MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

DELHI JUDICIAL SERVICE

PREVIOUS EXAM 2019
1. Alibi is governed by
(a) Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act.
(b) Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act.
(c) Section 11 of the Indian Evidence Act.
(d) Section 12 of the Indian Evidence Act.
2. Communications “without Prejudice” are protected by
(a) Section 21 of the Indian Evidence Act.GGGGGR
(b) Section 22 of the Indian Evidence Act.
(c) Section 23 of the Indian Evidence Act.
(d) Section 24 of the Indian Evidence Act.
3. Under Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act.
(a) The Whole statement is admissible
(b) Only the protion of the statement which leads to the discovery is admissible
(c) Both the (a) and (b) are admissible
(d) None of the above are admissible
4. A dying declaration to be admissible must be made to a
(a) Magistrate
(b) Doctor
(c) Police Officer
(d) All these
5. The opinion of an Expert is relevant under
(a) Section 45 of the Indian Evidence Act.
(b) Section 46 of the Indian Evidence Act
(c) Section 47 of the Indian Evidence Act
(d) Section 48 of the Indian Evidence Act
6. Burden of proof is lightened by
(a) Presumptions
(b) Admission
(c) Estoppel
(d) All these

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7. Legal Advisor
(a) Can disclose the professional Communications after death of his client
(b) Can disclose the professional Communications after the relationship with the
client has ended.
(c) Can disclose professional communications if made in furtherance of any illegal
purpose.
(d) Can disclose the professional communications in all the above instances.
8. Power of the court to suo motu examine any person at any stage is undre
(a) Section 163 of the Indian Evidence Act
(b) Section 164 of the Indian Evidence Act
(c) Section 165 of the Indian Evidence Act
(d) Section 167 of the Indian Evidence Act
9. Under section 166 of the Indian Evidence Act, the tenant is estopped from
form denying the title of the landlord.
(a) During the continuance of the tenancy.
(b) Before creation of tenancy.
(c) After surrender of possession
(d) All these
10. A fact secrtion 3 of the Indian Evidence Act means and includes
(a) Anything capable of being perceived by the senses.
(b) State of things capable of being perecvied by the senses.
(c) Relation of things capable of being perecvied by the senses.
(d) All of these
11. An accomplice is a competent witness under
(a) Section 118 of the Indian Evidence Act
(b) Section 119 of the Indian Evidence Act
(c) Section 132 of the Indian Evidence Act
(d) Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act
12. Section 5 of the Limitation Act applies to
(a) Suits
(b) Appeals/Applications
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

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13. The period of limitation for filing a suit damages for defamation is
(a) One Year
(b) Two Years
(c) Three Years
(d) None of these
14. The period of limitation for filing a suit for possession under section 6 of
the specific Relief Act is.
(a) Six Month
(b) One Years
(c) Three Years
(d) Twelve years
15. If a period of limitation is provided in the Limitation Act, the proceedings
can be instituted within
(a) One Years
(b) Three Years
(c) Twelve years two months
(d) None of these
16. Suit for arrears of maintenance can be filed within
(a) One Year
(b) Two years
(c) Three years
(d) None of these
17. The period of limitation for filing leave to defend in a suit under order
XXXVII of the code of civil procedure is within
(a) 10 days of the receipt of summons for judgment
(b) 30 days of the receipt of summons for judgment
(c) 90 days of the receipt of summons for judgement
(d) 120 days of the receipt of summons for judgement
18. The period of limitation for filing an application for review is.
(a) 30 days of the judgement/order
(b) 60 days of the judgment/order
(c) 90 days of the judgment/order
(d) 180 days of the judgment/order

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19. The period of limitation for filing revision petition to the Hight court
under section 115 of the code of civil procedure is
(a) Such period is excluded from the period limitation
(b) Such period is included in the period of limitation
(c) Such period is included in the period of limitation only if the period of stay
abroad is more than thirty days
(d) None of these
20. If the defendant is in abroad the period of limitation
(a) Such period is excluded form the period limitation
(b) Such period is included in the period of limitation
(c) Such period is excluded form the period of limitation limitation only if the period
of stay aboard is more than thiry days.
(d) None of these
21. Question of title an immovable peoperty in a suit under section 6 of the
specific Relief Act is
(a) Relevant
(b) Irrelevant
(c) Both, depending upon the facts of the case
(d) None of these
22. An injunction can be granted.
(a) To prevent the breach of a contract the performance of which would not be
specifically enforced
(b) To prevent a contitinuing breach in which the plaintiff has acquiesced
(c) To restrain any person from applying to a legislative body
(d) None of these
23. Mandatory injunction is governed by
(a) Section 38 of the specific Relief Act.
(b) Section 39 of the specific Relief Act.
(c) Section 40 of the specific Relief Act.
(d) Section 41 of the specific Relief Act.
24. A suit for declaration without seeking consequential relief is barred by
(a) Section 28 of the specific Relief Act.
(b) Section 34 of the specific Relief Act.
(c) Section 37 of the specific Relief Act.
(d) Section 39 of the specific Relief Act.

