Solutions

Question 1
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Both (A) and (B)

Solution:

Earth cannot be inertial frame because the earth is revolving around the sun and rotating about its own axis i.e., a ≠ 0.

Question 2
Correct Answer (Option 1):

6 kg

Solution:

tan 30° = 0.6 and μs = 0.8

tan30° < μs ⇒ So, block will not slide.

∴ mgsinθ = fs

mgsin30° = 30 N

mg = 60 N

m = 6 kg

Question 3
Correct Answer (Option 1):

mgh

Solution:
ΔK = ΔU
ΔK = mgh

Question 4
Correct Answer (Option 4):

28 N

Solution:
2
N = mg + mv
R
2× 22
N = 2 × 10 + = 20 + 8 = 28 N
1

Question 5
Correct Answer (Option 4):

20 N

Solution:
Δ p 1
=Δ p 2

F1(Δt)1 = F2(Δt)2

Δt 1 5×6
F2 = F1 = = 20 N
Δt 2
1.5

Question 6
Correct Answer (Option 2):

A and B are incorrect

Solution:

• Work done by non conservative force is path dependent.

• Energy and power are both scalar quantities.

Question 7
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Negative of change in potential energy

Solution:

Work done by conservative forces

= Ui – Uf = – (Uf – Ui )

= negative of change in potential energy

Question 8
Correct Answer (Option 1):
1m

Solution:

Work – Energy theorem

1
mv 2 = 1 kx 2 + μ mg × 1 ...(i)
2 2
(x = max. compression in spring)
1 × 2 × 64 = 1 × 100 × x 2 + 0.7 × 2 × 10 × 1
2 2

64 – 14 = 50x2

50 = 50x2

x = ±1m

Question 9
Correct Answer (Option 3):
The materials of colliding bodies

Solution:
The coefficient of restitution depends upon the materials of the colliding bodies.

Question 10
Correct Answer (Option 4):
^
− 1.8 i N

Solution:
N = Mg – 4

N = 10 – 4 = 6 N

(fs)max = 0.3 × 6 = 1.8 N

Question 11
Correct Answer (Option 1):

40 N

Solution:

Δ p m v 2 − v 1
F = =
Δt t
0 . 2( 0 − 20)
⇒ F=
0.1
= – 40 N

(Negative sign indicates retarding force)

Question 12
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Work done on the body is positive

Solution:
In circular motion with increasing speed, tangential force on body and its displacement are in same direction (θ = 0°).
So work done on the body is positive.

Question 13
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

Solution:
Linear momentum of the system is always conserved in any type of collision while the kinetic energy of system remains
conserved only in elastic collision.

Question 14
Correct Answer (Option 2):

9 m/s2
Solution:

F = ma
45 = 5a
a = 9 m s–2

Question 15
Correct Answer (Option 4):
α=0

Solution:

Hint :

Power = F ⋅ v

Solution :
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
6= 2i + 4j + α k ⋅ i + j + 2k

6 = 2 + 4 + 2α ⇒ α = 0

Question 16
Correct Answer (Option 1):
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

Solution:

The work done by spring force in closed path is zero as the spring force is conservative in nature.

Question 17
Correct Answer (Option 2):

k2 : k1

Solution:

U1 = 1 k1x12 ...(i)
2

U2 = 1 k2x22 ...(ii)
2
∵ F1 = F2 = F

⇒ k1x1 = k2x2 = F

∴ U1 =
F2 , U = F2
2
2k1 2k2

U1 k2
=
U2 k1

Question 18
Correct Answer (Option 3):

60 N

Solution:

T = Tension in string above block A

T = (1 + 2 + 3)g

⇒ T = 60 N

Question 19
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Law of conservation of momentum is valid

Solution:

During inelastic collision, law of conservation of momentum is valid.

Question 20
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Only in conservative field

Solution:

Potential energy is defined only in conservative field.

