Mark Scheme (Results)

Summer 2021

Pearson Edexcel International GCSE

History (4HI1/1B)

Paper 1: Depth Studies

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Summer 2021
Question Paper Log Number 69368
Publications Code 4HI1_1B_rms_20210604
All the material in this publication is copyright
© Pearson Education Ltd 2021
General Marking Guidance

• All candidates must receive the same treatment. Examiners

must mark the first candidate in exactly the same way as they
mark the last.
• Mark schemes should be applied positively. Candidates must
be rewarded for what they have shown they can do rather than
penalised for omissions.
• Examiners should mark according to the mark scheme not
according to their perception of where the grade boundaries
may lie.
• There is no ceiling on achievement. All marks on the mark
scheme should be used appropriately.
• All the marks on the mark scheme are designed to be awarded.
Examiners should always award full marks if deserved, i.e. if
the answer matches the mark scheme. Examiners should also
be prepared to award zero marks if the candidate’s response
is not worthy of credit according to the mark scheme.
• Where some judgement is required, mark schemes will
provide the principles by which marks will be awarded and
exemplification may be limited.
• When examiners are in doubt regarding the application of the
mark scheme to a candidate’s response, the team leader must
be consulted.
• Crossed out work should be marked UNLESS the candidate has
replaced it with an alternative response.
 Generic level descriptors for Paper 1
Question (a)

Target: AO4 (6 marks): Analyse and evaluate historical interpretations in the

context of historical events studied.

Level Mark Descriptor

0 No rewardable material.

1 1–2 • Simple, valid comment is offered about an impression.

or
• Simple comprehension of the extract is shown by the selection or
paraphrase of some content to imply an impression.

2 3–4 • Answer offers valid comment that infers an impression.

Comprehension and some analysis of the extract is shown by
selecting material to support the inference.

3
5-6
• Answer explains the impression given, analysing the author’s
selection and treatment of material in the extract to support the
explanation.
Question (b)

Targets: AO1 (4 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of the key features
and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (4 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about historical events
and periods studied using second-order historical concepts.

Level Mark Descriptor

0 No rewardable material.

1 1–2 • Simple comment is offered about consequence(s). [AO2]

• Generalised information about the topic is included, showing limited

knowledge and understanding of the period. [AO1]

2 3-5 • Features of the period are analysed to explain consequences. [AO2]

• Specific information about the topic is added to support the

explanation. [AO1]

Maximum 4 marks for an answer dealing with only one

consequence.

6-8
3
• Features of the period are analysed to explain consequences and to
show how they led to the outcome. [AO2]

• Accurate and relevant information is included to support the

explanation, showing good knowledge and understanding of the
required features or characteristics of the period studied. [AO1]

No access to Level 3 for an answer dealing with only one

consequence.
Question (c)

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of the key features
and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about historical events
and periods studied using second-order historical concepts.

Level Mark Descriptor

0 No rewardable material.

1 1–4 • A simple of generalised answer is given, lacking development and

organisation. [AO2]

• Limited knowledge of the topic is shown. [AO1]

• The overall judgement is missing or asserted. [AO2]

2 5-8 • An explanation is given, showing limited analysis and with implicit

links to the conceptual focus of the question. It shows some
development and organisation of material but a line of reasoning is
not sustained. [AO2]

• Accurate and relevant information is added, showing some

knowledge and understanding of the period. [AO1]

• The overall judgement is given but its justification is asserted or

insecure. [AO2]

Maximum 6 marks for Level 2 answers that do not go beyond

aspects prompted by the stimulus points.

3
9-12
• An explanation is given, showing some analysis that is mainly
directed at the conceptual focus of the question. It shows a line of
reasoning that is generally sustained, although some passages may
lack coherence and organisation. [AO2]

• Accurate and relevant information is included, showing good

knowledge and understanding of the required features or
characteristics of the period studied. [AO1]

• The overall judgement is given with some justification, but some

criteria selected for the required judgement are left implicit or not
validly applied.[AO2]

Maximum 10 marks for Level 3 answers that do not go beyond

aspects prompted by the stimulus points.
4
13-16
• An analytical explanation is given that is directed consistently at
the conceptual focus of the question, showing a line of reasoning
that is coherent, sustained and logically structured. [AO2]

• Accurate and relevant information is precisely selected to address the

question directly, showing wide-ranging knowledge and
understanding of the required features or characteristics of the period
studied. [AO1]

• Criteria for the required judgement are justified and applied in the
process of reaching the overall judgement. [AO2]

No access to Level 4 for answers that do not go beyond aspects

prompted by the stimulus points.
Question Mark scheme

1 (a)
What impression does the author give about the influence of
the Enlightenment in France?

You must use Extract A to explain your answer.

Target: AO4 (6 marks) Analyse and evaluate historical interpretations in

the context of historical events studied.

Marking instructions

Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to

the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points may include:
The author gives the impression that the Enlightenment had a major impact in France.

This is shown by the following:

• The extract says ‘This type of thinking strengthened the demand for
revolutionary change’
• The language the author uses, including ‘destroy’, ‘challenge the Church’
• The author has selected evidence that is focused on the significance of the
Enlightenment’s role in France rather than its limitations, e.g. the lack of
influence on the peasantry.
Question Mark scheme

1 (b)
Explain two effects of the actions of Robespierre on the
French Revolution in the years 1792-94.

