MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS NOTES

RAJASTHAN JUDICIAL SERVICE

Preliminary Exam 2019
1. Under the provision of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, a landlord has a
right to inspect the premises let out by him. Which of the following statement
with reference to the Inspection Is incorrect?
(a) The inspection of at least three days time only.
(b) A prior intimation of at least three days to the tenant is necessary.
(c) Such inspection can be carried out not more than once in three months.
(d) None of the above.
2. A suit alleging "public nuisance' can be instituted by:
(1) Advocate General of the State.
(2) By two or more persons, who have suffered the damage.
(3) By two or more persons, with the leave of the Court, even though no special
damage has been caused to them.
(4) A member of the local body.
(a) (A) & (B)
(b) (A) & (C)
(c) (B) & (D)
(d) (C) & (D)
3. Ashok lets a house to Bharat for five years Bharat underlets the house to
Kishore at a monthly rent of Rs. 2,000/ , The five years expire, but Kishore
continues in possession of the house and pays the rent to Ashok. What is the
status of Kishore?
(a) Tenant holding over.
(b) Trespasser.
(c) Possession is unauthorised
(d) None of the above.
4. The executive power of the State is vested in:
(a) Chief Secretary of the State
(b) Chief Minister of the State
(c) Chief Executive Officer.
(d) The Governor of the State
5. Decree for payment of money passsed against a woman cannot be executed.

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS NOTES

(a) by proceeding against her legal representatives. if she dies.

(b) by attachment and sale of her property.
(c) by appointing a receiver.
(d) by her arrest and detention in prison.
6. “Where a piaintiff omits to sue in respect of, or intentionally relinquishes
any portion of his claim, he shall not afterward sue in respect of the portion so
omitted or relinquished". The genesis of this principle lies in:
(a) Section 115 of the Indian Evidence Aet. 1872
(b) Section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
(c) Order II Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(d) Order I Rule 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure. 1908
7. On rejection of plaint under provisions of Order VII Rule 11 of Civil
Procedure. 1908. presenting of a fresh plaint in respect of the same cause of
action, is:
(a) Barred by principles of Res judicata.
(b) On its own force. does not preclude the
(c) plaintiff from presenting a fresh plaint. Barred under Order XXIII.
(d) None of the above.
8. "Rule of Heydon's case' is also known as:
(a) Purposive construction.
(b) Cause omissue.
(c)Literal construction.
(d) Harmonious construction.
9. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 apples to.
(a) Proceedings before an arbitrator.
(b) Departmental proceedings.
(c) Judicial proceeding before courts.
(d) None of the above.
10.Who amongst the following cannot be appointed as Advocate General:
(a) An advocate of 66 years of age.
(b) An advocate who not practiced in such State.
(c) An advocate having 07 years of practice at Bar.
(d) All of the above.

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS NOTES

11. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) An agreement made without consideration is void irrespective of the
circumstances.
(b) Every agreement in restraint of marriage of any person, other than minor, is void.
(c) Every agreement by which anyone is restrained from exercising a lawful
profession, trade or business of any kind, is to that extent void.
(d) Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain or capable of being made certain,
are void.
12.For the purpose of Limitation Act, 1963, a suit in the case of pauper, is
institued:
(a) When the plaint is presented to the proper office.
(b) When application for leave to sue as a pauper is made.
(c) When the application seeking leave to sue a pauper is granted.
(d) None of the above.
13.Which of the following contracts can be enforced?
(a) A contract for the non-performance of which compensation is an adequate relief.
(b) A contract which is in its nature determinable.
(c) A contract the performance where of involves the performance of a continuous
duty.
(d) Purchase of a share of partner in a firm.
Ans. (Deleted)
14 Section 43 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, Which deals with transfer
by unauthorised person who subsequently acquires interest in immovable
property transferred, underlines doctrine of:
(a) Actionable claims.
(b) Estoppel by deed.
(c) Estoppel by election.
(d) Right to pre-emption.
15. Which provision in Code of Civil procedure, 1908 bars entertainment of
application to review an order made on an application for a review of a decree
or order passed or made on a review:
(a) Section 11
(b) Section 10
(c) Order XLVII Rule 9
(d) Order IX Rule 9