Question 21
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Momentum

Solution:

W = Δk

F.x = Δk
Δk = F
x
dp
=
dt

Question 22
Correct Answer (Option 1):

10 N

Solution:

F = − dU = − 2x + 10 N
dx
At x = 0, F = 10 N

Question 23
Correct Answer (Option 4):
12 m/s

Solution:
Safe speed v ≤ √ μrg
√
v≤ 0.5 × 20 × 10

⇒ v ≤ 10 m/s

Question 24
Correct Answer (Option 2):

60 N

Solution:

v = dx = ( 20 + 60t ) m/s
dt

a = dv = 60 m/s2
dt
At t = 1 s,

F = 60 N

Question 25
Correct Answer (Option 3):

45°

Solution:
∵ On banked road,
2
tan θ = v
Rg

∴ tan θ = 102 = 1 (36 km/h = 10 m/s)

10 × 10
⇒ θ = 45°

Question 26
Correct Answer (Option 2):

10 N

Solution:
FRocket = mass flow rate × exhaust velocity

FRocket = 0.05 × 200 N

FRocket = 10 N

Question 27
Correct Answer (Option 2):

5 cm

Solution:
mv = (M + m)v0

v0 = mv = 0.02 × 41 = 1 m/s
( M + m) ( 0.8 + 0.02)

Kinetic energy will be converted into potential energy of the system (M + m).
1 m + M v2 = M + m gh
0
2
v02 2
∴ h= = 1
2g 2 × 10

⇒ h = 0.05 m = 5 cm.

Question 28
Correct Answer (Option 1):

80 m

Solution:

Energy of ball after collision = 80 mgh = 4 mgh

100 5

Height gained, h ' = 4 h ⇒ h ' = 80 m

5

Question 29
Correct Answer (Option 3):

2 kJ

Solution:

Displacement = y = vt = 10 × 2 = 20 m

W = T × y = (mg) × y = 10 × 10 × 20 = 2 kJ

Question 30
Correct Answer (Option 1):
14 N

Solution:

p = 2t + 3t2
dp
= 2 + 6t
dt
F = 2 + 6 × 2 = 14 N

Question 31
Correct Answer (Option 3):
–50 J

Solution:
1 − 100
From work-energy theorem, Wnet = Δ K = ×1× 02 − 102 = = − 50 J
2 2

Question 32
Correct Answer (Option 2):

10 m/s

Solution:

By conservation of momentum

10m – 20 × 2m = 3mv

⇒ 3v = –30

⇒ v = –10 m/s

Question 33
Correct Answer (Option 4):

0.05

Solution:

v = u + at

0 = 10 – 10μ × 20

–10 = –10 × μ × 20

μ = 1 = 0.05
20

Question 34
Correct Answer (Option 2):

64 J

Solution:

vi = 0 and vf = (4)3/2 = 8 m/s

Net work done = ΔK =

m v2 − v2
2 f i

W = 2 64 − 0
2
W = 64 J

Question 35
Correct Answer (Option 1):

20 N

Solution:

Fnet 100
a= = = 4 m /s 2
M + m 20 + 5
N = ma
N = 5 × 4 = 20 N
Question 36
Correct Answer (Option 4):
500
N
3

Solution:

Tsin(37°) = 10g

T 3 = 100
5

T = 500 N
3

Question 37
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

Solution:
Δ​ p dp
F= or
Δ​ t dt
Δ t or dt → 0 ⇒ F → ∞
for finite Δp or dp.

Question 38
Correct Answer (Option 4):
Kinetic energy of system just before collision is equal to kinetic energy of system just after collision.

Solution:

Momentum of system is always conserved but kinetic energy of system just before elastic collision is equal to kinetic
energy of system just after collision.

Question 39
Correct Answer (Option 3):
2

Solution:
mrω 2 = 16 N
0.1 × 1 × 4π 2n 2 = 16 N
0.1 × 1 × 4 × 10n 2 = 16 N

n2 = 4

n=2

Question 40
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Both (1) and (2)

Solution:
Friction can be reduced using ball bearings and lubricant.

Question 41
Correct Answer (Option 1):

10 N

Solution:
F = − kx
∴ | F | = | − kx | = 100 × 10 × 10 − 2 = 10 N

Question 42
Correct Answer (Option 2):

60°

Solution:
tan α = μ
–1 √
⇒ α = tan 3 = 60 º

Question 43
Correct Answer (Option 2):
Its kinetic energy is constant

Solution:

In a planar motion if force is always perpendicular to velocity, then it means that the motion is circular motion.

So, kinetic energy is constant while velocity and acceleration being vectors continuously change their direction.

