Yakeen NEET 2.

0 (2024)

PRACTICE TEST-02

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 09/07/2023 M. MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics : Unit and Dimensions and Motion in Straight Line.
Chemistry : Solution (Complete Chapter), States of Matter (Complete Chapter)
Biology : (Botany): Cell : The unit of life. and living world
(Zoology): Animal Tissue- 20%, Breathing and exchange of gases- 50%, Body fluids and Circulation
upto Blood- 30%

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each subject is
divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions all compulsory) and Section B consisting 15
Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A (1) The unit of ct is same as that of 
1. If density D, frequency F and velocity V are taken (2) The unit of x is same as that of 
as fundamental quantities then the dimensional 2c 2x
(3) The unit of is same as that of
formula for kinetic energy should be  t
(1) [DF –3V5] (2) [D–2 F2 V–3] c x
–3 5
(3) [D F V] (4) [DFV–3] (4) The unit of is same as that of
 
2. The motion of a particle along a straight line is
described by equation x = 8 + 12t – t3, where x is   − t2
9. The dimensions of in the equation F = ,
in metre and t in second. The retardation of the  v 2
particle when its velocity becomes zero is where F is the force, v is velocity and t is time, is
(1) 6 ms–2 (2) 12 ms–2 (1) [MLT–1]
–2
(3) 24 ms (4) Zero (2) [ML–1T–2]
(3) [ML3T–4]
3. The distance travelled by a particle starting from (4) [ML2T–4]
4
rest and moving with an acceleration ms–2 in the
3 10. A car travels from A to B at a speed of 40 km h–1
third second is and returns back on the same track at a speed of 60
19 km h–1. Average velocity will be
(1) m (2) 6 m
3 (1) 60 km h–1 (2) Zero
–1
10 (3) 48 km h (4) 50 km h–1
(3) 4 m (4) m
3
11. An athlete completes one round of a circular track
4. If energy (E), velocity (V) and time (T) are chosen of radius R in 20 s with constant speed. What will
as the fundamental quantities, the dimensional be his displacement at the end of 1 minute
formula of surface tension will be 10 second?
(1) [E–2 V–1 T–3] (2) [E V–2 T–1] (1) Zero (2) 2R
–1 –2
(3) [E V T ] (4) [E V–2 T–2] (3) 2R (4) 7R

5. The dimensions of (µ00)–1/2 are 12. The numerical ratio of displacement to the distance
(1) [L–1/2 T1/2] (2) [L1/2 T–1/2] covered is always
–1
(3) [L T] (4) [L T–1] (1) < 1 (2) = 1
(3) 1 (4)  1
6. The speed-time graph of a particle moving along a
solid curve is shown below. The distance traversed 13. The position of a body moving in a straight line is
by the particle from t = 0 to t = 3 is x = (2t2 + 2t + 9), where x is in metre and t is in
 dx 
second. The velocity v  v =  of the body at
 dt 
t = 1 s is
(1) 6 m/s (2) 8 m/s
(3) 4 m/s (4) 2 m/s

9 9 14. The position of a particle moving along the y-axis

(1) m (2) m
2 4 is given as y = 3t – t2, where y is in metre and t is
10 10 in second. The time when the particle attains
(3) m (4) m maximum position in positive y direction will be
3 5
(1) 1.5 s (2) 4 s
7. What are the dimensions of the change in velocity? (3) 2 s (4) 3 s
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [LT–1]
(3) [MLT ]–1
(4) [LT–2] 15. Motion of a particle is given by equation
s =(3t3 + 7t2 +14t + 8)m
8. The equation of a stationary wave is The value of acceleration of the particle at t = 1s is
(1) 10 m/s2 (2) 32 m/s2
 2ct   2x 
y = 2 Asin   cos   (3) 23 m/s 2
(4) 16 m/s2
     
Which of the following statements is incorrect?

[2]
16. If the initial speed of a particle is u and its
acceleration is given as a = At3, where A is
constant and t is time, then its final speed v will be
given as
At 4
(1) u + At 4 (2) u +
4 (1) 1.5 m/s2 (2) 1 m/s2
At 3 (3) 2 m/s2 (4) 2.5 m/s2
(3) u + At 3 (4) u +
3 23. A person travelling in a straight line moves with a
constant velocity v1 for certain distance ‘x’ and
17. Choose the correct statement. with a constant velocity v2 for next equal distance.
(1) Average velocity is a vector quantity The average velocity v is given by the relation
(2) Average speed does not have direction 1 1 1 2 1 1
(3) Distance covered cannot be less than the (1) = + (2) = +
magnitude of displacement v v1 v2 v v1 v2
(4) All of these v v1 + v2
(3) = (4) v = v1v2
2 2
18. Galileo’s law of odd numbers reflects that a
particle starting from rest with uniform 24. Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same
acceleration covers distance (in equal time time in a straight line and their positions are
intervals in straight line motion) in the ratio represented by xP(t) = at + bt2 and xQ(t) = ft – t2.
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 (2) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 At what time do the cars have the same velocity?
(3) 1 : 2 : 4 : 8 (4) 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 a− f a+ f
(1) (2)
19. If a particle is at rest then it
1+ b 2 ( b − 1)
(1) May be accelerated a+ f f −a
(3) (4)
(2) Must be accelerated 2 (1 + b ) 2 (1 + b )
(3) May not be accelerated
(4) Both (1) and (3) 25. A stone falls freely under gravity. It covers
distances h1, h2 and h3 in the first 5 seconds, the
20. A car moves from x to y with a uniform speed vu next 5 seconds and the next 5 seconds respectively.
and returns to y with a uniform speed vd. The The relation between h1, h2 and h3 is
average speed for this round trip is h h
v +v 2vu vd (1) h1 = 2 = 3
(1) u d (2) 3 5
2 vd + vu (2) h2 = 3h1 and h3 = 3h2
v + vu (3) h1 = h2 = h3
(3) vu vd (4) d
vd + vu (4) h1 = 2h2 = 3h3

