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PyQ S

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
79 views29 pages

PyQ S

PyQ S

Uploaded by

Santosh Kulkarni
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 29

Series DBC5A/5 SET-1

Q.P. Code 2/5/1


Roll No. Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

NOTE
(I) Please check that this question paper contains 19 printed pages.
(II) Please check that this question paper contains 11 questions.
(III) Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
(IV) Please write down the serial number of the question in the
answer-book before attempting it.
(V) 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to
10.30 a.m., the students will read the question paper only and
will not write any answer on the answer-book during this period.

ENGLISH
(Language and Literature)

Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80

General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
(i) This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper contains three sections :
Section A Reading Skills
Section B Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C Literature
(iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

2/5/1-15 1 P.T.O.
SECTION A
Reading Skills 20 marks

1. Read the following passage carefully : 10

(1) The words probiotics, prebiotics, and postbiotics may sound like
variations of the same thing, but what a difference a prefix makes.
The first is a category of health-promoting microbes. The latter two
groups are types of beneficial molecules. But all three biotics are
critical for supporting the community of microscopic organisms that
live in the gastrointestinal tract, known as the gut microbiome. With
both beneficial and harmful bacteria living in the human body, these
diet-related factors the biotics help tip the balance in the
positive direction. It is important to understand their differences, as

even as they work together.

(2) Despite their importance for the gut microbiome, the health benefits
of these biotics , which are present in certain foods or result from
their metabolism, extend beyond the digestive tract. A growing body
of scientific evidence has linked prebiotics, probiotics, and postbiotics,
with improvements in metabolic diseases including obesity and
cholesterol abnormalities depressive symptoms and poor sleep
quality, among many other conditions.

(3) Besides promoting general gut health, consuming food rich in


probiotics can improve irritable bowel syndrome and
antibiotic-related diarrhea, prevent travel
vitamins and increase nutrient absorption, and decrease the risk of
common infections. In fact, when consumed regularly, probiotics have
been found to reduce the occurrence of upper respiratory tract
infections (like the common cold).

(4) Many different types of beneficial bacteria are considered probiotics.


The most common ones include Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium, of
match what it is

Gregor Reid. Many different types of beneficial bacteria are


considered probiotics.

2/5/1-15 2
(5) Some foods, such as yogurt, kefir, kimchee, and fermented soybeans
and kombucha naturally contain probiotics. But h
get complicated: not all fermented foods or yogurts contain probiotics,
Reid says. As a consumer, a good starting point is to look for the

if specific strains of

(6) Simply put, prebiotics are sources of food for those beneficial microbes
the probiotics. They are typically a form of carbohydrate or fiber
to digest. As a result, they move
through the digestive tract to the intestine, where beneficial bacteria
(probiotics) can feast on them.

(7) When you consume foods that are rich in probiotics and prebiotics,
the microbes in your gut consume the undigestible prebiotic fiber and
produce bioactive compounds called postbiotics. They are ultimately
the endgame that we want they affect how our gut operates and
keeps the good bacteria there and the bad bacteria out.

Answer the following questions, based on the above passage :

(i)
attitude towards probiotics ? 1
(A) Probiotics, prebiotics and postbiotics are variations of the
same thing, with just a difference of a prefix.
(B) All fermented foods or yogurts naturally contain probiotics.
(C) All three biotics are equally important to support microscopic
organisms that live in the gut microbiome.
(D) Only probiotics are important as they can improve irritable
bowel syndrome and antibiotic-related diarrhea.

(ii)
beyond the digestive tract. Rationalise your response in about
40 words. 2

2/5/1-15 3 P.T.O.
(iii) Complete the sentence appropriately. 1
To get the right probiotic and to match
requirement, it is important to see the label for __________.

(iv) The passage includes some words that are opposites of each other.
From the sets (A) (E) below, identify two sets of antonyms. 1
(A) increase and decrease
(B) probiotic and postbiotic
(C) beneficial and harmful
(D) feast and fermented
(E) consuming and digestive
(v) Complete the sentence appropriately. 1
The author wants to stress the fact that there is not just one type
of beneficial bacteria considered as probiotic, in fact, some
probiotics have _________.
(vi) Based on the reading of the passage, examine in about 40 words,
the importance of prebiotics for the human gut and how they are
related to probiotics. 2
(vii) As a consumer, if you want to pick a probiotic product, what is the
most important thing to keep in mind ?
Pick the best answer. 1
(A) Any fermented product that contains probiotics.
(B) Checking the label for specific strains of bacteria.
(C) oti grocery store are
safe to pick.
(D) .

