PATACON FILE

1ero de MARZO 2023

1. At How much Cfu dental line cleaning is required? 500cfu, 800cfu

2. Group with med+ group with placebo study is called

3. Moa omeprazole

4. Bias in study of fluoride can be due to- diff fluoride levels in diff
natural sources or sensitivity of fluoride tests.

5. Moa- lisinopril- flushes water and na out

6. Ellis’s classification

7. Pt with radiation therapy for head and neck need denture after ext
what to ask physician- cbc or area and extent of radiation used

8. Most resistant bacteria with surface disinfectant – Mrsa,

Tuberculoidal

9. Diff bw low and intermediate disinfectant – Can kill staph bacteria,

can kill tuberculocidal bacteria.

10. Most significant reason for implant supported lower denture- slow
posterior ridge resorption or Quality of life and good oral hygiene
(Pregunta reference a la complication Post Exodontia)

11. What has osteoconductive properties in FBDG EXCEPT- Something

IL- alpha, TGF- beta, BMP or PDGF after amox intake pt developed
ulcer on lip and rashes- what hypersensitivity is it? 1- cytotoxic 2 Cell
mediated 3 Humoral, 4 antibodies mediated

12. Plano Mandibular que puntos se determinant en la Cefalometria: Go -

Me
13. Clicking in TMJ is due to- gout, arthritis or ortho, arthritis or
rheumatoid arthritis
14. Pierre Robin Syndrome

15. Stickler Syndrome

16. Features of ectodermal dysplasia

17. Pt had 2 rounds of chemo for leukemia and has raised bump on
posterior gingiva came for prophy-1. Contact oncologist before tx 2.
Pt has normal side effects from chemo 3. Has candidiasis due to
chemo?

18. Pt que solo era Obese ASA classification? ASA II

19. Moa Warfarina y test

20. Hemophilia B

21. Enfermedad Renal Terminal Manejo y que dio le correspondería la

atención in Dentistry si su Diálisis es Martes y Jueves

22. What does hpv vaccine do- a protects from oropharyangeal cancer,
prevent human paplilloma virus papilloma?

23. Apnea obstructive del sueno en niños a que se debe? Hypertropia de

las adenoids

24. Manejo del Elderly Abuse?

25. Bias in study of fluoride can be due to- diff fluoride levels in diff
natural sources or sensitivity of fluoride tests.

26. Moa Minocycline?

27. Bp low high pulse pt on metformin while procedure. What is the

management
28. A que se debe la mordida cruzada posterior? Transversal, Sagital,
Vertical/

29. MUMPS - Mode of transmission? - Air mode.

30. Multiple papillary projections of palate caused by local irritation, ill
fitting denture, poor oral hygiene, and leaving dentures in all the time:
CANDIDIASIS

31. Treatment? a) Nystatin b) glucocorticoids

Local: Nystatin, clotrimaxol
Systemic: fluconazol, amphotricin B

32. Scc involves which layer?

a) St Spinosum
b) St basale
c) St corneum
d) St granulosum

33. Specific pattern of bone resorption in the anterior edentulous maxilla

when it is opposing mandibular anterior teeth only and upper
complete with lower partial (No picture)? - Combination Syndrome

34. Case: You are going to do a tooth extraction, your patient's blood
pressure is normal, and he is using a hypertensive medication. After
anesthesia, his blood pressure rises to 145x95.
What is the blood pressure category? Hypertension stage 2

35. Ig that was in anaphylaxis - angioedema: Ig E

36. Lisinopril acts on which type of calcium channels. - ACE Inhibitor

flushes out water and sodium

37. What percentage should the mask have? 95-99%

38. Infections Odontogenic as cual es la Exception!

39. Patient wants to do dialysis what medicine has to take?

A. aspirin 81mg
 B. aspirin 325mg
C. Heparin
D. Warfarin

40. Que forces se utiliza para extraer un-Premolar mandibular?

41. What is the measurement of glycated hemoglobin in an uncontrolled
diabetic patient? a) 5.0 - 5.5
b) 6.0 - 6.5
c) 7.0 - 7.5
d) 8.0 - 8.5

42. Pontic hard to clean? - Ridge Lap

43. Optimum water fluoridation? - 0.7ppm

44. What should not be included in the informed

consent?
-the cost of the treatment?

45. About the same patient: if it was an urgent care, what is the best way
to care for the patient?
a) N95, isolated operatory, minimize aerosols
b) no extra precautions are necessary.

46. Most common neoplasm in oral cavity: Squamous cell carcinoma

47. Which study gives temporal relation of exposure and disease

a) case control
b) cohort
c) Randomized control trial

48. Pt 22y, 2 years without appointment, came with 1 interproximal caries

lesion, CAMBRA risk: Moderate

49. Albuterol MOA? Beta 2 adrenergic agonist

50. A patient presents lingering pain with cold and percussion. The pulpal
and periapical diagnosis that best describe this patient are? a) normal
pulp, chronic abscess
b) normal pulp, symptomatic apical periodontitis
c) irreversible symptomatic pulpitis, symptomatic apical periodontitis
d)irreversible symptomatic pulpitis, chronic abscess

51. Foreshortening on periapical rx: excessive vertical angulation

52. SLOB rule meaning: same lingual opposite buccal

53. Patient who had sleep apnea how is it diagnosed: polysomnography

54. Open bite with class 3 malocclusion are related with except:
a) Tongue thrusting
b) use of pacifier
c) mouth breather
d) thumb sucking

55. Value ?

56. What is the whitish lesion on the palate after she uses the inhaler?
Candida

57. Patient has a ulcer on the lip after 1 week of medication. What kind of
cell is present? A) Cytotoxic
B) Immediate
C) Cell mediated

58. How do you clean a sensor used on a HIV positive patient?

A) Double barrier + disinfecting wipe
B) Double wipe with single barrier

59. Clindamicina acts on all bacteria EXCEPT: Pseudomona Aeruginosa

(gram -)

60. Which of the following is the best intervention for reducing

musculoskeletal disorders in dentistry?
 A) Maintain operatory ventilation
B) Stretching prior the procedures
C) Use procedural magnification and light
D) Early detection and treatment?