26. If frictional force acting on a body is directly

21. Two graphs between velocity and time of particles
proportional to its velocity then the dimensional
A and B are given. The ratio of their acceleration
formula of constant of proportionality is
aA (1) [MLT–2] (2) [MLT–3]
is
aB (3) [MT ] –3
(4) [MT–1]

27. A particle shows distance-time curve as given in

this figure. The maximum instantaneous velocity
of the particle is around the point

3 1
(1) (2)
2 3
2
(3) 3 (4) (1) A (2) B
3
(3) C (4) D
22. Figure given below shows the graph of velocity v
28. The dimensional formula [ML–1T–2] is for the
of particle moving along x-axis as a function of
quantity
time t. Average acceleration during t = 1 s to
(1) Force (2) Acceleration
t = 7 s is
(3) Pressure (4) Work

[3]
29. Which of the following speed-time (v - t) graphs is SECTION - B
physically not possible? 36. A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of
water is h below the top of the well. If v is velocity
of sound, the time T after which the splash is heard
(1) (2)
is given by.
3h
(1) T=
v
h 2h
(3) (4) All of these (2) T= +
4g v
6h h
(3) T= +
30. Two bodies of different masses ma and mb and v 2g
dropped from two different heights, namely a and 2h h
b. The ratio of times taken by the two to drop (4) T = +
g v
through these distance is
(1) a : b
37. Which of the following velocity-time graph shows
ma b
(2) : a realistic situation for a body in motion?
mb a
(3) a: b (1) (2)
(4) a : b2
2

31. A rocket is fired vertically from the ground. It

moves upwards with a constant acceleration of (3) (4)
10 m/s2. After 30 seconds the fuel is finished.
After what time from the instant of firing the
rocket will it attain the maximum height? 38. The unit of “impulse per unit area” is same as that
g = 10 m/s2: of
(1) 60 s (2) 45 s (1) Coefficient Viscosity
(3) 90 s (4) 65 s (2) Surface tension
(3) Bulk modulus
32. A body moves along curved path of a quarter (4) Force
circle. The ratio of magnitude of displacement to
distance is: 39. The acceleration ‘a’ in m/s2 of a particle is given
  by a = 3t2 + 2t + 2 where t is the time. If the
(1) (2)
2 2 2 particle starts out with a velocity u = 2m/s at t = 0,
then the velocity at the end of 2 second is:
2 2 3
(3) (4) (1) 12 m/s (2) 18 m/s
 2 2 (3) 27 m/s (4) 36 m/s

33. The dimensions of potential energy of an object in 40. In a new system of units, unit of mass is x kg, unit
mass length and time are respectively of length is y metre and unit of time is z second.
(1) 2, 2, 1 (2) 1, 2, –2 Now if 1 newton = F new units then F =
(3) –2, 1, 2 (4) 1, –1, 2 z z2
(1) (2)
34. Which of the following graphs cannot possibly xy xy
represent one-dimensional motion of a particle ? z z
(3) 2
(4) 2
xy x y
(I) (II)
41. The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by
v = at + (b/(t + c)), where a, b and c are constants.
The dimensions of a, b and c are
(III) (IV) (1) L, LT and LT–2 (2) LT–2, L and T
(3) L2, T and LT2 (4) LT2, LT and L
(1) I and II (2) II and III
42. Which of the following practical units of length is
(3) II and IV (4) All of these
not correct?
(1) 1 fermi = 10–15 m
35. What is the dimension of surface tension?
(2) 1 astronomical unit = 1.496 × 1011 m
(1) [ML1T0] (2) [ML1T–1]
1 1 –2
(3) [M L T ] (4) [M1L0T–2] (3) 1 parsec = 3.26 light year
(4) 1 light year = 9.46 × 1012 m
[4]
43. Which of the following does not have dimensions (1) P2 + Q2 (2) PQ2
of force? (3) P2 – Q2 (4) 1 – P/Q
(1) Weight
(2) Rate of change of momentum 48. The density of a material in CGS system of units is
(3) Work per unit length 4 g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of
(4) Work done per unit charge length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, the value
of density of material will be
44. Which of the following physical quantities has (1) 400 (2) 0.04
derived unit? (3) 0.4 (4) 40
(1) Acceleration
(2) Mass 49. A particle starts from rest at t = 0 and moves in a
(3) Current straight line with an acceleration as shown below.
(4) Amount of substances The velocity of the particle at t = 3s is :