Question 44
Correct Answer (Option 4):
164 J

Solution:

W= Fdx

4
= 40 + 0.5x dx
0

2 4
= 40x + x
4 0

= [160 + 4]

= 164 J.

Question 45
Correct Answer (Option 2):
10
t

Solution:
Hint :

W = Pt when P is constant

Solution :

P = constant

P·t= m⋅
v2 ⇒ v = 2Pt
2 m
2 × 20 × t √
v= =2 t
10

F=P 20 10
v = 2√ t = t

Question 46
Correct Answer (Option 1):
9
7

Solution:

m1 − m2 g
a=
m1 + m2

g m1 − m2 g
=
8 m1 + m2

m1 + m2 = 8m1 – 8m2

9m2 = 7m1
m1 9
m2 = 7

Question 47
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Both (2) and (3) are correct

Solution:

According to Newton’s second law,

F =m a

F and a are in same direction

∴ F . a = Fa > 0 [∵ θ is zero]

and F × a =0

Question 48
Correct Answer (Option 3):
Moving up and speeding up
Solution:

Apparent weight = Normal reaction offered by weighing machine.

N = m(a + g)

Question 49
Correct Answer (Option 3):
√
3mv

Solution:

Impulse = change in momentum

I = Δ p = 2mv sin( 60° )

√
= 3mv

Question 50
Correct Answer (Option 2):
1
√
2

Solution:
√
va = 2gh
√
vs = gh

vs gh 1
∴ e=v = =
a 2gh 2

Question 51
Correct Answer (Option 2):

p–block

Solution:

34E = 1s22s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p4

It is an element of 4th period and group 14. Which belongs to p block.

Question 52
Correct Answer (Option 4):
NO 3− , SO 3

Solution:

Question 53
Correct Answer (Option 2):
Unnilquadium

Solution:
IUPAC name of element with atomic number 104 is unnilquadium

Question 54
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Solution:
Approach is not possible for third option. It indicates zero overlapping.

Question 55
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Solution:

Each axial bond forms 90° bond angle with each equatorial bonds.

Question 56
Correct Answer (Option 2):

O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+

Solution:

Radii decreases as O2– > F– > Na+ > Mg2+

Question 57
Correct Answer (Option 4):

NO2

Solution:
NO2 contains unpaired electron.

Question 58
Correct Answer (Option 3):

1.25
Solution:
5
PO43 − has 4 resonating structures hence bond order = = 1.25
4

Question 59
Correct Answer (Option 3):
O2

Solution:

O2 has two unpaired electrons, so it is paramagnetic in nature

Question 60
Correct Answer (Option 2):
Cl > F > Br > I

Solution:

Element ΔegH (kJ/mol)

F –328
Cl –349
Br –325
I –295

Question 61
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Solution:

17Cl = [Ne] 3s 23p 5 ; 7 valence electrons.

Valence
electrons

Question 62
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Both the statement I and II are correct

Solution:
N2 : σ1s 2, σ * 1 s 2, σ2s 2, σ * 2s 2, π2px 2 ≡ π2py2, σ2pz2

Question 63
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Solution:

Li2 : σ1s2σ*1s2σ2s2, BO = 1 4 − 2 =1
2

Question 64
Correct Answer (Option 1):

11

Solution:

Cl has 2 lone pairs. Each F has 3 lone pairs.

Total number of lone pairs = 11

Question 65
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Na

Solution:

Metallic character increases down the group and decreases from left to right.
S < Si < Mg < Na

Question 66
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Only two π bonds

Solution:

M.O. configuration of C2 is

σ 1s 2, σ * 1s 2, σ 2s 2, σ * 2s 2, π 2px 2 = π 2py 2

Question 67
Correct Answer (Option 3):
NH4+ and CH4

Solution:

Both NH4+ and CH4 are tetrahedral in shape

Question 68
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

Solution:

After removal of first electron, removal of second electron requires more energy and hence second ionisation enthalpy
is more than that of first ionisation.

Question 69
Correct Answer (Option 2):
NH3

Solution:
Molecule having symmetrical geometry has zero dipole moment

BF3 and CH4 have zero dipole due to symmetrical geometry.

. .
∴ N H3 has higher dipole moment than NF3 due to greater magnitude of resultant dipole moment of bond pairs and
lone pair.