61. Case: the patient has periodontitis, if he does the periodontal

treatment
(SRP), what could happen?
a) The periodontal disease will become gengivitis
b) The periodontal disease will paralyze
c) He will recover the bone loss

62. Which of these conditions is the patient born with micrognathia?

Pierre Robin Sequence

63. Study that shows that a zirconia crown has more flexural strength
than the old zirconia crowns... Having said this, it can be deduced
that: A. Long-term old zirconia crowns will be replaced by the new
ones
B. Old zirconia crowns in the short term will be replaced
C. Cannot be inferred based on the information provided
D. Depends on whether the study is statistically significant or not.

64. Which of the following terms describes the loss of tooth structure in
cervical areas due to tooth flexure? a) abrasion
b) abfraction
c) attrition
d) erosion?

65. HERPES simplex virus - Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis (AHGS) is a

primary infection caused by herpes simplex virus-1

66. Type 4 hypersensitivity: T cell mediated.

67. Fluoride Moa except?

a) Remineralization of tooth structure

b) Decreases enamel solubility
 c) Increases critical pH Value
d) interferes with metabolic activity of cariogenic bacteria

68. Patient has bitten his tongue a lot. Differential diagnosis?

a) mucocele
b) schwannoma
c) granular cell tumor
d) hemangioma

69. Sjogren's syndrome:

Dry eye and mouth, rheumatoid arthritis
Primary sjogren keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Secondary associated with other autoimmune like SLE or RA
ANA ab test
Hyposalivation
Ssa test.... Ssa or anti-ro antibodies are found in SLE and sjogren
patients.

70. Which one is the exception? SPORE TEST MONTHLY, (THE

CORRECT IS WEEKLY)

73. What is the best way to know if the lower molar is anesthetized?

a) Ask if the patient’s lip and tongue are numb

b) Cold test (Local anesthesia)

74. Both researcher and participants don't know participating in

study?
Double blind study

75. Primary endodontic bacteria? gram negative obligate

anaerobes bacteria (bacteroid)

76. Case of an acute abscess and say which microorganism is

present: a. neutrophils
b. macrophages

76. What is an experimental study?

a- Survey b- Case Control
c- Cross-sectional d-
Randomized clinical trial

77. Question about what drugs that causes gingival enlargement:

anticonvulsant (phenytoin), immunosuppressant (cyclosporine A), and
various calcium channel blockers (nifedipine, verapamil, diltiazem).

78. Patients take 81mg aspirin and clopidogrel. What modification should
be made for their extraction?
A- Discontinue clopidogrel.
B- Discontinue aspirin.
C- No modification necessary

79. Varicella Zoster Virus (Shingles)

80. Pt has a mitral prosthetic heart valve. What is antibiotic

prophylaxis? Pt.
has penicillin allergy (no azithromycin option) a.
Clindamycin 600mg

81. Patient addicted to methamphetamine, very bad oral hygiene,

many cavities, had not been to the clinic for a long time. He has
a fracture class IV on the central incisor, no pulp exposure.

82. What is the best treatment for this patient? (no picture)
A) Composite resin restoration
B) Veneer
C) Porcelain crown
D) PFM

83. Question about a periapical x-ray of a superior anterior implant

placed 10 years ago. (Note: the x-ray was very bad)
a) the implant has normal bone loss
b) the implant has mucositis
c) the implant has peri-implantitis

- Which of these drugs could cause gingival hyperplasia? Phenytoin

84. Paciente de 14 años que estába bajo stres que tenía lesiones
que parecían herpes. What is the reason? Por que la que se
cree que este paciente ya tuvo una pimary infección. a. Porque
esas lesión era subclínica características (le daba al niño pero
muchas veces no se daban cuanta)

85. De ese mismo paciente en Cuanto tiempo se sana?

86. 8 anos Tetralogia de fallot me decía que si estaba reparada

que no er cooperative creo Consultar con el pediatric
cardiologist Consultar con el odontopediatric

Give him amoxicilina….

Give him azytro…..

87. Síndrome de down excepto:

microglosia

88. Cual es el que tiene peor pronostico: intrusión

89. Ameloblastoma Periferico?

90. Patient que tenia sleep apnea como se diagnostica: Sleep

night study
91. Un steep mandibular plane que que daba: open bite

92. Que daba open bite excepto: Nota: no salía genética

a. Tongue thrusting
b. Pacifier
c. No recuerdo bien
Esta no recuerdo, pero era el excepto

96. Chica abusadora de anfetaminas. No me decian esto, pero por la

descripction que hacian yo sabian que tenia “Meth-Mouth”. Cual era
la mejor par ver las lesiones que tenia la paciente a. Full mouth RX
b.panoramic
Nota: Yo elegi full mouth porque me parece mucho mas detallada
para ver bien las lesiones de “meth-mouth”

93. Como se Produce las Secreciones Mucosa en el Asthma?

Acetylcholine signaling plays a key role in the pathophysiology
of acute asthma via bronchial muscle contraction and mucus
secretions.