45. Acceleration of a particle varies with position (x)

as a = 2x. If particle starts from rest from x = 2m
then find its speed at x = 4m.
(1) 17m/s (2) 24m/s
(3) 12m/s (4) 10m/s (1) 2 ms–1 (2) 4 ms–1
(3) 6 ms–1 (4) 8 ms–1
46. A force F is given by F = at + bt2, where t is time.
What are the dimensions of a and b 50. An equation is given here (P + (a/V2)) = b(/V)
(1) MLT–3 and ML2T–4 where P = Pressure, V = Volume and  = Absolute
(2) MLT–3 and MLT–4 temperature. If a and b are constants, the
(3) MLT–1 and MLT0 dimensions of a will be
(4) MLT–4 and MLT1 (1) [ML–5T–1] (2) [ML5 T1]
(3) [ML5 T–2] (4) [M–1 L5T2]
47. If P and Q have different non-zero dimensions,
which of the following operation is possible:

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A 55. Hot air balloon technology is based on:
51. Ideal gas equation for one mole of an ideal gas: (1) Boyle’s law
(1) PV = nRT (2) PV = RT (2) Amonton’s law
(3) PV = 2RT (4) None of these (3) Charles’s law
(4) Avogadro’s law
52. Semipermeable membrane is that which permits
the passage of: 56. In cold countries, ethylene glycol is added to
(1) Solute molecules only water in the radiators of cars during winters. It
(2) Solvent molecules only results in:
(3) Solute and solvent molecules both (1) Lowering in boiling point
(4) Neither solute nor solvent molecules (2) Reducing viscosity
(3) Reducing specific heat
(4) Lowering in freezing point
53. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
gaseous state?
57. In Vander Wal’s equation, the constant ‘b’ is the
(1) Gases are highly incompressible. measure of:
(2) Gases exert pressure unequally in all direction. (1) Intermolecular collisions per unit volume
(3) Gases cannot mix evenly and completely in all (2) Intermolecular repulsions
proportions without any mechanical aid. (3) Intermolecular attraction
(4) All are incorrect. (4) Volume occupied by the molecules

54. Azeotropic mixture are: 58. The vapour pressure (VP) of a dilute solution of
(1) Constant temperature boiling mixture non-volatile solute is P and the VP of pure
(2) Those which boils at different temperatures solvent is P0, the lowering of the VP is:
(3) Mixture of two solids (1) +ve (2) –ve
(4) None of the above (3) P/P0 (4) P0/P

[5]
59. Real gases show same behaviour as that of an 67. If P, V, T represent pressure, volume and
ideal gas at: temperature of the gas, the correct representation
(1) High temperature and high pressure of Boyle’s law is:
(2) Low temperature and high pressure 1
(3) High temperature and low pressure (1) V  (at constant P)
T
(4) Low temperature and low pressure (2) PV = RT
(3) V  1/P (at constant T)
60. The concentration in gms per litre of a solution of
(4) PV = nRT
cane sugar (M = 342) which is isotonic with a
solution containing 6 gms of urea (M = 60) per
litre is: 68. The van’t Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous
(1) 3.42 (2) 34.2 solution of glucose is:
(3) 5.7 (4) 19 (1) zero (2) 1.0
(3) 1.5 (4) 2.0
61. The postulates of kinetic molecular theory of
gases include all those that follow, except: 69. At room temperature Dalton’s law of partial
(1) No forces exist between the gas molecules. pressure is not applicable to-
(2) Gas molecules are in random motion. (1) H2 and N2 mixture
(3) Gas molecules are repelled by the walls of (2) H2 and Cl2 mixture
container. (3) H2 and CO2 mixture
(4) Gas molecules are point masses. (4) None of these

62. A solution of sulphuric acid in water exhibits: 70. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is
(1) Negative deviations from Raoult’s law
equal to the ratio between the number of:
(2) Positive deviations from Raoult’s law
(1) Solute molecules to the solvent molecules.
(3) Ideal properties
(2) Solute molecules to the total molecules in the
(4) The applicability of Henry’s law
solutions.
(3) Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the
63. If the pressure of a gas increase up to nine times
keeping temperature constant, then its RMS solution.
velocity will become: (4) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions
(1) 3 times (2) 9 times of the solute.
1
(3) times (4) Remains the same 71. A gas ‘A’ having molecular weight 4, diffuses
3
thrice as fast as the gas B. The molecular weight
64. Boiling point of water is defined as the of gas B is-
temperature at which: (1) 36 (2) 12
(1) Vapour pressure of water becomes equal to (3) 18 (4) 24
that of atmospheric pressure
(2) Bubbles are formed 72. The partial vapour pressure of each component of
(3) Steam comes out the solution is directly proportional to its mole
(4) None of the above fraction present in solution. This is known as:
(1) Henry’s law (2) Raoult’s law
65. The critical temperature of a gas is related to van (3) Distribution law (4) Ostwald’s dilution law
der Waal’s constant as:
8a 27bR 73. The density of a gas is equal to? (P = pressure; V
(1) Tc = (2) Tc = = volume; T = temperature, R = gas constant, n =
27bR 8a
a number of moles and M = molecular wt.)-
(3) Tc = (4) Tc = 3b (1) nP (2) PM/RT
27b2
(3) P/RT (4) M/V

