Chap022 6th
Chap022 6th
Chapter Twenty-Two
Managing Interest Rate Risk and Insolvency Risk
on the Balance Sheet
I. Chapter Outline
1. Interest Rate and Insolvency Risk Management: Chapter Overview
2. Interest Rate Risk Measurement and Management
a. Repricing Model
b. Duration Model
3. Insolvency Risk Management
a. Capital and Insolvency Risk
Gap CGAP
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Reinvestment risk
V. Teaching Notes
Changes in interest rates can impair a FI’s profitability and affect the market value of a
FI’s equity. The repricing model measures the effect of interest rate changes on
profitability; the duration model measures the predicted change in the market value of
equity. Once the exposures have been determined, it is possible to mitigate the effects of
interest rate changes by manipulating the balance sheet, or by using the off balance sheet
tools discussed in Chapter 23.
Insolvency occurs if the value of liabilities exceeds the value of assets resulting in
negative equity. Insolvency normally occurs because of liquidity risk, credit risk and/or
interest rate risk. Maintaining sufficient equity capital and prudently managing the risks
a FI faces provides the surest protection against insolvency. The financial crisis led to
large increases the number of failures. From 2008 to 2012, 465 depository institutions
1
Chapter 19 points out that interest rate risk and credit risk are interrelated. If rates begin to rise
precipitously once again, default rates will also rise, and an unhedged mortgage lender funding the loans
with short term liabilities will likely face some of the same problems that S&Ls faced in the 1980s.
Securitization allows DIs to largely avoid interest rate risk. Nonndiversified DIs engaging in mortgage
lending that do not securitize or otherwise hedge face potentially severe insolvency risk from rising
interest rates.
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Teaching Tip: Both are still used. The repricing gap model is easier for bankers (and
students) to understand conceptually and is used at many smaller banks. Understanding
the duration gap model presented here requires an understanding of Chapter 3,
understanding the repricing model does not. Institutions that concentrate on long term
lending funded by short term deposits face greater interest rate risk. All DIs are now
required to measure and report interest rate risk. In addition the BIS proposed that all DIs
report the level of capital at risk from interest rate changes. Although this chapter
presents these models as means for DIs to limit risk, banks and others can (and do)
choose to take positions on interest rates in order to bolster profitability. A high level
committee usually called the “Asset and Liability Committee” or something similar
manages the institution’s interest rate risk. Members of the committee will normally
include the bank president and senior VPs.
2
Cumulative repricing gaps are then calculated across the maturity buckets. The text calls these CGAP.
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For example, a simple balance sheet has been classified for a 6 month maturity bucket
below:
Assets Liabilities
Rate Sensitive Assets (RSAs) $100 Rate Sensitive Liabilities (RSLs) $ 50
Fixed Rate Assets (FRAs) $206 Fixed Rate Liabilities (FRLs) $256
Nonearning Assets (NEAs) $ 34 Equity $ 34
Total $340 Total $340
Because we can think of every asset as financed by a liability or equity account we can
think of the individual asset categories as financed by a given liability or equity account.
Students can readily grasp that there is very little profit risk from an interest rate change
on the $34 of NEA financed by equity. Likewise there is little profit risk from the $206
FRAs financed by FRLs because the cash inflows and outflows on these accounts do not
change over the given maturity bucket. Notice that this pairing leaves $50 in FRLs not
yet accounted for. There should not be an excessive amount of risk for the amount of
RSAs financed by RSLs, because both are rates sensitive. For instance, if interest rates
rise, the earnings on RSAs and the costs on RSLs should both rise and the spread should
be roughly unchanged. If the spread changes this is termed a ‘spread effect’ (as described
below). There are $50 (out of the total $100) RSAs financed by RSLs. This leaves a
final category, the remaining $50 in RSAs that are financed by the remaining $50 in
FRA. This category is a major source of interest rate risk because one side (the assets) is
rate sensitive and the other side is not. This category is called the repricing gap. The
repricing model measures this ‘GAP’ or the difference in sensitivity of interest income
and interest expense in the given maturity bucket
If R = the general level of interest rates then we can predict the ΔNII resulting from a
given ΔR as follows:
where RSA and RSL are equal to the balance
sheet quantity of rate sensitive assets and liabilities respectively. The change in NII over
a given time period is a function of the size and sign of the gap and the size and sign of
the interest rate change. A negative repricing gap means the FI is exposed to
refinancing risk which means the institution will be hurt if interest rates increase
because funding costs will upward more quickly than asset returns, thus reducing the net
interest margin. A positive repricing gap implies the FI faces reinvestment risk, which
is the risk that interest rates fall and funds will have to be reinvested at lower rates while
more liabilities will retain the same interest rate cost.
