.

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PRESTORMINGTM
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C: P-SIA-A-GS

A
GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I
Serial: 202302
GEOGRAPHY
TEST – 2
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

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 .

SIA-A-GS I (1-A)
 .
1. Consider the following statements about Which of the statements given above is/are
Temperature Inversion. correct?
1. It is the increase in temperature with (a) 1 only
increasing height temporarily or locally.
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. Short winter nights, cloudy sky, cold air
(c) 1 and 3 only
and the presence of winds lead to
(d) 2 only
temperature inversion.
3. During a temperature inversion, the
temperature may fall below freezing point in 4. Which of the following statements about
the valleys leading even to the occurrence of volcanoes are correct?
frost. 1. Volcanoes are responsible for creating more
Which of the statements given above are than 80 percent of the Earth’s surface.
correct? 2. A volcano that has remained dormant for
(a) 1 and 2
decades can never become active again.
(b) 2 and 3
3. Over the years, volcanic materials have
(c) 1 and 3
formed the most fertile Earth soil.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Choose the correct answer from the options
2. What are the disadvantages of green hydrogen given below:
as a fuel? (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Colorless and Odourless fuel, which is light (b) 2 and 3 only
in weight. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Highly flammable fuel.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Very high energy density, which is about 3
times of hydrocarbons.
5. Recent discoveries of ancient rock paintings in
4. Hydrogen embrittlement.
Choose the correct answer from the options Bargur have led to many inferences. Consider
given below: the following statements regarding Bargur cave
(a) 1 and 2 only Paintings.
(b) 2 and 4 only 1. These are found in the forest area of
(c) 1 and 3 only Madhya Pradesh.
(d) 1, 3 and 4 2. The paintings are monochrome in fashion
with human and animal figurines.
3. With reference to the Coriolis force, consider
3. These paintings depict the worship of God
the following statement:
1. It is responsible for the formation of during ancient times.

meandering in the river. Which of the statements given above are not
2. It helps sustain the cyclonic circulation in correct?
the Doldrum region. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. It is maximum at the pole as compared to (b) 2 and 3 only
the equator and inversely proportional to (c) 1 and 3 only
the velocity of the wind.
(d) 1, 2 and 3

SIA-A-GS I (2-A)
 .
6. Consider the following statements regarding The above features are distinct characteristics
Ocean waters: of which among the following climate?
1. The continuous flow of large volumes of (a) The Tropical Monsoon Climate
water in a definite direction is referred to as (b) The Warm temperate eastern margin
Waves. (c) The Cool temperate western margin
2. Ocean water level is higher near the equator (d) The Temperate continental climate
than at the middle latitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are 9. Consider the following statements regarding
correct? Ocean gyres:
(a) 1 only
1. They are large circulations in the ocean
(b) 2 only
caused due to planetary winds and the
(c) Both 1 and 2
Coriolis effect.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Sargasso Sea is associated with the
north Atlantic gyre and is known for its
7. Which of the following statements about ocean
biodiversity.
currents are correct?
3. The Great Pacific garbage patch is the
1. Cold currents are found on the west coast
largest collection of marine pollutant
of the continents, both in low and higher
materials associated with North Pacific gyre
latitudes
circulation.
2. The velocity of an ocean current is higher at
Which of the statements given above are
the surface than at the depths.
3. Fishing is an important economic activity in correct?

regions where warm and cold currents (a) 1 and 3 only

meet. (b) 1 and 2 only

Choose the correct answer from the options (c) 2 and 3 only
given below: (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 10. Millets are considered the Future Super Food
(c) 1 and 3 only for India. In this context, consider the following
(d) 1, 2 and 3 statements about Millets production in India.
1. Millets are low cost and are rich in iron,
8. Consider the following statements: calcium, magnesium, and antioxidants.
1. The climate is characterized by warm, moist 2. They are drought-resistant crops with a
summer and cool, dry winter. short growing season and lower water
2. Well-distributed rainfall throughout the requirements.
year but maximum in June, July and 3. Jowar is known to have the highest calcium
August. content among all the food grains.
3. Wet paddy or swamp rice is cultivated 4. Currently, India is the largest exporter of
majorly in this type of climate.
Millet in the world.

SIA-A-GS I (3-A)
 .
Which of the statements given above are 13. Among the following climatic conditions,

correct? identify the one which is not related to El-Nino

(a) 1 and 2 circulation in the Pacific Ocean.

(b) 2 and 3 (a) More frequent hurricanes in the north

Atlantic Ocean
(c) 3 and 4
(b) Higher sea surface temperature in the
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
tropical eastern Pacific Ocean
(c) Dry conditions in Southeast Asian
11. Consider the following pairs:
countries
Types of Associated (d) Floods in Peru and Ecuador
lakes Physical
Feature
1. Kettle lake - Karst region
14. Consider the following statement regarding
2. Oxbow lake - River meanders soils:
3. Lagoon lake - Coastal region 1. Generally, plants grow well in mild alkaline
4. Playa lake - Wind erosion soil.
How many pair(s) given above is/are correctly 2. Adding sulfur to the soil reduces the

matched? alkalinity of the soil.

(a) One pair 3. Black soils are well aerated but poor in the
water holding capacity.
(b) Two pairs
4. Maximum humus content is found in the
(c) Three pairs
subsoil region due to dead and decaying
(d) Four pairs
organisms.
How many statement(s) given above is/are
12. Which of the following statement regarding Jet
correct?
Streams is correct? (a) One statement
(a) They are high-velocity stratospheric winds (b) Two statements
present in both hemispheres. (c) Three statements
(b) They shift Southwards during summer and (d) Four statements

blow in Southern Asia.

(c) The westerly Jet streams are more extensive 15. Zmiinyi island was in the news due to the
ongoing war between Ukraine and Russia. On
and stronger during the summer season.
which of the below sea is this island located?
(d) Tropical Easterly Jet Stream are
(a) Caspian Sea
established during the summer season and
(b) Dead Sea
plays an important role in the onset of the
(c) Black Sea
Indian monsoon.
(d) Azov Sea

SIA-A-GS I (4-A)
 .
16. Which of the following statement best explains 19. Which of the following is not caused due to
the significance of the Clarion-Clipperton gravitational force of Earth?
Zone? (a) River flow
(a) A submarine region in the Pacific Ocean is (b) Landslide
estimated to contain abundant metallic (c) Tides
nodules. (d) Lahar flow
(b) A convergent plate boundary near Tonga
island in the Pacific Ocean. 20. A huge sunspot directly facing Earth has grown
(c) A dead zone resulted from oxygen depletion to be twice the size of Earth, and its width has
in oceanic water in the Gulf of Mexico. doubled in just 24 hours. In this context,
(d) A disputed exclusive economic zone consider the following statements about
between Brazil and Argentina. Sunspots.
1. Sunspots are areas that appear dark on the
17. Which of the following are considered natural surface of the Sun.
mechanisms responsible for climate change? 2. They are cooler than other parts of the
1. Sunspots causing the difference in solar Sun’s surface.
radiation 3. Solar flares are a sudden explosion of
2. Variations in distance and tilt of Earth with energy caused by tangling, crossing or

respect to the Sun reorganizing magnetic field lines near

3. Major volcanic eruption sunspots.

4. Changes in magnetic field strength of Which of the statements given above are
correct?
Earth.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Choose the correct answer from the options
(b) 2 and 3 only
given below:
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
21. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Hotspot Volcanoes:
1. It refers to the active volcanoes found along
18. Which of the following is not true about the
the Pacific ring of fire.
phenomenon of South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA)?
2. They are usually associated with
(a) It is the behavior of Earth’s Geo-Magnetic
convergent plate boundaries.
field in an area between Africa and South
3. Emperor seamount in the Pacific Ocean is
America.
known to be formed due to hotspot volcanic
(b) The area where the Earth’s inner Van Allen
activity.
radiation belt comes closest to the Earth’s
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
surface.
correct?
(c) The SAA is the near-Earth region where the
(a) 1 only
Earth’s magnetic field is strongest.
(b) 2 only
(d) This leads to an increased flux of energetic
(c) 3 only
particles in this region.
(d) 1, 2 and 3

SIA-A-GS I (5-A)
 .
22. Consider the following statements related to 24. Which of the following statements is/are not

Atmospheric Phenomena: correct?

1. The temperature and humidity in an air 1. For the first time recently, the Earth
clocked one of its fastest days, completing
mass are uniforms, and hardly any fall in
one rotation on its axis 1.59 milliseconds
temperature is noticed with increasing
less than the usual 24 hours.
altitude.
2. The Earth has completed one full spin in
2. When contrasting air mass meets, it can
approximately24 hours since its origin.
result in the formation of Tornadoes.
3. Earth’s spin is not affected by wind speed
3. The wind velocity in a tropical cyclone is
and atmospheric gases.
higher than that of a temperate cyclone. Select the correct answer using the codes given
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are below:
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3
25. Consider the following statements with respect
to Wetlands.
23. Glaciers are melting at a faster rate than ever
1. 2nd February 2022 is the first year World
before. Which of the following is/are the
Wetlands Day will be observed as a United
possible consequences of melting glaciers? Nations International day.
1. Sea level rise 2. Among South Asia, India has the largest
2. Less freshwater availability network of Ramsar sites.
3. Decline in ocean salinity 3. In India, Community-based ecotourism

4. Loss of species with minimum construction activities is

5. New Diseases permitted in notified wetlands.

Select the correct answer using the codes given 4. Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya
Pradesh was announced as a Ramsar site
below:
on the occasion of World Wetland day 2022.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above are
(b) 1, 3 and 5 only
correct?
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4

SIA-A-GS I (6-A)
 .
26. He was the commander of the Ahom forces and 28. Consider the following statements regarding
an icon of Assamese nationalism. In 1669, Mines and Minerals Amendment Act, 2021.
Aurangzeb dispatched the Rajput Raja Ram 1. Minerals, as per the act, include coal and
Singh I to recapture territories won back by the mineral oil.
Ahoms in previous battles. He fought against 2. The Central Government prescribes the
the Mughals and won the Battle of Saraighat period of mining leases for the case of
(Naval battle) on the River Brahmaputra. Government companies or corporations.
Today, His victory is honored with a gold medal Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
given yearly to the best cadet graduating from correct?
the National Defence Academy (NDA).
(a) 1 only
Which of the below Personalities suits the
(b) 2 only
above statements?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Kanaklata Barua
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Paona BrajaBashi
(c) Lachit Borphukan
29. Consider the following statements:
(d) Haipou Jadonang
1. Both P and S waves travel through the body

of the Earth.
27. Recently, NASA released striking images of the
2. Surface waves or L waves are high-
unseen Universe captured by the James Webb
frequency waves that travel through the
Space telescope. Which of the following
crust.
statements about the origin and evolution of
3. The magnitude of an Earthquake indicates
the Universe are correct?
the quantity of energy released by an
1. The first galaxy was born immediately after
earthquake at the source point, which is
the Big Bang
measured using the Mercalli Scale.
2. The Universe mostly remains the same at
4. The US Geological Survey is a responsible
any given point in time.
3. The space between the galaxies has been institution for measuring and assessing

increasing since their origin. Earthquakes across the world.

Select the correct answer using the codes given Which of the statements given above are not

below: correct?

(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only

SIA-A-GS I (7-A)
 .
30. Consider the following statements regarding 33. Consider the following statements:
Poliovirus: 1. Savanna is an example of ecotone in
1. Poliovirus belongs to the family of tropical latitudes.
Picornaviridae. 2. Kano is the type of savanna grassland
2. Polio is a highly infectious viral disease that distributed along the east coast of South
America
largely affects children under 5 years of age.
3. Rhododendron nilagiricum is the only
3. There is no cure for Polio; it can only be
Shola tree species that can tolerate fire.
prevented.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
4. Currently, Strains of Poliovirus Type 1 are
correct?
eradicated globally. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are not (b) 1 and 3 only
correct? (c) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 4 only 34. Consider the following statements:
(d) None of the above 1. Jet streams are special types of geostrophic
winds that are predominantly westerly
31. The term “Angadias” recently seen in media winds.
2. Geostrophic winds are caused by Coriolis
refers to
force, frictional force and pressure gradient
(a) The tribal group in central and eastern
forces.
India
Which of the statements given above is/are not
(b) A type of rural child care in India
correct?
(c) Shop or market for stationery and grocery (a) 1 only
items existing since Ancient times (b) 2 only
(d) A system of an age-old Payment system (c) Both 1 and 2
used by traders (d) Neither 1 nor 2

32. Which of the following statements are correct? 35. The LIC IPO is considered a game changer for
1. The volume of renewable water on Earth the Capital market environment in India. In
remains constant. this context, consider the following statements
2. Water available in Ice caps and Glaciers is about the history of Life insurance.
1. The Advent of the Life Insurance Business
nearly thrice the volume of Groundwater.
in India started in the 1800s.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
2. Oriental Life Insurance Company, started
below:
in Calcutta, was the first life insurance
(a) 1 only
company on Indian soil, restricted only to
(b) 2 only the European community.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Life insurance in India was nationalized in
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1956 by absorbing more than 200 both
Indian and Foreign insurers.

SIA-A-GS I (8-A)
 .
Which of the Statements given above are How many pairs given above is/are correctly
correct? matched?
(a) 1 and 3 (a) Only one pair
(b) 2 and 3 (b) Only two pairs
(c) 1 and 2 (c) Only three pairs
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) No pair

36. Consider the following statements: 38. This type of climate is found in the temperate
1. Indian Ocean dipole (IOD)is defined as
regions of the world, and it is characterized by
differences in Sea Surface Temperature
warm moist summers and cool, dry winters.
(SST) in the equatorial Indian Ocean similar
The mean monthly temperature is between
to ENSO.
40degrees F and 78 degrees F and has a strong
2. The Indian summer monsoon is affected by
maritime influence. The region has well-
the Atlantic SST variability.
distributed rainfall with thunderstorms in
3. Positive IOD and negative Equatorial Indian
Ocean Oscillation(EQUINOO) events bring summer with the occasional occurrence of
more rainfall to India. Tornadoes. The region exhibits monsoonal
Which of the statements given above is/are characteristics with more than 200 frost-free
correct? days, and the abundant moisture favors the
(a) 2 only cultivation of cotton and maize. On the
(b) 3 only highlands, conifers such as pines and
(c) 1 and 3 only cypresses are important softwoods. It is also
(d) 1 and 2 only called a slight monsoonal type of climate.
Which one of the following types of climate best
37. Match the following: describes the above passage?
Tectonic Location (a) Laurentian type climate
plates (b) British type climate
(c) Gulf type climate
1. Caroline - between Philippine (d) Steppe type climate
plate and Indian plate

2. Nazca plate - between Central 39. Consider the following statements

America and the 1. Corals survive only in warmer tropical and
pacific plate subtropical latitudes
2. Polyps along fringing reefs will die
3. Scotia plate - between South
immediately once the water recedes during
Africa and the
Earthquakes.
Antarctic plate
3. The corals are best developed on the inner
4. Cocos plate - between South aspect of Atolls due to less disruption by
America and the ocean currents.
pacific plate Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
5. Philippine - between the (a) 1 and 2 only
plate Eurasian plate (b) 2 and 3 only
and pacific plate (c) All of the above
(d) None of the above

SIA-A-GS I (9-A)
 .
40. Which of the following statements regarding Select the correct answer using the codes given
Aphelion is not correct? below:

(a) Aphelion is the position at which the Earth (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
is at its farthest from the Sun.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) The Earth is at Aphelion in the early month
(d) 1, 2 and 3
of July, which is 152 million km away from
the Sun. 43. Consider the following statements:
(c) Being farthest from the Sun, the Earth 1. Mid-oceanic ridges are continuous
experiences a significant drop in mountain ranges that occur along

temperature. convergent plate boundaries.

2. Mid-oceanic ridges are much younger than
(d) The varying distance between the Sun and
continental areas.
the Earth does not cause seasons.
3. Mid-Atlantic ridges do not create Rift Valley
in the Atlantic Ocean because it spreads
41. Consider the following statements: quickly.
1. Ocean surface Salinity affects the water Which of the statements given above is/are
cycle and ocean circulation. correct?

2. The annual range of temperature decreases (a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only
with latitude from the equator towards the
(c) 1, 2 and 3
poles.
(d) None of the above
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 44. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only 1. The halocline is an ocean layer where
(b) 2 only salinity changes most rapidly with depth.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Pycnocline refers to the rapid change in
density with depth.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The Arabian Sea experiences less salinity
than the Bay of Bengal due to the influence
42. What is/are the best possible evidence that
of the southwest monsoon.
supports the continental drift theory? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Ancient fossil fuels, rocks, and the correct?
mountain range across the continents. (a) 3 only
2. Ancient climatic zones in different (b) 1 and 3 only

locations. (c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 2 only
3. Distribution of placer deposits on Earth.

SIA-A-GS I (10-A)
 .
45. Consider the following statements with 47. Consider the following statements:
reference to The International Crops Research 1. Atlantic meridional overturning circulation
Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT): distributes heat and energy from the
1. ICRISAT is an international non-profit equatorial to the polar region.

organization undertaking agricultural 2. AMOC is driven by thermohaline

research for development in Asia and Sub- differences.

Saharan Africa. 3. North Atlantic drift decreases the severity of

2. It is the only International Agricultural winter in Western Europe.

Research Centre (IARC) Headquartered in Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
India.
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. India has granted a special status to
(b) 2 only
ICRISAT as a UN Organization, making it
(c) 1 and 3 only
eligible for special immunities and tax
(d) 1, 2 and 3
privileges.
Which of the statements given above is/are
48. Consider the following statements:
correct?
1. Uranus and Neptune are called the Twin
(a) 1 and 3 only
Planets of our Solar system.
(b) 2 only
2. Jupiter's moon Ganymede is the largest
(c) 2 and 3 only
moon in our solar system, bigger than the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Pluto
3. Venus is the hottest planet in our solar
46. Consider the following statements about
system.
International North-South Transport Corridor Which of the statements given above is/are not
(INSTC). correct?
1. The INSTC is a land- and sea-based multi- (a) 2 and 3 only
modal transport network that connects the (b) 1 only
Indian Ocean, Persian Gulf, the Caspian (c) 1, 2 and 3
Sea and Russia. (d) None of the above
2. The INSTC was launched in the year 2000
with India as one of its founding members. 49. Which of the following is used to determine the
Which of the statements given above is/are precise location of a place?
correct? 1. The altitude of a place
(a) 1 only 2. Latitude of a place
(b) 2 only 3. Longitude of a place
(c) Both 1 and 2 4. Pressure

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. Direction of wind

SIA-A-GS I (11-A)
 .
Select the correct answer using the codes given 3. The Karman line is located beyond the
below: Thermosphere, the place where space
(a) 1 and 2 only begins.
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only 4. In the mesosphere, temperature increases
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only with an increase in altitude.
(d) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?

50. Falkland Island recently seen in news is a (a) 2, 3 and 4 only

disputed area between: (b) 1 only

(a) Brazil and Argentina (c) 1 and 4 only

(b) UK and Argentina (d) 2 and 3 only

(c) Brazil and UK

(d) Brazil and Paraguay 53. Why are cyclones not formed despite high
temperature and moisture near the equator?

51. Which of the following is/are responsible for 1. Due to negligible Coriolis force.

the occurrence of solar and lunar eclipses? 2. Convergence of trade winds from

1. Revolution of the moon around the Earth subtropical high-pressure belts from both
close to the Earth’s ecliptic plane. the Hemisphere.
2. The proximity between the moon and the Which of the statements given above is/are
Earth. correct?
3. The relative apparent size of the Sun and (a) 1 only
the moon. (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given (c) Both 1 and 2
below: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 54. Why are the Major hot deserts in the northern
(c) 1 and 3 only
Hemisphere located between 20-30 degrees
(d) 1, 2 and 3
north and on the western side of the
continents?
52. Consider the following statements:
1. The incidence of warm currents along the
1. Mesopause is the coldest place in Earth’s
western coastal regions causes the onshore
atmosphere.
winds dry.
2. Halogens are less reactive in the
2. The relative humidity is extremely high,
ozonosphere.
making condensation almost impossible.

SIA-A-GS I (12-A)
 .
Which of the statements given above is/are not 57. Consider the following statements with
correct? reference to the equatorial type of climate:

(a) 1 only 1. The annual range of temperature is high

(b) 2 only due to the direct incidence of sun rays in

the equatorial region.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Unlike temperate forests, tropical
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
hardwoods are very strong which are widely
used in boat-making industries.
55. Four balance sheet problems recently seen in
3. The equatorial region experiences peak
the news include which among the following? rainfall during the months of April and
1. Infrastructure companies October
2. Core sector industries 4. The equatorial type of grassland found in
3. Banks Amazon lowlands is referred to as “selvas.”
4. Non-banking financial companies Which of the statements given above are

5. Real estate companies correct?

(a) 2 and 4
6. Foreign exchange
(b) 1 and 3
Choose the correct answer from the options
(c) 3 and 4
given below:
(d) 1 and 2
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 58. Due to climate change dam-like structure is a
(c) 2, 3, 5 and 6 proposed solution to the problem of rising water
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 levels in the North Sea. Consider the following
statements about the North Sea:
56. With reference to Frontogenesis and Temperate 1. Because of the low rate of evaporation and

cyclones, consider the following statements. the addition of fresh water, the North Sea
has low salinity.
1. It happens in an anticlockwise direction in
2. The North Sea is linked with the Baltic Sea
the northern and southern hemispheres in
by the strait of the Skagerrak.
a clockwise direction.
3. It is surrounded by Germany, Denmark,
2. Mid-latitude cyclones or temperate cyclones
Belgium, Luxenberg, Netherland, and
occur due to cold fronts. Norway.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statement given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

SIA-A-GS I (13-A)
 .
59. Recently Canada witnessed a heat dome where Select the correct answer using the codes given
a sudden increase in the ambient temperature. below:
Consider the following statement related to the (a) 1 and 2 only
Heat dome: (b) 2 and 3 only
1. A heat dome is an area of high pressure that
(c) 1 and 4 only
traps heat over a region.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Heat dome is mostly formed during La Nina
when waters are warm in the Eastern
62. Consider the following statements with respect
Pacific and cold in the western Pacific.
3. Heat domes are stationary, and they last for to Isotherms:

a few days to a week or two 1. Lines joining places having equal

Which of the statement given above is/are temperature are called isotherms.
correct? 2. Isotherms in both hemispheres are always
(a) 1 only parallel to the latitudes.
(b) 2 only 3. Isotherms are more closely spaced over sea
(c) 1 and 2 only
than over land.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are not
correct?
60. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) 1 only
the National Monsoon Mission.
1. The monsoon mission was launched by IMD (b) 2 only

to develop a state-of-the-art dynamical (c) 2 and 3 only

prediction system for monsoon rainfall on (d) 1 and 3 only
different time scales.
2. The system is capable of delivering Single 63. With reference to the Thunderstorm, consider
time scale predictions annually. the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Thunderstorms are violent storms that
correct?
occur for a short time and in a small area.
(a) 1 only
2. It occurs due to the intense convection on a
(b) 2 only
moist hot day.
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Thunderstorms are a manifestation of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
atmosphere's adjustment to varying energy

61. Which of the following conditions may cause distribution

cloud formation and precipitation? Which of the statement given above is/are
1. Condensation Nuclei correct?
2. Volcanism (a) 1 only
3. Convectional current (b) 1 and 3 only
4. Active cold front (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

SIA-A-GS I (14-A)
 .
64. How many of the following lakes share an 67. What is/are the possible impact of the
international boundary? convergence of the Labrador current and gulf
stream?
1. Lake Michigan
1. Chance of higher fish catch in this zone
2. Sea of Galilee
2. Chances of the accident of the boats due to
3. Lake Titicaca a reduction in the visibility
4. Lake Nyasa 3. Replenishment of nutrient and oxygen
5. Lake Chad Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
6. Lake Balkhash
(a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given
(b) 2 and 3 only
below: (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Three only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Four only
68. Which of the following statements are correct?
(c) Five only
1. The tropical marine climate is
(d) Six only
predominantly found along the eastern
coast of continents which lie south of the
65. The Global Environment Outlook report is Tropic of Cancer.
released by 2. According to the erstwhile planning
commission, India consists of 10 agro-
(a) United NationsFood and Agriculture
climatic zones.
Organisation
3. Teak is extensively grown in the regions of
(b) World Economic Forum monsoon type of climates.
(c) Oxfam International Select the correct answer using the codes given
(d) United Nations Environment Assembly below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
66. Recently longest river in Europe Danube, was
(c) 1 and 3 only
in the news. In which of the following countries (d) 1, 2 and 3
does the river Danube flow?
1. Slovenia 69. Consider the following statements with
reference to Blizzards:
2. Croatia
1. A blizzard is a severe storm condition with
3. Serbia
low temperature, strong winds and snow.
4. Moldova 2. Blizzards can occur in tropical region.
5. Bosnia and Herzegovina 3. Blizzard can cause hyperthermia by
Select the correct answer using the codes given exposure to frigid temperatures.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
below:
correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 2 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 3

SIA-A-GS I (15-A)
 .
70. Recently, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs has Select the correct answer using the codes given
sanctioned ₹2.26 Crores for Medaram Jathara. below:
Consider the following statements regarding (a) 1 and 3 only
the cultural festival, Medaram Jatraith: (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
1. Medaram Jathara is the second-largest
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
festival in India, after the Kumbh Mela.
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. Medaram Jathara is biennially celebrated
and organized by the Chenchu Tribes in the
73. Consider the following statements.
state of Telangana.
3. Jampannavagu river is worshiped as one of 1. Tropical evergreen forests are rich in fertile

the parts of rituals. soils, which helps in the luxurious growth

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are of tropical rainforests.
correct? 2. Most of the designated world heritage sites
(a) 1 only are situated along the equatorial region.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1 and 3 only correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
71. Consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. A Cloud burst is a short-duration, intense
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
rainfall event in a specific region with
precipitation exceeding 100mm/hr.
2. The state of global climate report by WMO 74. Which of the following statements is/are
highlights the global mean temperature for correct with respect to earthquake waves?
2021 was about 1.5°C above the 1850-1900 1. Body waves travel through the interior of
average. the Earth and can move in all directions.
Which of the statements given above is/are not 2. The velocity of surface waves remains
correct? unchanged as they travel through materials
(a) 1 only
of different densities.
(b) 2 only
3. P-waves are longitudinal waves and can
(c) Both 1 and 2
travel only through solid materials.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Surface waves are more destructive than
body waves.
72. Which of the following can be considered to be
the direct sources of information regarding the Select the correct answer using the codes
interior of the Earth? given below:
1. Volcanic eruptions (a) 1 and 4 only
2. Meteors (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Mining and deep drilling projects (c) 1 and 3 only
4. Seismic activities (d) 2 and 4 only
5. Earth’s magnetic field

SIA-A-GS I (16-A)
 .
75. Which of the following best describes the term Which of the statement given above is/are
‘Blue Blob’ recently seen in the news? correct?
(a) It is the new technology for harnessing (a) 1 only
electricity from ocean water.
(b) 1 and 2
(b) It is an area with the highest species density
(c) 2 only
declared by the IUCN in ocean water.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) It is a cold patch formed in the Polar
region.
78. Which of the following statements with regard
(d) It is one of the conservation efforts by UNEP
to save the ocean water ecosystem. to the ozone layer is not correct?
(a) Generally, concentration levels of 220
76. With respect to the interior of the Earth, Dobson Units or less are considered ozone
consider the following statements: depletion in the Stratosphere.
1. The continental crust is mainly granitic in (b) Total ozone is generally highest at the
nature and is denser than the Oceanic
equator and lowest in polar regions
crust
(c) The Montreal Protocol is a global agreement
2. The asthenosphere is the lowermost portion
to protect the stratospheric ozone layer by
of the mantle and is the main source of
phasing out ozone-depleting substances.
magma
(d) Ozone is a bluish gas with a boiling point of
3. The outer core is in a liquid state, while the
inner core is in a solid state. -112 degrees Celsius.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct? 79. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. Weathering is a precondition for mass
(b) 2 only movements like landslides.
(c) 3 only
2. Geomorphic agents do not cause mass
(d) 1 and 3 only
movements.
3. Mass movements like mudflow and rockfall
77. Recently Lassa fever outbreak happened in
down the slope are due to the influence of
parts of West Africa, including Sierra Leone,
gravity.
Liberia, Guinea, and Nigeria. Consider the
following statement about Lassa fever. Which of the statements given above is/are

1. It is one of the viral diseases named after its correct?

origin in Nigeria. (a) 1 only
2. It is spread by the fruit-eating bat. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. It causes difficulty in breathing and facial (c) 1, 2 and 3
swelling with a high death rate.
(d) None of the above

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 .
80. Recently, India’s first Graphene Innovation Which of the statements given above is/are
Center is to be established in Thrissur, Kerala. correct?
Consider the following about Graphene: (a) 2 only
1. It is a good conductor of heat and (b) 3 only
electricity. (c) 1 and 2 only
2. It is a three-dimensional structure with just (d) 1, 2 and 3

0.3nm in thickness.
83. What are the factors controlling the nature and
3. It can be used in Transport, medicine,
magnitude of tides?
electronics, energy, defense, desalination
1. The shape of the shoreline.
etc.
2. Local wind and weather patterns.
Which of the statement given above is/are
3. Changes in the position of the Sun and
correct?
moon in relation to the Earth.
(a) 1 and 2 only
4. Uneven distribution of water over the globe.
(b) 2 only
Choose the correct answer from the options
(c) 1 and 3 only
given below:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
81. Which among the following is an Endogenic (c) 3 and 4 only
process? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Denudation
2. Volcanic activity 84. With reference to world features, Vesuvius,
3. Folding of crust Mona Loa, and Cotopaxi are the names of
4. Deposition (a) Saline Lakes
5. Faults formation (b) Glaciers
Choose the correct answer from the options (c) Volcanos
given below: (d) Rift Valleys
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only 85. With reference to Kaziranga National Park,

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5only which of the following statements are correct?

1. It is spread over three districts.
(d) 2, 3 and 5 only
2. It hosts nearly two-thirds of the
world's great one-horned Rhino population.
82. Consider the following statements.
3. Eastern Swamp deer could be found only in
1. Aravalli is one of the oldest fold mountains
Kaziranga.
in the world.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
2. Unlike the Himalayas, the Rocky
below:
Mountains are formed by ocean-continent
(a) 1 and 2 only
convergence.
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Mt.Blanc is the highest peak in the Andes. (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

SIA-A-GS I (18-A)
 .
86. Arrange the following cities in descending order Choose the correct answer using the codes
based on the length of the days during Summer given below:
in the Northern Hemisphere: (a) Both 'A' and 'R' are individually true, and 'R'
1. Canberra is the correct explanation of A.'
2. Oslo (b) Both' A' and 'R' are individually true, but R'
is not the correct explanation of A.'
3. San Francisco
(c) 'A' is true, but 'R' is false.
4. Chennai
(d) 'A' is false, but 'R' is true.
5. Kalimantan
Select the correct answer using the codes given
89. Consider the following Statements.
below:
1. La Nina conditions in the Pacific Ocean can
(a) 1-2-3-4-5 cause dry conditions in the horn of Africa.
(b) 3-2-4-5-1 2. “gu” and “deyr” refers to the two rainy
(c) 2-3-4-5-1 seasons in the horn of Africa.
(d) 1-5-4-3-2 3. Both Eritrea and Somalia border the Gulf of
Edden.
87. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
Hot springs. correct?
1. These springs are found in areas of present (a) 1 only
or past volcanic activity. (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
2. Hot springs which emit fountains of hot
(d) 1, 2 and 3
water and steam at almost regular intervals
are called geysers.
90. Recently government launched the “SMILE:
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
Support for Marginalised Individuals for
correct?
Livelihood and Enterprise” Scheme. Consider
(a) 1 only the following statement related to the SMILE
(b) 2 only scheme:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. It is a central sector scheme launched by
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the Ministry of Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship
88. Consider the following Statements: 2. It is set up for the vulnerable sections of
Assertion: The dynamics of the Intertropical society, majorly physically handicapped
Convergence Zone have a significant role in people and destitute women.
changing the characteristics of the Indian 3. It helps to uphold Article 46 of Part-IV of the

monsoon rainfall Indian constitution.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
Reason: The significant shifting of ITCZ
correct?
towards the northern Hemisphere in summer
(a) 1 only
causes Southeastern trade winds to encroach
(b) 1 and 2 only
into the Northern Hemisphere and blow as
(c) 3 only
Southwest monsoon winds.
(d) 2 and 3 only

SIA-A-GS I (19-A)
 .
91. Consider the following Statements. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
Assertion: The deep-sea plains of the Indian correct?
Ocean is highly rugged.
(a) 1 only
Reason: This is due to its formation from a
(b) 2 only
large amount of solidified lava extending for
(c) Both 1 and 2
hundreds of kilometers.
Choose the correct answer using the codes (d) Neither 1 nor 2
given below:
(a) Both 'A' and 'R' are individually true, and 'R' 94. Consider the following statement.
is the correct explanation of A.' 1. Vertical Temperature gradient refers to the
(b) Both' A' and 'R' are individually true, but R'
fall in temperature with respect to altitude.
is not the correct explanation of A.'
2. The Gradient value decreases by 6.5oC per
(c) 'A' is true, but 'R' is false.
(d) 'A' is false, but 'R' is true. kilometer of ascend.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
92. Consider the following statements regarding correct?
tides. (a) 1 only
1. Spring tides are formed during the syzygy
(b) 2 only
position of the Sun, Earth and Moon, which
(c) Both 1 and 2
happens during the time of the eclipse.
2. Neap tides are formed during the (d) Neither 1 nor 2

quadrature position of the Sun, Earth and

Moon during the lunar phase's first and 95. With reference to the Denotified Tribes(DNTs),
third quarters. consider the following statements.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
1. British government categorized DNTs as
correct?
criminal tribes during colonial rule in India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 2. Renke commission was set up for the

(c) Both 1 and 2 welfare of the Denotified tribe in India

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Recently union ministry of the tribal affair
launched the Scheme for Economic
93. Consider the following statements regarding
Empowerment of DNTs (SEED)
Cyclones.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
1. The cyclone's approach is characterized by
correct?
a fall in barometric reading, clear sky,
strong oppressive winds and bad weather. (a) 1 only
2. The approach of Anticyclone is (b) 1 and 2 only
characterized by the dull sky, calm air and (c) 2 and 3 only
high temperature in summer.
(d) 1, 2 and 3

SIA-A-GS I (20-A)
 .
96. Consider the following statements: 99. KIRAN Scheme, which was in the news recently
1. Cocoa is a tropical crop, majorly cultivated is related to,
in the equatorial type climate.
(a) Providing opportunities to women
2. Kerala ranks first in cocoa cultivation in
terms of productivity. Scientists

3. India is self-sufficient in cocoa production, (b) Providing Hostel to Working Woman

with an area of one lakh hectares. (c) To improve the child sex ratio in the state
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(d) Providing Financial assistance to OBC and
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only SC/ST Students

(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
100. The Market Infrastructure Institutions was in
(d) 3 only
news recently consider the following

97. ‘WASP-96b’ has been in the news and is related statement:

to which of the following? 1. Stock exchanges, depositories and clearing

(a) Group of insects that help in pollination.
houses constitutes the Market
(b) A hot, massive planet orbiting outside the
Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs).
Solar system.
(c) A giant cluster of galaxies is present in the 2. They constitute a key part of the nation's
direction of Volans Constellation. vital economic infrastructure.
(d) An interstellar gas cloud
3. In 2010, a panel was set up under the

chairmanship of former RBI Governor

98. Consider the following fluvial erosional and
depositional landforms. Shaktikanta Das to examine the issues
1. Swamps and Marshes arising from the ownership and governance
2. V-shaped valleys
of MIIs.
3. Waterfalls and rapids
Which of the Statement given above are
4. Braided channels
Which of the above are not usually formed correct?
during the old age course of a river? (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

*****

SIA-A-GS I (21-A)
 .

