Section Solution (10)

REVIEW Chapter (3:8)

Chapter (3), Job Analysis and Talent Management
True or False:
1) Job analysis produces information for writing job descriptions and
job specifications. (True)
2) Job specifications is a list of what the job entails and job descriptions
is what kind of people to hire for the job. (False)
Correction: Descriptions, specifications
3) Job analysis provides information about what duties the job entails
and what human characteristics are require to perform these activities.
(True)
4) Training (such as salary and bonus) usually depends on the job's
required skill and education level, degree of responsibility, and so on all
factors you assess through job analysis. (False)
Correction: Compensation
5) The job description lists the job's specific duties and required skills-
and therefore the training-that the job requires. (True)
6) The job specification may be in a separate document or in the same
document as the job description. (True)
7) A performance appraisal compares each employee's actual
performance with his or her performance standards. (True)
8) Interviews, questionnaires, observations, and diary/logs are the most
popular methods for gathering job analysis data. (True)

1
9) There're only one type of interviews which is structured interviews.
(False)
Correction: Two, Unstructured
10) Whichever kind of interview you use; you need to be sure the
interviewee fully understands the reason for the interview. (True)
11) Unstructured or checklist format that guide the interview includes a
series of questions regarding matters like the general purpose of the
job; job duties; and education, experience, and skills required. (False)
Correction: Structured
12) Structured lists are just for interviews. (False)
Correction: Not
13) Interviews considered simple and quick way to collect information
but it also has Distortion of information. (True)
14) All questionnaire are very structured checklists. (False)
Correction: Some
15) The questionnaire can be open-ended and simply ask the employee
to "describe the major duties of your job." (True)
16) In practice, the best questionnaire often falls between these two
extremes. A job analysis questionnaire might include several open-
ended questions as well as structured questions. (True)
17) A questionnaire is a quick and efficient way to obtain information
from a large number of employees; it's less costly than interviewing and
not a time-consuming method. (False)
Correction: Can be

2
18) Direct observation is especially useful when jobs consist mainly of
mental activities On the other hand, observation is usually not
appropriate when the job entails a lot of physical activity (lawyer,
design engineer). (False)
Correction: Physical, mental
19) Managers often use direct observation and interviewing together.
One approach is to observe the worker on the job during a complete
work cycle, here you take notes of all the job activities. Then, after
collecting as much information as practical, you interview the worker.
(True)
20) In direct observation the employee records the activity (along with
the time) in a log. (False)
Correction: Logs/ diary
21) In Logs/ diary the employee, of course, might try to exaggerate
some activities and under- play others. (True)
22) The position analysis questionnaire (PAQ) is probably the most
popular quantitative job analysis tool, and consists of a detailed
questionnaire containing 194 items. (True)
23) Interviews, questionnaires, observations, and diary/logs are
quantitative job analysis tool unlike PAQ which is qualitative job
analysis tool. (False)
Correction: Qualitative, quantitative
24) Methods such as questionnaires and interviews present some
drawbacks. For example, face-to-face interviews and observations can
be time-consuming. And collecting the information from geographically
employees can be challenging so that many companies now uses job
analysis via the Internet. (True)

3
25) The job analysis via the Internet is an online methodologies for
surveys. (True)
26) Standards of Performance and Working Conditions: This lists the
standards the company expects the employee to achieve under each
the job description's main duties and responsibilities. (True)
27) Writing job specifications for untrained employees is relatively
simple unlike when you're filling jobs with trained people which are
more complex. (False)
Correction: Trained, untrained
28) When you Writing job specifications for trained employees you are
looking for previous service, quality and previous job performance
unlike when you're filling jobs with untrained people such as physical
traits, personality and interests. (True)

4
MCQ:
1) …….…….. is the procedure through which you determine the duties of
job positions and the characteristics of the people to hire for them.
A. Job analysis
B. Job descriptions
C. Job specifications
2) ………………………. summarizes the personal qualities, traits, skills, and
background required for getting the job done.
A. Job analysis
B. Job descriptions
C. Job specifications
3) ………………… is a written statement that describes the activities and
responsibilities of the job. as well as its important features, such as
working conditions.
A. Job analysis
B. Job descriptions
C. Job specifications
4) The supervisor or human resources specialist collects information
about the job's actual work, such as selling. This information called
…………………
A. Work activities
B. Human behaviors
C. Performance standards
D. Job context
5) The employer may also want information about the job's
performance (in terms of quantity or quality levels for each job duty).
This information called ……………….
A. Work activities

5
 B. Human behaviors
C. Performance standards
D. Job context
6) The specialist may collect information about the job requires, like
sensing, communicating, deciding, and writing. This information called
…………...
A. Human requirements
B. Human behaviors
C. Performance standards
D. Job context
7) The specialist may collect information about the job requires, such as
job related knowledge or skills (education, training, work experience)
and required personal (personality interests). This information called
………….
A. Human requirements
B. Human behaviors
C. Performance standards
D. Job context
8) ………….. is information such as physical working conditions and work
schedule.
A. Human requirements
B. Human behaviors
C. Performance standards
D. Job context
9) ……………. show the organization-wide division of work, how the job in
question relates to other jobs, and where the job fits in the overall
organization.
A. Organization charts