Teaching Tip: When comparing the interest sensitivities of two or more institutions of
different size, or when comparing one institution to peer averages the percentage gap (=
dollar gap / Assets) is more useful than the dollar gap. Sometimes one also calculates the
Gap Ratio (= RSA / RSL) (see the text). This measure can lead to incorrect comparisons
about interest sensitivity if used to compare the interest sensitivity of a bank with a
positive dollar gap to a bank with a negative dollar gap. The bank with the ratio furthest
from 1 may not be the most interest sensitive. For this reason the percentage gap is a
better comparison tool than the gap ratio.
Teaching Tip: The following paradigm can be used to measure the repricing gap for a
particular maturity bucket and simultaneously analyze the profitability of the two
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sensitivity classes:3
1. Classify each asset on the balance sheet as either:
RSA FRA NEA
4. Calculate the average annual % rate of return on each asset category and the average
annual % cost rate on each liability category and then calculate the spreads. Spreads
are the difference between the income rate and the cost rate per dollar invested in the
category.
5. Calculate the dollar contribution to profit from each category as the product of the
amount times the spread.
6. Add up the profits. The banker is now in a position to both understand the major
sources of profitability and compare pricing with other institutions. One can also
easily forecast changes in profitability for various projected changes in interest rates.
The dollar gap for each maturity bucket is measured as the dollar quantity of rate
sensitive assets (RSAs) minus the dollar quantity of rate sensitive liabilities (RSLs). The
cumulative gap (CGAP) is calculated by adding the gaps for subsequent time periods.
For a positive CGAP, rising interest rates over the maturity period will normally
increase profitability, all else equal, and falling interest rates will decrease
profitability. In other words, interest rates and profitability move in the same
direction if CGAP is positive.
For a negative CGAP, rising interest rates will decrease profitability, all else equal,
and falling interest rates will increase profitability. Interest rates and profitability
move in opposite directions if the CGAP is negative.
These effects are termed CGAP effects.
3
See Gardiner, Mills and Cooperman, Managing Financial Institutions: An Asset/Liability Approach,
Dryden Press, 2000.
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The following tables contain a more detailed example of a calculation of the repricing
model for a 1 year maturity bucket.5
The percentages are the average interest rate earned or paid on the given account. All
assets and liabilities that mature in less than one year or have an interest rate reset within
one year are potentially rate sensitive because their income could change if interest rates
change.
4
Their correlation is less than +1 for reasons indicated below.
5
Detailed examples of this type (from which this example is drawn) can be found in the aforementioned
Gardiner, Mills and Cooperman, Managing Financial Institutions: An Asset Liability Approach, Dryden
Press. 2000. More realistic applications of both the repricing and duration gap models can be found in
Saunders, Financial Institutions Management: A Modern Perspective, Irwin, 1994.
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Rearranging the assets and liabilities into the appropriate sensitivity categories based on
maturity and payment pattern results gives the following results:
Rate Sensitive Assets Rate Sensitive Liabilities
Amnt Income Amnt Cost
Investments under 1 year @ 5% $ 100 $ 5.00 Deposits < 1 year
@ 4% $ 900 $ 36.00
Loans < 1 year @ 7% $ 350 $24.50
Variable rate loans
(rate reset in 6 months) @ 6.5% $ 300 $19.50
Total RSAs $ 750 Total $ 900
Total Income $49.00 Total Cost $ 36.00
NII from this category $13.00
Average rate of return 6.533% Average cost rate 4.000%
Spread on RSAs financed by RSLs 2.533% (6.533% - 4%)
The spread indicates the contribution to profit from this category per dollar invested (ignoring
noninterest income and costs.) Note that some RSLs are used to finance something other than
RSAs since there are only $750 RSAs but $900 RSLs.
