legislation.
Significance Of  They serve as a reminder to the citizens that while enjoying their rights
Fundamental  They serve as a warning against the antinational and antisocial activities
Duties  Source of inspiration for the citizens and promote a sense of discipline and
commitment
 They help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional
validity of law enforceable by law

Q.18) Consider the following Assertion and reason statements.

Assertion (A): The State legislature cannot make a law to punish the persons practicing
untouchability.
Reason (R): The subject matter 'untouchability' falls in the sphere of Union List.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below:
(a) Both 'A' and 'R' are individually true and 'R' is the correct explanation of A'.
(b) Both' A' and 'R' are individually true but' R' is not the correct explanation of A'.
(c) 'A' is true but 'R' is false.
(d) 'A' is false but 'R' is true.
EXPLANATION:
 According to Article 17 Abolition of Untouchability - "Untouchability" is abolished and its practice
in any form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of "Untouchability" shall be
an offence punishable by the law.
 The subject matter 'untouchability' does not fall in any of the lists in the seventh schedule.

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 According to Article 35, Parliament shall have, and the Legislature of a State shall not have, the
power to make laws for prescribing punishment for those acts which are declared to be offences
mentioned in the Fundamental Rights.
 In accordance with the above articles, Parliament is authorized to make law prescribing the
punishment for this offence and in the exercise of this power, it has enacted the Untouchability
(offences) ACT,1955 which has been amended and renamed in 1976 as the Protection of Civil
Rights Act 1955. So, Assertion(A) is correct and Reason (R) is not correct.
Q.19) With reference to the committees of reorganization of the states, Consider the following
statements.
1. Fazl Ali commission supported linguistic and cultural homogeneity, so it accepted the one
language one state formula.
2. Justice J.C.Shah commission was set up by the government of India for the reorganization of the
state of Punjab, Haryana and Uttarakhand.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Fazl Ali Commission was set up to re-examine the creation of the state on a linguistic basis.
Fazl Ali commission supported Linguistic and cultural homogeneity but, it rejected the theory of
‘one language-one state’. Its view was that the unity of India should be regarded as the primary
consideration in any redrawing of the country’s political units. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Justice J.C.Shah commission was set up as a commission of inquiry appointed by the government
of India in 1977 to inquire into all the excesses committed in the Indian Emergency (1975-77).
On the recommendation of the Shah Commission (1966), the Punjabi-speaking areas were
constituted into the unilingual state of Punjab, the Hindi-speaking areas were constituted into the
State of Haryana and the hill areas were merged with the adjoining union territory of Himachal
Pradesh. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Uttarakhand It became a state as the 27th state on 9 November 2000.
 It is constituted by the Parliament in 1953 to recommend the
The States Reorganisation reorganization of state boundaries.
Commission (SRC)  In October 1955, the Commission, comprising Justice Fazal
Ali, K. M. Panikkar and H. N. Kunzru.
 The commission accepted language as the basis of
reorganisation of states. But, it rejected the theory of ‘one
language-one state’.
 It identified four major factors that can be taken into
account in any scheme of reorganisation of states:

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(a) Preservation and strengthening of the unity and security of the
country.
(b) Linguistic and cultural homogeneity.
(c) Financial, economic and administrative considerations.
(d) Planning and promotion of the welfare of the people in each
state as well as of the nation as a whole.

Q.20) Consider the following countries:

1. Belarus
2. Poland
3. Russia
4. Latvia
5. Ukraine
How many of the above countries have a border with Estonia?
(a) Two only
(b) Three Only
(c) Four Only
(d) Five Only
EXPLANATION:
Estonia is a country in Eastern Europe bounded by the Gulf of Finland in the north and the Baltic
Sea in the west. It borders Latvia in the south and Russia in the east, and it shares maritime borders
with Finland.

So, Option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

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Recently in News Estonia has been a member of the European Union and NATO since 2004.
Recently, Estonia formed a new government to be led by a female prime minister
for the first time.

Q.21) With reference to the framing of the Constitution, which of the following is not correct?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru opined that weak central authority would be incapable of ensuring peace
(b) The Draft Constitution provided three lists of subjects for making legislation.
(c) B.R.Ambedkar wanted a stronger centre than what it was under the British regime.
(d) None of the above statements
EXPLANATION:
Nehru had always advocated for a great deal of unitary control in federal India.
The powers of State Governments and Central Government were debated in the Constituent Assembly
the 20th August 1947. Nehru pleaded for a strong Centre as it was required for an independent India. It
would be injurious to the interest of the country to provide for a weak central authority which would be
incapable of ensuring peace and speaking effectively for the whole country in the international affairs.
So, Option (a) is correct.
The Draft constitution also provided for three lists. They are Union list, State list and Concurrent list.
The union list consists of subjects that only centre can make laws on. On state list, state governments
have the powers to form laws. Concurrent list has those subjects on which both centre and state can
make laws. So, Option (b) is correct.
Dr.B.R.Ambedkar had declared that he wanted “a strong and united Centre much stronger than the
Centre we had created under the Government of India Act of 1935”. Need for a strong centre had been
underlined on numerous occasions since the Constituent Assembly had begun its sessions. So, Option
(c) is correct.

Q.22) How many of the below provisions in the Constitution of India have been amended in the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act?
1. Preamble
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles
4. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) One option only
(b) Two options only
(c) Three options only
(d) All the four options
EXPLANATION:
42nd Constitutional Amendment act was passed in 1976 during the Prime Ministership of Indira Gandhi
and this act is also called as “Mini Constitution” because it has made an enormous number of
amendments to the Indian constitution. It amended the Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive
principle of state policy and added Tribunals (323A).

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But the Fundamental Duties were inserted for the first time into the Constitution and it was not amended
in the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
42nd CONSTITUTIONAL AMENDMENT ACT
Preamble  This Act amended three new words into the preamble namely Socialist, Secular,
and Integrity.
 42nd CAA was only the amendment made in the Preamble.
Fundamental This Act amended Article 31C and Inserted new article 31D
Rights  Section 4 of the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976
amended Article 31C of the Constitution by substituting the words and figures “all
or any of the principles laid down in Part IV” for the words and figures "the
principles specified in Clause (b) or Clause (c) of Article 39".
 Article 31D defined "anti-national activity" and this Article 31D was subsequently,
omitted by the Constitution (43rd Amendment) Act, 1977.
Fundamental  On the recommendation of the Swaran Singh Committee, this act added Article
Duties 51A to the constitution.
 Article 51A contains 10 Fundamental Duties whereas the 11th Fundamental Duty
has been added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act,2002.
Directive This Act added four new Directives to the list:
Principle Of  Article 39 - To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children
State Policy  Article 39A - To promote equal justice and provide free legal aid to the poor
 Article 43A - To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the
management of industries
 Article 48A - To protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and
wildlife.
Tribunals  Tribunals were not mentioned in the Original Constitution whereas it was added
by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 in Part XIV to the constitution.
This Part Contains Two Articles namely,
 323A – Deals with Administrative Tribunals
 323B – Deals with Tribunals for other matters.

Q.23) Consider the following statements regarding Amendments to the Constitution.

1. All the Amendments to the Indian Constitution since 1950 have been passed by both houses of
Parliament.
2. An Amendment to the Indian Constitution must be approved by both houses of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2

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EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
1st constitutional Amendment act was passed in 1951, where the Rajya Sabha was not formed at that
time. So, Statement 1 can be eliminated.
In 1951, Constituent Assembly became the provincial parliament and exercised all the powers and
performed all the duties conferred by the constitution on the two Houses of Parliament and continued
to do so until the two Houses were duly constituted after the first general elections held in 1952.
Whereas the 1st constitutional Amendment act was passed by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951 by the
provincial Parliament when Rajya Sabha was not in existence. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Under Article 368 of the constitution of India, any amendment to the constitution may be initiated in
both houses of the parliament and it should be approved by both houses of the parliament by a special
majority (a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members
of the House present and voting), and the president must give his assent to the bill and thereupon the
Constitution shall stand amended in accordance with the terms of the bill. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
AMENDMENT OF THE CONSTITUTION

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 .
Process Of Under Article 368 of the constitution, An amendment of this Constitution
Amendment may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either
House of Parliament, and when the Bill is passed in each House by a
majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less
than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting, [it shall

be presented to the President who shall give his assent to the Bill and
thereupon] the Constitution shall stand amended in accordance with the
terms of the Bill
Provided that if such amendment seeks to make any change in
a. Article 54, Article 55, Article 73, Article 162 or Article 241,
b. Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI, Chapter I of Part XI, or
c. any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule, or
d. the representation of States in Parliament, or
e. the provisions of this article,
Then the amendment shall also require to be ratified by the Legislatures of
not less than one-half of the States by resolutions to that effect passed by

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those Legislatures before the Bill making provision for such amendment is
presented to the President for assent.

Q.24) Provision of Right to Education is included under which of the following rights?
(a) Cultural and educational rights
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Freedom
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
Right to education comes under article 21A, whereas Cultural and educational rights contains articles
29,30 and Right to Equality (14 to 18). So, Options (a) and (b) could be eliminated.
Cultural and educational rights (articles 29–30) safeguard the rights of religious linguistic minority
groups in India and enable them to preserve their distinct culture, language, or script.
(a) Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities (Article 29).
(b) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30)
So, Option (a) is not correct.
Right to equality assures equal rights to all people by prohibiting legal discrimination based solely on
caste, race, religion, sex, or place of birth.
The purpose of this right is to establish the rule of law where all the citizens should be treated equally
before the law.
It has five provisions (Articles 14-18) to provide for equality before the law or the protection of law to all
the persons in India and also to prohibit discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or
place of birth. So, Option (b) is not correct
The right to Freedom is one of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India covered
in Articles 19 to 22.
Provision of the right to education Article 21A is included in the right to Freedom.
 Articles 21A- declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of
the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine
 This provision was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002. This amendment
is a major milestone in the country’s aim to achieve ‘Education for All’ and it contains the
provisions of the right to freedom.
So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

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 .
Q.25) Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India provides a compromise between the doctrines of Parliamentary
sovereignty and Judicial Supremacy.
2. The Parliament of India can be considered sovereign in the sense of legal omnipotence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Constitution of India provides limitations upon the powers of the Legislature and Executive by the
enactment of Fundamental rights. This model has been taken from the US constitution, but India
doesn’t provide complete supremacy to the judiciary as the United States and maintains a compromise
between the doctrine of Parliamentary sovereignty and judicial supremacy. In India neither the
Parliament nor the Judiciary is supreme, India follows the concept of Constitutional supremacy. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
Legal omnipotence means one has an unlimited Power or Authority.
In Britain, the Parliament has unlimited power that follows the concept of Parliamentary sovereignty.
But the Parliament of India is created based on the provisions of the Constitution and the power of
Parliament is also restricted and limited only to those provisions enshrined in the Constitution like

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Fundamental Rights, distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and the States, etc. So, the
Parliament of India is not as sovereign as Britain in the sense of legal omnipotence. So, Statement 2
is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Concept of The doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament is associated with the British Parliament,
Parliamentary while the principle of judicial supremacy with that of the American Supreme Court.
Sovereignty Just as the Indian parliamentary system differs from the British system, the scope of
And Judicial judicial review power of the Supreme Court in India is narrower than that of what
Supremacy in exists in the US. This is because the American Constitution provides for ‘due process
The Indian of law’ against that of ‘procedure established by law’ contained in the Indian
Context Constitution (Article 21). Therefore, the framers of the Indian Constitution have
preferred a proper synthesis between the British principle of parliamentary sovereignty
and the American principle of judicial supremacy. The Supreme Court, on the one
hand, can declare the parliamentary laws unconstitutional through its power of
judicial review. The Parliament, on the other hand, can amend the major portion of
the Constitution through its constituent power.

Q.26) As per the Indian Constitution, the Separation of Judiciary from Executive is provided under
which of the following Article?
(a) Article 40
(b) Article 45
(c) Article 50
(d) Article 51
EXPLANATION:

Article 40 under DPSP deals with organisation of Village Panchayats and endow them with necessary
powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government. So, Option (a) is not
correct.
Article 45 under DPSP deals with the provision for Early childhood care and education to children below
the age of 6 years. So, Option (b) not is correct.
Article 50 under DPSP deals with separation of Judiciary from the Executive. It states that ‘The State
shall take steps to separate the Judiciary from the executive in the Public services of the state.’
E.g.: Criminal Procedure code which separated the executive and judicial functions of the executives
was enacted in consonance with this article. So, Option (c) is correct.
Article 51 under DPSP deals with promotion of international peace and security and in maintaining just
and honourable relations between nations. So, Option (d) is not correct.

Q.27) As of now, the Right to Property, under Article 300A, could be considered as a right in which of
the following ways?
1. Constitutional Right

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2. Statutory Right
3. Fundamental Right
4. Human Right
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) One option only
(b) Two options only
(c) Three options only
(d) All the four options
EXPLANATION:
 Article 300 A of the Indian Constitution states that Persons are not to be deprived of property save
by authority of law. No person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. It is
mentioned explicitly in the Constitution but outside part III. So, it is a Constitutional right but not
a Fundamental right.
 As 300 A is to be regulated by a normal law it is also a Statutory right.
 Recently the Supreme Court in Vidhya Devi vs The State of Himachal Pradesh & Others, held that
the Right to own Private Property is a human right and cannot be denied. So, the right to property
under article 300A is a human right.
 Hence, the right to property under Article 300A is a Constitutional right, Statutory right, Legal right,
and Human right. So, Option (c) is correct.
 Note – Article 300A includes tangible, and intangible [Eg. IPR], corporeal and incorporeal properties.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
VARIOUS TYPES OF RIGHTS

Universal and inherent to all living

Natural Rights
Types of Rights

things.

Similar to natural rights but

Human Rights
applicable only to humans.

Enshrined in part III of the

Fundamental
constitution and guaranteed by the
Rights
constitution.

Constitutional Provided in the constitution but are

Rights present outside Part III.

Statutory/Legal Provided to people by laws/statues

Right passed by the legislature.

Q.28) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Constitution.

1. Any expansion of Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution solely rests only on the
Parliament of India.

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2. The concept of Equality before law guarantees the idea of similarity of treatment as well as
identical treatment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Any expansion or alteration in fundamental rights could be done in two ways.
1. A Constitutional amendment by parliament
2. By judicial interpretation [E.g. Expansion of fundamental rights under Article 21]
So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Constitution of India under Article 14 states, “The State shall not deny to any person equality before
the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.”. It guarantees only the idea of
similarity of treatment but not identical treatment. The identical treatment is contradictory to the idea
of Equal protection of the law which allows positive discrimination in the favour of less privileged
groups. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Right To Equality  Article 14: “Equality before law - The State shall not deny to any person
equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory
of India.

Article 14

Equality before Law Equal Protection of law

Positive Concept Negative Concept

1. Advocates that no person is 1. Advocates that if two persons
above law and all are equal before belonging to two different
law, every individual has equal communities commit the same
access to the courts. crime, both of them will get the
same punishment.
2. Element of concept of Rule of
Law 2. It is not absolute.
3. Guarantees Similarity of
treatment but not identival
treatment.

Q.29) Why the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) could not be considered a ‘State’ under
Article 12 of the Indian Constitution?

35
 .
1. It is not created by any law of the Parliament.
2. The government does not have any share capital in the BCCI.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
According to Article 12 of the Indian Constitution, “the State” includes the Government and Parliament
of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States, and all local or other authorities
within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India. It also includes all agencies
of the government, private bodies, or agencies working as an instrument of the State. But BCCI does
not have such characteristics.
BCCI was formed in December 1928 as a society, registered under the Tamil Nadu Societies
Registration Act. It is not considered as a ‘State’ under Article 12 as it is not created by the law of
parliament. It is an autonomous body and doesn’t fall under the preview of the National Sports
Federation of India. Neither the government have any share capital in BCCI nor does the BCCI receive
any financial support from the government. So, it is not considered as a ‘State’ under Article 12 of the
Constitution of India. So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q.30) When personal liberty is taken away by competent legislation, then the person affected can have
no remedy. This statement implies which one of the following concepts?
(a) Procedure Established by Law
(b) Due Process of Law
(c) A law passed with reasonable restrictions
(d) A law passed during the National Emergency
EXPLANATION:
The Right to life and personal liberty is of utmost importance and very essential to the enjoyment of all
other rights. Personal liberty refers to the freedoms and dignity to be provided to all the citizens of the
country so that they can live in peace without the interference of the state in their life matters, which
can be limited only by the authority of a politically organized society.
When the personal liberty of a person is taken away by competent legislation (by passing a law in the
Parliament) through appropriate procedure, then the affected person is not able to seek any remedy
like approaching the court. Then the country is said to follow the concept of “Procedure Established
by Law”.
This concept of Procedure Established by Law can be witnessed in Britain, where the Parliament is
sovereign and even have the right to curtail the liberty of a person, where the affected person doesn’t
have any remedy. So, Option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

36
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Remedies Are  In the case of India, according to Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, “No
Available for a person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to
Person in India procedure established by law.” It guarantees that life or personal liberty
who is Deprived of shall not be taken away without the sanction of law.
his Personal  This Article guarantees freedom of life to every Indian citizen against
Liberty arbitrary action of the state.
 According to the interpretation made in Menaka Gandhi Case, the procedure
established by law includes the meaning of the due process of law.
 When a law is passed according to the procedure established by law, the
due process of law checks the fairness and justness of the law.
 Hence when a law is passed with a reasonable restriction that abridges the
personal liberty of a person, such person cannot avail of the remedy.
Procedure  Explicitly mentioned in Article 21 of the constitution.
Established By Law  It means that a law duly enacted by the legislature is valid only if the correct
procedure has been followed in enacting the law.
 In the A.K.Gopalan case, there has been a narrower interpretation of the
principle of Procedure established by Law.
 But in Menaka Gandhi's Case, the interpretation has been made wider and
held that the procedure established by law includes the due process of law
which check the validity and justness of the enacted law.
Due Process of Law  It is an American concept by origin.
 It checks the validity and just of a law enacted by the procedure established
by law.
 It guarantees the fairness of government and protects the people from
arbitrary and unreasonable actions of the government.