6
 B. Job descriptions
C. Job specifications
D. A process chart
10) .……………. provides a more detailed picture of the work flow. It
shows the flow of inputs to and outputs from the job you're analyzing.
A. Organization charts
B. Job descriptions
C. Job specifications
D. A process chart
11) …………….. Contains several types of information. The job title (the
name of the Job), the location of the job in department/section,
information regarding salary and the grade/level of the job.
A. Job summary
B. Job identification
C. Relationships
D. Responsibilities and duties
12) …………… shows the job-holder's relationships with others inside and
outside the organization, for example (reports to, supervises, work with
and outside the company).
A. Job summary
B. Job identification
C. Relationships
D. Responsibilities and duties
13) …………. should of course summarize the core of the job, and include
only its major functions or activities.
A. Job summary
B. Job identification

7
 C. Relationships
D. Responsibilities and duties
14) ……………. This section may define the limits of the jobholder's
authority, including his or her decision-making authority and direct
supervision of other personnel.
A. Job summary
B. Job identification
C. Relationships
D. Responsibilities and duties
15) ……………. means assigning workers additional same-level activities.
A. Competencies
B. Job enrichment
C. Job enlargement
D. Job rotation
16) ……………. means moving workers from one job to another.
A. Competencies
B. Job enrichment
C. Job enlargement
D. Job rotation
17) ……………. means redesigning jobs in a way that increases the
opportunities for the worker to experience feelings of responsibility,
achievement, growth, and recognition. It does this by empowering the
worker, by giving the worker the skills and authority to inspect the
work.
A. Competencies
B. Job enrichment
C. Job enlargement

8
 D. Job rotation
18) ……………. are characteristics of the person that make performance
possible such as (knowledge, skills, and/or behaviors).
A. Competencies
B. Job enrichment
C. Job enlargement
D. Job rotation

9
 Chapter (4), Personnel Planning and Recruiting
True or False:
1) Recruitment and selection ideally start with personnel planning.
(True)
2) The firm's strategic plans should flow from Employment planning.
(False)
Correction: Employment planning, The firm's strategic plans
3) Plans to enter new businesses or reduce costs all influence the types
of positions you'll need to fill (or eliminate). (True)
4) Like all good plans, personnel plans require some forecasts or
estimates, in this case, of three things: personnel need, the supply of
inside candidates, and the likely supply of outside candidates. (True)
5) The basic process of deciding personnel needs is to forecast revenues
first. Then estimate the size of the staff required to support this sales
volume. (True)
6) Computerized forecasts enable the manager to build more variables
into his or her personnel projections. (True)
7) Most firms start with outside candidates to hire for the jobs. (False)
Correction: Inside
8) Sometimes whom to choose is not so obvious. Here managers turn
to qualifications (or skills) inventories. These contain data on
employees' performance records. (True)
9) Department managers or owners of Larger firms often use manual
devices to track employee qualifications. Unlike smaller firms which

10
use computerized to track employee qualifications, using various
packaged software systems. (False)
Correction: Smaller firms, Larger firms
10) The usual process is for the employee, the supervisor, and human
resource manager to enter information about the employee's
background, experience, and skills via the company intranet. (True)
11) Computerized skills inventory data include items like work
experience codes, product knowledge and the employee's level of
familiarity with the employer's product lines or services. (True)
12) The employer doesn't need to secure all its employee data. (False)
Correction: Should
13) Internet access makes it relatively hard for more people to access
the firm's computerized files. (False)
Correction: Easy
14) Employee recruiting means finding and/or attracting applicants for
the employer's open positions. (True)
15) High unemployment mean that it is easy to find good candidates.
(False)
Correction: Doesn't mean
16) Outside employees or "hiring from outside" is often the best source
of candidates. (False)
Correction: Current, within
17) One of the advantage of hiring inside candidates that Current
employees may be more committed to the company than Outside
employees. (True)

11
18) One of the advantage of hiring inside candidates that Current
employees who apply for jobs and don't get them may become
dissatisfied. (False)
Correction: Drawbacks
19) Hiring former employees who resigned back into better positions
may signal current employees that the best way to get ahead is to
leave. (True)
20) Hiring from within is particularly unimportant when it involves
filling the employer's top positions. (False)
Correction: Important
21) Succession planning entails three steps: identifying key needs,
creating and assessing candidates, and selecting those who will fill the
key positions. (True)
22) Most people today go online to look for jobs. For most employers
and for most jobs, Internet-based recruiting is by far the recruiting
source of choice. (True)
23) Job applicants view ads with more specific job information as more
attractive and more credible. (True)
24) Employment Ads and Image Employers should try to create the
wrong impressions of their companies through their postings, Web
sites, and other means. (False)
Correction: Right
25) Employment agencies are specialized only in one aspect of HR
which is recruiting candidates. (True)

12
26) There are two main types of employment agencies: (1) public
agencies operated by local governments and; (2) privately owned
agencies. (False)
Correction: Three, Agencies associated with nonprofit organizations
27) Not every state has a public, state-run employment service agency.
(False)
Correction: Every
28) Beyond just filling jobs, Employment agency counselors will visit an
employer's work site, review the employer's job requirements, and
even assist the employer in writing job descriptions. (True)
29) Most (nonprofit) professional and technical societies, have units
that help members find jobs. (True)
30) Many special public agencies place people who are in special
categories, such as those who are disabled. (True)
31) The employment agency's screening will never let poor applicants
go directly to the supervisors responsible for hiring. (False)
Correction: May (who may in return hire them)
32) Employers supplement their lasting workforces by hiring temporary
workers. (True)
33) Hiring temporary workers often through temporary help
employment agencies. (True)
34) Employment agencies known as part-time or just-in-time workers.
(False)
Correction: Temp agencies