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Maximum 4 marks for an answer dealing with only once consequence.

Indicative content
Relevant points may include:
• During the Terror Robespierre played a major role in the fall of the Girondins
as counter-revolutionaries and had many imprisoned and executed
• Robespierre was influential in the Committee of Public Safety, which directed
the Terror, and co-ordinated the war effort inside and outside France
• The Terror became his personal policy as he saw treason everywhere, which
resulted in death without trial for many people.
Question Mark scheme

1 (c) (i)
‘In the years 1787-89, the main short-term cause of the
French Revolution was the storming of the Bastille.’

You may use the following in your answer:

• the storming of the Bastille
• the policies of Calonne.

You must also use information of your own

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order historical
concepts.

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.
The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.
Indicative content
Relevant points which support the statement may include:
• The storming of the Bastille was a cause of the Revolution because it enhanced
the power of the sans-culottes, who became the driving force behind the
Revolution
• The storming of the Bastille led to Louis XVI losing control of Paris and, rather
than dissolve the National Assembly, which he had been planning, he was forced
to share his power with them
• The rioters at the storming of the Bastille were supported by a number of those
responsible for the maintenance of law and order, e.g. lower ranks of the Paris
garrison and the Paris police, and this weakened the authority of the King
• The storming of the Bastille showed the weakness of authority and the power of
the mob which forced the King to abolish the feudal system and accept
constitutional change.
Relevant points which counter the statement may include:
• Finance Minister Calonne attempted to extend taxes to the nobility and clergy,
who resented it, and protests in the parlements in many ways triggered the
Revolution of 1789
• The Tennis Court Oath led to deputies from both the First and Second Estates
joining the National Assembly, and popular opinion in Paris turned against the
ancien régime
• The uprisings that became known as The Great Fear were widespread and forced
the Assembly to abolish the feudal system, signalling the end of the ancien régime
• The setting up of the National Assembly and its actions were the start of the
French Revolution.
Question Mark scheme

1 (c) (ii)
‘The main problem facing the Directory, in the years 1795-
99, was economic difficulties.’
How far do you agree? Explain your answer.

You may use the following in your answer:

• economic difficulties
• the White Terror.

You must also use information of your own.

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order historical
concepts.
Question Mark scheme

2 (a)
What impression does the author give about the unification of
Italy in 1870?

You must use Extract B to explain your answer.

Target: AO4 (6 marks) Analyse and evaluate historical interpretations in

the context of historical events studied.

Marking instructions

Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to

the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points may include:
The author gives the impression that the unification of Italy in 1870 had not been
successful.

This is shown by the following:

• The extract says ‘many significant issues facing Italy had still not been
solved’
• The language the author uses, including ‘the divisions’, ‘made worse’
• The author has selected evidence that is focused on the lack of success that
unification had for Italy and does not include aspects such as it removed
Austrian domination and satisfied the aspirations of Piedmont.
Question Mark scheme

2 (b)
Explain two effects of the 1848 Revolutions on Italy
in the years 1848-49.

Targets: AO1 (4 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (4 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order
historical concepts (consequence).

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Maximum 4 marks for an answer dealing with only once consequence.

Indicative content
Relevant points may include:
• The 1848 Revolutions highlighted the weakness of Mazzinian tactics, the limited
support for revolution and the unlikelihood that a ‘people’s war’ would unify Italy
• The 1848 Revolutions led to many looking to Piedmont, with its liberal constitution and
modernising economy, as the leader of Italian unity
• The 1848 Revolutions demonstrated to many that Italian unity would only be achieved
through the removal of foreign dominance, and this would only be achieved with
outside support.
Question Mark scheme

2 (c) (i) ‘The Pact of Plombières was the most significant turning
point on the way to Italian Unification in the years 1854-
59.’
How far do you agree? Explain your answer.

You may use the following in your answer:

• the Pact of Plombières (1858)

• the Treaty of Villafranca (1859).

You must also use information of your own

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order historical
concepts.

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points which support the statement may include:
• The Pact of Plombières was a significant turning point because it was agreed that
France would join Piedmont in a war against Austria, to drive Austria and its
dominance out of Italy
• The Pact of Plombières was a significant turning point because it agreed to the
idea of the creation of a Kingdom of Upper Italy
• The Pact of Plombières was a significant turning point, as in return for the support
of 200,000 French troops, Piedmont agreed to cede Savoy to France, as the
majority of the population was French speaking
• The Pact of Plombières was a significant turning point because it agreed that a
Kingdom of Central Italy would be under the control of Tuscany, thereby creating
a further area of unified Italy.

Relevant points which counter the statement may include:

• The Treaty of Villafranca was a significant turning point as Austria agreed to give
Lombardy to France, weakening Austrian influence
• The battles of Solferino and Magenta were significant turning points as French and
Piedmontese armies defeated the Austrians which weakened Austria’s grip on
Northern Italy
• The Crimean war was a significant turning point as it isolated Austria and allowed
Piedmont to increasingly control the direction of Italian unity
• The intervention of Britain and France in Crimea was a significant turning point as
they were no longer sympathetic to Austria’s power in Northern Italy and its
influence over the whole of the peninsula.
Question Mark scheme

2 (c) (ii) ‘The actions of Garibaldi were the main reason for the establishment of the
Kingdom of Italy in 1861.’
How far do you agree? Explain your answer.