66. Which of the following is an example of a solid 74. The molarity of a glucose solution containing 36
solution? g of glucose per 400 mL of the solution is:
(1) O2 in N2 (2) Cu in Au (Gram molecular mass of glucose = 180 g)
(3) C6H12O6 in H2O (4) NaCl in H2O (1) 1.0 (2) 0.5
(3) 2.0 (4) 0.05

[6]
75. When the pressure of 5 L of N2 is doubled and its 83. In order to increases the volume of a gas by 10%
temperature is raised from 300 K to 600 K, the the pressure of the gas should be ______.
final volume of the gas would be- (1) Decreased by 10%
(1) 10 L (2) 5 L (2) Decreased by 1%
(3) 15 L (4) 20 L (3) increased by 10%
(4) increased by 1%
76. Sprinkling of salt helps in clearing the snow
covered roads in hills. The phenomenon involved 84. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the
in the process is: value of the molal depression constant ( Kf ) will
(1) Lowering in vapour pressure of snow be:
(2) Depression in Freezing point of snow (1) Halved (2) Tripled
(3) Melting of ice due to increase in temperature (3) Unchanged (4) Doubled
by porting salt
(4) Increase in Freezing point of snow
85. If the density of a gas A is 1.5 times that of B,
then the molecular mass of A is M. The
77. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation
molecular mass of B will be-
corresponds to ______.
(1) 1.5 M (2) M/1.5
(1) Density of the gas molecules.
(3) 3 M (4) M/3
(2) Volume of the gas molecules.
(3) Electric field present between the gas
SECTION - B
molecules.
86. Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol–1. If your
(4) Forces of attraction between the gas
molecules. automobile radiator holds 1.0 kg water, how
many grams of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) must
78. Isotonic solution have same- you add to get the freezing point of the solution
(1) Vapour pressure lowered to –2.8°C? (Gram molecular mass of
(2) Freezing temperature C2H6O2 = 62 g)
(3) Osmotic pressure (1) 93.33 g (2) 39.33 g
(4) Boiling temperature (3) 27.21 g (4) 72 g

79. Containers A, B and C of equal volume contain 87. The vander Waal’s parameters for gases W, X, Y
oxygen, neon and methane respectively at the and Z are
same temperature and pressure. The correct Gas a (atm L2 mol–2) b (L mol–1)
increasing order of their masses is _______.
W 4.0 0.027
(1) A < B < C (2) B < C < A
(3) C < A < B (4) C < B < A X 8.0 0.030

80. Henry’s law constant (KH) values for gases P, Q, Y 6.0 0.032
R and S are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83×10–5 and 0.413 Z 12.0 0.027
respectively. Which gas has maximum
solubility? Which of these gases has the highest critical
(1) P (2) Q temperature?
(3) R (4) S (1) W (2) X
(3) Y (4) Z
81. In terms of critical constant, the compressibility
factor is ______. 88. Which of the following is true about gaseous
3 8 state?
(1) (2) (1) Thermal Energy = Molecular attraction
8 3
(2) Thermal Energy >> Molecular attraction
3 2
(3) (4) (3) Thermal Energy << Molecular attraction
4 3
(4) Molecular forces >> Those in liquids.
82. 5.85 g NaCl is dissolved in 200 ml of water at 89. 5.85 g of NaCl are dissolved in 90 g of water.
27°C. The osmotic pressure of solution will be: The mole fraction of NaCl is: (Gram molecular
(Assume that NaCl is completely ionised. Gram
mass of NaCl = 58.5 g and H2O = 18 g)
molecular mass of NaCl = 58.5 g)
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.01
(1) 6 atm (2) 12.315 atm
(3) 0.2 (4) 0.0196
(3) 24.63 atm (4) 30 atm
[7]
90. The boiling point of 0.1 m KCl solution in water 96. At relatively high pressure, van der Waals
having ebullioscopic constant ( Kb ) of 0.51 K kg equation for one mole of gas reduces to:
mol–1 is: (1) PV = RT (2) PV = RT +
a
(1) 100.102°C (2) 99.49°C V
(3) 100.051°C (4) 99.949°C a
(3) PV = RT + Pb (4) PV = RT –
V2
91. Absolute zero is:
(1) –273.15 °C 97. Gas is more difficult to compress when Z is:
(2) Zero K (1) 0 (2) 1/2
(3) Temperature at which no substance exists in (3) 1 (4) 2
gaseous sate.
(4) All of these 98. One mole of a solute A is dissolved in a given
volume of a solvent. The association of the solute
92. A gas occupies 20 litre of volume under STP. take place as follows:
What will be its volume if the pressure is nA ⇌ An
increased four times keeping the temperature If  is the degree of association of A, the van’t
constant?
Hoff factor ‘i’ is expressed as:
(1) 20 L (2) 80 L