13
35) Employers can hire temp workers only through temporary staff
agencies. (False)
Correction: And direct hires
36) Employers have long used "temps" to fill in for lasting employees
who were out sick or on vacation. But today's desire for ever-higher
productivity also contributes to temp workers’ growing popularity.
(True)
37) Temps are generally paid when they're working and for days off.
(False)
Correction: Only when, Not for
38) Many firms use temporary hiring to give employees a trial run
before hiring them as regular employees. (True)
39) Outsourcing and offshoring are perhaps the most extreme
examples of alternative staffing. (True)
40) Rather than bringing people in to do the company's jobs,
outsourcing and offshoring send the jobs in. (False)
Correction: Out
41) Sending out jobs, particularly overseas, presents employers with
some special challenges like cultural misunderstandings, the need to
deal with foreign contracts, liability, and legal systems issues; and the
fact that the offshore employees need special training. (True)
42) Outsourcing and offshoring are also known as headhunters. (False)
Correction: Executive recruiters
43) Many college students get their jobs through college internships.
(True)

14
44) Internships can be win-win situations. (True)
45) College recruiting sends employer representatives to college
campuses to prescreen applicants and create an applicant pool from
the graduating class. (True)
46) College recruiting means direct applications made at your office.
(False)
Correction: walk-ins

15
MCQ:
1) …….…….. is the process of deciding what positions the firm will have
to fill, and how to fill them?
D. Employment (or personnel) planning
E. The recruitment and selection process
F. Trend analysis
G. Ratio analysis
2) ………………………. is a series of hurdles aimed at selecting the best
candidate for the job?
A. Employment (or personnel) planning
B. The recruitment and selection process
C. Trend analysis
D. Ratio analysis
3) ………………… means making forecasts based on the historical ratio
between (1) some causal factor (like sales volume) and (2) the number
of employees required (such as number salespeople).
A. Employment (or personnel) planning
B. The recruitment and selection process
C. Trend analysis
D. Ratio analysis
4) ………………… means studying variations in your firm's employment
levels over the last few years.
A. Employment (or personnel) planning
B. The recruitment and selection process
C. Trend analysis
D. Ratio analysis

16
5) …………………………… can provide an initial estimate of future staffing
needs, but employment levels rarely depend just on the passage of
time.
A. Personnel replacement charts
B. The recruitment and selection process
C. Trend analysis
D. A scatter plot
6) ………….. shows graphically how two variables- such as sales and your
firm's staffing levels-are related.
A. Personnel replacement charts
B. The recruitment and selection process
C. Trend analysis
D. A scatter plot
7) …………. show the present performance and promotability for each
position's potential replacement.
A. Personnel replacement charts
B. The recruitment and selection process
C. Trend analysis
D. A scatter plot
8) ………….. means publicizing inventories the open job to employees.
These list the job's attributes, like qualifications, supervisor, work
schedule, and pay rate.
A. Rehiring
B. Job posting
C. succession planning
D. Creating candidates
9) ……………. Means hiring former employees.

17
 A. Rehiring
B. Job posting
C. succession planning
D. Creating candidates
10) .……………. the ongoing process of identifying, assessing, and
developing organizational leadership to enhance performance.
A. Rehiring
B. Job posting
C. succession planning
D. Creating candidates
11) ……………… means identifying potential internal (and perhaps
external) candidates for the future key positions, and then providing
them with the developmental experiences they require to be viable
candidates.
A. Rehiring
B. Job posting
C. succession planning
D. Creating candidates
12) Why use an agency?
A. Your firm doesn't have its own human resources department.
B. You want to reach currently employed individuals, who might feel
more comfortable dealing with agencies than with competing
companies.
C. You must fill a particular opening quickly.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
13) To help avoid problems associated with employment agencies

18
 A. Give the agency a wrong and non-complete job description.
B. Make sure tests, application blanks, and interviews are not part of
the agency's selection process.
C. Screen the agency
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
14) ………………… is measured in terms of output per hour paid for.
A. Off-shoring and outsourcing jobs
B. Productivity
C. Executive recruiters
D. On-demand recruiting services (ODRS)
15) ………………… means having outside vendors supply services.
A. Off-shoring and outsourcing jobs
B. Productivity
C. Executive recruiters
D. On-demand recruiting services (ODRS)
16) ………………… are special employment agencies retained by
employers to seek out top-management talent for their clients.
A. Off-shoring and outsourcing jobs
B. Productivity
C. Executive recruiters
D. On-demand recruiting services (ODRS)
17) ………….. provide short-term specialized recruiting assistance to
support specific projects without the expense of retaining traditional
search firms.
A. Off-shoring and outsourcing jobs
B. Productivity

19
 C. Executive recruiters
D. On-demand recruiting services (ODRS)
18) …………. They are recruiters who are paid by the hour or project,
instead of a percentage fee.
A. Off-shoring and outsourcing jobs
B. Productivity
C. Executive recruiters
D. On-demand recruiting services (ODRS)

20
 Chapter (5), Employee Testing and Selection
True or False:
1) Nothing an HR manager can do at work is more important than hiring
the right employees. (True)
2) Hiring the right employees is important for two main reasons:
performance, and legal obligations. (False)
Correction: Three, Costs
3) Employees with the right skills will do a better job for you and the
company. (True)
4) It's costly to recruit and hire employees. (True)
5) Hiring and training will never cost in fees and supervisory time.
(False)
Correction: Can
6) The total cost of hiring a manager could easily be 10 times as high
once you add search fees, interviewing time, reference checking, and
travel and moving expenses. (True)
7) Legal Obligations are important because mismanaging the hiring
process has three serious legal implications: EEO, negligent hiring, and
defamation. (True)
8) Avoiding negligent hiring claims doesn't require good screening.
(False)
Correction: Doesn't → XXX
9) Good screening: means taking "reasonable" action to investigate the
candidate's background. (True)