You may use the following in your answer:

• Garibaldi’s actions

• Victor Emmanuel II.

You must also use information of your own.

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order historical
concepts.

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points which support the statement may include:
• Garibaldi organised ‘The Thousand’ to help Sicilian revolutionaries in their
insurrection and claimed that he was going to liberate and unify Italy
• Garibaldi’s tactics proved decisive at the Battle of Calatafimi and the taking of
Palermo secured the conquest of Sicily in the name of Italian unification
• Garibaldi’s took Naples without a fight and arrived to a hero’s welcome, which
forced Cavour to consider action against the Papal States
• Garibaldi’s defeat of the Neapolitan army opened the way to amalgamate fighting
forces in the name of Victor Emmanuel and Italian unification.
Relevant points which counter the statement may include:
• Cavour isolated Garibaldi by using popular support gained in plebiscites in Sicily
and Naples, which confirmed their annexation into the Kingdom of Italy
• The rising in Palermo, Sicily, in 1860, was the work of Mazzinian Republicans and
their role was significant in the establishment of the Kingdom of Italy
• Victor Emmanuel made a triumphal entry into Naples and this assisted in the
establishment of the Kingdom of Italy
• The influence of France and Britain was significant in the establishment of the
Kingdom of Italy.
Question Mark scheme

3 (a)
What impression does the author give about Nazi policies
towards women in employment?

You must use Extract C to explain your answer.

Target: AO4 (6 marks) Analyse and evaluate historical interpretations in

the context of historical events studied.

Marking instructions

Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to

the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Indicative content
The author gives the impression that Nazi policies towards women were unsuccessful in
removing them from work.

This is shown by the following:

• The extract says ‘to force all women back into the home was weak and was not
achieved’
• The language the author uses, including ‘significantly increased’, ‘half-hearted’.
• The author has selected evidence that is focused on the unsuccessful nature of the
policies and ignored the fact that they did remove many professional females from
work, e.g. teachers, civil servants and lawyers.
Question Mark scheme

3 (b) Explain two effects of Allied bombing on Germany during the Second
World War.

Targets: AO1 (4 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (4 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order
historical concepts (consequence).

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Maximum 4 marks for an answer dealing with only once consequence.

Indicative content
Relevant points may include:
• The bombing campaigns had an effect on industrial production, e.g. vital aircraft
and tank production decreased by one-third
• The bombing campaigns had an effect on civilians, e.g. resulted in the deaths of
over 300,000 Germans and 800,000 wounded, with 20% of housing destroyed
• The bombing campaigns had an impact on morale, e.g. work absenteeism grew,
as did cynicism and lack of confidence in an eventual German victory.
Question Mark scheme

3 (c) (i)
‘Hyperinflation was the main reason why the Weimar
Republic was weak in the years 1919-23.’
How far do you agree? Explain your answer.
You may use the following in your answer:
• hyperinflation
• the Weimar Constitution.

You must also use information of your own

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order historical
concepts.

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.
The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points which support the statement may include:
• Hyperinflation weakened the Weimar Republic because, as the mark became
worthless, people with savings and those on fixed incomes found themselves
penniless and blamed Weimar politicians
• Hyperinflation led the Weimar Republic to print more money, which destroyed
confidence in the mark and, as a consequence, people turned to bartering goods,
which damaged the government’s financial standing
• Hyperinflation led to farmers being reluctant to sell food, which led to food
shortages and a rise in the price of necessities, which were all blamed on the
Weimar Republic’s mis-handling of the economy
• Hyperinflation had a direct effect on Germany’s ability to pay reparations, which
led to the French invasion of the Ruhr and this fuelled nationalist agitation against
the Weimar Republic.
Relevant points which counter the statement may include:
• The Constitution used proportional representation to create a multi-party system,
which meant the Republic was ruled by weak coalition governments
• The Weimar Republic was weak due to the impact of the Treaty of Versailles and
its acceptance of it, and the view that Weimar politicians were the ‘November
criminals’
• The Weimar Republic was unstable due to threats from the left, e.g. the
Spartacists
• The Weimar Republic was unstable due to threats from the right, e.g. the Kapp
Putsch, the Munich Putsch.
Question Mark scheme

3 (c) (ii)
‘The main impact of the Great Depression on Germany, in
the years 1929-33, was economic problems.’
How far do you agree? Explain your answer.

You may use the following in your answer:

• economic problems
• support for the Communist Party.

You must also use information of your own.

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of
the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order historical
concepts.