Dollar Gap = RSAs – RSLs = -$ 150 The negative dollar gap indicates that some
fixed rate assets are financed by rate sensitive
Percentage Gap = -$150 / $1,600 = -9.375%
liabilities.
Gap ratio = $750 / $900 = 0.833 The ‘gap’ indicates the imbalance in
sensitivities of the liabilities that are funding
the assets.
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The profit calculations per category can be found as the product of the amount and the
spread:
Category Amount Spread $ Profit
RSAs financed by RSLs $ 750 2.533% $19.00
FRAs financed by FRLs $ 500 1.000% $ 5.00
6
FRAs financed by equity $ 200 8.000% $16.00
The Gap: FRAs financed by RSLs $ 150 4.000% $ 6.00
NII $46.00
Average rate of return per dollar invested 2.875%
The two categories that are subject to interest rate risk are the categories in bold type:
RSAs financed by RSLs and the Gap, which in this case is FRAs financed by RSLs.7 In
each case the spreads are calculated as the average rate of return for the given asset
category less the average cost rate for the liability category used to finance those assets.
Note that equity has a contractual cost rate of zero so the spread on that category is
simply the given asset rate of return. The spread on the gap is the rate of return on the
FRAs minus the cost rate on the RSLs. If the gap had been positive this spread would be
calculated differently (the rate of return on the RSAs less the cost of the FRLs). The
return on equity can be calculated by dividing NII by equity (ignoring noninterest income
and expenses).
Using the calculations: Suppose interest rates increase 100 basis points and the spread
effect is a negative 30 basis points:
Category Amount Spread $ Profit
RSAs financed by RSLs $ 750 2.233% $16.75
FRAs financed by FRLs $ 500 1.000% $ 5.00
8
FRAs financed by equity $ 200 8.000% $16.00
The Gap: FRAs financed by RSLs $ 150 3.000% $ 4.50
NII $42.25
Average rate of return per dollar invested 2.641%
The change in ROA is 2.641% - 2.875% = - 23 basis points.
If the spread effect had been positive the profit drop would have been smaller.
The bank could reduce the amount of RSLs and increase the amount of FRLs to minimize
the effect of the rising interest rates. The bank may also wish to focus on RSL accounts
that are not as interest sensitive and attempt to increase the interest sensitivity of the
RSAs to minimize the negative spread effect. A problem with balance sheet
manipulations of this type is that the customer will normally desire the opposite of what
6
FRAs financed by equity are not a part of the gap since the assets and liabilities in this category are both
fixed rate. Instructors please be aware that the profit table has to be constructed based on the size of the
given categories. For instance, one will not always include a line where FRA is financed by equity. If the
gap had been positive the third row would have been RSA financed by equity.
7
Had the gap been positive the gap would have been represented by RSAs financed by FRLs.
8
FRAs financed by equity are not a part of the gap because the assets and liabilities in this category are
both fixed rate. Instructors please be aware that the profit table has to be constructed based on the size of
the given categories, for instance, it will not always include a line where FRA is financed by equity. If
the gap had been positive the third row would have been RSA financed by equity.
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the bank wishes to offer them. That is, in a period of rising rates customers will desire
long term, fixed rate loans (bank FRAs) and short term or variable rate deposits (bank
RSLs) while the bank will desire to offer them short term, floating rate loans (bank
RSAs) and long term, fixed rate deposits (bank FRLs) to maximize the bank’s Net
Interest Margin (NIM) or equivalently, NII.
