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Mock Test Solutions in English

Questions

1. A man covers a certain distance in a certain time. If he moves 5 kmph faster, then he reaches the
destination 1 hour early. If he moves 3 kmph slower, then he reaches the destination 2 hours late. Find the
total distance covered by him.
A. 14.69 km B. 18.58 km
C. 20 km D. 30 km
2. A 5 feet tall person is standing 24 feet away from a tower. The angle of elevation from the top of the
person to the top of the tower is 60°. Find the difference between the height of the tower and the shortest
distance between the top of the person and the top of the tower.
A. ( - 72) feet B. ( - 77) feet
C. ( - 72) feet D. ( - 77) feet
3. In group I, the average age of 10 students is 20 years, and in group II, the average age is x years for a
group of 20 students. The combined average age of I and II is 13.33. What is the value of x?
A. 12 B. 14
C. 16 D. 10
4. At a certain fast food restaurant, Shritej can buy 3 samosas, 7 pastries, and one soft drink for Rs. 120. At
the same prices, he can buy 4 samosas, 10 pastries, and one soft drink for Rs.164.5. How much would it
cost for a meal of one samosa, one pastry, and one soft drink?
A. Rs. 29 B. Rs. 31
C. Rs. 41 D. Rs. 45
5. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow.

The following table shows the number of bugs reported and the number of bugs that were fixed in a newly
released software by different users in the months of June, July, August, September, and October 2022.
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It is known that a bug reported in a particular month was fixed by the end of the next month, i.e., if a bug is
reported in July then it is fixed by the end of August. The software was released in the month of June
2022.

Find the number of bugs that were reported in July 2022 but fixed in August 2022
A. 550 B. 600
C. 750 D. 350
6. Find the average number of bugs reported in July, September, and October.
A. 970 B. 990
C. 980 D. 960
7. What percentage of the total number of bugs that were reported in the five given months were still not
fixed at the end of October 2022?
A. 11% B. 9.2%
C. 10% D. 8.5%
8. If a team of 12 people is to be selected randomly from a pool of 18 potential members that consists of
2/3rd men and 1/3rd women, what is the probability that the team will comprise at least 8 men?
A. B.

C. D. None of the above

9. A hollow conical flask of base radius 12 cm and height 16 cm is filled with liquid. The liquid is emptied into
a hemispherical bowl, which occupies 66.66% of its capacity. Find the total surface area of the
hemisphere. (Ignore the thickness of the hemispherical bowl.)
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A. 1538 cubic cm B. 1358 cubic cm

C. 1835 cubic cm D. 1385 cubic cm
10. Amar and Bimal started an enterprise by investing Rs. x and Rs. , respectively. Amar leaves the
business after 8 months. At the end of the year, the share of Bimal in the total profit is Rs. 4500. Find the
investment of Amar.
A. 45000 B. 50000
C. 75000 D. Cannot be determined
11. The interest received on Rs. 10000 invested at 12% compound interest per annum for 2 years is the same
as that received on Rs. x invested at 8% simple interest per annum for 3 years. Find the value of x.
A. 10200 B. 10600
C. 10400 D. 10800
12. If , find the product of a, b, c.

A. 30 B. 40
C. 60 D. 50
13. Out of a total of x candidates who appeared for the KAT exam, 30% also appeared for the GAT exam,
20% of the remaining appeared for LIFT exam, 25% of the remaining candidates appeared for SIMAT
exam, and the remaining candidates appeared for the CNAP exam. If the difference between the
candidates who appeared for the GAT exam and the candidates who appeared for the CNAP exam is
12600, find the value of x.
A. 110000 B. 102000
C. 105000 D. 115000
14. A, B, and C together can complete a piece of work in 25 days. B and C together can complete the same
piece of work in 35 days. In how many days can A and B complete the work when working together if B is
half as efficient as A?
A. B.

C. D. None of these
15. A shopkeeper incurred a loss of 33.33% by selling an article for Rs. 166400. At what price should she sell
the article so that she earns a profit of 12.5%?
A. 180000 B. 280800
C. 382000 D. None of the above
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16. Find the total number of perfect cube factors of 918000

A. 8 B. 7
C. 6 D. 5
17. A and B are two natural numbers in the ratio 4 : 7. When A is doubled and 4 is subtracted from B, then
their ratio becomes 4 : 3. Find the value of A + 2B
A. 44 B. 56
C. 64 D. 72
18. A bag contains 30 pens of three colours. The number of blue pens is 5 more than the number of red pens,
and the number of black pens is 7 more than the number of red pens. If two pens are randomly selected
from the bag, what is the probability that both of them are of the same colour?
A. B.

C. D.
19. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The following line graph shows the number of cars manufactured, number of cars sold, and the number of
cars recalled due to manufacturing defects by a company in the years 2017, 2018, 2019, 2020, and 2021.
The number of cars that remain unsold in a year are added to the stock of the next year. There was no car
that was left unsold at the end of 2016.
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Total stock in a year = Number of cars manufactured + Unsold stock of previous years

The total number of cars sold in the given five years is approximately what percentage of the total number
of cars manufactured in the five given years?
A. 84% B. 82%
C. 86% D. 88%
20. Find the ratio of the total number of cars recalled in the years 2018, 2020, and 2021 to the total number of
cars manufactured in the same years.
A. 198 : 595 B. 204 : 595
C. 406 : 1325 D. 406 : 1345
21. If south-east is north, south-west is east, and so on, what will east become?
A. South-west B. South-east
C. North-west D. North-east
22. Read the following sets of words, and find the odd one out.
A. Army B. Tower
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C. Band D. Pacific
23. Directions: Study the following information carefully, and answer the following questions.

There are three married couples in a three-generation family of eight members, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R.
K is the sister-in-law of Q, who has no siblings. R is the father-in-law of Q, who is the father of P. N is the
mother-in-law of M. L is P's grandmother but not R's wife. O is the mother of N, who has only one son.

Who among the following is the mother of P?

A. O B. N
C. L D. Q
24. Seven girls A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are sitting in a row facing north. G is sitting between A and E, and they
all are sitting on consecutive seats. One girl is sitting between F and A. Two girls are sitting between C
and E. D is sitting to the immediate right of F. Three girls are sitting between B and C. Who is seated at
the second position from the left end?
A. B B. D
C. E D. G
25. Ankush walks 20 km towards the north. From there, he walks 15 km towards the south. Then, he walks 12
km towards the east. How far and in which direction is he with reference to the starting point?
A. 10 km, south B. 11 km, south-east
C. 12 km, north D. 13 km, north-east
26. Complete the analogy:

Fresco : Wall ::
A. fountain : courtyard B. parquetry: floor
C. hay : roof D. statuary : passage
27. In the following question, two statements denoted as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given. You have to
choose the correct alternative from the given options.

Assertion: There has been an increase in the patients of cardiovascular disease since the onset of the
pandemic.

Reason: The stress resulting from pandemic related issues such as less social gathering, job-related
anxiety has contributed to the rise of cardiovascular diseases.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct B. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the
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explanation of (A). correct explanation of (A).