(viii) ir importance for the gut microbiome, the health


, which are present in certain foods or
result from t 1
As per this statement from the passage, how relevant are the
biotics for humans ? Pick the best answer.
(A) Their relevance has been proven by scientific evidence.
(B) Not very relevant as more study is needed.
(C) Their relevance cannot be generalised for everyone.
(D) Only probiotics are relevant for humans.

2/5/1-15 4
2. Read the following passage carefully : 10

(1) After more than two years of


hospitality industry is now cautiously hopeful. Tourism constituted

2019. But the sector was severely hit in India like in other
countries in the past two years.

(2) Indians are now travelling with a vengeance , as


the phenomenon is called. And many, experts say, now prefer to
travel within the country instead of flying to more expensive
destinations abroad. The industry is also benefitting from new trends
borne of the pandemic such as micro-holidays and workcations.

(3) According to a survey, 51 percent of Indian travellers believed that


international travel remained an important means of expanding their
horizons and connecting with other cultures. Over two years, the
survey said, Indian travellers are now dreaming about their next
international trip and more than 70 percent of Indians are excited
about being able to travel internationally.

(4) There has also been an increase in the number of students going
abroad to study. The increasing desire to study overseas is credited to
the pent- -year duration. This has
got further pronounced because of growing aspirations and
affordability among the middle-class students from Tier II and
Tier III cities.

2/5/1-15 5 P.T.O.
The table below shows foreign travel by Indians for different purposes
from 2019 to 2022.

Purpose 2019 2020 2021 2022


Business 14·7 L 2·6 L 1·2 L 4·6 L
Job 25·2 L 7·1 L 8·3 L 21·4 L
Residency 89·5 L 28·9 L 34·6 L 72·5 L
Education 5·8 L 2·6 L 4·4 L 6·5 L
Tourists 63·8 L 13·1 L 12·8 L 30·8 L
Visit 42·1 L 10·1 L 15·1 L 40·9 L
Medical 1,448 390 545 1,253
Pilgrimage 8·8 L 1·1 L 4,139 4·6 L
Others 2·6 L 54,775 58,767 1·6 L
Total 2·5 Crore 66·2 L 77·2 L 1·8 Crore

Answer the following questions, based on the above passage :

(i) Complete the following analogy appropriately, based on your


understanding of paragraphs 1 and 2. 1

We can say that the situation when people were travelling with
a vengeance is comparable to people going out to dine in hordes,
because _________________.

(ii) Fill in the blanks with the appropriate option from those given
in brackets, based on your understanding of paragraph 1. 1

The statement that,


GDP and generated around 100 million jobs in 2019 , is a/an
____________ (fact/opinion) because it is a/an ____________
(subjective judgement/objective detail).

2/5/1-15 6
(iii) Justify the following in about 40 words. 2
After being cooped up inside their houses for more than two
years, Indians are now excited about being able to travel
internationally.

(iv) Based on the given table, for which purpose did Indian foreign
travel increase in 2022 as compared to 2019 ? 1

(v) benefitting from new trends borne of the


pandemic such as micro-holidays and workca Which
1

(vi) As per the given table, for which purpose did maximum number
of Indians undertake foreign travel in 2019 and in 2022 ?
State any one inference that can be drawn from this. 1

(vii) Why are students today choosing to go abroad to study ?


(Answer in about 40 words.) 2

(viii) Which of the following is the main takeaway from the study
mentioned in the passage ? 1

(A) International travel remains an important means of


expanding the horizons and connecting with other
cultures.

(B) Though travel, both domestic and international, has


picked up, it has yet to reach its previous levels.

(C) Indians are excited about being able to travel


internationally.

(D) The study needs to include experts from Tourism


Department to offer any recommendations for further
research.

2/5/1-15 7 P.T.O.
SECTION B
Grammar and Creative Writing Skills 20 marks

Grammar

3. Complete any ten of the following twelve tasks, as directed. 10 1=10

(i) Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the
brackets, for the given portion of a letter. 1

Thank you for exceeding company expectations and __________


(inspire) your team with your spectacular work ethic.