Teaching Tip: Many accounts do not have fixed maturities and the classification of RS or
FR must be based on historical turnover patterns and management’s subjective
evaluation. Investors’ desire for liquidity may change as interest rates change, and
accounts that were previously fixed rate may become rate sensitive or vice versa.
9
Payments on FRLs that require additional borrowing would result in a change in interest expense on a
given account, making it rate sensitive. Similarly, if the bank had to liquidate part of a fixed rate asset to
pay the liability, this would change the income on fixed rate assets.
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The percentage change in A and L for a given change in rates is given by (from Chapter
3):
respectively.
so that
If R and (1+R) are the same for assets and liabilities then E can be simplified as:
and by multiplying by A / A:
Example calculation: Suppose a bank with $500 million in assets has an average asset
duration of 3 years, and an average liability duration of 1 year. The bank also has a total
debt ratio of 90%. R may be thought of as the required return on equity (see Gardner and
Mills) or perhaps as the average interest rate level. If R is 12% and the bank is expecting
a 50 basis point increase in interest rates, by how much will the equity value change?
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Both asset and liability values for fixed income contracts increase when rates fall and
decrease when rates rise. However, for a positive duration gap the absolute value of the
change in value of the assets is greater than the change in value of the liabilities when
interest rates change. With a negative duration gap the change in value of the liabilities
will be larger in absolute terms than the change in value of the assets.
Teaching Tip: The duration of a variable rate contract may be thought of as the time until
the rate reset. This will typically be much shorter than the maturity. Thus, a 30 year
mortgage with a rate adjustment due in 6 months has a 6 month duration. Contracts with
a maturity of 3 months or less may be thought of as having a duration equal to their
maturity without substantively affecting the analysis. This simplifies the duration
calculations for many accounts.
If the bank has a positive duration gap and is forecasting rising rates, they may wish to
switch to shorter term assets and/or variable rate assets and try to lengthen the duration of
the liability portfolio. Alternatively, the off balance sheet tools discussed in Chapter 23
could be used. If the leverage adjusted duration gap is zero, the equity value will be
approximately unchanged for small changes in interest rates.
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Teaching Tip: The duration model can cause bankers to become complacent about the
interest rate risk they face. Aside from convexity, which can be a significant problem in
an abnormal market, the duration model suffers from many of the same problems as the
RPM. For instance, the effects of defaults, prepayments, and call features of securities
are difficult to include in the duration calculations. This can lead to the belief that the
bank precisely knows its risk level when in fact a large interest rate move that changes
investor behavior is not incorporated into the model.10
Teaching Tip: Book values are not necessarily good representations of liquidation values
either. It is not clear to this author exactly what book value of equity actually measures.
It is roughly the sum of past decisions on asset acquisitions less the face amount
borrowed. As such it appears to be roughly a measure of net sunk costs by managers. It
has the advantage of being calculated according to a set of rules that limit management’s
ability to manipulate equity value, and it provides a fairly predicable number on a day to
day basis. For those who remember their economics training, this very stability implies
that the book value of equity cannot be a fair representation of the ongoing day to day
value of the firm in a dynamic marketplace.
The Capital Purchase Program (CPP) was part of the TARP funding in 2008-2009. The
Treasury purchased over $200 billion of senior preferred equity under the program.
These purchases qualified as Tier 1 capital for FIs. Citigroup and Bank of America
received additional special funding under this program totaling $25 billion and $20
billion respectively. The CPP was designed to help FIs increase their capital with the aim
of increasing lending to the general public. Lending fell in 2008, 2009 and 2010, so in
this sense the program was a failure, although presumably lending would have fallen
even farther without it and more failures may have occurred. The program came with
stipulations on maximum executive pay, golden parachutes and clawback provisions on
10
This is a false precision problem. VAR suffers from similar criticisms, as the failure of Long Term
Capital Management showed.
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executive pay based on earnings and limits on tax deductions associated with executive
compensation.
11
New market value accounting rules should help minimize gains trading.
12
The text data includes thrifts.
