Week 2

Knowledge Representation MCQs

1. What is knowledge defined as in the context of AI?

o A) A collection of data
o B) A justified belief that increases an entity’s capacity for effective action
o C) A form of data storage
o D) An unverified assumption
Answer: B
2. Which of the following is NOT a type of knowledge?
o A) Declarative knowledge
o B) Procedural knowledge
o C) Causal knowledge
o D) Temporal knowledge
Answer: D
3. What is a key requirement of a good knowledge representation system?
o A) Complexity
o B) Representational adequacy
o C) Inference inefficiency
o D) Ambiguity
Answer: B
4. Which representation scheme uses expressions in formal logic?
o A) Procedural representation
o B) Semantic networks
o C) Logical representation
o D) Frame-based representation
Answer: C
5. What is the primary role of knowledge representation in AI?
o A) To collect data
o B) To express knowledge in a computer-tractable form
o C) To increase computational power
o D) To enhance user interfaces
Answer: B
6. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using natural language for knowledge
representation?
o A) High expressiveness
o B) Complexity of syntax and semantics
o C) Universally understood by humans
o D) Easily conveyable
Answer: B
7. What does "meta-knowledge" refer to?
o A) Knowledge about physical objects
o B) Knowledge about knowledge
o C) Knowledge derived from experience
o D) Knowledge represented in a database
Answer: B
 8. In knowledge representation, what does the term "syntax" refer to?
o A) The meaning of sentences
o B) The rules for constructing valid sentences
o C) The relationship between knowledge and intelligence
o D) The storage format for knowledge
Answer: B
9. Which of the following is a characteristic of symbolic methods of knowledge
representation?
o A) They operate on raw sensory data.
o B) They utilize neural networks.
o C) They represent knowledge using symbols and logic.
o D) They are limited to numerical data processing.
Answer: C
10. What is the primary purpose of frames in knowledge representation?
o A) To process large volumes of data
o B) To represent knowledge as a collection of attributes and values
o C) To perform complex mathematical computations
o D) To replace natural language
Answer: B

 What are the main components of a rule-based system?

 A) A neural network and a database

 B) A database management system, a rule set, and a rule interpreter
 C) A programming language and a compiler
 D) A data warehouse and a report generator
Answer: B

 In a typical rule set, what does the expression "IF Raining ∧ Outside(x) ∧
HasUmbrella(x) THEN UseUmbrella(x)" represent?

 A) A data entry operation

 B) A conditional rule for decision-making
 C) A statement of fact
 D) An input-output mapping
Answer: B

 Which of the following is an advantage of rule-based systems?

 A) They are always efficient.

 B) They lack modularity.
 C) They support probabilistic reasoning through certainty factors.
 D) They have precise semantics for all rules.
Answer: C

 What is a disadvantage of rule-based systems?

  A) They are expressive.
 B) They provide modularity.
 C) They can lack precise semantics for the rules.
 D) They allow for easy introduction of new rules.
Answer: C

 What process allows new knowledge to be derived from existing facts in a rule-based
system?

 A) Knowledge acquisition
 B) Validation
 C) Inference
 D) Explanation
Answer: C

 Given the facts: Raining, Outside(John), ¬HasUmbrella(John), which rule is triggered?

 A) R1
 B) R2
 C) R3
 D) R4
Answer: B

 What does the term "knowledge engineering" refer to?

 A) The process of creating physical machines

 B) The discipline of creating and maintaining knowledge bases for intelligent reasoning
 C) The study of computer hardware design
 D) The evaluation of software performance
Answer: B

 In a knowledge-based system (KBS), what is the function of the inference engine?

 A) To manage the user interface

 B) To store data permanently
 C) To apply knowledge from the knowledge base to solve problems
 D) To perform statistical analysis
Answer: C

 Which of the following is NOT a type of knowledge-based system (KBS)?

 A) Expert systems
 B) Neural networks
 C) Static databases
 D) Intelligent agents
Answer: C
 What does the term "knowledge acquisition" involve in knowledge engineering?