C. (A) is true but (R) is false. D. Both (A) and (R) are false.
28. Ravi is the father of Rajat who is the brother of Sonakshi. Meena is the daughter of Prakash and the
mother of Rajat. How is Prakash related to Sonakshi?
A. Paternal grandfather B. Maternal grandmother
C. Maternal grandfather D. Cannot be determined
29. In the following question, two statements denoted as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given. You have to
choose the correct alternative from the given options.

Assertion: The employee has vindicated his importance to the firm by performing way above expectations.

Reason: The employee was under fire due to the lack of opportunities for career growth.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct B. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the
explanation of (A). correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false. D. Both (A) and (R) are false.
30. Consider the given statement to be true and figure out whether the given assumptions are implicit or not.

Statement:

A severe drought has been affecting most of Afghanistan since early 2021. It has crippled crop production
and livestock leading to critical food shortages. Nearly 20 million Afghans are deprived of food currently,
as per reliefweb.int.

Assumptions:

I. Afghanistan has been facing drought-like conditions for much of 2021

II. Poor water management can largely be attributed to the water crisis in Afghanistan.
A. Only I follows B. Only II follows
C. Both follow D. None follows
31. In a certain code language, DENTAL is written as GHQWDO and FOREST is written as IRUHVW. How is
OMBRE written in that code?
A. HJIUS B. RPEUH
C. WERDF D. LKIOP
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32. In a group of 700 people, there are 400 people who like video games and 350 people who like chess. If
each one of them likes at least one out of video games and chess, how many people are there who only
like video games?
A. 200 B. 250
C. 300 D. 350
33. Which of the following numbers does not follow the same pattern as others do?
8 13 14 17 16 13
A. 14 B. 13
C. 17 D. 8
34. Which of the following letter clusters will replace the ‘?’ in the given letter series?

DE, GHI, KLMN, ?, VWXYZA

A. PQRST B. DFHUI
C. ERFTH D. XTBYU
35. Which of the following numbers does not follow the pattern that is followed by the remaining numbers?
255, 130, 197, 167, 175, 174
A. 197 B. 167
C. 130 D. 175
36. Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H sit around a circle facing the centre. A sits second to the left of B,
who is sitting to the immediate left of G. Three people sit between G and F. Two people sit between H and
E, none of whom is a neighbour of G. H is not a neighbour of A. C is not adjacent to G. Who sits opposite
of A?
A. B B. C
C. D D. H
37. In the given series, only one number does not follow the pattern that is followed by the others. Find that
number.
13 22 40 74 148 292 580
A. 74 B. 148
C. 22 D. 292
38. Find the alternative that will replace the question mark.
125 : 152 :: 136 : ?
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A. 232 B. 163
C. 252 D. None of the above
39. Directions: Read the following information carefully to answer the questions based on it.

Six friends A, B, C, D, E, and F after meeting, disperse from point P towards their home. A goes 15 m
towards the east with respect to P. B is 5 m towards the north with respect to A. C goes 10 m towards the
south with respect to P. D goes 9 m towards the west with respect to C; E goes 20 m towards the north
with respect to D, and F is 10 m towards the south with respect to A.

How far and in which direction does F live with respect to E?

A. and south–east B. and south
C. and north–east D. and south–east
40. Directions: In the following questions, assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the given
conclusions is/are definitely true, and then give your answers accordingly.

Statement:
A≥X=C>D>F>V=B≤G≤H
Conclusion:
I. V < A
II. G ≤ D
A. Only I follows B. Only II follows
C. Both I and II follow D. Neither I nor II follows
41. Direction: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

GoI’s decision to allow adults over 18 who received their second doses over nine months ago to get
‘precaution doses’ at private vaccination centres is welcome. Scientific studies have repeatedly asserted
how immunity after infection and vaccination wanes over time. With citizens returning to workplaces a
booster is both protection and peace of mind, especially with dilution of mask mandates. Uncontrolled
European and East Asian surges also serve as warning. Plus India has a significant proportion of adults
with comorbidities and comorbidities are catching adults younger.

Boosters will protect this vulnerable section, reduce Covid ferocity and keep the economy running.
Therefore boosters should be extended to government vaccination centres with their greater reach. Many
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working in contact-intensive industries don’t have the wherewithal to pay Rs 600 and upwards for a jab.
GoI’s expenditure on double-dosing 75% of the adult population till mid-February was just 1% of last
year’s budgeted expenditure. Now a single-shot booster in a more competitive vaccine market having
cheaper jabs will allow GoI to make bulk purchases at even lower prices, perhaps requiring not even 0.5%
of this year’s budgetary outlay. Economic and health setbacks of a virus rebound would, in contrast, hit
GDP harder.

Studies have indicated that a different booster increases protection for those double-dosed with viral
vector and inactivated vaccines. Other than the CMC Vellore study on Covaxin-Covishield cleared last
September, phase-3 trials on boosting with Biological E’s Corbevax and Bharat Biotech’s intranasal
vaccine went ahead only by January, and with Covovax in March. The Vellore study should enable
Covaxin recipients to get a Covishield booster. Meanwhile, UK studies on using Covovax to boost
Covishield recipients are available. With the vaccine bouquet growing, including a potential mRNA
vaccine, mix-and-match boosters are the way to go. GoI must shift course, sooner rather than later.

The author has highlighted the need to allot funds to vaccines in order to _______.
B. point out the fact that if we get complacent, then
A. point out the need to tackle the growing threat of
the economic and health impediment would be hard
the pandemic
to shrug off
C. throw some light on the need to take masking D. comment about the need to pick up where we left
seriously off as far as vaccination is concerned
42. As per the context, what is meant by mix-and-match booster doses?
A. These are the types of doses that require a B. These doses will require a mixed set of
heterogenous diet. characteristics for a particular person.
C. These doses are characterised by the various
D. These doses are for a wide variety of people.
kinds of doses that are available in the market.
43. Which of the following are true as per the passage?

I. Last year’s vaccination drive to doubly vaccinate 75% of the adult population cost 1% of the budget.

II. The vaccination drive to secure a booster dose for the adult population will not require even 0.5% of the
budget allocation.
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III. The government will benefit from a competitive vaccine environment and, hence, can acquire bulk
doses cheaply.
A. I & II B. II & III
C. I & III D. All of the above.
44. Why does the author believe that the government’s decision to allow booster doses to adults is a
necessary step?
A. Because booster doses have reduced the threat B. Because immunity after infection and vaccination
of the pandemic in the past decreases over time
D. Because it will provide citizens with necessary
C. Because it will keep the economy running protection and peace of mind from the threat of the
pandemic
45. The meaning of the expression ‘to look for a needle in a haystack’ is _______.
A. to look for something that is lost B. to look for something that is difficult to find
C. to look for something that is old D. to look for something that is not necessary
46. Choose the most appropriate option that completes the statement.