Q.31) Among the following organizations, which is the nodal agency for monitoring cyber security
incidents in India?
(a) Indian Computer Emergency Response System
(b) Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre
(c) National Cybercrime Threat Analytics Unit
(d) National Cybercrime Reporting
EXPLANATION:
 CERT-In stands for Indian Computer Emergency Response System.
 The constituency of CERT-In is the Indian Cyber Community.
 CERT-In is the national nodal agency for responding to computer security incidents as and when
they occur.
 In the Information Technology Amendment Act 2008, CERT-In has been designated to serve as the
national agency to perform the following functions in the area of cyber security:
• Collection, analysis and dissemination of information on cyber incidents.
• Forecast and alerts of cyber security incidents

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• Emergency measures for handling cyber security incidents
• Coordination of cyber incident response activities.
• Issue guidelines, advisories, vulnerability notes and whitepapers relating to information
security practices, procedures, prevention, response and reporting of cyber incidents.
• Such other functions relating to cyber security as may be prescribed
So, Option(a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Indian cyber-crime  Comes under the division of Ministry of Home Affairs.
coordination centre  Aim and Overview:
 To act as a nodal point in the fight against cybercrime
 Identify the research problems/needs of LEAs and take up R&D
activities in developing new technologies and forensic tools in
collaboration with academia / research institutes within India and
abroad
 To prevent misuse of cyber space for furthering the cause of extremist
and terrorist groups
 Suggest amendments, if required, in cyber laws to keep pace with fast
changing technologies and International cooperation
 To coordinate all activities related to implementation of Mutual Legal
Assistance Treaties (MLAT) with other countries related to cybercrimes
in consultation with the concerned nodal authority in MHA
 Various Components of the Scheme:
 National Cybercrime Threat Analytics Unit (TAU)
 National Cybercrime Reporting
 Platform for Joint Cybercrime Investigation Team
 National Cybercrime Forensic Laboratory (NCFL) Ecosystem
 National Cybercrime Training Centre (NCTC)
 Cybercrime Ecosystem Management Unit
 National Cyber Crime Research and Innovation Centre
National Cybercrime  It is a component of Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre.
Threat Analytics Unit  It falls under the division of Ministry of Home Affairs.
 Aim/Overview:
 Platform for analysing all pieces of puzzles of cybercrimes.
 Produce cybercrime threat intelligence reports and organize periodic
interaction on specific cybercrime centric discussions.
 Create multi-stakeholder environment for bringing together law
enforcement specialists and industry experts.
National Cybercrime  It is a component of Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre.
Reporting  It falls under the division of Ministry of Home Affairs.
 Aim/Overview:

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 Facilitate reporting of all types of cyber-crime incidents with special
focus on cyber-crime against women and children.
 Automated routing to concerned State/UT based on information
furnished in the reported incident for appropriate action in accordance
with law.
 Facilitate complainants to view status of action taken on the reported
incident.

Q.32) Which of the following Supreme Court verdicts is either directly or indirectly related to the Right
to Life and Liberty under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
1. AK Gopalan Case
2. Maneka Gandhi’s case
3. Puttaswamy Case
4. Vishaka Guidelines
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
The Vishaka guidelines mentions about the security needed for women in workplace which inhibits,
right to decency and dignity under Article 21. So, Option (d) could be arrived.
In the famous Gopalan case (1950), the Supreme Court has taken a narrow interpretation of Article 21.
It held that the protection under Article 21 is available only against arbitrary executive action and not
from arbitrary legislative action. This means that the State can deprive the right to life and personal
liberty of a person based on a law. This is because of the expression ‘procedure established by law’ in
Article 21, which is different from the expression ‘due process of law’ contained in the American
Constitution.
In the Maneka Gandhi case (1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgment in the Gopalan case by
taking a wider interpretation of Article 21. Therefore, it ruled that the right to life and personal liberty
of a person can be deprived by law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair,
and just. In other words, it has introduced the American expression ‘due process of law’. In effect, the
protection under Article 21 should be available not only against arbitrary executive action but also
against arbitrary legislative action.
In the seminal Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd) vs Union of India case, the Supreme Court of India
ordered, that the right to privacy is an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal freedom guaranteed
by the Indian Constitution under Article 21.
Vishaka Guidelines were laid down by the Supreme Court in Vishaka and Others Vs. State of Rajasthan
and Others case (1997) deals against sexual harassment in the workplace. These Guidelines States
that 'All employers or persons in charge of work place whether in the public or private sector should

39
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take appropriate steps to prevent sexual harassment.' Article 21 of the Indian constitution, gives force
to the guidelines by giving the right to women to be treated with decency and dignity. So, Option (d)
is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ARTICLE 21 OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION
Gopalan Case  The Supreme Court has taken a narrow interpretation of Article 21. It held
that the protection under Article 21 is available only against arbitrary
executive action and not from arbitrary legislative action.
 This means that the State can deprive the right to life and personal liberty of
a person based on a law. This is because of the expression ‘procedure
established by law’ in Article 21, which is different from the expression ‘due
process of law’ contained in the American Constitution.
 Hence, the validity of a law that has prescribed a procedure cannot be
questioned on the ground that the law is unreasonable, unfair, or unjust.
 Secondly, the Supreme Court held that ‘personal liberty’ means only liberty
relating to the person or body of the individual
Menaka Gandhi  The Supreme Court overruled its judgment in the Gopalan case by taking a
Case wider interpretation of Article 21. Therefore, it ruled that the right to life and
personal liberty of a person can be deprived by law provided the procedure
prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair, and just.
 In other words, it has introduced the American expression ‘due process of
law’. In effect, the protection under Article 21 should be available not only
against arbitrary executive action but also against arbitrary legislative action.
 Further, the court held that the ‘right to life’ as embodied in Article 21 is not
merely confined to animal existence or survival but includes within its ambit
the right to live with human dignity and all those aspects of life which go to
make a man’s life meaningful, complete and worth living.

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 It also ruled that the expression ‘Personal Liberty’ in Article 21 is of the widest
amplitude and it covers a variety of rights that go to constitute the personal
liberties of a man.

Q.33) Which one of the following is common for both the Indian political system and the British political
system?
(a) Republican System
(b) Prime Minister from either house of Parliament
(c) Political neutrality of Speaker
(d) Bicameralism
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
The British political system is a monarchical System with Queen as a head. So, Option (a) could be
eliminated.
The commonality Between the Indian Political System and the British Political System is Bicameralism
which contains Lok Sabha or House of the people is Modelled after the House of common in British
and Rajya Sabha or Council of states which is the House of Lords in the British political system. So,
Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Other Commonalities between Indian and British Political System
Republican System A Democratic Polity has two categories namely
 Monarchy
 Republic
In Monarchy, the Head of the state is usually a king or queen and they
enjoy the hereditary position as in Britain. Whereas in the Republic, the
Head of the state, is an elected individual (Direct or Indirect) as in India.
Prime Minister  In the British Political System, The Prime Minister should be a member of
the Lower house which is the House of Commons of the parliament
whereas, in India, the Prime Minister may be a member of any of the two
houses of the parliament.
Political Neutrality  Speaker is called as presiding officer of the Lower house of the parliament
Of Speaker in both systems. Whereas the difference is, conventionally, the Speaker
remains non-partisan and renounces all affiliation with his or her former
political party when taking office as speaker in the British political system,
whereas in India it is not mandatory to resign his political party when
taking office.
Q.34) Consider the following statements:

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1. The directives, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, requires legislation for its
implementation.
2. The Judiciary cannot issue the Writ of Mandamus against the state to enforce DPSP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Though the Directive Principles enshrined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution are non-justiciable
through the judiciary, the Constitution (Article 37) makes it clear that ‘these principles are fundamental
in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making
laws’. Thus, they impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application, but the real
force behind them is political, that is public opinion. Hence, it requires legislation for its
implementation. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Mandamus is an order issued to an authority to do the duty mandated to it by law which it has refused
to perform.
Directives Principles of State Policy are the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating
policies and enacting laws. These Principles are Non-Justiciable in Nature and not enforceable in the
courts.
Thus, the Writ of Mandamus cannot be issued by Judiciary against the state for the enforcement of
the DPSP. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY
Constitutional  The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the
Provisions Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
 The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution
of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
described these principles as ‘novel features of the Indian Constitution.
 The Directive Principles along with the Fundamental Rights contain the
philosophy of the Constitution and are the soul of the Constitution.
Features  The Directive Principles, though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in
examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law.
 The Supreme Court has ruled many times that in determining the
constitutionality of any law if a court finds that the law in question seeks to give
effect to a Directive Principle, it may consider such law to be ‘reasonable’ about
Article 14 (equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such
law from unconstitutionality.

Role  They facilitate stability and continuity in domestic and foreign policies in

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political, economic, and social spheres despite the changes in the party in
power.
 They are supplementary to the fundamental rights of the citizens. They are
intended to fill in the vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic
rights.
 Their implementation creates a favourable atmosphere for the full and proper
enjoyment of the fundamental rights of the citizens. Political democracy,
without economic democracy, has no meaning.
 They enable the opposition to exercise influence and control over the operations
of the government. The Opposition can blame the ruling party on the ground
that its activities are opposed to the Directives.
 They serve as a crucial test for the performance of the government. The people
can examine the policies and programs of the government in light of these
constitutional declarations.
 They serve as a common political manifesto. ‘A ruling party, irrespective of its
political ideology, has to recognize the fact that these principles are intended to
be its guide, philosopher, and friend in its legislative and executive acts.

Q.35) With reference to the Red Sanders, consider the following statements:
1. It has fallen into the ‘Critically Endangered’ category in the International Union for Conservation
of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List.
2. It is an Indian endemic tree species with a restricted geographical range on the Eastern slope of
Western Ghats.
3. It has therapeutic properties and an aromatic variety of sandalwood that mostly grows in rocky,
hilly regions.
Which of the statement given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
Red sanders are endemic to the mountains of Eastern Ghats. So, Options (a) and (c) could be
eliminated.
Red Sanders was classified as ‘near threatened’ in 2018 and has fallen back into the ‘endangered’ list
again in 2021. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
It is an Indian endemic tree species, which is restricted to geographical range in the Eastern Ghats
especially to Seshachalam forests of Andhra Pradesh. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Red Sanders a have rich hue & therapeutic properties and so are high in demand across
Asia. Particularly in China and Japan they are used in cosmetics and medicinal products. Unlike regular
sandalwood, it is non-aromatic. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

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Red Sanders  It is an Indian endemic tree species, which is restricted to geographical range in
the Eastern Ghats especially to Seshachalam forests of Andhra Pradesh.
 Red Sanders a have rich hue & therapeutic properties and so are high in demand
across Asia. Particularly in China and Japan they are used in cosmetics and
medicinal products.
 Unlike regular sandalwood, it is non-aromatic.
 The heartwood of it is heavily impregnated with ‘santalin’, a natural red dye
because of which it is valued and considered among the finest luxury woods
globally.
 IUCN Status – Endandered
 Included in Appendix II of CITES which advocates that “trade must be controlled
in order to avoid utilisation incompatible with their survival”.
 In 2019, its export policy has been revised by Directorate General of Foreign Trade,
under Ministry of Commerce & Industry, to permit the export of red sanders timber
if it is obtained from cultivated land.
IUCN  IUCN stands for International Union for Conservation of Nature.
 Created in 1948 as International Union for the Protection of Nature (IUPN).
 IUCN is now the world’s largest and most diverse environmental network,
harnessing the knowledge, resources, etc.
 IUCN Red list classification:

IUCN Red
List

Extinct in Near Least Data

Extinct Threatened
Wild Threatened Concern Insufficient

Critically
Endangered Vulnerable
Endangered

Decrerasing Order of Threat

 Criteria and Category for Threatened species:

Critically
Criteria Endangered Vulnerable
Endangered

Population 70% in 10
90% in 10 years 50% in 10 years
reduction years

Less than 50 in Less than 250 Less than 10,000

Population size
number in number in number

Probability of
20% in 20
Extinction in the 50% in 10 years 10% in 100 years
years
wild

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Risk of
extinction in the Extremely High Very High High
wild

 IUCN has six Commissions covers a wide range of disciplines:

1. Commission on Education and Communication
2. Commission on Environmental, Economic and Social Policy
3. Commission on Ecosystem Management
4. World Commission on Environmental Law
5. World Commission on Protected Areas
6. Species Survival Commission
 Vision of IUCN - “Just world that values and conserves nature”.
 IUCN Red List Index:
 The Red List Index (RLI) was developed to show the trends in overall extinction
risk for species and to provide an indicator for governments to track their
progress in achieving targets that reduce biodiversity loss.
 Currently, the RLI is available for only five taxonomic groups such as Birds,
mammals, amphibians, cycads and corals.
 RLI value ranges between 0 to 1. 0 for Least Concern and 1 for Extinct.

Q.36) What are the common objectives of the Prohibition as well as Certiorari under the Writ
Jurisdiction of the Indian Constitution?
1. To ensure the jurisdiction of an inferior court or tribunal is properly exercised.
2. To ensure that the functioning of the inferior courts is within the limits of its jurisdiction.
3. To quash the order or decision of the inferior court or tribunal.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The common objectives of the Prohibition, as well as Certiorari under the Writ Jurisdiction of the Indian
Constitution, are,
 The objective is to secure that the jurisdiction of an inferior court or tribunal is properly
exercised.
 It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its
jurisdiction or taking over the jurisdiction that it does not possess.
 The term Prohibition means ‘to forbid’. It is available during the pendency of the proceedings
and before the order is made.
 The term Certiorari means ‘to be certified’ or to be informed. It is issued by a higher court to a
lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case pending with the latter to itself.

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 .
So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
In Certiorari can be issued only after the order is made but Prohibition is issued during the proceedings
or the before the order is made.
Thus, quashing of order take place in Certiorari and not in Prohibition. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONALINFORMATION:
WRIT JURISDICTION
Habeas Corpus  It is a Latin term which means ‘to have the body of’. It is an order issued by
the court to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body
of the latter before it.
 The court then examines the cause and legality of detention. It would set the
detained person free if the detention is found to be illegal. Thus, this writ is
a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention
Mandamus  It means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public
official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused
to perform.
 It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court,
a tribunal, or a government for the same purpose.
Prohibition  The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial
authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative
bodies, and private individuals or bodies
Certiorari  Previously, the writ of certiorari could be issued only against judicial and
quasi-judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities.
 However, in 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari can be issued
even against administrative authorities affecting the rights of individuals.
 Like prohibition, certiorari is also not available against legislative bodies and
private individuals or bodies.
Quo Warranto  In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by
the court to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office.
Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person.
 The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a
permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution.
 It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Unlike the
other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not
necessarily by the aggrieved person.

Q.37) Consider the following provisions of the Indian Constitution:

1. Fundamental Rights
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties

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 .
Which one of the following amendments have made changes in all of the given above parts?
(a) 86th Amendment Act
(b) 1st Amendment Act
(c) 44th Amendment Act
(d) 97th Amendment Act
EXPLANATION:
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002, has added the following provisions to the
Constitution,
 Fundamental Rights under Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and
compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as
the State may determine.
 DPSP under Article 45 provides promotion for early childhood care and education for all
children until they complete the age of six years.
 Fundamental Duty under Article 51A provide opportunities for education to his child or ward
between the age of six and fourteen years. So, Option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
AMENDMENTS
1st Amendment  Empowered the state to make special provisions for the advancement of
socially and economically backward classes.
 Provided for the saving of laws providing acquisition of estates, etc. Added
Ninth Schedule to protect the land reform and other laws included in it
from the judicial review.
 Added three more grounds of restrictions on freedom of speech and
expression, viz., public order, friendly relations with foreign states, and
incitement to an offense. Also, made the restrictions “reasonable” and
thus, justiciable in nature
 Provided that state trading and nationalization of any trade or business
by the state is not to be invalid on the ground of violation of the right to
trade or business.
44th Amendment  Restored the original term of the Lok Sabha and the state legislative
assemblies (i.e., 5 years)."
 Restored the provisions about quorum in the Parliament and state
legislatures
 Omitted the reference to the British House of Commons in the provisions
about the parliamentary privileges
 Gave constitutional protection to publication in a newspaper of true
reports of the proceedings of the Parliament and the state legislatures.
Empowered the president to send back once the advice of the cabinet for
reconsideration. But, the reconsidered advice is to be binding on the
president.

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 .
 Deleted the provision which made the satisfaction of the president,
governor, and administrators final in issuing ordinances.
 Restored some of the powers of the Supreme Court and high courts
Replaced the term “internal disturbance” with “armed rebellion” in respect
of national emergency
 Made the President declare a national emergency only on the written
recommendation of the cabinet
 Made certain procedural safeguards concerning national emergency and
President’s rule.
 Deleted the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made
it only a legal right
 Provided that the fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21
cannot be suspended during a national emergency
 Omitted the provisions which took away the power of the court to decide
the election disputes of the president, the vice-president, the prime
minister, and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
97th Amendment The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave constitutional status
and protection to cooperative societies. In this context, it made the following
three changes in the constitution:
 It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article
191)
 It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on the promotion of
cooperative societies (Article 43-B)
 It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled “The Co-
operative Societies” (Articles 243-ZH to 243-ZT).