Question 70
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Al

Solution:
In the periodic table the elements in second period show similarities in properties with the element in third period in
the adjacent group which are diagonal to them. The relationship is known as diagonal relationship. Be shows diagonal
relationship with Al

Question 71
Correct Answer (Option 4):

H2

Solution:
H – H contains single covalent bond.

Question 72
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Solution:

On moving left to right along a period, ionisation potential increases. Also N has stable electronic configuration (2p3),
so highest 1st I.P.

Question 73
Correct Answer (Option 2):

109 ° 28'

Solution:
According to VBT, Pure orbitals involve in bond formation, hence B.A = 109 ° 28'

Question 74
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Representative elements

Solution:
s-block + p-block elements are combinedly known as representative elements
Question 75
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Solution:

B has a covalency of 4.

Question 76
Correct Answer (Option 1):

H2O

Solution:

In H2O two bond pairs and two lone pairs are present. Hence it is bent shape molecule.

Question 77
Correct Answer (Option 4):

d, (iv)

Solution:

Z=109 : Unnilennium ⇒ Meitnerium

Question 78
Correct Answer (Option 1):

sp3d2

Solution:
Valence electrons + Monovalent atom
Hybridisation state =
2

= 1 [6 + 6] = 6 so, sp3d2 hybridisation

2

Question 79
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Solution:

Question 80
Correct Answer (Option 3):
Be2

Solution:
Bond order of Be2 is zero, so it does not exist.

Question 81
Correct Answer (Option 2):

BF3 > CH4 > NH3 > H2O

Solution:

Question 82
Correct Answer (Option 3):

SF6

Solution:
In SF6, 12 electrons are present around sulphur

Question 83
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Na > Mg > Al > Si

Solution:
Moving left to right along the period atomic size decreases due to increasing effective nuclear charge.

Question 84
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Solution:
Maximum = 3 pairs
Ex: N2 : N ≡ N

Question 85
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Solution:
Intramolecular hydrogen-bonding exists within the molecule.
Question 86
Correct Answer (Option 1):

CO2

Solution:

Question 87
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Co3+

Solution:

Fe (Z = 26), Fe2+ has 24 electrons and Co(Z = 27), Co3+ also has 24 electrons, so Fe2+ is isoelectronic with Co3+.

Question 88
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Solution:

has no intramolecular H-bonding.

Question 89
Correct Answer (Option 4):
CO 23 −

Solution:

Carbon does not have d-orbital.

Question 90
Correct Answer (Option 2):

(n – 2) f1-14 (n – 1) d0–1 ns2

Solution:
In f-block elements, electrons are generally filled in (n – 2)f subshell.

Question 91
Correct Answer (Option 2):

B, Mg

Solution:

Diagonal relationship :

Question 92
Correct Answer (Option 1):
O2+ < O2 < O2−

Solution:
1
Bond length ∝
Bond order
Bond order of O2+ = 2 . 5

Bond order of O2 = 2

Bond order of O2− = 1 . 5

∴ The order of bond length is O2+ < O2 < O2−

Question 93
Correct Answer (Option 3):
–0.75

Solution:

Average charge on oxygen atoms = − 3 = − 0.75

4

Question 94
Correct Answer (Option 1):
C–H<C–N<C–C

Solution:

Bond type Covalent bond length (pm)

C–H 107
C–N 143
C–C 154

Question 95
Correct Answer (Option 1):
LiI

Solution:

For a given cation, larger is the size of anion more is the covalent character of compound.

Question 96
Correct Answer (Option 4):

H2S

Solution:

Hydrogen does not form π-bond with sulphur.

Question 97
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Al2O3

Solution:

Since Al2O3 being amphoteric in nature, will react with both acid and base easily.

Question 98
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Sulphur

Solution:
(–ΔegH) : S > Se > Te > Po > O

Question 99
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Zero

Solution:
Formal charge = No. of valence electrons

– No. of non-bonded electrons

− 1 × No. of bonded electrons

2

∴ Formal charge on P = 5 − 0 − 1 × 10 = 0
2

Question 100
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Solution:

In the third period of the modern periodic table, two elements are in s-block and six elements are present in p-block.
Question 101
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Castor

Solution:

In mature seeds of castor, endosperm is a food storing tissue.

Question 102
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).

Solution:

Banana is said to be a parthenocarpic fruit, because in banana ovary grows into fruit without fertilization.