(ii) Read the given sentence from a movie review article.


Identify the error and supply the correction in the sentence. 1

sequences.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

(iii) Akshat and Niharika had a conversation about the felicitation of


Aksha 1

What will you be wearing for tomorrow s function ?

(iv) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option, to complete the
disclaimer given before a documentary film. 1

The film has been created by taking creative liberties and


dramatizing the events __________ (about/for/on) cinematic
expressions.
2/5/1-15 8
(v) Identify the error and supply the correction for the given sentence
from a comment posted by an admirer of a reporter. 1
The report was well document, so no one could claim that it was

Use the given format for your response.


Error Correction

(vi) Complete the given narrative by filling in the blank with the
correct option. 1
Now that many employees have shown high productivity working
from home, will their bosses hereafter __________ them to take
working vacations ?
(A) expecting (B) expected
(C) have expected (D) expect

(vii) Read the dialogue between Karan and his teacher regarding his
absence from school. 1
Teacher : Karan, why were you absent yesterday ?
Karan : Yesterday I had cold and fever, sir.
beforehand.
Teacher : . Take care of your health.
Select the correct option to complete the reporting of the above
dialogue.
The teacher asked Karan ___________________.
Karan replied that he had cold and fever the previous day and
the teacher beforehand. The teacher
advised him to take care of his health.
(A) why did he remain absent the previous day
(B) why he had been absent the previous day
(C) the reason he was absent
(D) why was he absent yesterday

2/5/1-15 9 P.T.O.
(viii) Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the
correction for the opening line, from a Terms and Conditions
document. 1
Though all efforts have been made to ensure the accuracy of the
content on this website, the same could not be construed as a
statement of law or used for any legal purposes.

Option No. Error Correction


(A) efforts effort
(B) ensure ensuring
(C) could should
(D) of for

(ix) Report the following dialogue between a hawker and his customer,
by completing the sentence. 1
Hawker : Do you want any tomatoes ?
Customer : Yes, indeed! Although they are a bit expensive, I like
to add tomatoes to my diet.
The hawker asked the customer whether she wanted any
tomatoes. The customer answered in the affirmative and
explained that _______________.

(x) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the
part of the grievance posted by a citizen on a social media
platform. 1

Crossing this stretch at any time of the day is a challenge. Even


during afternoons, there ____________ ice cream vendors on the
road with people crowding around their carts.
(A) were
(B) are
(C) have been
(D) would be

2/5/1-15 10
(xi) Complete the line from a Save the Planet song, by filling in the
blank with the correct option. 1

To save the planet for me and you


E is for environment, keep it clean
If we ___________ together, we ll make the best team.
(A) will be standing (B) stand
(C) had stood (D) are standing
(xii) Identify the error and supply the correction for the following note
in a smart . 1
When the watch is connected to the mobile phone, the watch may
automatically calibrate and synchronize with the time of the
mobile phone.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction

Creative Writing Skills


Note : All details presented in the questions are imaginary and created for
assessment purpose.

4. Attempt any one from (a) and (b) given below : 5


(a) The problem of open manholes and drains in your locality is posing
a threat to the lives of people. As a young citizen, who cares about
the upkeep of the locality and safety of the residents, write a letter
to the editor of a local daily, in about 120 words, expressing your
concern at the situation and suggesting measures to resolve the
problem and drawing attention of the concerned authorities.
You are Sam/Karen of 67, Mist Apartments, Gagan Vihar, Akash
Nagar.
OR
(b) As Rohini Monga / Rohan Monga, of 43 Jai Apartments, Neerbagh,
you feel that there should be a dedicated space in the community
park for the senior citizens of the society, where they can gather.
Write a letter to the RWA of your society in about 120 words,
suggesting spaces in the park and emphasizing the importance of
creating such a space.

2/5/1-15 11 P.T.O.
5. Attempt any one from (a) and (b) given below : 5

(a) The detailed global millets production data from different


countries is depicted in the pie chart given below. Analyze this
chart and write an analytical paragraph in about 120 words, by
selecting features that support your analysis and suggesting
possible reasons for the variation in production by different
countries.