Q.38) With reference to the working of the constitution assembly, Consider the following Pairs:
Head of Committee
Committee
1. Jawaharlal Nehru - States Committee
2. G. V. Mavlankar - House Committee
3. Dr.Rajendra Prasad - Rule of Procedure
committee
4. Sardar Patel - Minorities and Tribal
and Excluded areas
Committee

How many pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All the pairs
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 .
EXPLANATION:
The constituent assembly appointed committees to handle different works of constitution making.
Of that 8 were major committees and others were minors.
 Jawaharlal Nehru - States Committee (Committee for Negotiating with States)
 Pattabhi Sitaramayya - House Committee
 Dr. Rajendra Prasad - Rules of Procedure Committee
 Sardar Patel - Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and
Excluded Areas
So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Important committees of the constituent assembly and their chairman

Name of the Committee Chairman

1. Committee on the Rules of Procedure Rajendra Prasad
2. Steering Committee Rajendra Prasad
3. Finance and Staff Committee Rajendra Prasad
Alladi Krishnaswami
4. Credential Committee
Ayyar
5. House Committee B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
6. Order of Business Committee K.M. Munsi
7. Ad hoc Committee on the National Flag Rajendra Prasad
8. Committee on the Functions of the Constituent
G.V. Mavalankar
Assembly
9. States Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
10. Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights,
Vallabhbhai Patel
Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas
11. Minorities Sub-Committee H.C. Mookherjee
12. Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee J.B. Kripalani
13. North-East Frontier Tribal Areas and Assam Exluded
Gopinath Bardoloi
& Partially Excluded Areas Sub-Committee
14. Excluded and Partially Excluded Areas (Other than
A.V. Thakkar
those in Assam) Sub-Committee
15. Union Powers Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
16. Union Constitution Committee Jawaharlal Nehru
17. Drafting Committee B.R. Ambedkar
Q.39) After the expansion of the scope of Article 19 by the Supreme Court, which of the following
provisions are included under its ambit?
1. Right to Access the Internet
2. Right to be Informed
3. Right not to Listen

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 .
Choose the correct answer from the options below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:
Right to the internet is the pathway to the future and the right to access the internet is necessary for
living a decent life and it is also a moral human right. In the Anuradha Bhasin vs. Union of India case,
Supreme Court held that freedom to practice any profession or carry on any trade, business, or
occupation over the medium of the internet enjoys Constitutional protection under Article 19(1)(a) and
Article 19(1)(g). Thus the scope of Article 19 was extended by Supreme Court and the Right to access the
Internet was added. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Supreme Court of India in Sabu Mathew George vs Union of India held that Article 19 which contains
freedom of expression included the right to be informed and the right to know. So, Statements 2 is
correct.
Supreme court of India in its P.A.Jacob vs Superintendent of police,AIR(1993) Kerala case ,said that “The
Right to Speech under Article 19(1)(a) implies, the Right to Silence. It also implies the Freedom, not to
Listen, and not to be forced to Listen. So, Statements 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ARTICLE 19
About Article 19 guarantees all citizens the six rights.
These are:
i. Right to freedom of speech and expression.
ii. Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
iii. Right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies.
iv. Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
v. Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
vi. Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade,
or business.
Freedom Of Speech The Supreme Court held that the freedom of speech and expression includes
And Expression the following:
a. Right to propagate one’s views as well as the views of others.
b. Freedom of the press.
c. Freedom of commercial advertisements.
d. Right against tapping of telephonic conversation.
e. Right to telecast, that is, the government has no monopoly on
Electronic media.
f. Right against bundh called by a political party or organization.
g. Right to know about government activities.
h. Freedom of silence.
i. Right against the imposition of pre-censorship on a newspaper.
j. Right to demonstration or picketing but not right to strike.
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Q.40) Which of the following river is not a part of the Cauvery river basin?
(a) Shimsha
(b) Arkavathi
(c) Suvarnavathi
(d) Manjeera
EXPLANATION:
 Manjeera River, which originates in Maharashtra, enters Karnataka before entering the state of
Telangana.
 It originates in the Balaghat range of hills near Ahmednagar district at an altitude of 823 meters
(2,700 ft)
 It is a tributary of the Godavari River. So, Option (d) is correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CAUVERY RIVER BASIN
Origin Talakaveri located in western ghats.
Other Names  ‘It is known as ‘Ponni’ in Tamil also known as the Ganga of the South.
 The fourth largest river of southern India.
Flows Through  Karnataka
 Tamilnadu
 Kerala
 Pondicherry
Soil Types  Black soils, red soils, laterites, alluvial soils, forest soils, and mixed soils are
the most common soil types found in the basin.
 Red soils cover a large portion of the basin.
Drains into Bay of Bengal
Tributaries of The Left Bank Right Bank
Cauvery River  Harangi  Lakshmantirtha
 Hemavati  Kabbani

 Shimsha  Suvarnavati
 Arkavati  Bhavani
 Noyil
 Amaravati

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Q.41) Mandamus can be issued under which of the following circumstances?
1. To indirectly restrain an authority from exercising statutory functions.
2. Against CJI acting in his/her judicial capacity.
3. To enforce contractual obligations against a Private body performing public duty.
Choose the correct answer from the options below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION:
Mandamus is a Latin word that means “we order “or “Command”. Mandamus is issued by the court
against any inferior court, public official, public body, corporation, tribunal, or the government and
it directs the persons or body who are bound to do a public duty or if he has a legal right to perform
and the performance which they are refusing to perform. Mandamus directs an authority to exercise
its statutory functions and it cannot be issued to directly or indirectly restrain an authority from
performing or exercising its statutory functions. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Mandamus cannot be issued against the president or governor of the state, against the Chief Justice
of India, or the Chief Justice of a high court acting in a judicial capacity. It cannot be issued against
a private individual or body. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The Supreme court held that mandamus can be issued to enforce contractual obligations only when
the contractual relationship is related to public duty. If the contractual relationship does not have
any public duty element, then a mandamus cannot be issued. So, Statement 3 is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORM.ATION:
Mandamus About It means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court
to a public official asking him to perform his official duties
that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be
issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior
court, a tribunal, or a government for the same purpose.

It Cannot Be The writ of mandamus cannot be issued

Issued To a. Against a private individual or body;
b. To enforce departmental instruction that does
not possess statutory force;
c. When the duty is discretionary and not
mandatory;
d. To enforce a contractual obligation;
e. Against the president of India or the state
governors;
f. Against the chief justice of a high court acting in
a judicial capacity.
Public Under Section 2 of The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, Public duty is defined
Duty as a duty in the discharge of which the state, the public, or the Community at large
has an interest. Here State includes a corporation established by or under a central,
provincial, or state Act, or an authority or a body owned or controlled or aided by
the Government or a Government company as defined in section 617 of the
Companies Act.

Q.42) Recently, a volcano erupted on the Southern Pacific Island of Tonga, which triggered Tsunami
waves around the Pacific. Consider the following statements regarding this volcano:
1. It is an Above-sea Volcanic Eruption consisting of two small uninhabited islands, Hunga-Ha’apai
and Hunga-Tonga.
2. The Tonga Islands occur along the Ring of Fire - a perimeter of heightened volcanic and seismic
activity encircles the Pacific Ocean basin.
3. Around 90% of the world’s earthquakes, and 80% of the world’s largest earthquakes occur in the
Pacific Ring of Fire.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Hunga-haapai and Hunga-tonga are two undersea volcanic eruptions and these are the Small
uninhabited islands present in the Kermadec-Tongo Ridge in the western south Pacific Ocean which is

53
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formed by the Convergent Boundary where the pacific plate is subducted by the Indo-Australian Plate.
So, Statement 1 is not correct.

This Tongo island is one of the 12 confirmed submarine volcanoes along the Kermadec-Tongo volcanic
arc. According to the report, the Tongo volcano is in the vicinity of the Pacific Ring of Fire and at a close
distance of 60 kilometers from the island nation of Tonga. The ring of fire is an area along the Pacific
Ocean that is characterized by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The ring of fire is home to about 75 percent of the world’s volcanoes – more than 450 volcanoes. Also,
about 90 percent of the world’s earthquakes occur here, where about 81 percent of our planet's largest
earthquakes occur in this region. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
RING OF FIRE
About  The Ring of Fire also referred to as the Circum-Pacific Belt, is a path along the
Pacific Ocean characterized by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes. Its
length is approximately 40,000 kilometers.
 Mount Ruapehu in New Zealand, Mount Tambora in Indonesia, and Mount Fuji
were some of the volcanoes present in the ring of fire.
Plates  The movement of Tectonic plates or tectonic activity makes this region prone to
abundant earthquakes, volcanoes, and tsunamis every year.
 The plates associated with this area were the Pacific plate, Philippine Plate, Juan
de Fuca plate, Cocos plate, Nazca plate, and North American plate
 The abovementioned plates overlap at convergent boundaries and are called the
Subduction zone.

Q.43) With respect to the Constitution of India, which of the following statements holds good?
1. Equality before the law
2. Primacy of the rights of the individual as defined by the courts.
3. Source of the Rights of an Individual is the Constitution.
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 .
Choose the correct answer from the options below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The concept of “Equality Before law” is an element of the concept of “Rule of law”, propounded by
A.V.Dicey which was incorporated in the Indian constitution in Article 14 which provides that the State
shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the
territory of India which means a declaration of equality of all persons within the territory of India,
implying thereby the absence of any privilege in favor of any individuals. This right is available for both
citizens and foreigners. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Rule of law according to the British has three elements. They are
1. Absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man can be punished except for a breach of law.
2. Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens (rich or poor, high or low, official
or non-official) to the ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary law courts.
These two elements are applicable to the Indian System.
3. The primacy of the rights of the individual, that is, the constitution is the result of the rights of
the individual as defined and enforced by the courts of law rather than the constitution being the
source of the individual rights.
This element is followed in Britain whereas in the Indian context, it is not true, and the Indian
constitution is the source of Individual rights.
So, Statement 2 is not correct and Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
RULE OF LAW
ABOUT The concept of ‘equality before the law’ is an element of the Concept of ‘Rule of Law’,
propounded by A.V. Dicey, the British jurist and Supreme court held that the Rule of
Law is a part of Basic Feature Of the Constitution and it cannot be destroyed by an
amendment.

Q.44) With reference to the making of the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements is/are
not correct?
1. The demand for a Constituent Assembly for India was accepted by the British through the August
Offer.
2. The Constituent Assembly had only elected members.
3. Satyendra Prasad Sinha served as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.
Choose the correct answer from the options below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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EXPLANATION:
In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a
Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India. The demand was finally accepted in principle
by the British Government in what is known as the ‘August Offer’ of 1940. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Constituent Assembly was to be a partly elected and partly nominated body. Moreover, the
members were to be indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies, who themselves
were elected on a limited franchise.
The members of the Constituent assembly were indirectly elected by the members of the provincial
assemblies by the method of a single transferable vote system of proportional representations. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.
The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the
oldest member, was elected as the temporary President of the Assembly. So, Statement 3 is not
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
MAKING OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION
Demand For A  In 1934 that the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put
Constituent Assembly forward for the first time by M.N. Roy.
 The demand was finally accepted in principle by the British Government
in what is known as the ‘August Offer’ of 1940.
 In 1942, Sir Stafford Cripps, a Member of the Cabinet, came to India
with a draft proposal of the British Government on the framing of an
independent Constitution to be adopted after World War II.
 The Cripps Proposals were rejected by the Muslim League.
Composition Of The  The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the
Constituent Assembly scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.
 Constituent Assembly was to be a partly elected and partly nominated
body.
 Moreover, the members were to be indirectly elected by the members of
the provincial assemblies, who themselves were elected on a limited
franchise.
 Although the Constituent Assembly was not directly elected by the
people of India on the basis of adult franchise, the Assembly comprised
representatives of all sections of the Indian society–
Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Parsis, Anglo-Indians, Indian Christians, SCs,
and STs including women of all these sections.
 The Assembly included all important personalities of India at that time,
with the exception of Mahatma Gandhi.
Working Of The  The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946.
Constituent Assembly  Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Assembly.

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 .
 Similarly, both H.C. Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari were elected as
the Vice-Presidents of the Assembly.
 In other words, the Assembly had two Vice-Presidents.

Q.45) On the eve of Republic Day, the Padma awards were announced. In this regard, consider the
following statements about the Padma Awards:
1. It was instituted in 1954 along with Bharat Ratna.
2. The awards are given in three categories.
3. None of the awardees rejected the awards till date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
 The Government of India instituted two civilian awards -Bharat Ratna and Padma Vibhushan
in 1954.
 Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, are announced every year on the
occasion of Republic Day except for brief interruptions during the years 1978 and 1979 and
1993 to 1997. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The award is given in three categories namely,
 Padma Vibhushan for exceptional and distinguished service;
 Padma Bhushan for distinguished service of a high order; and
 Padma Shri for distinguished service.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
 Many people have refused to accept the Padma Bhushan award.
 Some of them are singer Janaki, Keshub Mahindra, etc and recently, Buddhadeb Bhattacharjee
refused to accept the Padma Bhushan award, in 2022.
So, Statement 3 is not correct

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Padma Awards  It is one of the highest civilian honors of India announced annually on the
eve of Republic Day.
 The award seeks to recognize achievements in all fields of activities or
disciplines where an element of public service is involved.
 The Padma Awards are conferred on the recommendations made by the
Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister
every year.
 The nomination process is open to the public. Even self-nomination can
be made.

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 Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award in the country. It is awarded in
recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any
Bharat Ratna field of human endeavor.
 It is treated on a different footing from Padma Award.
 The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to
the President of India.
 The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of three
in a particular year
 The first-ever Indian to receive this award was the famous scientist, Dr.
Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman.

Q.46) Part III of the Indian Constitution has provisions for both Indian citizens and foreigners other
than enemy aliens. Which of the following rights are available exclusively for Indian citizens?
1. Freedom of Speech and Expression
2. Freedom to Manage religious affairs
3. Right of Minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
Choose the correct answer from the options below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
Article 26: Freedom to manage religious affairs of the Indian Constitution are applicable to all persons,
whether they are a citizen of India or not (except enemy aliens). So, Statement 2 could be eliminated.
Part III of the Indian constitution deals with Fundamental Rights from Article 14 to 32, where only
the following Fundamental rights were available exclusively for Indian citizens. They are
 Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth (Article 15).
 Equality of Opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16)
 Protection of six rights regarding freedom of (i) speech and expression, (ii) assembly, (iii)
association, (iv) movement, (v) residence, and (vi) profession (Article 19).
 Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21).
 Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30).
Where Freedom to manage religious affairs under Article 226 of the Constitution is available to both
citizens and foreigners (except Enemy Alien). So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
Fundamental rights are available only to Fundamental rights are available to both
citizens and not to foreigners citizens & foreigners (except enemy aliens)

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 .
 Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination  Article 14: Equality before the law and equal
on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, protection of laws.
or place of birth.
 Article 16: Equality of opportunity in  Article 20: Protection in respect of conviction
matters of public employment. for offenses.
 Article 19: Protection of six rights  Article 21: Protection of life and personal
regarding freedom of liberty.
I. speech and expression,
II. Assembly
III. Association,
IV. Movement
V. Residence
VI. Profession.
 Article 29: Protection of language,  Article 21A: Right to elementary education.
script, and culture of minorities.
 Article 30: Right of minorities to  Article 22: Protection against arrest and
establish and administer educational detention in certain cases.
institutions.
 Article 23: Prohibition of traffic and human
beings and forced labor.

 Article 24: Prohibition of employment of

children in factories etc.

 Article 25: Freedom of conscience and free

profession, practice, and propagation of
religion.

 Article 26: Freedom to manage religious

affairs.

 Article 27: Freedom from payment of taxes

for promotion of any religion.

 Article 28: Freedom from attending religious

instruction or worship in certain educational
institutions.

Q.47) ‘Academic Bank of Credit’ was in the news recently. In this context, consider the following
statements:
1. It is proposed under the National Education Policy 2020.
2. It is set up by IIT Delhi.

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3. This allows students to pursue up to 50 percent of a course from institutions other than the one
with which they are enrolled.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
ABC framework is part of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and will allow higher education
institutions to maintain a digital repository of credits earned by students. So, Statement 1 is correct
It was set up by the University Grants Commission(UGC) and not by IIT Delhi. So, Statement 2 is not
correct.
The government has brought the IITs, IIMs, and other Institutions of National Importance (INIs) under the
Academic Bank of Credit (ABC) framework, which allows students to pursue up to 50 percent of a course
from institutions other than the one with which they are enrolled. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ACADEMIC BANK OF CREDIT
About  It is a virtual/digital storehouse that contains information on the credits
earned by individual students throughout their learning journey.
 It will enable students to open their accounts and give multiple options
for entering and leaving colleges or universities
Aim To enable students to switch between institutions and multiple entries and
exits for the course.
Registration On July 28, 2021, regulations made it compulsory for higher education
institutions that received an ‘A’ grade from the National Assessment and
Accreditation Council (NAAC) or fall in the top 100 National Institutions
Ranking Framework (NIRF) rankings, to register for Academic Bank Of
Credit (ABC).

Q.48) Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Rights in India:
1. The Right to vote is a fundamental right available to citizens only.
2. Right to Know about the candidates contesting the election is a fundamental right of the voters.
3. Non-Resident Indians (NRI) are provided with Electoral Photo Identity Card(EPIC) to vote in the
elections in India.
Which of the above statements is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

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 .
EXPLANATION:
According to Article 325 of the Indian Constitution, “No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to
claim to be included in a special, electoral roll-on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex”. The right to
vote is enshrined in the constitution but not under part III of the constitution. Hence it is a
constitutional right and not a fundamental right. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
A meaningful democracy can be developed only when qualitative representatives are elected by the
people. Supreme court of India in the Resurgence India Vs Election Commission of India (2013) Case
Judgement held that a voter has the elementary right to know full particulars of the candidate who
is to represent him in the Parliament and such right to get information is a universally recognised
natural Right flowing from the concept of the Democracy and it is an integral part of the Fundamental
Right under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
NRI can vote in the elections of India if they have their names enrolled in the electoral roll. But the
only way they can vote is by physical presence in their constituencies.
An overseas (NRI) elector is not issued an EPIC as he is allowed to cast his vote in an election in the
constituency, in person at the polling station on production of his original passport.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.49) Which of the following are part of Fundamental Rights in India?