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.
The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.
Indicative content
Relevant points which support the statement may include:
• The Great Depression led to a significant rise in unemployment, e.g. in 1929 it had
been 1.3 million and by 1933 it was 6 million, which led to an increase in poverty
• The Great Depression made it difficult for the German government to borrow
money, e.g. German investors were unable or reluctant to lend and foreign
investors insisted on terms that were unacceptable as they were too costly
• The Great Depression caused many German banks to go bankrupt, e.g. people
rushed to withdraw their cash causing banks to run out of cash
• The Great Depression led to an ever-increasing fall in German industrial
production reaching 40% by 1933, which led to business closure and
unemployment.
Relevant points which counter the statement may include:
• The Great Depression led to increased support for the Communist Party (KPD),
which saw it increase its number of seats in the Reichstag from 77 in 1930 to 100
in 1932
• The Great Depression led to the collapse of Brüning’s coalition government as
policies such as raising taxes and reducing unemployment did not command
support and he had to rely on Presidential decree
• The Great Depression benefitted the Nazis as they used political rallies to
demonstrate that they had a strong leader and had answers to Germany’s
economic chaos, which was reflected in electoral success
• The Great Depression gave the Nazis the opportunity to use propaganda in order
to gain working and middle class support, e.g. posters promised the workers
‘Work and Bread’ and the middle classes protection against communism.
Question Mark scheme

4 (a)
What impression does the author give about India in
1919?

You must use Extract D to explain your answer.

Target: AO4 (6 marks) Analyse and evaluate historical interpretations in

the context of historical events studied.

Marking instructions

Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to

the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Indicative content
The author gives the impression that India in 1919 was facing severe difficulties.

This is shown by the following:

• The extract says ‘India contributed a staggering £146 million to the war’
• The language used by the author, including ‘significantly increased taxation’, ‘struggle’
• The author has selected the evidence to show the costly effects of India’s involvement
in the war and has ignored the fact that Indian industries, e.g. cotton, iron and steel,
sugar, benefitted and expanded enormously.
Question Mark scheme

4 (b)
Explain two effects of Gandhi’s Satyagraha Campaign on
nationalism in India in the 1920s.

Targets: AO1 (4 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (4 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order
historical concepts (consequence).

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Maximum 4 marks for an answer dealing with only once consequence.

Indicative content
Relevant points may include:
• Satyagraha saw students boycotting their examinations, which hampered the
governmental administration of the Raj
• Satyagraha saw Indians refusing to pay taxes, which undermined the Raj and
strengthened the impact of Indian nationalism
• Satyagraha saw 90 per cent of qualified voters staying away from the 1920 elections,
and very few Indians being present at official Raj ceremonies.
Question Mark scheme

4 (c) (i)
‘It was the Round Table Conferences that had the most
significant impact on British rule in India in the years 1930-37.’
How far do you agree? Explain your answer.
You may use the following in your answer:
• the Round Table Conferences
• Gandhi’s Salt March.

You must also use information of your own

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order historical
concepts.

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points which support the statement may include:
• The First Round Table Conference had a broad range of Indian political opinion
present, made progress and decided India would be run as a federation, which had
an impact on British rule
• The First Round Table Conference decided that there would be Indian participation
in all levels of government, a development that weakened British rule and led to
preparation for future independence
• The impact of Gandhi’s attendance at the Second Round Table Conference where
he represented Congress and Indian national unity, signified Britain’s willingness
to seek an agreement.
Relevant points which counter the statement may include:
• The Salt March led to Indian peasants following Gandhi’s advice by breaking the
law to collect salt and this was a direct challenge to British rule
• The Salt March led to hundreds of peasants being arrested and imprisoned and
this was seen as unjust and further evidence of harsh British rule
• The Government of India Act (1935) divided India into 11 provinces, which would
control all aspects of Indian life and this lessened Britain’s grip on India
• The Government of India Act (1935) abolished the Dyarchy and gave each
province a legislative assembly, which weakened Britain’s governmental grip on
India
• The issues between the Hindus and the Muslims led to increasing communal
violence, which both weakened British rule and increased Britain’s desire to leave.
Question Mark scheme

4 (c) (ii)
‘The main reason India was partitioned was the attitude of
the British Labour Government.’
How far do you agree? Explain your answer.
You may use the following in your answer:
• the British Labour Government
• communal violence.
You must also use information of your own.

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order historical
concepts.

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.
Indicative content
Relevant points which support the statement may include:
• The new Labour Government under Attlee were disposed to favour partition,
particularly in the light of developments in India
• The Labour Government appointed Mountbatten as Viceroy and accepted his
assessment that partition could not be avoided
• The Labour Government approved the plan for partition, along with parliamentary
approval, on 15 July 1947, and announced that by 15 August 1947, two separate
dominions of India and Pakistan would be created in the India sub-continent.
Relevant points which counter the statement may include:
• In 1946, violence broke out between Hindus and Muslims, e.g. 5000 Muslims were
killed in Calcutta, and Muslims slaughtered Hindus in Bengal. The scale of this
communal violence strengthened the idea of partition as a solution
• The increased rivalry between Muslims and Hindus was reflected in relations
between Congress and the Muslim League and made it difficult to find a solution
other than partition
• Partition became more likely because the Princely States supported it by acceding
to either India or Pakistan, depending on which state they were nearer
• The role played by Jinnah in leading the Muslim League, with its demand for a
separate Pakistan, meant that an independent India in itself was not enough and
partition was required
• The work of the Boundary Commission was significant in enabling partition to
become a reality, as it drew a boundary that, as far as possible, ensured that
Hindus and Muslims were accommodated in separate states.
Question
5 (a) What impression does the author give about conditions in the gulag
camps?