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS NOTES

16. Which provision of Rajasthan Rent Control Act. 2001 deals with permission
to enter Into the limited period tenancy and for grant of certificate for recovery
of possession?
(a) Section 6
(6) Section 7
(c) Section 8
(d) Section 9
17.What is the remedy available to an aggrieved part against a final order
passed By the Rent Tribunal constituted under the Rajasthan Rent Control Act
2001?
(a) Writ petition under Article 226/227 of the Constitution of India.
(b) Appeal to High Court under Section 96 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
(c) Appeal under Section 19(6) of the Rajasthan Rent Control Act. 2001.
(d) No remedy, order is final.
18."A' and "B' contract that "A' shall build a house for "B' at a fixed price. The
order in which reciprocal promises are to be performed was not fixed. What
shall be the order of performance?
(a) A's promise to build the house must be performed before B's promise to pay for
the house.
(b) B's promise to pay for the house must be performed before A's promise to build
the house.
(c) A & B should perform their promise simultancously.
(d) None of the above.
19. The Rule of construction "Noscitur a sociis' means:
(a) The meaning of a word is to be judged by the company it keeps.
(b) To reconcile incompatibility between the specific and general words.
(c) No word in a statute is superfluous.
(d) None of the above.
20. Which of the Act & Regulations cannot be declered unconstitutional by High
Courts and Supreme Court?
(a) Acts & Regulations conscerning persons from Scheduled Castes & Scheduled
Tribes.
(b) Acts & Regulations concerning Parliament & its members.
(c) Acts & Regulations enlisted in Schedule VIl of the Constitution.
(d) Acts & Regulations enlisted in Schedule IX of the Constitution.

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21.Special provisions as to evidence celating to electronic record were inserted

in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(a) In the form of Section 65-B w.e.f. 17.10.2000
(b) In the form of Section 68-B w.e.f. 17.10.2000
(e) In the form of Section 65-B w.e.f.12.08.2002
(d) In the form of Section 68-B w.e.f.12.08.2002
22.A mutual mistake of the parties in an instrument. which does not express
their real intention, can be got rectified by either party to the instrument:
(a) By instituting a suit under Registration Act. 1908
(b) By fling an application under Section 151 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(c) By instituting a suit under Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act. 1963
(d) Cannot be rectified.
23.Power to amend the issue or frame additional issues prior to passing of a
decree vests in a Court by virtue of which provision of the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908?
(a) Order XIV Rule 1
(b) Order XIV Rule 5
(c) Order XIV Rule 6
(d) Section 151
24. A judge of a high court may be writing lander his hand. resign his office. TO
whom such resignation should be addressed?
(a) Chife Justice of the High Court.
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Governor of the State
(d) President of India.
25. In case of repugnancy between the law made by the parliament and law
made by the State legislature, with respect to any matter enumerated in
concurrent
(a) by virtue of Article 246 of Constitution of India, law made by the Parliament shall
prevail.
(b) by virtue of Article 246 of Constitution of India. law made by State Parliament
shall prevail.
(c) by virtue of Article 254 of Constitution of India. law made by Parliament shall
prevail.
(d) By virtue of Article 254 of Constitution of India, law made by State Legislature
shall prevail.

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS NOTES

26.Which prevision of the Constitution of India aboilshed "Untouchability' and

forbids its practice in any form?
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 17
27. Complete the statement-A Court cannot Issue commission:
(a) to examine any person.
(b) to make a partition.
(c) to collect evidence
(d) to examine or adjust accounts.
28.Which of the provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides that
the objection has to be raised at the first available opportunity?
(a) Section 10
(b) Section 11
(c) Section 20
(d) Section 21
29. The words "SOCIALIST SECULAR" were inserted in the Preamble of the
Constitution by which constitutional amendment
(a) Forty First amendment.
(b) Forty Second amendment.
(c) Forty Fourth amendment.
(d) Forty Sixth amendment.
30.Which provision of the Constitution confere upon a High Court the power to
punish for contempt of itself?
(a) Article 215
(b) Article 217
(c) Article 225
(d) Article 226
31.Which of the following facts are required to be proved?
(a) All laws in force in the territory of India.
(b) Public festivals and holidays notified in official Gazetta.
(c) The Rules of the road.