SIA-A-GS I (22-A)
 .

SIA-A-GS I (23-A)
 .
PRESTORMINGTM 2023
TEST – 2 GEOGRAPHY
EXPLANATION
QUESTION NO PAGE NO
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2
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3
 .
Q.1) Consider the following statements about Temperature Inversion.
1. It is the increase in temperature with increasing height temporarily or locally.
2. Short winter nights, cloudy sky, cold air and the presence of winds lead to temperature inversion.
3. During a temperature inversion, the temperature may fall below freezing point in the valleys
leading even to the occurrence of frost.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Long winter nights, clear skies, dry air, and the absence of winds are ideal for temperature inversion.
These situations lead to rapid radiation of heat from the earth’s surface and the lower layers of the
atmosphere, resulting in the cooling of the air near the earth’s surface. The upper layers, which lose their
heat not so rapidly, are comparatively warm. Hence the normal condition in which temperature decreases
with increasing height is reversed. The cooler air is nearer the earth, and the warmer air is aloft. In other
words, temperature increases with increasing height temporarily or locally. This phenomenon is termed
inversion of temperature. So, Statement 1 is correct

The presence of cloudy sky traps the terrestrial radiation near the earth surface because of which it
prevents the earth surface from getting cooled.
Thus short winter nights and cloudy sky does not lead to Temperature Inversion. So, Statement 2 is
not correct.
During winters, the mountain slopes cool very rapidly due to the quick heat radiation. The air resting
above them also becomes cold, and its density increases. Hence, it moves down the slopes and settles
down in the valleys. This air pushes the comparatively warmer air of valleys upwards and leads to the
phenomenon of inversion of temperature. Sometimes the temperature falls below freezing point in the
valleys leading even to the occurrence of frost. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
INVERSION OF TEMPERATURE
Temperature  Normally, temperature decreases with an increase in elevation. It is called the
Inversion normal lapse rate.
 The situation is sometimes reversed, and the normal lapse rate is inverted. It
is called the Inversion of temperature.
 Inversion is usually of short duration but quite common nonetheless.
Conditions  A long winter night with clear skies and still air is an ideal situation for
inversion.
 The day's heat radiates off during the night, and by early morning hours, the
earth is cooler than the air above. Over polar areas, a temperature inversion
is normal throughout the year.
Air Drainage  The inversion takes place in hills and mountains due to air drainage. Cold air
from the hills and mountains, produced during the night, flows under the
influence of gravity.
 Being heavy and dense, the cold air acts like water and moves down the slope
to pile up deeply in pockets and valley bottoms with warm air above. This is
called air drainage.

4
 .
Q.2) What are the disadvantages of green hydrogen as a fuel?
1. Colorless and Odourless fuel, which is light in weight.
2. Highly flammable fuel.

3. Very high energy density, which is about 3 times of hydrocarbons.

4. Hydrogen embrittlement.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,3 and 4

EXPLANATION:

Green hydrogen is defined as hydrogen produced by splitting water into hydrogen and oxygen using
renewable electricity. It is a colorless and odorless gas.

The Advantages of Green Hydrogen as a fuel are,

 100 % eco-friendly and non-polluting.

 Green hydrogen is easy to store as it is light in weight.

 It has a high energy density.

 It can be transformed into electricity or synthesis gas and has multiple
 It can be mixed with natural gas and transported through the presently available pipelines and

gas infrastructures.

So, Statements 1 and 3 are not correct.

The Disadvantages of Green Hydrogen as a fuel are as follows,

 High cost of production.

 Highly volatile and flammable element.

 The production of green hydrogen requires more energy than other fuels.

 The problem of Hydrogen embrittlement. This is the phenomenon in which when the

introduction and diffusion of hydrogen take place into the material makes the metals brittle.

So, Statements 2 and 4 are correct.

5
 .
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CLASSIFICATION OF HYDROGEN-BASED UPON THE MODE OF PRODUCTION
Produced by electrolysis using renewable power from wind
Green
and solar to split water into hydrogen and oxygen.

Produced by thermal splitting of methane. Solid Carbon is

Turquoise
Types of Hydrogen
produced instead of CO2.

Yellow Produced by ellectrolysis using Grid electricity.

Produced from natural gas, where the emissions are

Blue
captured using carbon capture and storage.

Pink Produced by ellectrolysis using nuclear electricity.

Produced from natural gas where the associated emissions

Grey
are released to the air.

White Produced as a output of industrial production.

Produced using coal where the emissions are released to the

Brown
air.

Q.3) With reference to the Coriolis force, consider the following statement:
1. It is responsible for the formation of meandering in the river.
2. It helps sustain the cyclonic circulation in the Doldrum region.
3. It is maximum at the pole as compared to the equator and inversely proportional to the velocity
of the wind.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
EXPLANATION:
A river flows bend to Earth's surface; the Coriolis Effect adds rotation to the water's flow. The rivers of
the northern hemisphere tend to erode chiefly on the right side. The Coriolis effect makes planes and
air currents that travel long distances around the earth appear to move at a curve instead of a straight
line.
The Baer–Babinet law, sometimes called Baer's law, identifies a way in which the process of formation
of rivers is influenced by the rotation of the Earth and because of the rotation of the
Earth, erosion occurs mostly on the right banks of rivers in the Northern Hemisphere, and in
the Southern Hemisphere on the left banks. Hence in the course of the erosion, an advance of the
wave-line of the meander formation is bound to take place in the direction of the current. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
Doldrums is a region of low atmospheric pressure between five degrees north and south of the equator.
The Coriolis force of this region is zero and increases with latitude. Coriolis force at 5° latitude is
significant enough to create a storm [cyclonic vortex]. About 65 percent of cyclonic activity occurs

6
 .
between 10° and 20° latitude. The cyclonic wind movements are anti-clockwise in the northern
hemisphere and clockwise in the southern hemisphere, and it is due to the Coriolis force.
Because of zero Coriolis force, the Doldrums region lacks cyclone formation. So, Statement 2 is not
correct.
The magnitude of Coriolis force is directly proportional to wind speed (velocity). The higher the wind
speed, the greater the deflection. The Coriolis effect is maximum at the poles and zero at the equator.
Coriolis force always acts in a direction that is perpendicular to the moving object's axis.
Thus, the coriolis force is not inversely but directly proportional to the velocity of the wind. So,
Statement 3 is not correct.

Q.4) Which of the following statements about volcanoes are correct?

1. Volcanoes are responsible for creating more than 80 percent of the Earth’s surface.
2. A volcano that has remained dormant for decades can never become active again.
3. Over the years, volcanic materials have formed the most fertile Earth soil.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
Volcanoes that are dormant even for a century can become active again. So, Statement 2 could be
eliminated.
Volcanoes have played a key role in forming and modifying the surface of the planet Earth. More than
eighty percent of the Earth's surface, above and below sea level, is of volcanic origin. Numerous volcanic
eruptions have produced majestic landscapes like mountains, plateaus, and plains. So, Statement 1
is correct.
A volcano that has remained dormant even for a century can become active again. It was witnessed in
the United States on March 27, 1980. Mount St. Helens Volcano in the Cascade Range, southwestern

7
 .
Washington, reawakened after more than a century of dormancy and provided a dramatic and tragic
reminder that there are active volcanoes in the "lower 48" States as well as in Hawaii and Alaska. Mount
St. Helens is expected to remain intermittently active for months or years, possibly even decades. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.
Over the years, volcanic eruptions have caused subsequent erosion and weathering of landmasses,
leading to the break-down of even the volcanic materials to form some of the most fertile soils on Earth,
cultivation of which fostered and sustained civilizations. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
VOLCANOES
Volcano  A volcano is an opening in the earth’s crust through which molten rock material
is thrown out slowly or forcefully, depending upon the force of the eruption.
 The cause of volcanic eruption is the excessive pressure exerted by the magma
and hot gases on the earth’s crust.

Types based on Based on the frequency of eruption, volcanoes are classified into active, dormant,
Frequency and extinct volcanoes.
 Active volcanoes are erupting currently or have erupted recently.
 Dormant are those volcanoes that have erupted at least once in human history
and are not active now.
 Extinct volcanoes are those which have not erupted during long human history.
Types based on  Major types of volcanoes erupt from a vent or hole and form a conical hill.
Mode of  Fissure types of volcanoes erupt through a crack or fissure and cause the
Eruption formation of plateaus and shields.
Types based on  Basic lava is highly fluid and flows readily and extensively. It causes the
Fluidity formation of shields.
 Acid lava is highly viscous—this type of eruption of steep-sided cones.

Q.5) Recent discoveries of ancient rock paintings in Bargur have led to many inferences. Consider the
following statements regarding Bargur cave Paintings.
1. These are found in the forest area of Madhya Pradesh.
2. The paintings are monochrome in fashion with human and animal figurines.
3. These paintings depict the worship of God during ancient times.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only

8
 .
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Recently, over 200 prehistoric paintings were identified at a cave in the forest area of Bargur Hills in
Erode district of Tamil Nadu. The painting was spotted in a collapsed cave called Rukkal Muniyappan,
where the deity Muneeswar worshipped by tribal people, is found. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The paintings aren’t monochrome (made of a single color); it is done using red ochre and white on a rock
that is 30 feet high and 250 feet in length and depicts humans and animals such as deer, elephant,
tiger, along with other signs and symbols. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
In one of its cave, an anthropomorphic painting four feet high can be witnessed which looks similar to
the Mother Goddess of megalithic structures that were identified in Tiruvannamalai district of Tamil
Nadu. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
BARGUR PAINTINGS
Significance  Painting is seen on a rock that is 30 feet high and 250 feet in length.
 At the top, a painting similar to Mother Goddess with two deer and a few
animals beneath her leg can be seen.
 The middle row comprises a man standing on a crescent-shaped object and
some other symbols and is considered a picture of a boat ride.
 The bottom layer depicts the racial conflict between people, with three
warriors opposing 10.
Painting Found

 It depicts a warrior on a horse engaging an enemy.

Q.6) Consider the statements regarding Ocean waters:

1. The continuous flow of large volumes of water in a definite direction is referred to as Waves.
2. Ocean water level is higher near the equator than at the middle latitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
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 .
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:
The horizontal and vertical motions are common in ocean water bodies. Horizontal motion refers to
ocean currents and waves. Vertical motion refers to tides. Ocean currents are the continuous flow of a
huge amount of water in a definite direction from one place to another. At the same time, waves are the
horizontal motion of water, and there is no movement of water from one place to another. So, Statement
1 is not correct.
Heating by solar energy causes the water to expand (thermal expansion of water). That is why the ocean
water is about 8 cm higher near the equator than in the middle latitudes. This causes a slight gradient,
and water flows down the slope. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
MOVEMENTS OF OCEAN
Movement of The ocean water is dynamic. Its physical characteristics like temperature,
Ocean Water salinity, density, and external forces like the sun, moon, and winds influence
the movement of ocean water.
Ocean Currents Ocean currents are like river flow in oceans. They represent a regular volume
of water in a definite path and direction.
Waves Waves are the energy, not the water as such, which moves across the ocean
surface. Water particles only travel in a small circle as a wave passes.
Tides The periodical rise and fall of the sea level, once or twice a day, mainly due to
the attraction of the sun and the moon, is called tides.

Q.7) Which of the following statements about ocean currents are correct?
1. Cold currents are found on the west coast of the continents, both in low and higher latitudes
2. The velocity of an ocean current is higher at the surface than at the depths.
3. Fishing is an important economic activity in regions where warm and cold currents meet.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Those currents which flow from polar regions towards the equator have a lower surface temperature and
are called cold currents.
In tropical and sub-tropical latitudes of both hemispheres, these cold currents are found on the western
side of the continents.
But in the middle and higher latitudes of the northern hemisphere, the cold currents are found on the
eastern sides of the continents.
Warm currents flow parallel to the east coasts of the continents in tropical and subtropical latitudes. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
The strength of the ocean current is dependent on the temperature, density and salinity of ocean water.
The strength of a current refers to the speed of the current. A fast current is considered strong. The
higher the temperature of the water, the lower its density. The lower the density, the higher the strength
or speed. A current is usually strongest at the surface and decreases in strength (speed) with depth.
Hence, the Velocity of an ocean current is higher at the surfaces than at depth. So, statement 2 is
correct.

10
 .
When the warm and cold ocean currents meet, upwelling and downwelling occur. Due to this, the
nutrients in the sub-surface are bought to the surface. These nutrients encourage the growth of algae
and phytoplankton, which act as food for the fish. Hence, fishes come to these regions more and breed
here. So, fishing became an important economic activity in regions where warm and cold currents meet.
So, statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Ocean  They are horizontal flows of a mass of water in a fairly defined direction over great
Currents distances in a regular pattern.
 Ocean currents with higher speeds are called streams.
 Ocean currents with lower speeds are called drift.
Types of
Ocean
Current
Ocean Current

Warm Ocean Current

Cold Ocean Current
[currents which flow from
[currents which flow from polar
equatorial regions towards poles
regions towards equator having
having higher surface
lower surface temperature]
temperature]

Factors determining the nature of the circulation of the ocean currents:

The higher the temperature of water,

Differences in lower is its density.
Density The higher the salinity of water, higher is
its density.
Factors

All the ocean currents follow clockwise

direction in the northern hemisphere
Coriolis force
and anticlockwise direction in the
southern hemisphere.

In low latitudes or in the region of the

trade winds the ocean currents change
Planetary Winds their direction according to the change in
the direction of summer and winter
monsoon winds.

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 .
Ocean Currents of the World

Q.8) Consider the following statements.

1. The climate is characterized by warm, moist summer and cool, dry winter.
2. Well-distributed rainfall throughout the year but maximum in June, July and August.
3. Wet paddy or swamp rice is cultivated majorly in this type of climate.
The above features are distinct characteristics of which among the following climate?
(a) The Tropical Monsoon Climate
(b) The Warm temperate eastern margin
(c) The Cool temperate western margin
(d) The Temperate continental climate
EXPLANATION:
The warm temperate eastern margin climate is characterized by a warm, moist summer & a cool, dry
winter strongly modified by maritime influences. Occasionally, the penetration of cold air from the
continental interiors may bring down the temperature to the freezing point, but most of the time, it is
pleasantly warm.
Warm Temperate Eastern Margin – Distribution Map:

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 .
Rainfall graph of Warm Temperate Eastern Margin Climate:

It is clear from the graph that it receives rainfall throughout the year, with the maximum amount of
rainfall observed in June, July, August and September.
The area under the China type of climate is the world’s largest rice-growing area. The peasants grow
Wet Paddy or Swamp Rice here because of the flooding water bought by the monsoon. This availability
of flooding water provides the necessary irrigation, which is very much required for the growth of paddy.
So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Warm  It belongs to the Humid Subtropical type of climate.
Temperate  It is characterized by hot summers, mild winters and throughout the year
Eastern Margin precipitation.
Climate  During summer, hot and sultry weather conditions of the type expected in the
rainy tropics prevail.
 Besides these, convectional rainfall in summer is another salient feature
commonly shared with humid tropical climates.
 On the contrary, during winter, because of changes in the sun's overhead
position, the pressure and wind belts shift, and the humid subtropical climate
regions are under the influence of temperate cyclones and frontal systems.
 It is noteworthy that the Mediterranean climate occupies the western side of the
continent, whereas the humid subtropical climate is located on the eastern side.
Distribution  The humid subtropical climate is found on the eastern sides of the continents,
in the 25o to 40o latitude range in both the hemispheres.

13
 .
 As compared to the southern hemisphere, land masses are more extensive in
the middle latitudes in the northern hemisphere.
 Based on its distribution, this climate is also known as China type or Gulf type
or Natal type.
Temperature  Temperature values in this climate reflect that the summer temperatures are
comparable to the tropics and that winter values are markedly lower.
 The summer season average temperature range is 16o to 26o C.
 Humid subtropical regions have mild winters.
 The average temperatures for winter months vary from 3o C to 13o C.
Precipitation  In humid subtropical climates, the average annual precipitation ranges from 75
to 150 cm. Generally, its distribution decreases towards interiors.
 Precipitation is distributed throughout the year, and it exceeds potential
evapotranspiration.
 Generally, precipitation maxima are found in summer, but there are
considerable variations.
 The winter precipitation is also different. Sometimes it is in the form of snow,
and most are generated along fronts of the frequent temperate cyclones which
sweep over these regions.
 Winter precipitation is more widespread.

Q.9) Consider the following statements regarding Ocean gyres:

1. They are large circulations in the ocean caused due to planetary winds and the Coriolis effect.
2. The Sargasso Sea is associated with the north Atlantic gyre and is known for its biodiversity.
3. The Great Pacific Garbage Patch is the largest collection of marine pollutant materials associated
with North Pacific gyre circulation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
An ocean gyre is a large system of circular ocean currents formed by global wind patterns and forces
created by Earth’s rotation (Coriolis Force). The movement of the world’s major ocean gyres helps drive
the “ocean conveyor belt.” The ocean conveyor belt circulates ocean water around the entire planet.
The ocean conveyor belt is essential for regulating temperature, salinity, and nutrient flow throughout
the ocean. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Sargasso Sea is a fundamentally important part of the world ocean, located within the North
Atlantic sub-tropical gyre with its boundaries defined by the surrounding currents.
Its importance derives from a combination of physical and oceanographic structure, complex pelagic
ecosystems, and its role in global ocean and earth system processes. It is home to an iconic pelagic
ecosystem with the floating Sargassum seaweeds, the world’s only holopelagic algae, as its cornerstone.
It hosts a diverse community of associated organisms that includes ten endemic species and provides
essential habitat for key life stages of a wide diversity of species, many of which are endangered or
threatened.
A variety of oceanographic processes impact productivity and species diversity, and the area plays a
disproportionately large role in global ocean processes of oxygen production and carbon sequestration.
So, Statement 2 is correct.

14
 .
The Great Pacific Garbage Patch is a collection of marine debris in the North Pacific Ocean. Also known
as the Pacific trash vortex, the garbage patch is two distinct collections of debris bounded by the
massive North Pacific Subtropical Gyre. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
OCEAN GYRES
Formation  Three forces cause the circulation of a gyre: global wind patterns, Earth’s rotation,
and landmasses.
 Wind drags on the ocean surface, causing water to move in the direction the wind
blows.
 Earth’s rotation deflects or changes the direction of these wind-driven currents. This
deflection is a part of the Coriolis Effect. The Coriolis Effect shifts surface currents
by angles of about 45 degrees. In the Northern Hemisphere, ocean currents are
deflected to the right in a clockwise motion. In the Southern Hemisphere, ocean
currents are pushed to the left in a counter-clockwise motion.

15
 .
 Earth’s continents and other landmasses (such as islands) also influence the
creation of ocean gyres. The massive South Pacific Gyre, for instance, includes
hundreds of kilometers of open ocean.
Great Gyres There are five major ocean gyres,
 The Indian Ocean gyre
 The North Atlantic gyre
 The South Atlantic gyre
 The North Pacific gyre
 The South Pacific gyre
Movement  Gyres are comprised of ocean currents that link up as they follow the coastlines of
Earth’s continents.
 Each gyre has a powerful western boundary current and a weaker eastern boundary
current.
 Most ocean gyres are very stable and predictable.

Q.10) Millets are considered the Future Super Food for India. In this context, consider the following
statements about Millets production in India.
1. Millets are low cost and are rich in iron, calcium, magnesium, and antioxidants.
2. They are drought-resistant crops with a short growing season and lower water requirements.
3. Jowar is known to have the highest calcium content among all the food grains.
4. Currently, India is the largest exporter of Millet in the world.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Millets are less expensive than rice or wheat. Millets are highly nutritious, gluten-free, and rich in
dietary fiber. They are rich in micronutrients, including calcium, iron, phosphorus, copper, zinc,

16
 .
magnesium, potassium, etc. All millets possess high antioxidant activities and play an important role
in aging and metabolic diseases. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Millets are highly tolerant to drought and other extreme weather conditions and are grown with low
chemical inputs such as fertilizers and pesticides. They have low requirements for water and fertility
when compared to other popular cereals. Millets have a short growing season and are ready to harvest
about 65 days from seeding. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Calcium is one of the most important minerals required by the human body that is essential for healthy
bone formation. Finger millet (Ragi) is the richest source of calcium (300-350 mg/100g). So, Statement
3 is not correct.

Currently, India is the fifth largest exporter of millets in the world, according to 2020 data. Major
exporters of millets are the USA, Russian Federation, Ukraine, India, China, Netherlands, France,
Poland, and Argentina. Nepal, UAE, and Saudi Arabia were the top three importers of millets from India
in 2020-21. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
MILLETS
Types The various kinds of millets include sorghum (Jowar), pearl millet (Bajra), finger
millet (Ragi), little millet (Kutki), small millet (Samai), foxtail millet (Kangni),
proso millet (Barri), barnyard millet (Jhangora), Kodo millet (Kodra), two pseudo
millets (buckwheat and kuttu), Amaranthus (Chulai) and other millets.
Benefits  Niacin — a type of vitamin B found in millets — is useful in energy
production, nerve health, and keeping the digestive tract healthy. If you have
food intolerances, this is very helpful.
 The magnesium, zinc, and fiber found in millets make it an excellent food
for blood sugar regulation, especially for PCOD and Diabetes
 Folic acid helps with iron assimilation and improves skin, health, and
fertility.

17
 .
Export Promotion  The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development
Authority(APEDA) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry has
created Nutri Cereals Export Promotion Forum, which promotes millets
exports.
 It has also organized a sensitization program for millet start-ups to
familiarize them with export opportunities.
Year of Millets  The Union Government has declared 2023 as the Year of Millets.
 A series of programs will be launched to promote millets and other nutritious
grains across the country.

Q.11) Consider the following pairs:

Types of Associated Physical
lakes Feature

1. Kettle lake - Karst region

2. Oxbow lake - River meanders

3. Lagoon lake - Coastal region

4. Playa lake - Wind erosion

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) One pair
(b) Two pairs
(c) Three pairs
(d) Four pairs
EXPLANATION:
A kettle (also known as a kettle lake, kettle hole, or pothole) is a depression/hole in an outwash
plain formed by retreating glaciers or draining floodwaters. The kettles are formed as a result of blocks
of dead ice left behind by retreating glaciers, which become surrounded by sediment deposited by melt
water streams as there is increased friction. In contrast, the Karst region is related to the Underground
topography. So, Pair 1 is not correct.
An oxbow lake starts as a curve, or meander, in a river. A lake forms as the river finds a different,
shorter course. The meander becomes an oxbow lake along the side of the river.
So, Pair 2 is correct.

A lagoon is a shallow body of water protected from a larger body of water (usually the ocean)
by sandbars, barrier islands, or coral reefs around the Coastal region. They are often called
estuaries, sounds, bays, or even lakes. So, Pair 3 is correct.

18
 .
The playa, also called pan, flat, or dry lake, is a flat-bottom depression that is caused by Wind erosion
and is found in interior desert basins and adjacent to coasts within arid and semi-arid regions,
periodically covered by water that slowly filtrates into the groundwater system or evaporates into
the atmosphere, causing the deposition of salt, sand, and mud along the bottom and around the edges
of the depression. So, Pair 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Kettle Lake

Playa Lake

Q.12) Which of the following statement regarding Jet Streams is correct?

(a) They are high-velocity stratospheric winds present in both hemispheres.
(b) They shift Southwards during summer and blow in Southern Asia.
(c) The westerly Jet streams are more extensive and stronger during the summer season.
(d) Tropical Easterly Jet Stream are established during the summer season and plays an
important role in the onset of the Indian monsoon.
EXPLANATION:
Jet streams are the strongest high-velocity winds that blow in the atmospheric layer of the Troposphere,
exactly in Tropopause and not in the Stratosphere. They occur in both the hemispheres of the Earth. So,
Option (a) is not correct.
The jet streams are a narrow belt of fast-blowing winds located generally at 12,000-meter height above
sea level. They bring western cyclonic disturbances along with them. These cyclonic winds originate near
the Mediterranean Sea and move eastwards. On their way, they collect moisture from the Persian Gulf
19
 .
and shed it in the North western part of India during the winter seasons. These Jet streams shift
northwards during the summer season and blow in Central Asia, which helps in the onset of monsoons.
So, Option (b) is not correct.
Jet streams are stronger in winter in the northern and southern hemispheres because air temperature
differences that drive them tend to be most pronounced due to the expansion of polar cells towards the
south. For example, in India, subtropical westerly jet streams, which are more extensive and stronger,
blow south of the Himalayas all through the year except in summer. The western cyclonic disturbances
experienced in the north and north-western parts of the country are brought in by this westerly flow. In
summer, the subtropical westerly jet stream moves north of the Himalayas with the sun's apparent
movement. So, Option (c) is not correct.
An easterly jet stream, called the sub-tropical easterly jet stream, blows over peninsular India,
approximately over 14°N during the summer months, only after the western jet stream has withdrawn
itself from the region. This easterly jet stream is held responsible for the burst of the monsoon in India.

So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
JET STREAMS
About  Jet streams are westerly, fast-moving wind in the upper troposphere,
influencing the global atmospheric phenomenon.
 It was developed due to the meeting of air masses of different temperatures.
Types of the jet There are two major types of the jet stream
stream  Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream
 Tropical Easterly Jet Stream

20
 .
Characters  The jet stream is a component of the Rossby waves
 Jet streams are a strong westerly wind
 It is high altitude wind, approximately at 7km altitude
 It has a waving character
 It follows a curved path due to Coriolis effects
 It occurs in both the hemispheres
Impact  Shifting of temperate cyclone formation to further south
 Creation of super cyclone
 Wind system occurred because of jet stream collision
 Transport of ozone-depleting material

Q.13) Among the following climatic conditions, identify the one which is not related to El-Nino circulation
in the Pacific Ocean.
(a) More frequent hurricanes in the north Atlantic Ocean
(b) Higher sea surface temperature in the tropical eastern Pacific Ocean
(c) Dry conditions in Southeast Asian countries
(d) Floods in Peru and Ecuador
EXPLANATION:
 The change in winds with height is referred to as vertical wind shear. Hurricane formation requires
that winds be fairly uniform throughout the atmosphere. In other words, hurricanes cannot form if
the vertical wind shear is too high.
 El Nino produces stronger westerly wind at upper levels of the atmosphere across the tropical Atlantic
than in normal non-El Nino seasons. El Nino increases the total vertical wind shear, shearing the tops
from developing storms before a healthy circulation can form. El Nino events generally suppress
Atlantic hurricane activity, so fewer hurricanes than normal form in the Atlantic from August to
October, the peak of Atlantic hurricane season.
 During La Nina, westerly winds high in the atmosphere weaken. La Nina results in an expanded area
of low vertical wind shear, allowing more Atlantic hurricanes to develop during the La Nina events. La
Nina increases the number of developing hurricanes and allows stronger hurricanes to form.
 The chances for the continental U.S. and the Caribbean Islands (North Atlantic Ocean) to experience
a hurricane increase substantially during La Nina and decrease during El Nino. So, Option (a) is not
correct.

During El Nino, the surface winds across the entire tropical Pacific are weaker than usual. Ocean
temperatures in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean are warmer or higher than average, and
rainfall is below average over Indonesia and above average over the central or eastern Pacific. So, Option
(b) is correct.
Rising air motion (linked to storms and rainfall) increases over the central or eastern Pacific, and surface
pressure there tends to be lower than average. Meanwhile, increased sinking air motion over Southeast
Asian nations like Indonesia leads to higher surface pressure and dryness. So, Option (c) is correct.
El Nino also produces widespread and sometimes severe changes in the climate. Convection above warmer
surface waters brings increased precipitation. Rainfall increases drastically in Ecuador and northern
Peru, contributing to coastal flooding and erosion. So, Option (d) is correct.

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 .
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
EL NINO
El Nino and  El Nino and La Nina are climate patterns in the Pacific Ocean that can affect
La Nina weather worldwide. During normal conditions in the Pacific Ocean, trade winds blow
west along the equator, taking warm water from South America toward Asia. To
replace that warm water, cold water rises from the depths — a process
called upwelling.
 El Nino and La Nina are two opposing climate patterns that break these normal
conditions. Scientists call these phenomena the El Nino-Southern Oscillation
(ENSO) cycle.
 El Nino and La Nina can impact global weather, wildfires, ecosystems, and global
economies. Episodes of El Nino and La Nina typically last nine to 12 months but can
sometimes last for years.

 On average, El Nino and La Nina events occur every two to seven years, but they
don’t occur on a regular schedule. Generally, El Nino occurs more frequently than
La Nina.
El Nino  El Nino means Little Boy or Christ Child in Spanish. During El Nino, trade winds
weaken. Warm water is pushed back east, toward the west coast of the Americas.
 South American fishermen first noticed periods of unusually warm water in the
Pacific Ocean in the 1600s. Their full name was El Nino de Navidad because El Nino
typically peaks around December.
Impact on  In India, El Nino is associated with drought or weak monsoon, while La Nina is
Indian associated with strong monsoon and above-average rains and colder winters
Monsoon

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 .
Q.14) Consider the following statement regarding soils:
1. Generally, plants grow well in mild alkaline soil.
2. Adding sulfur to the soil reduces the alkalinity of the soil.
3. Black soils are well aerated but poor in the water holding capacity.
4. Maximum humus content is found in the subsoil region due to dead and decaying organisms.
How many of the above statement(s) are correct?
(a) One statement
(b) Two statements
(c) Three statements
(d) Four statements
EXPLANATION:
Generally, plants grow well in Loamy soil with a pH of 4 to 6 (acidic). It has a mixture of sand, clay, and
soil particle known as silt and humus. It has a good water-holding capacity for the growth of plants,
whereas, for alkaline soil, the pH has to be more than 7. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The cheapest way to lower the soil pH (alkalinity) is to add elemental sulphur to the soil. Soil bacteria
change the sulphur to sulfuric acid, lowering the soil pH. If the soil pH exceeds 5.5, apply elemental
sulphur (S) to decrease the soil pH to 4.5. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Black soils (also called as Regur soil) are clayey soil in which water can be held in the tiny gaps between
the clay particles. So they have less air but are heavy as they hold more water than the sandy soils. At
the same time, the Sandy soil is well aerated but poor in water holding capacity due to large sand
particles. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
The uppermost horizon is generally dark in color and rich in humus and minerals. The humus makes
the soil fertile and provides nutrients to growing plants. This layer is generally soft and porous and can
retain more water. It is called the topsoil or the A-horizon. This provides shelter for many living
organisms, such as worms, rodents, moles, and beetles. The roots of small plants are embedded entirely
in the topsoil.
The next layer has a lesser amount of humus but more minerals. This layer is generally harder and more
compact and is called the B-horizon, the middle layer, or the subsoil. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SOIL
About  The weathering of rocks produces small particles of various materials. These include
sand and clay.
 The relative amount of sand and clay depends upon the rock from which the particles
formed, the parent rock.
 The mixture of rock particles and humus is called soil. Living organisms, such as
bacteria, plant roots, and earthworms, are also important parts of soil.
 The soil is classified based on the proportion of particles of various sizes.
Types  It is called sandy soil if it contains a greater proportion of big particles. If the proportion
of fine particles is relatively higher, it is called clayey soil. If the amount of large and
fine particles is about the same, then the soil is called loamy.
 Thus, the soil can be classified as sandy, clayey and loamy.