21
10) Using a test (or any selection tool) assumes the tool is both reliable
and valid. (True)
11) Validity is a test's first requirement and refers to its consistency
while Reliability refers to the correctness of the conclusion that we can
make based on the test. (False)
Correction: Reliability, Validity
12) Validity, while indispensable, only tells you that the test is
measuring something consistently. (False)
Correction: Reliability
13) Criterion Validity means that the test has validity to the extent that
the people with higher test scores perform better on the job while
Content Validity identifies job tasks that are critical to performance,
and then randomly selects a sample of those tasks to test. (True)
14) Test takers have rights to privacy and feedback under standards for
educational and psychological tests. (True)
15) Common law provides no protection against disclosing information
about employees to people outside the company. (False)
Correction: Some
16) Cognitive tests include tests of general reasoning ability
(intelligence) and tests of specific mental abilities like memory. (True)
17) Intelligence (IQ) tests are tests of general intellectual abilities. They
measure a single trait which is memory. (False)
Correction: not a single trait but rather a range of abilities, including
memory, vocabulary, and numerical ability.

22
18) Personality tests measure basic aspects of an applicant's
personality, such as stability, and motivation while Achievement tests
measure what someone has learned. (True)
19) Most of the tests you take in school are Personality tests. (False)
Correction: Achievement
20) Once the employer extends the person a job offers; a medical exam
is often the next step in the selection (although it may also occur after
the new employee starts work). (True)
21) Personality tests—particularly the projective type—are the most
difficult tests to evaluate and use. (True)
22) The "Big Five" is about what traits to measure which are:
Extraversion, Emotional stability, Openness to experience,
Agreeableness, and Conscientiousness. (True)
23) With work samples, your present examinees with situations
representative of the job for which they’re applying, and evaluate their
responses. (True)
24) Work Samples are similar to most tests because they measure job
performance directly. (False)
Correction: Differ from
25) Work sampling has several advantages. It measures actual job tasks,
so it’s harder to fake answers. (True)
26) Work sampling delves into the applicant’s personality, so there’s
almost a chance of applicants viewing it as an invasion of privacy.
(False)
Correction: Doesn’t delve, No Chance

23
27) Work samples display better validity than other tests designed to
predict performance. (True)
28) Supervisor recommendations usually play a big role in choosing
center participants. (True)
29) The big problem associated with Miniature Job Training is the
expense involved in individual instruction and training. (True)
30) One of the hardest ways to avoid hiring mistakes is to check the
candidate’s background. (False)
Correction: Easiest
31) There’s usually no reason why even supervisors in large companies
can't check the references of someone they’re about to hire, as long as
they know the rules. (True)

24
MCQ:
1) …….…….. Requires nondiscriminatory selection procedures.
H. EEO (Equal Employment Opportunities)
I. Negligent hiring
J. Defamation
K. A test
2) ………………………. Is the action of damaging the good reputation of
someone?
A. EEO
B. Negligent hiring
C. Defamation
D. A test
3) ………………… means hiring employees with criminal records or other
problems who then use access to customers' homes (or similar
opportunities) to commit crimes.
A. EEO
B. Negligent hiring
C. Defamation
D. A test
4) ………………… is, basically, a sample of a person's behavior.
A. EEO
B. Negligent hiring
C. Defamation
D. A test
5) …………………………… is one that yields consistent scores when a person
takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same
test on two or more different occasions.
25
 A. A validity test
B. A reliable test
C. Criterion Validity
D. Content Validity
6) ……………. answers the question "Does this test measure what it's
supposed to measure?"
A. A validity test
B. A reliable test
C. Criterion Validity
D. Content Validity
7) …………. means that those who do well on the test also do well on the
job, and that those who do poorly on the test do poorly on the job.
A. A validity test
B. A reliable test
C. Criterion Validity
D. Content Validity
8) ………….. Means the tasks the person performs on the test are really a
comprehensive and random sample of the tasks performed on the job
and the conditions under which the person takes the test resemble the
work situation is not always easy.
A. A validity test
B. A reliable test
C. Criterion Validity
D. Content Validity
9) Reasons for pre-employment medical exams?
A. To verify that the applicant meets the position's physical
requirements

26
 B. To discover any medical limitations, you should consider in placing
him or her
C. To establish a baseline for future insurance or compensation
claims
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
10) .……………. The tendency to be sociable, active, and to experience
positive effects, such as energy.
A. Emotional stability/neuroticism
B. Extraversion
C. Openness to experience
D. Agreeableness
11) ……………… The disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming,
unconventional.
A. Emotional stability/neuroticism
B. Extraversion
C. Openness to experience
D. Agreeableness
12) …………… The tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and
experience negative effects.
A. Emotional stability/neuroticism
B. Conscientiousness
C. Openness to experience
D. Agreeableness
13) ……………… The tendency to be trusting, compliant, and gentle.
A. Emotional stability/neuroticism
B. Conscientiousness

27
 C. Openness to experience
D. Agreeableness
14) ……………….. Is comprised of two related facets: achievement and
dependability
A. Emotional stability/neuroticism
B. Conscientiousness
C. Openness to experience
D. Agreeableness
15) …………… is a 2- to 3-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates
perform realistic management tasks (like making presentations) under
the observation of experts who appraise each candidate’s leadership
potential.
A. Work Sampling
B. Management Assessment Centers
C. Video-Based Situational Testing
D. Miniature Job Training
16) …………… tries to predict job performance by requiring job
candidates to perform one or more samples of the job’s basic tasks.
A. Work Sampling
B. Management Assessment Centers
C. Video-Based Situational Testing
D. Miniature Job Training
17) …………… Trainers give a group a discussion question and tell
members to arrive at a group decision.
A. Objective tests
B. Leaderless group discussion
C. Management games