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS NOTES

(d) None of the above.

32. The period of limitation for filing a suit to set aside transfer of property
made by a guardian of a ward. by the ward's legal representative, when the ward
dies before attaining majority, Is:
(a) Three years from the date when the ward would have become major.
(b) Three years from the date when such fact comes to the notice of the legal
representative.
(c) Three years from the date of death of the ward.
(d) Twelve years from the date of the transfer.
33.Under which provision of Code of Civil Procedure, restoration of setting
aside of orders passed ex parte can be sought regarding an application filed
under Order XXI of CPC which has been dismissed for non appearance or
decided ex parte?
(a) Order IX Rule 13
(b) Order XXI Rule 58
(c) Order XXI Rule 106
(d) Order XXI Rule 100
34. The period of limitation for filing a suit relating to tort against one who.
having right to use property for specific purpose. perverts it to other purpose
is:
(a) One year from the date the perversion first becomes known to the person injured.
(b) Two years from the date the perversion first becomes known to the person injured.
(c) Three years from the date the perversion first becomes known to the person
injured.
(d) Four years from the date the perversion first becomes known to the person
injured.
35.The principle of "force majeure emanates from which provision of the Indian
Contract Act. 1872?
(a) Section 52
(b) Section 54
(c) Section 56
(d) Section 58
36.Under which provision, can the Court issue the warrant of arrest against a.
person released on bail and require him to furnish sufficient sureties?
(a) Section 440 C.R.P.C
(b) Section 446 C.R.P.C

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(c) Section 441 C.R.P.C

(d) Section 443 C.R.P.C.
37.In which of the following. the Hon'ble Supreme Court held that in a case
arising from Negotiable Instrument Act. successive sentences may be directed
to run concurrently if both transactions are part of single transaction?
(a) Damodar S. Prabhu v. Sayed Babalal H. (2010) 5 SCC 663.
(b) Done A. Yengia v. State of Assam & Ors. (2016) 3 SCC 1.
(c) Mahindra & Mahindra Finacial Services Ltd. & Anr. v. Rajiv Dubey. (2009) 1 SCC1.
(d) Shyam pal v. Dayawati Besoya & Ors. (2016) 10 SCC 761.
38.Which provision of Indian Evidence Act stipulates that the fact of a women
being habituated to sexual intercourse will not be relevant on the issue of
consent in a prosecution for rape or outraging the modesty of the said woman?
(a) Section 50
(b) Section 53-A
(c) Section 54
(d) Section 51
39.In reference to the trial of summons cases by a Magistrate. which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) The Court shall frame charge after hearing the accused and the prosecution.
(b) The Court may discharge the accused after hearing the prosecution and the
accused.
(c) There is no requirement for the Court to hear the accused and the particulars of
the offence shall be stated to him.
(d) None of the above.
40. Ram while going on pilgrimage, entrusted a box containig jewellery to his
neighbor Shayam. Shayam dishonestly with the intent to commit mis chief.
breaks open the box without having any authority. Shayam has committed the
offence of,
(a) Section 406 of Indian Penal Code.
(b) Section 379 of Indian Penal Code.
(c) None of the above.
(d) All the above
41.In which of the following situations the general principle of presumption of
innocence of a child in conflict with law shall not be applicable?
(a) When the child is charged for the offence of murder punishable under Section 302
of IPC