1. Right to elementary education until the age of 14 years of age
2. Right to Speedy trial in all stages
3. Right to sleep
4. Right to Free and Fair trial
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
According to Article 21A of the Indian Constitution, “the State shall provide free and compulsory
education to all children of the age group of 6-14 years in such a manner as the state may, by law,
determine.” Hence, right to elementary education until the age of 14 years of age is a fundamental
right. So, Statement 1 is Correct.
The Supreme Court of India, with a liberal interpretation to Article 21 of the constitution which
deals with Protection of life and personal liberty, it had included several rights under article 21 such
as,
 Right to live with dignity
 Right to privacy
 Right to health
 Right to speedy trial in all stages
 Right to travel abroad

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 .
 Right to free and fair trial
 Right to sleep and so on.
So Statements 2 and 3 and 4 are correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Fundamental They are the rights mentioned in part III of the Indian Constitution that would
Rights be specially protected called as ‘Fundamental Rights’. The word fundamental
emphasizes that,
 the Constitution has made special provisions for their protection;
 these rights are Justiciable;
 these rights are part of the Constitution and have Constitutional Status.
Characteristics  They are guaranteed under the Constitution stand higher than ordinary laws.
of the  The Supreme Court and the High Courts have been given the power to enforce
Fundamental Fundamental Rights through the writs, orders or directions.
Rights  Though some of them are meant only for the citizens, there are rights for the
noncitizens also.
 Many reasonable restrictions have been placed on the enjoyment of
Fundamental Rights. It implies that they are not absolute.
 The courts are free to investigate regarding the reasonability of the restrictions
imposed by the government.
Expansion of
Expansion of
Fundamental Fundamental
Rights Rights

By Constitutional By Judicial
Ammendment Interpretation

Eg. Article 21A was

Eg. Expanding the
inserted by 86th
scope of Article 21.
CAA

Q.50) Recently Airtel Payment Bank Ltd. has become Scheduled Bank. Consider the following
statements.
1. Airtel Payments Bank Ltd. is registered under the Second Schedule to The Banking Regulation
Act,1949.
2. Due to schedule status, Airtel Payment Bank Ltd. has to follow the guidelines such as 9% of
CRAR, followed by Scheduled Commercial Banks in India.
3. Also, it can lend money to its customer.
Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
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 .
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
In India the Payments bank cannot lend loans. So, statement 3 is not correct. Hence Option c can be
selected.
Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has included Airtel Payments Bank Ltd. In the Second Schedule
of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 which means it has been categorized as a Scheduled Bank. So,
Statement 1 is not correct.
As per RBI guidelines, all Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and Private Sector Banks are required to maintain
a minimum Capital to Risk-weighted Assets (CRAR) of 9%. Airtel Payments Bank Ltd. Is added to the
Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, and as a payment bank it is supposed to
maintain a CRAR 15%. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
As a Scheduled commercial bank, Airtel Payments Bank Ltd. Can accept deposits, lend money to
customers (giving loans) and provide other financial services to earn profit. It can also provide basic
financial products like certificates of deposit (CDs) and savings accounts to individuals and small
businesses.
Airtel Payment Bank cannot lend Money to its customer though it added in 2nd schedule of RBI Act,
1934. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

Banks in India

Non
Scheduled
Scheduled
Bank
Banks

Commercial Cooperative Differentiated

Banks Banks banks

Public Sector Private Sector Regional Rural Payment Small Finance

Banks Banks Banks Banks Banks

Q.51) With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Unlike in the USA, Naturalized citizens can become the Head of state.
2. Oath of Allegiance is mandatory for Naturalization.
3. Citizens living outside India continuously for 7 years will be deprived of their citizenship
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 .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All the above
EXPLANATION:
In USA for a person to become the head of State, he should be a Naturally born citizen of USA. In case
of India, according to Article 58 of the constitution the Qualifications for election as President is a person
should be a citizen of India. Hence, a naturalized citizen can become a Head of State in India. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
For a person who is receives Indian citizenship by naturalization, the oath of allegiance must be taken
to the constitution of India. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The citizen of India can be deprived of his citizenship by the order of central government if,
 The person has obtained the citizenship by fraud.
 The citizen is found to be disloyal to the constitution.
 The citizen who obtained citizenship by naturalisation or registration is imprisoned in any country
for two years within 5 years of obtaining the citizenship.
 The citizen has been residing ordinarily outside the country for 7 years (Has exception for students,
person working in the service of government of India, who have registered annually at an Indian
consulate to retain his citizenship) So, Statement 3 is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
 It is defined as the legal status of membership in a political community.
 It is a relationship between an individual and state to which individual
owes allegiance and in turn is entitled to its protection.
Citizenship
 It implies the status of freedom along with responsibilities.
 In political theory, citizenship refers to the rights and duties of the
members of a nation-state.
 Is someone who is free to act by law, free to ask and expect the law’s
Citizen
protection.
 In India there is only single citizenship which means that every Indian is
Citizenship in India a citizen of India, irrespective of the place of his/her residence or place of
birth.
 As per the powers provide by the Constitution to Parliament by Article 11,
it enacted the Citizenship Act of 1955.
 This Act regulates the different modes of acquiring and terminating the
Citizenship of India.
Citizenship Act,
 Ways for acquiring Citizenship of India:
1955
• Citizenship by birth
• Citizenship by descent
• Citizenship by registration
• Citizenship by naturalisation

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• Citizenship by incorporation of territory
 Special provisions as to citizenship of persons covered by Assam Accord
 Ways for terminating Citizenship of India:
• Renunciation
• Termination
• Deprivation
PART - II
 Article 5 – Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution.
 Article 6 – Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to
India from Pakistan.
Constitutional  Article 7 – Rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan.
Provisions  Article 8 – Rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing
outside India.
 Article 9 – Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign State not
to be citizens.
 Article 10 – Continuance of the rights of citizenship.
 Article 11 states that, “Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by
law. - Nothing in the foregoing provisions of this Part shall derogate from
Sole Authority in the power of Parliament to make any provision with respect to the
deciding on matters of acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to
citizenship citizenship.”
 i.e., The Parliament is the sole authority empowered to make laws
regarding citizenship in India.
 The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 aims to facilitate grant of
citizenship to migrants belonging to Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi or
Christian community from Pakistan, Bangladesh and Afghanistan who
Citizenship entered into India on or before the 31.12.2014 and who have been
Amendment Act, 2019 exempted by the Central Government by or under clause (c) of sub-section
(2) of section 3 of the Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920 or from the
application of the provisions of the Foreigners Act, 1946 or any rule or
order made thereunder.

Q.52) The Advisory Board for extending the period of detention for a person detained by order of the
Government of India should be constituted on the recommendation of,
(a) The Supreme Court of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The High Court of Delhi
(d) The President of India
EXPLANATION:
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act provides that, “As a further check against the misuse of the
Emergency provisions and to put the right to life and liberty on a secure footing, it would be provided

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that the power to suspend the right to move the court for the enforcement of a fundamental right cannot
be exercised in respect of the fundamental right to life and liberty. The right to liberty is further
strengthened by the provision that a law for preventive detention cannot authorise, in any case,
detention for a longer period than two months, unless an Advisory Board has reported that there is
sufficient cause for such detention. An additional safeguard would be provided by the requirement that
the Chairman of an Advisory Board shall be a serving Judge of the appropriate High Court and that the
Board shall be constituted in accordance with the recommendations of the Chief Justice of that High
Court.”
Here the appropriate High Court refers to,
 For a person detained by the order of Government of India it is the High Court of the Union territory
of Delhi.
 For a person detained by the order of Government of any State (other than a Union territory), it is
the High Court for that State.
 For a person detained by the order of the administrator of a Union territory, it is the High Court as
may be specified by or under any law made by Parliament.
The date for the substitution of this provision under article 22 is yet to be notified by the Government.
So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ARTICLE 22 OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION
About  Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained. Detention is
of two types, namely, punitive and preventive.
 Punitive detention is to punish a person for an offence committed by him after
trial and conviction in a court.
 Preventive detention, on the other hand, means the detention of a person without
trial and conviction by a court. Its purpose is not to punish a person for a past
offence but to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future. Thus,
preventive detention is only a precautionary measure and is based on suspicion.
 Article 22 has two parts–the first part deals with the cases of ordinary law and
the second part deals with the cases of preventive detention law.
First Part The first part of Article 22 confers the following rights on a person who is arrested
or detained under an ordinary law:
(i) Right to be informed of the grounds of arrest.
(ii) Right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner
(iii) Right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours including the
journey time.
(iv) Right to be released after 24 hours unless the magistrate authorises
further detention.

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 These safeguards are not available to an enemy alien or a person arrested or
detained under a preventive detention law.
 The Supreme Court also ruled that the arrest and detention in the first part of
Article 22 do not cover arrest under the orders of a court, civil arrest, arrest
on failure to pay the income tax, and deportation of an alien.
 They apply only to an act of a criminal or quasi-criminal nature or some
activity prejudicial to the public interest.
Second Part The second part of Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained
under a preventive detention law. This protection is available to both citizens as well
as aliens and includes the following:
(i) The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless the advisory
board reports sufficient cause for extended detention The board is to
consist of judges of a high court.
(ii) The grounds of detention should be communicated to the detenu. However,
the facts considered to be against the public interest need not be disclosed
(iii) The detenu should be allowed to make representation against the detention
order.

Q.53) In the Constitution of India, Article 31(A) deals with, “Saving of laws providing for the acquisition
of estates, etc.”. Here the term “estate” refers to,
1. Any land held under the Ryotwari settlement.
2. Any land held for purposes of agriculture, including wasteland.
3. Structures occupied by agricultural labourers.
Which of the following statements is/are Correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
According to Article 31(A) which deals with, “Saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates,
etc”. The term “estate” refers to,
 any land held under Ryotwari settlement and
 any land held or let for purposes of agriculture or purposes ancillary thereto, including waste
land, forest land, land for pasture
 sites of buildings and other structures occupied by cultivators of land, agricultural labourers
and village artisans. So, Option (d) is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ARTICLE 31A OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION
Constitutional  Article 31A saves five categories of laws from being challenged and invalidated
Provisions on the ground of contravention of the fundamental rights conferred by Article

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14 (equality before law and equal protection of laws) and Article 19 (protection
of six rights in respect of speech, assembly, movement, etc.).
 They are related to agricultural land reforms, industry and commerce and
include the following:
o Acquisition of estates and related rights by the State;
o Taking over the management of properties by the State;
o The amalgamation of corporations;
o Extinguishment or modification of rights of directors or shareholders
of corporations; and
o Extinguishment or modification of mining leases.
 Article 31A does not immunise a state law from judicial review unless it has
been reserved for the president’s consideration and has received his assent.
 This Article also provides for the payment of compensation at market value
when the state acquires the land held by a person under his personal
cultivation and the land is within the statutory ceiling limit.

Q.54) Which of the following are the characteristics of Liberalism?

1. Individual Liberty
2. Nationalisation of Industries
3. Limited State
4. Democracy
Which of the above elements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) All of the above
EXPLANATION:
Liberalism is a political and moral philosophy based on the rights of the
individual, liberty, consent of the governed and equality before the law. The characteristics of
Liberalism are,
 Welfare – The idea that the state works for the welfare of the people
 Democracy – Liberalism is an exponent of democratic government
 Limited State – view the state as a means for attaining the good of the individual
 Capitalist economy – Liberalism advocates the free market economy.
 Individual Liberty – It is the very essence of the human personality
 Individual-centred – Liberalism begins and ends with the individual
 Opposed to Traditions or Superstitions – opposed to all reactionary measures
So, Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
Nationalisation of Industries is a socialistic principle that curbs the free market economy which does
not advocate Liberalism. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

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Q.55) Recently The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) is developed by the Indian Space Research
Organization for launching a satellite in space. Consider the following statement related to SSLV.
1. It has been designed to meet “Launch on Demand” requirements and with the capability to
support multiple orbital drop-offs.
2. It has four stages, an alternate solid-liquid vehicle with the capability to launch up to 500 kg
satellite mass.
3. Antrix corporation limited will be the sole nodal agency for its development.
Which of the statement given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
SSLV is a “Launch on Demand” Vehicle perfectly suited for launching multiple microsatellites at a time
and supports multiple orbital drop-offs. It is a Cost Effective Launcher for Small and Micro Satellites.
So, Statement 1 is Correct.
It has three stage solid propulsion system, and like the PSLV and GSLV, can accommodate multiple
satellite. Also have the capability to launch up to 500 kg satellite mass into 500 km Low Earth Orbit
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
New Space India Limited (NSIL) a commercial arm of ISRO will be the sole nodal agency for its
development. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SSLV  Developed by ISRO to crater the emerging global small satellite launch
service market.
 Nodal Agency: Newspace India Limited (NSIL) a Govt. of India company
under Department of Space and the commercial arm of ISRO will be the
sole nodal agency responsible for providing end to end SSLV launch
service.
 Salient Features:
 Launch capacity in 500km circular orbit:
 500 kg in Lower Earth Orbit
 300 kg in Sun Synchronous Orbit
 Salient Features:
 Launch on Demand
 Lower per kg launch cost
 Reduced turnaround time
 Increased production rate from industries
 Multiple satellite mounting options
 Vehicle Configuration:
 Solid 3 stage propulsion stage
 Liquid Velocity trimming module as terminal stage.
 Can be assembled both Horizontally and vertically.

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NSIL  Vision - Excel in providing space-related products and services emanating
from Indian Space Programme to global customers and to further spur the
growth of Indian Industry in undertaking technologically challenging space-
related activities.
 Mission - Enabling Indian Industries to scale up a high-technology
manufacturing base for space programme through technology transfer
mechanisms and catering to emerging global commercial small satellite
launch service market, satellite services for various domestic and
international application needs and enabling space technology spin-offs for
the betterment of mankind through industry interface.
 NSIL mandate:
 Owning satellites for Earth Observation and Communication
applications and providing space-based services
 Building satellites and launching them as per demand
 Providing Launch Services for satellite belonging to customer
 Building launch vehicles through Indian Industry and launch as per
satellite customer requirement
 Space based Services related to Earth Observation and Communication
satellites on commercial basis
 Satellite building through Indian Industry
 Technology Transfer to Indian Industry

Q.56) Consider the following statements with respect to the definition of ‘State’ in the Indian context:
1. Article 12 defines ‘State’ which includes not only Executive and legislative organs of the Union
and States but also local bodies.
2. Article 36 defines ‘State’ as a permanent territory that implements the policies as enshrined in
directive principles.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning Fundamental Rights. Hence, Article
12 has defined the term ‘State’ for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the
following:
 Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union
Government.
 Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state government
 All local authorities, that is, Municipalities, Panchayats, District boards, improvement trusts, etc.
 All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
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According to Article 36, the term ‘State’ in Part IV has the same meaning as mentioned in Article 12
under Part III dealing with Fundamental Rights. Therefore, it includes the legislative and executive
organs of the central and state governments, all local authorities and all other public authorities in the
country within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India which implements
the policies as enshrined in directive principles.
Every state must have
 a Population,
 a Definite territory,
 a Duly Established Government and
 Sovereignty.
The Article 12 of the Indian constitution mentions only the phrase “The Territory of India” not
Permanent Territory because the territory is prone to change. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Q.57) Consider the following Rights:

1. Right to Freedom of religion
2. Right to Life and Personal liberty
3. Right to Form Cooperative societies
4. Abolition of Untouchability
5. Right to reside in any part of the territory of India
Which of the above statements is/are part of the Right to Freedom in the Constitution of India?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 3 and 5 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
The Right to Freedom of religion (Article 25–28) is one of the Fundamental Rights of the constitution.
Article 25 says that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely
profess, practice, and propagate religion.
Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals). Moreover,
these rights are available to all persons–citizens as well as non-citizens. So, Statement 1 is not
correct.
Constitution of India provides for Right to Freedom in Article 19 to 22 under Fundamental Rights.
They are,
 Article 19 - Protection of certain rights concerning the freedom of Speech etc
 Article 20 - Protection with respect to conviction for offences
 Article 21 - Right to life and personal liberty
 Article 21A - Right to Education
 Article 22 - Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases

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Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to
the procedure established by law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens are part of
the right to freedom in the constitution of India. So Statement 2 is correct.
The right to freedom guarantees freedom for citizens to live a life of dignity among other things. These
are given in Articles 19, 20, 21A, and 22 of the Indian Constitution. These rights aim to promote the
ideals of liberty held by the Preamble in newly independent India, remove inequalities amongst the
individuals, and entitle all individuals to a dignified life. The right to form cooperative societies and
the Right to reside in any part of the territory of India is part of the right to freedom under Article 19
of the constitution of India
So, Statement 3 and 5 are correct.
Article 17 - Abolition of Untouchability. "Untouchability" is abolished and its practice in any form is
forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of "Untouchability" shall be an offence
punishable in accordance with the law.
The Supreme Court held that the right under Article 17 is available against private individuals and it
is the constitutional obligation of the State to take necessary action to ensure that this right is not
violated. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
RIGHT TO FREEDOM (Articles 19–22)
Protection Of Article 19 guarantees all citizens the six rights. These are:
SixRights (i) Right to freedom of speech and expression.
(ii) Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
(iii) Right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies.
(iv) Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
(v) Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
(vi) Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation,
trade or business.
Protection In Respect Article 20 grants protection against arbitrary and excessive
Of Conviction For punishment to an accused person, whether citizen or foreigner or legal
Offences person like a company or a corporation. It contains three provisions in
that direction:
(a) No ex-post-facto law: No person shall be (i) convicted of any
offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of the commission of
the act, nor (ii) subjected to a penalty greater than
that prescribed by the law in force at the time of the commission
of the act.
(b) No double jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and
punished for the same offence more than once.
(c) No self-incrimination: No person accused of any offence shall be
compelled to be a witness against himself

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Right To Education Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory
education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner
as the State may determine. Thus, this provision makes only elementary
education is a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional education.
This provision was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment
Act of 2002. This amendment is a major milestone in the country’s aim to
achieve ‘Education for All.
Protection Against Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained.
Arrest And Detention Detention is of two types, namely, punitive and preventive.
Punitive Punitive detention is to punish a person for an
detention offence committed by him after trial and
conviction in a court

It means the detention of a person without trial

and conviction by a court. Its
Preventive purpose is not to punish a person for a past
detention offence but to prevent him from committing an
offence in the near future. Thus, preventive
detention is only a precautionary measure and
is based on suspicion.

Q.58) With reference to recent deaths related to COVID-19 in India, the “Right to Decent burial” is
protected under which article of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 29
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 14
EXPLANATION:
Article 19 guarantees all citizens the six rights. These are:
(i) Right to freedom of speech and expression.
(ii) Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
(iii) Right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies.
(iv) Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
(v) Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
(vi) Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Article 19 does not deal with burials. So, option (a) is not correct.
Article 29 provides that any section of the citizens residing in any part of India having a distinct
language, script, or culture of its own, shall have the right to conserve the same. Further, no citizen

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shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out
of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, or language. So, option (b) is not correct.
There is no specific legislative framework in India that protects the rights of people who have died.
However, several judicial pronouncements of the SC and the High Courts (HC) have recognized the
rights of the deceased and have included them within the purview of Article 21 of the constitution. The
right to life with the dignity of a living person has also been extended to a person who is dead.
The Madras High Court in Anandhi Simon vs The State of Tamil Nadu held that Right to decent Burial
is a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 21 of the constitution and also it warned the local
residents against raising objections to the disposal of the bodies of those who had died due to COVID-
19. So, option (c) is correct.
Article 14 says that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection
of the laws within the territory of India. This provision confers rights on all persons whether citizens or
foreigners. Moreover, the word ‘person’ includes legal persons, viz, statutory corporations, companies,
registered societies, or any other type of legal person. So, option (d) is not correct.

Q.59) Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India provides for free and compulsory education to a child between the age
group of 6 to 14 years.
2. The Right to Education Act, 2009 prohibits screening procedures for admission of children in
schools.
3. The Right to Education Act, 2009 is applicable to minority and religious educational
institutions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
EXPLANATION:
Every child between the ages of 6 to 14 years has the right to free and compulsory education. This
is stated as per the 86th Constitution Amendment Act via Article 21A. The Right to Education Act
seeks to give effect to this amendment. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Right to Education Act 2009 prohibits all kinds of physical punishment and mental harassment,
discrimination based on gender, caste, class, and religion, screening procedures for admission of
children capitation fee, private tuition centres, and functioning of unrecognized schools. So,
Statement 2 is correct.
Sections 1(4) and 1(5) of the RTE Act say that the Act will not apply to minority and religious
educational institutions. This is discriminatory towards students of minority communities. The
exclusion of minority schools was made through the 2012 amendment of RTE.
This has also come under criticism, with the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights,
recommending RTE Act 2009 be extended to include minority institutions.

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The Supreme Court has refused to entertain a petition questioning the exclusion of madrasas and
Vedic schools from Minority Educational Institutions (MEI) from the ambit of the Right of Children
to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act 2009. So, Statement 3 is not correct

Q.60) Consider the following statements:

1. Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India are available against state action only.
2. DPSP does not create any justiciable right in favour of any individual.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
 In India, generally, the fundamental rights are enforceable against the state action as well as the
private individuals also. Eg: Article 23(Prohibition of Traffic in Human Beings and Forced Labour)
protects the Individual from against both the state and Private Individuals.
 The Supreme Court said that Fundamentals rights such as the Right to Life, Equality and Freedom
of speech enshrined under the Constitution are enforceable against the State and its
instrumentalities and also Private parties.
 Protection of six rights regarding freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association,
movement, residence, and profession. These six rights are protected against only state action and
not private individuals. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
 DPSPs are positive obligations to the state to make laws based on those directives and it is not a
legal/fundamental right favouring any Particular individual or a community.
 The Directive Principles are made non-justiciable and are not enforceable in a court of law.
 Therefore, none of the DPSPs can be made enforceable in the court of law, thus these principles
cannot be used against the central government or the state government. So, Statement 2 is
correct.