Rohit was looking for some way to escape punishment for his act, but his close friend _______ to protect
himself.
A. threw him under the bus B. went on to play the bad guy
C. fought tooth and nail D. turned him down
47. Choose the most appropriate option that most nearly means the same as the expression ‘whited
sepulchre’.
A. Thick as thieves B. White lie
C. A wolf in sheep’s clothing D. An odd kettle of fish
48. Choose the most appropriate option that best connects the sentence.

The guard was requested to make an exception for the VIP to keep it open. _______, the general public is
asked to leave as soon as the closing time arrives.
A. On the contrary B. Meanwhile
C. Nevertheless D. More so than ever
49. Direction: Choose the sentence which is correct grammatically.
A. The guard said he felt tired and laid down on the B. The students took the principal’s advise seriously.
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grass.
C. I had as usual begun my class with an example. D. My sister and me are the best of friends.
50. Direction: Choose the sentence which is correct grammatically.
A. He behaved very bad. B. You can spot the different if you look close.
C. He writes so neat that the teacher gave him extra D. I have never seen such hardworking students
marks. before.
51. Direction: Choose the sentence which is correct grammatically.
A. This coffee is made from the best coffee beans in
B. All of the snakes are not poisonous.
the world.
C. Walking on the road, an empty paint tin fell on her
D. She is much more taller than her brother.
head.
52. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word:

The smile is highly _____: It may denote sensory pleasure and delight, gaiety and amusement,
satisfaction, contentment, affection, seduction, relief, stress, nervousness, annoyance, anger, shame,
aggression, fear and contempt. The smile does it all.

A. contagious B. vulnerable
C. recalcitrant D. versatile
53. Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word:

I have been to literary festivals where authors are so ______ and funny that they charm the audience
within moments.

A. incongruous B. humorous
C. disdainful D. charismatic
54. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word:

Capitulate
A. Resist B. Yield
C. Surrender D. Lure
55. Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word:
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Prolific
A. Abundant B. Productive
C. Scarce D. Fecund
56. A sentence divided into three parts I, II, and III is given. Determine the part(s) that requires correction and
mark it as your answer.

It is crucial to remember that our nation is facing a (I)/ huge financial crisis, however our economical
situation (II)/is strong as stated by the Finance Minister (III).
A. Only I B. Both I and II
C. Only II D. Both I and III
57. Complete the sentence by filling in the blanks with the correct tenses from the given options.

It ______ all day yesterday before the big tree in the front yard fell.
A. rained B. had rained
C. has been raining D. was raining
58. Rearrange the sentence fragments to come up with a meaningful sentence.

P. anything else

Q. don’t you

R. have

S. to do

T. apart from complaining

A. PSQRT B. RSPQT
C. TSRPQ D. QRPST
59. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.

Plebiscite
A. referendum B. autocracy
C. absolutism D. monarchy
60. Find a word that is the synonym of:
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Gaudy
A. modest B. showy
D. sophisticated
C. refined

61. The Nagarhole National Park is in ______.

A. Arunachal Pradesh B. Karnataka
D. Goa
C. Tamil Nadu

62. Ghaggar and Banas are rivers that feed the state of __________.
A. Gujarat B. Orissa
D. Rajasthan
C. Punjab

63. Identify the terrestrial planet from among the following.

A. Uranus B. Jupiter
D. Neptune
C. Mercury

64. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The Himalayan Mountains lie to the south-east of
B. Bay of Bengal lies to the north-west of India.
India.
D. The Indian Ocean lies to the north-east of India.
C. Arabian Sea lies to the south-west of India.

65. Who among the following was a Portuguese Viceroy of India?

A. Robert Clive B. Comte de Lally
D. Francois Dupleix
C. Francisco de Almeida

66. Who introduced the doctrine of lapse?

A. Lord Ripon B. Warren Hastings
D. Lord Dalhousie
C. Lord Canning

67. Per capita income is obtained by dividing national income by?

A. Total population of the country B. Total working population
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C. Area of the country D. Volume of the capital used

68. Which of the following is the highest dam in India?

A. Tehri Dam B. Hirakud Dam
D. Pong Dam
C. Farakka Dam

69. Which state is the biggest tea producer in the country?

A. Andhra Pradesh B. Sikkim
D. West Bengal
C. Assam

70. Who benefits the most during the inflationary period?

A. Corporate servants B. Debtors
D. Government servants
C. Entrepreneurs

71. Who termed Article 32 as the ‘heart and soul of the Constitution of India’?
A. M V Pylee B. BR Ambedkar
D. Sachchidananda Sinha
C. Jawaharlal Nehru

72. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?

A. To protect the natural environment B. To abide by the Constitution
D. To uphold and protect the unity and integrity of
C. To cast vote during elections India

73. Goal is the autobiography of which famous Indian player?

A. Sunil Chetri B. Major Dhyan Chand
D. Roop Singh
C. Balbir Singh

74. Which country will host the summer Olympics in 2028?

A. UK B. US
D. Japan
C. France
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75. Where is the headquarters of the Commonwealth located?

A. Manchester B. London
D. Oxford
C. Durham

76. The 2018 FIFA World Cup was won by _______.

A. Croatia B. Brazil
D. Spain
C. France

77. Who among the following has been named the ICC Men's Player of the Month for November 2022?
A. Jos Buttler B. Mark Wood
D. Eoin Morgan
C. Alex Hales

78. Who among the following has been unanimously elected as the 18th Chief Minister of Gujarat?
A. Vijay Rupani B. Harsh Sanghavi
D. Bhupendra Patel
C. Nitinbhai Patel

79. Who among the following has been named as the 2022 Person of the Year by America's prestigious
international magazine, Time?
A. Narendra Modi B. Recep Tayyip Erdoğan
D. Joe Biden
C. Volodymyr Zelensky

80. Who among the following has become India's 77th chess Grandmaster during the Ellobregat Open
tournament held in Spain?
A. Santosh Vidit B. Swayams Mishra
D. Aditya Mittal
C. Girish A. Koushik

81. Which country will become the first country in the world to receive $100 billion in remittances during 2022?
A. China B. India
C. Russia D. USA
82. Singapore Airlines (SIA) and Tata Sons have recently announced that they have agreed to merge which of
the following two airline companies?
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A. Air India and Vistara B. AirAsia India and Air India Express
C. Vistara and AirAsia India D. Jet Airways and Vistara
83. Recently, NPCI announced the launch of the BHIM app open-source license model to regulate entities
participating in the UPI. What is the full form of NPCI?
A. National Pension Corporation of India B. National Payment Company of India
C. National Pension Company of India D. National Payments Corporation of India
84. Which of the following business conglomerates became the first Indian company to post earnings call on
Metaverse which includes elements from both the physical and virtual worlds?
A. Tata Sons B. Hinduja Group
C. Adani Enterprises D. Reliance Industries Limited
85. Which of the following is not an online travel company?
A. Make My Trip B. Goibibo
C. Agoda D. Alibaba
86. Which of the following organisations is the mutual fund market regulator?
A. IRDAI B. National Stock Exchange of India
D. SEBI
C. RBI