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25. A mandatory injunction is in the nature

(a) restitution
(b) prohibition
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
26.Contract for sale of a Maruti Ciaz car
(a) can be specifically enforced
(b) cannot be specifically enforced
(c) only damages can be claimed
(d) Both (b) and (c)
27. Contracts not specifically enforceable are enumerated in
(a) Section 11 of the Specific Relief Act.
(b) Section 12 of the Specific Relief Act.
(c) Section 13 of the Specific Relief Aet.
(d) Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act.
28. Which contract cannot be specifically enforced?
(a) A contract which is in its nature deteminable
(b) A contract which is so dependent on the persional qualifications of the parties
that the court cannot enforce specific performance of its material terms
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) A contract of sale immovable property
29. He is lazy person and wants a touch of the spur. The italicized phrase in
the above sentence means:
(a) wants to gwet everything easily
(b) wants to retire to bed
(c) wants rousing up
(d) wants his work done by someone
30. The faculty for myth is innate in the human race. "Faculty" in the above
sentence most nearly means:
(a) capacity
(b) branch of learning
(c) authority
(d) teaching

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31. These seats are set- The High Court set---for ladies. the sentence. Winter
has now set-- The blanks in the above sentence can be most appropriately
filled in the following order.
(a) about; aside; on
(b) off; forth; in
(c) on: apart: forth
(d) apart; aside; in
32. Pick the list of correctly spelt words.
(a) Experience: Receive: Acquiesce
(b) Experiance; Receive: Acquiesce
(c) Experience: Recieve; Acquiesce
(d) Experience: Receive; Acquiese
33.Pick a sentence that is grammatically incorrect.
(a) My requirement is that everyone be punctual
(b) The flock of geese have 30 birds.
(c) Either the table or the chair needs to be fixed
(d) The union of carpenters advocates for better pay.
34. Hardly had we entered---------It started pouring.
The blank can be filled most appropriately by using:
(a) than
(b) when
(c) and
(d) lest
35. Scarcely did I fall asleep------phone rang
The blank can be filled most appropriately by using.
(a) than
(b) when
(c) and
(d) lest
36. No sooner had I sat down the bell rang.
(a) than
(b) when
(c) and
(d) lest

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Ans.1
37. She has-----sense.
There is-------money in my purse
We do not sell------than one kilogram of tea.
The blank in the above sentences can be most appropriately filled in the
following order.
(a) any; some; little
(b) much; any; more
(c) little; some: less
(d) little: some: fewer
38. He said, "Where is the station"
The above sentence can be expressed in indirect speech as
(a) He inquired where was the station?
(b) He asked where is the station
(c) He said where was the station
(d) He inquired where the station was?
39.Geeta and------ went to Delhi.
Between you and-------, he is a liar
The blank in the above sentences can be filled in the following order:
(a) me: I; myself
(b) myself; I: me
(c) I: me: I
(d) I; myself; me
40. I shall meet her without------delay
Delhi is------from Mumbai than Surat
He had nothing---------to say
You need not go---into the matter.
The blank in the above sentences can be filled in the follwoing order:
(a) further: farther: farther; further
(b) further, farther: further: further
(c) farther; further: further: farther
(d) further: further: farther, farther
41.This is a ------edition of the book
This is the.......news

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I could not hear the-------part of his speech.