(3) 5 L (4) 4 L (1) i = 1 –  (2) i = 1 +
n

93. Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solution 1–  +
(3) i = n (4) i = 1
will have the lowest freezing point?
1
(1) Potassium sulphate
(2) Sodium chloride
99. The values of van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ for the
(3) Urea
gases O2, N2, NH3 and CH4 are 1.36, 1.39, 4.17
(4) Glucose
and 2.53 L2 atm mol–2 respectively. The gas
94. The partial pressure of a dry gas is: which can most easily be liquified is:
(1) Less than that of wet gas (1) N2 (2) O2
(2) Greater than that of wet gas (3) CH4 (4) NH3
(3) Equal to that of wet gas
(4) None of these 100. The temperature of a gas is raised from 27°C to
927°C. The root mean square speed of the gas:
95. Which of the following pair will diffuse at the 927
(1) Remains same (2) Gets times
same rate? 27
(1) CO2 and N2O (2) CO2 and NO (3) Gets halved (4) Gets doubled
(3) CO2 and CO (4) N2O and NO

SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION - A 103. Which of these is mis-matched?
101. Select incorrect match (1) Amyloplasts – Store protein granules
(1) Steroidal hormones-SER (2) Elaioplasts – Store oils or fats
(2) Hydrolases -Lysosomes (3) Capsule – Thick and tough
(3) Aerobic respiration -Mitochondria glycocalyx
(4) Single membrane-Ribosome (4) Golgi bodies – Formation of
glycolipids and
102. What is true about mesosomes? glycoproteins.
(1) Help in cell wall formation
(2) Help in cellular respiration 104. Shape of mesosomes is/are?
(3) Help in DNA replication (1) Tubular
(2) Vesicles
(4) All of the above
(3) Lamellae
(4) All of the above

[8]
105. Structure present in all bacteria 112. S-I- Perinuclear space is 10nm to 50 nm
(1) Plasmid S-II- Secondary constrictions are stained with basic
(2) Chromatophore dye
(3) Cell membrane (1) Only S-I is correct
(4) Flagella (2) Only S-II is correct
(3) Both S-I and S-II are correct
106. Consider the following statement. (4) Both S-I and S-II are wrong
(I) Ribosome composed of RNA and protein
(II) Cell wall of algae have galactan and mannan 113. Which of the following cell organelles is enclosed
(III) ER and Golgi complex are not part of by a double membrane?
endomembrane system (1) Ribosome (2) Lysosome
(3) Mitochondria (4) Both (1) and (3)
(IV) Mitochondria show division by fission
(1) Only I correct
114. Inside chloroplast space limited by inner membrane
(2) Only I, II, IV are correct
of chloroplast is–
(3) Only III, IV are correct
(1) Thylakoid lumen
(4) All are correct
(2) Stroma
(3) Thylakoid
107. The hydrophobic tails of a phospholipid bilayer are (4) None of these
oriented towards the:
(1) Interior of the plasma membrane 115. Svedberg constant is –
(2) Extracellular fluid surrounding the cell (1) Direct measure of size and density
(3) Cytoplasm of the cell (2) Indirect measure of size and density
(4) Nucleus of the cell (3) Measure weight in gram
(4) Measure shape
108. A molecule that can diffuse freely through a
phospholipid bilayer is probably: 116. Consider the following statement.
(1) Water soluble A. Cis face of golgi complex located towards ER
(2) Non-polar B. Trans face of golgi complex located towards
(3) Positively charged nucleus
(4) Negatively charged How many is/are correct?
(1) Only A (2) Only B
109. The layer joining the primary walls of the two (3) Both correct (4) Both wrong
adjacent cells is known as:
(1) Plasmodesmata 117. Match the following.
(2) Middle lamella (A) Pili – Made up of special protein
(3) Cytoplasm (B) RER – Involve in protein synthesis
(4) Protoplast (C) Nucleolus – rRNA factory
How many is/are correctly matched.
(1) Only (A) and (C) (2) Only (B)
110. Mark the correct statement.
(3) All three (4) Only (B) and (C)
(1) Mitochondria have linear dsDNA
(2) Leucoplast show variation in shape and size
118. Which is common about nucleoid and inclusion
with stored nutrients
bodies?
(3) Quasi-fluid nature of membrane prevents
(1) Presence in eukaryotic cell
lateral movement of protein (2) Present in bacteria
(4) Primary wall of plant cell is not capable to (3) For storage
grow (4) Made up of protein only