87. Currency swap is an instrument to manage ______.

A. Exchange of currency rates B. Interest rate and currency risk
D. Cash flows in different currency
C. Currency risk

88. Which of the following is/are known as the banker’s bank?

A. SBI B. NABARD
D. All of the above
C. RBI

89. The headquarters of BRICS bank, the New Development Bank (NDB) is located in ___.
A. Beijing, China B. Shanghai, China
D. New York, US
C. New Delhi, India

90. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulator for the securities market in India. The
headquarters of the SEBI is located in ____.
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A. Delhi B. Kolkata
D. Mumbai
C. Chennai

91. Who appoints the governor of the Reserve Bank of India?

A. President of India B. Chief Justice of India
D. Vice President of India
C. Central Government

92. Goldsikka, a jewellery manufacturer, has set up India's first gold ATM, with the technology support of Open
Cube Technologies in which city?
A. Surat B. Jaipur
D. Bangalore
C. Hyderabad

93. Which payments bank has conducted India’s first floating financial literacy Camp in Srinagar, Jammu and
Kashmir?
A. Fino Payments Bank B. ESAF Small Finance Bank
D. India Post Payments Bank (IPPB)
C. Equitas Small Finance Bank

94. Name the first Indian city that has issued Municipal Bonds to fund infrastructure projects.
A. Nagpur B. Pune
D. Ahmedabad
C. Mumbai

95. Lemon and lime-flavoured soft drink Sprite is the brand of which company that has become a billion-dollar
brand in the Indian market?
A. Pepsico B. Coca-Cola
D. Bengal Beverages Ltd
C. Starbucks Corp

96. Which company is the new promoters of Jet Airways?

A. Jalan-Kalrock Consortium B. Singer India
D. Kennametal India
C. Sharp India

97. Who is the founder of Apple Inc?

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A. Steve Jobs B. Steve Wozniak

D. All of the above
C. Ronald Wayne

98. What is money laundering?

A. Conversion of assets into cash B. Conversion of cash into gold
D. Conversion of gold into cash
C. Converting black money to white money

99. Which of the following is/are the officially valid documents for Know Your Customers (KYC)?
A. Passport B. Driving licence
D. All of the above
C. Voters’ ID card

100. Which of the following stock exchanges has received approval from the SEBI for the social stock
exchange?
A. Bombay Stock Exchange B. National Stock Exchange
D. Bangalore Stock Exchange
C. Calcutta Stock Exchange
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Solutions

1. A
Sol. ….(1)
….(2)
….(3)
Simplifying (1) and (2) will give the following:
….(4)
Simplifying (1) and (3) will give the following:
….(4)
Solving (4) and (5), we will get the following:
T = 16/7 hours and S = 45/7 kmph

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

2. B
Sol. Consider the diagram given below:
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Height of the tower = Length of AB + 5 feet

Angle BCA = 60°, angle ABC = 90°, angle BAC = 30°
Thus, the side opposite to 30° is 24 , so the side opposite to 60° will be = 72
feet.
Thus, height of the tower = 72 + 5 = 77 feet
Now, AC = side opposite to 90°, which will be = feet
Required answer = ( - 77) feet
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
3. D
Sol. Sum of ages of students in group I

Sum of ages of students in group II

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

4. B
Sol. Let s, p, and d be the cost of a samosa, pastry, and soft drink, respectively.

….(1)
….(2)
Multiplying (1) with 3, (2) with 2, and subtracting them will give the following:

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

5. D
Sol. Number of bugs that were reported in June but not fixed in June = 1250 - 750 = 500
These 500 bugs will be fixed in July 2022.
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So, the number of bugs that were reported in July and also fixed in July = 1050 - 500 = 550
Number of bugs that were reported in July and not fixed in July = 900 - 550 = 350
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
6. A
Sol.
Required answer = = 970
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
7. C
Sol. Total number of bugs reported in the five given months = 1250 + 900 + 750 + 960 + 1050 =
4910
Total number of bugs fixed in the five given months = 750 + 1050 + 800 + 720 + 1100 = 4420
Number of bugs that were not fixed = 4910 - 4420 = 490

Required answer =
Hence, option C is the correct answer.

8. B
Sol. Out of 18 members, are men and are women.

Total ways

Case I: Team consists of 8 men and 4 women

Number of ways

Case II: Team consists of 9 men and 3 women

Number of ways

Case III: Team consists of 10 men and 2 women

Number of ways

Case IV: Team consists of 11 men and 1 woman

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Number of ways

Case V: Team consists of 12 men and no woman

Number of ways

Probability

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

9. B
Sol.
Volume of the liquid

Volume of the hemisphere

Total surface area cubic cm

Hence, option B is the correct answer.
10. D
Sol.
The profit must be divided in the ratio
As the share of both of them is the same, the share of Amar is also Rs. 4500.
We cannot find the investment of each person.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
11. B
Sol. According to the question,

12544 - 10000 =
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2544 =
x = 10600
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
12. C
Sol. ……(1)
…..(2)
(2) - (1) will give the following:

The required product

Hence, option C is the correct answer.
13. C
Sol. Number of candidates who appeared for the GAT exam = 0.3x
Number of candidates who appeared for the LIFT exam = 20% of 0.7x = 0.14x
Number of candidates who appeared for the SIMAT exam = 25% of (x - 0.3x - 0.14x) = 0.14x
Number of candidates who appeared for the CNAP exam = x - 0.3x - 0.14x - 0.14x = 0.42x
According to the question,
0.42x - 0.3x = 12600
0.12x = 12600
x = 105000
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
14. A
Sol. Let the total work be the LCM of 25 and 35, which is equal to 175 units.
The work done by A, B, and C in one day is 7 units.
The work done by B and C in one day is 5 units.
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The work done by A in one day is 2 units.

So, the work done by B in one day is 1 unit.

The number of days taken by A and B to complete the work is 175/3 =

Hence, option A is the correct answer.
15. B
Sol.

Hence, option B is the correct answer.

16. A
Sol.
Power of 2 can be selected in 2 ways.
Power of 3 can be selected in 2 ways.
Power of 5 can be selected in 2 ways.
Power of 17 can be selected in 1 way.
Total number of perfect cube factors is
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
17. D
Sol.
=
Let A = 4k, B = 7k

Now, =
6A = 4B - 16
24k = 28k - 16
4k = 16
k=4
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Required answer = A + 2B = 4k + 14k = 18k = 72

Hence, option D is the correct answer.
18. C
Sol. Let the number of red, blue, and black pens be a, b, and c, respectively.
So, b = a + 5 and c = a + 7
Also, a + b + c = 30
a + a + 5 + a + 7 = 30
3a = 18
a=6
So, the number of red, blue, and black pens in the bag is 6, 11, and 13, respectively.

Required probability = = =
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
19. A
Sol. The data given in the line graph can be represented in a table as shown below.

Required answer = = 83.8% 84%

Hence, option A is the correct answer.
20. D
Sol. The data given in the line graph can be represented in a table as shown below.
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Required ratio = (15000 + 9600 + 16000) : (32000 + 50000 + 52500)

= 40600 : 134500 = 406 : 1345
Hence, option D is the correct answer.