Global Millet Production Statistics (FAO 2018)

For Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 5 (a) :


ortance of Tree
Planta . Using your own ideas and the information given
below, write the paragraph in about 120 words. 5
One of the best activities make planet greener, healthier to
develop biodiversity ensure supply of oxygen for coming
generations add to natural beauty NGOs can be involved for
plantation drive.
OR
2/5/1-15 12
(b) There are many benefits of healthy eating for adults as well as
children. The following charts reflect the same. Based on the
information given in the charts, write an analytical paragraph in
about 120 words, assessing the importance of healthy eating for
adults as well as children.

2/5/1-15 13 P.T.O.
For the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 5 (b) :
Based on the given information, write an analytical paragraph in about
120 words, assessing the importance of healthy eating for both adults and
children.
Adults Children
longer life, healthy weight keeps them healthy and strong
keeps skin, teeth, eyes healthy strengthens bones
supports muscles supports muscles
boosts immunity boosts immunity
strengthens bones supports brain development
helps digestive system
supports healthy pregnancies
and breastfeeding
SECTION C
Literature 40 marks
6. Read the following extracts and answer the questions for any one of the
given two, (a) or (b) : 5
(a) We have, at last, achieved our political emancipation. We pledge
ourselves to liberate all our people from the continuing bondage of
poverty, deprivation, suffering, gender and other discrimination.
Never, never, and never again shall it be that this beautiful land will
again experience the oppression of one by another.
The sun shall never set on so glorious a human achievement.
Let freedom reign. God bless Africa!
(Nelson Mandela Long Walk to Freedom)
(i) State any one inference about Nelson Mandela from the given
context : 1

(ii) State True or False : 1


ntends to mean
well-being and welfare of only black people in South Africa.
(iii)
about 40 words with reference to the extract. 2
(iv) Which phrase would correctly the
given sentence from the extract. 1
The sun shall never set on so glorious a human achievement.
OR

2/5/1-15 14
(b) The expected call came within a few days. Mrs. Pumphrey was
distraught. Tricki would eat nothing. Refused even his favourite
dishes; and besides he had bouts of vomiting. He spent all his time

anything.

I had made my plans in advance. The only way was to get Tricki out
of the house for a period. I suggested that he be hospitalised for about
a fortnight to be kept under observation.
(A Triumph of Surgery)
(i) Which of the following is not a reason why Mr. Herriot thinks
Tricki needs to be taken out of the house for a period ? 1

(A) He wanted to keep Tricki away from Mrs. Pumphrey.

(B) He wanted to keep Tricki under observation.

(C) He wanted to do an experiment on Tricki.

(D) He wanted to improve Tricki health.

(ii) What was the main reason for Mrs. Pumphrey to be


distraught ? Answer in about 40 words. 2

(iii) State True or False : 1


When Mr. Her
what he actually means is, he had already seen this trauma
coming for Tricki.

(iv) Which of the following best describes Mrs. Pumphrey ? 1

(A) unkind and inconsiderate

(B) impractical but compassionate

(C) anxious and ambitious

(D) fearful but confident

2/5/1-15 15 P.T.O.
7. Read the following extracts and answer the questions for any one of the
given two, (a) or (b) : 5

(a) In a world of possessions. People will take


Balls, balls will be lost always, little boy.
And no one buys a ball back. Money is external.
He is learning, well behind his desperate eyes,

The epistemology of loss, how to stand up


Knowing what every man must one day know
And most know many days, how to stand up.
(The Ball Poem)

(i) Fill in the blank with one word. 1


will take balls, Balls will be lost
________.

(ii) The poet says that money is external. What inference can be
drawn from this statement ?
Answer in about 40 words. 2

(iii)
towards material possessions ? 1
(A) indifferent
(B) emotional
(C) casual
(D) respectful

(iv) 1

OR

2/5/1-15 16
(b)
Remember your acne, Amanda!