(a) later: latest: later
(b) latter: later: latest
(c) later: latest: latter
(d) latter: later; later
42. The word 'delettante mean----------
(a) amateur
(b) diligent
(c) serious
(d) depraved
43. He is so weak.........
The above sentence can be completed most appropriately by adding:
(a) to walk
(b) and cannot walk
(c) so he cannot walk
(d) that he cannot walk
44. The thieves---------the police.
In his peech. he----------to a great person.
He------me into lending him my car.
The blanks in the above sentences can be filled most appropriately in the
following order:
(a) alluded; deluded; eluded
(b) eluded; alluded; deluded
(c) deluded; alluded; eluded
(d) deluded: eluded: alluded
45. The judge acceded------my request.
The master dispensed--------the services of his servant Nobody is free----faults.
The blanks in the above sentences can be filled most appropriately in the
following order:
(a) with; off; of
(b) to; of; from
(c) with: with; of
(d) to: with: from
46. 'Impecunious' means………………

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(a) impartial
(b) imprudent
(c) without money
(d) senseless
47. We don't care a fig for her," writes some unknow correspondent with a
pretty little handwriting and a pink seal to her note. "She is fade and insipid,'
and adds some more kind remarks in this repeated at all. but they are in truth
strain, which I should never have prodigiously complimentary to the young
lady whom they concern.
(a) ironical
(b) elegiac
(c) sceptical
(d) loving
48. To have a chip on one's shoulder” means…….
(a) to carry weight on one's shoulders
(b) to be arrogant
(c) to be hurt on the shoulder
(d) to have a disability
49. The Maharaja of the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir under whose
reign the Instrument of Accession was signed on 26 October 1947 was-
(a) Hari Singh
(b) Harvinder Singh
(c) Harish Singh
(d) Karan Singh
50. Which of the following refers to a special fund initiated by the Delhi High
Court for the victims of burn related injuries?
(a) Aashray
(b) Aasra
(c) Sahara
(d) Asha
51. According to the Supreme Court (Number of Judges) Amendment Bill.
2019 the maximum number of judges of the Supreme Court of India has been
increased from 30 to……….
(a) 31
(b) 32
(c) 33

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(d) 34
52. In April 2019 Julian Assange was arrested by the London Metropolitan
Police from the Embassy of-
(a) El Salvador
(b) Ecuador
(c) stonia
(d) Equatorial Guinea
53. The Indian Legal History museum located in-.
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Gandhinagar
(c) Rajkot
(d) Vadodara
54. Which state has recently passed the anti-mob lynching bill?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Gandhinagar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
55. Which among the following counters recently allowed women to travel
aboard without approval from a male guardian?
(a) Kuwait
(b) Yemen
(c) Saudi Arabia
(d) Oman
56. Donald Trump accused two countries of exploiting the WTO's developing
economics lag. Which are the two countries?
(a) China and Taiwan
(b) India and China
(c) India and Pakistan
(d) Pakistan and Bangladesh
57. Wing Commander Abhinandan was felicitated with which one of these
honours.
(a) Vir Chakra
(b) Param Vir Chakra
(c) Maha Vir Chakra
(d) Shaurya Chakra

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58. Which of the following Chief Minister of Delhi initiated the Bhafidari
Project to provide better public services by promoting civic participation?
(a) Sushma Swaraj
(b) Sahib Singh Verma
(c) Arvind Kejriwal
(d) Sheila Dikshit
59. Tobacco companies in the USA exercise the rights listed in this to prevent
the display of graphic warning on cigarette packets. Which is the correct
option.
(a) First Amendment
(b) Second Amendment
(c) Third Amendment
(d) Fourth Amendment
60. Which of the following was the first woman to hold the officer of the
Ministry of External Affairs in India?
(a) Sushma Swaraj
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Vitaya Lakshmi Pandit
(d) Shella Dikshit
61. Who was the first woman Judge in the Supreme Court of USA?
(a) Ruth Bader Ginsburyg
(b) Sonia Sotomayor
(c) Sandra Day O'Connor
(d) Elena Kagan
62. Which of the following has come to be associated with the 2019 Hong
Kong pro-democratisation protests?
(a) Bloodied eye patch
(b) Sunflowers
(c) Three Finger salute
(d) First in the Air
63. The commission that drafted the Indian Penal Code in 1834 was headed
by
(a) Barnes Peacock
(b) 'T.B. Macaulay
(c) Stafford Cripps
(d) William Jones