Q.61) Which of the following statement(s) regarding the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is/are
correct?
1. It clarifies the ultimate sanction behind the making of the Constitution.
2. It grants power to the organs of the government.
3. It has an enacting clause that brings the Constitution into force.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

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EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
The Preamble of Indian Constitution does not grant any power but it gives a direction and purpose to
the Constitution. So, Statement 2 could be eliminated.
The Preamble to a Constitution embodies the fundamental values and the philosophy, on which the
Constitution is based. It also serves as a key to opening the minds of the makers and shows the general
purpose for which they made several provisions in the constitution. It is also used as a source of
interpretation of other statutes framed under the constitution. Hence it clarifies the ultimate sanction
behind the makers of the constitution. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The preamble is not a source of the several powers conferred on government under the provisions of
the constitution, but it gives direction and purposes to the constitution. It also outlines the objective
of the whole constitution. The Preamble is not a source of power nor a source of limitations or
prohibitions. However, it does not grant any power to the organs of the government .So, Statement 2
is not correct.
The enacting clause indicates the legislative authority by which the statute is made and as such the
Constituent Assembly adopted and enacted the constitution of India on 26 November 1949 and come
onto force on 26th January 1950. The preamble of the Indian constitution has mentioned November 26
1949 as the date of the adoption of the constitution. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PREAMBLE
 The preamble is the basic structure of the constitution and it says that
people are the ultimate authority and the constitution emerges from them.
About  A preamble is a part of our constitution where it is also neither a source of
power to the legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of the
legislature.
The Constitution of India has an elaborate preamble when compared with
Australia, the USA, and Canada. The Indian Preamble clarifies the following
 Minds of Makers of the constitution
Clarification  Source of the constitution
 Ultimate sanction behind it
 Goals and objectives
 Nature of the polity
As preamble contains the fundamentals of the Constitution and it also serves
important purposes like
 It contains the enacting clause which brings the Constitution into force.
 It declares the basic type of government and polity which is sought to
Purpose
be established in the country.
 It declares the great rights and freedom that the people of India intended
to secure for their entire citizens.
 It throws light on the source of the Constitution, viz., the People of India.

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Q.62) Consider the following Fundamental Rights under Part-III of the Indian Constitution?
1. Freedom of Conscience
2. Cultural and Educational Rights
3. Freedom of Speech and Expression
Which of the above rights are considered as part of individual freedom?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
Under Part-III of the Indian Constitution, Cultural and Educational Rights and Equal access to public
places are considered collective rights. So, Statement 2 could be eliminated.
Article 25 of the constitution of India safeguards the individual right of religious faith and worship by
treating all religions and religious groups equally and with equal respect without any discrimination.
Thus it protects an individual’s freedom of conscience. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Articles 29 and 30 of the Indian constitution deal with Cultural and Educational Rights.
Article 29 deals with the protection of the interests of minority groups and Article 30 deals with the
rights of minorities to form and govern their educational institution.
However, the Constitution of India has guaranteed these rights only to the minority community and not
to an individual.
Thus these rights are considered as collective rights and not individual rights. So, Statement 2 is not
correct.
Article 19 of the Indian Constitution provides Freedom of speech and Expression to all individuals,
which allows them to express their beliefs, thoughts, and ideas about different issues without any
censorship which is available to all individuals. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Article 19 Article 19 guarantees all citizens the six rights. These are:
i. Right to freedom of speech and expression.
ii. Right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
iii. Right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies.10a
iv. Right to move freely throughout the territory of India.
v. Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.
vi. Right to practice any profession or to carry on any Occupation, trade, or
business.
Article 25 Article 25 says that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of
conscience and the right to profess, practice freely, and propagate
Religion. The implications of these are:
a. Freedom of conscience: Inner freedom of an individual to mound his relation with
God or Creatures in whatever way he desires.

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b. Right to profess Declaration of one’s religious beliefs and faith openly and freely.
c. Right to practice Performance of religious worship, rituals, Ceremonies, and
exhibition of beliefs and ideas.
d. Right to propagate: Transmission and dissemination of one’s religious beliefs to
others or exposition of the tenets of one’s Religion. But, it does not include a right
to convert another person to one’s religion. Forcible conversions impinge on the
‘freedom of conscience guaranteed to all persons alike.
From the above, it is clear that Article 25 covers not only religious Beliefs (doctrines) but
also religious practices (rituals). Moreover, these rights are available to all persons–
citizens as well as noncitizens.

Q.63) Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): The right to marry the person of one's choice is an example of Classical Liberalism.
Reason (R): Classical Liberalism always privileges the rights of the individuals over community
values.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are individually true, and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘A.’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are individually true, but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A.’
(c) ‘A’ is true, but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false, but ‘R’ is true
EXPLANATION:
Classical liberalism, which developed in the 19th century, is a political and economic ideology that
advocates the protection of civil liberties and laissez-faire(allow to do) economic freedom by limiting the
power of the government. It always privileges the rights of the individuals over demands of social justice
and community values.
Whereas the Right to marry the person of one's choice is an individual right. Without concern about
community values, marrying the person of one’s choice is the perfect example of classical liberalism.
Thus, Assertion and Reason are individually true and the reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
So, Option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
LIBERALISM
About Liberalism is a political and economic doctrine that emphasizes individual
autonomy, equality of opportunity, and the protection of individual rights),
against the state and the privates.
Types  Classical liberalism,
 Reformist or Positive liberalism
 Contemporary or Neo-liberalism
Reformist or  Unlike Classical Liberalism, Reformist liberalism treats the state as a
Positive positive instrument for the promotion of the general welfare of the society
Liberalism

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and to promote Socio-economic, political, cultural, and other activities in
the general interest of the individual.
 Reformist liberalism welcomes state initiatives to eradicate poverty,
hunger, and disease, and to improve the standard of living for the society
at large than the rights of the individuals.
Contemporary or  Neo-liberalism seeks to save mankind from the tyranny of totalitarian
Neo-Liberalism political systems and it lays more importance on the personality of the
individual and his social groups than the authority of the state.
 While emphasizing the equality of opportunity for all, neo-liberalism
never compromises the liberty and rational choice of human beings

Q.64) Arrange the following locations from North to South:

1. Depsang Plains
2. Karakoram Pass
3. Daulat Beg Oldie
4. Hot spring
Select the correct answer using the below codes.
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 1-2-4-3
(c) 2-3-1-4
(d) 2-1-4-3
EXPLANATION:

So, Option (c) is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Despang Plains The Depsang Plains come under India’s Sub Sector North (SSN) which is
sandwiched between the Siachen Glacier on one side and Chinese-
controlled Aksai Chin on the other side.
Daulat Beg Oldie  It was currenly in news because Air Chief Marshal RKS Bhadauria on
Monday visited the strategically located Daulat Beg Oldie, Thoise and
Nyoma advanced landing strips in Ladakh and undertook a
comprehensive review of the IAF's preparedness in the region in view of
the eight-month-long border standoff between India and China.
 It is located close to the Line of Actual Control (LAC) at an altitude of
16,700 ft and is known as the highest airfield in the world.
 The Nyoma airfield location is at a height of around 13,000 feet.
Karakoram Pass  It was currently in news because the Indian Army Skiing Expedition,
ARMEX-21was flagged off at Karakoram Pass in Ladakh.
About:
 Karakoram Pass is a mountain pass between India and China located in
the Karakoram Range
 It is located on the boundary between the Indian Union Territory of
Ladakh and the Xinjiang Autonomous Region of China.
 Because of the high speed winds which blow in the region continuously
this region has no vegetation nor snow.
 This regions have no presence of Flora and Fauna.
Hot Springs  The hot springs in Ladakh is located in Panamik.
 The hot spring waters has high sulphur content.
 The hot springs most often occur when rainwater or groundwater is
heated by magma underneath Earth's surface

Q.65) Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament of India can make a discriminative law in favour of women for affirmative reasons.
2. Currently, only four states in India are eligible to provide employment based on reservation with
respect to residence within the state.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
The Constitution grants equality to women and also empowers the state to take measures of positive
discrimination in favour of women as they are included in the weaker section. So, Statement 1 could
be eliminated.

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Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion,
race, caste, sex or place of birth. There are four exceptions to this general rule of non-discrimination,
one among them is the state is permitted to make any special provision for women and children. For
example, reservation of seats for women in local bodies or provision of free education for children.
Hence, the Parliament of India can make a discriminative law in favour of women for affirmative
reasons. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Article 16(1) guarantees equality of opportunities for all citizens in matters relating to employment or
appointment to any office under the state.
Article 16(2) also clarifies that no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent,
place of birth, residence shall become ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of any
employment or office under the State.
However, Article 16(3) provides an exception to these laws. It states that the parliament may make any
laws prescribing a requirement for any particular place of residence within the state or union territory
in which the public office or employment may be in.
This is a power that is clearly vested in the Parliament and not in any state legislature. This means
that a decision about reservations in public employment on the basis of place of birth can be taken
only by the Parliament of India and not any legislature within a state.
Exercising the powers it has under Article 16(3), Parliament enacted the Public Employment
(Requirement as to Residence) Act, aimed at abolishing all existing residence requirements in the states
and enacting exceptions only in the case of special instances for states of Andhra Pradesh, Manipur,
Tripura and Himachal Pradesh.
The law enacted by Parliament, Public Employment (Requirement as to Residence) Act, ceased to exist
after 5 years, as it was enacted only till 1964. Currently there is no state which enjoys this exception
under any law made by Parliament.
Whereas under Article 371D of the Constitution, Andhra Pradesh is allowed to directly recruit local
cadres in specified areas. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Q.66) Consider the following provisions of the Indian Constitution.

1. Equality before law under Article 14
2. Abolition of untouchability under Article 17
3. Protection of life and personal liberty under Article 21
Which of the provisions are associated with the ‘socialist’ principles?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
According to Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, The State shall not deny to any person equality
before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. It ensures equality which
is a socialist principle. So, Statement 1 is correct.

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According to Article 17 of the Indian Constitution, “Untouchability” is abolished and its practice in any
form is forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of “Untouchability” shall be an offense
punishable in accordance with the law. It ensures social justice and equality which is a socialist
principle. So, Statement 2 is correct.
According to Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal
liberty except according to procedure established by law.”. It ensures the right to life of citizens which
is a socialist principle. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Socialism Socialism is a political and economic system where the resources and
properties are owned by the state or the public.
Core Ideas Of
Public Ownership
Socialism
Core Ideas of Socialism

Central Planning

Social and Economic Objectives

Freedom of Consumption

Income Equality

Planning and Price Control

Socialist Principles In  Article 38 - The State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people
Dpsp Of Indian by securing and protecting a social order in which justice, social,
Constitution economic, and political, shall inform all institutions of national life.
 Articles 39 says that State shall, in particular, direct its policies towards
securing:
o right to an adequate means of livelihood for all the citizens;
o the ownership and control of material resources shall be organized
in a manner to serve the common good;
o the operation of the economic system does not result in the
concentration of wealth to the common detriment. In other words,
the state shall avoid the concentration of wealth in a few hands;
o equal pay for equal work for both men and women;
o the protection of the strength and health of the workers; and
o that the childhood and youth are not exploited;
 Article 42 - The State shall make provisions for securing just and
humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.

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 Article 43 - the State shall endeavor to secure to all workers a living
wage and a decent standard of life, while article 43A says that the State
shall take steps to secure the participation of workers in the
management of industries.

Q.67) With reference to the Indian Constitution, the concept of ‘principled distance’ is related to
(a) Federalism
(b) Socialism
(c) Secularism
(d) Separation of Powers
EXPLANATION:
The concept of Principled Distance is related to Secularism as given by Rajeev Bhargava, an Indian
Political theorist who defines Principled Distance which entails the state maintaining equal distance
from all religions and maintaining peaceful coexistence of all religions.
Indian secularism follows the concept of principled distance which also allows for Non-interference and
maintains the balanced distance between the State and the religion. So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Secularism Secularism means equal treatment of all religions. Secularism is of two types
namely
 Negative Secularism
 Positive Secularism
In Negative Secularism, the state says that nobody can display their religious
identity in public and the ban on hijab in public places was upheld by the
constitutional courts. Ex: Turkey
In Positive secularism, the state plays an enabler role in the exercise of
fundamental rights and the religious freedoms of all communities. India has
the model of positive Secularism in which the unique feature is it does protect
the religious freedom of individuals by maintaining a separation from religion.

Q.68) A new state ‘X’ is created by separating a part of the territory from State ‘A’. On which of the below
occasions the Constitution mandates the recommendation of the President?
1. Introduction of Bill in either House of Parliament
2. Introduction of Bill in the Legislature of State ‘A’
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
State legislature has no major role to play regarding creation or changing the boundaries of states.
Only Indian Parliament has the exclusive power to admit or establish new states. So, Option b & c
Could be eliminated.
The process of Creation of New states or Alteration of Boundaries in India is as follows:
Introduction of the Bill Bill shall be refferd to concern
In LS/RS with the prior states by the President for its
concent of President. view regarding the bill.
But the Recommendations of
the concern states are Not
The bill is passed by Simple compulsorily Binding.
Majority in 1st House (Article 3)

The bill is passed by Simple

Majority in 2nd House

Assent given by President

Creation of New State

The bill for formation of new state can be introduced only in either of the houses of the parliament with
the prior recommendation of the President. It cannot be introduced in State Legislature. So, statement
1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Constitutional Provisions PART – I
Article 1. Name and territory of the Union. –
(1) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
(2) The States and the territories thereof shall be as
specified in the First Schedule.
(3) The territory of India shall comprise
(a) the territories of the States;
(b) the Union territories specified in the First Schedule;
and
(c) such other territories as may be acquired.
Article 2. Admission or establishment of new States. –

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Parliament may by law admit into the Union, or
establish, new States on such terms and conditions as it
thinks fit.
Article 3. Formation of new States and alteration of areas,
boundaries or names of existing States. Parliament may by
law –
(a) form a new State by separation of territory from any State
or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by
uniting any territory to a part of any State;
(b) increase the area of any State;
(c) diminish the area of any State;
(d) alter the boundaries of any State;
(e) alter the name of any State:
 Bill for the purpose shall be introduced in either House of
Parliament
 Requires prior recommendation of the President
 Bill shall be referred by the President to the Legislature of
that State for expressing its views
 In this article the “State” includes a Union territory, but in
the proviso, “State” does not include a Union territory.
 The power conferred on Parliament by clause (a) includes
the power to form a new State or Union territory by uniting
a part of any State or Union territory to any other State or
Union territory.
Article 4 - Laws made under articles 2 and 3 to provide for
the amendment of the First and the Fourth Schedules. No
such law as shall be deemed to be an amendment of this
Constitution for the purposes of article 368.
New states that came in to 1960 - Maharashtra, Gujarat from Bombay
existence after 1956 1963 - Nagaland
Haryana, Chandigarh and HP from
1966 -
Punjab Province
1972 - Manipur, Tripura and Meghalaya.
1975 - Sikkim [By 36th CAA]
Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and
1987 -
Goa
Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and
2000 -
Jharkhand
2014 - Telangana

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Q.69) The capital of Indonesia has been shifted from Jakarta to East Kalimantan recently. The name of
the New Capital will be called as
(a) Bandung
(b) Surabaya
(c) Nusantara
(d) Medan
EXPLANATION:
 Earlier, Jakarta was the capital of Indonesia, but now it is facing environmental problems especially
pollution, and financial issues.
 Indonesia passed a bill replacing it's capital Jakarta with East Kalimantan, situated to the east of
Borneo Island. The new capital city of the country will be called Nusantara. So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
INDONESIA

Q.70) A ‘law’ made under Article 2 and Article 3 is not to be considered as an amendment of the Constitution
under Article 368. What does this connote?
1. Such a law need not follow the procedure of amendment mentioned in Article 368.
2. Such a law does not make any changes to the provisions of the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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EXPLANATION:
Amendment of Constitution:

Ammendment of
Constitution

Outside the preview of

Article 368. Under the preview of Article
368
By simple majority

Special Majority
+
Special majority in both
houses of parliament Ratified by the Legislatures
of not less than one-half of
the States.

The process of Creation of New states or Alteration of Boundaries in India is as follows:

Introduction of the Bill Bill shall be refferd to concern
In LS/RS with the prior concent states by the President for its
of President. view regarding the bill.
But the Recommendations of
the concern states are Not
The bill is passed by Simple compulsorily Binding.
Majority in 1st House (Article 3)

The bill is passed by Simple

Majority in 2nd House

Assent given by President

Creation of New State

The bill for formation of new state is required to be passed by both the houses of the parliament by
simple majority. Hence it does not follow the procedure established by article 368 for the amendment
of the constitution. So, Statement 1 is correct.
A constitutional provision of India is a law that is inscribed within the founding laws of the constitution
itself. The Laws made under articles 2 and 3 the amends the First and the Fourth Schedule of the
constitution. Hence it changes certain provisions of the constitution. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Constitutional PART - I
Provisions Article 1. Name and territory of the Union. –
1. India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
2. The States and the territories thereof shall be as specified in the First
Schedule.
3. The territory of India shall comprise
(a) the territories of the States;
(b) the Union territories specified in the First Schedule; and
(c) such other territories as may be acquired.
Article 2. Admission or establishment of new States. –
Parliament may by law admit into the Union, or establish, new States on
such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.
Article 3. Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or
names of existing States. Parliament may by law –
(a) form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting
two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a
part of any State;
(b) increase the area of any State;
(c) diminish the area of any State;
(d) alter the boundaries of any State;
(e) alter the name of any State:

 Bill for the purpose shall be introduced in either House of Parliament

 Requires prior recommendation of the President
 Bill shall be referred by the President to the Legislature of that State for
expressing its views
 In this article the “State” includes a Union territory, but in the proviso,
“State” does not include a Union territory.
 The power conferred on Parliament by clause (a) includes the power to form
a new State or Union territory by uniting a part of any State or Union
territory to any other State or Union territory.
Article 4 - Laws made under articles 2 and 3 to provide for the
amendment of the First and the Fourth Schedules. No such law as shall
be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of
article 368.
New states that came 1960 - Maharashtra, Gujarat from Bombay
in to existence 1963 - Nagaland
after 1956 Haryana, Chandigarh and HP from Punjab
1966 -
Province
1972 - Manipur, Tripura and Meghalaya.