21. C
Sol.

East will become north-west.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

22. D
Sol.

Army: A group of frogs

Tower: A group of giraffes

Band: A group of gorillas

Hence, option D is the odd one out.

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23. B
Sol.

K is the sister-in-law of Q, who has no siblings.

R is Q's father-in-law, the father of P.

N is the mother-in-law of M.
L is P's grandmother but not R's wife.
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O is the mother of N, who has only one son.

By combining all the statements, we get:

Therefore, N is the mother of P.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

24. C
Sol. 1) Three girls are sitting between B and C.

2) Two girls are sitting between C and E.

3) G is sitting between A and E, and they all are sitting on consecutive seats.

4) One girl is sitting between F and A.

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Case 1:

Case 2:

5) D is sitting to the immediate right of F.

(Here, case 1 will get eliminated.)

‘E’ is seated at the second position from the left end.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

25. D
Sol. Ankush’s movements are shown in the fig. (A to B, B to C, C to D)
AC = AB – BC = 20 km – 15 km = 5 km
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Ankush’s distance from starting point A is:

AD =

AD =

AD = = 13 km

Clearly, point D is to the north-east of point A.

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

26. B
Sol. The meaning of the difficult words given in the answer options are as follws:
Parquetry: a patterned inlay used to cover floor
Hay: grass mowed and cured for use as a fodder
Statuary: relating to a suitable statues
Effigy: representation of a person in form of a sculpture
Trench: cut or carve deeply into
Fresco is a mural done with water colours on wet plaster. So, a fresco is done or painted on
the wall. A similar relationship is shown by option B. Parquetry is used to cover the floor. The
rest of the options can be eliminated.

27. A
Sol.

Cardiovascular diseases refer to the group of disorders that is related to the condition of the
heart. Now, since people have been under stress during the pandemic, they are more likely to
suffer from cardiovascular diseases. Hence, option A is the right answer.

28. D
Sol.
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As per the given information;

The gender of Prakash is not known. Thus, Prakash is either the maternal grandfather or the
maternal grandmother of Sonakshi. Thus, it cannot be determined.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.

29. B
Sol.

Here, both the statements can be considered to be true, but there is no correlation between
the two statements. Hence, we can’t establish a relationship between the two, and hence
option B is the right answer.

30. D
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Sol.

The statement mentions the severe drought-like situation in Afghanistan and the resultant food
crisis.

I is a restatement of the first line of the passage and, hence, not an assumption.

II: We cannot say that poor water management is the reason for the water crisis since the
passage states that the country is facing severe drought.

Hence, neither of the assumptions are implicit.

31. B
Sol.
Each letter is moved three places forward in the English alphabet. Hence, OMBRE is coded as RPEUH.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.

32. D
Sol. Total number of people = 700

Number of people who like video games = 400

Number of people who like chess = 350

Let us assume that x people like both video games and chess.

Number of people who like only video games = 400 – x

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Number of people who like only chess= 300 – x

400 – x + x + 350 – x =700

So, x = 50

Number of people who like only video games = 400 – 50 = 350

Hence, option D is the correct answer.

33. A
Sol.
9 1-1=8
8 2 - 3 = 13
7 3 - 5 = 16
6 4 - 7 = 17
5 5 - 9 = 16
4 6 - 11 = 13
Hence, option A is the correct answer.

34. A
Sol.
The number of letters in the terms of the given series increases by one at each step.
The first letter of each term is two steps ahead of the last letter of the preceding term.
However, each term consists of consecutive letters in order.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.

35. A
Sol.
The logic here is that perfect cubes are alternatingly subtracted or added in the terms to get
the next term.
255 – = 130
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130 + = 194
194 – = 167
167 + = 175
175 – = 174
Hence, option A is the correct answer.

36. C
Sol.
A sits second to the left of B, who is at the immediate left of G.
Three people sit between G and F.

Two people sit between H and E, none of whom is a neighbour of G.

H is not a neighbour of A. C is not adjacent to G.

Therefore, this is the final arrangement.

D sits opposite A.
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Hence, option C is the correct answer.

37. A
Sol.
13 + 9 = 22
22 + 18 = 40
40 + 36 = 76
76 + 72 = 148
148 + 144 = 292
292 + 288 = 580
Hence, option A is the correct answer.

38. B
Sol.
Two different patterns are followed here.
(1) The middle digit has become the power to the next term.
(2) The second number is constructed by the first and last digit of the first number in the same order.
Hence, the required answer is 163
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

39. A
Sol.
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Thus, F is in the south-east direction w.r.t E and is far from E.

Hence, option A is the correct answer.

40. A
Sol.
A≥X=C>D>F>V=B≤G≤H
Conclusion:
I. V < A → follows because A ≥ X = C > D > F > V
II. G ≤ D → doesn’t follow because D > F > V = B ≤ G
Thus, only I follow.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.

41. B
Sol. Passage summary: The article in hand talks about the need to provide booster doses to the adult
population of the country in the wake of the economy opening up and the threat of COVID-19 surge being
present elsewhere across the world.

Number of words: 299

Genre: COVID-19 vaccination

Type of question: Opinion-based question

Refer to the following line:

‘Economic and health setbacks of a virus rebound would, in contrast, hit GDP harder.’

It is clear that the author is talking about the need to take booster doses seriously and ramp up its
purchase and the inoculation process. Hence, option B is the right answer.

Option A is incorrect because the context of the passage is not about the growing threat of the pandemic.
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Option C is incorrect because masking is not the main concern of the author of the passage.

Option D is incorrect because it is a vaguely directed statement that has nothing to do with the context of
the passage.
42. C
Sol. Passage summary: The article in hand talks about the need to provide booster doses to the adult
population of the country in the wake of the economy opening up and the threat of COVID-19 surge being
present elsewhere across the world.

Number of words: 299

Genre: COVID-19 vaccination

Type of question: Specific idea-based question

Refer to the following lines:

‘Vellore study on Covaxin-Covishield cleared last September, phase-3 trials on boosting with Biological E’s
Corbevax and Bharat Biotech’s intranasal vaccine went ahead only by January, and with Covovax in
March. The Vellore study should enable Covaxin recipients to get a Covishield booster. Meanwhile, UK
studies on using Covovax to boost Covishield recipients are available.’

The aforementioned lines talk about the growing kinds of doses; since there are a wide variety of such
doses, the author is talking about the need to have a mixed bunch of these vaccines so that people get to
vaccinate themselves with the third dose as soon as possible. Hence, option C is the right answer. The
rest of the options are out of the context of the passage and, hence, are rejected.
43. C
Sol. Passage summary: The article in hand talks about the need to provide booster doses to the adult
population of the country in the wake of the economy opening up and the threat of COVID-19 surge being
present elsewhere across the world.

Number of words: 299

Genre: COVID-19 vaccination

Type of question: Opinion-based question

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This is a fairly straightforward question, the answer to which lies in the context explicitly. Refer to the
following lines for the same:

‘GoI’s expenditure on double-dosing 75% of the adult population till mid-February was just 1% of last
year’s budgeted expenditure. Now a single-shot booster in a more competitive vaccine market having
cheaper jabs will allow GoI to make bulk purchases at even lower prices, perhaps requiring not even 0.5%
of this year’s budgetary outlay.’

