PyQ S
PyQ S
NOTE
(I) Please check that this question paper contains 19 printed pages.
(II) Please check that this question paper contains 11 questions.
(III) Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
(IV) Please write down the serial number of the question in the
answer-book before attempting it.
(V) 15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to
10.30 a.m., the students will read the question paper only and
will not write any answer on the answer-book during this period.
ENGLISH
(Language and Literature)
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
(i) This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper contains three sections :
Section A Reading Skills
Section B Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C Literature
(iii) Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.
2/5/1-15 1 P.T.O.
SECTION A
Reading Skills 20 marks
(1) The words probiotics, prebiotics, and postbiotics may sound like
variations of the same thing, but what a difference a prefix makes.
The first is a category of health-promoting microbes. The latter two
groups are types of beneficial molecules. But all three biotics are
critical for supporting the community of microscopic organisms that
live in the gastrointestinal tract, known as the gut microbiome. With
both beneficial and harmful bacteria living in the human body, these
diet-related factors the biotics help tip the balance in the
positive direction. It is important to understand their differences, as
(2) Despite their importance for the gut microbiome, the health benefits
of these biotics , which are present in certain foods or result from
their metabolism, extend beyond the digestive tract. A growing body
of scientific evidence has linked prebiotics, probiotics, and postbiotics,
with improvements in metabolic diseases including obesity and
cholesterol abnormalities depressive symptoms and poor sleep
quality, among many other conditions.
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(5) Some foods, such as yogurt, kefir, kimchee, and fermented soybeans
and kombucha naturally contain probiotics. But h
get complicated: not all fermented foods or yogurts contain probiotics,
Reid says. As a consumer, a good starting point is to look for the
if specific strains of
(6) Simply put, prebiotics are sources of food for those beneficial microbes
the probiotics. They are typically a form of carbohydrate or fiber
to digest. As a result, they move
through the digestive tract to the intestine, where beneficial bacteria
(probiotics) can feast on them.
(7) When you consume foods that are rich in probiotics and prebiotics,
the microbes in your gut consume the undigestible prebiotic fiber and
produce bioactive compounds called postbiotics. They are ultimately
the endgame that we want they affect how our gut operates and
keeps the good bacteria there and the bad bacteria out.
(i)
attitude towards probiotics ? 1
(A) Probiotics, prebiotics and postbiotics are variations of the
same thing, with just a difference of a prefix.
(B) All fermented foods or yogurts naturally contain probiotics.
(C) All three biotics are equally important to support microscopic
organisms that live in the gut microbiome.
(D) Only probiotics are important as they can improve irritable
bowel syndrome and antibiotic-related diarrhea.
(ii)
beyond the digestive tract. Rationalise your response in about
40 words. 2
2/5/1-15 3 P.T.O.
(iii) Complete the sentence appropriately. 1
To get the right probiotic and to match
requirement, it is important to see the label for __________.
(iv) The passage includes some words that are opposites of each other.
From the sets (A) (E) below, identify two sets of antonyms. 1
(A) increase and decrease
(B) probiotic and postbiotic
(C) beneficial and harmful
(D) feast and fermented
(E) consuming and digestive
(v) Complete the sentence appropriately. 1
The author wants to stress the fact that there is not just one type
of beneficial bacteria considered as probiotic, in fact, some
probiotics have _________.
(vi) Based on the reading of the passage, examine in about 40 words,
the importance of prebiotics for the human gut and how they are
related to probiotics. 2
(vii) As a consumer, if you want to pick a probiotic product, what is the
most important thing to keep in mind ?
Pick the best answer. 1
(A) Any fermented product that contains probiotics.
(B) Checking the label for specific strains of bacteria.
(C) oti grocery store are
safe to pick.
(D) .
2/5/1-15 4
2. Read the following passage carefully : 10
2019. But the sector was severely hit in India like in other
countries in the past two years.
(4) There has also been an increase in the number of students going
abroad to study. The increasing desire to study overseas is credited to
the pent- -year duration. This has
got further pronounced because of growing aspirations and
affordability among the middle-class students from Tier II and
Tier III cities.
2/5/1-15 5 P.T.O.
The table below shows foreign travel by Indians for different purposes
from 2019 to 2022.
We can say that the situation when people were travelling with
a vengeance is comparable to people going out to dine in hordes,
because _________________.