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Q.15) Zmiinyi island was in the news due to the ongoing war between Ukraine and Russia. On which of
the below sea is this island located?
(a) Caspian Sea
(b) Dead Sea
(c) Black Sea
(d) Azov Sea
EXPLANATION:
Zmiinyi Island, also known as Snake or Serpent Island, is a small piece of rock less than 700 meters
from end to end that has been described as being “X-shaped.” It is located 35 km from the coast of the
Black Sea, to the east of the mouth of the Danube, and roughly southwest of the port city of Odesa and
belongs to Ukraine. So, Option (c) is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ZMIINYI ISLAND(also called Snake Island)
Snake Island  It is a strategic island on the Black Sea that belongs to Ukraine.
 Ukraine claimed attacks on Russian troops, which Russia did not accept.

Black Sea Ukraine binds it to the north and northwest, Russia and Georgia to the east,
Turkey to the south, and Bulgaria and Romania to the west, which links to the
Sea of Marmara through the Bosphorus and then to the Aegean through the
Dardanelles.

Q.16) Which of the following statement best explains the significance of the Clarion-Clipperton Zone?
(a) A submarine region in the Pacific Ocean is estimated to contain abundant metallic nodules.
(b) A convergent plate boundary near Tonga island in the Pacific Ocean.
(c) A dead zone resulted from oxygen depletion in oceanic water in the Gulf of Mexico.
(d) A disputed exclusive economic zone between Brazil and Argentina.
EXPLANATION:
Polymetallic nodule resources contain nickel, cobalt, manganese and copper. In the Pacific Islands
region, the manganese nodule deposits with the greatest abundance and concentration of metals are
found. While they occur in all oceans, the Clarion-Clipperton Fracture Zone – CCZ (a submarine region
in the Pacific Ocean) deposits are among the richest, containing high grade and high abundance nodules.
So, Option (a) is correct.

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The Tonga-Kermadec subduction system is an intra- oceanic convergent plate margin in the
southwestern Pacific that extends 2550 km between Tonga and New Zealand. So, Option (b) is not
correct.

A dead Zone is an area of low oxygen that can kill fish and marine life near the bottom of the sea.

The Gulf of Mexico dead zone is primarily caused by excess nutrient pollution from human activities in
urban and agricultural areas throughout the Mississippi River watershed. When the excess
nutrients reach the Gulf, they stimulate an overgrowth of algae, which eventually die and decompose,

26
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depleting oxygen as they sink to the bottom. Low oxygen levels near the bottom of the Gulf cannot support
most marine life. The Gulf of Mexico dead zone occurs every summer. So, Option (c) is not correct.

There is no dispute over the exclusive economic zone between Brazil and Argentina. So, Option (d) is
not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CLARION-CLIPPERTON ZONE
The Clarion-Clipperton Zone (CCZ) spans 4.5 million square kilometers (1.7 million square miles)
between Hawaii and Mexico, an abyssal plain as wide as the continental United States and punctuated
by seamounts.

Polymetallic nodules may form on the abyssal seafloor at depths between 4,000
and 6,000 m when the water is well oxygenated and the sedimentation rate is less
Polymetallic than 10 mm⋅kyr–1
nodules  The highest known abundance of polymetallic nodules has been observed in the
Clarion Clipperton Zone, in the northeastern Pacific Ocean, approximately 2,500
km off the coast of Mexico.
 Polymetallic nodules are composed of both nuclei and concentric layers of iron
and manganese hydroxides.
 Polymetallic nodules are found at the surface of soft deep-sea bottoms at abyssal
depths.
 Large areas in different parts of the Pacific and Indian oceans are known to have
high concentrations of these nodular deposits
27
 .
Q.17) Which of the following are considered natural mechanisms responsible for climate change?
1. Sunspots causing the difference in solar radiation
2. Variations in distance and tilt of Earth with respect to the Sun
3. Major volcanic eruption
4. Changes in magnetic field strength of Earth.
Choose the correct answer from the options below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Sunspots are dark, planet-size regions of strong magnetic fields on the sun's surface. They can spawn
eruptive disturbances such as solar flares and coronal mass ejections (CMEs). When sunspots interact
with each other, they cause explosions of energy. Solar flares are large eruptions of energy coming off
the Sun containing several different forms of energy: heat, magnetic energy, and ionizing radiation. The
ionizing radiation released during solar flares includes x-rays and gamma rays. Thus Sunspots cause
a difference in sun radiation and play a role in climate change. So, Statement 1 is correct.
According to Milankovitch’s theory, there are three changes in the Earth’s orbit around the Sun —
eccentricity, axial tilt, and precession.
 When the Earth is closer to the Sun, our climate is warmer, and this cycle also affects the length of
the seasons. The measure of a shape’s deviation from being a circle, in this case, the Earth’s orbit, is
called ‘eccentricity.’
 The amount of solar heat that reaches the Earth’s surface subsequently influences climatic patterns,
including periods of glaciation (ice ages).
 Small changes in the angle of Earth’s tilt and the shape of its orbit around the Sun cause changes in
climate over a span of 10,000 to 100,000 years. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The movement of the plates also causes volcanoes and mountains to form, which can also contribute
to a change in the climate. Volcanoes affect the climate through the gases and particles (ash) thrown
into the atmosphere during eruptions. During major explosive volcanic eruptions, large amounts of
volcanic gas, aerosol droplets, and ash are released. So, Statement 3 is correct.
Earth’s magnetic fields contribute to global warming and can cause catastrophic climate change. The
magnetic field protects our planet from cosmic radiation and the charged particles emitted by our Sun.
It also provides the basis for navigation with a compass. So, Statement 4 is correct.

Q.18) Which of the following is not true about the phenomenon of South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA)?
(a) It is the behavior of Earth’s Geo-Magnetic field in an area between Africa and South America.
(b) The area where the Earth’s inner Van Allen radiation belt comes closest to the Earth’s surface.
(c) The SAA is the near-Earth region where the Earth’s magnetic field is strongest.
(d) This leads to an increased flux of energetic particles in this region.
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EXPLANATION:
The behavior of earth's geomagnetic field in an area between Africa and South America is being termed
the 'South Atlantic Anomaly,’ and it is an area where Earth's inner Van Allen radiation belt comes
closest to Earth's surface, dipping down to an altitude of 200 kilometers. This leads to an increased
flux of energetic particles in this region and exposes orbiting satellites to higher-than-usual radiation
levels. The effect is caused by the non-concentricity of Earth and its magnetic dipole.
Earth has two such belts, and sometimes others may be temporarily created. The belts are named
after James Van Allen, credited with their discovery. Van Allen radiation belt is a zone
of energetic charged particles, most of which originate from the solar wind, that are captured by and
held around a planet by that planet's magnetosphere.
The SAA is the near-Earth region where Earth's magnetic field is weakest, protecting the planet from
high doses of solar wind and cosmic radiation. So, Option (c) is not correct.

Q.19) Which of the following is not caused due to gravitational force of Earth?
(a) River flow
(b) Landslide
(c) Tides
(d) Lahar flow
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
Tides are caused due to the pulling effect of the Sun and moon, where the role of Earth’s Gravitational
Pull could be ruled out.
River Water flows downwards from the mountains (most of the time, unless otherwise) because of the
Gravitational Pull of the Earth. So, Option (a) is not correct.
A landslide occurs because the force of gravity becomes greater than either friction or the internal
strength of the rock, soil, or sediment. So, Option (b) is not correct.
Tides are defined as the periodic rise and fall of the sea level once or twice a day, mainly due to the
attraction of the sun and the moon.
The moon's gravitational pull, to a great extent and a lesser extent, the sun’s gravitational pull, are the
major causes of tides' occurrence.

29
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Another factor is centrifugal force, which is the force that acts to counterbalance gravity. Together, the
gravitational pull (Moon and Sun) and the centrifugal force are responsible for creating the two major
tidal bulges on the earth.
The earth’s gravity only keeps the water on the planet’s surface. However, the moon (to an extent sun)
is large enough and close enough that its gravitational force has a noticeable effect on large bodies of
water on Earth. So, Option (c) is correct.
Lahar is an Indonesian term that describes a hot or cold mixture of water and rock fragments flowing
down the slopes of a volcano and (or) river valleys.
These lahars always flow downstream because of the Gravitational Pull of the Earth. So, Option (d) is
not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Tides  Seawater's alternating advance and retreat along a coastline are called a tide.
 High tide is when water advances to its furthest extent onto the shoreline.
 Low tide is when it recedes to its furthest extent. Some freshwater rivers and lakes
can have tides, too.
 A high tide that is significantly higher than normal is called a king tide.
 It often accompanies a new moon and when the moon is closest to the Earth.
Formation  The moon’s gravitational pull on the Earth and the Earth’s rotational force are the
two main factors that cause high and low tides.
 The side of the Earth closest to the Moon experiences the Moon’s pull the strongest,
and this causes the seas to rise, creating high tides.
 On the side facing away from the Moon, the rotational force of the Earth is stronger
than the Moon’s gravitational pull.
 The rotational force causes water to pile up as the water tries to resist that force,
so high tides form on this side, too.
 Elsewhere on the Earth, the ocean recedes, producing low tides.
 The gravitational attraction of the Sun also plays a small role in the formation
of tides. Tides move around the Earth as they bulge in the ocean.
 Most shorelines experience two high and two low tides within twenty-four hours,
though some areas have just one of each.
 A coastline’s physical features, such as a wide sandy beach or a rocky cove, along
with the depth of the water just offshore, affect the height of the tides.
 Tides affect marine ecosystems by influencing the kinds of plants and animals that
thrive in what is known as the intertidal zone—the area between high and low tides.
 Because the area is alternately covered and uncovered by the ocean throughout
the day, plants and animals must be able to survive both underwater and out in
the air and sunlight.

30
 .
Q.20) A huge sunspot directly facing Earth has grown to be twice the size of Earth, and its width has
doubled in just 24 hours. In this context, consider the following statements about Sunspots.
1. Sunspots are areas that appear dark on the surface of the Sun.
2. They are cooler than other parts of the Sun’s surface.
3. Solar flares are a sudden explosion of energy caused by tangling, crossing or reorganizing
magnetic field lines near sunspots.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
A Sunspot consists of a dark region called the umbra, surrounded by a lighter region known as
the penumbra. The sunspots are spotted on the photosphere layer of the Sun and appear relatively
dark because the surrounding surface of the Sun is about 10,000 degrees F, while the umbra is about
6,300 degrees F. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Sunspots are areas where the magnetic field is about 2,500 times stronger than Earth's, much higher
than anywhere else on the Sun. Because of the strong magnetic field, the magnetic pressure increases
while the surrounding atmospheric pressure decreases. This, in turn, lowers the temperature relative
to its surroundings because the concentrated magnetic field inhibits the flow of hot, new gas from the
Sun's interior to the surface. Therefore, they are cooler than other parts of the Sun. So, Statement 2
is correct.
The magnetic field lines near sunspots often tangle, cross, and reorganize. This can cause an explosion
of energy called a solar flare. Solar flares release a lot of radiation into space. So, Statement 3 is
correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
OTHER SOLAR ACTIVITY
Solar Activity The Sun’s gases constantly move, tangling, stretching, and twisting the magnetic
fields. This motion creates a lot of activity on the Sun's surface, called solar
activity.
Solar Cycle The solar cycle is the cycle the Sun’s magnetic field goes through approximately
every 11 years.
Coronal Mass Coronal Mass Ejections (CME) are huge bubbles of radiation and particles from
Ejection the Sun. They explode into space at very high speed when the Sun’s magnetic
field lines suddenly reorganize.
Effect On Earth When charged particles from a CME reach areas near Earth, they can trigger
intense lights in the sky, called auroras. When particularly strong, a CME can
also interfere in power utility grids, which can cause electricity shortages and
power outages at their worst.

Q.21) Consider the following statements regarding Hotspot Volcanoes:

1. It refers to the active volcanoes found along the Pacific ring of fire.
2. They are usually associated with convergent plate boundaries.
3. Emperor seamount in the Pacific Ocean is known to be formed due to hotspot volcanic activity.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Volcanism in central parts of plates beyond constructive and destructive margins is not common, but it
can be explained as the surface expression of local thermal variation or hot spots in the mantle. Hotspots
are places within the mantle where rocks melt to generate magma. The presence of these hotspots is
inferred by anomalous volcanism, i.e., not at the plate boundary. So, Statements 1 and 2 are not
correct.
The Hawaiian Emperor seamount chain is a well-known example of a large seamount and island chain
created by hot-spot volcanism. The Hawaiian Islands were formed by a hot spot in the middle of the
Pacific Plate. While the hot spot itself is fixed, the plate is moving. So, as the plate moved over the hot
spot, the string of islands that make up the Hawaiian Island chain formed. The Hawaiian Islands form
an archipelago extending over a vast North Pacific Ocean area. The archipelago is made up of 132 islands,
atolls, reefs, shallow banks, shoals, and seamounts stretching over 1,500 miles from the island of Hawaii
in the southeast to Kure Atoll in the northwest. So, Statement 3 is correct.

32
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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Hotspots  Some chains of volcanoes lie within the interiors of tectonic plates rather than
along the edges. The volcanoes are progressively older away from the largest and
most active volcano. A hotspot is a large plume of hot mantle material rising from
deep within the Earth.
 A line of volcanoes develops as a plate moves over a hotspot, much as a line of
melted wax forms as a sheet of waxed paper is moved slowly over a burning candle.

Location of  Most scientists think that 40 to 50 hot spots exist worldwide, although this number
Hotspots varies widely because of differing definitions of what a hot spot is.
 Major hot spots include the Iceland hot spot, under the island of Iceland in the
North Atlantic; the Réunion hot spot, under the island of Réunion in the Indian
Ocean; and the Afar hot spot, located under northeastern Ethiopia.
Extra-  One of the most geologically active places in the solar system is the hot spots that
terrestrial Hot may be cracking up the icy surface of Jupiter’s moon, Europa.
Spots  Many astrophysicists think that warm ice is rising up through the colder ice of the
outer crust, causing it to crack with lenticulae, or “freckles,” on the moon’s surface.
Pacific Ring of
Fire

 Volcanoes are mainly distributed as long belts to circle the Earth. It is apparent
that the most notable area of volcanism in the world is around the margin of the
Pacific Ocean, known as the Pacific Ring of Fire.
 The line of volcanoes that circles most of the Pacific Ocean is also known as the
Ring of Fire or Circum-Pacific Belt.
 This zone is known to be the site of frequent volcanic eruptions where more than
seventy-five percent of the active and inactive volcanoes are located.

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 .
Q.22) Consider the following statements related to Atmospheric Phenomena:
1. The temperature and humidity in an air mass are uniforms, and hardly any fall in temperature
is noticed with increasing altitude.
2. When contrasting air mass meets, it can result in the formation of Tornadoes.
3. The wind velocity in a tropical cyclone is higher than that of a temperate cyclone.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
An air mass is a large volume of air in the atmosphere that is relatively
uniform in temperature and moisture. The fall in temperature is noticed in the layers of the Troposphere
and Mesosphere with increasing altitude. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

When winds move air masses, they carry their weather conditions (heat or cold, dry or moist) from
the source region to a new region. When the air mass reaches a new region, it might clash with
another air mass with a different temperature and humidity. This can create a severe storm or
Tornadoes. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Tropical Cyclones have gale force winds with wind gusts over 90 km/h around their center. In the most
severe cyclones, gusts can exceed 280 km/h and go to 1200kmph. These winds can cause extensive
property damage and turn airborne debris into potentially lethal missiles. The wind velocity of a
Temperate cyclone is only around 30- 150 kph. Hence, The wind velocity in a tropical cyclone is higher
than the wind velocity of a temperate cyclone. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
AIR MASS
Source  The air masses are classified according to the source regions. There are five major
regions source regions.
 These are
 Warm tropical and subtropical oceans;
 The hot subtropical deserts;
 relatively cold high latitude oceans;
34
 .
 The very cold snow-covered continents in high latitudes;
 Permanently ice-covered continents in the Arctic and Antarctica.
 Accordingly, the following types of air masses are recognized:
a. Maritime tropical (mT);
b. Continental tropical (cT);
c. Maritime polar (mP);
d. Continental polar (cP);
e. Continental arctic (cA).

 Tropical air masses are warm, and polar air masses are cold.
Fronts  When two different air masses meet, the boundary zone between them is called a
front. The process of formation of the fronts is known as frontogenesis.
 There are four types of fronts:
(a) Cold;
(b) Warm;
(c) Stationary;
(d) Occluded.
 When the front remains stationary, it is called a stationary front. When the cold air
moves towards the warm air mass, its contact zone is called the cold front, whereas
if the warm air mass moves towards the cold air mass, the contact zone is a warm
front.
 If an air mass is fully lifted above the land surface, it is called the occluded front.
 The fronts occur in middle latitudes and are characterized by steep gradients in
temperature and pressure. They bring abrupt changes in temperature and cause
the air to rise to form clouds and cause precipitation.

Q.23) Glaciers are melting at a faster rate than ever before. Which of the following is/are the possible
consequences of melting glaciers?
1. Sea level rise
2. Less freshwater availability
3. Decline in ocean salinity
4. Loss of species
5. New Diseases
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION:
35
 .
The biggest and most notable impact of these glaciers melting is the rising sea level. In total, the sea has
risen by 2.7 centimeters since the 60s, and the world's glaciers still contain enough to raise the ocean
by another half a meter, which could directly threaten many cities in coastal regions. As a result of these
rising sea levels, coastal erosion has also increased. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Studies show that only 2% of the water available is fresh water that people can consume. Over 70% of
fresh water present in the earth is contained in glaciers and snow. When the glaciers melt, they mix with
the ocean water and become saline. Hence the availability of fresh water is reduced. So, Statement 2 is
correct.
Glaciers and Ice bergs are mostly formed by fresh water. Saline water usually does not form ice. Hence,
melting glaciers and icebergs release fresh water and reduce the salinity of the oceans. So, Statement
3 is correct.
The glaciers form a separate biome that provides a habitat for various living organisms. Some animals
are endemic to this biome, such as the blue bear. The melting of glaciers leads to the destruction of the
biome of such organisms, which may lead to the loss of species. Along with this, the rising sea level due
to the melting of glaciers also submerges many islands such that species endemic to those islands
become extinct. So, Statement 4 is Correct.
The glaciers contain pathogens such as Bacteria, Fungi and possibly viruses at inactive, frozen stages
belonging to nearly 15,000 years ago. The melting of glaciers may release those pathogens into the
existing environment, which may cause new diseases that are unknown to us. Hence there is a chance
of the spread of new diseases. So, Statement 5 is Correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CAUSES OF MELTING ICE GLACIERS
Causes 1. Burning of fossil fuels
 The burning of fossil fuels has resulted in the build-up of greenhouse gases in
the environment, thus influencing the warming trend because they trap heat in
the atmosphere.
 The increase in temperatures is causing more and more glaciers to melt.
Consequently, this ends up exposing the earth underneath.
2. Oil and gas drilling
 The oil and gas extraction process also emits Methane, which is the main
constituent in natural gas.
 Plus, the gas is more damaging to the environment than carbon dioxide, locking
in heat more efficiently and escalating global warming.
3. Deforestation
 Deforestation has a lot of negative effects, such as rising sea levels.
 Also, there is an increase in the release of carbon dioxide while less of it is being
absorbed by trees because they are constantly reduced in number owing
to deforestation.
 As a result, it hastens global warming and increases in sea levels.
4. Ice Breaking Ships
 During summer, icebreaking ships head to the north into the Arctic Ocean,
breaking through the ice at sea, and the ships end up leaving trails of open
waters.
 The Arctic sea ice can reflect most of the heat, thus aiding in keeping the Arctic
and the rest of the Northern Hemisphere cool.
 Nonetheless, open water has a lesser ability to reflect back sun rays than ice
does. Thus, the water takes in more of the heat.
 This ends up heating the water and, consequently, melting more ice.

36
 .
Consequences  As sea ice and glaciers melt and oceans warm, ocean currents will continue to
disrupt weather patterns worldwide.
 Industries that thrive on vibrant fisheries will be affected as warmer waters
change where and when fish spawn.
 Coastal communities will continue to face billion-dollar disaster recovery bills
as flooding becomes more frequent and storms become more intense.
 People are not the only ones impacted. In the Arctic, as sea ice melts, wildlife
like walrus are losing their home, and polar bears are spending more time on
land, causing higher rates of conflict between people and bears.

Q.24) Which of the following statements is/are not correct?

1. For the first time recently, the Earth clocked one of its fastest days, completing one rotation on
its axis 1.59 milliseconds less than the usual 24 hours.
2. The Earth has completed one full spin in approximately24 hours since its origin.
3. Earth’s spin is not affected by wind speed and atmospheric gases.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
A report published by the Norwegian time zone has said that the Earth completed one rotation on June
29, in 1.59 milliseconds, in less than 24 hours. Scientists studying the Earth’s rotation use a
measurement called “length of day” to describe how fast or slow the planet is spinning. The length of the
day is the difference between the time the planet takes to complete one rotation on its axis and 86,400
seconds (approximately 24 hours). Whereas it was not for the first time, it also happened earlier. So,
Statement 1 is not correct.
The planet has recently been increasing its rotational speed, as in 2020, the Earth witnessed its shortest
month since the 1960s, from when it was recorded.
Before this, the Earth had recorded its shortest day on July 19, 2020, when it completed a full spin in
less than 1.47 milliseconds than the standard 24-hour duration.
The Earth, in 2021, continued to spin at an increased rate. However, it did not break any record.

The above graph shows that it is not that every time the Earth continues to Spin in exactly 24 hours.
So, Statement 2 is not correct.

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 .
Earth’s atmosphere changes all the time. Winds and pressure patterns change over days, weeks, and
years. Not only do those changes affect the weather, but they also affect the rotation of the Earth as well,
causing changes to the length of days.
Strong winds in the atmosphere cause Earth to slow its spin because the total amount of movement
must stay the same. There is a popular statement that “If the atmosphere speeds up, then the solid
Earth must slow down.” So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Causes for  Experts say this is a normal fluctuation that should not cause concern.
change in  At the same time, it may become necessary to add the first-ever “negative leap
rotational second” to the global clock – the International Atomic Time (TAI) – to remain
speed of the aligned with the planet’s rotation.
planet  The accelerated rotation is baffling to scientists in the field, as Earth had actually
been slowing down ever since its formation around 4.5 billion years ago.
 In fact, a leap second has been added to the TAI 27 times since 1972.
Chandler  Experts believe that there are a number of possible explanations, such as climate
Wobble change, seismic activity, changes in ocean circulation, or the so-called “Chandler
Wobble,” which changes the spin of Earth on its axis.
 ‘The Chandler wobble is a component of Earth’s instantaneous axis of rotation
motion, so-called polar motion, which changes the position of the point on the
globe where the axis intersects the Earth’s surface,’
Consequences  Suppose the Earth continues to spin faster and days subsequently become
shorter. In that case, scientists may have to introduce the first ever ‘negative leap
second,’ which involves subtracting a second from clocks.
 Since a negative leap second has never been tested on a large scale, “it could have
a devastating effect on the software relying on timers or schedulers.”

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 .
Q.25) Consider the following statements with respect to Wetlands.
1. 2nd February 2022 is the first year World Wetlands Day will be observed as a United Nations
International day.
2. Among South Asia, India has the largest network of Ramsar sites.
3. In India, Community-based ecotourism with minimum construction activities is permitted in
notified wetlands.
4. Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh was announced as a Ramsar site on the occasion
of World Wetland day 2022.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
United Nations General Assembly, on 30th August 2021, adopted a resolution that is co-sponsored by 75
member states. Accordingly, it is observed on 2 February 2022, the first year of World Wetlands Day as
a United Nations international day. So, Statement 1 is correct.
India adds 11 more wetlands to the list of Ramsar sites to make a total of 75 Ramsar sites covering an
area of 13 26,677 ha in the country in the 75th year of Independence, which is the highest for any country
in South Asia.
Ramsar Wetlands sites in South Asia as on 2022:
 Bangladesh (2)
 Bhutan (3)
 India (64)
 Pakistan (19)
 Nepal (10)
 Srilanka (6)
Among the world countries United Kingdom including Northern island has the highest number of Ramsar
sites with 175 wetlands.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
In India, in a notified wetland following activities are permitted:
 Ecological rehabilitation and rewilding of nature;
 Wetlands inventory, assessment, and monitoring;
 Research;
 Communication, environmental education, and participation activities;
 Management planning;
 Habitat management and conservation of wetland-dependent species;
 Community-based ecotourism (with minimum construction activities);
 Harvesting of wetlands products within regenerative capacity; and,
 Integrating wetlands as nature-based solutions for climate change mitigation and adaptation. So,
Statement 3 is correct.
On World Wetlands Day, the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands designated Khijadia Bird Sanctuary near
Jamnagar in Gujarat and Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary in Uttar Pradesh (not in Madhya Pradesh) as
wetlands of international importance. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
RAMSAR SITES
Convention On  The Convention on Wetlands is an intergovernmental treaty that provides
Wetlands the framework for national action and international cooperation for the
conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.
 It is named after the Iranian city of Ramsar, on the Caspian Sea, where the
treaty was signed on February 2, 1971.
Wetlands Definition  The Convention uses a broad definition of wetlands. It includes all lakes and
as per Ramsar rivers, underground aquifers, swamps and marshes, wet grasslands,
Convention peatlands, oases, estuaries, deltas, tidal flats, mangroves, and other coastal
areas, coral reefs, and all human-made sites such as fish ponds, rice
paddies, reservoirs, and salt pans.
Wetlands Definition  The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017 notified by the
inn India Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change define wetlands
as “area of marsh, fen, peatland or water; whether natural or artificial,
permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish
or salt, including areas of marine water the depth of which at low tide does
not exceed six meters, but does not include river channels, paddy fields,
human-made water bodies/ tanks specifically constructed for drinking
water purposes and structures specifically constructed for aquaculture, salt
production, recreation and irrigation purposes.”
 The Indian wetlands rules does not include river channels and Paddy fields
as wetlands but are included under the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands.

Q.26) He was the commander of the Ahom forces and an icon of Assamese nationalism. In 1669, Aurangzeb
dispatched the Rajput Raja Ram Singh I to recapture territories won back by the Ahoms in previous
battles. He fought against the Mughals and won the Battle of Saraighat (Naval battle) on the River
Brahmaputra. Today, His victory is honored with a gold medal given yearly to the best cadet graduating
from the National Defence Academy (NDA).
Which of the below Personalities suits the above statements?
(a) Kanaklata Barua
(b) Paona BrajaBashi
(c) Lachit Borphukan
(d) Haipou Jadonang
EXPLANATION:
 The Mughals invaded and occupied the Ahom capital Gurgaon in 1662, forcing the king, Swargadeo
Jayadhwaja Singha, to flee to the hills. Lachit Barphukan, an Army General, was Lachit set out for
Guwahati in August 1667 and, by November that year, ousted the Mughals from the last Ahom
frontier—Manas.
 In January 1668, Aurangzeb again dispatched a large army under Raja Ram Singh’s command to
reoccupy Assam. The Battle of Alaboi was fought in1669 in the Alaboi Hills located in North
Guwahati. Lachit Borphukan, with his good knowledge of the territory, engaged in guerrilla warfare,
carrying out assaults on the Mughals. Raja Ram Singh, encouraged by his initial success, launched
a massive naval assault.
 The Battle of Saraighat was thus, fought in 1671 between the Mughal Empire led by Kachwaha king
Raja Ram Singh I and the Ahom kingdom led by Lachit Borphukan on the Brahmaputra River at
Saraighat, now in Guwahati. The huge Mughal army succumbed to defeat against a small contingent
led by Lachit Barphukan.

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 In remembrance of his legacy, every year, the best cadet graduating from National Defense Academy
(NDA) is honored with a gold medal under the title of Lachit Barphukan.
 In Assam, during a three-day visit, then President Ram Nath Kovind inaugurated the year-long
celebration of the 400th birth anniversary of Lachit Borphukan. So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PERSONALITIES
 Kanaklata Barua was born in Barangabari, Assam in 1924.
 On 20 September 1942, she joined a group of freedom fighters and marched
towards Gohpur Police station to hoist the Tricolour in support of the Quit
India Movement.
Kanaklata Barua  Police at the station opened indiscriminate fire on the group to prevent the
team from committing such a daring act.
 Kanaklata Barua was martyred with a Tricolour furling in her hands at a
young age.
 As a tribute to her, A Fast Patrol Vessel (FPV) named ICGS Kanaklata Barua
was commissioned by the Indian Coast Guard in Kolkata.
 The Anglo-Manipuri war broke out in 1891.
 Attempting to resist British forces marching from Tamu (on the border
between Manipur and Myanmar today), 700 Manipuri soldiers were
dispatched to Thoubal.
 Major General Paona Brajabashi, a brave soldier of the kingdom of Manipur,
led the group of Manipuri soldiers, took center stage, and fought what many
Paona Brajabashi
historians describe as the fiercest battle against the British in Indian history.
 The Manipuris were defeated by the superior might of the British.
 Major General Paona Brajabashi was offered a chance to join the British at a
superior post, but he chose death over treason and was martyred.
 In memory of him and the other Manipuri soldiers who laid down their lives,
Manipur celebrates Khongjom Day every year on the 23rd of April.
 Haipou Jadonang, a Rongmei Naga leader (one of the major indigenous Naga
tribes of North-East India) from Manipur, was a spiritual and political leader
who fought for freedom from the clutches of British colonial rule.
 In the early decades of the 20th century, he attracted the attention of the
Zeliangrong tribal community — an important indigenous Naga community
living in the tri-junction of Assam, Manipur, and Nagaland.
 He began establishing an army, Riphen, that comprised 500 men and women
Haipou Jadonang who were well trained in military tactics, weaponry, and reconnaissance
missions.
 Besides these activities, the recruits assisted in civilian matters such as
farming, livestock, grazing, and firewood collection, among others.
 His disciple Rani Gaidinliu gave lessons inspired by the songs composed by
Jadonang praising the struggle for the cause of freedom.
 However, he was arrested in 1931 by British officials on the charges of sedition
and was hanged under the false charges of murder while he was only 26 years
old.

Q.27) Recently, NASA released striking images of the unseen Universe captured by the James Webb Space
telescope. Which of the following statements about the origin and evolution of the Universe are correct?
1. The first galaxy was born immediately after the Big Bang
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2. The Universe mostly remains the same at any given point in time.
3. The space between the galaxies has been increasing since their origin.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The first galaxies may have formed much earlier than thought. A new study suggests — just 200 million
years after the Universe's birth. Hence it is not formed immediately after the Big Bang. Using several
different telescopes, astronomers have discovered a distant galaxy whose stars appear to have formed
200 million years after the Big Bang, the explosive event that brought the Universe into being. So,
Statement 1 is not correct.
 The Universe was born with the Big Bang as an unimaginably hot, dense point.
 When the Universe was just 10-34 of a second or so old — that is, a hundredth of a billionth of a
trillionth of a second in age — it experienced an incredible burst of expansion known as inflation. In
that space, itself expanded faster than the speed of light. During this period, the Universe doubled in
size (not remaining the same) at least 90 times, going from subatomic-sized to golf-ball-sized almost
instantaneously.
 According to NASA, after inflation, the growth of the Universe continued, but at a slower rate. As space
expanded, the Universe cooled and matter formed. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
The galaxies are not moving through space; they are moving in space because space is also moving. In
other words, the Universe has no center; everything is moving away from everything else. Suppose you
imagine a grid of space with a galaxy every million light-years; after enough time passes, this grid will
stretch out so that the galaxies are spread to every two million light years, and so on, possibly into
infinity. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
JAMES WEBB TELESCOPE
About  The James Webb Space Telescope is an infrared telescope known as the "Next
Generation Space Telescope."
 It was launched on December 25, 2021, on a mission to study the earliest stars and
peer back farther into the Universe's past than ever before.
 Webb is an international collaboration between NASA, ESA (the European Space
Agency), and the Canadian Space Agency (CSA).
 The Webb telescope is the scientific successor to the Hubble Space Telescope.
 It is NASA’s largest and most powerful space science telescope ever constructed.
 Webb is now orbiting Lagrange point 2 (L2), located between Earth and Sun nearly 1
million miles (1.6 million km).
Mission  The telescope will Hunt for the unobserved formation of the first galaxies and look
inside dust clouds where stars and planetary systems are forming today.
 The telescope’s four instruments - cameras and spectrometers have detectors that
can record extremely faint signals.
 The collected data will help find answers to questions in 4 areas of modern astronomy
 First light,
 Assembly of galaxies,
 Birth of stars and protoplanetary systems and Planetary systems
 The origin of life

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Q.28) Consider the following statements regarding Mines and Minerals Amendment Act, 2021.
1. Minerals, as per the act, include coal and mineral oil.
2. The Central Government prescribes the period of mining leases for the case of Government
companies or corporations.
Which of the above-given statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The Mines and Minerals (Regulation and Development) Act (1957) is an Act of the Parliament of
India enacted to regulate the mining sector in India.
Mines and Minerals Amendment Act 2021 applies to all minerals other than Mineral oil (which includes
natural gas and petroleum). So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The maximum period for which a mining lease may be granted shall not exceed thirty years, and the
minimum period for which any such mining lease may be granted shall not be less than twenty years.
According to the amendment done in Mines and Minerals Amendment Act, 1957-The Central
Government shall prescribe the period of mining leases, including existing mining leases of Government
companies or corporations. So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
MINES AND MINERALS AMENDMENT ACT, 2021
About The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2021,
was introduced in Lok Sabha on March 15, 2021. The Bill amends the Mines and
Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957. The Act regulates the mining
sector in India.
Minerals  The State Governments are the owners of minerals located within their
Regulation in India respective boundaries.
 The Central Government owns the minerals underlying the ocean within the
territorial waters or the Exclusive Economic Zone of India.
Extension of leases  The Act provides that the period of mining leases granted to government
to government companies will be prescribed by the central government.
companies  The Bill provides that the period of mining leases of government companies
(other than leases granted through auction) may be extended on payment of
an additional amount prescribed in the Bill.
Granting Mineral  The State Governments grant the mineral concessions for all the minerals
Concessions located within the State's boundary under the MMDR Act, 1957, and Mineral
Concession Rules (MCR), 1960, framed thereunder.
 Under the provisions of the MMDR Act, 1957 and MCR, 1960, prior approval
of the Central Government is required for Granting mineral concessions in
respect of minerals specified in the First Schedule to the Mines and Minerals
(Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.
Specified Minerals Minerals in the First Schedule
In Coal and lignite.
The First Schedule
of this Act Beryl and other beryllium-bearing minerals.