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(b) When the child is charged for the offence 376(2)(g) of IPC.
(c) Where the Juvenile Justice Board has passed an order under Section 15 read with
Section 18(3) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act that the
child should be tried as an adult.
(d) None of the above.
42. A Police officer receives a sum of Rs.5000/- as fine from violator. He
deposits the amount in the Treasury three months after the stipulated period.
He commits:
(a) Offence punishable under Section 407 IPC
(b) Offence punishable under Section 409 IPC.
(c) Offence punishable under Section 420 IPC.
(d) None of the above.
43. Under which provision of law, the Court while considering the case of a
person convicted for an offence not punishable with death or imprisonment of
life. is under an obligation to call for the report of Probation Officer?
(a) Section 9 of the Probation of Offenders Act.
(b) Section 7 of the Probation of Offenders Act.
(c) Section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act.
(d) None of the above.
44. A person (payee) signs a blank cheque and gives the same to another person,
(holder) and the holder fills up the blank space pertaining to amount and date
and presents the same in his bank account and it is dishonored. In such a
situtaion, which of the following statement whould be correct?
(a) The holder committed forgery.
(b) The cheque will have to be treated as in vaild.
(c) The bank would not accept the cheque.
(d) The holder will be entitled to maintain a complaint filed upon being presented in
the bank.
45. In which celebrated judgment, did the Hon'ble Supreme Court classified the
witnesses into three categories (i) wholly reliable. (ii) wholly unreliable, (iii)
neither wholly reliable nor wholly unreliable?
(a) Vadivelu Thevar v. State of Madrass. AIR 1957 SC 614.
(b) Guli Chand & Ors v. State of Rajasthan. AIR 1974 SC 275,
(c) Ram Naresh & Ors v. State of Rajasthan. AIR 2012 SC 1357.
(d) Bheru Sing v. State of Rajasthan. (1994) 2 SCC 467.

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46.When a child in conflict with law is in custody while undergoing trial. is

declared adult under Section 18(3) of the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection
of Children) Act upon crossing the age of 18 years during the course of trial.
Which of the following option is available to the trial court in such a situation?
(a) To allow the child to go home after advise or admonition.
(b) To drop the prceeding and release the child from custody forthwith.
(c) to direct the child to be released or probation of good conduct.
(d) Send the child to a place of safety.
47.Under which provision of law, a body incorporate is required to appoint an
authorized representative for the purpose of inquiry of trial before a criminal
court?
(a) Section 302 of C.R.P.C
(b) Section 303 of C.R.P.C
(c) Section 305 of C.R.P.C
(d) None of the above.
48. Which of the following statements Is correct?
1. The presumption under Section 113-A of the Indian Evidence At would be
attracted if the marriage of the accused and the deceased took place more than
7 years prior to the suicide of the woman and cruelty soon before death is
established by the prosecution.
2. That because Section 113-Aofthe Indian Evidence Act is attracted to a case,
the prosecution is not required to prove its case beyond reasonable doube
against the accused.
(a) Statement (A)
(b) Statement (3)
(c) Both Statements (A) & (B)
(d) None of the above statements.
49.Which of the following can not be a ground to deny bail to a person, who is
apparently a child in conflict with law?
(a) When the offence alleged against such person is a heinous offence and the child
has been ordered to be tried as an adult under Section 18(3) of the Juvenile Justice
(Care and Protection of Children) Act.
(b) When there are resonable grounds to believe that the child may come into
association with known criminal if released on bail.
(c) That the person may be exposed to moral, physical or psychological danger
(d) That the person released on bail would defeat the ends of justice.

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50. Kalu prosecutes Khema for stealing a ear from him. Khema is convicted.
Kalu afterwards sues Ganesh for the car. Whether the judgment of conviction
of Khema in the suit between Kalu and Ganesh is:
(a) Relevant.
(b) Irrelevant.
(c) Relevant only with prior permission of court.
(d) None of the above.
51.Which provision of C.R.P.C. provides protection against double jeopardy?
(a) Section 305
(b) Section 300
(c) Section 188
(d) Section 203
52.In which judgment, the Hon'ble Supreme Court laid down that a complaint
based on a second or successive dishonor of cheque is maintainble, if no
complaint based on an earlier dishonor of cheque followed by statutory notice
issued on the basis thereof had been filed:
(a) M.S.R. Leathors v. S. Palaniappan & Anr. (2013) 1 SCC 177.
(b) Sadanandan Bhadran v. Madhavan Sunil Kumar. (1998) 6 SCC 514,
(c) Sill Import USA v. Exim Aides Silk Exporters Bangalore. (1999) 4 SCC 567.
(d) Krishna Exports & Ors. v. Raju Das. (2004) 13 SCC 498,
53.Under which provision of law, the Sessions Court can make a reference to
the High Court regarding the validity of any Aet. Ordinance of Regulation, the
determination of which is necessary for the disposal of the case?
(a) Section 396 of C.R.P.C
(b) Section 368 of C.R.P.C
(c) Section 366 of C.R.P.C
(d) Section 395 of C.R.P.C
54.Which of the following provisions of Indian Evidence Act permits evidence
recorded in one case to be considered relevant in a subsequent proceeding?
(a) Section 32
(b) Section 37
(c) Section 38
(d) Section 33
55.Under which provision of law. can a court direct any person to write any
words or figures for comparison of handwriting?