28
 D. Individual presentations
18) …………… Trainers evaluate each participant’s communication skills
by hating each make assigned oral presentation.
A. Objective tests
B. Leaderless group discussion
C. Management games
D. Individual presentations
19) ………… Participants solve realistic problems as members of
simulated companies competing in a marketplace.
A. Objective tests
B. Leaderless group discussion
C. Management games
D. Individual presentations
20) …………….. includes tests of personality, mental ability, interests, and
achievements.
A. Objective tests
B. The interview
C. Management games
D. Individual presentations
21) …………. Require a meeting between at least one trainer and each
participant, to assess the interests, past performance, and motivation.
A. Objective tests
B. The interview
C. Management games
D. Individual presentations

29
22) ………… presents the candidate with several online or PC-based
video situations, each followed by one or more multiple-choice
questions.
A. Work Sampling
B. Management Assessment Centers
C. Video-Based Situational Testing
D. Miniature Job Training
23) ………… training candidates to perform several of the job’s tasks, and
then evaluating the candidates’ performance prior to hire.
A. Work Sampling
B. Management Assessment Centers
C. Video-Based Situational Testing
D. Miniature Job Training
24) ………… assumes that a person who demonstrates that he or she can
learn and perform the sample of tasks will be able to learn and perform
the job itself.
A. Work Sampling
B. Management Assessment Centers
C. Video-Based Situational Testing
D. Miniature Job Training

30
 Chapter (6), Training and Developing Employee
True or False:
1) Making sure your employees know what to do and how to do it is the
purpose of orientation and training. (True)
2) Employee orientation is different from “onboarding”. (False)
Correction: often called
3) Employee orientation still provides new employees with the
information they need to function (such as computer passwords and
company rules). (True)
4) The length of the orientation program depends on what you cover.
(True)
5) The human resource specialist (or, in larger firms, the office
manager) usually performs the first part of the orientation by
explaining basic matters like working hours, benefits, and vacations.
(False)
Correction: Smaller
6) Employee orientation means giving new or current employees the
skills they need to perform their jobs. (False)
Correction: Training
7) Training is a hallmark of good management, and a task that
managers ignore at their peril. (True)
8) In many firms, OJT is the only training available. (True)
9) In the coaching or understudy method, an experienced worker or the
trainee’s supervisor trains the employee. (True)

31
10) Apprenticeship training is a process by which people become skilled
workers, usually through a combination of formal learning and long-
term on-the-job training. (True)
11) Many jobs (or parts of jobs) consist of a logical sequence of steps
that one best learns step-by-step. This step-by-step training is
Apprenticeship training. (False)
Correction: Job Instruction Training
12) Job Instruction Training is a step-by-step, self-learning method that
consists of three parts: 1- Presenting questions, facts, or problems to
the learner 2- Allowing the person to respond 3- Providing feedback on
the accuracy of answers. (False)
Correction: Programmed learning (or programmed instruction)
13) Audiovisual-based training techniques like DVDs, films, PowerPoint,
and audiotapes are widely used. (True)
14) Programmed learning’s main advantage is that it reduces training
time. (True)
15) Lectures are more expensive than Audiovisuals. (False)
Correction: Audiovisuals, Lectures
16) Lectures is a method in which trainees learn on the actual or
simulated equipment they will use on the job, but are trained off the
job. (False)
Correction: Vestibule Training
17) Vestibule training is necessary when it’s too costly or dangerous to
train employees on the job. (True)
18) Management Games presents a trainee with a written description
of an organizational problem. The person then analyzes the case,
32
diagnoses the problem, and presents his or her findings and solutions in
a discussion with other trainees. (False)
Correction: The Case Study Method
19) With computerized management games, trainees divide into five or
six-person groups, each of which competes with the others in a
simulated marketplace. (True)
20) Management games are effective. (True)
21) Many universities provide executive education and continuing
education programs in leadership, supervision, and the like. (True)
22) The trainer provides reinforcement in the form of praise and
constructive feedback based on how the trainee performs in the role-
playing situation, this step is called Transfer of training. (False)
Correction: Social reinforcement
23) Trainees watch live or video examples showing models behaving
effectively in a problem situation, this step is called Transfer of
training. (False)
Correction: Modeling
24) Trainees are encouraged to apply their new skills when they are
back on their jobs, this step is called Social reinforcement. (False)
Correction: Transfer of training
25) For many firms, learning portals are becoming their virtual
corporate universities. (True)
26) Many firms retain executive coaches to develop their top managers’
effectiveness. (True)

33
27) The coaching field is regulated, so managers should do their due
diligence. (False)
Correction: Unregulated
28) There is one basic issue to address when evaluating training
programs, which is the design of the evaluation study. (False)
Correction: are two, (The first is the design of the evaluation study
and, in particular, whether to use controlled experimentation. The
second issue is, “What should we measure?”)
29) A controlled experiment uses both a training group and a control
group that receives no training. (True)
30) Controlled experimentation is therefore the evaluation process of
choice. (True)
31) The employer can assess the trainees’ behavioral change directly or
indirectly. (True)
32) The employer can assess the trainees’ behavioral change directly or
indirectly, directly, you might assess the effectiveness of, say, a
supervisory performance appraisal training program. (False)
Correction: Indirectly
33) The employer can assess the trainees’ behavioral change directly or
indirectly, and indirectly assess a training program’s results. (False)
Correction: Directly
34) Coaching/Understudy Approach means moving managers from
department to department to broaden their understanding of the
business and to test their abilities. (False)
Correction: Job Rotation