Question 103
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Main axis continues to grow

Solution:

In racemose type of inflorescence, main axis continues to grow and flowers are borne in an acropetal order.

Question 104
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Calyx when its components are united

Solution:

The calyx may be gamosepalous (sepals united) or polysepalous (sepals free).

Question 105
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Testa

Solution:

NCERT Reference: XI, Page No. 76

Question 106
Correct Answer (Option 1):
Gram

Solution:

Members of Fabaceae show papilionaceous corolla.

Gram (Fabaceae family) has papilionaceous corolla.

Question 107
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Two bundles

Solution:

In pea stamens are united into two bundles, called diadelphous condition.

Question 108
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Parietal placentation – Lemon

Solution:

Lemon shows axile placentation.

Question 109
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Datura

Solution:

Datura being actinomorphic can be divided into equal radial halves in any radial plane.

Question 110
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Are responsible for growth of the roots in the length

Solution:

Zone of elongation is proximal to zone of meristem and it helps in growth of root in length.

Question 111
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Pulvinus

Solution:

Swollen leaf base is called pulvinus.

Question 112
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Venation

Solution:

The arrangement of veins and veinlets in the lamina of leaf is termed as venation.

Question 113
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Plum

Solution:

Perigynous flowers are found in plum. Mustard, guava and chilli exhibit hypogynous flower.

Question 114
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Endocarp is fibrous edible part

Solution:

Drupe fruits have hard stony endocarp.

Endocarp of mango is stony while mesocarp is fleshy, juicy edible part.

Question 115
Correct Answer (Option 3):

China rose : Alternate phyllotaxy

Solution:

Alternate phyllotaxy is seen in china rose, mustard and sunflower plants. Opposite phyllotaxy is seen in Calotropis and
guava plants. Whorled phyllotaxy is seen in Alstonia.

Question 116
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Solution:

Leaves are arranged in an acropetal order (youngest at the top) on the stem axis.

Question 117
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Having a number of leaflets as incisions of the lamina reach upto the midrib

Solution:

A bud is present in the axil of the simple and compound leaf but is not present in the axil of each leaflet.

Both simple and compound leaves can have reticulate venation. A compound leaf’s lamina is divided into many leaflets
when the incision touches the midrib.

Question 118
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Autotrophic and heterotrophic partners

Solution:

Lichen is a mutualistic relationship between algae and fungi, where algae are autotrophs while, fungi are heterotrophs.
Question 119
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Anabaena

Solution:

Anabaena is a cyanobacteria

Question 120
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Difference in cell wall composition

Solution:

Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure and this feature is responsible for
their survival in extreme conditions.

Question 121
Correct Answer (Option 4):

a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

Solution:

Ustilago - Basidiospores, Claviceps - Ascospores, Mucor - Zygospores, Trichoderma - Conidia

Question 122
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Both are unicellular protozoans

Solution:

Paramoecium and Plasmodium both are unicellular.

Both belong to the group Protozoa.

Question 123
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Euglenoids

Solution:

Though Euglenoids are photosynthetic in the presence of sunlight, when deprived of sunlight they behave like
heterotrophs by predating on other smaller organisms. Interestingly, the pigments of euglenoids are identical to those
present in higher plants. Example: Euglena

Question 124
Correct Answer (Option 2):
Diatoms

Solution:

Diatoms are the chief producers in the oceans.

Question 125
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic

Solution:

Members of Ascomycetes family are commonly known as sac fungi. Their mycelium consists of septate hyphae, (except
yeast, being unicellular). Ascospores are produced endogenously.

Question 126
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

Solution:

White spots seen on mustard leaves are due to a parasitic fungus. Fungi absorb soluble organic matter from dead
substrates and hence are called saprophytes.

Question 127
Correct Answer (Option 2):
Morels and truffles

Solution:

Morels and truffles are edible delicacies of Ascomycetes.

Question 128
Correct Answer (Option 3):
Causal agent of mad cow disease

Solution:

Prions are causal agents of certain neurological diseases in cattles and humans.

Prions are abnormally folded proteins and they are similar in size to viruses. The most notable diseases caused by
prions are mad cow disease in cattles and Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease in humans.