You must use Extract E to explain your answer.

Target: AO4 (6 marks) Analyse and evaluate historical interpretations in

the context of historical events studied.

Marking instructions

Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to

the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points may include:
The author gives the impression that conditions were terrible.

This is shown by the following:

• The extract says that the temperatures were extremely low, and that it was a struggle
to survive
• The language used by the author, including ‘inhospitable’, ‘constant struggle’ and
‘Countless evil acts’
• The author has selected evidence to show the harsh conditions and has not included
how conditions improved under Beria.
Question
5 (b) Explain two effects of collectivisation on the Soviet Union.

Targets: AO1 (4 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (4 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order
historical concepts (consequence).

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Maximum 4 marks for an answer dealing with only one consequence.

Indicative content
Relevant points may include:
• Collectivisation led to millions of kulaks being imprisoned, executed or sent to work in
the factories
• Collectivisation increased Stalin’s control of the countryside, as Soviet farms were
joined together in collectives
• Collectivisation caused a major famine, e.g. in the Ukraine over six million died as a
result of collectivisation.
Question
5 (c) (i) ‘The main reason for Stalin’s success in the leadership struggle of
1924-29 was the weaknesses of his opponents.’
How far do you agree? Explain your answer.

You may use the following in your answer:

• the weaknesses of his opponents
• Stalin’s position within the Communist Party.
You must also use information of your own

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding

of
the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order
historical concepts.
Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.
The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points which support the statement may include:
• Trotsky’s Jewish origins and his late conversion to Bolshevism counted against him,
and Trotsky made little effort to build a broad support base within the Communist
Party
• Zinoviev had significant weaknesses that limited support for him within the Party,
including his naked ambition and his previous disagreements with Lenin
• Other potential candidates had significant weaknesses, e.g. Lenin had raised doubts
over the extent to which Bukharin’s views were truly Marxist, whilst Kamenev was
regarded as an overly cautious compromiser and an uninspiring public speaker
• Stalin’s opponents made significant mistakes, e.g. the decision not to publish Lenin’s
testimony, which would have significantly weakened Stalin’s claims to be Lenin’s
chosen successor, or their dismissive references to him as ‘comrade-card index’.
Relevant points which counter the statement may include:
• Stalin used clever tactics to undermine his opponents, e.g. misleading Trotsky over
Lenin’s funeral
• Stalin’s opponents had considerable strengths, e.g. Zinoviev’s position as President of
the Comintern had given him international prestige, and Bukharin held the significant
position of editor of Pravda, and had been named by Lenin as a favourite
• Stalin held significant positions within the Communist Party, most notably that of
General Secretary, which gave him a strong power base, such as the loyalty owed to
him by the wave of recruits who had joined in the mid-1920s
• As General Secretary, Stalin was able to play off his rivals against each other,
especially Kamenev, Zinoviev, Bukharin and Trotsky, until he had eventually removed
each of them.
Question
5 (c) (ii) ‘The setbacks of 1941-42 were the most significant feature of the
Second World War in the Soviet Union.’
How far do you agree? Explain your answer.

You may use the following in your answer:

• the setbacks of 1941-42
• Stalingrad.
You must also use information of your own.

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order historical
concepts.

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to the
qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark scheme.
The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include all
the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested below must
also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points which support the statement may include:
• The German invasion brought major disarray, e.g. the initial months saw Kiev and
600,000 troops lost in the south, with key cities such as Leningrad besieged in the north,
leading to hundreds of thousands of inhabitants experiencing extreme suffering
• Setbacks at the hands of the invading Germans were significant in terms of the threat they
posed to Soviet control over the population, e.g. Moscow saw looting and rioting, and
rumours spread that Stalin had been captured
• The German invasion was significant in terms of territory lost, as the Wehrmacht had
pushed 650 miles into central Russia within months, was within reach of Moscow and saw
partial and even complete destruction of hundreds of towns and cities
• The setbacks were significant in terms of the loss of military capacity, e.g. it cost the
Soviet Union its entire air and tank force, with 7,000 aircraft and 18,000 tanks lost in
three months, and over 3 million casualties.
Relevant points which counter the statement may include:
• Stalingrad lasted for much of 1942-43, and was the largest single battle of the Second
World War, and marked a turning point, ending the German advance, securing vital
communications and draining the strength of the German army
• The response of the Soviet people in the defence of ‘Mother Russia’ in a ‘Great Patriotic
War’ - rather than in defence of the Soviet system - was a significant feature of the war,
contributing to the eventual success in driving back German forces
• A reduction in living standards was a major feature for Soviet civilians, e.g. consumer
living standards were reduced by 40 per cent of the pre-war level, with severe shortages
and hunger being a feature throughout the war
• Changes to working conditions was a major feature of wartime life, e.g. over half the
workforce was female, there was an increase in the proportion of farm labouring done by
hand, and factory shifts typically saw 12 to 18-hour shifts.
Question
6 (a) What impression does the author give about relations between the USA
and the Soviet Union after the Cuban Missile Crisis?