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64. The recently deceased Nobel Prize winning author Toni Morrison won the
Pulitzer Prize for this fictional work in the year 1988. Identify the work.
(a) The Bluest Eye
(b) Song of Solomon
(c) Beloved
(d) God Help the Child
65. Who was one of the first female judges in the British Empire and the first
female Judge in an Indian High Court?
(a) Sujata Manohar
(b) Fathima Beevi
(c) Anna Chandy
(d) Ruma Pal
66. Who is the Indian woman sportsperson to be recommended Padma
Vibhushan?
(a) Mary Kom
(b) Kamlajit Sandhu
(c) PT Usha
(d) Anju Bobby George
67. The US Secretary of State Is
(a) Mike Pompeo
(b) Res Tillerson
(c) John J Sullivan
(d) None of these
68. In 2019. India imposed 200% customs duty on goods omported from
which country?
(a) Pakistan
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) Nepal
69. The present UN Secretary General is………..
(a) Antonio Guterres
(b) Ban ki Moon
(c) Kofi Annan
(d) None of these

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70. India ratified the Kyoto Protocol to the UN Framework Convention on

climate change in the year……..
(a) 1997
(b) 2010
(c) 2017
(d) 2000
71. Which state first adopted the Panchayati Raj system in 1959?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Karnataka
(c) Gujarat
(d) Punjab
72. The current Lok Sabha is the ....
(a) 15th
(b) 16th
(c) 17th
(d) 18th
73. The Governor enjoyes office at the pleasure of the………….
(a) Parliament
(b) Legislative Assembly
(c) President
(d) None of these
74. The Current Chief Economic Advisor to the Government of India is-
(a) Arvind Subramanian
(b) Raghu Ram Rajan
(c) Krishnamurthy Subramanian
(d) None of these
75. The total number of schedules in the Indian Constitution are………..
(a) 6
(b) 14
(c) 12
(d) 10
76.The total number of High Courts in India at present are……….
(a) 20
(b) 25

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(c)30
(d) 35
77. In 2019, India won a mahor dispute against the USA at the WTO. The
subject matter dealt with ................
(a) renewable energy programmes
(b) steel industry
(c) auto industry
(d) poultry industry
78. The RECP treaty negotiations concern the subject matter of
(a) Nuclear Non-Proliferation
(b) Free Trade Agreement
(c) Environment treaty relating to hazardous substances.
(d) None of these
79. Gangubai Hangal was a well known exponent of which of the following
genres of music?
(a) Thumri
(b) Dhrupad
(c) Khayal
(d) Tharana
80.Parliament's lack of power to alter the Basic Structure of the Constitution
was propounded for the first time in
(a) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan in a dissenting judgement.
(b) Keshavanand Bharati v. State of Kerala
(c) I.C. Golak Nath v. State of Punfab
(d) Minerva Mills v. UOl.
81. A suit is dismissed wrongly on the ground of being barred by limitation.
The order of dismissal would operate as res-judicata and bar a subsequent suit
on the same cause of action.
(a) The above statement is true
(b) The above statement is false
(c) It would depend upon the facts and circumstances of each case
(d) None of these
82. Order VII Rule 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure provides for
(a) rejection of the plaint
(b) return of the plaint

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(c) dismissal of the suit

(d) All of the above depending on the facts of the case.
83. In a suit for recovery of Rs.25 lakh, the Defendant files its written
statement and pleads that it does not owe any money to the Plaintiff but in
fact, it is entitled to recover the sum of Rs. 40 lakh from the Plaintiff. The
Defendant, however, does not file a counter claim. Can the Defendant file the
counter claim at a subsequent stage in the suit or file a fresh suit seeking
recovery of Rs.40 lakhs.
(a) The counter claim and suit would be barred
(b) Only the counter claim would be barred.
(c) The Defendant can file both either a counter claim or a suit
(d) The Defendant's claim stands abandoned.
84. 'A' files a suit for partition in the High Court of Delhi against here brother
'B'. 'B' relies upon a Will executed by his father bequeathing the entire estate
in his favour.
(a) B has to necessarily file a counter claim seeking probate of the Will
(b) An issue will be framed as to the genuineness and validity of the Will, which 'B'
can establish without seeking probate.
(c) 'B' has to necessarily file a separate probate petition.
(d) The suit for partition will be stayed until B obtains a probate.
85. In a non commercial suit when issues both of fact and law arise and the
Court is of the opinion that the suit may be disposed of on an issue of law
only. the Court can-
(a) Frame issue of law and facts and adjudicate the issues of law as preliminary
issues
(b) Frame issues both of fact and law and decide all issues together.
(c) Frame issue only on the issues of law and postpone the settlement of issues.
(d) Both (1) and (3)
86. For the purpose of amendment of pleadings under Order VI Rule 17 CPC,
the commencement of trial takes place
(a) When the issues are framed
(b) When the affidavits in evidence are fled
(c) When the affidavits in evidence are tendered by the witness
(d) Once cross-examination begins.
87. 'X' files a suit against 'Y' which is a Partnership of four private individuals
'X' does not issue notice under Section 80 CPC. The suit
(a) Cannot be dismissed for non-compliance
(b) Has to be dismissed for non-compliance