94. Vertical Root Fracture: J shaped / isolated pocket

95. MOA del medicamento que el paciente esta tomando para los
lipidos. No me ponian nombre del medicamento, me fui al chart
y tomaba lipitor/ atorvastatin
HMG Coa reductase inhibitor

96. A donde drena la infección del 17: Submandibular

97. Which does not help with osteogenic potential? A- IL-1

(Interleukin 1)
 B- Tumor Growth alpha

98. Radiographic image of a cloudy mostly radiolucent lesion in the

mandibular anterior of a middle-aged woman who says that the
lesion
is turning more opaque near the center
A- PCOD

84. CASE of drug abuse

CAUTION! In the CC it said that it was OVER THE PHONE, an abuser over the
phone was asking for a refill of an opioid prescription because it kept hurting him,
what should the dentist do? a. give him what he asks for, the refill
b. Tell him that he should come to the clinic
c. nothing to see
d. nothing to see

85. CASE
Patient who had the photo was all red and had nikoski sing.
They put me a photo more or less like this, I was a little more inflamed
For me it was pemphigus vulgaris so they asked me what the pathology that the
patient had was of origin: a.autoimmune
b.viral
c. I don't remember

104. What is the most common type of Bloodborne pathogen in USA:

A) Hepatitis B B) Hepatitis C C) HEPATITIS A
The most contagious is B (30%) but the most common is C.

86. The patient you indicated an antibiotic arrives “later” (they do not specify) with
a lesion on the lip such as an ulcer: What type of hypersensitivity reaction?
A- Immediate B) cytotoxic C) IG and complement D) Cell mediated.

99. Wound healing phase that is going to mantain the coagule and
achieve hemostasis:
A) Inflammatory B)Proliferation C) Migration D) Remodeling
100. Patient with pain and swelling in submandibular area. Swelling
increases when she eats and goes down after. Possible
diagnosis A. Mumps B. Submandibular gland infection

101. Intervalo de Confidencia?

 102. A dentist administered a survey to patients to determine their
satisfaction with practice characteristics and services provided.
The survey was administered to patients seen for 1 month.
Which type of study design was used by the dentist?
A- Cross-sectional
B- Cohort
C- Case control
D- Clinical trial

103. Lot of questions on hierarchy of study methods, asking which is

the best. It is meta-analysis. There were 3 questions, and each
had different opinions to choose from. So for one it was meta-
analysis, the other systematic review and then randomized
controlled trial Metaanalysis

104. Precaution to prevent HIV: Universal Precautions.

Precautions to prevent Hepatitis: Universal Precautions
know about OSHA - The Occupational Safety and Health
Administration (OSHA) ensures that workers will be provided
ergonomic working places. - OSHA protects healthcare professionals
from occupational hazards by creating standards regarding
recognition, control, and prevention of threats in the workplace

105. What phase of prosto has improved because of CAD/CAM?

Bonding
Processing (we think this one)
Esthetics

106. Which is least likely to cause a posterior crossbite?

- Macroglossia
- Airway obstruction
- Tongue thrusting (I THINK THIS ONE BC TONGUE THRUST LEADS
TO
ANTERIOR CROSSBITE)

110. Civatte bodies….what treatment?

- Clotrimazole
- Valacyclovir
- Mycelex
- Other (Civatte bodies = Lichen planus which should be treated with
corticosteroids like prednisone) or clobetasol

114. How to confirm necrosis?

- Transillumination
- Xray
- Cavity test (this one) because a hole is made in the tooth and the necrosis test
is done directly in the pulp to 100% confirm that it is dead.

115. Which is true for a mask in a dental office? a.

Has to have more than 95% filtration.
b. Over 75% filtration
c. Elastic bands
d. Full face coverage
The CDC recommends that dental professionals wear a surgical mask that
protects against microorganisms with >95% bacterial filtration efficiency,
and also protects from droplet spatter that might contain bloodborne
pathogens or infectious microorganisms.

116. HIV patient, how to clean the sensor?

- Sterilize
- Soak in disinfectant
- Double barrier and wipe
- Single barrier and double wipe (Lo que sale en dentalsensors.com)

117. Sickle cell, both parents are carriers. What is the probability of the
unborn child to have the disease?
- 25% (From bootcamp): If your patient’s future child is to have a 25 %
chance of having sickle cell anemia (a genotype of aa), then both your
patient and her husband must have a heterozygous genotype in order to
produce this probability.

Any other combination would change the probability from 25 %. Additionally

the mother must be heterozygous for the trait as she is a carrier for sickle
cell anemia, indicating heterozygosity.

118. SLOB
a. Same lingual, opposite buccal (literalmente asi mismo)
b. The Buccal Object Rule or SLOB (same lingual opposite buccal)
allows the interpreter to determine if an object is positioned buccal or
lingual relative to a reference point. It requires two radiographs to be
taken at two different perspectives. The rule states that as you move the
x-ray machine for the second image, the more lingual object moves in
the same direction as the machine while the buccal one moves in the
opposite direction.

119. Atlantoaxial instability → Down Syndrome

120. Pierre Robin Syndrome is associated with a. Stickler

(*esta)
b. Ehlers Danlos

121. New drug development

-Single binding
-Open study
- Placebo (luli put this)

122. To establish a new program what goes first?

- Gather info (probably esta)
- Establish goals
- Take action

123. Muscles of mastication: All are elevators except? a.

Elevators are:
i. Masseter ii.
Temporalis
iii. Medial Pterygoid

Muscles of mastication: Which depress?

a. The lateral pterygoid muscle is the only muscle of mastication that opens
the mouth or depresses the mandible.