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(a) Section 91 of C.R.P.C

(b) Section 54-A of C.R.P.C
(c) Section 73 of Indian Evidence Act.
(d) Section 311 of C.R.P.C
56.Which provision of C.R.P.C empowers a criminal court to recall and re-
examine witnesses in a criminal case?
(a) Section 217
(b) Section 311
(c) Both (1) & (2)
(d) None of above
57.In which of the following cases. did the Hon'ble Supreme Court decide the
issue of territorial jurisdiction of the court to entertain a complaint under the
Negotiable Instruments Act in reference to the Amending Ordinance of 2015?
(a) Bridgestone India Pvt. Ltd. v. Inderpal Singh. (2016) 2 SCC 75,
(b) K.S. Joseph v. Philip Carbon Black Ltd & Ors. (2016) 11 SCC 105.
(c) Ultratech Cement Ltd. v. Rakesh Kumar Singh & Anr. (2016) 1 SCC (Cri) 173.
(d) None of the above
58.The right of private defence of the body does not extend to voluntary
causing of death or of any other harm to the assailant. if the offence which
occasions the exercise of the right to be any of the descriptions hereinafter
enumerated:
(a) An assault with the intention of committing rape
(b) An assault with the intention of Kidnapping or abducting.
(c) An assault with the intention of wrongfully confining a person under
circumstances which may reasonable cause him to have recourse to the public
authorities for his release.
(d) An assault of causing of grievous hurt on provocation.
Ans.(Deleted)
59.A trial court in State of Rajasthan delivers its judgment in English. Under
which provision of law, can the accused seek a translated copy of the judgment
in Hindi language?
(a) Section 353 of C.R.P.C
(b) Section 362 of C.R.P.C
(c) Section 364 of C.R.P.C
(d) Section 363 of C.R.P.C

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60. Under which provision of law, a sentence of death passed by the Sessions
Court is subjects to confirmation by the High Court?
(a) Section 369 of C.R.P.C
(b) Section 362 of C.R.P.C
(c) Section 366 of C.R.P.C
(d) Section 370 of C.R.P.C
61.Which of the following irregularities vitiate the proceedings. If any
Magistrate not being empowered by law in this behalf, does any of the following
things?
(a) Makes an order under Section 133 of C.R.P.C. as to a local nuisance.
(b) Makes an order under Part C or Part D of Chapter X of C.R.P.C
(c) Holds an inquest under Section 176 of C.R.P.C
(d) Makes an order for maintenance.
Ans. (Deleted)
62. The trial court while recording evidence in a case wherein the accused is in
custody. records the evidence of witness without ensuring presence of the
accused in the court, which of the following statement would be correct?
(a) The judgment passed by trial court in such proceedings would be vitiated by virtue
of Section 273(1) of C.R.P.C
(b) The judgment passed by trial court in such proceedings would be saved by virtue
of Section 460 of C.R.P.C
(c) The Judgement passed by trial court in such proceeding would be saved by virtue
of Section 465 of C.R.P.C
(d) The judgment passed by trial court in such proceedings would be saved by virtue
of Section 317 of C.R.P.C
63. Which provision stipulates that lunatic can be a competent witness?
(a) Section 84 of Indian Penal Code.
(b) Section 118 of Indian Evidence Act.
(c) Section 119 of Indian Evidence Act.
(d) None of the above:
64.In which of the following judgments. the Hon'ble Supreme Court held that
where an act of domestic violence commenced prior to the enactment of the
Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act and continued even
thereafter also, in such a situation, the aggrieved person is entitled to
protection of the Act?
(a) Saraswath v. Babu. (2014) 3 SCC 712