You must use Extract F to explain your answer.

Target: AO4 (6 marks) Analyse and evaluate historical interpretations in

the context of historical events studied.

Marking instructions

Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to

the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points may include:
The author gives the impression that relations between the USA and Soviet Union after
the Cuban Missile Crisis were positive.

This is shown by the following:

• The extract says that there was a ‘attempt to improve relations’
• The language used by the author, including ‘serious’, ‘always attempts’ and ‘genuine
willingness’
• The author has selected evidence to show the positive aspects of relations and has
not included evidence to show areas of tension, e.g. the Brezhnev Doctrine.
Question
6 (b) Explain two effects of Churchill’s ‘iron curtain’ speech on the
development of the Cold War in the 1940s.
Targets: AO1 (4 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of
the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (4 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order
historical concepts (consequence).

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Maximum 4 marks for an answer dealing with only one consequence.

Indicative content
Relevant points may include:
• Churchill’s speech had the effect of stirring Truman into taking a stronger ‘iron fist’
approach towards the Soviet Union
• The ‘iron curtain’ speech helped shift US public and political opinion, much of which
was still favourable towards the USSR, against Stalin and the Soviet Union, making it
easier for Truman to take a tougher stance
• Churchill’s words irked Stalin, who responded by calling Churchill a ‘warmonger’,
along with his ‘friends’ in Britain and the USA, and thus the speech contributed to
taking relations between East and West to a new low.
Question
6 (c) (i) ‘The most significant feature of the conferences in the years 1943-45
was disagreement over Poland.’
How far do you agree? Explain your answer.

You may use the following in your answer:

• disagreement over Poland
• tension between Stalin and Truman.
You must also use information of your own.

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order historical
concepts.

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.
The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested below
must also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points which support the statement may include:
• Significant tension over Poland between the allies was evident at the Tehran
Conference in 1943, e.g. the Katyn Forest massacre already discovered, and the British
in particular were wary of the intentions of the Soviets
• Stalin’s demands that the border with Poland be moved westward, along with the
presence of Soviet troops in Poland, was a source of tension at Yalta
• At Yalta, Stalin was adamant that Soviet interests in Poland be recognised; US officials
in FDR’s team were disgusted, seeing the promise of a ‘broadly based’ government as
paying lip service to notion of genuinely free future elections
• At Potsdam, it was evident that Stalin had broken the agreement to allow the creation
of a government of national unity in Poland.
Relevant points to counter the statement may include the following.
• Personal tension between Stalin and Truman at Potsdam was significant as Truman was
suspicious over Stalin and his motives, and in return Stalin was angered that Truman
had not consulted him over the USA’s testing of the atomic bomb
• Genuine positive relations between the allies was a key feature, e.g. collaboration
between the leaders at Tehran and Yalta, with a desire to work together to overcome
the Nazis and Japanese
• Tension over other issues was a significant feature, e.g. at Tehran there was tension
over the opening of a Second Front, and, at Potsdam, they disagreed over the
treatment of Germany
• Efforts to shape the post-war settlement were a significant feature of the conferences,
with discussion of issues such as the setting up of the United Nations Organisation,
establishment of UNO, or the punishment of war criminals.
Question
6 (c) (ii) ‘Developments in Hungary were the main reason for changing relations
between the Soviet Union and the Western powers in the 1950s.’
How far do you agree? Explain your answer.

You may use the following in your answer:

• Hungary
• the arms race.
You must also use information of your own

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order historical
concepts.

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to the
qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark scheme.
The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include all
the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested below must
also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points which support the statement may include:
• The early stages of the Hungarian uprising raised the possibility of Western intervention
within the Soviet sphere, e.g. Western radio broadcasts in Hungary and the US Secretary
of State Dulles seemed to offer encouragement to protesters
• The Soviet invasion of Hungary had a negative impact on support for communism within
Western nations, e.g. many members of communist parties in Western Europe resigned,
and c200,000 Hungarians subsequently went into exile
• The Soviet invasion demonstrated the limits of de-Stalinisation and peaceful coexistence,
limiting hopes of an easing of tension, contributing to the renewal of pressure seen with
the ultimatum over Berlin in the late 1950s.
Relevant points which counter the statement may include:
• Events in Hungary showed continuity, as the response to the Soviet invasion demonstrated
that the US accepted that existing communist nations within Eastern Europe were within a
Soviet sphere of influence in which it would not intervene
• The development of the arms race was significant in increasing tension, with both the USA
and USSR increasing military spending in the early 1950s, and both having developed
thermonuclear weapons by 1953
• The late 1950s saw an escalation in the arms race, with the USA seeing Soviet advances
such as Sputnik as a military threat, and thus increasing its spending on conventional
bombers and the development of missile technology
• The Korean War had a major impact on relations, as a major step in the spread of the Cold
War into Asia, and also demonstrated the potential of China and the role of organisations
such as the UNO
• There were significant developments in the military alliances during the 1950s, which had
wider implications for the Cold War, e.g. West Germany joining NATO raised concerns
within the Soviet Bloc, prompting the formation of the Warsaw Pact.
Question
7 (a) What impression does the author give about the impact of the race
riots? You must use Extract G to explain your answer.