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1975 - Sikkim [By 36th CAA]
1987 - Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa
2000 - Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand and Jharkhand
2014 - Telangana

Q.71) Various parts of India, especially North India, have been experiencing a severe cold wave.
Warnings for the severe cold waves have been issued in several northern states. Consider the following
statements about the cold wave:
1. Strong streams of western disturbances running through the southern belt are causing this.
2. A cold wave is the same for the plains and the mountains.
3. The IMD calls it “a condition of air temperature which becomes fatal to the human body when
exposed.”
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
Indian Metrological Department describes both Cold waves and heat waves as fatal to the human body
when exposed. So, Statement 3 could be eliminated.
Western disturbance is an extra-tropical storm that originates in the Mediterranean region, that brings
sudden rainfall to the northern belt of the Indian Subcontinent, especially in the winter, and this
disturbance is usually associated with a cloudy sky, higher night temperatures, and unusual rain.
These were running through the northern belt. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The cold wave is defined by the rate at which the temperature drops and the lowest point to which it
drops, which varies depending on the geographical region and time of year. These are not same for
plains and mountains, the minimum temperature of plains is equal to or less than 10 degrees Celsius
or below 4.5 to 6.4 degrees below the normal temperature, and for Hilly areas, the temperature is less
than or equal to 0 degrees Celsius or below 4.5 to 6.4 degrees below the normal temperature. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.
Indian Metrological Department describes both Cold waves and heat waves as a condition of air
temperature which becomes fatal to the human body when exposed. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
WAVES
Heat Waves  Heat Waves are considered if the maximum temperature of a region
reaches at least 40-degree Celsius or more for plains and at least 30
degrees Celsius or more for hilly regions.
 It occurs from March to June with maximum intensity in May.
 Heat waves cause dehydration, heat cramps, heat exhaustion,
and heat stroke.

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Cold Waves  Cold waves are considered
 when the minimum temperature of plains is equal to or less
than 10 degrees Celsius or below 4.5 to 6.4 degrees below the
normal temperature
 For Hilly areas, the temperature is less than or equal to 0
degrees Celsius or below 4.5 to 6.4 degrees below the normal
temperature.
 Cold waves occur from mid-December to the end of February.

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

Q.72) Consider the following situations:

1. Governor summoning the session of the assembly after the CM lost his majority in the house.
2. Non-performance of constitutional duty by a Chief Minister.
3. A Chief Minister disqualified under the Anti-defection law carries out the functions of office.
In which of the above-mentioned situations does the writ of Quo Warranto apply?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above

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EXPLANATION:
A writ of quo warranto will lie when the appointment is made contrary to the statutory provisions. It is
a form of legal action which is used to resolve a dispute over, whether a specific person has the legal
right to hold the public office that he or she occupies.
 In case 1, when a chief minister lost his majority support in the state legislative assembly, He can
still be made to continue as the chief minister under the discretion of the governor in case of hung
assembly. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
 In case 2, when a chief minister is not performing his constitutional duty then the writ of
mandamus can be initiated not quo warranto. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
 In case 3, According to a judgement by the Supreme Court of India, if a member of the Legislative
Assembly is found unfit under the anti-defection law, he cannot be made a minister for the
remaining term of the Legislative Assembly even if he is nominated as a member of the Legislative
Council. Hence, in this case also the writ of quo warranto can be issued. So, Statement 3 is
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
What are The Higher Courts can issue special orders and give directive to the government for
Writs? the enforcement of fundamental rights. These devices through which the courts
protect Fundamental Rights are known as writs or judicial processes.
Constitutional The State is forbidden from making any law that may be in conflict with the
provision for Fundamentals Rights. If the fundamental rights are affected the constitution entitles
issuing writs the citizens of India to move the Supreme Court or High Courts for the enforcement
of these rights.
 Article 32 – For Supreme Court
 Article 226 – For High Courts
Types of Writs

It is an order by the court to the state to

Habeas Corpus produce the person physically before it justify
the confinement or release of the person.
Types of Writs

It is a command or an order from a superior

court to a subordinate court or tribunal or
Mandamus
public authority to perform its duty in case it
is not doing it.

Issued by a higher court asking a lower court

Prohibition not to proceed in a case which is beyond its
jurisdiction.

Issued when the superior court requires the

lower court to supply it with some
Certiorari
information, records or the whole proceedings
for further hearing.

Issued to restrain a person from acting in a

Quo Warranto
public office to which he /she is not entitled.

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Writs issued Writs Locus Standi Can be issued Against
Against Whom
Habeas
Not Required State & Private Individuals
Corpus
Mandamus Not Required Public Authorities

Judicial & Quasi - Judicial

Prohibition Required
Bodies

Judicial & Quasi - Judicial

Certiorari Required
Bodies

Quo Warranto Not Required Public Authorities

Other bodies According to Article 32 of the Indian Constitution,

which can “Parliament may by law empower any other court to exercise within the local limits
issue writs of its jurisdiction all or any of the powers exercisable by the Supreme Court”
So, Lower courts can also be empowered to issue writs by a law passed by the
parliament.

Q.73) Consider the following pairs.

Countries Status of Rights
1. Australia - Is the only democracy with No Bill
of Rights
2. Britain - A Democracy with no Legislation
concerning Human Rights
3. Canada - Has a Human Rights Act passed
by Parliament
4. USA - Did not contain any Fundamental
Rights in its original Constitution

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
EXPLANATION:
Currently, Australia is the only democratic nation which do not have a bill guaranteeing the rights of
citizen. So, Pair 1 is correct.
In 1998, The British parliament passed The Human Rights Act 1998, and received royal assent. So,
Pair 2 is not correct.
The constitution of Canada contains, The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedom which is considered
as the supreme law of land. So, Pair 3 is correct.

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During the enactment of Constitution in USA, it just laid out the roles and responsibilities of the federal
government and didn’t contain any bill of rights. It is only during the 1 st amendment the constitutional
rights to citizen were provided. So, Pair 4 is correct.

Q.74) Consider the following statement regarding National Commission for Safaikaramcharis:
1. It is a Non-statutory body established under National Commission for Safaikaramcharis Act 1993.
2. It recommends to the government regarding specific programmes for the welfare of
Safaikaramcharis, it enquires into the complaint and punishes the lawbreakers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis is currently a Non-statutory body.
But earlier it was a statutory body that was established by 'National Commission for Safai Karamcharis
Act 1993' on 12th August 1994.
NCSK was constituted 12 August 1994 as a statutory body for a three-year period under the NCSK
ACT, 1993. It continued till February 2004, when the relevant Act expired. There between 1994 and
2004, it is a statutory body. Since 2004, NCSK has been revived several times, the last extension due
to expire on 31 March 2022. So, Statement 1 is correct.
National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK) has been giving its recommendations to the
Government regarding specific programmes for the welfare of Safai Karamcharis and investigates cases
of specific grievances.
Though it has powers to investigate specific grievances and take suo moto notice non-implementation
of Schemes, It has no powers to punish the law breakers. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
NATIONAL COMMISSION FOR SAFAI KARAMCHARIS (NCSK)
Recently in News  On 19th January 2022,the union cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister has
approved the extenstion of the tenure of the National Commission for
Safaikaramcharis for three years beyond 31.03.2022.
About  Established in the year 1993 initially for the period upto 31.03.1997.
 The NCSK Act ceased to have an effect on 29th February 2004. After that,
the tenure of the NCSK has been extended as a non-statutory body from time
to time through resolutions.
Members The Commission shall consist of:
 a Chairperson;
 a Vice-Chairperson;
 Five Members
Provided that at least one of the Members shall be a woman.
Ministry It comes under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

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Q.75) The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013 was
enacted in accordance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
1. Article 21
2. Article 23
3. Article 46
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Article 21 of the Indian constitution deals with Protection of life and personal liberty. It includes right
of a person to live with dignity. As this act deals with the prohibition of employment as manual
scavengers, rehabilitation of manual scavengers and their families, and for matters connected with it,
it promotes the right to live with dignity for a person. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 23 of the Indian constitution deals with Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013 was not
enacted in consonance with this article. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Article 46 of the Indian constitution deals with Promotion of educational and economic interests of
Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections. It states that, the State shall protect
them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation. The practice of manual scavenging arises out
of the continuing existence of insanitary latrines and a highly iniquitous caste system Hence it is the
duty of state to protect the rights of a marginalised community. So, statement 3 is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
About the Act  The law was enacted to eliminate insanitary latrines and prohibit employment
as manual scavengers.
 It prohibits hazardous manual cleaning of sewer and septic tanks.
 This act made the states responsible for identifying and rehabilitating manual
scavengers.
 It fixed responsibility on each local authority to survey unsanitary dry latrines
within its jurisdiction and to construct sanitary community latrines.
 The offences under this act are cognizable and non-bailable.
Recently in News  State-wise details of FIR lodged under the Provisions of MS Act, 2013 during
the last five years (2017 to 2021) was given by Minister of State for Social
Justice and Empowerment written reply in Rajya Sabha.
 Details of the Report:
 Top 3 states - Tamil Nadu (37) > Uttar Pradesh (35) > Delhi (28)
 Least – Chhattisgarh (1) and Kerala (1)

Q.76) Recently Aroma Mission was launched by the government of India for the development of a local
economy. Consider the following statements about Aroma Mission.
1. It is launched by the Union Ministry of Science & Technology through the Council of Scientific &
Industrial Research (CSIR).
2. It involves the cultivation of Saffron in the Kashmir Himalayas.
3. It will help to boost the Start-ups in India program in Jammu & Kashmir regions.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
Aroma Mission launched by the Union Ministry of Science & Technology through the Council of
Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), has led to the “Purple Revolution” in India. This mission has
led to the creation of an ecosystem benefitting the industry, farmers, and next-generation
entrepreneurs. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Aroma Mission envisaged bringing transformative change in the aroma sector through desired
interventions in the areas of agriculture, processing, and product development for fuelling the growth
of the aroma industry and rural employment. It was launched to boost the cultivation of aromatic
crops like lavender, rosemary, and lemon grass and medicinal plants like ashwagandha and satavar.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Aroma Mission has become a popular option in farming for agricultural Start-up in Jammu and
Kashmir region. Young entrepreneurs use modern technology in cultivation to boost their income. So,
Statement 3 is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
AROMA MISSION
Aim To increase the income of the farmers through the cultivation of high value and
high demand aromatic crops by about Rs. 30,000 to 60,000/ha/year.
Objective  Popularization of superior varieties and agro-technologies.
 Assessment of suitability for specific climatic regions.
 Value-addition to aromatic crops.
 Organize skill development activities and empower farmers.
Crops Covered  Lemongrass  Patchouli  Lavender
 Geranium  Rosemary  Muskbala
 Palmarosa  Java Citronella  Sea Wormwood
 Menthol Mint  Damask Rose  Thimsingli
 Khus  Jammu  Wild Marigold
 Tulsi Monarda  Rosagrass

Q.77) The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the scheme for Green Energy Corridor
(GEC) Phase-II for the Intra-State Transmission System (InSTS). Consider the following statements:
1. The Green Energy Corridor Project aims to synchronize electricity produced from renewable
sources with conventional power stations in the grid.
2. It is a joint venture of the Government of India and the Government of France.
3. It was implemented under the International solar alliance.
4. It is fully funded by both Government of India and the World Bank.
Which of the statement given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
The Green Energy Corridor Project aims at synchronizing electricity produced from renewable sources,
such as solar and wind, with conventional power stations in the grid. The scheme will help in achieving
the target of 450 GW installed RE capacity by 2030. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the scheme for Green Energy Corridor (GEC) Phase-
II for Intra-State Transmission System (InSTS) for the addition of approximately 10,750 circuit
kilometers (ckm) of transmission lines and approximately 27,500 Mega Volt-Amperes (MVA)
transformation capacity of substations. The project is strengthened by the technical and financial
cooperation between India and Germany. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Green Energy Corridor works on renewable energy sources like solar and wind, and it is not
implemented under International Solar Alliance. It is implemented by the Ministry of New and
Renewable Energy. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

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For Phase II the funding mechanism consists of a 40% Government of India Grant (total Rs. 4056.67
crores), 20% state equity, and 40% loan from KfW, Germany (500 million EUR). In phase-I loans were
raised from Asian Development Bank. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
GREEN ENERGY CORRIDOR (GEC)
Phase-I  GEC-Phase-I is already under implementation in the States of Andhra
Pradesh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh,
Maharashtra, Rajasthan, and Tamil Nadu for grid integration and power
evacuation of approximately 24 GW of RE power and is expected to be
completed by 2022.
Phase-II  The scheme will facilitate grid integration and power evacuation of
approximately 20 GW of Renewable Energy (RE) power projects in seven
States namely, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Rajasthan,
Tamil Nadu, and Uttar Pradesh.
Implementation  The project is being implemented by respective State Transmission Utilities
(STUs) allocating the work through a competitive bidding process.
 The Ministry monitors the project every month.
 A Project Appraisal Committee under the chairmanship of concerned Joint
Secretary/Scientist ‘G’ with members from CEA (Central Electricity Authority
of India) & PGCIL (Power Grid Corporation of India Limited) monitors the
project & recommends the disbursal of the central grant to the STUs.

Q.78) Justice in terms of Social, Economic and Political is mentioned in the Preamble. Which of the
following are included under the term ‘Justice’ as mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution?
1. Equal treatment for equals.
2. Equal Voice in the government
3. Recognition of the special needs.
4. Well-being of all people.
5. Elimination of inequalities in Wealth and property
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION:
The principle of treating equals equally would require that people should not be discriminated against
on grounds of class, caste, race, or gender. This is enshrined under the Right to Equality in
Fundamental Rights. So, Statement 1 is correct.

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Political justice implies that all citizens should have equal political rights, equal access to all political
offices, and an equal voice in the government. In India based on adult suffrage voting rights are given
to a citizen. So, Statement 2 is correct.
One of the principles of justice mentioned under the preamble of the constitution of India is to take into
account the special needs of people while distributing rewards or duties and promoting social justice.
People with special needs or disabilities could be considered unequal in some particular respect and
deserving of special help. Physical disabilities, age, or lack of access to good education or health care,
are some of the factors which are considered grounds for special treatment. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Justice involves the well-being of all people which must be the main concern of the government.
Ensuring the well-being of the people includes giving each person his due. Today well-being means
ensuring the dignity of the individual and providing them the opportunity to develop their talents and
pursue their chosen goals. So, Statement 4 is correct.
Economic justice denotes the non-discrimination between people based on economic factors. It involves
the elimination of glaring inequalities in wealth, income, and property. In the DPSP, Article 38 requires
the State to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities. So, Statement 5 is
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PREAMBLE
Adoption The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’,
drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly
on November 26, 1949.
Amendment It has been amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which
added three new words–Socialist, Secular, and Integrity.
Objectives The preamble specifies justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as the objectives.
Part Of In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court observed that the
Constitution Preamble is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and
interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.
It also held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.

Q.79) “Darvaza gas crater” recently seen in news located in which of the following countries?
(a) Pakistan
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Turkey
(d) Turkmenistan
EXPLANATION:
 The Darvaza Gas Crater is a burning natural gas field, which is found in the Karakum Desert of
north-central, Turkmenistan.
 The Darvaza gas crater is also known as the ‘Gateway to Hell’.
So, Option (d) is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
DARVAZA GAS CRATER
Recently in Turkmenistan President Gurbanguly Berdymukhamedov has ordered experts to find
News a way to extinguish a fire in a huge natural gas crater, the Darvaza gas crater also
known as the ‘Gateway to Hell’.
Location It is found in the Karakum desert, 260 kilometers away from Turkmenistan’s capital,
Ashgabat.
Dimensions The crater is 69 meters wide and 30 meters deep.
About  The crater has been burning for the last 50 years.
 In 1971, Soviet geologists were drilling for oil in the Karakum desert when they hit
a pocket of natural gas by mistake, which caused the earth to collapse and ended
up forming three huge sinkholes.
 In 2018, it was officially renamed the “Shining of Karakum”.

Q.80) With reference to the composition of the Constituent Assembly, consider the following:
1. The representatives were directly elected by the people as per the first past the post system.
2. Each province and princely state were to be allocated the seat in proportion to their respective
geographical extent.
Which of the statement given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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EXPLANATION:
The Constituent Assembly was to be a partly elected and partly nominated body. The members were to
be indirectly elected by the members of the provincial assemblies based on proportional representation
system and the representatives of the princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely
states. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Each province and princely state (or group of states in case of small states) were to be allotted seats in
proportion to their respective population. Roughly, one seat was to be allotted for every million
population. Whereas the representatives of the princely states were to be nominated by the heads of
the princely states and not elected. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY
Formation  In 1934, the first time idea of a Constituent Assembly was put forward
by M.N. Roy.
 In 1935, Congress officially accepted the demand.
 In 1940, the British government accepted the demand by “August Offer”.
 In 1942, Sir Stafford Cripps came up with a draft proposal for an
independent Constitution.
 Rejected by the Muslim League whose demand was two separate
constituent assemblies.
 Finally, a Cabinet Mission’s scheme for Constituent assembly was
accepted by Muslim League.
Composition  The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was to be 389.
 Of these, 296 seats were to be allotted to British India and 93 seats to
the princely states.
 Out of 296 seats allotted to British India, 292 members were to be drawn
from the eleven governors’ provinces and four from the four Chief
Commissioners’ provinces, one from each.
Elections  The elections to the Constituent Assembly (for 296 seats allotted to the
British Indian Provinces) were held in July-August 1946.
 The Indian National Congress won 208 seats, the Muslim League 73
seats and the small groups and independents got the remaining 15
seats.
 However, the 93 seats allotted to the princely states were not filled as
they decided to stay away from the Constituent Assembly.

Q.81) The Global Risks Report was released recently by

(a) United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) United Nations Office for the Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs
(d) Global Facility for Disaster Reduction and Recovery

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EXPLANATION:
The Global Risks Report, an annual report was released by World Economic Forum. It is based upon
the Global Risks Perception Survey (GRPS) which is followed by an analysis of the key risks. So, Option
(b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
GLOBAL RISKS REPORT
About  It tracks global risk perceptions among risk experts and world leaders in
business, government, and civil society.
 It examines risks across five categories: Economic, environmental,
Geopolitical, Societal, and technological.
World Economic The World Economic Forum (WEF) is a Swiss nonprofit foundation established
Forum in 1971, based in Geneva, Switzerland.
Some Major  Energy transition Index
Reports  Global Competitiveness Report.
Published By  Global IT Report (WEF along with ISEAD, and Cornell University publishes
WEF this report)
 Global Gender Gap Report.
 Global risk report.
 Global gender risk report.
 Global Travel and Tourism report

Q.82) Women played a significant role during the freedom struggle and shaped the future of India after
Independence. Consider the following statement related to the important political position held by
women in free India.
1. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur was the only women minister in the 1st Government formed in free India
(1947).
2. There was no women member in the Interim government headed by the Viceroy Mount Batten.
Which of the statement given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
On August 15, 1947, India's first Cabinet was formed, consisting of 14 Cabinet Ministers including
Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur, a Kapurthala princess, who served as
secretary to Mahatma Gandhi, was the only women minister in the Jawaharlal Nehru cabinet as health
minister.
Her Contributions to the Society:
 She laid the foundation for the All India Institute of Medical Sciences(AIIMS) and inaugurated Lady
Irwin College in Delhi.