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Lithium-bearing minerals.

Minerals of the "rare earth" group containing Uranium and Thorium.

Niobium-bearing minerals.

Phosphorites and other phosphatic ores containing Uranium

Zirconium

Metallic And Non-Metallic Minerals

 Asbestos.  Copper ore.
 Bauxite.  Gold.
 Chrome ore  Iron ore and Lead.
District Mineral  District Mineral Foundations (DMFs) are statutory bodies in India established
Foundation by the State Governments by notification.
 They derive their legal status from section 9B of the Mines and Minerals
(Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, as amended on 26 March 2015 as
Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015.
 This amendment came into force on 12 January 2015.
 The State Governments establish each District Mineral Foundation by
notification as a trust or non-profit body in the mining operation-affected
districts.
 District Mineral Foundation is to work in the interest of the benefit of the
persons and areas affected by mining-related operations in such manner as
may be prescribed by the State Government.

Q.29) Consider the following statements.

1. Both P and S waves travel through the body of the Earth.
2. Surface waves or L waves are high-frequency waves that travel through the crust.
3. The magnitude of an Earthquake indicates the quantity of energy released by an earthquake at
the source point, which is measured using the Mercalli Scale.
4. The US Geological Survey is a responsible institution for measuring and assessing Earthquakes
across the world.
Which of the following statements are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
The Primary (P) and Secondary (S) waves are called body waves, which travel through the Earth's
interior or body. So, Options (a) and (c) could be eliminated.
 Earthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface waves. There are two types
of body waves, called P and S-waves.
 Body waves can travel through the interior of the Earth, but surface waves only move along the
surface of the Earth like ripples on water.

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 The P wave is the fastest kind of seismic wave and the first to arrive at a seismic station that can be
recorded on the Seismograph. P waves can move through solid rock, liquids, and gases. P waves are
"push and pull" waves like sound waves, which push and pull the air in each particle vibrating to
and fro in the direction of propagation. These are also known as compressional or longitudinal waves.
 The second type of body wave is the S wave or secondary wave, appearing only after the P waves have
arrived. These are transverse or shear waves, in which the motion of each particle is at a right angle
to the direction of propagation. S waves can pass only through solid rock and move rock particles up
and down or side-to-side-perpendicular to the direction in which the wave travels.
 Both P and S waves travel through the body of the Earth. Hence, they are called body waves. So,
Statement 1 is correct.

Surface waves are of two types such as love waves and Rayleigh waves. Surface waves or L waves which
travel through the crust are of lower frequency due to high amplitude than body waves. They arrive
after body waves because of the complexity of their paths through crustal layers and can pass through
land and water. These waves are responsible for the damage and destruction associated with
Earthquakes. The speed of the surface waves and the related damages gets reduced in case of deeper
Earthquakes. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

 The earthquake events are scaled according to the shock's magnitude or intensity. The magnitude
scale is known as the Richter scale. The magnitude relates to the energy released during the quake.
The magnitude is expressed in absolute numbers, 0-10.
 The intensity scale is named after Mercalli, an Italian seismologist. The intensity scale takes into
account the visible damage caused by the event. The range of intensity scale is from 1-12. So,
Statement 3 is not correct.

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 The U.S. Geological Survey is a responsible institution for measuring and assessing Earthquakes
across the world. Under that, The National Earthquake Information Centre (NEIC), a part of the
Department of the Interior, the U.S. Geological Survey, is the sole authority. The NEIC operates a 24-
hour-a-day service to determine the location and magnitude of significant earthquakes in the United
States and worldwide as rapidly and accurately as possible. So, Statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
EARTHQUAKE
Body waves They are called P and S-waves.
 There are two types of body waves. P-waves move faster and are the first to arrive at
the surface. These are also called 'primary waves.' The P-waves are similar to sound
waves. They travel through gaseous, liquid, and solid materials.
 S-waves arrive at the surface with some time lag. These are called secondary waves.
An important fact about S-waves is that they can travel only through solid materials.
This characteristic of the S-waves is quite important. It has helped scientists to
understand the structure of the interior of the Earth.
 Reflection causes waves to rebound, whereas refraction makes waves move in
different directions. The variations in the direction of waves are inferred with the
help of their record on a seismograph. The surface waves are the last to report on a
seismograph. These waves are more destructive. They cause displacement of rocks,
and hence, the collapse of structures occurs.
Surface  Surface waves are two types: love waves and Rayleigh waves.
waves  A love wave is the fastest surface wave and moves the ground from side to side in a
horizontal motion. Rayleigh waves are much larger than the other waves and move
the ground up and down and side-to-side in the same direction as the wave. It rolls
along the ground like a wave across the ocean or lake.
 Surface or L waves are lower frequency than body waves traveling through the crust.
They arrive after body waves because of the complexity of their paths through crustal
layers and can pass through land and water. These waves are responsible for the
damage and destruction associated with Earthquakes. The speed of the surface
waves and the related damages gets reduced in case of deeper Earthquakes.

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Propagation  Different types of earthquake waves travel in different manners. As they move or
propagate, they cause vibration in the body of the rocks through which they pass.
P-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. This exerts pressure on the
material in the direction of propagation. As a result, it creates density differences in
the material leading to stretching and squeezing.
 The other three waves vibrate perpendicular to the direction of propagation. The
direction of vibrations of S-waves is perpendicular to the wave direction in the
vertical plane. Hence, they create troughs and crests in the material through which
they pass. Surface waves are considered to be the most damaging waves.
 Earthquake waves get recorded in seismographs located at far-off locations.
Shadow
However, there exist some specific areas where the waves are not reported. Such a
Zone
zone is called the 'shadow zone.'
 The study of different events reveals that for each earthquake, there exists an
altogether different shadow zone.
 It was observed that seismographs located at any distance within 105° from the
epicenter recorded the arrival of both P and S-waves. However, the seismographs
located beyond 145° from the epicenter record the arrival of P-waves, but not that of
S-waves. Thus, a zone between 105° and 145° from the epicenter was identified as
the shadow zone for both types of waves.
 The entire zone beyond 105° does not receive S-waves. The shadow zone of the S-
wave is much larger than that of the P-waves. The shadow zone of P-waves appears
as a band around the Earth between 105° and 145° away from the epicenter.
 The shadow zone of S-waves is not only larger in extent, but it is also a little over 40
percent of the Earth's surface.

Q.30) Consider the following statements regarding Poliovirus

1. Poliovirus belongs to the family of Picornaviridae.
2. Polio is a highly infectious viral disease that largely affects children under 5 years of age.
3. There is no cure for Polio; it can only be prevented.
4. Currently, Strains of Poliovirus Type 1 are eradicated globally.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION:
Poliovirus belongs to the family of Picornaviridae, which can cause a range of diseases, including the
common cold, poliomyelitis, meningitis, hepatitis, and paralysis. So, Statement 1 is correct.

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Poliomyelitis is a communicable disease due to an acute viral infection caused by an RNA virus known
as Poliovirus. Poliomyelitis is a crippling disease that can affect any age but is more common in children
below 5 years of age. There is a seasonal variation. A maximum number of cases occurs in the hot and
humid season. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The last case of Polio in India was reported in 2011, and finally, in 2014, the South East Asian region
was declared “POLIO FREE.” There is no cure for polio; it can be prevented through vaccines. So,
Statement 3 is correct.

Polio
Vaccine

Inactivated Oral Polio vaccine

Polio vaccine

Polio Virus has three serotypes — 1, 2, and 3. All of these serotypes can cause paralysis. However, most
outbreaks of paralytic poliomyelitis are due to a type-I virus. The wild poliovirus type 2 and the wild
poliovirus type 3 (WPV3) were eradicated worldwide in 2015 and 2019, respectively, but now only type
1 wild poliovirus remains. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
POLIO
 Man is the only reservoir. The infection spreads from person to person.
 The main route of transmission of the virus is the fecal-oral route. It is
excreted in the stool of patients for 6–8 weeks after illness and enters the
body through the mouth with contaminated food and drinks as a result
of poor personal hygiene, flies, or filth.
Spread  The disease may be waterborne due to sewage contamination of drinking
water. Thus, the disease is most likely to spread in areas of poor
sanitation.
 The affected person can spread the virus seven to ten days before and
after the onset of symptoms.
 The incubation period is 7–10 days (ranging from 3 to 35 days).
 It was first introduced by Dr. Jonas Salk in 1995.
 It is produced from wild-type poliovirus strains of each serotype that have
been inactivated (killed) with formalin.
Inactivated Polio  It is an injectable vaccine that is given by a shot in the leg or arm,
Vaccine depending on the patient’s age.
 It can be administered either alone or in combination with other vaccines.
 IPV is the only polio vaccine that has been used in the United States since
2000.
 It is a live attenuated vaccine containing 3 serotypes of Poliovirus, which
gives protection against the three serotypes of the virus that cause
poliomyelitis.
Oral Polio Vaccine
 The color of the vaccine may either be pink or yellow, or colorless.
 OPV produces local and circulating antibodies, while injectable polio
vaccine offers only circulating antibodies.

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 In addition, it also multiplies in the gut and is released into the
environment as a vaccine virus and to community members through
fecal-oral contamination.
 OPV should be stored at a temperature of –20oC.
 OPV should be given:
 At birth (ZERO DOSE) in case of institutional delivery
 1st Dose at 6 weeks of age
 2nd Dose at 10 weeks of age
 3rd Dose at 14 weeks of age
 Booster Dose at 16 months (16 –24 months)
In addition, it is also given to all children under 5 years of age on National
Immunisation Days as a PULSE POLIO Campaign.
The interval between the doses must be at least four weeks.
 Now, one dose of IPV has been included, along with a third dose of OPV
at 14 weeks of age.
 Three primary doses and one booster dose are given each of two drops. If
a child has diarrhea, give OPV as usual but administer an extra dose, i.e.,
a dose, at least four weeks after he or she has received the last dose in
the schedule. One dose of IPV is given at 14 weeks, along with the third
dose of OPV.
 OPV has no side effects.

Q.31) The term “Angadias” recently seen in media refers to

(a) The tribal group in central and eastern India
(b) A type of rural child care in India
(c) Shop or market for stationery and grocery items existing since Ancient times
(d) A system of an age-old Payment system used by traders
EXPLANATION:
The term Angadaia refers to a person who transfers a huge amount of cash from one state to another
with a nominal transaction charge. This system of the century-old parallel banking system in the
country where traders send cash generally from one state to another through a person called Angadia
is known as the Angadia system. Generally, the Gujarati, Marwari, and Malbari communities are
involved in the business. So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ANGADIA SYSTEM
Legal Status Of  While the Angadia system per se is legal, there hangs a cloud over the activity
Angadia System as it is suspected that it is often used to transfer unaccounted money.
 Since the business deals in cash and there is no account maintained for the
same, there have been suspicions that it is also used for the transfer of black
money like the Hawala transaction, which is generally used across countries.
Recently In  An FIR has been registered against three Mumbai Police officials for allegedly
News threatening Angadias and extorting money from them in south Mumbai.
 Recently, a gang of robbers looted an Angadias shop in Mulund.

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Q.32) Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The volume of renewable water on Earth remains constant.
2. Water available in Ice caps and Glaciers is nearly thrice the volume of Groundwater.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The amount of water on the Earth remains constant due to the water cycle. Its abundance only seems
to vary because it is in constant motion, cycling through the oceans, the air, the land and back again
through evaporation, precipitation and run-off. Because water is a renewable resource that can also be
replenished by rain, the water remains constant on the earth. So, Statement 1 is correct.

Earth's surface is covered with 29% land and 71% water. Water available in Ice caps and Glaciers is
nearly 2 %, approximately equal to thrice of the volume of Groundwater. (3*0.6=1.8%).Almost 70% of
freshwater can be found in glaciers and ice caps, and 30% of freshwater is found in Groundwater, rivers
and lakes. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Q.33) Consider the following statements:

1. Savanna is an example of ecotone in tropical latitudes.
2. Kano is the type of savanna grassland distributed along the east coast of South America
3. Rhododendron nilagiricum is the only Shola tree species that can tolerate fire.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
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(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
Ecotone is a transitional area between two ecosystems. Savannah is a grassland that is an ecotone
found in tropical areas between forest and desert biomes. Savannas are open habitats typically
dominated by grasses and often strongly affected by seasonal changes in rainfall. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
Kano is a type of savanna grassland distributed along the west and central region of Africa below the
Sahara Desert. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Rhododendron nilagiricum is a flowering and fruiting tree and the only Shola tree that can tolerate
fire found in Kerala and Tamilnadu. It is Endemic to the Western Ghats- common in Nilgiris, Anamalai
and Palani Hills and rarely found in Varushanad Hills. So, Statement 3 is Correct.

Q.34) Consider the following statements:

1. Jet streams are special types of geostrophic winds that are predominantly westerly winds.
2. Geostrophic winds are caused by Coriolis force, frictional force and pressure gradient forces.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of strong wind in the upper levels of the atmosphere. The winds
blow from west to east in jet streams, but the flow often shifts to the north and south. Jet streams flow
west to east in both the hemispheres; hence, they are called Westerlies or upper-level Westerlies. So,
Statement 1 is correct.

Geostrophic winds are the horizontal wind in the upper atmosphere that moves parallel to isobars.
These winds result from a balance between pressure gradient force and Coriolis force.

Frictional force always acts opposite to air motion and reduces wind speed. Its greatest effect is near
the earth's surface and rapidly decreases with height. This slowing causes the wind to be not

51
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geostrophic and, thus, slows down and reduces the Coriolis force, and the pressure gradient force
becomes more dominant.
Thus Geostrophic winds are caused only by the Coriolis force and the Pressure Gradient force and not
by the Frictional force. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Winds  The wind is the horizontal movement of air molecules from areas of high
pressure to low pressure to maintain atmospheric equilibrium.
 The wind always moves perpendicular to isobars.
Classification of Winds

Winds

High Altitude
Surface Winds
Winds

Primary Winds Secondary Winds Tertiary Winds

[Planetary Winds] [Seasonal Winds] [Local Winds]

Eg: Trade winds, Eg: Monsoon, Eg: Sea Breeze

Easterlie Cyclone and Land Breeze

Forces Influencing the Surface Wind Movement:

The change in pressure across a given distance is called

pressure gradient.
Pressure Gradient
The greater the difference in air pressure between the two
Force points, the steeper is the pressure gradient and greater is the
speed of the wind.

Coriolis force tend to deflect the winds from there original

direction. In northern hemisphere winds are deflected towards
Forces

their right, and in the southern hemisphere towards their left.

Coriollis Force This is known as Farrel’s law.
The Coriolis force is absent along the equator but increases
progressively towards the poles.

It affects the speed of the wind.

Frictional Force It is greatest at the surface and its influence generally extends
upto an elevation of 1 - 3 km.

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 .
Q.35) The LIC IPO is considered a game changer for the Capital market environment in India. In this
context, consider the following statements about the history of Life insurance.
1. The Advent of the Life Insurance Business in India started in the 1800s.
2. Oriental Life Insurance Company, started in Calcutta, was the first life insurance company on
Indian soil, restricted only to the European community.
3. Life insurance in India was nationalized in 1956 by absorbing more than 200 both Indian and
Foreign insurers.
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Life Insurance is a contract between an insurance policy holder and an insurance company, where the
insurer promises to pay a sum of money in exchange for a premium, upon the death of an insured
person or after a set period. The modern form of life Insurance came to India from England in 1818.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
Oriental Life Insurance Company is a European insurance company started in Calcutta. It was the
first life insurance company on Indian Soil. All the insurance companies established during that period
were restricted only to the European community, and Indian natives were not insured by these
companies. Bombay Mutual Life Assurance Society was the first Indian life insurance company started
in the year 1870, which covered Indian lives at normal rates. So, Statement 2 is correct.
An Ordinance was issued on 19th January 1956, nationalizing the Life Insurance sector by amending
the Life Insurance Act 1938, and Life Insurance Corporation came into existence in the same year. It
absorbed 154 Indian insurance companies, 16 non-Indian companies, and 75 provident in all. So,
Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
INSURANCE IN INDIA
Concept Of It is said that Insurance has been practiced in India since the Vedic times. The
Insurance In Sanskrit term “Yogakshema” mentioned in the Rigveda is about a form of
Ancient India Insurance practiced by the Aryans in India.
Insurance  This Act was passed by Parliament in Dec.1999 & it received presidential
Regulatory assent in Jan.2000.
Development  Under this Act, an authority called IRDA was established, which replaced the
Authority Act Controller of Insurance under Insurance Act 1938.
(Irda) 1999  Aim - “to protect the interest of holders of Insurance policies to regulate,
promote and ensure orderly growth of Insurance industry & for matters
connected therewith or incidental thereto.”
 Features of the Authority:
 The corporate body will act as a group of persons, called members, who
will work jointly, not as a person like the Controller of Insurance.
 Having perpetual succession means any member may resign or die, but
the Authority will work.
 A common seal with the power to enter into a contract by affixing a stamp
on the documents.

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 Sue or being sued means the Authority can file a case against any person
or organization and vice versa.
 Composition of Authority:
The Authority shall consist of nine persons as per the details given
Below:
 Chairperson.
 No more than 5 whole-time members.
 No more than 4 part-time members.
These persons shall be appointed by the Central Govt.
 Tenure of Members:
 The Chairman's tenure will be for 5 years, and he is eligible for
reappointment till he attains the age of 65 years.
 The appointment of members will be for 5 years and eligible for
reappointment but not exceeding the age of 62 years.
 Removal of Members:
The Central Government can remove any member of the
Authority if he:
(a) Is declared bankrupt
(b) Has become physically or mentally incapable of acting as a member
(c) Has been awarded punishment by any Court.
(d) Has acquired such financial or other interests which affect his function
as a member.
(e) He has abused his position to render his continuation in office
detrimental to the public interest.
But no member can be removed from the office unless & until
the reasonable opportunity of being heard is given to the such
Member in the matter.
 The Chairperson and the whole-time members cannot accept any appointment
without Govt. approval within 2 years from the date on which he ceases or
retires from the office.

Q.36) Consider the following statements:

1. Indian Ocean dipole (IOD)is defined as differences in Sea Surface Temperature (SST) in the
equatorial Indian Ocean similar to ENSO.
2. The Indian summer monsoon is affected by the Atlantic SST variability.
3. Positive IOD and negative Equatorial Indian Ocean Oscillation(EQUINOO) events bring more
rainfall to India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
EXPLANATION:
IOD is the measurement of the difference between the sea surface temperature of eastern and the
western Indian Ocean, i.e., between the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea, which is much similar
to ENSO, as ENSO is the condition of difference in sea surface temperature between the western
and eastern Pacific Ocean. So, Statement 1 is correct.
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 .
The warming of the surface of the Atlantic Ocean weakens the Indian monsoon, and the cooling of
the surface strengthens the Indian monsoon. This phenomenon is known as Atlantic Nino. Hence
the Indian summer monsoon is affected by the Atlantic Sea Surface Temperature variability. So,
Statement 2 is correct.
EQUINOO was defined as an ‘oscillation’ or a ‘seesaw’ between enhanced cloud formation and
rainfall over the western equatorial Indian Ocean (WEIO) (covering 50° E–70° E and 10° S–10° N)
and suppressed clouding over the eastern equatorial Indian Ocean (EEIO) (covering 90–110° E and
10° S–0° Equator) in the west of Sumatra.
When the surface sea temperature in WEIO is above 27.5 degrees Celsius, it is called a positive
EQUINOO phase (the vice versa is called the Negative EQUINOO). This leads to enhanced clouding,
which is then suppressed in the eastern equatorial Indian Ocean. This increased cloud formation
throughout this monsoon season is the main reason for the above-average rainfall in India.
Thus, Positive IOD and Positive EQUINOO produce good rainfall in India. The Negative EQUINOO
does not bring rainfall to India; it only brings a drought-like situation that occurred in April 2002.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ENSO  The ENSO describes the fluctuations in temperature between the ocean
and atmosphere in the east-central Equatorial Pacific.
 ENSO includes both El Nino and La Nina, which are totally opposite
phenomena.
Difference between El Nino and La Nina:
El Nino La Nina
 It refers to periodic warming in sea  It is a cyclic counterpart to El Nino,
surface temperatures across the central consisting of the cooling of surface waters
and east-central Equatorial Pacific, with

55
 .
an increase in temperature of more than of the Pacific Ocean along the western coast
0.5°C for at least five successive of South America.
overlapping three-month seasons.  La Nina has less effect in Europe but tends
 El Nino events occur irregularly at two- to lead to milder winters in Northern
to seven-year intervals. Europe and colder winters in
 The warm ocean conditions in the southern/western Europe, leading to snow
equatorial Pacific induce large-scale in the Mediterranean region.
anomalies in the atmosphere.  Elsewhere in the world, areas that are
 Rainfall increases many fold in Ecuador affected by La Nina experience the opposite
and northern Peru, causing coastal of the effects they experience with El Nino
flooding and erosion.  It does not occur as often as El Nino
 Strong El Nino events are associated
with droughts in Indonesia, Australia,
and north-eastern South America and
with altered patterns of tropical storms
in the tropical belt.
IOD  IOD is the measurement of differences between the sea surface
temperatures of the western and eastern parts of the Indian Ocean, i.e.,
The Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.
 IOD is similar to the El Nino weather system, which operates in the Pacific
Ocean.
 It has a heavy influence over the Australian climate.

IOD Phases

Neutral IOD Positive IOD Negative IOD

The temperature of
Temperatures are almost waters in west Indian The temperature of
similar to normal across Ocean is more. eaters in east Indian
the tropical Indian Ocean is more.
Ocean. Provide high temperature
and low rainfall in Provides rainfall to
There is a little or no Australia. Australia.
change to Australia's
climate. Enhance rainfall in Reduced rainfall in India.
India.

Q.37) Match the following:

Tectonic plates Location

1. Caroline plate - between Philippine and

Indian plate

56
 .
2. Nazca plate - between Central America
and the pacific plate

3. Scotia plate - between South Africa and

the Antarctic plate

4. Cocos plate - between South America

and the pacific plate

5. Philippine plate - between the Eurasian

plate and pacific plate

How many pairs given above correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) No pair
EXPLANATION:
The Caroline plate is a minor tectonic plate that is present in the north of new guinea, which is
bounded by the Philippine plate on its western margin and India and smaller plates along its southern
side in New Guinea and the Bismarck sea. So, Pair (1) is correct.

Nazca Plate is bounded by the Pacific plate on the west, the Antarctic plate on the south, and the
South American plate on the east. Whereas it is not present between the central American plate,
which is the Caribbean plate and the pacific plate. So, Pair (2) is not correct.
The Scotia plate is a minor plate which is present in the Atlantic Ocean, which is bounded by the
South American plate in the north and Antarctic Plate in the south. There is no such South African
plate. So, Pair (3) is not correct.
The Cocos Plate is bounded by several different plates. To the northeast, it is bounded by the North
American Plate and the Caribbean Plate, which is a Central American plate. To the west, it is bounded
by the Pacific Plate, and to the south by the Nazca Plate. Whereas it is not bounded by the South
American plate. So, Pair (4) is not correct.
The philippine plate is bounded by the Philippine Sea Plate to the east, Sunda Plate to the southwest,
and the Eurasian Plate, called the Asiatic plate to its west. So, Pair (5) is correct.

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 .
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
PLATE TECHTONICS
About The Plate Tectonics theory was the most widely accepted theory by McKenzie and
Parker in 1967. In contrast, Morgan 1968 outlined the theory, and this theory
explains the Movement of Lithospheric plates that include both continents and
oceans.

Major La Pichon divided the earth into seven major.

Techtonics 1. North American plate
Plate 2. South American plate
3. Pacific plate
4. India-Australia-New Zealand plate
5. Africa with the eastern Atlantic floor plate
6. Eurasia and the adjacent oceanic plate
7. Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate.
Minor Plates A few important minor plates are:
1. Arabian plate: Mostly the Saudi Arabian landmass
2. Fuji plate: North-east of Australia

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 .
3. Turkish plate
4. Aegean plate (Mediterranean region)
5. Caribbean plate
6. Iranian plate.
Plate When these plates are moved, three kinds of margins are formed.
Movements Namely
 Divergent or Constructive Plate Margin
 Convergent or Destructive Plate Margin
 Transform or Conservative Plate Margin.
Types of Divergent Convergent Transform
motion
Motion Spreading Subduction Lateral Sliding
Effect Constructive Destructive Conservative
Topography Ridge/Rift Trench No major effect
Volcanic Yes Yes No
activity

Q.38) This type of climate is found in the temperate regions of the world, and it is characterized by warm
moist summers and cool, dry winters. The mean monthly temperature is between 40degrees F and 78
degrees F and has a strong maritime influence. The region has well-distributed rainfall with
thunderstorms in summer with the occasional occurrence of Tornadoes. The region exhibits monsoonal
characteristics with more than 200 frost-free days, and the abundant moisture favors the cultivation of
cotton and maize. On the highlands, conifers such as pines and cypresses are important softwoods. It
is also called a slight monsoonal type of climate. Which one of the following types of climate best
describes the above passage?
(a) Laurentian type climate
(b) British type climate
(c) Gulf type climate
(d) Steppe type climate
EXPLANATION:
Warm moist summers with cool and dry winters are the characteristics of a Temperate west margin
climate whose mean monthly temperature is between 40degrees F and 78 degrees F. Since it is
experienced in the continental margins, there is always an influence of the sea (maritime influence).
Temperate west margin climates have 3 subtypes: China, Gulf, and Natal.
During winters, due to the extension of the polar cell towards the south, there will be penetration of
extremely cold winds to the continental interiors which, when contracts highly contrasting maritime
hot air mass near the shorelines, causes Tornadoes in the USA.
There is a seasonal reversal of winds which makes them experience a monsoonal climate; however,
since there is no complete reversal of winds relative to the China type of climate, this is called a Slight
monsoonal type of climate.
The monsoonal climate provides enough moisture supply, and under the influence of maritime air
mass, these areas will be frost free and thus favours the cultivation of crops like cotton and maize.
Coniferous trees such as pines, firs, cedars and cypresses also grow in these regions.
The above type best explains Temperate west margin climates in areas like the south-eastern U.S.A.
So, Option (c) is correct.

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 .
Warm Temperate Eastern
China Type - in most parts of
Margin Climate
China, southern parts of Japan

Gulf Type - in south-eastern

U.S.A.

Natal Type - New South Wales,

Natal, Parana-Paraguay-Uruguay
basin

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
WORLD CLIMATE AND ITS CHARACTERISTICS
Laurentian It is also called the Cool temperate Eastern Margin Climate. It has cold, dry
Type Climate winters and warm, wet summers with winter temperatures below freezing
point and warm Summer temperatures with heavy rainfall of annual
precipitation between 30 to 60 inches.

Vegetation  Cool Temperate Forest

 Oak, Beech, Maple and Birch are its Principal tress.
Economy  Timber, Paper and pulp industry are the most
important
 Agriculture is less focused
 Fishing

British Type British Climate, Cool Temperate Western Margin Climate, or North-West
Climate European Maritime Climate are all terms used to describe the climate of the

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United Kingdom. The cool temperate western margins are influenced by the
Westerlies all year.

Vegetation  Deciduous forest

 The trees shed their leaves in the cold season to
protect themselves against the winter snow and
frost.
 The deciduous hardwoods are excellent for both fuel
and industrial purposes.
 Oak, elm, ash, birch, beech, poplar, and hornbeam.
Economy  Agriculture
 Market Gardening
 Mixed Farming
 Sheep rearing
 Fishing
 Other Manufacturing Industries
Steppe Type Steppe or Temperate Grasslands refers to a semi-desert region with grassland or
Climate shrub vegetation. Steppes are intermediate regions, not receive enough rainfall to
support a forest but are also not as dry as a desert.

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 .
Different Names  Prairies – North America
of Steppe in  Pustaz – Hungary
Different  Pampas – Argentina and Uruguay
regions  Velds (High Veld) – South Africa
 Downs – Australia
 Canterbury – New Zealand
Vegetation And Various grassland regions are famous for different kinds of
Economy economic activities. They include,
 Prairies – Wheat cultivation, livestock ranching.
 Velds – sheep and cattle rearing, maize
Cultivation
 Pustaz – wheat and beet sugar cultivation.
 Pampas – wheat cultivation, export of dairy, beef
products.
 Downs and Canterbury – Wool production from
Merino sheep, dairy products

Q.39) Consider the following statements

1. Corals survive only in warmer tropical and subtropical latitudes
2. Polyps along fringing reefs will die immediately once the water recedes during Earthquakes.
3. The corals are best developed on the inner aspect of Atolls due to less disruption by ocean
currents.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All of the above
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION:
Coral reefs are found in Tropical, Sub Tropical, Temperate and polar regions. Also, corals are found
across the world’s ocean, in both shallow and deep water, but reef-building corals are only found in
shallow tropical and subtropical waters. This is because the algae found in their tissues need light
for photosynthesis, and they prefer water temperatures between 70-85°F (22-29°C). Deep-sea corals
do not have the same algae and do not need sunlight or warm water to survive, but they also grow
very slowly. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

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 .
Coral polyps are tiny little animals related to anemones and jellyfish, and they can live individually
or in large colonies that comprise a coral reef. Polyps can survive without water for a considerable
amount of time but not for a longer period. Earthquakes can move large sections of coral reefs above
sea level or deeper below water, which can cause a coral reef avalanche. When the water recedes
during an earthquake, polyps survive for some time and won’t die immediately. So, Statement 2 is
not correct.
Atolls are ring-shaped island reef that encircles a central sea water lagoon. The corals are best
developed on the seaward side (Outward) of the reef, were constantly moving waves, tides, and
currents maintain an abundant supply of clear, oxygenated water. They also bring an adequate
supply of food from microscopic organisms. Thus, corals are developed outwards from the atolls, not
inwards.
Ocean Currents play a major role in the formation of Coral reefs. Coral reefs require nearly 70-85°F
(22-29°C) warm temperature. Coral reefs shall not flourish in the regions of cold currents because
the upwelling of cold water from the depth cools the warm surface, which does not favor the growth
of coral reefs. Thus, generally, coral reefs are absent on the western margin of the continents because
of the presence of cold currents. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CORAL REEFS
About  Corals are invertebrate animals belonging to a large group of colorful and
fascinating animals called Cnidarian, and these are made up of a group of coral
animals called polyps.
 Corals themselves are formed of symbiotic associations of coral polyps and
zooxanthellae, a type of din flagellate that provides the corals with Photosynthate
while receiving protection from the coral.

Calcium carbonate (CaCO3)

Coral Reef

Coral Polyps

Zooxanthellae

Facts  Corals are fascinating animals that form reefs.

 Coral reefs provide food and habitat for about 25 percent of the world’s fishes.
 Although they cover less than 0.1% of the earth’s surface, coral reefs are the most
bio-diverse marine ecosystem in the world
 Coral reefs are home to:
 4,000 species of reef fish
 840 species of corals
 Over 1 million species of other animals

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 .
Types

Threats  Unsustainable Fishing

 55% of the world’s coral reefs are affected by overfishing.
 Land-Based Pollution
 25% of coral reefs around the world are affected by agricultural runoff
 Habitat Destruction-27% of the world’s coral reefs are in protected areas, but only
6% of those are well managed
 Warming Temperatures and Coral Bleaching-Some scientists predict that 90% of
global reefs will experience severe bleaching annually by 2055.
 Sea Level Rise
 Stronger Storms
 Ocean Acidification
Coral
Bleaching

Q.40) Which of the following statements regarding Aphelion is not correct?

(a) Aphelion is the position at which the Earth is at its farthest from the Sun.
(b) The Earth is at Aphelion in the early month of July, which is 152 million km away from the Sun.
(c) Being farthest from the Sun, the Earth experiences a significant drop in temperature.
(d) The varying distance between the Sun and the Earth does not cause seasons.