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Predictably, the industry is against implementing market value accounting. The reasons
usually cited are:
1. Banks and thrifts maintain that implementing market value accounting is difficult and
burdensome, particularly for smaller institutions that have many nontraded assets for
which it would be difficult to obtain a market value. However, it seems fairly easy to
impute a market value for financial assets and liabilities, so this argument does not
seem particularly relevant except perhaps for very small institutions.
2. Managers do not want unrealized (paper) gains and losses to be reflected in income,
claiming this would excessively destabilize earnings and equity. Accounting theory
tells us that the purpose of income as it is measured is to smooth out fluctuations in
cash flows through time to provide a better picture of value than short term, highly
variable cash flows. Accruals adjustments supposedly give a truer picture of the cash
flow potential of the firm over the long term. Stock prices appear to more closely
follow income than short term cash flows or EVA adjusted cash flow measures.
Managers claim they hold many of their assets and liabilities to maturity and marking
them to market would simply distort the value of the bank to shareholders. Moreover,
the FDIC claims that marking to market could cause them to have to close an
institution that might otherwise survive simply because of a short term interest rate
movement. Both arguments have some validity but are incorrect theoretically. The
managers’ claim that we should not update values as market conditions change
implies that equity should measure something other than present value of expected
future cash flows.13 An economic variable that measures future prospects must be
unstable if those prospects are changing. Bankers and accountants don’t think this
way though. They want a measure of value that is stable and encourages
accountability. The FDIC’s argument forgets that during the 1980s the FSLIC went
bankrupt (and the FDIC came close) because book value accounting allowed
institutions to build large losses which the insurer eventually had to pay. There is
also an implicit assumption in their argument that an interest rate change will be
reversed in time to restore profitability to the institution. I doubt the validity of that
argument, but more importantly, I would counter that if a short term interest rate
move can put an institution under then the regulators need to bring about a change in
management at that institution anyway.
3. FIs also maintain that they would be less likely to engage in long term lending and
investing if these accounts were regularly marked to market. This statement itself is
very revealing as it indicates that FI managers recognize that the current accounting
rules allow managers to take on more risk than they could otherwise. There
might be disruptions in the short run, but in a free capital system, other new lenders
would emerge if banks refused to make these loans. They may not make as many, or
they may increase the price of the loans, or they may simply hedge more. This
appears to be a disingenuous argument.
4. The industry argues the lack of liquidity in the recent crisis led to unrealistically low
market values of assets and marking to market imposed excessive losses on
13
Alternatively managers may be implicitly implying that the maturity of their investments is the proper
time horizon over which value should be measured, but equity does not mature when their investments
do so they are ignoring reinvestment risk over the longer time horizon, the value of which is better
captured by current market values.
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This discussion is part of a larger debate between accountants and bankers who favor
book value and rules based measures and financial economists who favor letting the
market determine value. Accounting rules are designed to provide a stable measure of
historical value that minimizes managerial manipulations and preserves management
accountability. However, in a dynamic world where value is determined as the present
worth of expected future firm prospects, book value cannot possibly accurately measure
daily fluctuations in economic firm value. If you believe that firm value is the
aggregation of the past and current decisions of the firm’s management, then you will
probably prefer book value measures of equity. If you instead believe that firm value is
properly an estimate of the value of the current and future prospects of the firm then you
should prefer market value.
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1. Go to the FDIC website and find the Quarterly Banking Profile. How has the
average duration gap been changing at institutions? Are the banks currently more or
less vulnerable to rising or falling interest rates? Explain why.
2. Go to the FDIC website and find the Quarterly Banking Profile. What has
been happening to the book value of equity capital? Why have these changes
occurred? Has the number of problem banks increased or decreased recently?
Ascertain why. Find an index of bank stocks. What has been happening to the market
value of equity capital? Are the changes similar? Why or why not?
4. Find the FDIC DOS Manual of Examination Policies: Market Risk, Section
7.1 on the web. What are the primary goals of examiners when they evaluate a bank’s
interest rate risk (IRR)? What are the ‘earnings approach’ and EVE? How do they
differ? What is the FDIC looking for in its IRR measurement system review?
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