Muscles that attach at genial tubercle: This structure serves as the locus of
attachment for
the genioglossus and geniohyoid muscles. (google)

124. Myxedema coma: HYPOTHYROID

a. Hyperventilation
b. Hyperthermia
c. Bradycardia (*this)

125. What virus causes shingles?

- Varicella zoster (*)

126. Anterior guidance for:

- Curing TMJ
- Relieve force for mastication muscles i think this ()
- Restrict open envelope
- Change centric relation drastically
Anterior guidance is a term that refers to the ability of the anterior teeth to
"guide" the posterior teeth apart (posterior disclusion) during mandibular
movements. Incisal guidance, canine guidance, and group function all
represent elements of anterior guidance.

127. Allograft osteoinductive properties are due to:

- iL 1
- TGF B (creo que esta) Tamer Galal Babikir h
- PDG
Bootcamp: Common osteoinductive growth factors include BMP, OP-1,
FGF-2, IGF-1, IL-6, and TGF B.

128. The following are from endodontic origin EXCEPT:

- Periradicular cemento osseous dysplasia
- Condensing osteitis: Condensing osteitis
- is a pathological finding that occurs around non-vital teeth that
presents as an amorphous radiopacity surrounding a periapical
radiolucency and requires treatment. Is treated with RCT or extraction.

129. Found at radicular pulp except:

- Pulp horns
- Foramen apical
- Lateral apices
- Canal opening

130. Maxillary premolar infected, what space?

- Buccal
- Canine
- Pterygoid

131. HPV vaccine, he has something in his mouth

- Protects from cancerous strains
- Solve on their own

132. Humira MOA: TNF Alpha

a. Humira® (adalimumab) is an immunosuppressant drug used to treat a
number of autoimmune diseases, including rheumatoid arthritis.
Specifically, it functions as a monoclonal antibody that binds to and inhibits
tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-a), blocking inflammatory reactions. Other
medical conditions treated by this drug include psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing
spondylitis, crohn’s disease, and ulcerative colitis.

133. Omeprazole MOA: proton pump inhibitor a.

Inhibits H/K ATPase
b. Omeprazole (Prilosec OTC®) is a proton pump inhibitor medication used
to decrease stomach acidity in those with stomach ulcers or with
gastroesophageal reflux disease. Since calcium solubility depends on pH,
increasing the gastric pH results in a decrease in intestinal calcium
absorption, and a decrease in bone remodeling. Although proton pump
inhibitors may influence appropriate mineralization of bones, chronic steroid
use demonstrates considerable risk of MRONJ when used in conjunction
with bisphosphonates.

134. #19 endo access?

- Trapezoidal (GODS WHISPER)
- The trapezoidal access shape is done for mandibular molars which
generally have 3 canals

135. Patient with many medications. Which can cause xerostomia?

- TCA
- The patient is taking amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA)
primarily used to treat major depression disorder or a variety of pain
syndromes (e.g.migraines, neuropathic pain, etc). TCAs function by
blocking norepinephrine and serotonin transporters, thereby interfering
with reuptake of these signaling molecules and increasing their
concentration in the central nervous system.
TCAs additionally exhibit anticholinergic properties. Common side effects of
TCAs include dry mouth (xerostomia), drowsiness, dizziness, weight gain,
increased hunger, and headaches.

136. Autism patient management, except

- Individuals with autism spectrum disorder respond particularly well to
the tell-show-do technique. (Bootcamp)
- Acceptable options: voice control, distraction, modeling, tell show do -
Unacceptable: open operatory, hand over mouth, negative
reinforcement, papoose

137. Kid comes for sedation, mom says kid did not eat, the kid said he had
cereal:
a. Reschedule

138. Cell responsible for root resorption?

a. Osteoclast

139. Confidence interval, which is true…

a. The width of a confidence interval will decrease with increased
sample size and decreased standard deviation.
b. The confidence interval is the range in which the true mean of a
population is expected to be with an expected probability (eg. a 95%
confidence interval that values fall between 2-5).
c. One way to determine whether the difference between two groups or
characteristics is statistically significant and to reject the null hypothesis is
by making use of the confidence interval. If the confidence interval does not
include the null hypothesis mean, zero, then results are statistically
significant, and the null hypothesis can be rejected.

140. P-value, what describes it…

a. If the p-value is >.05 the null hypothesis is accepted because it is not
significant.
b. If the p-value is <.05 the null hypothesis is rejected because it is
statistically significant.

135. Which is more potent? (Look at graph)

a. Potency refers to the amount of drug that is required to produce an effect
of a given intensity. Highly potent drugs evoke a given response at low
concentrations, while drugs of lower potency require higher concentrations
to produce the same effect. (Question 48 Applies pharmacology)
136. Tooth sensitivity after composite? a.
Too much drying of dentin ***
b. Too much etching

137. Patient swallowed implant:

a. Chest x ray, escort him to emergency.

138. Safest anesthesia for pregnant women?

Lidocaine

139. More noticeable? a. Hue

b. Chroma
c. Value

140. What is the correct PICO format? (Study proposed pero no me

acuerdo) a. PICO is a mnemonic that is used to help formulate clinical
research questions.
i. P = Population, Patient, or Problem
ii.I = Intervention iii. C = Comparison
iv. O = Outcome

141. What is seen distal to maxillary molars? The coronoid process of the
mandible is the triangular bony portion of the anterosuperior aspect of the
ramus. This structure can be recorded on maxillary molar periapicals as the
ramus moves forward when the patient’s mouth is open. It appears as a
triangle or thumb-like radiopacity on posterior maxillary images. The
coronoid process is the only mandibular structure recorded on maxillary
molar periapical images. a. Condyle
b. Eminence
c. Foto de Gods Whisperers
142. Maxillary sinus X Rays? Waters
a. Occipitomental radiographs (“Waters view”) focus on the skull with an
emphasis on the maxillary sinuses.