(ii) Fill in the blanks with the appropriate option from those given
in brackets, based on your understanding of paragraph 1. 1
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(iii) Justify the following in about 40 words. 2
After being cooped up inside their houses for more than two
years, Indians are now excited about being able to travel
internationally.
(iv) Based on the given table, for which purpose did Indian foreign
travel increase in 2022 as compared to 2019 ? 1
(vi) As per the given table, for which purpose did maximum number
of Indians undertake foreign travel in 2019 and in 2022 ?
State any one inference that can be drawn from this. 1
(viii) Which of the following is the main takeaway from the study
mentioned in the passage ? 1
2/5/1-15 7 P.T.O.
SECTION B
Grammar and Creative Writing Skills 20 marks
Grammar
(i) Fill in the blank by using the correct form of the word in the
brackets, for the given portion of a letter. 1
sequences.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction
(iv) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option, to complete the
disclaimer given before a documentary film. 1
(vi) Complete the given narrative by filling in the blank with the
correct option. 1
Now that many employees have shown high productivity working
from home, will their bosses hereafter __________ them to take
working vacations ?
(A) expecting (B) expected
(C) have expected (D) expect
(vii) Read the dialogue between Karan and his teacher regarding his
absence from school. 1
Teacher : Karan, why were you absent yesterday ?
Karan : Yesterday I had cold and fever, sir.
beforehand.
Teacher : . Take care of your health.
Select the correct option to complete the reporting of the above
dialogue.
The teacher asked Karan ___________________.
Karan replied that he had cold and fever the previous day and
the teacher beforehand. The teacher
advised him to take care of his health.
(A) why did he remain absent the previous day
(B) why he had been absent the previous day
(C) the reason he was absent
(D) why was he absent yesterday
2/5/1-15 9 P.T.O.
(viii) Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the
correction for the opening line, from a Terms and Conditions
document. 1
Though all efforts have been made to ensure the accuracy of the
content on this website, the same could not be construed as a
statement of law or used for any legal purposes.
(ix) Report the following dialogue between a hawker and his customer,
by completing the sentence. 1
Hawker : Do you want any tomatoes ?
Customer : Yes, indeed! Although they are a bit expensive, I like
to add tomatoes to my diet.
The hawker asked the customer whether she wanted any
tomatoes. The customer answered in the affirmative and
explained that _______________.
(x) Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the
part of the grievance posted by a citizen on a social media
platform. 1
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(xi) Complete the line from a Save the Planet song, by filling in the
blank with the correct option. 1
2/5/1-15 11 P.T.O.
5. Attempt any one from (a) and (b) given below : 5
2/5/1-15 13 P.T.O.
For the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 5 (b) :
Based on the given information, write an analytical paragraph in about
120 words, assessing the importance of healthy eating for both adults and
children.
Adults Children
longer life, healthy weight keeps them healthy and strong
keeps skin, teeth, eyes healthy strengthens bones
supports muscles supports muscles
boosts immunity boosts immunity
strengthens bones supports brain development
helps digestive system
supports healthy pregnancies
and breastfeeding
SECTION C
Literature 40 marks
6. Read the following extracts and answer the questions for any one of the
given two, (a) or (b) : 5
(a) We have, at last, achieved our political emancipation. We pledge
ourselves to liberate all our people from the continuing bondage of
poverty, deprivation, suffering, gender and other discrimination.
Never, never, and never again shall it be that this beautiful land will
again experience the oppression of one by another.
The sun shall never set on so glorious a human achievement.
Let freedom reign. God bless Africa!
(Nelson Mandela Long Walk to Freedom)
(i) State any one inference about Nelson Mandela from the given
context : 1
2/5/1-15 14
(b) The expected call came within a few days. Mrs. Pumphrey was
distraught. Tricki would eat nothing. Refused even his favourite
dishes; and besides he had bouts of vomiting. He spent all his time
anything.
I had made my plans in advance. The only way was to get Tricki out
of the house for a period. I suggested that he be hospitalised for about
a fortnight to be kept under observation.
(A Triumph of Surgery)
(i) Which of the following is not a reason why Mr. Herriot thinks
Tricki needs to be taken out of the house for a period ? 1
2/5/1-15 15 P.T.O.
7. Read the following extracts and answer the questions for any one of the
given two, (a) or (b) : 5
(ii) The poet says that money is external. What inference can be
drawn from this statement ?