 A) Validating existing knowledge

 B) Gathering and inputting knowledge into the system
 C) Representing knowledge in a database
 D) Explaining the reasoning process
Answer: B

 What is the primary difference between data and knowledge?

 A) Data is organized information, while knowledge is raw facts.

 B) Data consists of isolated facts, whereas knowledge represents organized facts.
 C) Knowledge is unstructured information, while data is structured.
 D) Data has no context, but knowledge has context.

Answer: B) Data consists of isolated facts, whereas knowledge represents organized facts.

 In the context of knowledge representation, which of the following best defines 'syntax'?

 A) The meaning of a sign or set of signs.

 B) The way in which linguistic elements are put together to form constituents.
 C) The relationship of meanings of words.
 D) A method for manipulating symbols.

Answer: B) The way in which linguistic elements are put together to form constituents.

 Which of the following is NOT included in the categories of KR&R (Knowledge

Representation and Reasoning)?

 A) Temporal reasoning
 B) Inductive reasoning
 C) Genetic algorithms
 D) Belief revision

Answer: C) Genetic algorithms

 What does first-order logic (FOL) primarily allow us to express?

 A) Only numerical values

 B) Relationships between objects and their properties
 C) Only simple propositions
 D) Only natural language sentences

Answer: B) Relationships between objects and their properties

 What is an example of a procedural representation scheme?

  A) Frames
 B) Semantic networks
 C) If...then...else rules
 D) Predicate calculus

Answer: C) If...then...else rules

 Which of the following is an advantage of using Natural Language (NL) for knowledge
representation?

 A) High precision and clarity

 B) Easy for humans to understand and use
 C) Highly structured format
 D) Easy to process by machines

Answer: B) Easy for humans to understand and use

 What is a key characteristic of abduction in reasoning?

 A) It guarantees a true conclusion based on true premises.

 B) It provides the most probable inference among many possibilities.
 C) It deduces general rules from specific instances.
 D) It uses logical frameworks to determine truth.

Answer: B) It provides the most probable inference among many possibilities.

 Which of the following best describes the efficiency of a knowledge representation

system?

 A) The system’s ability to produce intended results.

 B) The system’s ability to store vast amounts of data.
 C) Performing tasks in the best possible manner.
 D) The degree of expressiveness in representing knowledge.

Answer: C) Performing tasks in the best possible manner.

 What does 'semantic' refer to in the context of logic?

 A) The structure of logical formulas.

 B) The manipulation of symbols.
 C) The meaning or relationship of meanings of signs.
 D) The process of reasoning.

Answer: C) The meaning or relationship of meanings of signs.

 Which knowledge representation scheme captures knowledge as a graph, where nodes
represent objects and arcs represent relations?

 A) Frames
 B) Semantic networks
 C) Logic programming
 D) Procedural representation