34
35) The trainee works directly with a senior manager or with the person
he or she is to replace; the latter is responsible for the trainee’s
coaching. (True)
36) Action learning programs give managers and others released time
to work analyzing and solving problems in departments other than their
own. (True)
37) Integrated case scenarios expand the case analysis concept by
creating long-term comprehensive case situations. (True)

35
MCQ:
1) In which Training Process step, you formulate specific, measurable
knowledge and performance training objectives, review possible
training program content and estimate a budget for the training
program.
L. Analysis step
M.Instructional design step
N. Implement the program
O. Evaluation step
2) In which Training Process step, are you actually training the targeted
employee group using methods such as on-the-job or online training?
A. Analysis step
B. Instructional design step
C. Implement the program
D. Evaluation step
3) In which Training Process step, you identify the specific knowledge
and skills the job requires, and compare these with the prospective
trainees’ knowledge and skills.
A. Analysis step
B. Instructional design step
C. Implement the program
D. Evaluation step
4) In which Training Process step, you assess the program’s success (or
failures).
A. Analysis step
B. Instructional design step
C. Implement the program

36
 D. Evaluation step
5) …………………………… means having a person learn a job by actually
doing it.
E. On-the-job training (OJT)
F. Coaching/Understudy Approach
G. Job Rotation
H. Action Learning
6) ……………. means moving managers from department to department
to broaden their understanding of the business and to test their
abilities.
A. On-the-job training (OJT)
B. Coaching/Understudy Approach
C. Job Rotation
D. Action Learning
7) …………. The trainee works directly with a senior manager or with the
person he or she is to replace.
A. On-the-job training (OJT)
B. Coaching/Understudy Approach
C. Job Rotation
D. Action Learning
8) ………….. give managers and others released time to work analyzing
and solving problems in departments other than their own.
A. On-the-job training (OJT)
B. Coaching/Understudy Approach
C. Job Rotation
D. Action Learning

37
9) The aim of …….……. is to create a realistic situation and then have the
trainees assume the parts (or roles) of specific persons in that situation.
A. Behavior Modeling
B. Role Playing
C. Executive Coaches
D. Corporate Universities
10) ………………………. involves (1) showing trainees the right (or “model”)
way of doing something, (2) letting trainees practice that way, and then
(3) giving feedback on the trainees’ performance.
A. Behavior Modeling
B. Role Playing
C. Executive Coaches
D. Corporate Universities
11) Many firms, particularly larger ones, establish in-house
development centers that are often called …………………
A. Behavior Modeling
B. Role Playing
C. Executive Coaches
D. Corporate Universities
12) ………………… is an outside consultant who questions the executive’s
boss, peers, subordinates, and (sometimes) family in order to identify
the executive’s strengths and weaknesses.
A. Behavior Modeling
B. Role Playing
C. Executive Coaches
D. Corporate Universities

38
13) ……………………………, Test the trainees to determine whether they
learned the principles, skills, and facts they were supposed to learn.
I. Reaction
J. Learning
K. Behavior
L. Results
14) ……………., Probably most important, ask, “What results did we
achieve, in terms of the training objectives previously set?”.
A. Reaction
B. Learning
C. Behavior
D. Results
15) …………., ask questions like Did they like the program? Did they think
it worthwhile?
A. Reaction
B. Learning
C. Behavior
D. Results
16) ………….. Ask whether the trainees’ on-the-job behavior changed
because of the training program.
A. Reaction
B. Learning
C. Behavior
D. Results

39
 Chapter (7), Performance Management and Appraisal
True or False:
1) The primary purpose of providing employees with feedback during a
performance appraisal is to motivate employees to revise their
performance standards. (False)
Correction: Remove any performance deficiencies
2) Setting work standards is the first step of any performance appraisal.
(True)
3) SMART goals mean making sure that the manager and the
subordinate agree on the subordinate's job standards and the appraisal
method to be used. (False)
Correction: Defining the job
4) Customer is in the best position to observe and evaluate an
employee's performance for the purposes of a performance appraisal.
(False)
Correction: Immediate supervisor
5) Peer appraisals have been shown to result in a reduction of social
loafing. (True)
6) In most firms, a rating committee used for performance appraisals
consists of 4-5 members. (True)
7) Peer evaluation refers to the process of allowing subordinates to
rate their supervisor's performance anonymously. (False)
Correction: Upward feedback
8) Team appraisals refer to a performance appraisal based on surveys
from peers, supervisors, subordinates, and customers. (False)