Question 129
Correct Answer (Option 4):

W.M. Stanley

Solution:

W.M. Stanley showed that viruses could be crystallised and crystals consist largely of proteins

Question 130
Correct Answer (Option 2):

(2)

Solution:
Fungi → Nuclear membrane is present in all members

Animalia → Organ system body organisation

Monera → Non-cellulosic cell wall

Question 131
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Protista

Solution:

Protista shows resemblance with fungi, plantae and animalia.

Question 132
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Double stranded DNA

Solution:

Double stranded DNA is present in bacteriophage.

Question 133
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Euglena

Solution:

Pellicle is a protein rich layer in Euglena which makes their body flexible.

Question 134
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Cannot survive without oxygen

Solution:

Mycoplasma are facultative anaerobes.

Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen.

Question 135
Correct Answer (Option 3):
Flagellated protozoan

Solution:

The protozoan which causes sleeping sickness is a flagellated protozoan Trypanosoma.

Question 136
Correct Answer (Option 3):
Both A & B are correct
Solution:

Hint :

Seeds of cereals have thin and membranous seed coat.

Solution :

Cereals are monocots and have thin seed coat. Tobacco (Nicotiana tabacum) is a fumigatory plant of Solanaceae family.

Question 137
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Photosynthesis

Solution:

Photosynthesis is usually not performed by roots.

Question 138
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Scutellum

Solution:

The shield shaped cotyledon in maize seed is called scutellum.

Question 139
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Proteinaceous

Solution:

Aleurone layer is triploid and proteinaceous.

Question 140
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Position of ovary

Solution:

Position of ovary is shown in floral formula.

Question 141
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Divides kingdom Monera into two domains

Solution:

The three domain system proposes two domains for prokaryotes and one for eukaryotes.

Question 142
Correct Answer (Option 4):
Are aquatic and photosynthetic organisms.

Solution:

Both diatoms and dinoflagellates are aquatic and photosynthetic organisms.

Question 143
Correct Answer (Option 4):

All (a), (b), (c) & (d) are correct

Solution:

Cuscuta is a parasitic plant with heterotrophic mode of nutrition.

Question 144
Correct Answer (Option 4):

They can be unicellular or multicellular autotrophs

Solution:

All animals are multicellular.

Question 145
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Rod-shaped and comma-shaped

Solution:
Bacilli and vibrio bacteria are rod-shaped and comma-shaped, respectively.

Question 146
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Asexual spores are commonly found

Solution:
Asexual spores are generally not found in basidiomycetes.

Question 147
Correct Answer (Option 4):

The carpels are free

Solution:
When more than one carpels are present and in free state, then the gynoecium is called apocarpous.

Question 148
Correct Answer (Option 2):
Solution:

The floral formula of tomato i.e. family Solanaceae is

Question 149
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Sterile stamens

Solution:

A sterile stamen is called staminode.

Question 150
Correct Answer (Option 4):

(I) and (IV)

Solution:

Flower is a modified shoot. When the apical shoot meristem changes to floral meristem then the shoot bears flowers.

Question 151
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Neutrophils and Monocytes

Solution:

Identify the most abundant WBCs.

Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the body.

Question 152
Correct Answer (Option 4):

SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres

Solution:

SA node generates maximum number of action potential and is responsible for initiating and maintaining rhythmic
contractile activity of the heart.

Path of action potential:

SA node → AV node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres.

Question 153
Correct Answer (Option 1):

A and AB

Solution:

A person having only anti-B antibodies in his plasma, should have antigen A on his/her RBCs. Therefore, he/she can
donate blood to people with blood groups A and AB.
Question 154
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Aortic valves are open

Solution:

During ventricular systole, ventricular pressure increases and semilunar valves are forced open.

Question 155
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Coronary system

Solution:

The coronary artery and vein circulate blood through heart musculature.

Question 156
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Administering anti-Rh antibodies to mother’s blood immediately after delivery of first Rh positive child

Solution:

Hint :

Mother is Rh negative in this condition.

Solution :

Injecting Rh antigen to Rh –ve mother’s blood leads to agglutination reactions. In this condition, anti-Rh
antibodies are administered to the mother immediately after the delivery of the first Rh +ve child.

Question 157
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Monocytes and Lymphocytes

Solution:

Hint :

Kidney/bean shaped nucleus.

Solution :

Question 158
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Only statement A is correct.

Solution:

Hypophyseal and hepatic portal systems are present in humans.