Answer: B) Semantic networks

1. Which of the following components of a knowledge representation is used for

constructing legal sentence in logic?
A) Syntax
B) Semantics
C) Knowledge base
D) Inference Engine
Answer: A
2. Treatment chosen by doctor for a patient for a disease is based on _____________
A) Only current symptoms
B) Current symptoms plus some knowledge from the textbooks
C) Current symptoms plus some knowledge from the textbooks plus experience
D) All of the mentioned
Answer: C)
3. Which is not a property of representation of knowledge?
A) Representational Verification
B) Representational Adequacy
C) Inferential Adequacy
D) Inferential Efficiency
Answer: A)
4. The knowledge representation models are based on in which of the following.
i. Logic
ii. Rules
iii. Frames
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii
Answer: D)
5. State whether the following statements about implicit knowledge are True or False.
i. The implicit knowledge is difficult to communicate and share.
ii. The implicit knowledge exists outside a human being.
iii. The implicit knowledge is hard to steal to copy
A) i-True, ii-True, iii-True
B) i-True, ii-False, iii-False
C) i-True, ii-False, iii-True
D) i-False, ii-True, iii-True
Answer: C)
6. State whether the following statements about explicit knowledge are True or False.
i. The explicit knowledge is drawn from experience, action, or subjective insight.
ii. the explicit knowledge can be shared, copied, processed, and stored.
A) i-True, ii-True
B) i-True, ii-False
C) i-False, ii-False
D) i-False, ii-True
Answer: D)
7. A knowledge representation system should have which of the following properties.
i. Representation Adequacy
ii. Inferential Adequacy
iii. Inferential Efficiency
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii
Answer: D)
8. … is the ability to represent all kinds of knowledge that are needed in that domain.
A) Representation Adequacy
B) Inferential Adequacy
C) Inferential Efficiency
D) Acquisitional Efficiency
Answer: A)
9. … is the ability to manipulate the representational structures to derive new structures
corresponding to new knowledge inferred from old.
A) Representation Adequacy
B) Inferential Adequacy
C) Inferential Efficiency
D) Acquisitional Efficiency
Answer: B)
10. … is the ability to acquire new knowledge using automatic methods wherever possible rather
than reliance on human intervention
A) Representation Adequacy
B) Inferential Adequacy
C) Inferential Efficiency
D) Acquisitional Efficiency
Answer: D)
11. State whether the following statements about the relational knowledge are True or False.
i. It is the simplest way to represent declarative facts.
ii. It provides a framework to compare two objects based on equivalent attributes.
A) i-True, ii-True
B) i-True, ii-False
C) i-False, ii-False
D) i-False, ii-True
Answer: A)
12. Any instance in which two different objects are compared is a … type of knowledge.
A) inheritable
B) relational
C) inferential
D) procedural
Answer: B)
13. State whether the following statements about inheritable knowledge are True.
i. Here the knowledge elements inherit attributes from their parents.
ii. The basic knowledge representation not required to be augmented with an inference mechanism.
iii. The classes are organized in a generalized hierarchy.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii
Answer: C)
14. … generates new information from the given information.
A) Inheritable knowledge
B) Relational knowledge
C) Inferential knowledge
D) Procedural knowledge
Answer: C)
15. Which of the following are the advantages of inferential knowledge?
i. It has a set of strict rules.
ii. It can be used to derive more facts.
iii. Here the truths of new statements can be verified.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii
Answer: D)
16. … is a representation in which the control information, to use the knowledge is embedded in the
knowledge itself.
A) Inheritable knowledge
B) Relational knowledge
C) Inferential knowledge
D) Procedural knowledge
Answer: D)
17. Which of the following are the advantages of procedural knowledge?
i. Here the heuristic or domain-specific knowledge can be represented.
ii. The extended logical inferences, such as default reasoning are facilitated.
iii. There is guaranteed correctness.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii
Answer: A)
18. Which of the following are the disadvantages of procedural knowledge?
i. Not all the cases may be represented in procedural knowledge.
ii. Not all the deductions may be correct in procedural knowledge.
iii. Modularity is sacrificed.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii
Answer: D)
19. … is the ability to incorporate additional information into the knowledge structure that can be
used to focus the attention of the inference mechanisms in the most promising direction.
A) Representation Adequacy
B) Inferential Adequacy
C) Inferential Efficiency
D) Acquisitional Efficiency
Answer: C)
20. Computer programs, directions and recipes are the examples of …
A) Inheritable knowledge
B) Relational knowledge
C) Inferential knowledge
D) Procedural knowledge
Answer: D)