40
Correction: 360-degree feedback
9) A performance appraisal is based on the assumption that an
employee understood what his or her performance standards were
prior to the appraisal. (True)
10) Supervisors should provide employees with feedback,
development, and incentives necessary to help employees eliminate
performance deficiencies or to continue to perform well. (True)
11) The third step of the performance appraisal process is to assess the
employee's actual performance relative to work standards. (False)
Correction: Providing feedback to the employee with the aim of
helping him or her to eliminate performance deficiencies or to
continue to perform above par
12) The HR department monitors the performance appraisal system,
but it is typically not involved in rating employees. (True)
13) In order to ensure that performance appraisals are effective, Felicia,
a line supervisor, should make sure to schedule a feedback session to
address each subordinate's performance, progress, and future
development plans. (True)
14) Studies suggest that managers who receive upward feedback from
identified subordinates view the upward appraisal process more
negatively than do managers who receive anonymous upward
feedback. (False)
Correction: Positively
15) Three hundred and sixty-degree feedback is generally used for
development purposes rather than for pay increases. (True)
16) Graphic rating scale requires supervisors to categorize employees
from best to worst on various traits. (False)
41
Correction: Alternation ranking method
17) The most popular method for ranking employees is the graphic
ranking scale method. (False)
Correction: Alternation ranking method
18) Forced distribution is being used when a supervisor places
predetermined percentages of appraises into various performance
categories. (True)
19) Alternation ranking method is similar to grading on a curve. (False)
Correction: Forced distribution
20) Harm to employee morale is one of the primary complaints
regarding the use of the forced distribution method for performance
appraisals. (True)
21) Critical incidents require a supervisor to maintain a log of positive
and negative examples of a subordinate's work-related behavior. (True)
22) Combination of narrative critical incidents and quantified
performance scales best describes a behaviorally anchored rating scale.
(True)
23) The first step in developing a behaviorally anchored rating scale is
to reallocate incidents. (False)
Correction: Write critical incidents
24) Mixed standard scales refer to setting specific measurable goals
with each employee and then periodically reviewing the progress
made. (False)
Correction: Management by objective

42
25) Improving validity is the primary goal of using mixed standard
scales. (False)
Correction: Reducing rating errors
26) Electronic performance monitoring system enables supervisors to
oversee the amount of computerized data an employee is processing
each day. (True)
27) Alternation ranking refers to the ranking of employees from best to
worst on a trait or traits, choosing highest than lowest until all are
ranked. (True)
28) The basic problem with using a ranking method for performance
appraisals is not identifying the extremely good and bad performers but
differentiating meaningfully between the others. (True)
29) Top employees often outperform the average or poor employees by
as much as 100%. (True)
30) Management by objectives requires a manager to set specific
measurable, organizationally relevant goals with each employee and
then periodically discuss the employee's progress toward these goals.
(True)

MCQ:
1) Which of the following terms refers to the process of evaluating an
employee's current and/or past performance relative to his or her
performance standards?
43
 A. employee selection
B. performance appraisal
C. employee orientation
D. organizational development
2) Which of the following is NOT one of the recommended guidelines
for setting effective employee goals?
A. creating specific goals
B. assigning measurable goals
C. administering consequences for failure to meet goals
D. encouraging employees to participate in setting goals
3) SMART goals are best described as ________.
A) specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely
B) straightforward, meaningful, accessible, real, and tested
C) strategic, moderate, achievable, relevant, and timely
D) supportive, meaningful, attainable, real, and timely
4) All of the following are reasons for appraising an employee's
performance EXCEPT ________.
A) correcting any work-related deficiencies
B) creating an organizational strategy map
C) determining appropriate salary and bonuses
D) making decisions about promotions
5) In most organizations, who is primarily responsible for appraising an
employee's performance?
A. employee's direct supervisor
B. company appraiser
C. human resources manager
D. employee's subordinates

44
6) Which of the following is most likely NOT a role played by the HR
department in the performance appraisal process?
A. conducting appraisals of employees
B. monitoring the appraisal system's effectiveness
C. providing performance appraisal training to supervisors
D. ensuring the appraisal system's compliance with EEO laws
7) Employee performance appraisals are conducted by all of the
following EXCEPT ________.
A) peers
B) competitors
C) subordinates
D) rating committees
8) What usually occurs when employees rate themselves for
performance appraisals?
A) Ratings are reliable but invalid.
B) Ratings are subject to halo effects.
C) Ratings are higher than when provided by supervisors.
D) Ratings are about the same as when determined by peers.
9) According to research, what is the typical result of upward feedback?
A. Firms are protected against biased appraisals.
B. Managers get defensive.
C. Managers improve their performance.
D. Managers seek to find out who gave them bad ratings.
10) What are the essential steps of the performance appraisal process?
A. setting work standards,
B. assessing the employee's actual performance relative to those
standards, and

45
 C. providing feedback.
D. all of the above
11) Which of the following is the easiest and most popular technique
for appraising employee performance?
A) alternation ranking
B) graphic rating scale
C) forced distribution
D) constant sum rating scale
12) Which performance appraisal technique lists traits and a range of
performance values for each trait?
A. behaviorally anchored rating scale
B. graphic rating scale
C. forced distribution
D. critical incident
13) All of the following are usually measured by a graphic rating scale
EXCEPT ________.
A. generic dimensions of performance
B. performance of co-workers
C. achievement of objectives
D. job-related competencies
14) Which of the following is a downside of the critical incident method
of compiling incidents?
A. doesn't provide examples of excellent work performance
B. doesn't produce relative ratings for pay raise purposes
C. doesn't make the supervisor think about the subordinate's
appraisal all year
D. doesn't compile examples of ineffective work performance

46
15) Which appraisal method combines the benefits of narrative critical
incidents and quantified scales by assigning scale points with specific
examples of good or poor performance?
A. behaviorally anchored rating scale
B. constant sums rating scale
C. alternation ranking
D. forced distribution