Target: AO4 (6 marks) Analyse and evaluate historical interpretations in

the context of historical events studied.

Marking instructions

Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to

the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points may include:
The author gives the impression that the race riots had a very negative impact

• The extract says that significant damage was done, and that the riots frightened white
Americans
• The language used by the author, including ‘frightened’, ‘major riots’ and ‘no-go areas
for whites’
• The author has selected evidence to show the negative impact of the riots, and has
not included evidence to show the riots did prompt the authorities to consider the
need to tackle inequalities and injustices in these areas.
Question
7 (b) Explain two effects of the Montgomery Bus Boycott on civil rights in
the 1950s.

Targets: AO1 (4 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (4 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order
historical concepts (consequence).

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Maximum 4 marks for an answer dealing with only one consequence.

Indicative content
Relevant points may include:
• The Montgomery Bus Boycott ended segregation on buses in Montgomery, and thus
was an important step in challenging Jim Crow laws in the South
• The Montgomery Bus Boycott led to the creation of a grassroots African-American
organisation, the Montgomery Improvement Association, demonstrating that such
groups could be effective in achieving improvements in civil rights
• The Montgomery Bus Boycott had the effect of bringing Martin Luther King to national
prominence in the struggle for civil rights.
Question
7 (c) (i) ‘The main feature of the Red Scare was the false accusations
that were made.’
How far do you agree? Explain your answer.

You may use the following in your answer:

• false accusations
• opposition to McCarthy.
You must also use information of your own

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order historical
concepts.

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to the
qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark scheme.
The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include all
the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested below must
also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points which support the statement may include:
• The majority of those named by, and called to answer to, HUAC and McCarthy’s Senate
Subcommittee never faced charges or hard evidence of wrongdoing
• The ‘Hollywood Ten’ were blacklisted from work in the industry on the basis of a refusal to
answer questions on unsubstantiated accusations of being communist sympathisers, and a
further 300 artists were subsequently blacklisted
• Truman’s Loyalty Programme, under Executive Order 9835, saw thousands dismissed from
government work on suspicion rather than evidence, and the vast majority of these were
never charged with an offence.
Relevant points which counter the statement may include:
• The obvious excesses of the Red Scare saw a significant reaction against McCarthy, e.g.
media coverage of the Army-McCarthy hearings led to increased public opposition, and his
censure by the Senate in 1954
• The Red Scare served as a divisive political issue within US politics, e.g. anti-communist
attitudes and perceived weaknesses towards communist infiltration featured in election
campaigns in 1950 and 1952
• The Red Scare, and McCarthyism in particular, inflicted significant damage on the lives of
thousands of Americans, e.g. thousands lost their jobs
• As a result of anti-communist investigations, government departments were weakened, e.g.
the State Department lost significant capability when staff with expertise in communist
nations were removed for suspected communist activities or sympathies
• Actual convictions on the basis of substantiated communist activity resulted from the Red
Scare, e.g. the Rosenbergs were found guilty of genuine communist espionage.
Question
7 (c) (ii) ‘The main reason for the introduction of new laws to control US politics
in the 1970s was the Watergate scandal.’
How far do you agree? Explain your answer.

You may use the following in your answer:

• the Watergate scandal
• the Vietnam War.
You must also use information of your own.

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order historical
concepts.

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to the
qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark scheme.
The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include all
the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested below must
also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points which support the statement may include:
• The Watergate scandal increased Congressional control of the Executive and its agencies, as
Congress passed laws on freedom of information, openness in government and campaign
finance
• The introduction of the War Powers Act (1973) was prompted by the damage done to the
relationship between Executive and Legislature during the Watergate scandal
• The reform of the finance of election campaigns resulted from proposals put forward by the
committee established as a result of the Watergate scandal
• Amendments to the Freedom of Information Act and passing a Federal Privacy Act (1974)
were Congressional measures driven by a desire to provide greater protection to individuals
concerning information gathered about them as a result of the Watergate scandal
• With the presidency weakened by the Watergate scandal, Congress sought to reclaim
greater authority over the federal budget, passing the Congressional Budget Control Act of
1974.
Relevant points which counter the statement may include:
• The desire to control executive authority with regards to war, grew in Congress during the
Vietnam War, with the War Powers Act being directly prompted by the exposure of Nixon
having ordered secret bombings of Cambodia
• Concerns over the abuse of executive privilege led to new laws, e.g. Nixon’s attempts to
circumvent congressional authority had prompted Congress to act, such as his repeated
evasion of congressional requests for information on executive orders
• New laws arose for various reasons, many of which pre-dated Watergate, e.g. the Election
Campaign Act was in response to issues in the financing of the 1972 election, and the
Congressional Budget Control Act was in response to previous disputes over finance.
Question
8 (a) What impression does the author give about the case against those on
trial for treason?
You must use Extract H to explain your answer.

Target: AO4 (6 marks) Analyse and evaluate historical interpretations in

the context of historical events studied.