MCQs on Cloud Architecture

1. Which of the following architecture styles is characterized by layers that separate

responsibilities?
a. A) Microservices
b. B) Web-Queue-Worker
c. C) N-Tier
d. D) Event-Driven
e. Answer: C) N-Tier
2. What is a key characteristic of microservices architecture?
a. A) All services share the same database.
b. B) Each service represents a single responsibility.
c. C) Services are tightly coupled.
d. D) All services must be deployed together.
e. Answer: B) Each service represents a single responsibility.
3. Which architecture style is best suited for applications that require low latency and
can handle high volumes of events?
a. A) Big Data
b. B) Microservices
c. C) Event-Driven
d. D) N-Tier
e. Answer: C) Event-Driven
4. What is a primary challenge when using asynchronous messaging in microservices?
a. A) Increased scalability
b. B) Handling eventual consistency
c. C) Enhanced communication speed
d. D) Independent deployment of services
e. Answer: B) Handling eventual consistency
5. In a Command and Query Responsibility Segregation (CQRS) architecture, what is
separated?
a. A) Read and write operations
b. B) Front-end and back-end services
 c. C) Data storage and caching
d. D) Application tiers
e. Answer: A) Read and write operations
6. What is a significant benefit of using microservices architecture?
a. A) Simplicity in deployment
b. B) Independent deployment of services
c. C) Single large database
d. D) Reduced complexity
e. Answer: B) Independent deployment of services
7. Which architecture is recommended for migrating existing layered applications to
the cloud?
a. A) Microservices
b. B) N-Tier
c. C) Big Data
d. D) Event-Driven
e. Answer: B) N-Tier
8. What type of architecture style uses a publish-subscribe model?
a. A) Microservices
b. B) Event-Driven
c. C) Web-Queue-Worker
d. D) Big Compute
e. Answer: B) Event-Driven
9. What is a potential drawback of an N-Tier architecture?
a. A) High scalability
b. B) Increased latency from network communication
c. C) Independent service deployment
d. D) Simplicity in design
e. Answer: B) Increased latency from network communication
10. Which architecture style is primarily concerned with processing very large datasets
in parallel?
a. A) Microservices
b. B) Big Data
c. C) Web-Queue-Worker
d. D) N-Tier
e. Answer: B) Big Data
11. Additional MCQs (Created)
12. Which architecture style is characterized by the use of independent services that
communicate through API contracts?
a. A) N-Tier
b. B) Microservices
c. C) Web-Queue-Worker
d. D) CQRS
e. Answer: B) Microservices
13. In an N-Tier architecture, which layer typically manages data access?
a. A) Presentation Layer
b. B) Middle Layer
 c. C) Data Layer
d. D) Application Layer
e. Answer: C) Data Layer
14. What advantage does a Web-Queue-Worker architecture provide?
a. A) Simplified deployment and operations
b. B) High coupling between components
c. C) Single point of failure
d. D) Direct database access
e. Answer: A) Simplified deployment and operations
15. What best describes a benefit of using Event-Driven architecture?
a. A) Increased complexity
b. B) Better performance in data analysis
c. C) Low dependency management
d. D) Reduced latency in real-time applications
e. Answer: D) Reduced latency in real-time applications
16. In a microservices architecture, which of the following is NOT a constraint?
a. A) Each service must share its database with others.
b. B) Services should represent a single responsibility.
c. C) Services are independent of each other.
d. D) Services can be deployed independently.
e. Answer: A) Each service must share its database with others.
17. What is the primary purpose of decomposing a monolithic application into microservices?
A) To increase code complexity
B) To enhance scalability and flexibility
C) To reduce the number of services used
D) To eliminate the need for APIs
Answer: B) To enhance scalability and flexibility
18. Which architecture style is best suited for applications that require independent
deployment of services?
A) N-Tier
B) Web-Queue-Worker
C) Microservices
D) Event-Driven
Answer: C) Microservices
19. In an event-driven architecture, what is the relationship between producers and
consumers?
A) Producers are dependent on consumers
B) Consumers are dependent on producers
 C) Both producers and consumers are independent
D) Producers and consumers must communicate synchronously
Answer: C) Both producers and consumers are independent
20. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the N-Tier architecture?
A) Layers perform logical functions
B) Tiers can be physically separated
C) It allows for asynchronous communication only
D) Higher layers can call lower layers
Answer: C) It allows for asynchronous communication only
21. Which cloud architecture style is primarily used for processing large volumes of data?
A) Microservices
B) N-Tier
C) Big Data
D) CQRS
Answer: C) Big Data
22. What is the main benefit of using Command and Query Responsibility Segregation
(CQRS)?
A) It simplifies the architecture by combining read and write operations.
B) It allows for independent scaling of read and write workloads.
C) It eliminates the need for a database.
D) It ensures all data is processed in real time.
Answer: B) It allows for independent scaling of read and write workloads.
23. Which of the following is a challenge associated with microservices architecture?
A) Increased release velocity
B) Improved fault isolation
C) Complexity in managing inter-service communication
D) Easy integration of new technologies
Answer: C) Complexity in managing inter-service communication
24. When is it appropriate to use a Web-Queue-Worker architecture?
A) For applications with complex domains
 B) For applications with a high frequency of updates
C) For applications with resource-intensive tasks and a simple domain
D) For applications that require real-time processing
Answer: C) For applications with resource-intensive tasks and a simple domain
25. What is a significant drawback of N-Tier architecture?
A) It allows for high availability
B) It prevents independent deployment of features
C) It supports asynchronous messaging
D) It enhances scalability
Answer: B) It prevents independent deployment of features
26. Which cloud architecture style allows for high-performance computing through parallel
processing?
A) Microservices
B) Event-Driven
C) Big Compute
D) N-Tier
Answer: C) Big Compute