64
 .
EXPLANATION:
During Earth’s revolution around the sun in its elliptical orbit distance between the Sun and the Earth
varies throughout the year. Aphelion is the position at which the Earth is at its farthest approach to the
Sun, and Perihelion is the position at which the Earth is at its closest approach to the Sun. So, Option
(a) is correct.
The position of Earth at Aphelion falls on 4th July 2022 and at that position distance between the Earth
and the Sun is 152 million km. The position of Earth at Perihelion falls on 3rd January and at that
position distance between the Earth and the Sun is 147 million km. So, Option (b) is correct.
Though Earth is at its farthest position on the 4th of July, this distance does not have a significant
impact on the temperature of the Earth. Though annual insolation received by the earth on 3rd January
is slightly more than the amount received on 4th July, this does not have a great effect on daily weather
changes on the surface of the earth. So, Option (c) is not correct.
A common misconception is that Earth's varying distance from the Sun causes the four seasons. The
23.5-degree tilt of our planet's spin axis is more important. The tilt of the north pole toward the Sun in
June causes summer north of the equator, while during summer, south of the equator comes six months
later when the south pole is facing the Sun. The ellipticity of Earth's orbit does cause a small change in
solar heating from July (aphelion) to January (perihelion), even though it is not the dominant factor but
acts as one of the factors in shaping seasonal weather patterns. So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SOLAR RADIATION
Insolation The earth’s surface receives most of its energy in short wavelengths. The energy
received by the earth is known as incoming solar radiation, which in short is
termed insolation
Variations In The amount and the intensity of insolation vary during a day, in a season, and in
Insolation a year. The factors that cause these variations in insolation are:
 the rotation of the earth on its axis;
 the angle of inclination of the sun’s rays;
 the length of the day;
 the transparency of the atmosphere;
 the configuration of land in terms of its aspect.
The last two, however, have less influence.
Earth’s Orbit
Around The Sun

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 .
Q.41) Consider the following statements
1. Ocean surface Salinity affects the water cycle and ocean circulation.
2. The annual range of temperature decreases with latitude from the equator towards the poles.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Salinity is generally defined as the salt concentration (e.g., Sodium and Chlorine) in sea water. It varies
due to evaporation and precipitation over the ocean, river runoff, and ice melt. Along with temperature,
Ocean Surface Salinity plays a major role in the changes in the density of sea water which results in
changes in the water cycle and ocean circulation. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Range of temperature is defined as the difference between the maximum and minimum
temperatures or between the highest and lowest mean temperatures during a specified time interval,
for example, daily, monthly, or seasonal.
The average temperature of surface water of the oceans is about 27°C and gradually decreases from the
equator towards the poles. The rate of decrease of temperature with increasing latitude is generally
0.5°C per latitude. Whereas the Annual range of temperature from the equator towards the poles
increases. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
OCEAN SALINITY AND TEMPERATURE

Ocean The concentration of salt content in sea water is known as salinity. It is expressed as the
Salinity grams of salt present in 1000 grams of water. The average Salinity of sea water is 35 Parts
per million (ppm).

Salinity is not uniform across oceans and seas, and it varies from one area to other, and the
reason for this variation is,

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 .
1. Amount of evaporation of sea water,
2. Supply of fresh water by rivers, rainfall (Precipitation), melting ice, etc.

In The higher temperature in the tropics makes evaporation very high.

Tropics Still, the salinity over the tropic was relatively low due to higher
rainfall, higher relative humidity, and a supply of fresh water. The
average salinity is 35%.
Poles Away from the tropics, the salinity decreases pole ward because of low
evaporation and low temperature. The average salinity near the poles
is maintained at 34%.

 Halocline
Halocline is an area where the density of the water goes from that of normal seawater
to very high, and the oxygen concentration drops from normal sea water concentrations
to zero.

Ocean  The surface temperature of ocean water mainly depends on latitude and season,
Temperature and it is noted that water is heated and cooled rather slowly.
 Usually, the temperature of ocean water decreases from the equator to the Polar
Regions.
Location Average surface Temperature
Equatorial region 27°-28°C
(0 to 40 degree Celsius)
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 .
Latitudes between 44 – 55 10°-13°C
Degree Celsius

Latitudes between 60 to 90 0 degree Celsius and remains

degree Celsius permanently frozen
 Thermocline
A thermocline is the transition layer between warmer mixed water at the ocean's
surface and cooler deep water below.

Q.42) What is/are the best possible evidence that supports the continental drift theory?
1. Ancient fossil fuels, rocks, and the mountain range across the continents.
2. Ancient climatic zones in different locations.
3. Distribution of placer deposits on Earth.
Select the correct code from below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:
The theory of continental drift is most associated with the scientist Alfred Wegener. In the early 20th
century, Wegener published a paper explaining his theory that the continental landmasses were
“drifting” across the Earth, sometimes plowing through oceans and into each other. He called this
movement as continental drift. The evidence that supports the continental drift theory is,
 The distribution of ancient fossils, rocks, mountain ranges and
 The locations of ancient climatic zones
 The Matching of Continents (Jig-Saw-Fit) or Apparent affinity of physical features
 Placer Deposits
So, Option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CONTINENTAL DRIFT THEORY
About  According to Wegener, all the continents formed a single continental mass, and a
mega ocean surrounded the same.
 The supercontinent was named PANGAEA, which meant all Earth. The mega-ocean
was called PANTHALASSA, meaning all water.
 Pangaea first broke into two large continental masses, Laurasia and Gondwanaland,
forming the northern and southern components, respectively.

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 .
 Wegener suggested that the movement responsible for the drifting of the continents
was caused by pole fleeing and tidal forces.
 The polar-fleeing force relates to the rotation of the earth, and the tidal force is due
to the attraction of the moon and the sun that develops tides in oceanic waters
Evidence  Matching of Continents (Jig-Saw-Fit) - The shorelines of Africa and South America
facing each other have a remarkable and unmistakable match.
 Rocks of Same Age across the Oceans - The belt of ancient rocks of 2,000 million
years from Brazil's coast matches those from western Africa.
 Tillite Deposits - The sedimentary rock formed out of deposits of glaciers.
 The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in
six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.
 Placer Deposits - The rich placer deposits of gold on the Ghana coast and the
absolute absence of source rock in the region are amazing facts.
 The gold-bearing veins are in Brazil, and it is obvious that the gold deposits of Ghana
are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.

Q.43) Consider the following statements:

1. Mid-oceanic ridges are continuous mountain ranges that occur along convergent plate
boundaries.
2. Mid-oceanic ridges are much younger than continental areas.
3. Mid-Atlantic ridges do not create Rift Valley in the Atlantic Ocean because it spreads quickly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION:
Mid-ocean ridges occur along divergent plate boundaries, where a new ocean floor is created as the
Earth’s tectonic plates spread apart. As the plates separate, molten rock rises to the seafloor, producing
enormous volcanic eruptions of basalt. It is the most extensive chain of mountains on Earth,
stretching nearly 65,000 kilometers (40,390 miles) and with more than 90 percent of the mountain
range lying underwater in the deep ocean. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
As old oceanic crust is subducted and melted into magma, new oceanic crust in the form of igneous
rock is formed at mid-ocean ridges and volcanic hotspots. This recycling accounts for the recycling of

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60 percent of Earth’s surface every 200 million years, making the oldest recorded oceanic crust rock
roughly the same age. Because of this recycling, the age of the oceanic crust varies depending on
location. Areas where new crust is formed at mid-ocean ridges, are much younger than zones further
away. By contrast, continental crust is rarely recycled and is typically much older. So, Statement 2
is correct.
The Mid-Atlantic Ridge runs down the center of the Atlantic Ocean, slowly spreading at a rate of 2 to
5 centimeters (0.8 to 2 inches) per year and forming a rift valley that is about the depth and width of
the Grand Canyon. In contrast, the East Pacific Rise is spreading quickly, at rates of 6 to 16 centimeters
(3 to 6 inches) per year. Due to the fast-spreading rates, there is no rift valley in the Pacific, just a
smooth volcanic summit with a crack along the crest that is much smaller than the Atlantic rift valley.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
MID OCEANIC RIDGES
About  This forms an interconnected chain of mountain systems within the ocean.
 It is the longest mountain chain submerged under oceanic waters on the earth's
surface.
 It is characterized by a central rift system at the crest, a fractionated plateau, and a
flank zone all along its length.
 The rift system at the crest is the zone of intense volcanic activity.
Sea Floor  Seafloor spreading is a geological process that creates crusts, Earth's outermost
Spreading shell.
 Tectonic plates separate, allowing magma from the earth’s interior to fill the gap in
this phenomenon.
 The magma cools to form a new oceanic crust.
 These activities occur along mid-ocean ridges — large mountain ranges rising from
the ocean floor.
 Faster seafloor spreading rates mean more volcanic activity.

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Q.44) Consider the following statements
1. The halocline is an ocean layer where salinity changes most rapidly with depth.
2. Pycnocline refers to the rapid change in density with depth.
3. The Arabian Sea experiences less salinity than the Bay of Bengal due to the influence of the
southwest monsoon.
Which of the statements above given is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
EXPLANATION:
Halocline, a vertical zone in the oceanic water column in which salinity changes rapidly with depth, is
located below the well-mixed, uniformly saline surface water layer. Especially well-developed haloclines
occur in the Atlantic Ocean, in which salinities may decrease by several parts per thousand from the
base of the surface layer to depths of about one kilometer (3,300 feet). So, Statement 1 is correct.
Pycnoclines, or layers through which water density increases rapidly with depth, accompany such
haloclines as much as density varies directly with total salt content. So, Statement 2 is correct.
The salinity in the Bay of Bengal is low due to the influx of river water. On the contrary, the Arabian Sea
shows higher salinity due to high evaporation and a low influx of fresh water. So, Statement 3 is not
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
OCEANS
Various The ocean can be divided into zones according to salinity.
Zones  The surface zone refers to the upper region of the ocean. It is also called the mixed
layer because it is the location of ocean surface currents driven by the winds.
 The surface currents tend to maintain a constant temperature and salt concentration.
The surface zone, therefore, ranges in depths from 150 to 1000 m.
 The next zone is characterized by a rapid change in temperature with ocean depth.
This is the thermocline zone.
 If the salinity changes rapidly with depth, the zone is called the halocline zone.
 A zone with a strong chemical gradient is called a chemocline.

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 The halocline and thermocline often coincide; this zone is called the pycnocline zone.
Factors  Evaporation and precipitation decide the salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans
affecting  Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the freshwater flow from
the ocean rivers and Polar Regions by the freezing and thawing of ice.
salinity  Wind also influences the salinity of an area by transferring water to other areas.
 The ocean currents contribute to the salinity variations. Any change in temperature
and density of water also changes the salinity of the water in an area

Q.45) Consider the following statements with reference to The International Crops Research Institute for
the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT):
1. ICRISAT is an international non-profit organization undertaking agricultural research for
development in Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa.
2. It is the only International Agricultural Research Centre (IARC) Headquartered in India.
3. India has granted a special status to ICRISAT as a UN Organization, making it eligible for special
immunities and tax privileges.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

EXPLANATION:
The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), a CGIAR Research
Centre, is a non-profit, non-political public international research organization that conducts
agricultural research for development in Asia and sub-Saharan Africa. So, Statement 1 is correct.
ICRISAT, the only International Agricultural Research Center (IARC) with headquarters in Hyderabad,
Andhra Pradesh in India, two regional hubs and four country offices in sub-Saharan Africa, has been
collaborating closely with the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). So, Statement 2 is
correct.
ICRISAT was founded in 1972 by a consortium of organizations convened by the Ford and the
Rockefeller foundations. The FAO and the UNDP signed their charter. Since its inception, its host
country India has granted a special status to ICRISAT as a UN Organization operating in the Indian
territory, making it eligible for special immunities and tax privileges. So, Statement 3 is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
THE INTERNATIONAL CROPS RESEARCH INSTITUTE FOR THE SEMI-ARID TROPICS
(ICRISAT)
About  It is a non-profit, non-political organization that conducts agricultural
research for development in the drylands of Asia and sub-Saharan Africa.
 Covering 6.5 million square kilometers of land in 55 countries, the semi-
arid or dryland tropics has over 2 billion people, and 644 million are the
poorest of the poor.
 ICRISAT envisions a prosperous, food-secure, and resilient dryland tropic.
 Its mission is to reduce poverty, hunger, malnutrition, and environmental
Aim degradation in the dryland tropics.
 It approaches this through partnership-based international agricultural
research for development that embodies Science with a Human Face.
 ICRISAT and its collaborators help empower these poor people to overcome
poverty, hunger, and a degraded environment through improved
agriculture.
 ICRISAT and its partners help empower these poor people to overcome
poverty, hunger, and a degraded environment through better agriculture.
Headquarters ICRISAT is headquartered in Hyderabad, Telangana State, in India, with two
regional hubs (Nairobi, Kenya, and Bamako, Mali) and country offices in Niger,
Nigeria, Zimbabwe, Malawi, Ethiopia, and Mozambique.
Inclusive Market- Dryland farm families have been marginalized from the development loop. An
Oriented inclusive strategy will enable the poor, particularly women and the
Development youth/children, to participate in the development process rather than be
sidelined.

Recently  The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics
(ICRISAT) will mark the start of its 50th Anniversary (2022) was celebrated
and inaugurating ICRISAT’s Climate Change Research Facility on Plant
Protection and ICRISAT’s Rapid Generation Advancement Facility.
 These two facilities are dedicated to the smallholder farmers of Asia and
sub-Saharan Africa.
Functions ICRISAT researches five highly nutritious drought-tolerant crops:
 Chickpea
 Pigeon pea
 Pearl millet
 Sorghum
 Groundnut

Q.46) Consider the following statements about International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC).
1. The INSTC is a land- and sea-based multi-modal transport network that connects the Indian
Ocean, Persian Gulf, the Caspian Sea and Russia.
2. The INSTC was launched in the year 2000 with India as one of its founding members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2

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EXPLANATION:
The INSTC is a land- and sea-based multi-modal transport network that connects the Indian Ocean and
the Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via the Islamic Republic of Iran and then is connected to St.
Petersburg and North Europe via the Russian Federation. So, Statement 1 is correct.
International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) was first proposed in 2000 to improve
connectivity between Russia, Central Asian states, and India. Russia, Iran, and India signed the
agreement for the NSTC project on 16 May 2002. All three countries are founding member states. So,
Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
INTERNATIONAL NORTH-SOUTH TRANSPORT CORRIDOR (INSTC).
About  The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multi-modal
connectivity project establishing transport networks (ship, rail, and road
routes) for moving freight between India, Russia, Iran, Europe, and Central
Asia.
 This trade route is 7200 Km long, and the transport of freight is through a
multi-mode network of roads, ships, and railways.
 The objective of the corridor is to increase trade connectivity between major
cities such as Mumbai, Moscow, Tehran, Baku, Bandar Abbas, Astrakhan,
Bandar Anzal
Member Countries There are 13 member states of the INSTC project
1. India
2. Iran
3. Russia
4. Azerbaijan
5. Armenia
6. Kazakhstan
7. Belarus
8. Tajikistan
9. Kyrgyzstan
10. Oman
11. Turkey
12. Syria
13. Ukraine.
Observer State Bulgaria

Benefits  Reduce freight costs by 30% and the journey time by 40% compared to the
conventional deep sea route via the Suez Canal.
 Provides an opportunity for the internationalization of India’s infrastructural
state.
 This corridor is expected to increase market access to the member nations,
which can also benefit through various backward and forward linkages.
 INSTC would enhance accessibility to the land-locked central Asian nations.

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Q.47) Consider the following statements:
1. Atlantic meridional overturning circulation distributes heat and energy from the equatorial to the
polar region.
2. AMOC is driven by thermohaline differences.
3. North Atlantic drift decreases the severity of winter in Western Europe.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The AMOC is a large system of ocean currents, like a conveyor belt, driven by differences in temperature
and salt content – the water’s density. As warm water flows northwards, it cools, and some evaporation
occurs, which increases the amount of salt. Low temperature and a high salt content make the water
denser, and this dense water sinks deep into the ocean. The cold, dense water slowly spreads
southwards, several kilometers below the surface. Eventually, it gets pulled back to the surface and
warms in a process called “upwelling,” and the circulation is complete.
This global process makes sure that the world’s oceans are continually mixed and that heat and energy
are distributed around the earth.
Note: Thermohaline means involving or dependent upon the conjoint effect of temperature and salinity

Thus, driven by thermohaline difference, AMOC transfers heat and energy all over the world’s ocean
surface (including from equatorial region to Polar regions). So, Statements 1 is correct & Statement
2 is correct.
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The Gulf Stream is divided into many branches at 45° N latitude and 45°W longitude. All the branches
are collectively called North Atlantic Drift or current.
North Atlantic Current, also called North Atlantic Drift, is a warm western boundary current in the
Atlantic Ocean that extends the Gulf Stream north eastward. The warm stream and the prevailing
westerly winds help to keep the temperature in north western Europe moderate.
North Atlantic drift hot waters help moderate Western Europe's climate, resulting in milder winters.
Since both the events are disjoint and not jointly responsible for mild winters in Europe, So,
Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ATLANTIC MERIDIONAL OVERTURNING CIRCULATION

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About AMOC is characterized by a northward flow of warm, salty water in the upper layers
of the Atlantic and a southward flow of colder, deep waters that are part of
the thermohaline circulation.
Thermohaline  Thermohaline circulation (THC) is a part of the large-scale ocean circulation driven
circulation by global density gradients created by surface heat and freshwater fluxes.
(THC)  Winds drive ocean currents in the upper 100 meters of the ocean's surface.
 However, ocean currents also flow thousands of meters below the surface.
 These deep-ocean currents are driven by differences in the water's density,
controlled by temperature (thermo) and salinity (haline).
 This process is known as thermohaline circulation.
 These deep-ocean currents are driven by differences in the water's density,
controlled by temperature (thermo) and salinity (haline).
 The thermohaline circulation is sometimes called the ocean conveyor belt, the
great ocean conveyor, or the global conveyor belt.

Importance of  It plays a critical role in redistributing heat and regulating weather

Atlantic patterns worldwide.
Meridional  Western Europe's climate is less harsh even in winters because of AMOC (Gulf
Overturning Stream, North Atlantic Drift).

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Circulation  It acts as a carbon sink by absorbing and storing atmospheric carbon.
(AMOC)

Effects of Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation (AMOC) is losing its stability.

AMOC IPCC report indicates that AMOC has already weakened as greenhouse gases
Slowdown increased. This is because as the atmosphere warms, the surface ocean beneath it
retains more of its heat.
Meanwhile, increases in rainfall and ice melt mean it gets fresher too.
All these changes make the ocean water lighter and reduce the sinking in the
'conveyor belt,' leading to a weaker AMOC.
Indian Ocean's  The Indian Ocean is one of the fingerprints of global warming.
role  As the Indian Ocean warms faster and faster, it generates additional precipitation.
This draws more air from other parts of the world to the Indian Ocean, including
the Atlantic.
 With so much precipitation in the Indian Ocean, there will be less precipitation in
the Atlantic Ocean.
 Less precipitation will lead to higher salinity in the waters of the tropical portion
of the Atlantic.
 As it comes north via AMOC, this saltier water in the Atlantic will get cold much
quicker than usual and sink faster.

Q.48) Consider the following statements

1. Uranus and Neptune are called the Twin Planets of our Solar system.
2. Jupiter's moon Ganymede is the largest moon in our solar system, bigger than the Pluto
3. Venus is the hottest planet in our solar system.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) None of the above

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EXPLANATION:
The size, mass, composition and rotation of Uranus and Neptune are so similar that they are often
called planetary twins.

So, Statement 1 is correct

Jupiter is the fifth planet from our Sun and is, by far, the giant planet in the solar system.
Jupiter's four largest moons – Io, Europa, Ganymede, and Calisto, were first observed by the astronomer
Galileo Galilei in 1610. These four moons are known today as the Galilean satellites.
Jupiter's moon Ganymede is the solar system's largest satellite (even bigger than the planet
Mercury). Larger than Mercury and Pluto. So, Statement 2 is correct
Venus, the second planet from the sun, is the hottest and brightest planet in the solar system. Venus
is the hottest and brightest planet in the solar system and the brightest planet in the night sky.
Venus is the same temperature at all times, day or night, at an average of 735 Kelvin (462 °C / 863 °F),
making it even hotter than Mercury. So, Statement 3 is correct.

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Q.49) Which of the following is used to determine the precise location of a place?
1. The altitude of a place
2. Latitude of a place
3. Longitude of a place
4. Pressure
5. Direction of wind
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2,3 and 5 only
(c) 3,4 and 5 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The precise location of any point on the earth's surface can be specified by giving its latitude, longitude,
and elevation above mean sea level.The intersection of latitude and longitude lines, called coordinates,
identifies the exact location of a place.
Latitude marks the north-south position of a location on the Earth's surface and ranges from 0 degrees
at the equator to 90 degrees at the North and South Poles. There are 180 degrees of latitude, and the
distance between each degree of latitude is roughly 69 miles (111 km).
Longitude lines run north-south and indicate the location of a point east-west. Latitude is the angular
distance east or west of the Prime Meridian. There are 360 degrees of longitude (+180° eastward and
−180° westward). So, option (2) and (3) is correct.

Q.50) Falkland Islands disputes recently seen in media disputed between:

(a) Brazil and Argentina
(b) UK and Argentina
(c) Brazil and UK
(d) Brazil and Paraguay
EXPLANATION:
The Falkland Islands is an archipelago in the South Atlantic Ocean on the Patagonian Shelf of Atlantic
Ocean.
For these islands, over two centuries, conflicts followed between Argentina and Britain with both
asserting dominance over the other, alternatively finding victory in the conflict. That ended in 1840

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when the Falklands became a Crown colony and Britain sent Scottish settlers to officially establish a
community, one that was largely pastoral.
Strategically, the Falkland Islands were important to Britain and that was evident in how they were
used by London as a military base in the South Atlantic Ocean, both during the First and Second
World Wars. However, following the end of the Second World War, the islands once again became a
cause of dispute between the United Kingdom and Argentina, with both asserting sovereignty over the
islands.
So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
FALKLAND ISLANDS DISPUTE
Recently in  Four decades after the Falklands War between the United Kingdom and Argentina
News ended bitterly for Buenos Aires, a statement from China on the sidelines of the
Winter Olympics, that affirmed Beijing’s support for Argentina’s claim to the
Falkland Islands, had stirred discussions around the long-standing dispute.
About  The Falkland Islands also called Malvinas Islands or Spanish Islas Malvinas, are
an internally self-governing overseas territory of the United Kingdom in the South
Atlantic Ocean.
 It lies about 300 miles northeast of the southern tip of South America and a similar
distance east of the Strait of Magellan.
 The capital and major town is Stanley, on East Falkland; there are also several
scattered small settlements as well as a Royal Air Force base that is located at
Mount Pleasant, some 35 miles southwest of Stanley
Post-WWII  The dispute continued in the post-WWII global scenario. Argentina’s assertion of
sovereignty over the Falkland Islands during the presidency of Juan Perón briefly
soured relations with the United Kingdom. In December 1965, the United Nations
General Assembly adopted Resolution 2065, a non-binding resolution that
recognized the existence of a sovereignty dispute between the United Kingdom and
Argentina over these islands, that urged both countries to find a peaceful solution
to the dispute.
 Over the next three years, both Argentina and the United Kingdom held talks about
the islands, but those were impeded because settlers in the Falklands, who was
originally from the United Kingdom dissented, forcing a halt to all negotiations
between the countries till 1977.

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 In the run-up to the war, the United Kingdom’s Thatcher government strongly
considered handing over the Falkland Islands to Argentina because of difficulties
in financially maintaining the islands. In the background of these developments,
the conflict between the two countries over these islands was bubbling beneath the
surface.
Falklands  Insisting that the United Kingdom had illegally taken the Falkland Islands from
War them, Argentina invaded the islands in 1982, sparking the Falklands War. Experts
believe that the invasion that started in April that year was unexpected.
 The United Kingdom was not prepared for the attack and plans had to be rapidly
put into motion. London was at a disadvantage because of the geographical location
of the islands, approximately 7,000 nautical miles away. A little over two months
after it broke out, the war ended with the United Kingdom’s victory.

Q.51) Which of the following is/are responsible for the occurrence of solar and lunar eclipses?
1. Revolution of the moon around the Earth close to the Earth’s ecliptic plane.
2. The proximity between the moon and the Earth.
3. The relative apparent size of the Sun and the moon.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The plane of the Moon’s orbit is nearly the plane of the ecliptic. The inclination angle of the Moon’s
orbit to the plane of the earth's ecliptic is 5 degrees. Because of this minor inclination difference, they
appear to be in the nearly same plane, which helps to form an eclipse (to shield the other object). So,
Statement 1 is correct.

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Solar and lunar eclipses occur because of the changing positions of the Earth, sun and Moon in
relationship to one another.
A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes between the Sun and Earth, fully or partially casting the
Moon's shadow on Earth. A solar eclipse can only happen during a New Moon. The varying distances
of the Moon from the Earth cause different types of solar eclipses like Annual, Partial, and Total Solar
eclipses etc.
When the Moon is closer to the Earth, it has a greater chance of fully covering the sun than when it is
farther away.
A lunar eclipse occurs when the Earth passes between the sun and the Moon during a full moon phase.
For this to happen, the Earth must be physically between the Sun and Moon, with all three bodies
lying on the same plane of orbit.
Thus, the Proximity (the state of being near to somebody/something in distance or time) between the
Earth and the moon is such that the shadow of one can hide the other object leading to the formation
of the eclipse and thus is the responsible factor for the occurrence of Solar and Lunar eclipses. So,
Statement 2 is correct.
The angular diameter of an object is the angle the object makes (subtends) as seen by an observer. This
is demonstrated in the diagram below, where the angular diameter of the object appears larger to an
observer at A (closer to the object) than to an observer at B. Angular diameter can also refer to the
distances between two objects measured on the celestial sphere.

For an observer on the Earth, the angular diameter of the Moon and the Sun are quite similar. In
reality, the Sun’s physical diameter is 400 times bigger than the Moon, while the Moon is ~ 400 times
closer to the Earth.

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This apparent (appears to be) size of the sun and moon (which appears to be quite similar) through
which one’s shadow can shield the other completely is, thus, one of the factors for forming an eclipse.
So, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.52) Consider the following statements:

1. Mesopause is the coldest place in Earth’s atmosphere.
2. Halogens are less reactive in the ozonosphere.
3. The Karman line is located beyond the Thermosphere, the place where space begins.
4. In the mesosphere, temperature increases with an increase in altitude.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The mesosphere lies above the stratosphere and extends to an altitude of about 85 km.
The transition between the mesosphere and the thermosphere is called the Mesopause. Due to the lack
of solar heating and very strong radiative cooling from carbon dioxide, the mesosphere is the coldest
region on Earth with temperatures as low as -100 °C (-148 °F or 173 K). The top of the mesosphere,
called the mesopause, is the coldest part of Earth's atmosphere. Temperatures in the upper mesosphere
fall as low as −101°C varying according to latitude and season.
Temperature decreases with height, reaching a minimum average value of -90 ºC at the top of the layer.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
Reactive gases containing the halogens chlorine and bromine lead to the chemical destruction of
stratospheric ozone.
The source gases are emitted at Earth’s surface by natural processes and by human activities
Halogen source gases (also known as ozone-depleting substances) are chemically converted to reactive
halogen gases primarily in the stratosphere.
Once in the stratosphere, the halogen source gases chemically convert at different rates to form the
reactive halogen gases.
The conversion occurs in the stratosphere instead of the troposphere because solar UV radiation is more
intense in the stratosphere.
The reactive gases separate into reservoir gases, which do not destroy ozone, and reactive gases, which
participate in ozone destruction cycles. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

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The line that marks the beginning of space from the Earth is called the Karman line. It is named after
Theodore von Karman, the Karman line is a crucial element that is considered while determining the
extent to which an aircraft can fly.
The Karman line is located at roughly 62 miles (100 kilometres) above sea level. It is believed that space
starts after the Karman line.
It is marked by analysing the density of air. At the Karman line, the air becomes too thin for aircraft to
stay afloat. But interestingly, this is not where Earth's atmosphere ends.

The Kármán line lies within the lower thermosphere.

It exists between Earth's Mesosphere and Thermosphere.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.
In the mesosphere, temperature decreases as altitude increases due to decreasing solar heating and
increasing cooling by CO2 radiative emission. So, Statement 4 is not correct.

Q.53) Why are cyclones not formed despite high temperature and moisture near the equator?
1. Due to negligible Coriolis force.
2. Convergence of trade winds from subtropical high-pressure belts from both the hemisphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:

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The prerequisite conditions for tropical cyclones are:
 Availability of continuous supply of warm and moist air.
 warm, deep ocean waters (greater than 80°F / 27°C)
 A pre-existing near-surface disturbance.
 There should be anticyclone circulation at the height of 9km to 15 km
Above the surface disturbance.
 Presence of strong Coriolis force.
Even if these conditions are in place, a tropical cyclone is not likely to form between 5°N and 5°S of the
equator.
This is because of the lack of the Coriolis force, which is caused by the rotation of the Earth.
The Coriolis force is zero at the equator and negligible between 5°N and 5°S of the equator. The Coriolis
force is necessary for forming a cyclone because only this force makes the strong convectional current,
the source of cyclone formation, move rapidly round and round.

So, Statement 1 is correct.

Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) are the regions of convergence where the winds flowing from
sub-tropical high-pressure belts of both hemispheres converge here.
Tropical cyclone formation also requires a trigger that initiates convection. One such trigger is the
Intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ). Tropical cyclones are formed along the ITCZ, the zone of the
confluence of north-east and south-east trade winds. This ITCZ changes its position seasonally. Thus,
it is always not present near the equator. Hence, it is not a reason for cyclones not forming near the
equator despite their high temperature and moisture. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
About  Tropical cyclones are violent storms that originate over oceans in tropical areas
and move over to the coastal areas bringing about large-scale destruction caused
by violent winds, heavy rainfall, and storm surge.
 Tropical cyclones are called “hurricanes” in the Atlantic, the Caribbean and
North eastern Pacific, “typhoons” in the western Pacific and “cyclones” in the
Indian Ocean and “willy willies” in the sea around Australia.

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Characteristics  A tropical cyclone is a rapidly rotating storm originating over tropical oceans
from where it draws the energy to develop.
 It has a low-pressure center and clouds spiraling towards the eye wall
surrounding the "eye," the central part of the system where the weather is
normally calm and free of clouds.
 Its diameter is typically around 200 to 500 km but can reach 1000 km. A tropical
cyclone brings violent winds, torrential rain, high waves and, in some cases, very
destructive storm surges and coastal flooding.
 The winds blow counter clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in
the Southern Hemisphere.
Classification Depending on the maximum sustained wind speed, tropical cyclones will be
designated as follows:
 A tropical depression is when the maximum sustained wind speed is less than
63 km/h.
 A tropical storm is when the maximum sustained wind speed is more than 63
km/h. It is then also given a name.
 Hurricane, typhoon, tropical cyclone, very severe cyclonic storm - depending on
the basin - when the maximum sustained wind speed exceeds 116 km/h or 63
knots.

Q.54) Why are the Major hot deserts in the northern hemisphere located between 20-30 degrees north and
on the western side of the continents?
1. The incidence of warm currents along the western coastal regions causes the onshore winds dry.
2. The relative humidity is extremely high, making condensation almost impossible.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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EXPLANATION:

The presence of cold ocean currents on the western side of the continents between 20-30 degrees north
is one of the main causes of the formation of hot deserts.
When there is a cold current along the western shore, the air moving from sea to land will be dry, which
decreases its water vapor-holding capacity. This results in a decrease in the relative humidity of the air.
This makes these areas unfavorable for precipitation. Hence deserts are formed along the western
coastal regions. So, Statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
Relative humidity (RH) measures how much water vapor is in a water-air mixture compared to the
maximum amount possible. Warm air can possess more water vapor (moisture) than cold air.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Other Reasons  Offshore trade winds
why major hot  Offshore trade winds in the region and location in the rain shadow zone -
deserts in the Trade winds that blow in the region shed their moisture on the eastern
northern part, and by the time they reach the western margin, they become dry.
hemisphere are  Anticyclone conditions
located between  Areas between 20–30 degree latitudes on the western margins of continents
20-30 degrees are the regions of descending air.
north and on the  It means the air gets compressed and warm as it descends, and thus, the
western side of moisture holding capacity keeps decreasing.
the continents  Leeward sides of mountains/Parallel mountain ranges
 In the case of a few deserts, mountains are situated as a barrier that
prevents orographic rainfall.
 For example, the Rockies' presence on the western coast of North America
does not let moisture-bearing winds rain on leeward sides.
 In the case of the Thar Desert in India, Aravallis are situated parallel to the
region. Therefore the moisture-holding winds pass away from the region
because mountain barriers are absent.

Q.55) Four balance sheet problems recently seen in the news include which among the following?
1. Infrastructure companies
2. Core sector industries
3. Banks
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4. Non-banking financial companies
5. Real estate companies
6. Foreign exchange
Choose the correct answer from the options below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3, 5 and 6
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
EXPLANATION:
Arvind Subramanian the former Chief Economic Advisor to the Government of India, in his paper titled
‘India's Great Slowdown,' mentions the new Four Balance sheet challenge, which includes
 Infrastructure companies,
 Banks,
 Non-Banking finance companies and
 Real estate companies.
So, Option (b) is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
BALANCE SHEET
About A Balance Sheet is a company's financial statement that includes assets, liabilities,
equity capital, total debt, etc., at a point in time. The balance sheet includes assets
on one side and liabilities on the other. Finally,(Assets = Liabilities + Equity)
Twin Balance  After the global financial crisis, the Twin Balance Sheet problem arose when the
Sheet world faced an economic slowdown. Whereas twin balance sheet is a scenario
where banks are under severe stress, and the corporates are overleveraged to
the extent that they cannot repay their loans.

Twin Balance
sheet

Infrastructure
Banks
Companies

 Arvind Subramanian discussed the twin balance sheet challenge in the

Economic Survey of 2016-17.
Four Balance  Arvind Subramanian and IMF's former India head Josh Felman discussed
Sheet India's current economic slowdown in his paper titled "India's Great
Slowdown: What happened? What's the way out?"
 Here he discussed because of Infrastructure Companies and Banks crisis,
the demand went tapered, debt servicing by the builders became difficult,
and the NBFC balance sheet started accumulating stress resulting in a four-
balance sheet problem.