Clearly, option C is the right choice. Statement II is rejected because it is the author’s estimation that the
booster dose should cost not more than 0.5% of the GDP. It is not a fact and, hence, it can’t be true.
44. D
Sol. Passage summary: The article in hand talks about the need to provide booster doses to the adult
population of the country in the wake of the economy opening up and the threat of COVID-19 surge being
present elsewhere across the world.

Number of words: 299

Genre: COVID-19 vaccination

Type of question: Indirect/Inferential question

Here, most of the students will find it hard to choose between B and D. But the only reason B is rejected is
because it is not the main argument that the author is trying to put forth. It is simply a statement that the
author has used to drive home his/her main point, which is option D in this case. Option B is something
that has been stated as an argument put forth by the scientific community (not by the author) to
emphasise the need of booster doses. Hence, option D is the right answer.
45. B
Sol.

The given idiom refers to an act of looking for something that is difficult and almost impossible
to find. Hence, option B is the right answer here.

46. A
Sol.
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The idiomatic expression ‘threw someone under the bus’ refers to an act of abandoning
someone, usually for selfish reasons. Hence, option A is the right answer.

47. C
Sol.

A ‘whited sepulchre’ is an evil person who pretends to be holy or good. It's closest in meaning
to the expression ‘a wolf in sheep’s clothing’, which means an enemy disguised as a friend or
someone who pretends to be good but is actually hostile.

48. A
Sol.

Here, the context is that of two contrasting situations. On one hand, we have the VIP who is
granted access by the guard and on the other hand, the general public is getting asked to
leave as soon as the closing time arrives. Hence, we need a phrase that expresses the
contrasting elements. Hence, option A is the right answer.

49. C
Sol.

A: ‘lay down on the grass’ is the correct answer.

B: ‘advice’ should be used instead of advise.

C: This is correct.

D: The correct expression is ‘my sister and I’.

50. D
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Sol. A: The correct expression is ‘he behaved very badly’.

B: The correct expression is ‘you can spot the difference if you look closely’.

C: The correct expression is ‘he writes so neatly that the teacher gave him extra marks’.

D: This is correct.
51. A
Sol. B: The correct expression is ‘all snakes are not poisonous’.

C: This has a modifier error; the correct expression is ‘When she was walking on the road, an empty paint
tin fell on her head’.

D: The correct expression is ‘she is taller than her brother’ or she is much taller than her brother.
52. D
Sol. Since the sentence mentions how many things can be denoted by a smile, the word that fits is
versatile which means multifaceted.
The meaning of the other words are:
Contagious: (of a disease) spread from one person or organism to another, typically by direct
contact
Vulnerable: exposed to the possibility of being attacked or harmed, either physically or
emotionally
Recalcitrant: having an obstinately uncooperative attitude towards authority or discipline

53. D
Sol. Charismatic, which means charming or magnetic, is the only word that fits here since the
sentence talks of ‘charming the audience in moments’.
The meaning of the other words are:
Incongruous: not in harmony or keeping with the surroundings or other aspects of something
Humorous: causing laughter and amusement; comic
Disdainful: showing contempt or lack of respect
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54. A
Sol.
Capitulate means to surrender. So, its opposite is to resist.

The meaning of the other words are:

Yield: produce or provide (a natural, agricultural, or industrial product)

Surrender: stop resisting an enemy or opponent and submit to their authority

Lure: tempt (a person or animal) to do something or to go somewhere, especially by offering

some form of reward

55. C
Sol. Prolific means abundant or productive; its opposite is scarce.
The meaning of the other words are:
Abundant: existing or available in large quantities; plentiful
Productive: producing or able to produce large amounts of goods, crops, or other commodities
Fecund: producing or capable of producing an abundance of offspring or new growth; highly
fertile

56. C
Sol.

II part is wrong here. The sentence is stating about the ‘economic’ situation of our country,
whereas ‘economical’ means cheap or inexpensive. Hence, option C is the right answer
choice.

57. B
Sol.
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The sentence indicates that the rain happened before the tree fell. Hence, we have to use the
past perfect tense for the earlier action, that is, the rain. Hence, option B is the correct answer.

58. D
Sol.
From the context, we can clearly figure out that the given sentence is an interrogative one. So,
in an interrogative sentence, verbs come before the main subject. Hence, the opening
fragment should be ‘Q’, and hence option D is the right answer here.

In this case, the opening fragment can be ‘T’ as well, but we don’t have a correct sentence
structure for this. Hence, option D is the right answer here.

59. A
Sol.
Plebiscite means referendum.
Referendum means a general vote by the electorate on a single political question that has
been referred to them for a direct decision.
Autocracy means cruel and oppressive government or rule.
Absolutism means tyranny.
Monarchy means a form of government with a monarch at the head.
Hence, referendum is the correct answer.

60. B
Sol. The meanings of the words are:
Gaudy: extravagantly bright or showy, typically so as to be tasteless
Modest: unassuming in the estimation of one's abilities or achievements
Showy: having a striking appearance or style, typically by being excessively bright, colourful,
or ostentatious
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Refined: pure
Sophisticated: having, revealing, or involving a great deal of worldly experience and
knowledge of fashion and culture
Hence, option B is the correct answer.

61. B
Sol. Nagarhole National Park, also known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park, is a wildlife reserve in the south
Indian state of Karnataka. Nagarhole, a combination of two Kannada words, nagara meaning cobra and
hole meaning river, justifies its name completely as several streams flow through the rich tropical forest of
this national park. The park was established as a wildlife sanctuary in 1955 and was upgraded to a
national park in 1988. The park was declared as the 37th tiger reserve in 1999.
62. D
Sol. Ghaggar and Banas are rivers that feed the state of Rajasthan.

• Ghaggar is an intermittent river in India flowing during the monsoon rains.

• It originates in the village of Dagshai in the Shivalik Hills of Himachal Pradesh at an elevation
of 1,927 meters (6,322 ft) above mean sea level and flows through Punjab and Haryana into
Rajasthan.
• Banas is a river that lies entirely within the state of Rajasthan in western India.
• It is a tributary of the Chambal river, that is itself a tributary of the Yamuna. Banas merges
into the Ganges.
• It flows northeast through the Mewar region of Rajasthan, then across Hadavati before
meeting the Chambal near the village of Rameshwar in Sawai Madhopur district.

63. C
Sol. Our solar system consists of eight planets.

● Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars are called the inner planets.
● They lie between the Sun and the belt of asteroids. The other four planets are called the
outer planets.
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● The first four are called terrestrial planets, meaning earth-like as they are made up of rocks
and metals and have relatively high densities.
● The rest four are called Jovian or gas giant planets.
● Jovian means Jupiter-like.

64. C
Sol. Here, statement C is true. The Arabian Sea lies to the south-west of India.

• The Himalayan Mountains lie to the north of India.