SQL Database
Relational Databases MCQs

1. Who proposed the relational database management systems (RDBMS)?

o A) Charles Bachman
o B) E.F. Codd
o C) Edgar F. Codd
o D) Michael Stonebraker
Answer: B) E.F. Codd
2. Which of the following is NOT an example of an RDBMS?
o A) MySQL
o B) MongoDB
o C) Oracle SQL
o D) MS Access
Answer: B) MongoDB
3. In the relational model, what term is used to refer to the columns in a table?
o A) Rows
o B) Fields
 o C) Attributes
o D) Both B and C
Answer: D) Both B and C
4. What does ACID stand for in the context of transactions in RDBMS?
o A) Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
o B) Association, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
o C) Atomicity, Concurrency, Isolation, Durability
o D) Atomicity, Consistency, Integrity, Durability
Answer: A) Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
5. Which of the following keys is used to uniquely identify a record in a table?
o A) Foreign Key
o B) Composite Key
o C) Primary Key
o D) Candidate Key
Answer: C) Primary Key
6. Normalization in a database is aimed at minimizing which of the following?
o A) Complexity
o B) Redundancy
o C) Performance
o D) Data types
Answer: B) Redundancy
7. Which of the following is NOT a form of normalization?
o A) 1NF
o B) 2NF
o C) 3NF
o D) 4NF
Answer: D) 4NF
8. What does 1NF require in a relational database?
o A) No repeated groups or arrays
o B) Each record must be uniquely identifiable
o C) All non-key attributes are fully dependent on the primary key
o D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above
9. In SQL, which clause is used to combine rows from two or more tables?
o A) JOIN
o B) WHERE
o C) GROUP BY
o D) ORDER BY
Answer: A) JOIN
10. Which SQL command is used to delete records from a table?
o A) REMOVE
o B) DROP
o C) DELETE
o D) TRUNCATE
Answer: C) DELETE