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(b) Meena Chaudhary v. Commissioner of Delhi Police. (2015) 2 SCC 145

(c) Indra Sarma v K.K.V. Sarma. (2013) 15 SCC 755,
(d) None of the above
65.Under which provision is the Court acquitting the accused, required to take
a bond from him/her for appearance in the higher court?
(a) Section 439 C.R.P.C
(b) Section 436-A C.R.P.C
(c) Section 436 C.R.P.C
(d) Section 437-A C.R.P.C.
66. Which of the following documents cannot be admitted in evidence in a
criminal trial without formal proof?
(a) Certified copies of public documents.
(b) Report issues by a govt. scientist after chemical/ serological examination of
samples forwarded to him by the investigation agency.
(c) A report issued by a govt. handwriting expert after comparison of the disputed
signatured with an admitted signature.
(d) A document which is admitted by the opposite party.
67.A Metropolitan Magistrate sentenced an accused of theft for three months
simple imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 200/-, Accused can file an appeal against
such judgment in:
(a) The Court of Sessions.
(b) The High Court,
(c) The Court of Chief Metropolitan Magistrate.
(d) No appeal can be field
68. Public sevant "A" while discharging his official functions, issues a document
with incorrect particulars knowing that by this action, he is likely to harm
another public servant "B". The public servant "A" is responsible for which of
the following offence?
(a) Forgery.
(b) Creating of false document.
(c) Cheating.
(d) None of the above.
69. Under which provision of C.R.P.C. can a party approach an Executive
Magistrate and pray for dropping of the proceeding initiated under Section 145
of C.R.P.C.?
(a) Section 145(2)

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(b) Section 146(1)

(c) Section 148
(d) Section 145(5)
70. Under which provision of law. can the court award compensation to a person
groundlessly arrested?
(a) Section 349 C.R.P.C.
(b) Section 347 C.R.P.C.
(c) Section 358 C.R.P.C.
(d) None of the above.
71. Choose the correct Active voice sentence: It is being said that too littele
money is being spent by the Government on roads.
(a) People are saying that the Government is spending too litile money on roads.
(b) People were saying that too little money has been spent on roads by the
Government.
(c) People said that too little money spen by Government on roading
(d) People have said that Government have spend too money on roads.
72. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option The last train…... the
station at 11.30a.m.
(a) will leaving
(b) have been left
(c) leaves
(d) was left
73. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriatr option.
The new witness.....yesterday and the judge......the investigation early this
morning.
(a) arrived, started
(b) arrived, starting
(c) have arrived, would be start
(d) had arrived, had start
74. The word similar in meaning to "Quota" is:
(a) sight
(b) sue
(c) sigh
(d) cite

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75.Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate model.

When I was a child. I ...... understand adults but now I don't.
(a) do
(b) should
(c) could
(d) must
76. Complete the following sentence with correct subordinating conjunction:
…………..He worked, hard he did not win.
(a) However
(b) Though
(c) Nevertheless
(d) Moreover
77. The synonym of Advise" Is:
(a) Council
(b) Counsel
(c) Practice
(d) Proposal
78. "To make a long story short" means.
(a) parapharse
(b) come to the point
(c) display composition skills
(d) have narrative excellence
79. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate phrasal verb. The situation is
difficult and calls. great tact.
(a) Out
(b) Up
(c) to
(d) for
80.Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate model.
He..........by lazy. but he is not stupid.
(a) needn't
(b) mustn't

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(c) shall
(d) may
81.Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate modal.
He...... have escaped by this window because it has been broken open.
(al need
(b) dare
(c) ought
(d) must
82.Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option. We...... just the most
extraordinary verdict today.
(a) to. hear
(b) have, heard
(c) will. hearing
(d) can. heard
83. Complete the following sentence with correct subordinating conjunction:
You must start at once be late.... you will
(a) therefore
(b) although
(c) otherwise
(d) because
Ans. (Deleted)
84. fill in the blanks with the most appropriate option.
……..of my friends advised me to take……..taxi home.
(a) No, the
(b) One, a
(c) More, no article
(d) These, some
85. The antonym of “Proclaim” is:
(a) suppress
(b) pretend
(c) attend
(d) distend

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS NOTES

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