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Four Balance
Sheet Problem

Infrastructure Real Estate

Banks NBFC
Companies Companies

The 6-point  Launch a new asset quality review to cover banks

Action plan and NBFCs (Recognition)
to resolve the  Make changes to the Insolvency and Bankruptcy
Four Balance Code, 2016 to better align incentives (Resolution)
Sheet problem  Create two executive-led public sector asset
restructuring companies (“bad banks”), one each for
the real estate and power sectors (Resolution)
 Strengthen oversight, especially of NBFCs
(Regulation)
 Link recapitalization to resolution (Recapitalization)
 Shrink public sector banking (Reform)

Q.56) With reference to Frontogenesis and Temperate cyclones, consider the following statements.
1. It happens in an anticlockwise direction in the northern and southern hemispheres in a clockwise
direction.
2. Mid-latitude cyclones or temperate cyclones occur due to cold fronts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
A front is formed when two contradicting conditions meet, so a cyclonic condition formed due to the
formation of the front cannot be associated only with a cold front. So, Statement 2 could be eliminated.

Temperate cyclones are formed between 35˚ to 65˚ north and south latitudes in the sub-polar frontal
zone, resulting from the interaction between cold polar mass and warm tropical air masses in the
westerly wind belt.
This cyclone type is more pronounced in the northern hemisphere due to greater temperature contrast
created by land-water distribution.
The formation of the temperate cyclone is predominantly controlled and dominated by the formation of
the fronts after coming into contact with two different air masses, warm and cold.
The cold air masses in the north and warm air masses in the south push against each other and rotate
anti-clockwise in the northern hemisphere and clockwise in the southern hemisphere. So, Statement
1 is correct.
Mid-latitude is an area of convergence of different air masses, and thus it leads to the formation of
fronts and cyclonic conditions are bound to happen.
The air masses involved in the formation of Temperate cyclones are of two types – warm and cold; two
types of fronts with distinct characteristics are formed in the process of marching forward and getting
interacted with each other.
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Later, the intermingling of the two gives birth to another known as – the occluded front. So, Statement
2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Temperate Cyclones
About  A temperate cyclone is referred to as mid-latitude depressions, extra-tropical
cyclones, frontal depressions and wave cyclones.
 Temperate cyclones are active above mid-latitudinal regions between 35o to
65o latitudes in both hemispheres.
 The direction of movement is blowing from west to east and is more
pronounced in the winter seasons. In these latitude zones, the polar and
tropical air masses meet and form fronts.
Areas where it  USA and Canada – extend over the Sierra Nevada, Colorado, Eastern
occurs Canadian Rockies and the Great Lakes region, the belt extending from Iceland
to the Barents Sea and continuing over Russia and Siberia, winter storms
over Baltic Sea, Mediterranean basin extending up to Russia and even up to
India in winters (called western disturbances) and the Antarctic frontal zone.

Direction of  Jet streams also influence the path of temperate cyclones

Movement  Since the temperate cyclones are developed in the mid-latitudes areas where
the westerlies are prominently blowing, the direction is generally from west to
east.
 Due to Coriolis effects, the direction is not straight from west to east but
follows the path from southwest to northeast in the northern hemisphere.
 In the southern hemisphere, it is from northwest to southeast direction.
Therefore, they move from mid-latitude areas to high-latitude areas.
 The direction of the tracks of this type of cyclone is governed by the surface
roughness and the characteristics of the areas from where they pass.
Characteristics  The Extra-Tropical Cyclones are storm systems emerging in the mid and high
latitudes, away from the tropics.
 They are low-pressure systems with associated cold, warm, and occluded
fronts.
 These cyclones are formed along the polar front.
 In the beginning, the front is stationary.
 Extra-tropical cyclones are also known as mid-latitude storms or baroclinic
storms.

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 In the Northern hemisphere, cold air blows from the north of the front and
warm air blows from the south.
 When the pressure descents along the front, the cold air move towards the
south, and the warm air moves northwards, setting in motion an
anticlockwise cyclonic circulation.
 The cyclonic circulation results in a well-built extratropical cyclone with a
cold and warm front.
 There are pockets of warm air compressed between the forward and the rear
cold air.
 The warm air climbs over the cold air, and a series of clouds appear over the
sky ahead of the warm front and cause rainfall.
 The cold front approaches the warm air from behind and pushes the warm
air up.
 As an outcome, cumulus clouds develop along the cold front.
 The cold front moves faster than the warm front, eventually surpassing the
warm front.
 The warm air is entirely lifted, the front is occluded, and the cyclone
dissipates.
 They can originate over the land and sea and cover a larger area.

Q.57) Consider the following statements with reference to the equatorial type of climate:
1. The annual range of temperature is high due to the direct incidence of sun rays in the equatorial
region.
2. Unlike temperate forests, tropical hardwoods are very strong which are widely used in boat-
making industries.
3. The equatorial region experiences peak rainfall during the months of April and October
4. The equatorial type of grassland found in Amazon lowlands is referred to as “selvas.”
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
The annual temperature range actually increases from the Equator to the Poles due to the decrease in
the inclination of the Sun’s rays. So, Statement 1 could be eliminated.

Equatorial Climatic regions experience fairly constant climates, with abundant rainfall, high humidity
and temperatures throughout the year. Because of these factors, the annual temperature range
(Difference between Maximum and Minimum temperature in a year) is minimum over the equator. The
difference is so small, around 2oF for an Equatorial Climate. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Tropical wood trees are too heavy to float in water, and the absence of snow does not favor Logging
conditions, which is why temperate woods are preferred over them for boat building. So, Statement 2
is not correct.
Though Precipitation is spread throughout the year, there are two periods of Maximum rainfall, which
are after the Equinoxes (April and October) and the least rainfall during the Solstices (June and
December). The double rainfall coinciding with equinoxes is characteristic of Equatorial Climate only.
So, Statement 3 is correct.

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Tropical Grasslands are known by different names around the world, which in Equatorial regions are
known as Selvas (Amazon Basin). So, Statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Characteristics of Equatorial Climate
Location  Equatorial hot, wet climate is found between 5 degrees - 10 degrees north & south
of the equator, mostly viz. the Amazon Basin (South America)
The Congo Basin (Africa), Malaysia, Indonesia and Singapore.
Climate  The most outstanding feature of the equatorial climate is its great uniformity of
temperature throughout the year with no winters.
 The average monthly temperatures are about 26 - 28 degrees Celsius, with a small
annual range of temperature ~ 3 degree Celsius & fairly greater diurnal range of
temperature ~ 12 degrees - 15 degrees Celsius.
 Cloudiness and heavy precipitation, ~ 150 - 250 cm of rainfall or more in a year,
help to moderate the temperature so that even at the equator, the climate is not
unbearable.
 There is no month without rain & a distinct dry season like that of savannah or
tropical monsoon climate is absent.
 Most of the rainfall is convectional, with thunderstorms & lightning often
accompanying the torrential showers.
 The convection uplift is related to the position of the ITCZ, and rainfall totals
double when the sun is directly overhead at the spring and autumn equinox, with
the least rain falling at June & December solstices.
 Besides the convectional rainfall, mountainous regions also experience much
orographic or relief rainfall.
 In addition, there are some intermittent showers from cyclonic atmospheric
disturbances caused by the convergence of air masses at Doldrums.
 The relative humidity is constantly high ~ over 80 %, making one feel sticky &
uncomfortable.

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Q.58) Due to climate change dam-like structure is a proposed solution to the problem of rising water levels
in the North Sea. Consider the following statements about the North Sea:
1. Because of the low rate of evaporation and the addition of fresh water, the North Sea has low
salinity.
2. The North Sea is linked with the Baltic Sea by the strait of the Skagerrak.
3. It is surrounded by Germany, Denmark, Belgium, Luxenberg, Netherland, and Norway.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
1. Even though the North sea has a low evaporation rate which is because of higher latitudes, and it is fed
by large river systems like the Thames, Rhine, and the Elbe, it shows higher salinity because of the
North Atlantic Drift Current, which is a wind-driven surface movement of warm water. It transports
warm waters to latitudes higher than any other ocean, producing the moderate climate of Europe and
western Scandinavia.
2. Salinity at the surface increases by the loss of water to ice or evaporation or decreased by the input of
fresh waters, such as from the rivers. Thus the North Sea shows higher salinity, not less salinity. So,
Statement 1 is not correct.
The North Sea is linked with the Baltic Sea by the Skagerrak and the Kattegat strait. So, Statement 2
is correct.

1. The sea is bordered by the island of Great Britain to the southwest and west,
the Orkney and Shetland islands to the northwest, Norway to the northeast, Denmark to the
east, Germany and the Netherlands to the southeast, and Belgium and France to the south. Whereas
it is not surrounded by Luxemburg. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

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Q.59) Recently Canada witnessed a heat dome where a sudden increase in the ambient temperature.
Consider the following statement related to the Heat dome:
1. A heat dome is an area of high pressure that traps heat over a region.
2. Heat dome is mostly formed during La Nina when waters are warm in the Eastern Pacific and
cold in the western Pacific.
3. Heat domes are stationary, and they last for a few days to a week or two
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
A heat dome occurs when a persistent high-pressure region traps heat over an area.
Typically, heat domes are tied to the behavior of the jet stream, a band of fast winds high in the
atmosphere that generally runs west to east.
Normally, the jet stream has a wavelike pattern, meandering north, then south, and then north
again. When these meanders in the jet stream become bigger, they move slower and can become
stationary. That’s when heat domes can occur.
So, Statement 1 is correct.

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When strong, high-pressure atmospheric conditions combine with influences from La Nina, it
creates vast areas of sweltering heat that get trapped under high pressure, leading to the formation
of Heat domes. But La Nina conditions are not because of warmer eastern pacific and colder western
pacific but rather the other way around (Warmer western pacific and colder Eastern Pacific). So,
Statement 2 is not correct.

Heat domes normally persist for several days in any one location, but they can last longer. They are
not stationary; they can also move, influencing neighboring areas over a week or two.
For example, A Heat dome that occurred in the USA in June 2022 crept eastward over time.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

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Q.60) Consider the following statements regarding the National Monsoon Mission.
1. The monsoon mission was launched by IMD to develop a state-of-the-art dynamical prediction
system for monsoon rainfall on different time scales.
2. The system is capable of delivering Single time scale predictions annually.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Government of India launched the 'National Monsoon Mission
(NMM) in 2012 with a vision to develop a state-of-the-art dynamical prediction system for monsoon
rainfall on different time scales. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The accurate prediction of monsoon rainfall is a basic need for the nation but remained a challenge
over the decades.
The long-range prediction of the seasonal mean monsoon rainfall depends on the dynamics of its year-
to-year variations over India on all time scales.
The development of a seamless prediction system using the national monsoon mission model is capable
of delivering on different time scales, like Seasonal (for the whole Monsoon season), Extended range
(up to 4 weeks), and Short range prediction (up to 5 days). So, Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
NATIONAL MONSOON MISSION
Aim To improve the forecasting skills by setting up a state-of-the-art dynamic prediction
system for monsoon rainfall at different time scales.
Ministry It was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences in 2012.
Objective  The models developed under the National Monsoon Mission (NMM) have shown
very high skill in predicting important weather events on different time scales
during the last 3years.
 To improve the monsoon prediction over India on all time scales, it is
implemented for the whole country, including all the States and UTs.
Targets Of  Development of a seamless prediction system using monsoon mission model, on
Monsoon different time scales, like Seasonal (for whole Monsoon season), Extended range
Mission (up to 4 weeks), and Short range prediction (up to 5 days).
 Initiate and coordinate the working partnership between Indian and foreign
institutes to develop a system for the prediction of extremes and climate
applications
 Develop and implement a system for climate applications having social impacts
(such as agriculture, flood forecast, extreme events forecast, wind energy, etc.)
 Advanced data assimilation system for preparing high-quality data for model
predictions.

Q.61) Which of the following conditions may cause cloud formation and precipitation?
1. Condensation Nuclei
2. Volcanism
3. Convectional current
4. Active cold front

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Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
Condensation Nuclei are the surface in the air on which water vapor condenses to form water droplets.
Millions of minute salt, dust and smoke particles are found floating in the air and act as condensation
nuclei which enable condensation to take place when the air gets saturated. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
Volcanism is the eruption of molten rock (magma) onto the earth's surface. A volcano is a vent through
which magma and gases are discharged. Magma that reaches the surface is called “lava.
Plumes (a cloud of something that rises and curves upwards in the air) of volcanic ash can spread over
large areas of the sky, turning daylight into complete darkness and drastically reducing visibility.
These enormous and menacing clouds are often accompanied by thunder and lightning. Thus, it plays
a role in cloud formation and precipitation. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Convection in the atmosphere is the way air floats upwards on account of being warmer than the
surrounding air. Convective clouds are clouds formed by convection, simply the process of warmer air
rising since it is less dense than the surrounding atmosphere. Cumulus and Cumulonimbus are
examples of this type of cloud. So, Statement 3 is correct.

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A cold front commonly brings a narrow band of precipitation that follows along the leading edge of the
cold front. These bands of precipitation are often very strong and can bring severe thunderstorms,
hailstorms, snow squalls, and tornadoes.
A front is termed 'active' if it is preceded by a warm air mass that is already unstable and being slowly
forced to rise by a jet stream. The instability and the jet stream promote the air's ascent and usually
trigger heavy rain and sometimes thunderstorms. So, Statement 4 is correct.

Q.62) Consider the following statement with respect to Isotherms:

1. Lines joining places having equal temperature are called isotherms.
2. Isotherms in both hemispheres are always parallel to the latitudes.
3. Isotherms are more closely spaced over sea than over land.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The distribution of temperature across the latitudes over the earth's surface is called its horizontal
distribution. On maps, the horizontal distribution of temperature is commonly shown by “Isotherms,”
lines connecting points that have equal temperatures. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Isotherms are generally parallel to the latitudes but not always parallel to the latitudes. They deviate
from the latitudes in January and July. In January (summer in the southern hemisphere and winter in
the northern hemisphere) in the northern hemisphere, the air is warmer over oceans than over landmass,
so the Isotherms bend towards poles when they cross the oceans. In the southern hemisphere, the
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position of the isotherms is just reversed. They bend towards the poles when they cross the landmasses
and towards the equator when they cross oceans.

In July (summer in the northern hemisphere and winter in the southern hemisphere) in the northern
hemisphere, isotherms bend equatorward while crossing oceans and pole wards while crossing
landmasses. In the Southern Hemisphere, the position of isotherms is just the opposite.

So, Statement 2 is not correct.

Isotherms are widely spaced when there is a small change in temperature over distance and closely
spaced when there is a large change in temperature over distance. As water absorbs and releases heat
slowly, there is a small change in temperature over distance around the oceans of the world than the
land, which absorbs and releases heat quickly. So, isotherms are widely spaced over oceans while they
are closely spaced over landmasses. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
ISOTHERMS
Characteristics  The latitudinal shifting of the highest temperature results from the migration
of the sun's vertical rays.
 The occurrence of the highest values in the low latitudes and the lowest value
in the high latitudes is due to the decreasing insolation from the equator to
the poles.
 In the northern hemisphere, the isotherms leaving the land usually bend
sharply towards the poles in winter and the equator in the summer.

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 This behavior of the isotherms is due to the differential heating and cooling
of landmasses. The continents are hotter in the summer and colder in the
winter than the oceans.

Q.63) With reference to the Thunderstorm, consider the following statements:

1. Thunderstorms are violent storms that occur for a short time and in a small area.
2. It occurs due to the intense convection on a moist hot day.
3. Thunderstorms are a manifestation of the atmosphere's adjustment to varying energy
distribution
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
For a thunderstorm to sustain, intense convection is necessary, and intense convection normally
takes place on a hot day. So, Statement 2 could not be eliminated.
Thunderstorms are severe violent local storms occurring over a small area in a short time and are
associated with thunder, lightning and very high rainfall or hail. A thunderstorm is a well-grown
cumulonimbus cloud producing thunder and lightning. So, Statement 1 is correct.
On a moist hot day, due to intense convection, warm air rises, which causes the clouds to grow bigger
and rise to a greater height. This causes precipitation. Later, downdraft brings down to earth the cool
air and the rain. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Thunderstorms are violent storms resulting from the manifestation of the atmosphere’s adjustments
to varying energy distribution along the heights of the clouds. The potential and heat energies are
converted into kinetic energy in these storms, and the restless atmosphere again returns to its stable
state. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
THUNDERSTORMS
Thunderstorms A thunderstorm is a violent short-lived weather disturbance that is almost
always associated with lightning, thunder, dense clouds, heavy rain or hail, and
strong gusty winds. Thunderstorms arise when layers of warm, moist air rise in
a large, swift updraft to cooler regions of the atmosphere.
Life Cycle of a
thunderstorm

Tornado From severe thunderstorms, sometimes spiraling wind descends like an

elephant's trunk with great force, with very low pressure at the center, causing
massive destruction on its way. Such a phenomenon is called a tornado.
Tornadoes generally occur in middle latitudes. The tornado over the sea is called
water spouts.

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Q.64) How many of the following lakes share an international boundary?
1. Lake Michigan
2. Sea of Galilee
3. Lake Titicaca
4. Lake Nyasa
5. Lake Chad
6. Lake Balkhash
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Three only
(b) Four only
(c) Five only
(d) Six only
EXPLANATION:
Lake Michigan is the third largest of the five Great Lakes of North America and the only one lying
wholly within the United States. So, it doesn’t share an international boundary.
The sea of Galilee is a lake in Israel through which the Jordan River flows. From 1948 to 1967, it
was bordered immediately to the northeast by the cease-fire line with Syria. So, it doesn’t share an
international boundary.
Lake Titicaca is the world’s highest lake navigable to large vessels above sea level in the Andes
Mountains of South America, astride the border between Peru to the west and Bolivia to the
east. So, it shares an international boundary between Peru and Bolivia.
Lake Nyasa, also called Lake Malawi, is the third largest of the Eastern Rift Valley lakes of East
Africa, which lies in a deep trough mainly within Malawi. But it also shares boundaries
with Tanzania and Mozambique.
Lake Chad is a freshwater lake located in the Sahelian zone of west-central Africa in conjunction
with Chad, Cameroon, Nigeria, and Niger.
Lake Balkhash is a lake situated in east-central Kazakhstan. The lake is situated east of the Aral
Sea. So, it doesn’t share an international boundary.
So, Option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
IMPORTANT LAKES
The Great Lake Superior, Lake Michigan, Lake Huron, Lake Erie, and Lake Ontario
Lakes

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Sea of Galilee

Lake Titicaca

Lake Nyasa

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Lake Chad

Lake Balkhash

Q.65) The Global Environment Outlook report is released by

(a) United NationsFood and Agriculture Organisation
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) Oxfam International
(d) United Nations Environment Assembly

EXPLANATION:
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) publishes the Global Environment Outlook
(GEO) report as its flagship environment assessment. So, option (d) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
REPORTS
United Nations  World State of Forest Report
Food And  The Global Report on Food Crises
Agriculture  The State of Food and Agriculture
Organisation

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World Economic  Global Gender Gap Report
Forum  Global Information Technology Report
 Human Capital Report
 The Global Risk Report
 Enabling Trade Report
 Global Energy Architecture Performance Index Report
 Global Environment Performance Index
 Inclusive Development Index
 World Power Language Index
 Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Report

Oxfam The Inequality Virus

International
united Nations  Actions on Air Quality
Environment  Global Environment Outlook
Assembly  The Rise of Environmental Crime(UNEP & INTERPOL)
 Emission Gap Report
 Frontiers
 Invest in Healthy Planet.
UNITED NATIONS ENVIRONMENT PROGRAM
About United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) was established in 1972 to guide
and coordinate environmental activities within the United Nations (UN) system.
Headquarter  UNEP is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
Aim  It sets the global environmental agenda and promotes the coherent
implementation of the environmental dimension of sustainable development
within the United Nations system.
 The organization also encourages participation by the private sector to
promote the sustainable use of the world’s natural resources.

Q.66) Recently longest river in Europe Danube, was in the news. In which of the following countries does
the river Danube flow?
1. Slovenia
2. Croatia
3. Serbia
4. Moldova
5. Bosnia and Herzegovina
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
EXPLANATION:
The Danube is the second-longest river in Europe, after the Volga. River Danube origins in the Black
Forest mountains of Germany and drains into the Black Sea. It flows through much of Central and
Southeast Europe and then passes through Croatia, Serbia, Bulgaria, Romania, Moldova, and
Ukraine. So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
DANUBE RIVER
About  The Danube is the second-longest river in Europe, after the river Volga.

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 It rises in the Black Forest Mountains of western Germany and flows for some
1,770 miles (2,850 km) to its mouth on the Black Sea.

 The Danube River Basin is Europe's second largest river basin, with an area of
801,463 km².
 The Danube River Basin flows through the territory of 19 countries, making it the
world’s most international river basin and rich with diverse marine life.
 The Danube River Basin can - based on its gradients - be divided into three sub-
regions:
 The upper basin,
 the middle basin, and
 The lower basin (including the Danube Delta).
 The Upper Basin extends from the source of the Danube in Germany to Bratislava
in Slovakia.
 The Middle Basin is the largest of the three sub-regions, extending from Bratislava
to the dams of the Iron Gate Gorge on the border between Serbia and Romania.
 The lowlands, plateaus and mountains of Romania and Bulgaria form the Lower
Basin of the River Danube.
 Finally, the river divides into three main branches, forming the Danube Delta,
which covers an area of about 6,750 km².

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Main The Danube River forms a confluence of two mountain rivers, the Breg and Brigach,
Tributaries of in the Black Forests of Germany near Donaueschingen. The main tributaries are
Danube  Sava River
 Tisa River
 Inn river (The Inn is the third largest of the Danube’s tributaries)

Q.67) What is/are the possible impact of the convergence of the Labrador current and gulf stream?
1. Chance of higher fish catch in this zone
2. Chances of the accident of the boats due to a reduction in the visibility
3. Replenishment of nutrient and oxygen
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
Labrador is a cold current, and Gulf Stream is a warm current; convergence of this could result in the
replenishment of nutrients due to upwelling, which could act as a food source for fish leading to an
increase in their population. So, Statements 1 and 3 could not be eliminated.

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The cold Labrador current and the warm Gulf Stream meet in the Grand Banks, an area with the
most productive fisheries in the world. This area is noted as an international fishing ground. This is
because of the mixing up of warm and cold currents, which replenish the oxygen and favor plankton
growth. These planktons are the primary food for the fish population. Hence the chance of fish caught
in this zone is high. So, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
The convergence of the warm Gulf Stream and cold Labrador Current near Newfoundland causes
inversion of temperature, which results in the formation of dense fog that affects visibility and hinders
sea transport. Due to this, there is a chance of boat accidents, so this area is known as the “Graveyard
of the Atlantic.” So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
OCEAN CURRENTS
Ocean Currents Ocean currents are like river flow in oceans. They represent a regular
volume of water in a definite path and direction. Two types of forces namely
influence ocean currents:
 Primary forces that initiate the movement of water;
 Secondary forces influence the currents to flow.
Types of Ocean Based on depth
Currents  Surface currents
 Deep water currents
Based on temperature
 Cold Currents
 Warm Currents

Major Ocean Currents

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Q.68) Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The tropical marine climate is predominantly found along the eastern coast of continents which
lie south of the Tropic of Cancer.
2. According to the erstwhile planning commission, India consists of 10 agro-climatic zones.
3. Teak is extensively grown in the regions of monsoon type of climates.
Select the correct code from below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The tropical marine climate is experienced along the eastern margins of tropical lands that are primarily
influenced by the ocean. It is usually experienced by islands and coastal areas 10° to 20° north and
south of the equator in both hemispheres.
There are two main seasons in a tropical marine climate:
 The wet season and
 The dry season.
The annual rainfall is 1000 to over 1500 mm (39 to 59 inches). These climatic conditions are found,
for example, across the Caribbean, the eastern coasts of Brazil, Madagascar, and Queensland, and
many islands in tropical waters. So, Statement 1 is correct.

The Planning Commission, as a result of the mid-term appraisal of the planning targets of the Seventh
Plan, has divided the country into fifteen broad agro-climatic zones based on physiography, soils,
geological formation, Climate, cropping patterns, and development of irrigation and mineral resources
for broad agricultural planning and developing future strategies. These are further divided into more
homogeneous 72 sub-zones. Fourteen regions were on the mainland, and the remaining ones were in
the islands of the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Teak grows well in alluvial soils in a fairly moist, warm, tropical climate with pH ranging from 6.5 to
7.5. It is the most dominant species of the Tropical deciduous forest because, during the summer
months, heavy rains are brought by the southwest monsoon, which helps the fresh foliage to come out.
Hence it is widely grown in the regions of monsoon type of climates such as Burma, India, etc. So,
Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
AGRO-CLIMATIC ZONES
About  An “Agro-climatic zone” is a land unit in terms of major climates suitable for a
certain range of crops and cultivars.
 The planning aims at scientific management of regional resources to meet the
food, fiber, fodder, and fuel wood without adversely affecting the status of
natural resources and the environment.

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By Planning  The main objective was to integrate plans of the agro-climatic regions with the
Commission state and national plans to enable policy development based on techno-agro-
climatic considerations. In agro-climatic regional planning, further sub-
regionalization was possible based on agro-ecological parameters.

By National  ICAR launched National Agricultural Research Project (NARP) to initiate

Agricultural agricultural research in the agro-climatic zones of the country.
Research  The objective was to set up or upgrade a zonal research station in each agro-
Project climatic zone to generate location-specific, need-based research for specific
agroecological situations.
 The focus was on analyzing agro-ecological conditions and cropping patterns
and coming out with a program directly targeted to solve the major bottlenecks
of agricultural growth in a zone based on natural resources, major crops,
farming systems, production constraints, and socio-economic conditions
prevalent in that zone. Stress was on technology generation.
 In NARP, the country was divided into 127 agro-climatic zones.
By National  The National Bureau of Soil Survey & Land Use Planning (NBSS&LUP) developed
Bureau Of Soil twenty agroecological zones based on the growing period as integrated criteria of
Survey And effective rainfall and soil groups. It delineated boundaries adjusted to district
Land Use boundaries with a minimal number of regions.
Planning  Subsequently, these twenty agro-ecological zones were sub-divided into 60 sub-
zones.

Q.69) Consider the following statements with reference to Blizzards:

1. A blizzard is a severe storm condition with low temperature, strong winds and snow.
2. Blizzards can occur in tropical region.
3. Blizzard can cause hyperthermia by exposure to frigid temperatures.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
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(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
Hyperthermia is related to increased body temperature; blizzards are related to snow. So, Statement
3 could be eliminated.
The term blizzard describes a severe winter weather condition (violent snowstorm) characterized by
strong winds, cold (low) temperatures, and reduced visibility due to falling or blowing snow lasting for
a prolonged period—typically at least three or four hours. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Blizzards occur when a mass of warmer air collides with a mass of very cold air. The cold air mass
sinks under the warm air mass, and as the warm moist air rises upwards it forms snow and it falls.
Blizzards occur worldwide, even in the tropics where it is cold on high-altitude mountain tops.
In tropical region, Cold air is present in the higher altitude where cold air and warm air meets, resulting
in the formation of Blizzards.
Ex. A blizzard and avalanches in Nepal's Himalaya Mountains have killed hikers, guides, and herders
in a popular trekking region on October 15, 2014.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
Many times, cold temperatures due to blizzards can cause frostbite or hypothermia, a drop in body
temperature that can last for days after the storm has ended. In contrast, Hyperthermia, also known
simply as overheating, is a condition in which an individual's body temperature is elevated beyond
normal due to failed thermoregulation. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
BLIZZARDS
About  Blizzards are a dangerous type of winter storm characterized by strong winds,
snow, and reduced visibility.
 The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) defines blizzard
conditions as winds over 56 kilometers per hour (35 miles per hour) with either
falling or blowing snow that reduces visibility to 0.4 kilometers (0.25 miles) or
less for at least three hours.
 Blizzards form when snow falls in windy conditions or when snow is lifted from
the ground by strong winds.
 Some blizzards can cause whiteout conditions where it is impossible to tell the
sky from the ground.

Conditions  There is sustained wind or frequent gusts of 35 miles per hour or greater.
 There is falling and blowing snow, frequently reducing visibility to less than
one-quarter of a mile.
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 The conditions must persist for a minimum of three hours.

Q.70) Recently, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs has sanctioned ₹2.26 Crores for Medaram Jathara. Consider
the following statements regarding the cultural festival, Medaram Jatraith:
1. Medaram Jathara is the second-largest festival in India, after the Kumbh Mela.
2. Medaram Jathara is biennially celebrated and organized by the Chenchu Tribes in the state of
Telangana.
3. Jampannavagu river is worshiped as one of the parts of rituals.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Sammakka-Saralamma Jatara or Medaram Jathara is a major tribal festival in Telangana that
marks the fight of the mother-daughter duo Sammakka and Saralamma against the powerful
Kakatiya rulers over an unfair law, and it is the second largest fair of India after Kumbh Mela. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
Medaram Jatara is celebrated and organized by the second-largest Tribal community of Telangana –
the Koya Tribe, for four days which is celebrated once in two years(Biennial) in the month of Magha
(February) on the full moon day. Koya Tribe celebrates it, not Chenchu Tribe. So, Statement 2 is
not correct.
Jampanna Vagu is a Tribal Warrior and the son of Tribal goddess Sammakka, and he died in the
battle fighting against Kakatiyan Army in that stream. The river got its name because of Jampanna,
a tributary of the river Godavari. Devotees believe that taking a holy dip in the red water of Jampanna
Vagu reminds them of the sacrifice of their gods who saved them and induced courage into their
souls. So, Statement 3 is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
KOYA TRIBE
About Koya is the second-largest Tribal community of Telangana and is seen across
Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Chhattisgarh.

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Habitat And  Traditionally, the Koyas are pastoralists and shifting cultivators, but
Livelihood nowadays, they have taken to settled cultivation supplemented by animal
husbandry and seasonal forest collections.
 They maintain community funds and grain banks at the village level to help
needy families and provide food security.
 They erect Menhirs in memory of the dead.
Language  The Koyas are a branch of the Gondi-Speaking people. Their language is also
called Koyi, which Telugu strongly influences, Hindi and Odia The Koya is
among the few multi-racial and multi-lingual tribal communities in India.
Dance  Kommu Koya is a well-known tribal move, and this dance form is a unique
way of celebrating and festivity marking their lifestyle in the forest areas.
 Bovine horns are decorated skillfully on the head by men who wear
traditional clothing that incorporates red and green hues along with white
and yellow colors.
 Women fix hen feathers alongside a fabric on their heads. Men fix peacock
feathers on their heads. The men in brilliant red garments with bull-horn
head gears playing percussion instruments are the highlight of this tribal
dance form.

Q.71) Consider the following statements:

1. A Cloud burst is a short-duration, intense rainfall event in a specific region with precipitation
exceeding 100mm/hr.
2. The state of global climate report by WMO highlights the global mean temperature for 2021 was
about 1.5°C above the 1850-1900 average.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The India Meteorological Department (IMD) defines a Cloud burst as unexpected precipitation exceeding
100mm (or 10 cm) per hour over a geographical region of approximately 20 to 30 square km. It can
cause widespread destruction, and heavy rainfall, especially in hilly regions where this phenomenon is
the most common. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The State of global climate report by the World Meteorological Organization highlighted that the global
mean temperature for 2021 (based on data from January to September) was approximately 1.5°C
(1.09°C) above the 1850-1900 average. Currently, the six datasets used by WMO in the analysis place
2021 as the sixth or seventh warmest year on record globally. But the ranking may change at the end
of the year. So, Statement 2 is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
CLOUDBURSTS
About  A cloudburst is a localized but intense rainfall activity. Short spells of heavy rainfall
over a small geographical area can cause widespread destruction, especially in hilly
regions where this phenomenon is the most common.
 Not all instances of very heavy rainfall, however, are cloudbursts.
 A cloudburst has a very specific definition: Rainfall of 10 cm or more in an hour over
a roughly 10 km x 10-km area is classified as a cloudburst event.
 By this definition, 5 cm of rainfall in a half-hour period over the same area would
also be categorized as a cloudburst.
Mechanism  Cloudburst occurs when moisture-rich air travels up a mountainous region, forming
a vertical column of clouds known as Cumulonimbus clouds. These clouds usually
cause rain, thunder, and lightning. This upward movement of clouds is also known
as ‘orographic lift.’ Due to these unstable clouds, heavy rainfall may occur over a
small area.
 The upward movement of clouds provides the required energy for a cloudburst. It
usually happens at 1,000-2,500 meters above sea level. The moisture is usually
provided by low-level eastern winds associated with a low-pressure system over the
Gangetic plains.

Forecast  The India Meteorological Department forecasts rainfall events well in advance, but it
does not predict the quantum of rainfall; no meteorological agency does.
 The forecasts can be about light, heavy, or very heavy rainfall, but weather scientists
cannot predict exactly how much rain is likely to fall at any given place.