Azure SQL Deployments MCQs

 11. Which of the following is NOT a deployment option within the Azure SQL
platform?
o A) Azure SQL Managed Instance
o B) Azure SQL Database
o C) SQL Server on Virtual Machines
o D) SQL Developer
Answer: D) SQL Developer
12. What does Azure SQL Managed Instance provide?
o A) Full control over the operating system
o B) An instance of SQL Server with reduced management overhead
o C) Only a database with no instance features
o D) A serverless database option
Answer: B) An instance of SQL Server with reduced management overhead
13. Which Azure SQL Database feature allows for unlimited storage?
o A) SQL Managed Instance
o B) SQL Server on Virtual Machines
o C) Hyperscale
o D) Elastic database pools
Answer: C) Hyperscale
14. What is the primary mechanism for interacting with an RDBMS?
o A) PL/SQL
o B) SQL
o C) T-SQL
o D) XML
Answer: B) SQL
15. In SQL, which clause is used to restrict the results returned by a query?
oA) HAVING
oB) LIMIT
oC) WHERE
oD) SELECT
Answer: C) WHERE
16. Who proposed the concept of Relational Database Management Systems (RDBMS)?
 Bill Gates
 Larry Page
 E.F. Codd
 Jeff Bezos
Answer: 3) E.F. Codd
2. Which of the following is not an example of an RDBMS?
1) MS SQL
2) MySQL
3) MS Access
4) MongoDB
Answer: 4) MongoDB
3. In an RDBMS, how is data primarily organized?
1) Graphs
2) Tables
3) JSON documents
4) Key-value pairs
Answer: 2) Tables
4. What is a row in a relational database commonly called?
1) Field
2) Tuple
3) Attribute
4) Index
Answer: 2) Tuple
5. Which key uniquely identifies a record in a table?
1) Composite Key
2) Foreign Key
3) Primary Key
4) Candidate Key
Answer: 3) Primary Key
6. Which of the following is used to reference records across tables?
1) Primary Key
2) Foreign Key
3) Composite Key
4) Index
Answer: 2) Foreign Key
7. What is the primary language used to interact with relational databases?
1) NoSQL
2) SQL
3) HTML
4) Python
Answer: 2) SQL
8. What does the 'I' in ACID transactions stand for?
1) Isolation
2) Integrity
3) Inference
4) Incremental
Answer: 1) Isolation
9. Which SQL clause is used to retrieve data from a database?
1) SELECT
2) INSERT
3) DELETE
4) UPDATE
Answer: 1) SELECT
10. Which normal form ensures that there is no repeating groups in a table?
1) 1NF
2) 2NF
3) 3NF
4) BCNF
Answer: 1) 1NF
11. What is the primary goal of database normalization?
1) Increase redundancy
2) Minimize redundancy
3) Increase table size
4) None of the above
Answer: 2) Minimize redundancy
12. What is the term used when a primary key is made up of multiple fields?
1) Composite Key
2) Primary Key
3) Foreign Key
4) Clustered Key
Answer: 1) Composite Key
13. Which of the following is a PaaS solution in Azure SQL?
1) SQL Server on Virtual Machines
2) Azure SQL Managed Instance
3) On-premise SQL Server
4) Oracle SQL
Answer: 2) Azure SQL Managed Instance
14. Which SQL clause is used to combine rows from two or more tables?
1) WHERE
2) JOIN
3) ORDER BY
4) GROUP BY
Answer: 2) JOIN
15. Which deployment option is suitable for using SQL Server in Azure with minimal
migration changes?
1) SQL Server on Azure VM
2) Azure SQL Database
3) Azure SQL Managed Instance
4) MySQL
Answer: 1) SQL Server on Azure VM
16. What is the purpose of the SQL INSERT command?
1) Retrieve data
2) Modify existing records
3) Remove records
4) Add new records
Answer: 4) Add new records
17. Which Azure SQL option allows for elastic pools to manage multiple databases?
1) SQL Server on VM
2) Azure SQL Database
3) Elastic database pools
4) SQL Managed Instance
Answer: 3) Elastic database pools
18. What type of SQL clause restricts the results of a query to specific rows?
1) LIMIT
2) SELECT
3) WHERE
4) ORDER BY
Answer: 3) WHERE
19. What is the result of the SQL DISTINCT clause?
1) Remove duplicate rows
2) Remove columns
3) Sort the results
4) Group the results
Answer: 1) Remove duplicate rows
20. Which SQL clause is used to aggregate data across multiple records?
1) SELECT
2) INSERT
3) GROUP BY
4) JOIN
Answer: 3) GROUP BY
21. What is the main benefit of using Azure SQL Database as PaaS?
1) Manual database management
2) Built-in high availability
3) Costlier than on-prem solutions
4) No scalability options
Answer: 2) Built-in high availability
22. What type of key is used to link two tables?
1) Primary Key
2) Foreign Key
3) Composite Key
4) Super Key
Answer: 2) Foreign Key
23. Which clause is used to sort the result set of a query by a specified column?
1) GROUP BY
2) ORDER BY
3) HAVING
4) JOIN
Answer: 2) ORDER BY
24. What is the highest level of normalization typically used?
1) 1NF
2) 2NF
3) 3NF
4) BCNF
Answer: 3) 3NF
25. In Azure, what feature allows multiple databases to share resources?
1) Elastic pools
2) Managed Instance
3) SQL Server VM
4) Serverless
Answer: 1) Elastic pools