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 She also founded the Indian Council of Child Welfare and became its first president.
 She was president of the Indian Leprosy Association, the Tuberculosis Association, and vice-
president of the International Red Cross Society.
 She led the Indian delegation to the World Health Organisation (WHO) for four years and was
president of the WHO assembly in 1950. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Interim Government of India was formed on 2nd September 1946 headed by Viceroy Mount Batten.
It remained in power until August 15, the day of India's Independence. It has members from both the
Indian National Congress and Muslim League. But there was no women member in the interim
government. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Rukmini Devi  Devi (1904 –1986) was the first woman in Indian history to be nominated as
Arundale a member of the Rajya Sabha.
 Her contribution to reviving Bharatnatyam is most important and she tried to
elevate the status of Bharatanatyam from Dasiattam to one of the classical
dances of India.
 she also worked for the re-establishment of traditional Indian arts and crafts
for that she founded the Kalakshetra Foundation 1n 1936 to preserve
Bharatanatyam and Gandharvaveda music.
 In recognition of her services to Indian Culture, Arundale received the Padma
Bhushan in 1956 and the Sangeet Natak Academy Award in 1957.
Sarojini Naidu  A Political activist, the first Indian Woman to be the president of the Indian
national congress and the first woman as governor of an independent Indian
state.
 She was famously called Nightingale of India.
 She accompanied Gandhi to London for the Second Round table conference
in 1931.
 Her works include The Golden Threshold (1905), and The bird of time (1912).
 Her works in English were published under the titles, The Sceptred
Flute(1928) and the Feather of the Dawn (1961)

Q.83) With reference to the Indian context, consider the following statements:
1. Right to Equality abolishes titles conferred to citizens or foreigners by the state, but it doesn’t
prohibit academic distinctions.
2. Bharat Ratna award winner can use this in his/her visiting card expressed as the recipient of the
Bharat Ratna award.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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EXPLANATION:
The Fundamental Rights under Article 18 of the Constitution of India provides for the Abolition of
titles such as hereditary titles conferred by the colonial states such as Maharaja, Raja, Bhasha,
Bahadur, and so on in order to provide Equal status among the citizens. The elimination of the title
serves to maintain social equality, and equality serves to avoid harmful generalizations.
Article 18 states that,
 Article 18(1) - It forbids the government from bestowing any title on any citizen or
foreigner (except military or academic distinction).
 Article 18(2) - It makes it illegal for an Indian citizen to accept any title from a foreign state.
 Article 18(3) - Without the permission of the President of India, a foreigner holding a profit or
trust office under the state cannot accept any title from a foreign state.
 Article 18(4) - Without the president's permission, no citizen or foreigner holding a profit or
trust office in India may accept any present, emolument, or office from or under any foreign
State. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Titles: The titles were offered to those who impressed the British with their administrative skills
during British rule. The British bestowed these titles to particular specific communities before
independence in order to sow discord and disintegration among the people.

Awards: People receive awards for their contributions to the progress of art, literature, and science,
as well as for outstanding public service. These awards are granted on the basis of the job done by
the person without discrimination based on religion, caste, sex, or race.

The Government of India instituted four awards in 1954: The Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan,
Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri for outstanding service in any discipline, including public
service.

As per Article 18(1) of the Indian Constitution, awardees cannot use 'Bharat Ratna' as a prefix or
suffix to their name. However, should an award winner considering it necessary, he/she may use
the following expression in their biodata/letterhead/visiting card etc. to indicate that he/she is a
recipient of the award:
‘Awarded Bharat Ratna by the President’
or
‘Recipient of Bharat Ratna Award’
So, Statement 2 is correct.

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Q.84) With reference to the Fundamental Duties, consider the following statements:
1. Fundamental Duties help in court in examining and determining the constitutional validity of the
law.
2. Fundamental Duties serve warnings against anti-national and anti-social activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
If any law is challenged in court for its constitutional validity and if that law is providing force to any
of the fundamental duties in the constitution, then that law will be held reasonable.
In 1992, the Supreme Court ruled that in determining the constitutionality of any law, if a court finds
that the law in question seeks to give effect to a fundamental duty, it may consider such law to be
‘reasonable’ in relation to Article 14 (equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save
such law from unconstitutionality. Hence it helps the court in examining and determining the
constitutional validity of the law. So, Statement is 1 correct.
Fundamental Duties are moral obligations on the citizens of the country and are non-justiciable.
It serves as a warning against anti-national and anti -social activities like burning the national flag,
destroying public property and abjure violence, and so on. So, Statement is 2 correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
List of According to Article 51 A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India
Fundamental (a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the
Duties National Flag and the National Anthem;
(b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for
freedom;
(c) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
(d) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
(e) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the
people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional
diversities and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
(f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture;
(g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers
and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures;
(h) to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
(i) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
(j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement;
and
(k) to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of
six and fourteen years. This duty was added by the 86 th Constitutional
Amendment Act, 2002.

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Q.85) The Preamble is a keynote to the Constitution of India. Which of the following statements
regarding the Preamble is/are correct?
1. It is based on the provisions of the Instrument of Instructions in the Government of India Act of
1935.
2. The Berbari Union Case of 1960 held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
In various cases regarding the constitutional status of the preamble, only in Berubari Union Case, it is
held that the preamble not the part of the constitution. So, Statement 2 can be eliminated.
The term ‘Preamble’ refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution. It contains the summary
or essence of the Constitution and is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit
Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly whereas the Directive Principles resemble the
‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935. So, Statement 1 is
not correct.
In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows the general
purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is thus a key to the minds of the makers
of the Constitution. Further, where the terms used in any article are ambiguous or capable of more than
one meaning, some assistance at interpretation may be taken from the objectives enshrined in the
Preamble. Despite this recognition of the significance of the Preamble, the Supreme Court specifically
opined that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution. Only in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973),
did the Supreme Court reject the earlier opinion and held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PREAMBLE
Adoption  The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the ‘Objectives
Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by
the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949.
Amendment  It has been amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
(1976), which added three new words–Socialist, Secular, and
Integrity.
Objectives  The preamble specifies justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as
the objectives.
Part Of Constitution  In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court
observed that the Preamble is of extreme importance and the
Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the
grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.
 It also held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.

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Q.86) 22nd Commonwealth Games was held recently in Birmingham, England. Consider the following
statements about Commonwealth countries:
1. The Commonwealth is an association of countries historically connected to the erstwhile British
Empire.
2. Soon after becoming Republic, India became a member of the Commonwealth.
3. Commonwealth membership does not affect India’s sovereignty in any way.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
India is a sovereign country. It will not be a member of any organisation or grouping which will affect
its sovereignty. Hence statement 3 should be correct. So, option 1 and 2 can be eliminated.
The Commonwealth is an association of countries across the world. Although historically connected
to the British Empire, any country can apply to be a member of the Commonwealth, regardless of its
intersection with Britain’s colonial past. So, Statement 1 is correct.
India became Republic on January 26th, 1950, but in 1949 itself it declared the continuation of her
full membership of the Commonwealth of the Nations and the acceptance of the British Crown as the
head of the Commonwealth. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
This extra-constitutional declaration does not affect India’s sovereignty in any manner as the
Commonwealth is a voluntary association of independent nations. It also does not affect India’s
republican character as India neither pays final allegiance to the British Crown nor the latter has any
functions to discharge in relation to India. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
COMMONWEALTH – INDIA
Facts  India remained a member of the Commonwealth because of pragmatic
reasons. It thought that membership in the Commonwealth would be
beneficial to her in the economic, political, cultural, and other spheres.
 It has been playing an important role at the CHOGM (Commonwealth
Heads of Governments Meet).
 India hosted the 24th Commonwealth Summit in New Delhi in 1983.
Way Forward  The Commonwealth remains a great platform for development aid,
democratic values, and educational opportunities.
 But its relevance is put to test with increasing calls for democracy within
the grouping.
 It needs to adopt a more egalitarian and inclusive attitude to its next
generation of Commonwealth citizens.
 Only this can ensure the sustainability and credibility of this grouping.

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Q.87) Consider the following pairs:
Protected areas State
1 Nauradehi Wildlife - Haryana
Sanctuary
2 Gandhi Sagar Wildlife - Gujarat
Sanctuary
3 Kuno Palpur - Madhya Pradesh
National Park
4 Mukundara Tiger - Rajasthan
Reserve
How many of the above pairs is/are matched correctly?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION:
Nauradehi wildlife – sanctuary, is located in Madhya Pradesh’s Sagar district. So, Pair 1 is not
correct.
Gandhi Sagar Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary situated on the northern boundary of Mandsaur and
Nimach districts in Madhya Pradesh, India.
It is spread over an area of 368.62 km 2 (142.32 sq mi) adjoining Rajasthan state in India. The Chambal
river passes through the sanctuary dividing it into two parts So, Pair 2 is not correct.
Before the creation of the national park, Kuno was a wildlife sanctuary.
Kuno palpur national park is also called the Palpur-Kuno wildlife sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh.
Kuno palpur national park is located in Sheopur district of Madhya Pradesh.
It is spread over an area of about 900 square kilometers. So, Pair 3 is correct
The Mukundra Tiger Reserve (TR) is located near Kota, Rajasthan.
The Mukundra Hills was declared a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1955 and a National Park (Mukundra Hills
(Darrah) National Park) in 2004. So, Pair 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
National Park  An area, whether within a sanctuary or not, can be notified by the state
government to be constituted as a National Park, by the reason of its
ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, or zoological association or
importance, needed to protect & propagate or developing wildlife therein
or its environment.
 No human activity is permitted inside the national park except for the
ones permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden.
 There are 106 existing national parks in India
Wildlife  Any area other than the area comprised of any reserve forest or the
Sanctuaries territorial waters can be notified by the State Government to constitute a

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sanctuary if such area is of adequate ecological, faunal, floral,
geomorphological, and natural. or zoological significance, for the purpose
of protecting, propagating, or developing wildlife or its environment.
 Some restricted human activities are allowed inside the Sanctuary
Tiger Reserves  Project Tiger was launched by the Government of India in the year 1973
to save the endangered species of tiger in the country.
 According to the tiger census (2018) – conducted once every four years –
India has a tiger population of 2,967.
 Currently, there are 52 Tiger Reserves (As of July 2022)

Q.88) Consider the following events in the history of British India:

1. Establishment of the Supreme Court of Calcutta
2. Abolition of Secretary of State
3. Constitution of Governor General’s Legislative Council
4. Abolition of Council of India
Arrange the above in chronological order:
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 1-3-4-2
(c) 1-3-2-4
(d) 4-2-3-1
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
The office of Secretary of State was present till the time of independence. Hence the abolition of this
office only could be the last event in chronology. So, option b can be selected.
The Regulating Act of 1773 provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774)
comprising one chief justice and three other judges.
The Indian Independence Act of 1947 abolished the office of the Secretary of State for India and
transferred his functions to the Secretary of State for Commonwealth Affairs.
The Charter Act of 1853 established a separate Governor General Legislative Council which is known
as ‘The Indian Legislative Council’. This Act, for the 1st time separated the Executive and the Legislative
functions of the Governor General’s Council.
The Government of India Act of 1935 abolished the Council of India established by the Government of
India Act of 1858. So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
VARIOUS LAWS AND SOME OF ITS PROVISIONS
Regulating Act  It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to
Of 1773 the governor-general of Bengal, unlike earlier when the three presidencies
were independent of one another
 It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade
or accepting presents or bribes from the ‘natives’

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 It strengthened the control of the British Government over the Company by
requiring the Court of Directors (the governing body of the Company) to
report on its revenue, and civil, and military affairs in India.
Indian Councils  It considerably increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central
Act Of 1909 and provincial. The number of members in the Central legislative council
was raised from 16 to 60. The number of members in the provincial
legislative councils was not uniform
 It retained an official majority in the Central legislative council but allowed
the provincial legislative councils to have a non-official majority.
 It enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both
levels. For example, members were allowed to ask supplementary questions,
move resolutions on the budget, and so on.
Government Of  It provided for the establishment of a public service commission. Hence, a
India Act Of Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 for recruiting civil
1919 servants
 It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget
and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets. It provided
for the appointment of a statutory commission to inquire into and report on
its working after ten years of its coming into force.
Government of  It provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India to control the
India Act of currency and credit of the country
1935  It provided for the establishment of not only a Federal Public Service
Commission but also a Provincial Public Service Commission and Joint
Public Service Commission for two or more provinces
 It provided for the establishment of a Federal Court, which was set up in
1937
Indian  It ended the British rule in India and declared India as an independent and
Independence sovereign state from August 15, 1947
Act of 1947  It provided for the partition of India and the creation of two independent
dominions of India and Pakistan with the right to secede from the British
Commonwealth
 It abolished the office of Viceroy and provided, for each dominion, a governor
general, who was to be appointed by the British King on the advice of the
dominion cabinet. His Majesty’s Government in Britain was to have no
responsibility concerning the Government of India or Pakistan
 It empowered the Constituent Assemblies of the two dominions to frame and
adopt any constitution for their respective nations and to repeal any act of
the British Parliament, including the Independence act itself.

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Q.89) Consider the following statements regarding the powers of the Parliament to reorganize the Indian
States. Which of the following are considered Constitutional Amendments under Article 368?
1. Altering the boundary of a state.
2. Establish a new state
3. Admit new states into the Union of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
Any matters dealing with boundary alteration of states within India requires only simple majority for
passing the bill. Hence all these issues will not come under the preview of Article 368. So, option d
can be selected.
Articles 1 to 4 under Part-I of the Indian Constitution deal with the Union and its territory. Article 4,
declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states into the Union of India (under
Article 2) and formation of new states (admit new states into the Union of India), alteration of areas,
boundaries, or names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of
the Constitution under Article 368. This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority
and by the ordinary legislative process.
So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PART I OF THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION
Article 1  According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories:
1. Territories of the states 2. Union territories 3. Territories that may be acquired
by the Government of India at any time.
Article 2  Article 2 empowers the Parliament to ‘admit into the Union of India, or establish,
new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit. Thus, Article 2 grants two
powers to the Parliament: (a) the power to admit into the Union of India new states;
and (b) the power to establish new states. The first refers to the admission of states
which are already in existence, while the second refers to the establishment of
states which were not in existence before.
 Notably, Article 2 relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are
not part of the Union of India.
Article 3 Article 3 authorizes the Parliament to:
 form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more
states or parts of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state;
 increase the area of any state;

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 diminish the area of any state;
 alter the boundaries of any state; and
 alter the name of any state.
The process of Creation of New states or Alteration of Boundaries in India is as
follows:

Introduction of the Bill Bill shall be refferd to concern

In LS/RS with the prior states by the President for its
concent of President. view regarding the bill.
But the Recommendations of
the concern states are Not
The bill is passed by Simple compulsorily Binding.
Majority in 1st House (Article 3)

The bill is passed by Simple

Majority in 2nd House

Assent given by President

Creation of New State

Article 4  Laws made under Articles 2 and 3 to provide for the amendment of the First
and the Fourth Schedules and supplemental, incidental, and consequential
matters

Q.90) Various laws constituted in British India provided for the representation of various sections of the
society. Who among the following were given representation by means of a Separate Electorate?
1. Muslims
2. Women
3. Anglo Indians
4. Europeans
5. Depressed classes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1,2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION:
The laws constituted by British India provided for the representation of various sections of the society
as follows,

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 Indian Councils Act of 1909 - It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by
accepting the concept of a ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be
elected only by Muslim voters
 Government of India Act of 1919 - It extended the principle of communal representation by
providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans
 Government of India Act of 1935 - It further extended the separate electorates for depressed
classes (Scheduled Castes), women, and labour (workers)
So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
VARIOUS LAWS AND PROVISIONS
Indian  It considerably increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and
Councils Act provincial. The number of members in the Central legislative council was
Of 1909 raised from 16 to 60. The number of members in the provincial legislative
councils was not uniform.
 It retained an official majority in the Central legislative council but allowed
the provincial legislative councils to have a non-official majority.
 It enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both levels.
For example, members were allowed to ask supplementary questions, move
resolutions on the budget, and so on.
Government  It provided for the establishment of a public service commission. Hence, a
Of India Act Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 for recruiting civil
Of 1919 servants.
 It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget
and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets. It provided
for the appointment of a statutory commission to inquire into and report on
its working after ten years of its coming into force.
Government  It provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India to control the
Of India Act currency and credit of the country.
Of 1935  It provided for the establishment of not only a Federal Public Service
Commission but also a Provincial Public Service Commission and Joint Public
Service Commission for two or more provinces.
 It provided for the establishment of a Federal Court, which was set up in
1937.

Q.91) Recently Anaimalai Tiger Reserve has been in the news due to man-animal conflict. Which of the
following statements is not correct about the Anaimalai Tiger Reserve?
1. It is located only in two states.
2. It is habited by indigenous people from the Toda community.

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3. Anaimalai Tiger Reserve lies north of the Palakkad gap in the Southern Western Ghats.
Choose the correct answer from the options below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Tiger Reserve falls in four revenue taluks namely; Pollachi, Valparai of Coimbatore district,
Udumalpet of Tiruppur District, and Kodaikanal taluk in Dindigul district in the State of
Tamilnadu.
The official headquarters of Anamalai Tiger Reserve is at Pollachi. Administratively, it falls under
the Tamilnadu Forest Department
Thus,it is located only in one state which is Tamilnadu. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
It is designated as an ‘Anthropological Reserve’ as it supports 6 indigenous people such as Malasar,
Malai malasars, Kadars, Eravallars, Pulayars, and Muduvars.
This is very unique in the entire Tamil Nadu and probably the only Tiger Reserve with diverse
groups of indigenous people.
Toda people are a Dravidian ethnic group who live in the Nilgiri Mountains of the Indian state of
Tamil Nadu. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
It lies South of the Palakkad gap in the Southern Western Ghats. So, Statement 3 is not correct

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ANAIMALAI TIGER RESERVE
 It is one of the four Tiger Reserves in Tamil Nadu.
Location  It lies South of the Palakkad gap in the Southern Western Ghats.
Geographically it is located between the longitudes 76 o and 77o E and
latitudes 10o and 10o N.
 The Anamalai Tiger Reserve falls within the Western Ghats mountain
chain of South West
Forest Type  Wet evergreen forests, semi-evergreen forests, moist deciduous, dry
deciduous, dry thorn, and shola forests.
 Montane grasslands, savannah and marshy grasslands are also present
Flora  It has tall grasses, commonly referred to as ‘Elephant Grass’.