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(c) Can be dismissed at the discretion of court if the circumstances require a notice.
(d) Suit Plaint will be rejected.
88. An ex-parte decree passed by Court 'A' was transferred to Court 'B' for
execution and which execution proceedings are pending in Court 'B'. Court A
sets aside the ex parte decree and on re-hearing, a fresh decree was passed on
the same terms.
(a) Since the new decree is on the same terms, as the decree whihe is set aside, the
execution proceedings will continue.
(b) Court 'B' can continue to execute the exparte decree since the order of transfer
has not been recalled
(c) The Decree Holder can seek amendment to the execution proceedings.
(d) The execution proceedings in Court 'B' come to an end a fresh execution petition
would have to be filed of the new decree.
89. In a commercial suit, the time limit of 120 days for fling of written
statement
(a) Can be extended, If the Defendant shows adequate reasons for non-filing
(b) Can be extended at the discretion of the Court
(c) Cannot be extended under any circumstances
(d) Can be extended with imposition of heavy costs.
91. Where an interim injunetion has been granted without notice to the
opposite party and the Plaintiff fails to comply with the provisions of Order
XXXIX Rule 3 CPC:
(a) The exparte injunction lapses on the expiry of the time for compliance
(b) The exparte injunction would necessarily be liable to be vacated
(c) The Court can extend the time for compliance of Order XXXIX Rule 3 CPC even
after the Defendant has appeared and filed written statement.
(d) The exparte injunction would be vacated if the non compliance is prejudicial to
the defendant.
92. Issues are framed by a Court. Onus of some of the issues is on the Plaintiff
and of some of the issues, the onus is on the Defendant. The Plaintiff has to
(a) file its affidavits in evidence on all issues.
(b) file its affidavits in evidence in affirmative on issue onus whereof is on the
Plaintiff and evidence in negative on issues onus whereof is on defendant.
(c) file its affidavits in evidence in affirmative on the issues onus whereof is upon
the Plaintiff.
(d) file its affidavits in evidence in affirmative on all issues, irrespective of onus.

93. 'X' leases Y a property for 10 years from 2000-2010 where the rent is
payable on the 10th of every month. Y does not pay any rent from the

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inception of the lease. 'X' sues in 2011 for the arrears of rent from 2005-2010
only.
(a) X can thereafter file a fresh suit for the arrears of rent for the period from 2000
to 2004
(b) X can amend the plaint to include the recovery of rent from 2000-2004
(c) X's claim for arrears of rent would be restricted for the period of 3 years prior to
the institution of the suit
(d) X having not claimed rent from 2000- 2004, is barred from claiming rent for
subsequent period.
94. In a suit under Order XXXVII CPC. the Court grants the Defendant
conditional leave to defend subject to the defendant securing the suit amount
by way of Bank Guarantee. The Defendant fails to furnish the Bank Guarantee
in the prescribed period. The Court shall
(a) Permit the Defendant to file its written statement
(b) Convert the suit into an ordinary suit
(c) Decree the suit against the Defendant
(d) Direct the Plaintiff to lead evidence
95. 'A' supplies goods from Delhi to 'B' at Mumbai under a contract which
provides "Courts in Mumbai would have jurisdiction to deal with disputes
arising out of this agreement". 'A' sues 'B' in a Court at Delhi for the
outstanding balance
(a) The Court would not admit the Plaint owing to the jurisdiction clauses in the
contract
(b) The suit would be admitted and only if 'B' raises an objection to jurisdiction at
Delhi would the Court determine the same
(c) 'B' can prefer an appeal against the order of admission of the suit in the court at
Delhi
(d) 'B' can approach the Delhi High Court for transfer under section 24 CPC
96. 'A' a resident of Delhi, files a suit at Delhi for infringement of Trade Mark
by 'B'. a resident of Mumbai, for using the Mark at Mumbai.
(a) The courts at Delhi has jurisdiction
(b) The court at Delhi has no jurisdiction beacuse 'B' is a resident of Mumbai and
cause of action has arisen in Mumbai
(c) The court at Delhi has jurisdiction with leave of court
(d) The court at Delhi has jurisdiction only if 'A' does not have an office in Mumbai
97. A compromise Decree.
(a) Operates as res judicata between parties to the compromise
(b) Does not operate as res judicata
(c) (1) or (2) depending upon facts and circumstances of each case