Q.72) Which of the following can be considered to be the direct sources of information regarding the interior
of the Earth?
1. Volcanic eruptions
2. Meteors
3. Mining and deep drilling projects
4. Seismic activities
5. Earth’s magnetic field
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2,3 and 5 only
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(c) 1,3,4 and 5 only
(d) 1,2 and 4 only

EXPLANATION:
The direct sources of information regarding the interior of the earth are,
 Volcanic eruptions
 Mining and deep drilling projects
The indirect sources of information about the interior of the earth are,
 Gravitation
 Magnetic field
 Seismic activity
 Meteors
So, Option (a) is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SOURCES OF INFORMATION FOR EARTH’S INTERIOR
Direct  The most easily available solid earth material is surface rock or the rocks we get
sources from mining areas. Gold mines in South Africa are as deep as 3 - 4 km. going
beyond this depth is not possible as it is very hot at this depth. Besides mining,
scientists have taken up several projects to penetrate deeper depths to explore the
conditions in the crustal portions. Scientists worldwide are working on two major
projects, “The deep Ocean Drilling Project” and “Integrated Ocean Drilling Project.”
This and many deep drilling projects have provided a large volume of information
through analyzing materials collected at different depths.
 Volcanic eruption forms another source of obtaining direct information. When the
molten material (magma) is thrown onto the earth's surface during a volcanic
eruption, it becomes available for laboratory analysis. However, it isn't easy to
ascertain the depth of the source of such magma
Indirect  Meteors - The material and the structure observed in the meteors are similar to the
sources earth. They are solid bodies developed out of materials the same as, or similar to,
our planet. Hence, this becomes yet another source of information about the
interior of the earth
 The other indirect sources include gravitation, magnetic field, and seismic activity.
 The gravitation force (g) is not the same at different latitudes on the surface. It is
greater near the poles and less at the equator. This is because the distance from
the center at the equator is greater than that at the poles. The gravity values also
differ according to the mass of the material. The uneven distribution of mass of
material within the earth influences this value. The reading of gravity at different
places is influenced by many other factors. These readings differ from the expected
values. Such a difference is called a gravity anomaly. Gravity anomalies give us
information about the mass distribution of the material in the earth's crust.
 Magnetic surveys also provide information about the distribution of magnetic
materials in the crustal portion and, thus, information about the distribution of the
material in this part.
 Seismic activity is one of the most important sources of information about the
interior of the earth.

Q.73) Consider the following statements.

1. Tropical evergreen forests are rich in fertile soils, which helps in the luxurious growth of tropical
rainforests.
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2. Most of the designated world heritage sites are situated along the equatorial region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) All the above
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION:
Evergreen Forest is often called the lungs of the planet for their role in absorbing carbon dioxide, a
greenhouse gas, and increasing local humidity. Rainforests also stabilize the climate, house
incredible amounts of plants and wildlife, and produce nourishing rainfall all around the planet.
Even though the Tropical rain forest has luxuriant vegetation of all kinds, the soil in this forest is
very poor. The reasons are,
 The soil is highly acidic. When the soil is acidic, there is little difference and, therefore, little
absorption of nutrients from the soil.
 The type of clay particles present in tropical rainforest soil has a poor ability to trap nutrients
and stop them from washing away. Even if humans artificially add nutrients to the soil, the
nutrients mostly wash away and are not absorbed by the plants.
 The high temperature and moisture of tropical rainforests cause dead organic matter in the soil
to decompose more quickly than in other climates, thus releasing and losing its nutrients
rapidly.
 The high volume of rain in tropical rainforests washes nutrients out of the soil more quickly than
in other climates.
So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Most of the designated world heritage sites are situated above the Tropic of Cancer, where countries
Italy and China are home to the largest number of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in the world. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
TROPICAL EVERGREEN FORESTS
About  In India, these forests are restricted to heavy rainfall areas of the Western
Ghats and the island groups of Lakshadweep, Andaman, and Nicobar, upper
parts of Assam, and Tamil Nadu coast.

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Precipitation  They are at their best in areas having more than 200 cm of rainfall with a
short dry season
Vegetation  The trees reach great heights up to 60 meters or even above. Since the region
is warm and wet throughout the year, it has luxuriant vegetation of all kinds
— trees, shrubs, and creepers, giving it a multilayered structure.
 There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves. As such, these forests
appear green all year round.
Species  Some of the commercially important trees of this forest are ebony, mahogany,
rosewood, rubber, and cinchona.
 The common animals found in these forests are elephants, monkeys, lemurs,
and deer. One-horned rhinoceroses are found in the jungles of Assam and
West Bengal.
 Besides these animals, plenty of birds, bats, sloths, scorpions, and snails are
also found in these jungles.

Q.74) Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to earthquake waves?
1. Body waves travel through the interior of the Earth and can move in all directions.
2. The velocity of surface waves remains unchanged as they travel through materials of different
densities.
3. P-waves are longitudinal waves and can travel only through solid materials.
4. Surface waves are more destructive than body waves.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:

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Earthquake waves are basically of two types, one of which is body waves that are generated due to the
release of energy at the focus and move in all directions traveling through the body of the earth. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
The body waves interact with the surface rocks and generate a new set of waves called surface waves.
The velocity of these waves changes as they travel through materials with different densities. The denser
the material, the higher the velocity. Their direction also changes as they reflect or refract when coming
across materials with different densities. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Body waves are of two types – P and S-waves. P-waves are primary waves, which move faster and are
the first to arrive at the surface. They are similar to sound waves in that they are also longitudinal
waves. They travel through all three materials – gaseous, liquid, and solid. S-waves are secondary waves
that travel only through solid materials. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
S-waves arrive at the surface with a time lag than P-waves. S-waves are more destructive than body
waves as they cause the displacement of rocks, and hence, the collapse of structures occurs. So,
Statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
EARTHQUAKES
Earthquake An earthquake is a motion of the ground surface, ranging from a faint tremor to a
wild motion capable of shaking a building apart. An earthquake is a form of energy
of wave motion transmitted through the surface layer of the earth.
Focus and The point within the earth’s crust where an earthquake originates is called the
Epicenter focus. The point vertically above the focus on the earth’s surface is known as the
‘epicenter.’

Causes of  Folding, faulting, and displacement of rock strata are the main causes of
Earthquake earthquakes.
 The second important cause is violent volcanic eruptions that put even solid
rocks under great stress. It causes vibrations in the earth’s crust.
 Minor earthquakes often accompany or result from landslides and water
seepage, causing the collapse of the rocks of a cavern or underground mines
and tunnels.
Distribution of Most of the world's earthquakes occur in two belts, namely the Circum Pacific and
Earthquakes Mid-world mountain belts.

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Q.75) Which of the following best describes the term ‘Blue Blob’ recently seen in the news?
(a) It is the new technology for harnessing electricity from ocean water.
(b) It is an area with the highest species density declared by the IUCN in ocean water.
(c) It is a patch of cold patch formed in the Polar regions.
(d) It is one of the conservation efforts by UNEP to save the ocean water ecosystem.
EXPLANATION:
The Blue Blob is a cold patch located south of Iceland and Greenland, a Polar region. This cold patch
was most prominent during the winter of 2014-2015 when the sea surface temperature was about 1.4
degrees Celsius colder than usual. So, Option (c) is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
BLUE BLOB
Recently In According to new research, the "Blue blob," a region of cooling water in the North
News Atlantic Ocean near Iceland, may have temporarily slowed the melting of Arctic sea ice.
The report also indicated that if temperatures are not controlled, the effects of climate
change will catch up to the giant ice chunks.
Melting Of Between 1995 and 2010, the Arctic region was reportedly warming four times faster
Arctic Sea than the global average, and Iceland’s glaciers steadily shrank, losing an average of 11
Ice billion tons of ice annually.
However, Blue Blob helps temporarily stall the melting of Arctic sea ice. In contrast,
starting in 2011, the speed of Iceland’s melting slowed down, resulting in about half
as much ice loss, or about five billion tons annually.
Atlantic Atlantic Warming Hole is a long-term cooling trend in the arctic region with reduced
Warming sea surface temperatures by about 0.4 to 0.8 degrees Celsius, which is achieved by the
Hole Climate change which has slowed the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation
(AMOC), an ocean current that brings warm water up from the tropics to the Arctic,
thus reducing the amount of heat delivered to the arctic region which also helps in a
temporary stall in the melting of Arctic sea ice.

Q.76) With respect to the interior of the Earth, consider the following statements.
1. The continental crust is mainly granitic in nature and is denser than the Oceanic crust
2. The asthenosphere is the lowermost portion of the mantle and is the main source of magma
3. The outer core is in a liquid state, while the inner core is in a solid state.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
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(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
Continental crust is broadly granitic in composition and, with a density of about 2.7 grams per cubic
cm, is somewhat lighter than oceanic crust, which is basaltic (i.e., richer in iron and magnesium than
granite) in composition and has a density of about 2.9 to 3 grams per cubic cm. So, Statement 1 is
not correct.
The portion of the interior beyond the crust is called the mantle. The upper portion of the mantle is
called the asthenosphere. It is the main source of magma that finds its way to the surface during
volcanic eruptions. The lower mantle extends beyond the asthenosphere. It is in a solid state. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.
The core comprises very heavy materials, mostly nickel and iron. The outer core is in a liquid state,
while the inner core is in a solid state because of intense pressure in the inner core that prevents the
iron from melting. The pressure and density in this inner core are simply too great for the iron atoms
to move into a liquid state. So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
EARTH’S INTERIOR
Structure  The Core, mantle, and crust are the three main concentric layers of the earth’s
interior. 
 The core is the innermost layer and has the highest density. It is made up
mainly of nickel and iron. 
 The mantle is the layer lying between the core and lithosphere. Its major
constituents are silicon and magnesium. 
 The crust is the earth's outermost layer and is mainly composed of silicon and
aluminum.

Temperature  A rise in temperature with an increase in depth is observed in mines and deep
wells. But the rate of increase in temperature is not uniform from the surface
to the earth’s center.

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Pressure  The pressure also increases from the surface towards the center of the earth
due to the huge weight of the overlying rocks. Therefore in deeper portions, the
pressure is tremendously high.
Density  Due to the increase in pressure and the presence of heavier materials towards
the earth’s centers, the density of the earth’s layers also goes on increasing. The
materials of the innermost part of the earth are very dense.

Q.77) Recently Lassa fever outbreak happened in parts of West Africa, including Sierra Leone, Liberia,
Guinea, and Nigeria. Consider the following statement about Lassa fever.
1. It is one of the viral diseases named after its origin in Nigeria.
2. It is spread by the fruit-eating bat.
3. It causes difficulty in breathing and facial swelling with a high death rate.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The World Health Organisation defines Lassa Fever as an animal-borne acute viral hemorrhagic
fever caused by Multimammate rats. It was first discovered in 1969 in Nigeria and derived its name
from the village called Lassa, where it was first documented.
Lassa fever is endemic in Benin, Ghana, Guinea, Liberia, Mali, Sierra Leone, Togo and Nigeria but
probably exists in other West African countries. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Humans usually become infected with the Lassa virus through exposure to food or household items
contaminated with urine or feces of infected Mastomys Rats, and fruit-eating bat does not spread
it. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
In severe cases, it causes difficulty breathing and facial swelling, but the death rate of Lassa fever
is low at nearly 1 percent. However, the death rate could be higher in some instances (such as
during pregnancy). According to European Center for Disease Prevention and Control, 15% of
hospitalized patients may die. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
LASSA FEVER
Recently In
Lassa fever, for the first time in a decade reported in the United Kingdom. One
News
death was confirmed out of the three confirmed cases of the viral Lassa fever.

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Symptoms  Deafness is a prominent symptom associated with Lassa fever. Around 25%
of recovered patients exhibit deafness of varied levels, and hearing is
partially restored in half the cases.
Treatment  Clinical diagnosis of Lassa fever is challenging because of the similarity in
symptoms with other diseases like Ebola, malaria, and typhoid fever.
 ELISA and RT-PCR were used to detect infection by the Lassa virus.
 Antiviral drug ribavirin is often used to treat Lassa fever, although the
usage is not a licensed treatment
Prevention  The best way to prevent contracting the Lassa virus is to keep foods safe
from rats in areas where the disease is prevalent.
Status In India  In India, the International Health Division under the Ministry of Health and
Family Welfare lists Lassa fever as a disease of international significance.
The country has not reported any cases of the disease so far.

Q.78) Which of the following statements with regard to the ozone layer is not correct?
(a) Generally, concentration levels of 220 Dobson Units or less are considered ozone depletion in the
Stratosphere.
(b) Total ozone is generally highest at the equator and lowest in polar regions
(c) The Montreal Protocol is a global agreement to protect the stratospheric ozone layer by phasing out
ozone-depleting substances.
(d) Ozone is a bluish gas with a boiling point of -112 degrees Celsius.

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EXPLANATION:
The Dobson Unit is the most common unit for measuring ozone concentration. One Dobson Unit is
the value determined by measuring the concentration of ozone molecules in a column of air that
extends from the Earth’s surface to the top of the atmosphere. The average amount of ozone in the
atmosphere is roughly 300 Dobson Units, equivalent to a layer 3 millimeters thick. Areas with values
less than 220 Dobson Units are considered to have experienced severe ozone destruction. So,
Option (a) is correct.

The total amount of ozone above the surface of Earth varies with location on the time scales that
range from daily to seasonal. The variations are caused by stratospheric winds, chemical
production, and ozone destruction. Total ozone is generally lowest at the equator and highest near
the poles because of the seasonal wind patterns in the stratosphere. So, Option (b) is not correct.
The Montreal Protocol, finalized in 1987, is a global agreement to protect the stratospheric ozone
layer by phasing out the production and consumption of nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred
to as ozone-depleting substances (ODS). The Protocol is the only UN treaty ever that has been
ratified by every country on Earth - all 198 UN Member States. So, Option (c) is correct.
Ozone is an elemental molecule with the formula O₃ that is in a gaseous state with blue color. At
atmospheric pressure, it has a boiling point of -112°C; ozone can partially dissolve in water. At
standard pressure and temperature, the solubility of ozone is thirteen times that of oxygen. So,
Option (d) is correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
OZONE LAYER
Depletion
Depletion of stratospheric ozone occurs over both hemispheres of the Earth.
However, this phenomenon is significantly less severe in the northern
hemisphere (Arctic) than in the southern hemisphere (Antarctica).
Reason behind Year-to-year, meteorological variability is larger over the Arctic than over the
Depletion Antarctic. Furthermore, temperatures in the stratosphere do not remain low
for a long time in the Arctic, as in the case in the Antarctic.

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Ozone Hole Generally, concentration levels of 220 Dobson Units or less are considered to
show severe ozone depletion and constitute the so-called ozone hole. This is
only apparent in the southern hemisphere
Montreal The ozone hole has shown signs of healing since 2000, which is predominantly
Protocol attributable to phasing out ozone-depleting substances under the Montreal
Protocol.

Q.79) Consider the following statements.

1. Weathering is a precondition for mass movements like landslides.
2. Geomorphic agents do not cause mass movements.
3. Mass movements like mudflow and rockfall down the slope are due to the influence of gravity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) None of the above
EXPLANATION:
Weathering is the mechanical disintegration and chemical decomposition of rocks through the
actions of various elements of weather and climate. Weathering is not a pre-requisite for mass
movements like landslides though it aids mass movements. Mass movements are very active over
weathered slopes rather than over unweather materials. So, Statement 1 is not correct.
Mass movements are aided by gravity, and no geomorphic agent like running water, glaciers, wind,
waves and currents participate in the process of mass movements. That means mass movements
do not come under erosion though there is a shift (aided by gravity) of materials from one place to
another. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Mass movements transfer the mass of rock debris down the slopes under the direct influence of
gravity. Mass movements may range from slow to rapid, affecting shallow to deep columns of
materials and include creep, mudflow, earthflow, rockslide, landslide, and fall. So, Statement 3 is
correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
MASS MOVEMENTS
About Mass movements transfer the mass of rock debris down the slopes under the
direct influence of gravity.
Activating These activating causes precede mass movements
Causes  Removal of support from below to materials above through natural or
artificial means;
 Increase in gradient and height of slopes;
 Overloading through the addition of materials naturally or by artificial
filling;
 Overloading due to heavy rainfall, saturation, and lubrication of slope
materials;
 Removal of material or load from over the original slope surfaces;
 Occurrence of earthquakes, explosions, or machinery;
 Excessive natural seepage;
 Heavy drawdown of water from lakes, reservoirs, and rivers leads to slow
outflow of water from under the slopes or river banks;
 Indiscriminate removal of natural vegetation.

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Types of Mass
Movements

Q.80) Recently, India’s first Graphene Innovation Center is to be established in Thrissur, Kerala. Consider
the following about Graphene:
1. It is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
2. It is a three-dimensional structure with just 0.3nm in thickness.
3. It can be used in Transport, medicine, electronics, energy, defense, desalination etc.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Graphene was discovered in 2004 by Andre Geim and Konstantin Novoselov, who received the Nobel
Prize in Physics in 2010. By definition, it is a covalently-bonded hexagonal lattice of carbon atoms. It
is the thinnest object ever created, the best conductor of heat at room temperature and electricity ever
known, and is 100-300 times stronger than stainless steel. So, Statement 1 is correct.
Graphene was the world's first 2D material in 2004, and according to a new study from the Queen
Mary University of London, Graphene is both a 3D and 2D material. It is just 0.3nm thick and can
support the weight of a football. So, Statement 2 is correct.

The potential of graphene is limited only by our imagination.

Graphene's extraordinary properties offer a fascinating material platform for developing next-
generation technologies in different areas, namely wearable and superfast electronics, ultrasensitive
sensors, multifunctional composites and coatings, membranes, medicine and biotechnology, energy
harvesting and storage, defense, desalination etc.
So, Statement 3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
INDIA’S FIRST GRAPHENE INNOVATION CENTER

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About In a joint venture, the Digital University of Kerala, Centre for Materials for Electronics
Technology (C-MET), Government of Kerala, and Tata Steel Limited announced the
country’s first Graphene Innovation Centre in Thrissur, Kerala.
Properties  High thermal conductivity
 High electrical conductivity
 High elasticity and flexibility
 High hardness
 High resistance. Graphene is approximately 200 times stronger than steel, similar to
diamond resistance, but much lighter.
 Ionizing radiation is not affected
 Able to generate electricity by exposure to sunlight
 Transparent material
 Low electricity consumption compared to other compounds

Q.81) Which among the following is an Endogenic process?

1. Denudation
2. Volcanic activity
3. Folding of crust
4. Deposition
5. Faults formation
Select the correct code from below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1,2 and 4 only
(c) 2,3,4 and 5only
(d) 2, 3 and 5 only
EXPLANATION:
The forces that act on the surface of the earth are called exogenic forces, and the forces that act in
the interior of the earth are called endogenic forces. The landforms of the earth are a result of the
endogenic and exogenic forces. The process of Endogenic process includes,
 Volcanism
 Diastrophism includes the following,
 Orogenic processes involve mountain building through severe folding, affecting long and narrow
belts of the earth’s crust and faulting and fracturing the crust.
 Epeirogenic processes involve the uplift or warping of large parts of the earth’s crust
 Earthquakes involving local relatively minor movements
 Plate tectonics involves horizontal movements of crustal plates.
The exogenic processes derive their energy from the atmosphere determined by the ultimate energy
from the sun and also the gradients created by tectonic factors. All the exogenic geomorphic
processes are covered under the general term denudation. The word ‘denude’ means to strip off or
to uncover. Weathering, mass wasting/movements, erosion, transportation, and deposition are
included in denudation. Thus denudation and deposition are Exogenic forces and not Endogenic
forces So, Option (d) is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
GEOMORPHIC PROCESSES
Endogenic  The energy emanating from within the earth is the main force behind endogenic
geomorphic processes.
 This energy is mostly generated by radioactivity, rotational and tidal friction, and
primordial heat from the origin of the earth.
 This energy, due to geothermal gradients and heat flow from within, induces
diastrophism and volcanism in the lithosphere.
 Due to variations in geothermal gradients and heat flow from within, crustal
thickness, and strength, the action of endogenic forces is not uniform. Hence, the
tectonically controlled original crustal surface is uneven.
Exogenic  The actions of exogenic forces result in wearing down (degradation) of
relief/elevations and filling up (aggradation) of basins/ depressions on the earth’s
surface.
 The phenomenon of wearing down relief variations of the surface of the earth
through erosion is known as gradation.
 Gravitational force acts upon all earth materials with a sloping surface and tends to
move matter in a downslope direction.
 Force applied per unit area is called stress. Stress is produced in a solid by pushing
or pulling. This induces deformation.
 Forces acting along the faces of earth materials are shear stresses (separating
forces).
 It is this stress that breaks rocks and other earth materials.
 The shear stresses result in angular displacement or slippage.
 Besides the gravitational stress, earth materials become subjected to molecular
stresses that may be caused by several factors, amongst which temperature
changes, crystallization, and melting are the most common. Chemical processes
normally lead to the loosening of bonds between grains and the dissolving of soluble
minerals or cementing materials.
 Thus, the basic reason that leads to weathering, mass movements, and erosion is
the development of stresses in the body of the earth's materials.

Q.82) Consider the following statements.

1. Aravalli is one of the oldest fold mountains in the world.
2. Unlike the Himalayas, the Rocky Mountains are formed by ocean-continent convergence.
3. Mt.Blanc is the highest peak in the Andes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Fold mountains are created where two or more of Earth’s tectonic plates are pushed together. At these
colliding, compressing boundaries, rocks and debris are warped and folded into rocky outcrops, hills,
mountains, and entire mountain ranges. The Aravallis is one of the world’s oldest fold mountain chains,
and its ecological worth is immense. The 692-km Aravali range spans parts of Delhi, Haryana,
Rajasthan, and Gujarat. The highest peak is Guru Shikar on Mount Abu at 1,722 meters (5,650 ft).
The other old fold mountains are the Appalachians in North America and the Ural Mountains in Russia.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
Typically, a convergent plate boundary which is a continental to continental one, between the
Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate, forms towering mountain ranges, like the Himalayas, as Earth’s
crust is crumpled and pushed upward. Whereas the Rocky Mountains are also formed by the
convergent plate boundary but by the process of ocean-continent convergence through the Pacific and
North American plates. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Aconcagua is the highest peak in the Andes Mountain range, Argentina. It is the highest mountain in
the Americas, the highest outside Asia, and the highest in the Southern Hemisphere, with a summit
elevation of 6,961 meters (22,838 ft). Whereas Mount Blanc is the highest peak of the Alps and in
Europe, reaching a lofty 4,804 meters (15,774 ft) above sea level. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
MOUNTAINS
Aravalli  The Aravali Hills lie on the western and north-western margins of the peninsular
plateau.
 These are highly eroded hills and are found as broken hills.
 They extend from Gujarat to Delhi in a southwest-northeast direction.

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Himalayas  The Himalayas, geologically young and structurally fold mountains, stretch over
the northern borders of India.
 These mountain ranges run west-east from the Indus to the Brahmaputra.
 The Himalayas represent the loftiest and one of the most rugged mountain
barriers in the world.
 They form an arc, which covers a distance of about 2,400 Km.
 Their width varies from 400 Km in Kashmir to 150 Km in Arunachal Pradesh.
 The altitudinal variations are greater in the eastern half than in the western half.
 The Himalayas consists of three parallel ranges in their longitudinal extent.
Several valleys lie between these ranges.

Q.83) What are the factors controlling the nature and magnitude of tides?
1. The shape of the shoreline.
2. Local wind and weather patterns.
3. Changes in the position of the Sun and moon in relation to the Earth.
4. Uneven distribution of water over the globe.
Select the correct code from below:
(a) 2,3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
EXPLANATION:
The regular rise and fall of the ocean’s waters are known as tides. Along coasts, the water slowly rises
over the shore and then slowly falls back again. At a smaller scale, the magnitude of tides can be
strongly influenced by the shape of the shoreline. When oceanic tidal bulges hit wide continental
margins, the height of the tides can be magnified. Conversely, mid-oceanic islands not near
continental margins typically experience very small tides of 1 meter or less. So, Statement 1 is
correct.
Local wind and weather patterns also can affect tides. Strong offshore winds can move water away
from coastlines, exaggerating low tide exposures. Onshore winds may act to pile up water onto the
shoreline, virtually eliminating low tide exposures. High–pressure systems can depress sea levels,
leading to clear sunny days with exceptionally low tides. Conversely, low-pressure systems that
contribute to cloudy, rainy conditions are typically associated with tides that are much higher than
predicted. So, Statement 2 is correct.
Based on the Sun, Moon, and the Earth's Positions, the height of rising water (high tide) varies
appreciably, which results in the formation of Spring tides and neap tides. Although the sun
and moon both exert gravitational force on the Earth, the moon’s pull is stronger because the moon is
much closer to the Earth than the sun is. So, Statement 3 is correct.

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Due to the uneven distribution of water over the globe, the tides are unable to move freely around the
globe, and they establish complex patterns within each ocean basin that often differ greatly from tidal
patterns of adjacent ocean basins or other regions of the same ocean basin. If the Earth were a perfect
sphere without large continents, all areas on the planet would experience two equally proportioned
high and low tides every lunar day. However, the large continents on the planet block the westward
passage of the tidal bulges as the Earth rotates. So, Statement 4 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
TIDES
About  The periodical rise and fall of the sea level, once or twice a day, mainly due to
the attraction of the sun and the moon, is called a tide.
 The movement of water caused by meteorological effects (winds and
atmospheric pressure changes) is called surges.
 Surges are not regular like tides.
 The study of tides is very complex, spatially and temporally, as it has great
variations in frequency, magnitude, and height
Tides based on  Semi-diurnal tide: The most common tidal pattern, featuring two high tides and
the frequency two low tides each day. The successive high or low tides are approximately the
same height.
 Diurnal tide: There is only one high tide and one low tide during each day. The
successive high and low tides are approximately the same height.
 Mixed tide: Tides having variations in height are known as mixed tides. These
tides generally occur along the west coast of North America and on many islands
of the Pacific Ocean.
Tides are  Spring tides: The position of both the sun and the moon in relation to the earth
based on the has a direct bearing on tide height. When the sun, the moon, and the earth are
positions of in a straight line, the height of the tide will be higher. These are called spring
the Sun, tides and occur twice a month, one during the full moon period and another
Moon, and the during the new moon period.
Earth

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 Neap tides: A seven-day interval between the spring and neap tides. At this time,
the sun and moon are at right angles to each other, and the forces of the sun
and moon tend to counteract one another. The Moon’s attraction, though more
than twice as strong as the sun’s, is diminished by the counteracting force of
the sun’s gravitational pull.
 Once a month, when the moon’s orbit is closest to the earth (perigee), unusually
high and low tides occur. During this time, the tidal range is greater than
normal. Two weeks later, when the moon is farthest from earth (apogee), the
moon’s gravitational force is limited, and the tidal ranges are less than their
average heights
Importance  Since tides are caused by the earth-moon-sun positions, which are known
accurately, the tides can be predicted well in advance.
 This helps the navigators and fishermen plan their activities.
 Tidal flows are of great importance in navigation.
 Tidal heights are very important, especially harbors near rivers and estuaries
having shallow ‘bars’ at the entrance, preventing ships and boats from entering
the harbor.
 Tides are also helpful in desilting sediments and removing polluted water from
river estuaries.
 Tides are used to generate electrical power (in Canada, France, Russia, and
China).
 A 3 MW tidal power project at Durgaduani in Sunderbans of West Bengal is
underway

Q.84) With reference to world features, Vesuvius, Mona Loa, and Cotopaxi are the names of
(a) Saline Lakes
(b) Glaciers
(c) Volcanos
(d) Rift Valleys
EXPLANATION:
Vesuvius in Italy, Mona Loa in Hawaii and Cotopaxi in Ecuador are Volcanoes in different regions of
the world. A volcano is an opening in the Earth's crust that allows molten rock, gases and debris to
escape to the surface. Volcanoes often form a hill or mountain as layers of rock and ash build-up from
repeated eruptions. So, Option (c) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Vesuvius Mount Vesuvius is one of the most dangerous volcanoes, located 12 kilometers (7.5
miles) Southeast of Naples, Italy, and is the only active volcano on Europe's mainland.
It is a composite stratovolcano made up of pyroclastic flows, lava flows, and debris
from lahars (a mudflow or debris flow that originates on the slopes of a volcano) that
accumulated to form the volcanic cone.
Vesuvius is part of the Campanian volcanic arc, a line of volcanoes that formed over
a subduction zone created by the convergence of the African and Eurasian plates.

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Mauna Loa Mauna Loa, the world's largest volcano, is located on the south-central part of the
island of Hawaii. The Hawaiian name "Mauna Loa" means "Long Mountain."

Cotopaxi Cotopaxi is an active stratovolcano located in the Andes Mountains of Central

Ecuador. Cotopaxi is a volcano located about 50 km south of Quito, Ecuador.

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Volcanic Landforms
 Some volcanic landforms are formed when lava flows build up mountains and plateaus on Earth's
surface.
 Volcanic eruptions create landforms made of lava, ash, and other materials.
Landforms formed when lava flows build-up:
1. shield volcanoes
 At some places on Earth's surface, thin layers of lava pour out of a vent in a
Volcanic quiet eruption. More layers of such lava harden on top of previous layers.
Landforms The layers gradually build a wide, gently sloping mountain called a shield
volcano. Broad & flat like a shield. Ex. Hawaiian Islands
2. composite volcanoes
 Sometimes lava flows alternately with explosive eruptions of ash, cinders,
and bombs. The alternating layers from quiet and explosive eruptions form a
tall, cone-shaped mountain called a composite volcano.
Ex. Mt. Fuji, Mt. St. Helens
3. Cinder cone volcanoes-
 If a volcano's lava has a high viscosity, the lava may explode into the air
and harden into ash, cinders, and bombs. These materials pile up around
the vent, forming a steep, cone-shaped hill or mountain called a cinder
cone. Ex. Paricutin, Mexico; Sunset Crater, Az
4. Lava plateaus-
 Some thin, runny lava eruptions flow out of cracks and travel a long distance
before cooling and hardening, forming high-level areas. Over millions of
years, these layers of lava build up over a large area to form a lava plateau.
Ex. Columbia Plateau.

Q.85) With reference to Kaziranga National Park, which of the following statements are correct?
1. It is spread over three districts.
2. It hosts nearly two-thirds of the world's great one-horned Rhino population.
3. Eastern Swamp deer could be found only in Kaziranga.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

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(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
The Kaziranga national park is home to large breeding populations of elephants, wild water buffalo,
and swamp deer, and it is recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for the
conservation of avifaunal species. Kaziranga National Park is spread across three districts such as
Golaghat, Nagaon and Sonitpur of Assam. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The Kaziranga national park, which hosts two-thirds of the world's great one-horned rhinoceroses,
is a World Heritage Site. According to the census held in March 2018, which was jointly conducted
by the Forest Department of the Government of Assam and some recognized wildlife NGOs, the
rhino population in Kaziranga National Park is 2,413.
So, Statement 2 is correct.
The swamp deer is a large deer species with a height of 130 cm and weighing up to 180kg. These
deer are very active animals and graze both during the day as well as night.

Swamp Deer

Wetland Hard-ground Eastern

Barasingha Barasingha Barasingha

Eastern Barasingha, the smallest of Barasinghas, has smaller tails and antlers compared to other
sub-species. Large off-white hair on the inner side of the ears makes this Barasingha different from
the other two subspecies. Eastern Barasingha prefers tall alluvial grasslands, interspersed with
swamps and is found in North-Eastern India, especially in Protected areas of Assam such as
Kaziranga and Manas National Parks. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
KAZIRANGA NATIONAL PARK
Location  It is located in the State of Assam and Covers 42,996 ha (Hectare).
 The park lies in the floodplains of the Brahmaputra.
 It is inhabited by the world's largest population of one-horned
rhinoceroses, as well as many mammals, including tigers, elephants,
panthers and bears, and thousands of birds.

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 Declared a National Park in 1974.
Legal And
 Declared a tiger reserve in 2007.
International
 It was declared a UNESCO Natural World Heritage site in 1985.
Status
 It is recognized as an Important Bird Area by Birdlife International.
 National Highway No. 37 along the southern border of Kaziranga has
Rivers And
Highways brought increased settlements which disturb wildlife movements in this
landscape,
 The Kaziranga National Park is on the southern bank of the Brahmaputra
River at the foot of the Mikir Hills beside the Diphlu River running
through it.

Q.86) Arrange the following cities in descending order based on the length of the days during Summer in
the Northern Hemisphere:
1. Canberra
2. Oslo
3. San Francisco
4. Chennai
5. Kalimantan
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1-2-3-4-5
(b) 3-2-4-5-1

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(c) 2-3-4-5-1
(d) 1-5-4-3-2
EXPLANATION:

The amount of Insolation received throughout the earth is not equal. It is direct at the equator
and inclined at the poles, and also the relative tilt of the earth’s axis to its elliptical plane at an
angle of 23 1/2° from a perpendicular to the orbital plane is responsible for the variation in the
difference in the length of the days experienced throughout the Earth.
Areas on the Equator have a constant 12 hours of daylight all year round. As latitude increases
to 80° (polar circles - north or south), day length can increase to 24 hours or decrease to zero
(depending on the time of year).
As it is mentioned as summer (Solstice) in the given statement, the length of the day will be
lengthier at the poles and decrease as we move to the south.
Arranging in the decreasing (Descending) order of the length of the day, we get

So, option (c) is correct.