143.. Most common chromosomal abnormality? 21 (Bootcamp)

Syndrome de Down

144. What increases the chance of dry socket? (bootcamp) a.

Smoking
b. Dos options eran los anticonceptivos que tomaba la paciente pero
separados

Risk factors include smoking, oral contraceptives, tooth and gum infection,
and improper.
at-home care. (INDBE Booster)
Oral contraceptive pills predispose individuals to dry socket because this
particular medication promotes thrombolysis and interferes with blood clot
formation.
Avulsed tooth, how long splint? 2 weeks with a flexible splint

144. Collagen formation after implant? 4 weeks

145. Contact dermatitis? Type IV

146. Distal step? Class II

147. Gonion to menton? a. Mandibular Plane

The mandibular plane angle is measured from the mandibular plane along
the inferior portion of the mandible from Gonion (Go) to Menton (Me) and
the maxillary plane (Anterior nasal spine (ANS) to Posterior nasal spine
(PNS)).
148. Ellis classification of fractures
a. The Ellis classification is a way of categorizing trauma to teeth.
b. A class I Ellis fracture involves only the enamel. Teeth are usually
nontender but will have rough edges.
c. A class II Ellis’s fracture involves the enamel and dentin layers. Teeth
are usually sensitive to touch and air.
d. The class III Ellis classification describes a fracture involving the enamel,
dentin and pulp. These teeth are tender to touch and air, and the
pulp/blood would be visible.
e. A class IV Ellis’s fracture describes a tooth that is non-vital following
trauma.
149. Best restorative material for root caries a.
Modified resin GI.
b. Resin
c. Componomer

150. Root caries are often difficult to properly isolate and keep clean
making it a great option for resin-modified glass ionomers. This
material is a hybrid of glass ionomer and resin composite and does
not require as careful isolation and fluid control as composite in order
to bond. In addition, this material releases fluoride, which helps
prevent caries in the area.

151. Order of risk, least to most

a. MOST: Hep B (30% risk) > Hep C (1.8% risk) > LEAST: HIV (0.3% risk)
From Bootcamp Pt Management Questions

152. Best anesthesia for extraction of tooth 32?

to. Gow gates→IAN *** I wonder what gowgates 130 was used for. Translator
questions (they always say they need someone professional, never the family or
boyfriend or jevo or anything)
to. Family/significant other cant translate.
153. Describe class III malocclusion: Buccal cusp of
the maxillary molar occludes distal to the buccal groove
of the mandibular 1st molar
154. Rampant caries meth abuser a. Four bitewings
b. Pano
c. Full mouth **

155. Mom says kid is allergic to local anesthesia, wants sedation, no history
of allergy to LA:
a. Ask about patient reaction to LA

156. You tell the patient he has to have full mouth extraction because of a
hopeless prognosis, he says “what? How?” you reply: a. Because of
severe??
b. I see this can make you feel upset.

157. Empathy refers to the ability of an individual to

understand another person’s feelings and respond
compassionately to his or her distress. An
empathetic approach to this patient who is nervous
about her filling would be to let her know that you
understand that dental treatment can seem scary.
This allows the patient to feel more comfortable
about expressing her feelings with her dentist, as
well as be more open to listening and trying
strategies to relieve her anxiety.

158. Cause of malocclusion a. Internal resorption

b. Hormonal imbalance

159. Picture of margin of impression (bad quality of impression) something

like this came out but I said that nothing could be done with that impression
because the repeat option did not come out) the impression was bad bad a.
repeat
b. Trim irregulars

160. Very little structure left on #18, deep caries, needs full coverage a.
Lithium disilicate
b. All metal
c. Enforced ceramic.

161. Histamine release: Hypersensitivity type I

162. Fluoride in community water: 0.7 ppm

163. Anti HBs (+) means vaccinated: a person who has been
successfully vaccinated against the virus but has never been infected
will only show antiHBs

164. How to treat HIV patients a. Standard precautions

165. Peri-implantitis org.

a. Gram negative anaerobes
Staphylococcus strains such as Staphylococcus aureus have been
associated with peri-implantitis and implant loss.

The oral microbiota is incredibly varied and can change dramatically even
within sections of the oral cavity. Nevertheless, the microbiota associated
with peri-implantitis, and periodontitis have been considered very similar in
both health and disease. Healthy teeth and implants are typically
surrounded by gram-positive cocci whereas diseased teeth and implants
contain more gram-negative pathogens.

166. Sequence of development (42 de pediatric dentistry) a.

Initiation→Bud→Cap→Bell→Apposition→Maturation

167. Bell's palsy sign: drooling

168. Muscle attached to radiolucency on mand? a. Genioglossus,

geniohyoid

169. Auricular crepitus due to: osteoarthritis

Bootcamp info: Crepitus is an abnormal popping, crackling, or grating

sound experienced in the joints. It is due to the degeneration of cartilage in
the joint, which normally protects the bones of the joint from friction and
impact. Without this cartilage, the joint’s biomechanics change and cause
the bones to grind against one another creating the characteristic popping
or crackling sound heard with crepitus. In the temporomandibular joint, the
main cause of joint degeneration is osteoarthritis, which is the wearing
down of the cartilage from “wear and tear” over time.
170. Mandatory to report:
a. Impaired oral health provider
b. Child abuse

171. Warfarin INR 2.5 a.

Extract
b. Delay Treatment
c. Stop medication.
172. Post and core question a.
Retain core.
b. Retain crown.