111. Vacuoles of plants are separated from cytoplasm by 119. A single membrane bounded cell organelle whose
a membrane called: enzymes are functional at acidic pH is
(1) Protoplast (1) Not related to endomembrane system
(2) Cytoplasm (2) Contains acid hydrolases
(3) Chloroplast (3) Cannot digest nucleic acids
(4) Tonoplast (4) Both (1) and (3)

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120. Plastids which give specific & distinct colours to 128. Mark the correct statement.
the plants are known as (A) Inclusion bodies lie free in cytoplasm
(1) Leucoplast (2) Chromoplasts (B) Fimbriae use for binding on host tissue
(3) Elaioplasts (4) Aleuroplasts (C) Chromatophore have pigments
Mark the correct
121. Which of the following is not feature of plant cell (1) Only (A) and (B)
wall? (2) Only (B) and (C)
(1) Protects the cell from bursting (3) All are correct
(2) Provides barrier to undesirable (4) Only (A) and (C)
macromolecules
(3) Protect the cells from infections 129. Fluid mosaic model was proposed by
(4) Involves in active transport of materials (1) Camillo
(2) Flemming
122. In metacentric chromosome, the centromere is (3) Singer and Nicolson
located. (4) George Palade
(1) At the middle of chromosome
130. Assembly of 60S and 40S subunits of ribosome
(2) Slightly away from the middle of chromosome
produces:
(3) Close to one end of chromosome
(1) 80S (2) 70S
(4) At the end of the chromosome
(3) 50S (4) 100S
123. Sometimes few chromosomes have non-staining
131. Ribosomes take part in protein synthesis in:
secondary constriction at a constant location. This
(1) Viruses
gives the appearance of a small fragment (2) Prokaryotes only
called………… (3) Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(1) Short arm (2) Satellite (4) Eukaryotes only
(3) Kinetochore (4) Telomere`
132. 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules is observed in
124. Mark the correctly matched (1) Eukaryotic flagella
(1) Mitochondria - Thylakoid (2) Prokaryotic flagella
(2) Chloroplast- Cristae (3) Centrioles
(3) SER – Lipid synthesis (4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Ribosome – rRNA and lipid
133. Assertion (A): Mitochondria and chloroplast are
125. Plant cell wall is made up of semi-autonomous organelles
(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose and CaCO3 Reason (R): They contain their own DNA but lack
(2) Hemicellulose, and CaCO3 protein synthesizing machinery.
(3) Cellulose, hemicellulose, protein and pectin (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(4) All of the above reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
126. Membrane bound minute vesicles that contain (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
various enzymes are present in both plant and
assertion.
animal cells called:
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false.
(1) Chloroplast
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(2) Centrosome
statements
(3) Microbodies
(4) Mesosomes 134. In the chromoplasts ______ carotenoid pigments
are present.
127. Organelle important in spindle formation during
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
nuclear division is:
(1) Fat soluble
(1) Centriole
(2) Fat insoluble
(2) Golgi body
(3) Chloroplast (3) Water soluble
(4) Mitochondrion (4) None of these

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135. Which of the following is an inclusion body found 140. The enzymes required for the synthesis of
in prokaryotes? carbohydrates and proteins are located in ________
(1) Glycogen granule of chloroplasts
(2) Phosphate granule (1) Thylakoid
(3) Cyanophycean granule (2) Grana
(4) All of these (3) Stroma
(4) Stroma lamella
SECTION - B
141. “Omnis cellula e cellula” term was given by
136. Select the option accordingly.
(1) Schleiden
P. In prokaryotes, ribosomes are associated with
(2) Schleiden and Schwann
the plasma membrane of the cell
(3) Schwann
Q. Several ribosomes on a single mRNA form a
(4) Virchow
structure called polysome
R. Polysome translates the protein into mRNA
142. Bacterial cells may be motile or non-motile. If
P Q R
motile, they have thin __P__ extensions from their
(1) T F T
cell wall called __Q__
(2) F T T
Select the option which correctly fill the blanks
(3) T F F
P and Q
(4) T T F
P Q
(1) Filamentous Fimbriae
137. Choose the correct option regarding indicated by
(2) Filamentous Flagella
lable A in the given diagram.
(3) Elongated tubular Pilli
(4) Small Bristle like Flagella

143. Which is incorrect about cilia?

(1) Small structures work like oars.
(2) It is hair like outgrowth of cell wall
(3) Cilia cause the movement of either the cell or
the surrounding fluid
(4) Cilia are covered with plasma membrane
(1) Disc shaped structure called kinetochore
(2) Present on the sides of centromere 144. Which of the following is found in animal cells?
(3) Primary constriction called kinetochore (1) Microbodies
(4) Both (1) and (2) (2) Cell wall
(3) Chromoplast
138. Assertion (A): In bacteria, resistance to antibiotics (4) Leucoplast
is conferred by Plasmid DNA.
Reason (R): Plasmid DNA confers certain unique 145. The primary cell wall of a young plant cell is/has:
phenotypic characters to bacteria. (1) Secondary wall on outer side
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the (2) Made of calcium pectate
reason is the correct explanation of the (3) Calcium carbonate deposition
assertion. (4) Capable of growth
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the 146. Mango belongs to this order
assertion. (1) Anacardiales
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false. (2) Polaes
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (3) Sapindales
statements (4) Polymoniales