Amanda!
(I am Rapunzel, I have not a care;
life in a tower is tranquil and rare;)
(Amanda)
(i) What is the central idea of the poem as reflected in the lines
above ?
Answer in about 40 words. 2

(ii) Complete the sentence with the appropriate option. 1


,
__________.
(A) loving (B) relaxed
(C) authoritative (D) thoughtful

(iii) Identify any one poetic device used in the above extract. 1

(iv) For what reason does Amanda imagine herself to be Rapunzel ? 1

8. Answer any four of the following five questions in 40 50 words


each : 4 3=12
(i) Maxwell decides to keep an otter as a pet. Elucidate with reference
to the fact that owning a pet is a life of commitment.
(Mijbil the Otter)
(ii) ad. How does
Ogden Nash create humour and entertainment in the poem ?
(iii)
characters and plot.
(iv) The author says During our childhood in Goa, the baker used to be
our friend, companion and guide. Elaborate.
(Glimpses of India)
(v) Do you think you can love a person for his/her inner beauty alone
and not care about the physical appearance ?

2/5/1-15 17 P.T.O.
9. Answer any two of the following three questions in 40 50 words each : 2 3=6
(i) One should never judge a book by its cover. Explain with reference
to Ausable and how he outwits Max with his presence of mind.
(The Midnight Visitor)
(ii) c
(A Question of Trust)
(iii) How can one say that Ebright s curiosity / inquisitiveness drove him
to become a scientist ?
(The Making of a Scientist)

10. Answer any one of the following two questions in 100 120 words : 6
(a) You have been asked to present an evaluation of the approaches of
both, the Baby Seagull and the Pilot who was lost in the clouds,
towards achieving their dreams of conquering the skies.
Write this presentation draft including your insights, comparing the
approaches of both.
You may begin this way : One acknowledges that both, the Seagull
and the Pilot, wanted to ........................ however, ........................ .
(Reference : Two Stories About Flying)

OR

(b) You have been chosen to address the school assembly, to speak on
the epistemology of loss and the resilience of the human spirit
during times of crisis. Prepare the speech draft, with reference to

You may begin this way :


Good morning everyone.
Today, re that offer a
powerful insight into how to deal with loss and the resilience of the
human spirit required during times of crisis.
You may end this way :
........................ . Thank you.

2/5/1-15 18
11. Answer any one of the following two questions in 100 120 words : 6

(a) Imagine that Bholi writes a diary entry, exploring the themes of
, in the context of her own
experiences.
Write this dairy entry, as Bholi.

OR

(b) A character arc is the transformation or development of a character


throughout a story and refers to the changes a character undergoes
as a result of his/her experiences, challenges and interactions with
other characters.

In light of the above information, trace the character arc of Griffin in


H.G. Wells Footprints without Feet .

2/5/1-15 19 P.T.O.
Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Secondary School Examination, 2024
SUBJECT NAME ENGLISH (LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE) (184)
(Q.P. CODE – 2/5/1)
General Instructions: -
1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious
problems which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching
profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must
read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of
the examinations conducted, Evaluation done, and several other aspects. Its
leakage to public in any manner could lead to derailment of the examination
system and affect the life and future of millions of candidates. Sharing this
policy/document to anyone, publishing in any magazine and printing in News
Paper/Website etc may invite action under various rules of the Board and IPC.”
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should
not be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking
Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while
evaluating, answers which are based on latest information or knowledge and/or
are innovative, they may be assessed for their correctness otherwise and due
marks be awarded to them. In class-X, while evaluating two competency-based
questions, please try to understand given answer and even if reply is not from
marking scheme but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due
marks should be awarded.
4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers.
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer.
The students can have their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due
marks should be awarded accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each
evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the
instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be
zero after delibration and discussion. The remaining answer books meant for evaluation
shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in the marking of
individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be
marked. Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that
answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is the most common mistake
which evaluators commit.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks
awarded for different parts of the question should then be totalled up and written in the
left-hand margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin
and encircled. This may also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more
marks should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra
Question”.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized
only once.

2/5/1 1
11 A full scale of marks __________(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in
Question Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer
deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours
every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books
per day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).This is in view of the
reduced syllabus and number of questions in question paper.
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the
Examiners in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totalling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark
is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for
incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks
awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should
be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totalling error
detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the
evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all
concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and
judiciously.
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines
for spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over
to the title page, correctly totalled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on
payment of the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head
Examiners/Head Examiners are once again reminded that they must ensure that
evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the
Marking Scheme.