Question 159
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Basophils

Solution:

Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin, heparin, etc., and are involved in inflammatory reactions.

Question 160
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Haemoglobin – 12 - 16 gm/dL of blood

Solution:

WBC count – 6000 - 8000/mm3 of blood

RBC count – 5 - 5.5 million/mm3 of blood

Platelet count – 1,500,00 - 3,500,00/mm3 of blood

Question 161
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Produced at the beginning of ventricular diastole

Solution:

Second heart sound (DUB) is produced by closure of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole.

Question 162
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Electrocardiogram, P-wave

Solution:

ECG(Electrocardiogram)- It is a graphical representation of electrical activity of heart during cardiac cycle and the
machine used to obtain an electrocardiogram is called electrocardiograph.

P-wave represents depolarisation of atria

QRS-complex represents depolarisation of ventricles

T-wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state

Question 163
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Valves are present in veins

Solution:

Valves in vein prevent the backflow of blood.

Question 164
Correct Answer (Option 4):

120 mmHg, 80 mmHg

Solution:

Hint :
Systolic
Blood pressure = mmHg.
Diastolic

Solution :
120
The average blood pressure of a normal adult is mmHg where 120 mmHg is systolic and 80 mmHg is diastolic
80
pressure.

Question 165
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Sequence of events in cardiac cycle

Solution:

Sequence of events in cardiac cycle does not change even during strenuous exercise while duration of cardiac cycle
shortens.

Question 166
Correct Answer (Option 4):
a and d

Solution:

Erythrocytes are the most abundant of all the cells in blood. RBCs are formed in the red bone marrow in the adults.
RBCs are devoid of nucleus in most of the mammals and are biconcave in shape.

Question 167
Correct Answer (Option 3):

25 mL

Solution:

Every 100 mL of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 mL of O2 to the tissues.

So, 500 mL blood can deliver around 25 mL of O2 to the tissues.

Question 168
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Three

Solution:

FRC, TLC and RV cannot be measured with the help of a simple spirometer.

Question 169
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Aquatic arthropods

Solution:
Structures called gills (branchial respiration) are used by most of the aquatic arthropods and molluscs.

Question 170
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Moist cuticle

Solution:

Earthworms use their moist cuticle for exchange of gases and insects have a network of tubes (tracheal tubes) to
transport atmospheric air within the body.

Question 171
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Terminal bronchioles

Solution:

The trachea, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi, and initial bronchiole are supported by incomplete cartilaginous
rings. Each terminal bronchiole gives rise to a number of very thin, irregular-walled and vascularised bag-like
structures called alveoli.

Question 172
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Diaphragm contracts and flattens

Solution:

During inspiration, both diaphragm and external inter-costal muscles contract to increase thoracic volume and decrease
intra-pulmonary pressure.

Question 173
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Exchange of gases between blood and tissues

Solution:

Alveoli and their ducts form the respiratory or exchange part of the respiratory system. Others are functions of
conducting parts of respiratory system.

Question 174
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Alveolar site where pCO2 is low

Solution:

At the alveolar site where pCO2 is low, the reaction proceeds in the opposite direction leading to the formation of CO2
and H2O. Thus, CO2 trapped as bicarbonate at the tissue level and transported to the alveoli is released out as CO2.

Question 175
Correct Answer (Option 1):
ERV + RV

Solution:

Volume of air that will remain in the lungs after a normal expiration, includes ERV + RV. VC + RV is total lung capacity.
TV + ERV is expiratory capacity.

Question 176
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Fishes

Solution:
Annelids and chordates have a closed circulatory system. Closed circulatory system is considered to be more
advantageous as the flow of fluid can be more precisely regulated.

Question 177
Correct Answer (Option 2):

pCO2 and pH levels of blood

Solution:

Peripheral chemoreceptors recognise changes in H+ ion concentration and pCO2 in blood while central chemoreceptors
recognise changes in H+ ion concentration and pCO2 in CSF. O2 is insignificant in the regulation of respiration.

Question 178
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Left auricle and left ventricle

Solution:

The circulatory system of humans as other higher vertebrates is divided into two separate circuits, the systemic circuit
and pulmonary circuit.
Systemic heart refers to the left auricle and left ventricle.

Question 179
Correct Answer (Option 4):

a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

Solution:

Hint :

Tidal volume is the air breathed in or out in a normal breath.