Answer in about 40 words. 2
(iii)
towards material possessions ? 1
(A) indifferent
(B) emotional
(C) casual
(D) respectful
(iv) 1
OR
2/5/1-15 16
(b)
Remember your acne, Amanda!
Amanda!
(I am Rapunzel, I have not a care;
life in a tower is tranquil and rare;)
(Amanda)
(i) What is the central idea of the poem as reflected in the lines
above ?
Answer in about 40 words. 2
(iii) Identify any one poetic device used in the above extract. 1
2/5/1-15 17 P.T.O.
9. Answer any two of the following three questions in 40 50 words each : 2 3=6
(i) One should never judge a book by its cover. Explain with reference
to Ausable and how he outwits Max with his presence of mind.
(The Midnight Visitor)
(ii) c
(A Question of Trust)
(iii) How can one say that Ebright s curiosity / inquisitiveness drove him
to become a scientist ?
(The Making of a Scientist)
10. Answer any one of the following two questions in 100 120 words : 6
(a) You have been asked to present an evaluation of the approaches of
both, the Baby Seagull and the Pilot who was lost in the clouds,
towards achieving their dreams of conquering the skies.
Write this presentation draft including your insights, comparing the
approaches of both.
You may begin this way : One acknowledges that both, the Seagull
and the Pilot, wanted to ........................ however, ........................ .
(Reference : Two Stories About Flying)
OR
(b) You have been chosen to address the school assembly, to speak on
the epistemology of loss and the resilience of the human spirit
during times of crisis. Prepare the speech draft, with reference to
2/5/1-15 18
11. Answer any one of the following two questions in 100 120 words : 6
(a) Imagine that Bholi writes a diary entry, exploring the themes of
, in the context of her own
experiences.
Write this dairy entry, as Bholi.
OR
2/5/1-15 19 P.T.O.
Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Secondary School Examination, 2024
SUBJECT NAME ENGLISH (LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE) (184)
(Q.P. CODE – 2/5/1)
General Instructions: -
1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious
problems which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching
profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must
read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality of
the examinations conducted, Evaluation done, and several other aspects. Its
leakage to public in any manner could lead to derailment of the examination
system and affect the life and future of millions of candidates. Sharing this
policy/document to anyone, publishing in any magazine and printing in News
Paper/Website etc may invite action under various rules of the Board and IPC.”
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It should
not be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other consideration. Marking
Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously followed. However, while
evaluating, answers which are based on latest information or knowledge and/or
are innovative, they may be assessed for their correctness otherwise and due
marks be awarded to them. In class-X, while evaluating two competency-based
questions, please try to understand given answer and even if reply is not from
marking scheme but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due
marks should be awarded.
4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers.
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete answer.
The students can have their own expression and if the expression is correct, the due
marks should be awarded accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each
evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the
instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be
zero after delibration and discussion. The remaining answer books meant for evaluation
shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in the marking of
individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X” be
marked. Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an impression that
answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is the most common mistake
which evaluators commit.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part. Marks
awarded for different parts of the question should then be totalled up and written in the
left-hand margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand margin
and encircled. This may also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving more
marks should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra
Question”.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be penalized
only once.
2/5/1 1
11 A full scale of marks __________(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in
Question Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the answer
deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8 hours
every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25 answer books
per day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).This is in view of the
reduced syllabus and number of questions in question paper.
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by the
Examiners in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totalling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark
is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for
incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks
awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it should
be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totalling error
detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel engaged in the
evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all
concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and
judiciously.
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the “Guidelines
for spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried over
to the title page, correctly totalled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on
payment of the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head
Examiners/Head Examiners are once again reminded that they must ensure that
evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the
Marking Scheme.
2/5/1 2
Set 2/5/1
MARKING SCHEME
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE
SECTION A (Reading) (20 marks)
1 Discursive Passage : 10
i) (C) All three biotics are equally important to support microscopic organisms that (1)
live in the gut microbiome.
ii) Yes, scientific evidence has linked prebiotics, probiotics and postbiotics with (2)
improvements in:
- metabolic diseases / obesity / cholesterol abnormalities
− depressive symptoms
- poor sleep quality
- respiratory tract infections.
(any two points)
iii) live and active cultures / Listing of specific strains of bacteria/name of bacteria (1)
iv) (A) Increase and decrease (1)
(C) Beneficial and harmful
(partial credit of ½ marks for each)
v) Dozens of strains / different strains (1)
vi) - Prebiotics are beneficial molecules: support microscopic organisms living in (2)
gastro–intestinal tract / gut.