2/5/1 2
Set 2/5/1
MARKING SCHEME
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE
SECTION A (Reading) (20 marks)
1 Discursive Passage : 10
i) (C) All three biotics are equally important to support microscopic organisms that (1)
live in the gut microbiome.
ii) Yes, scientific evidence has linked prebiotics, probiotics and postbiotics with (2)
improvements in:
- metabolic diseases / obesity / cholesterol abnormalities
− depressive symptoms
- poor sleep quality
- respiratory tract infections.
(any two points)
iii) live and active cultures / Listing of specific strains of bacteria/name of bacteria (1)
iv) (A) Increase and decrease (1)
(C) Beneficial and harmful
(partial credit of ½ marks for each)
v) Dozens of strains / different strains (1)
vi) - Prebiotics are beneficial molecules: support microscopic organisms living in (2)
gastro–intestinal tract / gut.
- Prebiotics: indigestible carbohydrate / fiber.
- Source of food for the probiotics.
(any two points)
vii) (B) Checking the label for specific strains of bacteria. (1)
viii) (A) Their relevance has been proven by scientific evidence. (1)
2. Case-based Factual Passage : 10
i) People were tired of being cooped up, started travelling with a vengeance, in (1)
same way people were tired of eating home food, started eating out with a
vengeance.
ii) a fact (1)
an objective detail
iii) - The survey said 51 percent of Indian travelers believed that international travel (2)
remained an important means of expanding their horizons and connecting with
other cultures.
- 70 percent of Indians are excited to travel internationally.
iv) Education. (1)
v) Travel and Tourism industry/ hospitality industry/travel industry/Tourism (1)
industry
vi) Residency purpose. (1)
Inference − for better opportunity/infrastructure/standard of living/to unite
with family/more income − or any other possible inference. (partial credit of ½
mark for writing “residency” and partial credit of ½ mark for any one
inference. No partial credit for inference alone if “residency” is not written.)
vii) - Growing aspirations among middle class students from Tier-II and Tier-III (2)
cities.

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- Growing affordability among middle class students from Tier-II and Tier-III
cities.
− better opportunity for jobs
- acquiring better skills from best universities/study courses as per one’s interest
- broaden horizons/learn cultural differences and develop tolerance.
(any two points)
viii) (B) Though travel, both domestic and international, has picked up, it has yet to (1)
reach previous levels.
SECTION B (Grammar) (10x1=10 marks)
3. Any ten out of twelve questions to be attempted / marked
Full credit − 1, for correct answers. No partial credit of 1/2, for any question in
this section.
i) Inspiring (1)
ii) (1)
Error engaged
Correction engaging
iii) Niharika asked/enquired Akshat what he would be wearing for the (1)
following/next day’s function.
iv) For (1)
v) (1)
Error Correction
document documented
vi) (D) expect (1)
vii) (B) why he had been absent the previous day (1)
viii) (C) (1)

Error Correction
Could should
ix) Although they were a bit expensive, she liked to add tomatoes to her diet. (1)
x) (B) are (1)
xi) (B) stand (1)
Error Correction (1)

xii)
may will
SECTION B (Writing Skills) (10 Marks)
4. Any one from (a) and (b) to be attempted 5
a) Letter to Editor
Format − 1 mark − full credit if all aspects included. Partial credit
(½ mark) if one/two aspects are missing. No credit if more than two
aspects are missing.

Organisation of ideas – 1 mark (effective style, orderly sequence,


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paragraphed structure, formal tone)
Accuracy − 1 mark (vocabulary, spelling, punctuation and grammar.)

Content − 2 marks
Value Points:
Any relevant value points other than the ones mentioned below to be
accepted:
*Problems of open manholes and drains.
*Relevance of the problem to the safety of the residents.
*Relevance of the problem to the upkeep of the locality.
*Measures to resolve the problem.
OR
b) Letter to RWA of the society
Format − 1 mark − full credit if all aspects included. Partial credit (½
mark) if one/two aspects are missing. No credit if more than two aspects
are missing.

Organisation of ideas – 1 mark (effective style, orderly sequence,


paragraphed structure, formal tone)

Accuracy − 1 mark (vocabulary, spelling, punctuation and grammar.)