The purpose of a post is to retain the core and ultimately the crown for a
tooth that does not have enough retention for one. These are long metal
cylinders that are placed into a sealed root canal and as a result, weaken
the root. Ideally, the diameter of the post should be one-third of the
diameter of the root and a minimum of 1.0 mm of dentin should be present
circumferentially. If there is any less dentin surrounding the post, the risk of
fracture for the root would increase dramatically.

173. The appropriate length of the post is ⅔ the root

Para repasar: the diameter should be ⅓ but the length should be ⅔ In
endodontic restorative procedures, the purpose of placing a post is to retain
the core. Posts can be used to retain amalgam, metal, and composite cores
and strengthen the bond between the coronal buildup material and the
tooth when there is insufficient tooth structure remaining.

174. After instrumentation, bleeding and pain during irrigation:

a. NaOcl accident or irrigant extravasation
b. Center of resistance of maxillary centrals
c. a. xray shows severe bone loss

175. Contact of #9 and #10

a. a. Middle ⅓
b. b. Between incisal ⅓ an middle ⅓ ***
c. c. Between cervical ⅓ and ,,,

176. Pulp canal obliteration

a. Low cold response**
b. Histologic.

177. Patient on dialysis monday and thursday, treatment when?

 a. Tuesday*** (one day after)
b. Wednesday
c. Thursday

178. Patient owes money, wants record.

a. Give record (this is autonomy)
b. When a patient is dismissed, radiographs must be transferred to the new
dentist or patient upon request. This cannot be withheld due to unpaid
balances of the patient, as radiographs are an important diagnostic tool.
It would be unethical to withhold this critical information required for the
patient's future treatment.

179. Dark lesion (purple) distal to second molar origin? a.

foreign body (amalgam tattoo) ***
b. Smoking
c. Vascular

180. Blueish elevation on the floor of the mouth (no pic) [Pro tip:
ranula is floor of the mouth and mucocele is on the inner lip) a.
Ranula***
b. Mucocele

181. Cause by inadequate brushing technique a.

Abrasion
b. Abfraction
c. Erosion

182. Cracked tooth: mandibular second molar

a. The teeth that most commonly experience cracked tooth syndrome in
descending orders are mandibular second molars > mandibular first molars
> maxillary premolars.
183. Shingles: varicella zoster
a. Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan®), an immunosuppressant medication
known to precipitate infection recurrence by varicella zoster virus.
b. Varicella zoster virus is the virus that causes “chicken pox” in children
and adolescents with first inoculation.
c. The virus then remains latent in the dorsal root ganglion.
d. Recurrence may occur in up to 10-20% of patients.
e. Reactivation (recurrence) of the latent virus causes a condition known as
shingles, leading to formation of vesicles and ulcers in a unilateral
distribution that do not cross midline. These lesions can be found on the
skin, or intraorally as seen in this patient.

184. Macule, papule, … (know: elevated?flat?, how big?) 2 questions a.

bulla→ fluid filled lesion greater than 5-10mm in diameter
b. vesicle→ fluid filled lesion less than 5-10mm in diameter
c. papule→ solid, raised lesion, and is less than 5mm in diameter
d. nodule→ deep, solid raised lesion, and is larger than 5mm in diameter
e. Macule→ small, flat, pigmented lesion with a diameter of less than 1 cm

185. Picture of gingival hyperplasia: phenytoin-Dilantin, calcium channel

blockers o cyclosporine
a. The overgrowth occurs in stratum Basale

186. Least risk of infection a.

Facebow**
b. Handpiece
c. Bur
d. Blade
187. unerupted: the reason? a.
Inadequate arch length

188. Most definite way to diagnose pulp

necrosis? a. Cavity test**
b. Transillumination
c. Palpation
d. Percussion

189. Risk of mesial perforation a. Maxillary first

premolar

190. What happens if topical anesthesia is in the

canal?
a. Canal coating preventing obturation**
b. Canal coating creating apical seal
c. Too much smear layer removal

191. Prevalence: proportion of a given population that is affected by a

condition at a given time.
a. a ratio of the number of people who have the condition during a given
time and changes when people either develop the condition or recover from
it.

192. Incidence: The definition of incidence is the frequency or rate of

something undesirable
a. Number of new cases overtime

193. Epi dose in a healthy person a.

0.2mg

194. Use of alcohol adjunct to hand

hygiene a. Visible soils
b. 70% isopropyl
194. Hiring assistant, what test? TB
194. What affects stress from a patient medication list? to. Many meds…
Yo. Can be this…. What medications can cause anxiety?
ii. There are several common medication types that could be the cause of anxiety
symptoms, including stimulants, antidepressants, and thyroid medications

196. Sleep apnea, how to diagnose?

a. Overnight Sleep study

Obstructive sleep apnea is a disorder caused by repetitive collapse of the

upper airway during sleep that obstructs the airway. There can be many
reasons for the collapse including temporary relaxation of the muscles that
support the soft tissues of the throat, high BMI, and obesity, and enlarged
tongue, among others.
When a patient presents with signs or symptoms of obstructive sleep
apnea, they can be referred to a sleep specialist for evaluation and physical
examination. The test used to diagnose sleep apnea is an overnight sleep
study during which the specialist can monitor the patient's breathing.
and other body functions during sleep.