Fauna  Tiger and Asian Elephant. Other species: Indian Gaur, Spotted Deer,
Common Langur, Malabar Giant Squirrel, Wild Dog, Jungle Cat among
others.

Q.92) Which of the following legislations were repealed with the commencement of the Constitution of
India?
1. Government of India Act of 1935
2. Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act of 1949
3. Indian Independence Act of 1947
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
EXPLANATION:
January 26, 1950 was specifically chosen as the ‘date of commencement’ of the Constitution. With
the commencement of the Constitution, the Indian Independence Act of 1947 and the Government of
India Act of 1935, with all enactments amending or supplementing the latter Act was repealed.
The Act provides for the abolition of the appellate jurisdiction of the Privy Council and for connected
matters. The Act transferred the jurisdictional powers to It was passed as Constituent Assembly Act 5
of 1949. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act (1949) was not repealed with the
commencement of the Constitution of India but continued thereafter as the act contained certain
provisions for the Continuance of Privy Council jurisdictions in certain pending cases. So, Option (b)
is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Government Of India The Government of India Act was passed by the British parliament in
Act Of 1935 1935 and came into effect in 1937.

Key Features Of The  The creation of a ‘Federation of India’ consisted of two levels: a central
1935 Act executive and parliament, and below it, provinces and princely states.
 It discarded the ‘dyarchy’ system at the provincial level and allowed for
the emergence of popularly elected provincial legislatures. Dyarchy
was introduced at the central level, key subjects like defense and
foreign affairs were under the direct control of the Governor General.
 A federal court was established.
 The franchise was expanded to 14% of the population from 3%.
 Separate electorates were provided for Muslims, Sikhs, and others, but
not for Depressed Classes.
 Governor enjoyed critical emergency powers.

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Abolition Of Privy  In 1949, the Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act was passed by
Council Jurisdiction the Indian Government.
Act  This Act accordingly abolished the jurisdiction of the Privy Council to
entertain new appeals and petitions as well as to dispose of any
pending appeals and petitions.
 Thereafter with the commencement of the Constitution of India in
1950, the Supreme Court has been established and is serving as the
Apex Court for all purposes in India. It hears appeals from all the High
Courts and Subordinate Courts. With this, the appellate jurisdiction
of the Privy Council finally came to an end.
Indian Independence  The Indian Independence Act was passed in 1947. The act created two
Act Of 1947 new independent dominions; India and Pakistan. Pakistan was split
into Pakistan and East Pakistan which is now Bangladesh.
 The Bengal and Punjab provinces were partitioned between the two
new countries.
 These dominions separated the Muslim, Hindu, and Sikh populations
and caused the biggest forced migration which has ever happened that
was not the result of war or famine.
 The Act repealed the use of ‘Emperor of India' as a title for the British
Crown and ended all existing treaties with the princely states.
 Lord Mountbatten continued as Governor-General and Jawaharlal
Nehru was appointed India's first Prime Minister.
 In India, 15th August 1947 is celebrated as the Day of Indian
Independence.

Q.93) He was a true luminary credited with enlightening the western world about Hinduism. Netaji
Subhas Chandra Bose had called him the “maker of modern India.” He preached ‘neo-Vedanta’, an
interpretation of Hinduism through a Western lens, and believed in combining spirituality with
material progress. He has been credited for writing books like ‘Raja Yoga’, ‘Jnana Yoga’ and ‘Karma
Yoga’.
Which of the below personality matches with the above statements?
(a) Swami Vivekananda
(b) Srimanta Sankardev
(c) Gharib Nawaz
(d) Samarth Ramdas
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
The social and religious reformers who is associated with linking western thinking and Indian Vedas &
Vedantas are only Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Swami Vivekananda. So, with this idea option (a) can
be selected.

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Narendra Nath Datta as Vivekananda was called as Maker of Modern India by Nethaji Subash Chandra
Bose and he preached Neo-Vedanta which is a modern interpretation of Vedanta, with a liberal attitude
towards the Vedas. He believed in spirituality combined with material progress. Raja yoga, Jnana Yoga,
and Karma Yoga were some of his books. So, Option (a) is correct.
Srimanta Sankardev, the great Vaishnava saint, Social and religious reformer born in Alipukhuri,
Nagaon (Assam) in 1449 preached “Ek Sarania Nam Dharma”, and his famous works were Kirtan
Ghosa and Guna mala. He was famous for his creation of “Sattras” and developed the Sattriya dance,
later it got Classical Dance Status in India.
Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti was a Chisti order-Sufi saint and philosopher, after receiving Khilafat at
the age of 52 from Sheikh Usman Harawani, he Started living and preaching in Ajmer and was called
Gharib Nawaz which means Cherisher of the poor. later in 1332, the Sultan of Delhi (Tughluq dynasty)
Mohammad Bin Tughluq constructed a dargah in Ajmer for Mohinuudin Chisti.
Samarth Ramdas was an Indian (Marathi) Hindu saint, Philosopher, and poet Contemporary of Saint
Tukaram and guru of maharaja Chattrapathi Shivaji. His major works were "Asmani Sultani"
and "Para chakra niroopan". His messages were called Dasabodha. later Ramdas founded
the Samarth sect to reintroduce spirituality into society.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
VIVEKANANDA
About  He was born on January 12, 1863, and he was a principal disciple of
Sri Ramakrishna Paramhansa.
Principles  Vivekananda attempted to combine Indian spirituality with Western
material progress, maintaining that the two supplemented and
complemented one another.
 “Arise, Awake, and Stop not till the Goal is reached’’
His Contribution  In 1893 he appeared in the World’s Parliament of Religions as a
spokesperson for Hinduism in Chicago.
 He began delivering lectures at various places in the US and UK and
became popular as the Messenger of Indian Wisdom to the
Western World.
 On his return to India in 1897 he started the Ramakrishna Mission
to spread the teachings of Vedanta as embodied in the life of his guru
Ramakrishna and to improve the social conditions of the Indian
people
 In 1899, established Belur Math on the Ganges River near Calcutta.
 In his honor, the government of India 1984 declared his birthday
National Youth Day.

Q.94) The recent incidents at the Pangong Tso lake area between Indian and Chinese soldiers on the
LAC was in the news. Consider the following statements about Pangong Tso lake.
1. It is the world’s highest saltwater endorheic lake.
2. More than two-thirds of the lake is under Chinese control, while the remaining one-third of it lies
in India.
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3. It is one of the Ramsar sites in India.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
The only Ramsar Site in Ladakh is Tso Kar Wetland Complex. So, Statement 3 can be eliminated.
Pangong Lake, situated at a height of almost 4,350m, is the world’s highest saltwater lake. It is an
endorheic lake (landlocked with no evident outlet) so it has high salinity. Its water, which seems to be
dyed in blue, stands in stark contrast to the arid mountains surrounding it. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
The LAC mostly passes on the land, but Pangong Tso is a unique case where it passes through the
water as well. Extending to almost 160km, one-third of Pangong Lake lies in India and the other two-
thirds in China. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Pangong Tso is a long narrow, deep lake that is 135 km long and sprawls over 604 sq km in the shape
of a boomerang and is 6 km wide at its broadest point. So far, 54 sites have been identified from India
as Ramsar Wetlands Sites, Pangong Tso is not included in the list and it is in the process of being
identified under the Ramsar Convention. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
China’s Move  China is constructing a bridge in Eastern Ladakh connecting the North and
South Banks of Pangong Tso which would significantly bring down the time
for the People’s Liberation Army (PLA) to move troops and equipment
between the two sectors.
New Bridge  On the North Bank there is a PLA garrison at Kurnak fort and on the South
Bank at Moldo and the distance between the two is around 200 km.
 The new bridge between the closest points on two banks which are around
500m will bring down movement time between the two sectors from around
12 hours to 3-4 hours.
 The bridge is located around 25 km ahead of the Line of Actual Control
(LAC).
Line Of Actual  The LAC is the demarcation that separates Indian-controlled territory from
Control Chinese-controlled territory.
 India considers the LAC to be 3,488 km long, while the Chinese consider it
to be only around 2,000 km.
 It is divided into three sectors: the eastern sector which spans Arunachal
Pradesh and Sikkim, the middle sector in Uttarakhand and Himachal
Pradesh, and the western sector in Ladakh.

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Q.95) With reference to the Working of Constituent Assembly, consider the following:
1. Satyendranath Sinha, the oldest member, was elected as temporary president of the Assembly,
following the French Practice.
2. H.C. Mukherjee was elected as the Vice-President of the Constituent Assembly.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly, in
accordance with French practice.
Later on 11th December 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President and its Vice-President
was H.C. Mukherjee. Jurist Benegal Narsing Rao was appointed constitutional advisor to the Assembly.
So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY
History  1934 - M N Roy was the first one to put the idea of constituent Assembly
 1935 -First time INC, officially demanded a constituent assembly to frame a
constitution.
 1938 - Jawaharlal Nehru declared that “the constitution of free India must
be framed, without outside interference, by a constituent assembly”
 1940 -British officially accepted the constituent assembly demand via the
August Offer of 1940
 1946- cabinet mission was sent to India to decide the constitution of India by
which a Constituent assembly was created
Composition  Its members were partly elected (Provinces)and partly nominated (princely
states)
 Seats were allocated based on proportion to their respective population
CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY COMMITTEE
About  The constituent assembly first met on December 9, 1946. The Constituent
Assembly formed 22 committees to address a variety of constitutional
concerns.
 The constitution's final draft was submitted on November 4, 1948, and
Parliament ratified it on November 26, 1949.
Drafting  Among all the committees of the constitution Assembly, the most important
Committee committee was the Drafting Committee which was set up on August,29,1947.
 It was chaired by Dr.B.R.Ambedkar with the task of preparing the draft of the
new constitution.

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Other Important  Union Powers Committee-Jawaharlal Nehru
Committees  Provincial Constitution Committee-Sardar Patel
 Steering Committee-Dr.Rajendra Prasad
 Finance and Staff Committee-Dr.Rajendra Prasad

Q.96) With reference to Battery technology, consider the following statements:

1. Electrolytic cell brings chemical reaction by using an external source of voltage.
2. In a galvanic cell, both oxidation and reduction take place.
3. Fuel cells are galvanic cells designed to convert fuel combustion energy directly into electrical
energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
In an electrolytic cell electrical energy is converted into chemical energy. When electricity is passed
through an electrolyte, a chemical change take place in the electrolyte. Hence an external voltage
source is required. So Statement 1 is correct.
Galvanic cells are nothing but Voltaic cells in which chemical energy is converted into electrical energy
via redox reaction i.e., both oxidation and reduction reactions. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Fuel cells generate electricity through an electrochemical process. They are galvanic cells designed to
convert fuel combustion energy directly into electrical energy. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Electrolytic Cells An electrolytic cell consists of two electrodes connected to a battery.

 In an electrolytic cell electrical energy is converted into chemical energy.

The process of decomposition of an electrolyte into its ions when an electric
current is passed through it, is called electrolysis.
 When electricity is passed through an electrolyte, a chemical change i.e.
decomposition of the electrolyte into ions takes place at the electrode.
Oxidation and reduction reactions occur in the cell.
Galvanic or  In such a cell chemical energy is converted into electrical energy.
Voltaic Cells

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 Dry cells, car batteries and button cells used in wrist watches are all
examples of this type of cell.
 They are energy producing devices.
 Here redox reaction can be used to produce electricity.
 They do not require a external voltage source.

Fuel Cells  A fuel cell uses the chemical energy of hydrogen or other fuels to cleanly
and efficiently produce electricity.
 If hydrogen is the fuel, the only products are electricity, water, and heat.
 Fuel cells are unique in terms of the variety of their potential applications;
they can use a wide range of fuels and feedstocks and can provide power
for systems as large as a utility power station and as small as a laptop
computer.
 Fuel cells work like batteries, but they do not run down or need recharging.
 They produce electricity and heat as long as fuel is supplied.
 A fuel cell consists of two electrodes—a negative electrode (or anode) and a
positive electrode (or cathode)—sandwiched around an electrolyte.

Q.97) Consider the following about The Charter Act of 1853:

1. All restrictions on European immigration and the acquisition of property in India were lifted.
2. Covenanted civil service was thrown open to the Indians.
3. It Introduces the local representation in the governor-General Executive council.
Which of the statement given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The Charter Act of 1833 relaxed all restrictions on European Immigration and the acquisition of
property in India and it made Europeans settle, trade, and colonize India
(Hence, it was not lifted by the Charter Act of 1853). So, Statement 1 is not correct.
In 1833, the Charter Act attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection in civil
services but due to opposition from the Court of Directors, it goes nullified. Later in the 1853 Act, the
Open competition system of Selection and recruitment of civil servants was introduced and Covenanted
civil service which means civil servants occupying the higher posts in the government were opened to
Indians also in 1853 charter act. So, Statement 2 is correct.
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Governor General Executive council is called a cabinet of the government of British India whereas the
Imperial legislative council was called as legislature (like parliament) for British India. For the First
time, the 1853 Charter Act introduced local representation in the Indian legislative council, and not for
the Executive council. Out of 6 legislative members, four were appointed by the local or provincial
governments of Madras, Bombay, Bengal, and Agra. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CHARTER ACT OF 1853
Features  It established a separate governor-general legislative council called as Indian
Legislative council.
 Functions like Mini Parliament, adopting the same Procedures as the British
Parliament.
 It extended the company rule and by the provisions of this act, the company rule
could be terminated at any time by the British parliament.
 The legislative and executive functions of the Governor generals council were
separated for the first time.

Q.98) The first phase of the Census and collection of details to update the National Population Register
(NPR) has been postponed until September. Consider the following statements with regards to
Census:
1. The Census provides information on the size, distribution and socio-economic, demographic and
other characteristics of the country's population.
2. The Census was first started under British Viceroy Irwin.
3. The first synchronous Census in India was held in 1881.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
Lord Irwin was the Viceroy of India during Gandhian phase of Indian National Movement. Census as
started before that. So, Statement 2 can be eliminated.
The Census indicates demographics, the demographic changes, a map of the economic development of
the country, and the geographical areas and social groups that have been left behind in the economic
development of the country. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The first Nonsynchronous census was started under British Viceroy Lord Mayo in 1872, Not by Viceroy
Irwin (3 April 1926 – 18 April 1931), and the First Synchronous census in India was started in 1881 by
W.C.Plowden (Census Commissioner of India). So, Statement 2 is not correct and Statement 3 is
correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CENSUS IN INDIA
Nodal Ministry  Census in India is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and
Census Commissioner, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
Recent News  Since 1881, Census has been taken Continuously once every 10 years and
16 the census has to be undertaken in 2021. But due to Covid 16th Census
is not yet conducted.
 Recently home ministry has said that 16th Census will be an E-survey and
will be carried out in 2024.
Socio-Economic  SECC is a study of the Socio-Economic Status of rural and urban
Caste Census households and it was first time conducted in 1931, it contains details of
the Economic status and Caste Particulars of that individuals. Unlike
Census data, SECC data were kept confidential and it is open for
Government Departments to grant and/or restrict benefits to the people.
 Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 was conducted by the
Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) and then the Ministry of Housing
and Urban Poverty Alleviation (HUPA) in rural and urban areas
respectively.
National Register Of  NRC is a citizen register, in which the names of every citizen of India are
Citizens recorded. The creation of NRC is mandatory as per The Citizenship
Act,1955.
 The Citizenship Rule 2003, gives power to the center to issue an order to
prepare the National Population Register (NPR) and create the NRC based
on the data gathered in the NPR.
National Population  The Citizenship Act empowers the government to compulsorily register
Register every citizen and maintain a National Register of Indian Citizens.
 The NPR is a list of “usual residents of the country”.
 According to the Home Ministry, a “usual resident of the country” is one
who has been residing in a local area for at least the last six months or
intends to stay in a particular location for the next six months.
 NPR is not a citizenship enumeration drive, as it would record even a
foreign national staying in a locality for more than six months.
 This makes NPR different from the NRC, which includes only Indian
citizens while seeking to identify and exclude non-citizens.

Q.99) Sir Creek is a 96-km strip of water disputed area between India and
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Nepal
(c) China
(d) Pakistan
EXPLANATION:

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Sir Creek is a 96-km strip of water disputed area between India and Pakistan in the Rann of Kutch
marshlands. It lies between the Indian state of Gujarat and the southern Pakistani province of Sindh.
Originally named Ban Ganga, Sir Creek is named after a British representative and it is known for its
fishing resources. So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SIR CREEK DISPUTE
 The dispute lies in the interpretation of the maritime boundary line
Dispute between Pakistan and India.
 It was originally named Ban Ganga and was named after British official Sir
Creek during colonial times.
 Pakistan claims the entire creek as per paragraphs 9 and 10 of the Bombay
Government Resolution of 1914 signed between then the Government of
Sindh and Rao Maharaj of Kutch.
 The resolution, which demarcated the boundaries between the two
territories, included the creek as part of Sindh, thus setting the boundary
as the eastern flank of the creek popularly known as the Green Line.

 Before independence, the area was part of British India. After independence
in 1947, Sindh became a part of Pakistan while Gujarat remained a part of
History India.
 In 1968, an international tribunal resolved the larger Great Rann of Kutch
border claims of India and Pakistan, which also covered Sir Creek. In this
resolution, India received 90% of its request and Pakistan received 10%.

Q.100) A Community platform famously known as Github has been in the news recently. In this context,
consider the following statements about Github:
1. It is the world’s largest open-source developer community platform where users upload their
projects and code for others to view, edit and tweak.
2. It allows multiple users to edit the content, one person at a time.
3. Open source software development platforms like Github in India are managed by Digital India
Corporation (DIC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Github is the world's largest open-source software development platform used for storing, tracking,
and collaborating on software projects it encourages teams to work together to build and edit their
site content and also serves as a social networking site in which developers can openly network,
collaborate, and pitch their work. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Github allows multiple users who can edit the content at the same time (Simultaneously) and not by
one person at a time. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The process of supporting the open source development will be managed by National Informatics
Centre (NIC) and not by Digital India Corporation (DIC). National Informatics Centre (NIC) under the
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is the technology partner of the
Government of India, whereas Digital India Corporation is a not-for-profit Company set up under
MeitY, under Section 8 of Companies Act 2013 and it provides strategic support to Ministries for
carrying forward the mission of Digital India. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
GITHUB
Recently In  GitHub has blocked the Bully boy app which is a mobile application created
News on Github Application Programming Interface (API) by Neeraj Bishnoi from
Assam.
 The source code of Aarogya Setu has now been made open on GitHub for
review and looking to expand collaboration with the talented youth and citizens
of our nation and collectively build robust and secure technology solutions to
help support the work of frontline health workers in fighting this pandemic
together.
Github Idea  Any developer can upload whatever software code or app code or software idea
they have on the platform and have others collaborate with them to help
improve it, find errors, and fix problems.

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