• Bay of Bengal lies to the south-east of India.
• The Indian Ocean lies to the south of India.

65. C
Sol. In 1503 AD, Francisco de Almeida was appointed as the first Portuguese Viceroy of India.

• He was known to introduce the blue water policy in India and erected many fortresses at
Cochin, Cannore, Kilwas, and Anjadiva.
• He introduced the blue water policy, which aims at becoming powerful at waters, i.e., sea
rather than building forts on land.
• Portuguese were the first Europeans to come to India when a direct sea route to India was
discovered by Vasco da Gama in 1498.

66. D
Sol. The doctrine of lapse, formulated by Lord Dalhousie, Governor-General of India (1848–56), dealt with
questions of succession in Hindu Indian states.

● According to this policy, if the king did not have any natural-born heir, then the kingdom
would lapse to the British or would be administered and occupied by the British.
● Indian states such as Satara, Nagpur, and Jhansi were annexed under this policy.
● Lord Ripon was the Viceroy of India from 1880–84. He was best known for introducing the
IIbert Bill, cancelling the Vernacular Press Act of 1878, and implementing the first Factory Act
in 1881.
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● Warren Hastings was the first Governor of the Presidency of Fort Williams and the first
Governor-General of Bengal. Warren Hastings played an important role in the abolition of the
dual system.
● Lord Canning was the first Viceroy of India when power was transferred from the East India
Company to the British Crown following the end of the revolt of 1857.

67. A
Sol. Per capita income is also known as income per person. It is the mean income of the people in an
economic unit such as a country or city. It is calculated by taking a measure of all sources of income in the
aggregate (such as GDP or gross national income) and dividing it by the total population.
68. A
Sol. The Tehri Dam of Uttarakhand is the highest dam in India, the second highest in Asia and the eighth
highest in the world.

● It is on the Bhagirathi river near Tehri Garhwal in Uttarakhand.

● Hirakud Dam is the longest dam in India.

69. C
Sol. Assam is the largest producer of tea and accounts for more than 52% of the tea produced in India. It is
one of the largest tea-producing regions in the world. The main districts producing tea in Assam are:
● Lakhimpur
● Kamrup
● Sivasagar
● Goalpara
● Cachar
● Derrang
● Nagaon

70. B
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Sol. Inflation is defined as a sustained increase in the general level of prices for goods and services. It is
measured as an annual percentage increase. As inflation rises, every dollar you own buys a smaller
percentage of a good or service. The value of a dollar does not stay constant when there is inflation. At
the time of inflation, borrowers repay expensive dollars with cheap dollars. Hence, they benefit the most
during inflation.
71. B
Sol. Dr BR Ambedkar had termed Article 32 as the ‘heart and soul of the Constitution of India’.

Article 32:

● This article provides the right to constitutional remedies, which means that a person has the
right to move to the Supreme Court and high courts directly to protect their fundamental rights.
● Thus, the Supreme Court has the power to issue writs under article 32, whereas, the high
courts have been given the same powers under article 226.

72. C
Sol. The list of duties does not cover other important duties like casting vote, paying taxes, family planning,
and so on. In fact, the duty to pay taxes was recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee.

Fundamental Duties:

● These are dealt with in Article 51A under Part-IV A of the Indian Constitution.
● There are a total of 11 Fundamental Duties.
● The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added ten Fundamental Duties.
● The 86th Amendment Act 2002 later added the eleventh Fundamental Duty to the list.
● Swaran Singh Committee in 1976 has recommended Fundamental Duties.

73. B
Sol. Goal is the autobiography of Major Dhyan Chand.

● Major Dhyan Chand was an Indian field hockey player, widely regarded as one of the
greatest field hockey players in history.
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● He was known for his extraordinary ball control and goal-scoring feats, in addition to winning
three Olympic gold medals, in 1928, 1932, and 1936, during an era where India dominated
field hockey.
● His influence extended beyond these victories, as India won the field hockey event in seven
out of eight Olympics from 1928 to 1964.

74. B
Sol. The Summer Olympic Games will be held in the United States of America in 2028. The 2028 Summer
Olympics, formally known as the Games of the XXXIV Olympiad and abbreviated as LA28, is an upcoming
international multi-sport tournament set to take place in Los Angeles, California, USA, from July 21 to
August 6, 2028. It will be the first summer Olympics in the United States since the 1996 Summer Olympics
in Atlanta, Georgia, and the first-ever Olympics in the United States since the Salt Lake City Winter
Olympics in 2002.
75. B
Sol. Marlborough House, a Grade I listed mansion in St James's, City of Westminster, London, is the
headquarters of the Commonwealth of Nations and the seat of the Commonwealth Secretariat.
76. C
Sol. The 2018 FIFA World Cup was won by France after defeating Croatia in the final.

● The match was played by France and Croatia and held at the Luzhniki Stadium in Moscow,
Russia.
● It was twenty-first FIFA World Cup and it took place in Russia from 14 June to 15 July 2018.

77. A
Sol. England captain, Jos Buttler, has been named ICC Men's Player of the Month for November 2022.

● Reason: For his remarkable performance in the T20 World Cup in Australia
● While, Pakistan's opening batter, Sidra Ameen has become the second successive winner of
the women's Player of the Month award from Pakistan.
● Reason: For posting mammoth scores in the recent successful ODI series against Ireland on
home soil
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78. D
Sol. Bhupendra Patel has been unanimously elected as the Chief Minister of Gujarat for the second
consecutive term on 12 December 2022.

● He was administered as the 18th Chief Minister of the state by Governor Acharya Devvrat in
Gandhinagar.
● The BJP has created history in Gujarat with a landslide victory in the 2022 election and it is
their seventh consecutive win.
● The BJP has bagged 156 seats in the 182-member assembly, its highest-ever poll tally in the
state.

79. C
Sol. Volodymyr Zelensky (Ukraine President) has been named as the 2022 Person of the Year by Time
Magazine.

● Reason: He has put up a feisty resistance against the Russian invasion (2022)
● Since the invasion of Russia (February 24), Zelenskyy has delivered daily speeches that are
followed by Ukrainians and governments around the globe.
● Zelenskyy has shared the 2022 title with ‘the spirit of Ukraine’.
● Time Magazine presented its first Person of the Year award in 1927.

80. D
Sol. Aditya Mittal (16, Mumbai) has become the 77th chess Grandmaster of India, during the Ellobregat Open
tournament in Spain.