197. Tornado warning…assistant says ignore…

a. Take your team to a safe place***
b. False positive
c. a. Positive results when actually negative
d. 184. Pregnant women with lesion→Pyogenic granuloma

198. Plane of occlusion→⅔ retromolar pad

199. Furcation involvement on 3, what area do you check? a. Mesial distal
facial **
b. Mesial distal palatal
To detect involvement, the tip of the probe is moved towards the presumed
location of the furcation and then curved into the furcation area. For the
mesial surfaces of maxillary molars, this is best done from a palatal
direction, as the mesial furcation is located palatal to the midpoint of the
mesial surface.

200. Dark tooth #5 due to

a. Amalgam (xray shows amalgam rest but in the photo it is not seen)

201. Periodontitis theory: Periodontal diseases are initiated by

gramnegative tooth-associated microbial biofilms that elicit a host
response that results in osseous and soft tissue destruction. Currently,
the predominant theory of periodontal disease treatment involves
minimizing the host response to enhance stability and repair of the
periodontium. This may include actions such as removal of local
irritants (e.g. scaling and root planing), as well as host modulation
therapy (e.g. NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, etc.). Host modulation
therapy aims to downregulate the destructive aspects of the host
response and is used as an adjunct to mechanical debridement during
non-surgical.
therapy. It is typically recommended to be used with chronic periodontitis
and 201. Zoledronic acid MOA and interactions with antibiotics lo que me
pregunto fue: cual celula se afecta mas con este medicamento y puse
osteoclast

202. lupus erythematosus association with sjogren syndrome

.Disease related to Sjogren: Lupus SLE Sjogren's
(SHOW-grins) syndrome is a disorder of your immune system identified by
its two most common symptoms — dry
eyes and a dry mouth. The condition often accompanies other immune
system disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis and lupus.
203.crepitus cause
Auricular crepitus due to: osteoarthritis
a. Bootcamp info: Crepitus is an abnormal popping, crackling, or grating
sound experienced in the joints. It is due to the degeneration of cartilage in
the joint, which normally protects the bones of the joint from friction and
impact.
Without this cartilage, the joint’s biomechanics change and cause the
bones to grind against one another creating the
characteristic popping or crackling sound heard with crepitus. In the
temporomandibular joint, the main cause of joint degeneration is
osteoarthritis, which is the wearing down of the cartilage from “wear and
tear” over time.

204. Raiment patient fibrous dysplasia

205.Periapical cement dysplasia •Female

ant. Mandible:
• Identify amelogenesis imperfecta/ dentinogenesis imperfecta(oblitrated
Pulp)/ regional odontoplasia

206. Case of atrophic denture sore mouth

Patient with denture on pic wearing it once without it and are of looks red
what is it: Atrophic candida

207.Lisinorprile mechanism of action:

208.Lisinopril ACE inhibitor

Lisinopril is an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEI), preventing
the conver- sion of angiotensin I
to angiotensin II. This action prevents myocyte hypertrophy and vascular
smooth muscle cell proliferation seen in untreated patients.
Moa Lisinopril
Blocks the enzyme that converts Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II
MOA Lisinopril: todos los siguientes son mecánicos de acción, pueden
colocarlo de muchas formas:
Flush Water and Sodium.
ACE inhibitors convertidor de Angiotensin I en Angiotensin II. Aumentan la
Bradikinina (Está en la encargada de producir el couhg) . Disminuye la
producción de Aldosterona. Increase Renin and angiotensin system.
(RAAS).

209. Xerostomia med cause: amitriptyline

Patient is taking furosemide and propranolol, what is case the xerostomia:
a.Ppr b.Medicine c.high blood pressure

210. Étiq patient doesn’t paid the bill ask for his radio: you need to give his
xray

211. Plan mandibular

Mandibular plane which points: Go-Gn

213. Innervation of incisive maxillar: Alveolar superior Anterior

214. Mandibule complete denture should be to recover:

For retention of mandibular denture?
o - Cover full retromolar area o -
Cover half retromolar area o -
Do not cover retromolar area

215. Pierre Robin syndrome 2 or 3 questions

Pierre Robin syndrome Hypoplasia in mandible, glossoptosis, cleft lip possible
Pierre robin syndrome associated with Stickler syndrome (People with
Stickler Syndrome result in Pierre
Robin Sequence)
A particular group of physical features called Pierre Robin sequence is also
com- mon in people with Stickler
syndrome. Pierre Robin sequence includes an opening in the roof of the
mouth (a cleft palate ), a tongue that is Dental tribe’s february merge file
placed further back than normal (glossoptosis), and a small lower jaw
(micrognathia ).

216. Genial tubercule muscle insertion

217. Muscle attached to genial tubercles: genioglossus and geniohyoid

218. Distal step Class II

219. J shape meaning: Vertical Fracture

220. Tooth histogenesis: Bud + Cap + Bell +Apos + Cal

221. Indirect retainer on which Kennedy class

Kennedy classification which needs indirect retainerClass1 mod 1 Class 1
mod 2,
Class 4, Class 3 mod1

222. most commonly seen Cracked tooth in: mandibular second molar
a. The teeth that most commonly experience cracked tooth syndrome in
descending order are mandibular second molars > mandibular first molars
> maxillary premolars.