47
 Section (9)
Chapter 8 (Compensation)
True or False:
1) A consultant is not an employee. (True)
2) A manager has the power to lay down and executes policies. (True)
3) A regular employee is subject to the regular income tax. (True)
4) All directors are not considered employees. (False)
Correction: There are directors who are part of management
5) A minimum wage earner is exempt from income tax. (True)
6) A regular employee can be a managerial supervisory, or rank and file
employee. (True)
7) The statutory minimum wage is P60,000 annually or the amount
fixed by the Regional Tripartite Wage and Productivity Board whichever
is lower. (False)
Correction: Whichever is Higher
8) Half of the benefits given for the convenience or necessity of the
employer are taxable. (False)
Correction: 100% exempt
9) A managerial employee is least likely to be a minimum wage earner.
(True)
10) Fixed allowances are supplemental compensation income. (False)
Correction: Regular compensation

48
11) A managerial employee can be a special employee. (True)
12) The fringe benefits of managerial or supervisory employees are
generally subject to fringe benefit tax. (True)
13) Filipinos employed in Philippine embassies are generally exempt.
(False)
Correction: Considered resident citizen in taxation
14) An employer controls the means and methods by which the work
accomplished. (True)
15) An employee who became a minimum wage earner during the year
is exempt from tax for the entire year. (False)
Correction: Exemption is prospective
16) Minimum wage earners who are disqualified for exemption during
the year shall be taxable as regular employees. (True)
17) Minimum wage earners who breached the minimum wage
threshold by a salary be taxable as regular employees Increase during
the year are taxable only starting from the months of increase. (True)
18) A fringe benefit is usually in the nature of an incentive.
Compensation income is in the nature of performance-based pay.
(True)
19) The excess of the 13th month pay and other benefits over P90,000
is considered compensation income. (True)
20) Non-resident Filipinos employed by foreign embassies, missions, or
International organizations are generally exempt. (True)

49
MCQ:
1) Which is not an element of an employer-employee relationship?
A. Selection process
B. Power of control
C. Power to dismiss
D. Payment of fixed wages
2) Which is not an employee classification as to function?
A. Managerial employee
B. Special employee
C. Rank and file employee
D. Supervisory employee
3) Which is not an employee classification as to taxability?
A. Regular employee
B. Managerial employee
C. Special employee
D. Minimum wage earner
4) Which is usually an employee?
A. A director who is at the same time the Chief Executive Officer
B. A director regularly receiving a retainer's fee
C. Consultant
D. A hired TV program talent
5) Which is not an exclusion criterion on employee benefits?
A. Necessity of the employee rule
B. Convenience of employer rule
C. Exemption by special law
D. Exemption by treaties or international agreements

50
6) For purposes of the fringe benefit tax, fringe benefits pertain to
A. other fringe benefits not included as compensation income of any
employees.
B. other fringe benefits not specifically included as compensation
income of managerial or supervisory employees.
C. all fringe benefits of managerial or supervisory employees.
D. all fringe benefits of rank and file employees.
7) Which is a correct statement?
A. The compensation income of managerial or supervisory
employees is subject to fringe benefit tax
B. The taxable fringe benefits of rank and file employee are subject
to fringe benefit tax.
C. The taxable fringe benefits of managerial and supervisory
employee are subject to regular income tax.
D. The compensation income of rank and file employees is subject to
regular tax.
8) Which is not a supplemental compensation income?
1. De minimis benefits
2. Honoraria
3. Allowances
4. Bonuses
9) Fringe benefits includes
A. Basic salaries
B. Retirement and separation pay
C. Fees
D. De minimis benefits

51
10) De minimis benefits are generally
A. exempt from tax.
B. taxable in excess of P90,000
C. fully taxable.
D. subject to fringe benefit tax.
11) Which do not form part of other benefits of rank and file
employees?
A. Excess of de minimis over their legal limits
B. Productivity incentive
C. Salaries and wages
D. Employee educational assistance
12) The term "de minimis benefits" does not include
A. Christmas bonus
B. Rice subsidy
C. Christmas gift
D. Monetized unused vacation leave
13) Select the most accurate statement
A. De minimis benefits are totally exempt from income tax.
B. De minimis benefits in excess of P90,000 are subject to income
tax.
C. The excess of other benefits over P90,000 constitutes
compensation income
D. The benefits of rank and file employees are not subject to fringe
benefit tax
14) Which is taxable as compensation?
A. SSS benefits
B. Termination benefits from resignation

52
 C. Retirement benefits
D. Retirement gratuities from foreign institutions
15) Which of the following is subject to income tax?
A. Minimum wage
B. De minimis benefits
C. GSIS benefits
D. Voluntary contribution to SSS, PHIC and HDMF
16) All of these are exempt benefits of
A. minimum wage earner except a. hazard pay.
B. holiday pay
C. vacation pay.
D. overtime pay.
17) Which is correct when a minimum wage earner derives other
income outside his employment?
A. He is subject to withholding tax and income tax
B. He is neither subject to withholding tax nor income tax.
C. He is exempt from withholding tax, but subject to income tax.
D. He is subject to withholding tax, but exempt from income tax.
18) Statement 1: Excess de minimis is considered compensation income
as "other benefits for rank and file employees and managerial or
supervisory employees.
Statement 2: Excess de minimis is a fringe benefit subject to the fringe
benefit tax.
A. Statement 1 is correct.
B. Both statements are incorrect.
C. Statement 2 is correct.
D. Both statements are correct.

53
19) Which is considered compensation?
A. Reasonable amounts of pre-computed daily transportation
allowance
B. Cost-of-living allowance
C. Outstation allowance for employees working at distant facilities
D. Car incentives to medical doctors required to report on duty
anytime
20) Which of the following remuneration is an item of compensation
income?
A. Retainer fees of an outside director
B. Customer tips
C. Commissions to a minimum wage earner
D. Referral fee to a customer

54