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(d) (1) or (2) depending on the discretion of

98. A deerce for permanent injunction restraining the defendant from
interfering with the possession of the Plaintiff, finding the possession of the
Plaintiff to be settled, would operate as res judicata in a suit for partititon
filed by the Defendant for the same property.
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) (1) and (2) depending on facts and circumstances of each case
(d) None of these
99.On receipt of an application for execution of a decree, if the requirements
of Order XXI Rules 11 to 14 have not been complied with and the defects are
not remedied then
(a) The Court shall reject the application for execution
(b) Allow process of the application for execution
(c) (1) and (2) depends upon facts and circumstances of each case
(d) None of these
100. A holds a decree against 'B' for Rs.5000/-. 'B' holds a decree against 'A'
for Rs. 3000/-. Both 'A' and 'B' apply for executive of decree to a Court which
has jurisdiction to execute both decrees. The Court may
(a) Allow execution of 'A's decree of Rs.2000/
(b) Simultaneously proceed with execution of both decrees
(c) 'B' shall proceed separately with his decree
(d) None of these
101. The period of limitation for an application to restore a suit dismissed for
default of appearance is
(a) 30 days from date of dismissal
(b) 60 days from date of dismissal
(c) 90 days from date of dismissal
(d) 120 days from date of dismissal
102. Where a suit is dismissed for non- appearance by the Plaintiff and the
defendant is not yet served or after service of the defendant both parties do
not appear, the Plaintiff may
(a) Bring a fresh suit for the same cause of action
(b) Apply for an order to set aside the dismissal
(c) File an appeal
(d) Either (1) or (2)

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103. A granted an injunction restraining 'B' from use of a trade mark. 'A'
alleged that 'B' had willfully disbeyed the injuction order. 'B' pleaded that he
had no knowleged of the injunction order. Evidence was non conlucive. The
Court shall order
(a) Property of 'B' to be attached
(b) 'B' to be detained in civil prison
(c) 'B' to compensate 'A' by damages
(d) None of these
104. A decree shall not operate as res judicata when
(a) Judgment is passed by a Court which does not have subject jurisdiction
(b) Judgment is obtained by fraud
(c) If collusion is proved between parties
(d) All these
105. A filed a suit against three defendants. Defendants No. 1 alleged that
there was no cause of action against him under order VII Rule 11 (d) CPC. The
Plaint is to be
(a) Rejected in whole
(b) Rejected in part if the cause of action is not joint and several
(c) proceeded with against all defendants
(d) None of these
106.In a civil suit coming up for admission, if the Court does not have subject
jurisdiction to grant relief in the suit, the court
(a) cannot grant interim relief under Order XXXIX CPC
(b) can still grant interim relief under Order XXXIX CPC
(c) has to nevertheless issue summons of the suit
(d) has to frame a question of law and refer it to the High Court
107. In a suit for permanent injunction against a defendant company, the
Plaintiff sought an interim injunction restraining the defendant from
prosecuting the suit in a foreign court
(a) temporary injunction the defendant from prosecuting the suit in a foreign court
from proceeding with the suit
(b) a temporary injunction restraining the foreign court can be granted if there is a
prior pending suit in India, irrespective of where the defendfant resides or carries:
on business
(c) a temporary Injunction restraining the defendant from prosecuting the foreign
suit can be granted if the defendant is amenable to the jurisdiction of the court
(d) All these