Q.87) Consider the following statements regarding Hot springs.
1. These springs are found in areas of present or past volcanic activity.
2. Hot springs which emit fountains of hot water and steam at almost regular intervals are called
geysers.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1 only
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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Hot springs and geysers also are manifestations of volcanic activity. They result from the interaction
of groundwater with magma or with solidified but still-hot igneous rocks at shallow depths.
Hot springs are generally found in regions of young volcanic activity when the surface water
percolates downward through the rocks below the Earth's surface to high-temperature regions
surrounding a magma reservoir, either active or recently solidified but still hot. There the water is
heated, becomes less dense, and rises back to the surface along fissures and cracks in the form of a
hot spring.
So, Statement 1 is correct.
A geyser is a rare kind of hot spring under pressure and erupts, sending jets of water and steam into
the air. Geysers are made from a tube-like hole in the Earth's surface that runs deep into the crust.
A geyser is a vent on Earth's surface that periodically ejects a column of hot water and steam. So,
Statement 2 is Correct.
Hot Springs Geysers

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Types of geothermal activity that are often found in areas of present or past volcanic activity
About  Geysers, Fumaroles (also called Solfataras), and hot springs are generally found
in regions of young volcanic activity.
 Surface water percolates downward through the rocks below the Earth's surface
to high-temperature regions surrounding a magma reservoir, either active or
recently solidified but still hot.
 Rising hot water and steam are trapped in a narrow crack. Pressure builds until
Geyser the mixture sprays above the surface in a fountain of water and steam erupts
from the ground. Example: Old Faithful in Yellowstone National Park.

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Hot springs  When groundwater is heated by magma or hot rock deep underground, it rises to
the surface and collects in a natural pool. Groundwater has infiltrated the ground
to fill the spaces among rocks deep beneath Earth's surface. Dissolved gases and
other substances from within Earth are found in this water.
 Hot springs occur in many thermal areas where the surface of the Earth intersects
the water table. The temperature and rate of discharge of hot springs depend on
factors such as
 The rate at which water circulates through the system of underground channel
ways,
 The amount of heat supplied at depth, and
 The extent of the heated water dilution by cool groundwater near the surface.
Geothermal Geothermal Energy is a source of energy produced when magma heats the water.
Energy
Geothermal  The Geological Survey of India has found around 340 hot springs across India.
energy Geothermal potentials are found in hot springs, geysers and fumaroles.
provinces in  They are used for various direct and indirect applications like space heating and
India cooling, aquaculture, agriculture, etc.
 Around 340 hot springs are reported in India, and most of them are located in the
following 5 major regions,
 NW-SE Himalayan arc system, which is extended to Andaman Nicobar
Island,
 Son-Narmada-Tapti lineament,
 West Coast continental margin, along with its adjacent and
surrounding areas,
 Gondwana grabens and Delhi fold regions

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Countries
With Active
Geysers

Q.88) Consider the following Statements

Assertion: The dynamics of the Intertropical Convergence Zone have a significant role in
changing the characteristics of the Indian monsoon rainfall
Reason: The significant shifting of ITCZ towards the northern Hemisphere in summer causes
Southeastern trade winds to encroach into the Northern Hemisphere and blow as
Southwest monsoon winds.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
(a) Both 'A' and 'R' are individually true, and 'R' is the correct explanation of A.'
(b) Both' A' and 'R' are individually true, but R' is not the correct explanation of A.'
(c) 'A' is true, but 'R' is false.
(d) 'A' is false, but 'R' is true.

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EXPLANATION:
ITCZ is formed because of the convergence of the trade winds. The Northeast trade winds from
Northern Hemisphere and southeast winds from the southern hemisphere converge here,
forming Inter Tropical convergent zone (ITCZ).
The ITCZ follows the sun in that the position varies seasonally. It moves north in the Northern
Hemisphere summer and south in the Northern Hemisphere winter. Therefore, the ITCZ is
responsible for the wet and dry seasons in the tropics.

From the above diagram, it can be inferred that during summer in the northern hemisphere, the
ITCZ shifts from approximately 40 degrees to 45 degrees North.
Because of this shift, the southeastern trade winds in the southern hemisphere cross the equator
and reach the northern hemisphere. Under the influence of Coriolis, the force acting upon it in
the northern hemisphere gets deflected in the anticlockwise direction and strikes the Indian
mainland as southwestern winds.
This shift is responsible for the occurrence of monsoons in India.
So, the assertion is correct, and the reason explains the assertion.
So, option (a) is correct.

Q.89) Consider the following Statements.

1. La Nina conditions in the Pacific Ocean can cause dry conditions in the horn of Africa.
2. “gu” and “deyr” refers to the two rainy seasons in the horn of Africa.
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3. Both Eritrea and Somalia border the Gulf of Edden.
Which of the following Statements are true?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
 Climate change is pushing countries like Ethiopia, Kenya, and Somalia (Horn of Africa) into
famine as they face their fifth consecutive deficit rainy seasons due to the exceptional weather
situation of La Nina conditions. It is a large-scale natural cooling of ocean surface temperature
in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific oceans. This is causing dry weather and high
temperatures in East Africa.
 The impact of La Nina is increasing in eastern East Africa because of human-induced warming
in the oceans. When there is a La Nina event, the west-to-east winds over the Pacific Ocean
intensify, pushing the 'extra' heat in the Pacific into the western Pacific. These warm waters
cause the rainfall around Indonesia to increase.
 To the west of this precipitation, one finds dry, hot, rising air over East Africa, which reduces
total rainfall and increases air temperatures.
 The current multi-season drought has been produced by a natural multi-year La Nina event,
amplified by climate change and expressed as exceptionally warm west Pacific sea surface
temperatures and warm air temperatures over East Africa. So, Statement 1 is correct.
 The Horn of African countries such as Djibouti, Ethiopia, Kenya, and Somalia receives rainfall
regularly during the two rainy seasons such as gu, which occurs between April and June when
around 50-60% of the rain falls.
 The second rainy season is called deyr (from August to November) and accounts for 20-30% of
total rainfall. The 2020 and 2021 deyr seasons were significantly drier than average, as was the
2021 gu. So, Statement 2 is correct.
 The Gulf of Aden is a deepwater gulf between Yemen to the north, the Arabian Sea to the
east, Djibouti to the west, and Socotra and Somalia to the south. In the northwest, it connects
with the Red Sea through the Bab El Mandeb strait and the Arabian Sea to the east. Whereas
the country Eritrea borders the Red Sea and not the Gulf of Eden. So, Statement 3 is not
correct.

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Q.90) Recently government launched the “SMILE: Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood and
Enterprise” Scheme. Consider the following statement related to the SMILE scheme:
1. It is a central sector scheme launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
2. It is set up for the vulnerable sections of society, majorly physically handicapped people and
destitute women.
3. It helps to uphold Article 46 of Part-IV of the Indian constitution.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
EXPLANATION:
The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched and formulated an umbrella
scheme, "SMILE - Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise," which
includes two sub-schemes - 'Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation for Welfare
of Transgender Persons' and 'Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons
engaged in the act of Begging.' So, Statement 1 is not correct.
The Government of India has formulated a comprehensive scheme of SMILE (Support for
Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise) to address the persisting problem of
destitution and beggary. It is set to provide comprehensive welfare and rehabilitation measures to
the Transgender community and the people engaged in the act of begging. So, Statement 2 is not
correct.
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) under Part IV of the Constitution of India contains Article
46 states that the State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of
the weaker sections of the people and, in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
Tribes, and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation. Hence the SMILE
schemes help to uphold the interests of weaker sections as enshrined in Article 46. So, Statement
3 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
SMILE SCHEME
About The Government of India has formulated a comprehensive scheme of SMILE
(Support for Marginalised Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise) to address
the persisting problem of destitution and beggary.
Focus The scheme's focus is extensively on rehabilitation, provision of medical
facilities, counselling, basic documentation, education, skill development,
economic linkages, and convergence with other Government welfare
programmes, etc.
Implementation In State/UT Governments/Local Urban Bodies, Voluntary Organizations, Civil
Society Organisations/Non-Government Organisations Community Based
Organizations (CBOs), institutions, and others
 Launched by Union Minister for Social Justice & Empowerment.
Smile-75  Under the SMILE-75 initiative, seventy-five (75) Municipal Corporations, in
Initiative collaboration with NGOs and other stakeholders, will cover several
comprehensive welfare measures for persons who are engaged in the act of
begging with a focus extensively on rehabilitation, provision of medical
facilities, counseling, awareness, education, skill development, economic
linkages and convergence with other Government welfare programmes, etc.

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 It provides Scholarships for Transgender Students studying in IX until post-
Benefits of the graduation to enable them to complete their education.
scheme  It has provisions for Skill Development and Livelihood under the PM-DAKSH
scheme.
 Composite Medical Health provides a comprehensive package in
convergence with PM-JAY supporting Gender-Reaffirmation surgeries
through selected hospitals.
 The Housing facility in the form of ‘Garima Greh’ ensures food, clothing,
recreational facilities, skill development opportunities, recreational
activities, medical support, etc. to the Transgender community and the
people engaged in the act of begging
 The Provision of Transgender Protection Cell in each state will monitor cases
of offenses and ensure timely registration, investigation, and prosecution of
offenses.
 The National Portal & Helpline will provide necessary information and
solutions to the Transgender community and the people engaged in the act
of begging when needed.
 The sub-scheme - ‘Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the
act of Begging’ – will focus on Survey and identification, Mobilisation,
Rescue/ Shelter Home, and Comprehensive resettlement.
 The term weaker section refers to a section of the population that is socially,
economically, and politically behind the other sections of the population and
Weaker has been experiencing various forms of inabilities due to their
sections backwardness.
 Weaker sections include women, scheduled castes (SC), scheduled tribes
(ST), children, disabled, aged, poor migrants, sexual minorities, people who
have HIV/AIDS, and other backward classes.

Q.91) Consider the following Statements.

Assertion: The deep-sea plains of the Indian Ocean is highly rugged.
Reason: This is due to its formation from a large amount of solidified lava extending for hundreds of
kilometers.
Choose the correct answer using the codes below.
(a) Both 'A' and 'R' are individually true, and 'R' is the correct explanation of A.'
(b) Both' A' and 'R' are individually true, but R' is not the correct explanation of A.'
(c) 'A' is true, but 'R' is false.
(d) 'A' is false, but 'R' is true.
EXPLANATION:
 Deep sea Plains are extensive, flat plains between the Continental Slope and Ocean abyss. It
accounts for 82.7% of the total Oceanic area and covers the portion of the ocean falling between
2000-6000m in depth. The vast monotony of featureless deep sea plains is broken by the
presence of features like ridges and guyots.
 The ocean expedition discovered that the deep sea plains of the Atlantic and Pacific oceans are
highly rugged. However, in the case of the Indian Ocean, the deep sea plains were found to be
highly leveled, perhaps due to their formation from large hard lava extending over hundreds of
kilometers. So, Option (d) is correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
OCEANIC RELIEF FEATURES
Continental  The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by
Shelf relatively shallow seas and gulfs. It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing
an average gradient of 1° or even less. The shelf typically ends at a steep slope,
called the shelf break.
Continental  The continental slope connects the continental shelf and the ocean basins. It
Slope begins where the bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops off into a steep
slope. The gradient of the slope region varies between 2-5°. The depth of the
slope region varies between 200 and 3,000m. The slope boundary indicates the
end of the continents. Canyons and trenches are observed in this region.
Deep Sea  Deep sea plains are gently sloping areas of the ocean basins. These are the
Plain flattest and smoothest regions of the world. The depths vary between 3,000 and
6,000m. These plains are covered with fine-grained sediments like clay and silt.
Oceanic  These areas are the deepest parts of the oceans. The trenches are relatively
Deeps or steep-sided, narrow basins. They are some 3-5 km deeper than the surrounding
Trenches ocean floor. They occur at the bases of continental slopes and along island arcs
and are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes. That is why
they are very significant in the study of plate movements. As many as 57 deeps
have been explored so far; of which 32 are in the Pacific Ocean; 19 in the Atlantic
Ocean, and 6 in the Indian Ocean
Mid-Oceanic  A mid-oceanic ridge is composed of two chains of mountains separated by a large
Ridges depression. The mountain ranges can have peaks as high as 2,500 m, and some
even reach above the ocean's surface. Iceland, a part of the mid-Atlantic Ridge,
is an example.
Seamount  It is a mountain with pointed summits rising from the seafloor that does not
reach the ocean's surface. Seamounts are volcanic in origin. These can be 3,000-
4,500 m tall. The Emperor seamount, an extension of the Hawaiian Islands in
the Pacific Ocean, is a good example
Submarine  These are deep valleys, some comparable to the Grand Canyon of the Colorado
Canyons River. They are sometimes found cutting across the continental shelves and
slopes, often extending from the mouths of large rivers. The Hudson Canyon is
the best-known submarine canyon in the world

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Guyots  It is a flat-topped seamount. They show evidence of gradual subsidence through
stages to become flat-topped submerged mountains. It is estimated that more
than 10,000 seamounts and guyots exist in the Pacific Ocean alone.
Atoll  These are low islands in the tropical oceans consisting of coral reefs surrounding
a central depression. It may be a part of the sea (lagoon) or sometimes form,
enclosing a body of fresh, brackish, or highly saline water.

Q.92) Consider the following statements regarding tides.

1. Spring tides are formed during the syzygy position of the Sun, Earth and Moon, which happens
during the time of the eclipse.
2. Neap tides are formed during the quadrature position of the Sun, Earth and Moon during the
lunar phase's first and third quarters.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the Moon and the sun. When Earth, sun and moon
align themselves along a line twice a month on a new moon and a full moon day. So, the combined
gravitational force of the sun and moon produce higher tides, almost 20 percent higher than the
normal tides. Syzygy is the position of the sun, moon and earth in the same straight line. It happens
during the time of the full moon and new moon. When the sun and moon are on one side of the
earth (that is, in solar eclipse position), the position is called conjuction. However, the position is
called opposition when the earth is between the sun and moon. During both conjuction and
opposition positions, the resultant tides are spring tides. So, Statement 1 is correct.

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Moon in conjunction
When the moon reaches its cycle's first and third quarters, its position becomes perpendicular to
the sun. This alignment of sun, earth and moon at right angles is called a Quadrature. In this case,
the tidal bulge is lower on both sides facing the sun and moon as the sun's and moon's gravitational
forces work against each other. This also happens twice a month, during the first and third quarters
of the lunar phase. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Moon in Quadrature

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
TIDES
About  Seawater moves upwards and downwards at rates varying from place to
place. Such a variation in sea level occurs from hour to hour and daily.
 At the time of a rising sea level, the incoming tide towards the land is
spoken of as a flowing tide or a flood tide. At the time of a falling sea level,
after a few hours, we speak of the tidewater going out or withdrawn, which
is an ebb tide (low tide). The flood tide is high, and the ebb tide is low.
 Tides are the largest waves keeping the ocean water restless. Twice a day,
regularly at constant intervals, a tide flows in and twice a day, it ebbs
away. Twice a month, flow tides are higher, and the ebb tides are lower
than the average. Also, flow tides are lower twice a month, and the ebb
tides are higher than average. However, the regular interval between two
high tides or between two low tides is 12 hours and 25 minutes and not
exactly 12 hours
The variation in The factors responsible for bringing about such a variation in the regulation
the regulation and the size of tides are:
and the size of  The location of the sun, the Moon and the Earth in relation to each other
tides is rarely in a straight line.
 The distances of the sun and the Moon from the Earth are not c Constant.

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 Our globe is not entirely covered with water.
 The outline or shape of the coast may help or hinder the tides.
Effect of Tides  Tides act as a link between the port and the open sea.
 Some of the world's major ports, such as London port on the river Thames
and Kolkata port on river Hugli, are located on the rivers away from the
sea coast.
 The tidal current clears away the river sediments and slows the delta's
growth.
 It increases the depth of water which help ships to move safely to the ports.
 Tides also act as a source of producing electricity.

Q.93) Consider the following statements regarding Cyclones.

1. The cyclone's approach is characterized by a fall in barometric reading, clear sky, strong
oppressive winds and bad weather.
2. The approach of Anticyclone is characterized by the dull sky, calm air and high temperature in
summer.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
OPTION ELIMINATION STRATEGY
The Cyclones will have a dull sky and bad weather. So, Statement 1 could be eliminated.
The Cyclones are better known as depressions. The lowest pressure is in the center, and the isobars
are close. Depressions vary from 150 to 2,000 miles in extent. They remain quite stationary or move
several hundred miles in a day. The approach of a cyclone is characterized by a fall in barometric
reading, dull sky, oppressive air, and strong winds. The Instrument used to measure atmospheric
pressure is Called a Barometer, whereas Bathometer is an instrument for measuring water depth.
Cyclones are caused due to pressure difference which is measured using a barometer, not a
bathometer. So, Statement 1 is not correct.

Anticyclones are the opposite of cyclones, with high pressure in the center and the isobars far apart.
The pressure gradient is gentle, and the winds are light. Anticyclones normally herald fine weather.

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The skies are clear, the air is calm, and temperatures are high in summer but cold in winter. So,
Statement 2 is not correct.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
Tropical Cyclones
Conditions for Following are the requirements for tropical cyclones to form:
formation  Large ocean areas with a surface temperature of more than 26°C or 27°C
 The vertical shear of the horizontal wind velocity between the lower and
upper troposphere should be minimal.
 Presence of the Coriolis force
 A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation
sustains the formation of a cyclone
 Upper divergence above the sea level system
Other  Cyclones in the Indian Ocean and South Pacific Ocean.
Terminologies  Hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean and the eastern North Pacific Ocean.
 Typhoons in the Western Pacific Ocean and the South China Sea.
 Willy-willies in the Western Australia Ocean
Classification  Type of Disturbances  Wind Speed in
Km/h
 Low Pressure  Less than 31
 Depression  31-49
 Deep Depression  49-61
 Cyclonic Storm  61-88
 Severe Cyclonic Storm  88-117
 Super Cyclone  More than 221
Impact  Wind
 Cyclones have wind speeds above 90 km/hr around their center. In the
most severe cyclones, it can exceed 280 km/hr.
 Rain
 Heavy rainfall is associated with extensive flooding.
 Storm surge
 A tropical cyclone can cause the sea to rise well above the highest tide
levels of the year when it comes ashore. These storm surges are caused
mainly by strong, onshore winds and reduced atmospheric pressure.
It is the most dangerous hazard associated with a tropical cyclone.

Q.94) Consider the following statement.

1. Vertical Temperature gradient refers to the fall in temperature with respect to altitude.
2. The Gradient value decreases by 6.5oC per kilometer of ascend.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
EXPLANATION:
The average rate of temperature decreases upward in the troposphere is about 6 degree Celsius per
kilometer, extending to the tropopause. This vertical temperature gradient is commonly referred to

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as the standard atmosphere or normal lapse rate, but it varies in height, season, latitude and other
factors. So, Statement 1 is correct.
The average rate of decrease in temperature of the air as it moves upward in the troposphere is about
6 degree Celsius per km, extending to the tropopause. The normal lapse rate is 6 degrees Celsius per
1000m meters, So, Statement 2 is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
VERTICAL TEMPERATURE GRADIENT
About  Temperature indicates the relative degree of heat of a substance. Heat is the
energy that makes things or objects hot, while temperature measures heat
intensity.
 Heat and temperature are closely related because heat gain or loss is
necessary to raise or lower the temperature. The celsius scale was named
after the Swedish astronomer.
 Anders Celsius is accepted internationally by Scientists for reporting air
temperature.
 The distribution of temperature varies both horizontally and vertically,
 The horizontal distribution of temperature
 The vertical distribution of temperature
Horizontal  The distribution of temperature across the latitudes over the surface of the
Distribution of Earth is called its horizontal distribution.
Temperature  The horizontal temperature distribution is commonly shown by "Isotherms,"
lines connecting points with equal temperatures.
 The factors responsible for the uneven distribution of temperature are as
follows:
 Latitude
 Land and Sea Contrast
 Relief and Altitude
 Ocean Currents
 Winds
 Vegetation Cover
 Nature of the soil
 Slope and Aspect
 The horizontal distribution of temperature over the globe can be studied
easily from the maps of January and July months since the seasonal
extremes of high and low temperature are most obvious in both the northern
and southern hemispheres.
Horizontal  In January, the sun shines vertically overhead near the Tropic of Capricorn.
Distribution of  Hence it is summer in the southern hemisphere and winter in the northern
Temperature in hemisphere.
January  These regions are North-west Argentina, East, Central Africa, and Central
Australia. Isotherm of 30°C closes them.
 In the northern hemisphere, landmass arc cooler than oceans. During this
time, Northeast Asia experiences the lowest temperatures.
 As the air is warmer over oceans than over landmasses in the northern
hemisphere, the Isotherms bend towards the poles when they cross the
oceans. In the southern hemisphere, the position of the isotherms is
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reversed. They bend towards the poles when they cross the landmasses and
towards the equator when they cross oceans.
 A large expanse of water exists in the southern hemisphere. Hence,
isotherms are regular and widely spaced in the southern hemisphere.
 While they are irregular and closely spaced in the northern hemisphere due
to the large expanse of landmasses

Horizontal  The sun shines vertically overhead during this period near the Tropic of
Distribution of Cancer.
Temperature in  High temperatures are found in the entire northern hemisphere. Isotherm of
July 30°C passes between 10° N and 40° N latitudes.
 The regions having this temperature include the South Western USA, the
Sahara, Arabia, Iraq, Iran, Afghanistan, the desert region of India and China.
 However, the lowest temperature of 0°C is also noticed in the Northern
Hemisphere during summer in the central part of Greenland.
 During summer in the northern hemisphere, isotherms bend equatorward
while crossing oceans and polewards while crossing landmasses.
 In the Southern Hemisphere, the position of isotherms is just the opposite.

Q.95) With reference to the Denotified Tribes(DNTs), consider the following statements.
1. British government categorized DNTs as criminal tribes during colonial rule in India.
2. Renke commission was set up for the welfare of the Denotified tribe in India
3. Recently union ministry of the tribal affair launched the Scheme for Economic Empowerment of
DNTs (SEED)
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Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
EXPLANATION:
Denotified Tribes (DNTs) are the tribes that were notified as criminals under 'The Criminal Tribes
Act, of 1871, by the British colonial government. It notified most nomadic communities as criminals.
This Act implied that these communities were criminals by birth and practiced crime as a profession.
After decades of facing the horrors of this racial Act, they were denotified by the government of
independent India on August 31, 1952. So, Statement 1 is correct.

A National Commission for De-notified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes (NCDNT) was constituted
in 2006 by the then government. It was headed by Bal Krishna Sidram Renke and submitted its
report in June 2008. The Ranke commission estimated their population at around 10.74 crores based
on Census 2001. The commission was appointed to study various developmental aspects
of Denotified and nomadic or semi-nomadic tribes in India. So, Statement 2 is correct.

Recently, Ministry for Social Justice and Empowerment launched the Scheme for Economic
Empowerment of DNTs (SEED) for the welfare of De-notified, Nomadic, and Semi Nomadic
Communities in February 2022. So, Statement 3 is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
DENOTIFIED TRIBES (DNTS)
About  Denotified Tribes, Nomadic Tribes, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes are one of the
most deprived and economically weaker communities in India.
 The misery of these communities began with the enactment of the Criminal
Tribes Act of 1871 during British rule.
 This Act was the most draconian law passed by the British colonial state,
under which millions of nomadic and semi-nomadic communities were
declared criminals and put under continuous surveillance, making their
lives impossible.
Total Number of A National Commission for De-notified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes
DNT, SNT, and NT (NCDNT) was constituted by the Government of India in February 2014 state-
Communities wise list of castes belonging to De-notified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes.
NCDNT submitted its report on 08.01.2018. As per the report, there are 425
Denotified Tribes, 810 Nomadic Tribes, and 27 Semi Nomadic Tribes in India.

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COMMITTEES SET UP FOR THE EMPOWERMENT OF DNT

Ayyangar Committee, The Criminal Tribes Enquiry Committee was set up in 1949-1950 and
1949 chaired by M Ananthsayanam Ayyangar.
The Committee emphasized the need to allocate adequate funds for
their welfare and rehabilitation.

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Kalelkar Committee,  The first Backward Class Commission was appointed on 29 January
1953 1953 under the Chairmanship of Mr. Kakasaheb Kalelkar.
 This Commission gave its report and suggested that the erstwhile
“Criminal Tribes” should not be called “Criminal” or “Ex-Criminals.
 They could be called „Denotified Communities.‟ The Kalelkar
Commission further recommended that “these groups may be
distributed in small groups in towns and villages where they would
come in contact with other people, and get an opportunity for
turning a new leaf.
Idate Commission, 2014  In February 2014, the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
took a historic decision to constitute a National Commission for De-
Notified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes for three years.
 This National Commission was constituted under the Chairmanship
of Shri Bhiku Ramji Idate.
 The Commission gave its report in December 2017. Based on the
recommendations of the Idate Commission, the Government of India
constituted the Development and Welfare Board for DNTs, SNTs
&NTs (DWBDNCs) in 2019.
 The Development and Welfare Board for De-notified, Nomadic, and
Semi-Nomadic Communities (DWBDNCs) was mandated to
formulate and implement welfare and development programs for
these communities.

Q.96) Consider the following statements:

1. Cocoa is a tropical crop, majorly cultivated in the equatorial type climate.
2. Kerala ranks first in cocoa cultivation in terms of productivity.
3. India is self-sufficient in cocoa production, with an area of one lakh hectares.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
EXPLANATION:
Cocoa can be grown up to 300 m above mean sea level. It requires a minimum of 90-100 mm monthly
rainfall with an annual rainfall of 1500-2000 mm. The plants need an equitable climate with well-
distributed rainfall. If dry periods are prolonged, irrigation scheduling is necessary. The temperature
range of 15°-39°C with an optimum of 25°C is ideal.
The cocoa belt is an area of land around the equator between 20 degrees latitude North and South.
Therefore it is a Tropical Crop with the majority of cultivation located along the Equator. So, Statement
1 is correct.
Andhra Pradesh ranks first in area with 39,714 ha and a production of 10,903 MT (metric tons), and
also it shows the highest productivity, which is 950 kg/ha. The average productivity of cocoa in India
is 669 Kg/ha. Whereas in Kerala, the productivity is 850 Kg/ha. So, Statement 2 is not correct.

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Cocoa is being cultivated in the States of Kerala, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu in an
area of 1,03,376 ha(hectare.) with a total production of 27,072 MT.
The current domestic production of cocoa beans is insufficient to meet the demand. So, India meets its
demand by importing cocoa beans from the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Ecuador, the Republic
of the Congo, Uganda and Madagascar.
So, Statement 3 is not correct.

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ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
COCOA CULTIVATION
Climate and  The natural habitat of the cocoa tree is in the lower storey of the evergreen
Soil rainforest, and climatic factors, particularly temperature and rainfall, are
important in encouraging optimum growth.
 Cocoa is a perennial crop that can withstand different seasonal variations with
good health and yield potential.
 Cocoa is normally cultivated at altitudes up to 1200 m above MSL with an annual
rainfall of 1000mm to 2000mm and relative humidity of 80 % with a maximum
of 350 Degree Celsius and minimum temperature of 150Degree Celsius.
 Cocoa can be grown as intercrop in coconut and areca nut gardens. It is
predominantly grown on red laterite soils. It thrives well on a wide range of soil
types, with pH ranging from 4.5- 8.0, with the optimum being 6.5- 7.0.
Varieties  There are three varietal types in cocoa, namely
 Criollo,
 Forastero and
 Trinitario
Propagation  Cocoa can be propagated by seeds. Seeds are to be extracted from pods. Cocoa
pods take 150-170 days from pollination to attain the harvest stage.
 The stage of maturity is visible from the change of pod color from green to yellow
(Forestero) and red to yellow (Criollo).
 Collecting seeds from biclonal or polyclonal seed gardens involving superior self-
incompatible parents is recommended to ensure the genetic superiority of
planting materials.

Q.97) ‘WASP-96b’ has been in the news and is related to which of the following?
(a) Group of insects that help in pollination.
(b) A hot, massive planet orbiting outside the Solar system.
(c) A giant cluster of galaxies is present in the direction of Volans Constellation.
(d) An interstellar gas cloud
EXPLANATION:
WASP-96 b is a hot gas giant exoplanet (a planet that orbits a star outside the solar system). It was
discovered in 2014 and is located 1,150 light-years from Earth in the southern-sky constellation
Phoenix; this exoplanet has half the mass of Jupiter and completes an orbit around its star every 3.4
days. So, Option (b) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
WASP-96B
About  WASP-96B is a hot gas giant planet with a cloud-free atmosphere.
 WASP-96 b is an exoplanet, a combination of large size, short orbital period, puffy
atmosphere, and lack of contaminating light from objects nearby in the sky.
 The planet orbits extremely close to its star (less than 1/20th the distance between
Earth and the Sun) and completes one orbit in less than 3½ Earth days.
 With a mass less than half that of Jupiter and a diameter 1.2 times greater.
 WASP-96 b is significantly hotter, with temperatures greater than 1000 degrees
Fahrenheit.

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Q.98) Consider the following fluvial erosional and depositional landforms.
1. Swamps and Marshes
2. V-shaped valleys
3. Waterfalls and rapids
4. Braided channels
Which of the above are not usually formed during the old age course of a river?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
EXPLANATION:
A marsh is a type of wetland, an area of land where water covers the ground for long periods. Unlike
swamps, which are dominated by trees, marshes are usually treeless and dominated by grasses and
other herbaceous plants. Marshes and swamps are developed during the youth stage and mature during
the old river stage. So, Statement 1 is correct.
V Shaped valleys are formed during the Youth stage of the river. During the youth stage, the river's
velocity is fast and strong, and it flows down a steep gradient, making it deeper than wider. Thus V-
shaped valleys are not formed during the old age course of a river. So, Statement 2 is not correct.
Rapids are formed when a fast-flowing river quickly cuts downward through a bed of hard and soft rocks,
eroding the soft rock and leaving the hard rocks standing above the water's surface. These are formed
during the youth stage of the river and not during the old stage. So, Statement 3 is not correct.
A braided channel is a network of channels formed in a river with a great amount of sediment and a
fluctuating discharge pattern. These are formed during the old stage of the river. So, Statement 4 is
correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:

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Q.99) KIRAN Scheme, which was in the news recently, is related to
(a) Providing opportunities to women Scientists
(b) Providing Hostel to Working Woman
(c) To improve the child sex ratio in the state
(d) Providing Financial assistance to OBC and SC/ST Students
EXPLANATION:
The Department of Science and Technology (DST) is implementing the ‘Knowledge Involvement in
Research Advancement through Nurturing (KIRAN)’ Scheme to provide career opportunities to women
scientists and technologists and promote women in science. So, option (a) is correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
KIRAN SCHEME
Aim  It primarily aims to bring gender parity in the Science & Technology sector by
inducting more women talent into the research & development domain through
various programmes.
Women  The ‘Women Scientist Scheme’ provides career opportunities to unemployed
Scientists women scientists and technologists, especially those who had a break in their
Scheme (WOS) career, to pursue research in frontier areas of Science and Engineering.
 Women Scientists Scheme (WOS) of the Department of Science and Technology
under the KIRAN scheme, including other schemes, empowers women in
science and technology.
Components of There are three major components of the Women Scientist Scheme, namely, WOS-
The Women A, WOS-B, and WOS-C.
Scientist  The WOS-A scheme provides a platform for women scientists and
Scheme technologists to pursue research in basic or applied sciences and offers the
opportunity to work as bench-level scientists.
 The WOS-B scheme focuses on projects related to Science & Technology (S&T)
interventions for societal benefit. This scheme provides an opportunity for
women scientists to address a well-identified societal challenge and deliver
possible solutions by developing viable technology/technique and lab-to-land
technology transfer, its adaptation, and scaling up e opportunity to work as
bench-level scientists.
 The WOS-C scheme aims to train women having qualifications in
science/engineering/medicine or allied areas in the field of Intellectual Property
Rights (IPRs) and their management for one year to develop a pool of women
scientists geared to creating, protecting, and managing intellectual property in
India.

Q.100) The Market Infrastructure Institutions was in news recently consider the following statement;
1. Stock exchanges, depositories and clearing houses constitutes the Market Infrastructure
Institutions (MIIs).
2. They constitute a key part of the nation's vital economic infrastructure.
3. In 2010, a panel was set up under the chairmanship of former RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das to
examine the issues arising from the ownership and governance of MIIs.
Which of the Statement given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3 only
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EXPLANATION:
A Market Infrastructure is a system administered by a public organization or other public
instrumentality or a private and regulated association or entity that provides services to the financial
industry for trading, clearing and settlement matching financial transactions and depository functions.
Stock exchanges, depositories, and clearing houses are all Market Infrastructure Institutions and
constitute a key part of the nation's vital economic infrastructure. So, Statements 1 and 2 are
correct.
A panel set up under the chairmanship of former RBI Governor Bimal Jalan — to examine issues
arising from the ownership and governance of MIIs — in its 2010 report said: “The term ‘infrastructure’
would mean the basic, underlying framework or features of a system; and the term ‘market
infrastructure’ denotes such fundamental facilities and systems serving this market. So, Statement 3
is not correct.

ADDITIONAL INFORMATION:
MARKET INFRASTRUCTURE INSTITUTIONS
About  SEBI has come out with a new framework for Business Continuity Plan (BCP)
and Disaster Recovery (DR) of Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs) - stock
exchanges, clearing corporations, and depositories.
 MIIs are systemically important in India. These institutions' phenomenal growth
regarding the market capitalization of listed companies, capital raised and the number
of investor accounts with brokers and depositories, and the value of assets held in the
depositories’ accounts.
 According to a panel set up (in 2010) under the chairmanship of former Reserve Bank
of India Governor Bimal Jalan, the term ‘market infrastructure’ denotes such
fundamental facilities and systems serving this capital market.
 The primary purpose of the securities /capital market is to enable the
allocation/reallocation of capital/financial resources.
 MIIs help in the optimal use of money in the economy and foster economic
development.

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