Marking instructions

Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to

the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points may include:
The author gives the impression that the case was weak

This is shown by the following:

• The extract says that all of those accused were released
• The language used by the author, including ‘lacked evidence’ and ‘unfairly accused’
• The author has selected evidence to show that the case was not substantiated by
evidence, but has not included evidence to show that some of those involved were
communists.
Question
8 (b) Explain two effects of the Bantu Education Act (1953) on South
Africa.
Targets: AO1 (4 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of
the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (4 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order
historical concepts (consequence).

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to
the qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark
scheme.

The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include
all the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested
below must also be credited.

Maximum 4 marks for an answer dealing with only one consequence.

Indicative content
Relevant points may include:
• The Bantu Education Act (1953) brought black education fully under the control of the
government
• The Act forced different standards on black and white schools, e.g. black pupils were
taught in ethnic languages, and prepared for more limited roles in life after school
• The Act extended education to all African children, increasing literacy and numeracy
levels.
Question
8 (c) (i) (i) ‘The main consequence of the Nationalist Party’s victory in the
1948 elections, in the years before 1953, was geographical
segregation.’
How far do you agree? Explain your answer.

You may use the following in your answer:

• geographical segregation
• prohibitions on mixed marriages.
You must also use information of your own

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order historical
concepts.

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to the
qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark scheme.
The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include all
the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested below must
also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points which support the statement may include:
• The Nationalist Party victory led to an increased emphasis on the notion of ‘separate
development’, which aimed to diminish the rights of non-whites in white-controlled
areas, alongside promising greater rights in self-governing areas
• The Nationalist victory led to the introduction of the Group Areas Act (1950), which
gave the authorities the power to declare areas as ‘white only’ and move blacks out of
chosen areas
• After victory in the 1948 election, the Nationalist Party sought to gain support for
geographical segregation from African chieftains, e.g. the Bantu Authorities Act
(1951) established the basis for tribal self-determination and reserves.
Relevant points which counter the statement may include:
• The Nationalist Party victory resulted in policies that were essentially built on existing
geographical segregation, making it more systematic
• As a result of the Nationalist victory, all South Africans were classified and forced to
register as members of a particular racial group – under the Population Registration
Act (1950)
• Relations between people of different races were forbidden as a result of the
Nationalist Party victory, with the introduction of the Prohibition of Mixed Marriages
Act (1949) and the Immorality Act (1950)
• Through the Abolition of Passes Act (1952), the Nationalist Party victory led to
increased restrictions on the movement and employment of black South Africans, also
resulting in increased friction between blacks and the police
• The Nationalist Party victory resulted in increased resistance to the South African
regime, e.g. the rise of the Youth Leaguers within the ANC, and the National Day of
Protest in 1950.
Question
8 (c) (ii) (ii) ‘The main reason why apartheid was reformed in the years
1978-91 was the roles of the individual presidents, PW Botha and FW
de Klerk.’
How far do you agree? Explain your answer.

You may use the following in your answer:

• PW Botha and FW de Klerk
• international opposition to apartheid.
You must also use information of your own

Targets: AO1 (7 marks) Demonstrate knowledge and understanding of

the key features and characteristics of the periods studied.

AO2 (9 marks) Explain, analyse and make judgements about

historical events and periods studied using second-order historical
concepts.

Marking instructions
Answers must be credited according to candidates’ deployment of material in relation to the
qualities outlined in the generic level descriptors, given at the beginning of this mark scheme.
The indicative content below is not prescriptive and candidates are not required to include all
the material which is indicated as relevant. Other relevant material not suggested below must
also be credited.

Indicative content
Relevant points which support the statement may include:
• Botha’s believed South Africa faced a ‘total onslaught’, and thus he brought reform as a
crucial aspect of his response as an attempt win internal support, e.g. allowing urban
blacks to buy property, or the relaxation of the colour bar and the Pass Laws
• Botha contributed to reform, as his leadership gave hope to anti-apartheid groups that the
government was weakening – they triggered protests in the mid-1980s, encouraged
radicals within the ANC and Inkatha, and new movements to form, such as the UDF
• De Klerk was significant as the first leader who accepted that apartheid would have to end
completely and be replaced by black majority rule, and so released Mandela and made the
ANC and other previously banned parties legal
• Building on previous secret talks with exiled leaders, de Klerk began formal negotiations
between the government and the ANC, and later through CODESA and other negotiations,
leading to the ratification of the new constitution in 1993.
Relevant points which counter the statement may include:
• International pressure and economic action against apartheid began prior to PW Botha’s
reforms, e.g. the impact of sanctions and disinvestment, weakened the economy and led
to elements of the government and white population recognising the need for change
• Church leaders were vocal opponents throughout the 1980s, encouraging opposition and
creating pressure for reform through leadership of groups such as the UDF, and activities
such as mass rallies
• Reform resulted from the obvious failings of apartheid, e.g. white South Africans came to
see the regime as unfeasible in the long-term, with growing awareness of problems in the
townships and the lack of legitimacy of black allies in government
• The ANC played a significant role in demonstrating peaceful transition could be possible,
e.g. it presented itself as a moderate party, absorbed many of the opposition supporters
from the disbanded groups such as the UDF, and worked closely with traditional leaders.
Pearson Education Limited. Registered company number 872828
with its registered office at 80 Strand, London, WC2R 0RL, United Kingdom