- Prebiotics: indigestible carbohydrate / fiber.
- Source of food for the probiotics.
(any two points)
vii) (B) Checking the label for specific strains of bacteria. (1)
viii) (A) Their relevance has been proven by scientific evidence. (1)
2. Case-based Factual Passage : 10
i) People were tired of being cooped up, started travelling with a vengeance, in (1)
same way people were tired of eating home food, started eating out with a
vengeance.
ii) a fact (1)
an objective detail
iii) - The survey said 51 percent of Indian travelers believed that international travel (2)
remained an important means of expanding their horizons and connecting with
other cultures.
- 70 percent of Indians are excited to travel internationally.
iv) Education. (1)
v) Travel and Tourism industry/ hospitality industry/travel industry/Tourism (1)
industry
vi) Residency purpose. (1)
Inference − for better opportunity/infrastructure/standard of living/to unite
with family/more income − or any other possible inference. (partial credit of ½
mark for writing “residency” and partial credit of ½ mark for any one
inference. No partial credit for inference alone if “residency” is not written.)
vii) - Growing aspirations among middle class students from Tier-II and Tier-III (2)
cities.
2/5/1 3
- Growing affordability among middle class students from Tier-II and Tier-III
cities.
− better opportunity for jobs
- acquiring better skills from best universities/study courses as per one’s interest
- broaden horizons/learn cultural differences and develop tolerance.
(any two points)
viii) (B) Though travel, both domestic and international, has picked up, it has yet to (1)
reach previous levels.
SECTION B (Grammar) (10x1=10 marks)
3. Any ten out of twelve questions to be attempted / marked
Full credit − 1, for correct answers. No partial credit of 1/2, for any question in
this section.
i) Inspiring (1)
ii) (1)
Error engaged
Correction engaging
iii) Niharika asked/enquired Akshat what he would be wearing for the (1)
following/next day’s function.
iv) For (1)
v) (1)
Error Correction
document documented
vi) (D) expect (1)
vii) (B) why he had been absent the previous day (1)
viii) (C) (1)
Error Correction
Could should
ix) Although they were a bit expensive, she liked to add tomatoes to her diet. (1)
x) (B) are (1)
xi) (B) stand (1)
Error Correction (1)
xii)
may will
SECTION B (Writing Skills) (10 Marks)
4. Any one from (a) and (b) to be attempted 5
a) Letter to Editor
Format − 1 mark − full credit if all aspects included. Partial credit
(½ mark) if one/two aspects are missing. No credit if more than two
aspects are missing.
Content − 2 marks
Value Points:
Any relevant value points other than the ones mentioned below to be
accepted:
*Problems of open manholes and drains.
*Relevance of the problem to the safety of the residents.
*Relevance of the problem to the upkeep of the locality.
*Measures to resolve the problem.
OR
b) Letter to RWA of the society
Format − 1 mark − full credit if all aspects included. Partial credit (½
mark) if one/two aspects are missing. No credit if more than two aspects
are missing.
Content − 2 marks
Value Points:
Any relevant value points other than the ones mentioned below to be
accepted:
*Need for a dedicated space in the community park for senior citizens
*Measures to create the space
5. Attempt any one from (a) and (b) given below : 5
a) Organisation of ideas − 2 marks (effective style, orderly sequence,
single paragraph structure, formal tone and functional vocabulary)
Content – 2 marks
Value Points:
Four trends / points to be included, well developed with sustained
clarity
Any relevant value points other than the ones mentioned below to be
accepted:
Comparison of production of millets by countries
Identification of the highest and the lowest producer.
Suggest possible reasons for the variations in production.
2/5/1 5
OR
b) Organisation of ideas − 2 marks (effective style, orderly sequence,
single paragraph structure, formal tone and functional vocabulary)
Accuracy − 1 mark
Spelling, punctuation and Grammar.
Content – 2 marks
Value Points:
Four trends / points to be included, well developed with sustained clarity
Any relevant value points other than the ones mentioned below to be
accepted:
Comparison between the two charts.
Identification of the similarities and the differences.
Possible arguments presenting an opposing view.
SECTION C
(Literature textbook and supplementary reading Text ) (40 marks)
6. Attempt any one of the two extracts (a) and (b) given below : 5
a) Reference to Context – Prose
(i)* Mandela felt a sense of achievement/fulfilment. (1)
* Mandela felt that their struggles & sufferings were worth it.