139. Which of the following is/are modification of the 147. Sapindales and Poales both belongs to
cell membrane? (1) Same class (2) Same order
(1) Mesosomes (2) Chromatophore (3) Same family (4) Different class
(3) Inclusion body (4) Both (1) and (2)
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148. Plant nomenclature means - 149. The binomial system of nomenclature have all true,
(1) To give names to plants without any rules except
(2) Nomenclature of plants under the international (1) Genus starts with capital letter
rules (2) Name of author is written in italics
(3) Nomenclature of plants in local language (3) Printed in italics for both genus and species
(4) Nomenclature of plants in english language (4) Name of author is written after specific epithet

150. Related families belong to the same

(1) Species (2) Variety
(3) Order (4) Genus

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION - A 158. During a accident a persons outer ear joints got
151. A blood capillary is made up of which epithelium? injured, which tissue will be most affect?
(1) Simple cuboidal (1) Bone (2) Cartilage
(2) Simple columnar (3) Ligament (4) Tendon
(3) Simple squamous
(4) Compound epithelium 159. Muscle found in stomach and small intestine are
(1) Cylindrical and branched
152. Tubular parts of nephron contain: (2) Uninucleate and voluntary
(1) Simple columnar epithelium (3) Spindle shaped and involuntary
(2) Simple squamous epithelium (4) Spindle shaped and striated
(3) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(4) Compound epithelium 160. Which muscles have intercalated discs?
(1) Skeletal muscle (2) Biceps
(3) Cardiac muscles (4) Smooth muscles
153. Ciliated epithelium is found in
(1) Air sac and Fallopian tubes
161. Which is not a feature of Neuron?
(2) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
(1) Axon (2) Cyton
(3) Small intestine and blood capillaries
(3) Dendrite (4) Non excitable cells
(4) PCT and Alveoli of lungs
162. Incomplete cartilaginous rings are not found in
154. Which is not a correct match? (1) Trachea
(1) Tight junction → Allows passage of ions from (2) Secondary bronchi
one cell to another (3) Terminal bronchioles
(2) Gap junction → Help in cell to cell (4) Primary bronchi
communication
(3) Salivary gland → Exocine gland 163. Which is also the sound box in human?
(4) Adhering junction → Cementing to keep (1) Larynx (2) Pharynx
neighbouring cells together (3) Trachea (4) Pleura

155. Which is not a connective tissue? 164. Which is incorrect match in the following?
(1) Bone (2) Blood (1) Fishes – Gills
(3) Cartilage (4) Collagen (2) Amphibians – Moist skin
(3) Insects – Tracheal system
156. Which is a incorrect match in the following? (4) Birds – Gills
(1) Areolar → Support framework for epithelium
165. Which is correct statement in the following?
(2) Mast cell → Histamine
(1) 25% CO2 is transported as carboxy
(3) Macrophage → Phagocytosis haemoglobin
(4) Dense connective tissue → Fat storage (2) 70% CO2 is transported as bicarbonate ions
inside RBC
157. Most important cells associated with bone are (3) 3% O2 is transported as Oxyhaemoglobin
(1) Chondrocyte (2) Osteocyte (4) 7% CO2 is transported directly dissolved in
(3) Macrophage (4) Mast cell plasma.

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166. Additional volume of air, a person can expire by 176. Which structure prevents entry of swallowed
forcible expiration is called food in windpipe?
(1) TV (2) ERV (1) Glottis (2) Gullet
(3) IRV (4) IC (3) Epiglottis (4) Pleura