Solution :
Respiratory Volumes Values
Tidal Volume (TV) 500 mL
Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) 2500–3000 mL
Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) 1000–1100 mL
Residual Volume (RV) 1100–1200 mL

Question 180
Correct Answer (Option 1):
Myogenic because it is composed of autoexcitable nodal tissues

Solution:
Since, the human heart is autoregulated by the patches of nodal tissues (SA node, AV node) which are made up of
cardiac muscles, it is said to be myogenic in nature.

Question 181
Correct Answer (Option 3):

8500 mL

Solution:
CO = SV × HR

CO = (85 × 100) mL

CO = 8500 mL

Question 182
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Adrenaline

Solution:
Sympathetic nervous system increases the rate of heartbeat, strength of ventricular contraction and thereby, cardiac
output. Adrenal medullary hormones can also increase the cardiac output.

Question 183
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Trachea tubes

Solution:

Earthworms use their moist cuticle for exchange of gases and insects have a network of tubes (tracheal tubes) to
transport atmospheric air within the body.

Question 184
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Medulla oblongata

Solution:

Centre for regulation of cardiovascular system lies in the medulla oblongata.

Question 185
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Globulins in blood plasma

Solution:

Hint :

These are glycoproteins.

Solution :

Immunoglobulins that are gamma globulins attack viruses and bacteria. RBCs contain haemoglobin.

Question 186
Correct Answer (Option 2):

There is negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls

Solution:

The movement of air into and out of the lungs is carried out by creating a pressure gradient between the lungs and the
atmosphere. Inspiration can occur if the pressure within the lungs (intra-pulmonary pressure) is less than the
atmospheric pressure, i.e., there is a negative pressure in the lungs with respect to atmospheric pressure.

Question 187
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Pons

Solution:

Pneumotaxic centre is present in the pons region of hindbrain.

Question 188
Correct Answer (Option 2):

3500 mL

Solution:

IC = TV + IRV

TV = 500 mL, IRV = 3000 mL

= 500 mL + 3000 mL = 3500 mL

Question 189
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Cellular respiration

Solution:

Breathing or pulmonary ventilation is simply inhalation of atmospheric air and exhalation of CO2 rich air.

Question 190
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

Solution:

Lymph is an important carrier for nutrients, hormones, etc.

Question 191
Correct Answer (Option 2):
Less pO2 in atmospheric air on mountains requiring more RBCs to supply the required amount of O2 to tissues

Solution:
At high altitude, atmospheric O2 level is less and hence, more RBCs, are needed to absorb the required amount of O2 to
survive

Question 192
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Rh– female and Rh+ male, foetus Rh +ve

Solution:

Rh incompatibility can occur in subsequent pregnancy if the female is Rh–ve and foetus is Rh+ve.

Question 193
Correct Answer (Option 4):

Clotting factors

Solution:
Plasma – Clotting factors = Serum

Question 194
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Amphibians

Solution:

Hint :

Animals having dual mode of life.

Solution :

In amphibians, the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from gills, skin and lungs and the right atrium gets the
deoxygenated blood from other body parts.

Question 195
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Cardiac arrest

Solution:

Hint :

It leads to death

Solution :

Heart stops beating in cardiac arrest.

Angina pectoris – Acute chest pain which appears when not enough oxygen reaches the heart
Heart failure – One of the main symptoms is congestion of the lungs

Question 196
Correct Answer (Option 4):
Neutrophils → Lymphocytes → Monocytes → Eosinophils → Basophils

Solution:

Neutrophils – 60-65% ; Lymphocytes – 20-25% ; Monocytes – 6-8% ; Eosiniphils (Acidophils) – 2-3% ; Basophils
– 0.5-1% .

Question 197
Correct Answer (Option 2):

Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion

Solution:

Various substances dissolved in plasma are transported to different tissues of the body.

Question 198
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Ventricles

Solution:

Chordae tendineae connect AV valves to the wall of ventricles.

Question 199
Correct Answer (Option 3):

Spleen

Solution:

Older erythrocytes (RBCs) are removed from the circulation by phagocytic cells of spleen.

Question 200
Correct Answer (Option 1):

Smooth muscles and elastic fibres

Solution:

Middle layer of blood vessels, the tunica media consists of smooth muscles and elastic fibres.