* Mandela felt a sense of collective achievement.
(Any one inference)
(ii) False (1)
(iii) *Achieving political emancipation (2)
*Liberation from continued bondage of poverty / deprivation / suffering / gender
and discrimination.
*No more oppression in Africa.
*Repeating of the word ‘never’ to show optimism.
* Optimism in the way he refers to Africa as beautiful land.
(Any two value points)
(iv) Distinguished/outstanding/magnificent, (any other appropriate synonym to (1)
be accepted)
OR
2/5/1 6
b) (i) (C) He wanted to do an experiment on Tricki (1)
(ii)*The dog became really sick. (2)
*He didn’t want to go for walks.
*He refused to eat and would just lay on the rug, panting.
(Any two value points)
(iii) True (1)
(iv) (B) impractical but compassionate. (1)
7 Attempt any one of the two extracts (a) and (b) given below :
a) Poetry − (The Ball Poem) 5
(i) Instructive/Practical/Realistic/Matter-of-fact (1)
(Any other appropriate synonym)
(ii) *Money can buy a new ball but cannot buy back the love associated (2)
with it.
*Things that one loves cannot be replaced with money.
(iii) (A) Indifferent (1)
(iv) Alliteration (1)
OR
b) Poetry − (Amanda !)
(i) *The central idea is the contrast between control and freedom. (2)
*Amanda’s character symbolizes the desire for freedom and her mother
represents the control over freedom.
*The poem is about a child whose parents constantly regulate her.
(Any two value points)
(ii) (C) Authoritative (1)
(iii) Repetition − Amanda (1)
Metaphor − Amanda compares herself to Rapunzel.
Allusion – Amanda’s character is alluded to the character of Rapunzel
(iv) *To escape mother’s nagging, she fantasizes to be Rapunzel. (1)
* In the tower, Rapunzel is beyond anyone’s interference, free and peaceful,
better situation than her.
8. Four of five Short Answer questions to be attempted. 4x3=12
First Flight
Content − 2 marks (any two relevant points to be accepted)
Organisation − 1 mark (1/2 mark to be deducted for accuracy from the
overall credit of a response, if error density is high-more than a total
of 2 spellings and / grammatical errors)
The given detailed reference points can be drawn upon to structure the
desired response.
i) * When he brought the otter, a new phase of his life began. (3)
* Maxwell had to understand the ways of Mijbil’s life.
* Maxwell had to make accommodations in his living space and his
routine for Mijbil.
*Maxwell had to face comments from various people about Mijbil.
(any two points, any other relevant point to be accepted)
ii) *Use of non-standard language (3)
*Vivid and funny imagery of the pirate and the characters
* The ironic humour created by the characters who are portrayed as brave
but actually flee in the face of danger.
(any two points, any other relevant point to be accepted)
2/5/1 7
iii) * Title refers to the central event of the play --- Proposal of Lomov to (3)
Natalya.
* The proposal sets the stage for the conflict and tension and drives the
action of the play.
* Lomov’s proposal turns out to be a complicated negotiation that involves
matters of property, pride and social status: fight about the Oxen Meadows
and the dogs.
For Yes, you can love people for their inner beauty:
* Love for inner beauty - divine form of love.
* Anne: external appearance is temporary.
For No, you cannot love people for their inner beauty:
* Young men love Anne only for her hair.
* Only god and not humans can look beyond appearances.
(any 3 points with at least one for each side to be written, any other relevant
point to accepted)
OR
b) * Both talk about loss --- the “The Ball Poem” about the loss of the ball and
“From the Diary of Anne Frank,” about the loss of their homes.
* Both talk about loss being part of growing up and an universal experience.
* Both talk about how they dealt with loss --- the boy deals with loss of ball
and Anne shares about her experience of the holocaust.
* Loss as a transformative experience.
(any 3 points with at least one for each side to be written, any other relevant
point to accepted)
11. One out of the two Long Answer questions 6
Footprints Without Feet
Content − 3 marks
Expression − 2 marks
Accuracy − 1 mark
a) * Bholi seen as unmarriageable because she had pock marks/scars on her
face.
* Bholi’s worth determined by her marriageability as a girl child.
* The teacher provided her support and encouragement.
* Her education leads her to take a stand on dowry.
* Her education leads her to stand against the humiliation of her father.
2/5/1 10