177. Which is correct w.r.t. normal inspiration?

167. Osmotic balance is maintained by which protein?
A. Diaphragm muscle contract
(1) Albumin (2) Fibrinogen
B. Internal intercostal contract
(3) Globulin (4) Prothrombin C. Thoracic chamber decreases in volume
D. Abdominal muscle contract
168. A person has a blood group O+ve, he is injured, he (1) B and C (2) A and C
can receive blood from? (3) C and D (4) Only A
(1) A+ve (2) B+ve
(3) AB+ve (4) O–ve 178. IRV is:
(1) 1200 ml (2) 2800 ml
169. Which is not considered as a formed element? (3) 1000 ml (4) 500 ml
(1) RBC (2) Leucocyte
(3) Fibrinogen (4) Platelets 179. Which one does not play any role in blood
clotting?
170. Statement I: RBC and WBC contain carbonic
(1) Thrombokinase
anhydrase
(2) Thromboplastin
Statement II: Monocytes are WBC that are anti-
(3) Fibrinogen
allergic.
(4) Carbonic anhydrase
(1) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
180. Collagen fibres are secreted by
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(1) Macrophage
(4) Both statements are correct
(2) Fibroblast
(3) Mast cells
171. Percentage of oxygen supplied by haemoglobin
(4) Histiocytes
is
(1) 97% (2) 80%
(3) 49% (4) 3% 181. Statement I: More than 50% of brain cells are
Neuroglial cells.
172. Statement I: Chloride shift is seen in tissues Statement II: Neuroglial cells protect and
when HCO3– comes in RBC and Cl– goes out of support Neurons.
RBC (1) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
Statement II: Oxygenated blood delivers 5 ml (2) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
oxygen to tissues under normal conditions (3) Both statements are incorrect
(1) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect (4) Both statements are correct
(2) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
(3) Both statements are incorrect 182. How many oxygen molecules bind to 2
(4) Both statements are correct Haemoglobin molecules under normal conditions?
(1) 4 (2) 8
173. Among the following which is maximum in (3) 2 (4) 6
number in blood?
(1) Monocyte 183. Which will help in dissociation of Haemoglobin
(2) Basophil and oxygen [HbO2 Hb + O2]?
(3) Neutrophil (1) Low H+ (2) Low temp
(4) Lymphocyte (3) Low pO2 (4) Low pCO2

174. What is the function of plasma protein globulin? 184. Which instrument is used to measure pulmonary
(1) Blood clotting volumes?
(2) Defence from pathogens (1) ECG (2) MRI
(3) Osmotic balance (3) Spirometer (4) Stethoscope
(4) Anticoagulant effect
185. Broken ligament will make:
175. Which element is essential for blood clotting?
(1) Bone to muscle attachment loss
(1) Na+ (2) K+
(2) Bone to bone attachment loss
(3) Ca+2
(4) HCO3–
(3) Skin to muscle attachment loss
(4) Muscle to muscle attachment loss
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 SECTION - B 194. 100 ml blood contains:
186. Adipose connective tissue is present in (1) 10-11 gm Haemoglobin
(1) Below skin (2) 18-20 gm Haemoglobin
(2) In muscles (3) 12-16 gm Haemoglobin
(3) Ligaments
(4) 25-30 gm Haemoglobin
(4) Tendons

187. Assertion: Pneumotaxic centre can moderate the 195. Chemo sensitive area is sensitive to:
functions of the respiratory rhythm centre. (1) Low pO2
Reason: Neural signal from pneumotoxic centre (2) High pCO2
can reduce the duration of inspiration and thereby (3) High pO2
the alter the respiratory centre. (4) Low pCO
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the
196. Assertion: The passage starting with the external
Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the nostrils upto the terminal bronchiole constitute
Reason is not the correct explanation of the the respiratory part.
Assertion. Reason: The respiratory part transport the air to
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. the alveoli, clears it from the foreign material,
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. humidified and brings the air to body
temperature.
188. Which is multinucleated? (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
(1) Smooth muscle fibre
Reason is the correct explanation of the
(2) Cardiac muscle fibre
(3) Skeletal muscle fibre Assertion.
(4) Visceral muscle fibre (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
189. Diapedesis is shown by: Assertion.
(1) RBC (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(2) Platelets (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(3) WBC
(4) Erythrocytes
197. Following diagram represents a section of an
190. Heparin is a ___A___ secreted by ___B___ alveolus with a pulmonary capillary.
(1) A - Cogulant, B - Basophil The diffusion membrane includes:
(2) A - Anticogulant, B - Neutrophil
(3) A - Anticogulant, B - Basophil
(4) A – Vasodlilator, B - Neutrophil

191. Trachea divides into primary bronchi at the level

of
(1) 2nd Cewical vertebra
(2) 5th Thoracic vertebra
(3) 5th Lumbar vertebra
(4) 3rd Thoracic vertebra Cellular layer's Non-Cellular layer
(1) A, C, D –
192. Wheezing sound during breathing along with (2) D, E C
spasm of muscles of bronchioles is found in
(3) D, E, C –
(1) Purpura
(2) Anemia (4) A C, D
(3) Asthma
(4) Emphysema 198. Serum is
(1) Plasma with antibodies
193. Respiratory rhythm centre in found in (2) Blood without RBC
(1) Pons
(3) Plasma without clotting factors
(2) Cerebrum
(3) Cerebellum (4) Blood without clotting factors
(4) Medulla

[14]
199. Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when foetus and 200. Blood group of a person is AB+ve, which is
mother are: correct match?
(1) Foetus Rh–ve mother Rh+ve Antigen Antibody RH
–ve –ve
(2) Foetus Rh mother Rh (1) A, B Nil Absent
+ve –ve
(3) Foetus Rh mother Rh
(2) Nil Anti A, Anti B Present
(4) Foetus Rh+ve mother Rh+ve
(3) A, B Anti A, Anti B Absent

(4) A, B Nil Present

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Library- https://smart.link/sdfez8ejd80if

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