Content − 2 marks
Value Points:
Any relevant value points other than the ones mentioned below to be
accepted:
*Need for a dedicated space in the community park for senior citizens
*Measures to create the space
5. Attempt any one from (a) and (b) given below : 5
a) Organisation of ideas − 2 marks (effective style, orderly sequence,
single paragraph structure, formal tone and functional vocabulary)

Accuracy − 1 mark (Spelling, punctuation and Grammar).

Content – 2 marks
Value Points:
Four trends / points to be included, well developed with sustained
clarity
Any relevant value points other than the ones mentioned below to be
accepted:
 Comparison of production of millets by countries
 Identification of the highest and the lowest producer.
 Suggest possible reasons for the variations in production.

For Visually Impaired Candidates:

 Developed bio-diversity ensures oxygen supply for future.


 NGOs’ involvement in plantation drive helps bio-diversity.
 Any other relevant point.

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OR
b) Organisation of ideas − 2 marks (effective style, orderly sequence,
single paragraph structure, formal tone and functional vocabulary)

Accuracy − 1 mark
Spelling, punctuation and Grammar.

Content – 2 marks
Value Points:
Four trends / points to be included, well developed with sustained clarity
Any relevant value points other than the ones mentioned below to be
accepted:
 Comparison between the two charts.
 Identification of the similarities and the differences.
 Possible arguments presenting an opposing view.
SECTION C
(Literature textbook and supplementary reading Text ) (40 marks)
6. Attempt any one of the two extracts (a) and (b) given below : 5
a) Reference to Context – Prose
(i)* Mandela felt a sense of achievement/fulfilment. (1)
* Mandela felt that their struggles & sufferings were worth it.
* Mandela felt a sense of collective achievement.
(Any one inference)
(ii) False (1)
(iii) *Achieving political emancipation (2)
*Liberation from continued bondage of poverty / deprivation / suffering / gender
and discrimination.
*No more oppression in Africa.
*Repeating of the word ‘never’ to show optimism.
* Optimism in the way he refers to Africa as beautiful land.
(Any two value points)
(iv) Distinguished/outstanding/magnificent, (any other appropriate synonym to (1)
be accepted)
OR

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b) (i) (C) He wanted to do an experiment on Tricki (1)
(ii)*The dog became really sick. (2)
*He didn’t want to go for walks.
*He refused to eat and would just lay on the rug, panting.
(Any two value points)
(iii) True (1)
(iv) (B) impractical but compassionate. (1)
7 Attempt any one of the two extracts (a) and (b) given below :
a) Poetry − (The Ball Poem) 5
(i) Instructive/Practical/Realistic/Matter-of-fact (1)
(Any other appropriate synonym)
(ii) *Money can buy a new ball but cannot buy back the love associated (2)
with it.
*Things that one loves cannot be replaced with money.
(iii) (A) Indifferent (1)
(iv) Alliteration (1)
OR
b) Poetry − (Amanda !)
(i) *The central idea is the contrast between control and freedom. (2)
*Amanda’s character symbolizes the desire for freedom and her mother
represents the control over freedom.
*The poem is about a child whose parents constantly regulate her.
(Any two value points)
(ii) (C) Authoritative (1)
(iii) Repetition − Amanda (1)
Metaphor − Amanda compares herself to Rapunzel.
Allusion – Amanda’s character is alluded to the character of Rapunzel
(iv) *To escape mother’s nagging, she fantasizes to be Rapunzel. (1)
* In the tower, Rapunzel is beyond anyone’s interference, free and peaceful,
better situation than her.
8. Four of five Short Answer questions to be attempted. 4x3=12
First Flight
Content − 2 marks (any two relevant points to be accepted)
Organisation − 1 mark (1/2 mark to be deducted for accuracy from the
overall credit of a response, if error density is high-more than a total
of 2 spellings and / grammatical errors)
The given detailed reference points can be drawn upon to structure the
desired response.
i) * When he brought the otter, a new phase of his life began. (3)
* Maxwell had to understand the ways of Mijbil’s life.
* Maxwell had to make accommodations in his living space and his
routine for Mijbil.
*Maxwell had to face comments from various people about Mijbil.
(any two points, any other relevant point to be accepted)
ii) *Use of non-standard language (3)
*Vivid and funny imagery of the pirate and the characters
* The ironic humour created by the characters who are portrayed as brave
but actually flee in the face of danger.
(any two points, any other relevant point to be accepted)

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iii) * Title refers to the central event of the play --- Proposal of Lomov to (3)
Natalya.
* The proposal sets the stage for the conflict and tension and drives the
action of the play.
* Lomov’s proposal turns out to be a complicated negotiation that involves
matters of property, pride and social status: fight about the Oxen Meadows
and the dogs.