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

108. An order passed under Order XXXIX Rule 1 CPC can be challenged by
filing
(a) an appeal
(b) a writ petition
(c) a revision petition
(d) None of these
109.Under Order IX CPC where a suit is wholly or partly dismissed under Rule
8.
(a) the plaintiff shall be precluded from bringing a fresh suit in respect of the same
cause of action
(b) Plaintiff may apply for an order to set the dismissal aside
(c) Plaintiff may bring a fresh suit in respect of the same cause of action
(d) Either (1) or (2)
110. During the pendency of an appeal by the four defendants in the suit, one
of the appeallants (defendants) dies and no steps for substitution of his legal
representatives are taken and the appeal in so far as it relates to the said
appellant abates. The five respondents (plaintiff) apply for dismissal of the
entire appeal as abated. Answer whether:
(a) The entire appeal abates and has to be dismissed
(b) The entire appeal abates only if the cause of action aginst all the defendant was
one and allowing the appeal of the other defendants would lead to inconsistent
decrees.
(c) The appeal only of the deceased appellant abates and as far as the other
defendants (appeallants) are concerned has to continue.
(d) the proceedings in the appeal have to be stayed and a second appeal is required
to be filed for determination of this question.
111.The Court at the first hearing of the suit.
(a) can only frame issues
(b) may permit cross examination of either party by the other
(c) to elucidate the matter in controversy in the suit, may examine either of the
parties
(d) None of these
112. Failure of the judgment debtor to file affidavits of assets under Order
XXI Rule 41(2) of the Code of Civil Procedure can result in:-
(a) civil imprisonment up to three months for the judgment debtor
(b) civil imprisonment up to six months for the judgment debtor
(c) civil imprisonment up to nine months for the judgment debtor
(d) imposition of fine on the judgment debtor of the decretal amount.

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

113. In which of the following cases a partnership does not exist?

(a) Lender of money receiving profits
(b) Servants or agents receiving profits
(c) Widow or child of a deceased partner receiving profits
(d) Seller of goodwill receiving profits.
114. A partner cannot contract himself out of which of the following duties?
(i) Duty of utmost good faith, i.e.uberrimae fidel
(ii) Duty to carry on business to greatest common advantage
(iii) Duty to render true accounts and full information
(iv) Duty to indemnify for fraud
(v) Duty to indemnify for wilful neglect
(vi) Duty to peoperty use the firm's property
(a) 1.II.III.IV. and VI
(b) I. II. IV and V
(c) I,II,III, and IV
(d) I.II.IV and VI
115. A notice to one partner operates as a notice to the whole firm. However
(a) The notice must have been given to a partner who habitually acts in the busines
of the firm.
(b) Notice to a dormant or a sleeping partner would also suffice
(c) Notice to a partner who commits a fraud on the firm will not be notice to the
firm. (d) Both (1) and (3) are correct
116.The Vice President is elected
(a) on the basis of adult franchise by the People of India
(b) by an electoral college consisting of all the members of both the Houses of
Parliament.
(c) by an electoral college of all the members of both the House of Parliament.
(d) by electoral college consisting of all the member of both the House of Parliament
in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single
transferable vote and by secret ballot.
117. There is no fundamental right of a person arrested not to be detained in
custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such
arrest or for period beyond that of twenty-four hours of such arrest (excluding
the time necessary for journey from place of arrest to court) without the
authority of a Magistrate
(a) In case of one who for the being is an enemy alien

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

(b) In case of one who is arrested or detained under any law providing for
preventive detention.
(c) Both (1) and (2)
(d) None of these
118. An amendment of the Constitution of India to make change in provision
relating to establishment. and constitution of the Supreme Court requires,
before giving of assent by the President
(a) To be passed by a majority of not less than two-third of members present and
voting in each House.
(b) Ratification by resolution to that effect by legislatures of not less than one-half
of the States
(c) Both (1) and (2)
(d) None of these
119. An ordinance promulgated by the President of India, in exercise of his
legislative power, shall cease to operate or to have effect or be of same force
as an Act of Parliament.
(a) At the expiration of six weeks from reassembly of Parliament
(b) Upon passing of resolution by one House of Parliament endorsing the
disapproval thereof expressed by resolution of the other House.
(c) Upon it being withdrawn by the President
(d) All these
120.If only a part of the single consideration for one or more objects is
unlawful, the contract shall be
(a) Valid to the extent the same are lawful
(b) Void to the extent the same are unlawful
(c) Void as a whole
(d) Valid as a whole
121.A letter of acceptance sent by post is lost in transit
(a) There is a concluded contract as the letter of acceptance is put the course of
transmission.
(b) There is no concluded contract as the acceptance has not come to the
knowleged of the proposer
(c) There is no concluded contract as the acceptance has not been communicated
to the proposer.
(d) None of these
122. 'A' and 'B' go into a shop. 'B' says to the shopkeeper "let" 'A' have the
goods. I will see that you are paid. This is a contract of
(a) Guarantee