223. Mandibular incisor lateral 2 canal with one exit , 2 root, 2 canal with 2 exit

224. Nerv for gag reflex: Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

225.PPO

226. Extraction of a tooth wanted by the patient but not ??

227. Avoid voice control on autist patient

Autism Pt management, except: a.Voice control b. Sedation c.
desensitization d. repetitive procedures were among answer choice
228. Bisphophonate act on osteoclasts
Bisphosphonate act on what cell? 1. Osteoblast 2. Osteoclast 3. Fibroblast
4. Fibrocyte

229. Least hygienic Pontic

Pontic contraindicated in anterior? Hygienic
Due poor esthetic

230. Lateral pterigoid depress the mandibule

231. Muscle depress the soft palate I put palate glosses not sure

232. Patient 7y with tetralogy of fallot repaired when he born ed how

manage antibio ? Refer to pediatric dentist ?
See with her cardiologist before
8 y old kid, repaired Fallot tetralogy when he was a baby. He needs dental
tx, what do you do?
Refer him to an Odontopediatric dentist,
Get clearance with the pediatric cardiologist? Although he doesn't need AP
this was not among the answer
choices. I picked refer to cardiologist for clearance
Tetralogy of Fallot (TF) is the most common form of Congenital Heart
Disease (CHD), which is characterized
by the association of four cardiac abnormalities (1,2): (i) maligned
ventricular septal defect; (ii) subpulmonary
stenosis; (iii) overriding aorta, and (iv) right ventricular hypertrophy. TF
accounts for around 10% of all CHD, with a prevalence of >2 per 10,000
births, with males affected more than females (3-5).
Is the most common cause of childhood cyanosis. The combination of
pulmonary trunk stenosis and ventricular septal defect causes blood to
shunt from the right heart to the left, bypassing pulmonary circulation. This
causes blood to be underoxygenated, result- ing in cyanosis
Dental tribe’s february merge file
The relationship between oral and systemic health should be consistently
reinforced, es- pecially to parents of
children with cardiac diseases. Thus, Pediatric Dentists, Cardiol- ogists,
and other associated health
practitioners should work together in order to educate children affected with
PA/VSD and their parents and also to enhance oral health-related quality of
life in this vulnerable population.
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5549532/

233. Herpes zoster: SHINGLES = HERPES ZOSTER

234. Tooth sensitivity after composite? A.Too much drying of dentin B. Too
much etching

235. Topical anesthésique in the canal effect

Topical anesthesia in canals— effect? A. Bleeding from canal
B. Canal coating and difficult obturation seal C. Canal coating and smear layer

236. Muscle of the tongue action

Muscle that protrudes tongue: genioglossus.
Muscle that elevates tongue: styloglossus and palatoglossus

237. All of following provides resistance and retention for short crown
EXCEPT
a. vertical groove
b. prox box
c. Chamfer line
d. Less convergence occlusally

238. Freeze dry bone Osteoinducive nature of DFBDA (demineralized

freeze-dried bone allograft) except 1. BMP (bone morphogenetic proteins)
2. Platelet drive factor
3. Interlukine 1
4 Tumor growth factor / Tumor growth factor/ Tumor growth factor
Dental tribe’s february merge file

239. Foreshortening due to:

- Excessive vertical angulation
- Excessive horizontal angulation
- Too little vertical
 - Too little horizontal
-0,7ppm water fluoration minimal

240.-what use in case of carie radicular Best

restorative material for root caries?
1. Modified resin GI
2. Resin
3. Componomer
241. -Image- lesion on tongue. Differential diagnose, except:
Fibroma
Granular cell tumor
Schwannoma
Pleomorphic adenoma (intra-oral is on Palate)

242. Selective bias

In what study bias can interfere with?

Case control
243. Fluoride supplement in child 4 years old with no water
supplementation fluor 0.050
•Fluoride for 4 yr old child in non fluoridated community:
4 year old patient did not live in a fluoridated area that supplement gave
him:0.050ppm (actually 0.5 / day)

244. A graphic with 2 drugs about potency and effect, asking which one
was more potent. Easy to interpret
245. Pico

246. SLOB
Same lingual, opposite buccal (literalmente asi mismo)
2. The Buccal Object Rule or SLOB (same lingual opposite buccal) allows
the interpreter to determine
if an object is positioned buccal or lingual relative to a reference point. It
requires two radiographs to
be taken at two different perspectives. The rule states that as you move the
x-ray machine for the
second image, the more lingual object moves in the same direction as the
machine while the buccal one moves in the opposite direction.

247. Which test done for warfarin:INR

•Warfarin range for extraction:2-3
Type I Hypersensi,vity:
● Ur,caria
● Angioedema
● Shortness of breath
● Anaphylaxis
○ Diaphoresis, which refers to excessive swea,ng, is an early symptom associated
with anaphylaxis ● Latex allergy
● In a typical pa,ent with a penicillin allergy, they will develop an anaphylac,c type I
hypersensi,vity reac,on. This presents as difficulty breathing, a rash, and hypotension.
● Immediate allergic reac,on to dentures
● allergic asthma where an irritant causes the airways to narrow, swell, and produce
excessive mucus

Type II Hypersensi,vity:
● Pemphigus Vulgaris
● Rheuma,c heart disease
● Grave’s disease
● Hashimoto’s thyroidi,s
● Examples of type II hypersensi,vity reac,on include anemia, blood transfusion
reac,ons, some platelet disorders, and some types of ,ssue transplant rejec,on
● Type III Hypersensi,vity
● Rheumatoid arthri,s
● Lupus
● Drug induced lupus
Type IV Hypersensi,vity:
● Amalgam Filling reac,on
● Lichen planus
● Contact derma,,s
● Steven Johnson Syndrome (SJS) JS is classified as a delayed T-cell mediated type IV
hypersensi,vity reac,on.
● Penicillin is associated with several forms of allergic response, including inters,,al
nephri,s, a delayed type IV hypersensi,vity reac,on involving damage to the kidneys
due to ac,va,on of T cells.
● A graV versus host reac,on is caused by the donor’s T cells recognizing the recipient
cells as being foreign and aXacking them, as well as a type IV hypersensi,vity reac,on.
● TB test
● Cold sore
● Dental bonding agent