(any two points, any other relevant point to be accepted)


iv) * Baker was an important part of the children growing up. (3)
* He used to make a musical entry on the scene which children loved.
*No celebration in the house was complete without products by the baker.

(any two points, any other relevant point to be accepted)


v) Both stand yes / no accepted and justified using two relevant value points. (3)
Suggestive value points are listed below:

For Yes, you can love people for their inner beauty:
* Love for inner beauty - divine form of love.
* Anne: external appearance is temporary.

For No, you cannot love people for their inner beauty:
* Young men love Anne only for her hair.
* Only god and not humans can look beyond appearances.

(any two points, any other relevant point to be accepted)


9 a) Two out of three Short Answer type questions to be attempted. 2x3=6
Footprints Without Feet
Content − 2 marks (any two relevant points to be accepted)
Organisation − 1 mark (1/2 mark to be deducted for accuracy from the
overall credit of a response, if error density is high-more than a total of 2
spellings and / grammatical errors)
i) * Ausable did not fit into any description of a secret agent − he was chubby, (3)
lethargic, messy and clumsy.
* To outwit Max, Auusable acts calmly and wisely in a situation of danger.
* Ausable cooked up a convincing story to outwit Max: Max jumps out of
the balcony.

(any two points, any other relevant point to be accepted)


ii) * Horace Danby and the lady had planned to rob the same house. (3)
* Danby was tricked by the lady disguised as the wife of the owner.
* While the lady got away with it, the police arrested him.

(any two points, any other relevant point to be accepted)


iii) * Ebright’s curiosity leads him to collect butterflies and read more. (3)
* His inquisitiveness leads him to contact Dr. Urquhart to learn more about
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science as a child.
* He did a research project on butterflies that led to his new theory on the
lives of cells.

(any two points, any other relevant point to be accepted)


10. One out of the two Long Answer questions to be attempted 6
First Flight
Content − 3 marks
Expression − 2 marks
Accuracy − 1 mark
a) Approach of the baby seagull:
* Takes to flying out of desperation and hunger.
* Needed to be pushed to the edge to overcome fear.
* Her approach is cautious and she is compelled to.
Approach of the pilot:
* Takes risk to go through the storm.
* Trusts his instincts to get through the difficult situations.
* His approach is adventurous and instinctive.

(any 3 points with at least one for each side to be written, any other relevant
point to accepted)
OR
b) * Both talk about loss --- the “The Ball Poem” about the loss of the ball and
“From the Diary of Anne Frank,” about the loss of their homes.
* Both talk about loss being part of growing up and an universal experience.
* Both talk about how they dealt with loss --- the boy deals with loss of ball
and Anne shares about her experience of the holocaust.
* Loss as a transformative experience.

(any 3 points with at least one for each side to be written, any other relevant
point to accepted)
11. One out of the two Long Answer questions 6
Footprints Without Feet
Content − 3 marks
Expression − 2 marks
Accuracy − 1 mark
a) * Bholi seen as unmarriageable because she had pock marks/scars on her
face.
* Bholi’s worth determined by her marriageability as a girl child.
* The teacher provided her support and encouragement.
* Her education leads her to take a stand on dowry.
* Her education leads her to stand against the humiliation of her father.

(any three points from the above to be accepted)


(any other relevant point also to be accepted)
OR
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b) * Griffin’s arc of transformation from a position of a gifted scientist to
lawlessness.
* Griffin was very gifted scientist.
* Devised an experiment to become invisible.
* Uses his invention for sinister actions
* Shows a psychopathic lack of empathy and shame.
* Shows a desire to cause harm for the sake of it.
* Conducted unlawful activities, harmed innocent people.
* Failed to gain sympathy due to his evil ways.

(any three points from the above to be accepted)


(any other relevant point also to be accepted)

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