● He had secured three GM norms and crossed the live rating of 2,500 ELO points mark
during the sixth round of the ongoing tournament.
● He drew the game against Francisco Vallejo Pons to achieve the feat.
● He won his maiden GM norm at Serbia Masters 2021.
● Subsequently, he obtained his second GM norm at Ellobregat Open 2021 and third at Serbia
Masters 2022.
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81. B
Sol. India is all set to become the first country in the world to receive $100 billion in remittances this year from
migrant workers abroad, according to a report by the World Bank. Notably, India had received $89.4 billion
in remittances in 2021, according to the World Bank report, which then made India the top recipient
globally.
82. A
Sol. Singapore Airlines (SIA) and Tata Sons announced that they have agreed to merge Air India and Vistara,
with SIA getting a 25.1% stake in the merged entity at an investment of Rs. 2,058.5 crore ($250 million) in
Air India as part of the transaction.
83. D
Sol. The National Payments Corporation of India is formed under the provisions of the Payment and
Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for creating a robust payment and settlement infrastructure in India. NPCI
is an umbrella organisation to operate retail payments and settlement systems in India. It is also registered
under the provisions of Section 25 of Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of Companies Act 2013). The
ten core promoter banks are State Bank of India, Punjab National Bank, Canara Bank, Bank of Baroda,
Union Bank of India, Bank of India, ICICI Bank, HDFC Bank, Citibank N. A., and HSBC. Biswamohan
Mahapatra is the current Non-Executive Chairman and Dilip Asbe is the current MD and CEO of NPCI.
84. D
Sol. Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) posted the proceedings of its Q2 FY 2022–23 earnings call on the
Metaverse late on 21 October 2022. This is the first time in the history of corporate India that a company
has used Metaverse to engage with its stakeholders. The RIL Metaverse was produced in partnership with
GMetri, a no-code Metaverse creation platform. One does not need to wear an AR/VR headgear to access
it.
85. D
Sol. Alibaba Group Holding Limited, also known as Alibaba, is a Chinese multinational technology company
specializing in e-commerce, retail, Internet, and technology. Make My Trip, Goibibo, and Agoda all are
online travel companies in India.
86. D
Sol. All Asset Management Companies (AMCs) are regulated by SEBI and/or the RBI (in case the AMC is
promoted by a bank). In addition, every mutual fund has a board of directors that represents the unit
holder’s interests in the mutual fund.
87. D
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Sol. A currency swap (or a cross currency swap) is a foreign exchange derivative between two institutions to
exchange the principal and/or interest payments of a loan in one currency for equivalent amounts, in net
present value terms, in another currency.
88. C
Sol. The Reserve Bank of India plays multiple roles in the financial services sector of our country. Some of
these roles are hidden from the public purview. A few of these roles are:

RBI as the banker to banks: As we all know that the banks are required to maintain Cash
Reserve Ratio (CRR) on the deposits which they take from the public. These deposits fall in
the category of liabilities in the balance sheet of the banks. Banks are liable to pay back this
money to the depositor, hence, this is classified as liability. These deposits could either be as
current accounts and savings accounts (CASA) or as fixed deposits and recurring deposits.
The former are demand liabilities and the latter are known as time liabilities. Currently, the
CRR on demand and time liabilities is at 4% of all such liabilities of any given bank. Suppose a
bank has Rs. 40 crore of demand liabilities and Rs. 60 crore of time liabilities (Rs. 100 crore in
total), then it will have to deposit Rs. 4 crore in the form of hard cash with the RBI. To ensure
that cash does not have to travel to the RBI each time, banks are empowered with currency
chests in their own premises. The needed cash deposited in the chests becomes property of
the RBI with the MIS flowing to them.

89. B
Sol. The New Development Bank (NDB) is headquartered in Shanghai, China.
It was formerly referred to as the BRICS Development Bank. It is a multilateral development bank
operated by the BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa) as an alternative to the
existing American and European-dominated World Bank and International Monetary Fund.
90. D
Sol. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulator for the securities market in India.

● It was established in the year 1988 and given statutory powers on 30 January 1992 through
the SEBI Act, 1992.
● It is headquartered at the Bandra Kurla Complex in Mumbai, India.
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● Ajay Tyagi is the present Chairman of SEBI.

91. C
Sol. The RBI governor is appointed by the Central Government on the recommendation of the Union Finance
Minister as per Section 8(1)(a) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
92. C
Sol. India’s first Gold ATM and the world's first real-time gold ATM has been launched at Begumpet,
Hyderabad.

● The ATM was set up by Goldsikka in collaboration with OpenCube Technologies (technology
support).
● In this ATM, people can insert their debit or credit cards and buy gold coins.
● The ATM has a capacity of storing 5 kgs of gold.
● There are eight available options for the quantity of gold starting from 0.5 grams to 100
grams.

93. D
Sol. India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) has conducted the first floating financial literacy camp of India in
Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir.

● Aim: To promote financial literacy ‘by women and for women’

● It was launched with an initiative called Niveshak Didi.
● This concept has been initiated for rural women who may be more at ease discussing their
financial issues with women.

94. B
Sol. Vadodara in Gujarat has become the second city in India to issue Municipal Bonds to fund infrastructure
projects.

● The first city was Pune which issued the bonds in 2017.
● These bonds will be issued with the help of the US Department of Treasury.
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95. B
Sol. Coca-Cola, a global soft drinks company, announced that its lemon and lime-flavored soft drink Sprite has
become a billion-dollar brand in the Indian market. The company has recorded a strong volume growth in
the Indian market in the third quarter of 2022. Their trademark Coke delivered strong growth through
effective execution and occasion-based marketing. Coke has done 2.5 billion transactions in India at
affordable price points through the expansion of returnable glass bottles and single-serve pet packages.
96. A
Sol. The Kalrock-Jalan Consortium is the new promoter of Jet Airways.

● The consortium is reportedly planning to infuse about $200 million through equity and debt in
Jet Airways over the next six months.
● Veteran aviation executive Sanjiv Kapoor, who helped steer SpiceJet Ltd through a turbulent
period, has been appointed the chief executive officer (CEO) of Jet Airways (India) Ltd.

97. D
Sol. Apple was founded as Apple Computer Company on April 1 1976 by Steve Jobs, Steve Wozniak, and
Ronald Wayne to develop and sell Wozniak's Apple I personal computer. It was incorporated by Jobs and
Wozniak as Apple Computer Inc in 1977 and the company's next computer, the Apple II, became a best
seller and one of the first mass-produced microcomputers. Apple went public in 1980 to instant financial
success. The company developed computers featuring innovative graphical user interfaces, including the
1984 original Macintosh.
98. C
Sol. Money laundering is the generic term used to describe the process by which criminals disguise the
original ownership and control of the proceeds of criminal conduct by making it seem like they have been
derived from a legitimate source.
99. D
Sol. KYC stands for Know Your Customer.

● It is a process by which banks obtain information about the identity and address of the
customers.
● This process helps to ensure that the bank’s services are not misused.
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● The KYC procedure is to be completed by the banks while opening accounts and they also
must periodically update the same.
● Officially valid documents (OVDs) for KYC purposes include: Passport, driving licence,
voters’ ID card, PAN card, Aadhaar letter issued by UIDAI and Job Card issued by NREGA
signed by a State Government official.

100. A
Sol. In October 2022, SEBI granted its in-principle approval to BSE for introducing a social stock exchange as
a separate segment. Social stock exchange will enable the listing of non-profit organisations and for-profit
social enterprises that are engaged in 15 broad eligible social activities approved by the market regulator.
These social entities can raise funds through equity, issue of zero-coupons zero-principal bonds, MF,
social impact funds, and development impact bonds.