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

(b) Bailment
(c) Indemnity
(d) Pledge
123. An agreement in restraint of trade is
(a) Valid
(b) Vold
(c) Void to the extent of such restraint
(d) Voidable
124. If the compensation to be paid on breach of contract is the genuine pre-
estimate of the prospective damages, it is known as
(a) Liquidated damages, it is known as
(b) Un-liquidated damages
(c) Special damages
(d) Penalty
125. If the time of performance of contract is of essence and the promisor
fails to perform his part by the specified time. the contract is
(a) Vold
(b) Voidable at the option of the promise
(c) Infructuous
(d) Valid
126. An agency is terminated by the
(a) principal revoking the authority of the agent
(b) agent renouncing the business of agency
(c) death of principal of agent
(d) All these
127. Parties 'A' and 'B' have agreed on the seat of arbitration. The same
(a) can be changed by the Arbitral Tribunal unilaterally
(b) cannot be changed at all
(c) can be changed by the agreement of parties
(d) cannot be changed by the parties unless Arbitral Tribunal permits
128. An application to set aside the arbitral award under the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996 may be made within a time period of the following
number of days that have elapsed from the date on which the party making
that application had received the arbitral award
(a) one month

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

(b) two months

(c) three months
(d) forty five days
129. An arbitration agreement entered into on 1st August 2019, provides for
the arbitration to be in accordance with the Arbitration Act 1940.
(a) The arbitration would be governed by the provisions of Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996
(b) The arbitration would be governed by the provisions of Arbitration Act, 1940
(c) The arbitration clause is void
(d) The arbitration would be governed by the provisions of the Arbitration Act, 1940
as well as of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act,1996
130. An arbitration agreement expressly ousts the jurisdiction of consumer
forums. In such a case
(a) Only arbitral tribunal will have jurisdiction
(b) Only consumer forum will have jurisdiction as it is a Special Act
(c) Both forums will have jurisdiction to adjudicate the disputes
(d) The clause would be void and only a civil suit would lie
131.An arbitration clause contained in a deficiently stamped and
compulsorily registrable document
(a) is enforceable even without deficient stamp duty being paid
(b) is enforceable only if the deficient stamp duty along with the penalty, if any, is
paid
(c) is invalid duty
(d) is enforceable only if the deficient stamp along with the penalty if any is paid
and the document is registered
132. A non signatory to the arbitration agreement can be made party to
arbitration proceedings
(a) Always
(b) Never
(c) Under some circumstances/grounds
(d) Only on the application of such non signatory
133. In a pending arbiration case, the arbitral tribunal passed an order of
interim injunction under Section 17 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act.
1996 restraining encashment of a Bank Guarantee. The aggrieved party has
the following remedies
(a) File a review before the arbitrator
(b) File an appeal under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

(c) File a civil suit challenging the interim order

(d) None of these
134. Disputes between 'A' and 'B' are referred to arbitration under the
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. The final award is rendered on 1st
June 2019 in favour of 'B'. during the ensuing summer vacations of the Court
an urgent situation arises in which 'B' wishes to seek interim relief. 'B' can
(a) approach the arbitral tribunal under Section 17 of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996 for interim orders
(b) approach the court of competent jurisdiction under Section 9 of the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act, 1996 for interim orders
(c) not obtain any interim orders as the final award been passed
(d) approach the Supreme Court for interim orders
135.Under section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996, the
reference of parties to arbitration is
(a) mandatory
(b) directory
(c) discretionary
(d) None of these
136.A nomination of an arbitrator is made by a person who is himself
ineligible to act as an arbitration under section 12 (5) read with the seventh
schedule to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. In such a case
(a) The nominee cannot act as an arbitration
(b) Such a nomination would be void ab initio
(c) Both (1) and (2)
(d) Such nomination is valid
137. A petition for execution of an arbitral award for the recovery of money
by attachment and sale of immoveable property of the Judgment Debtor at
Delhi is filed at New Delhi though the objections against the arbitral award
were dismissed by the Court at Ludhiana and without seeking transfer from
that Court. Would the execution petition be maintainable?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, but the proceedings will be stayed till transfer certificate is obtained from
the court at Ludhiana
(d) Only if judgment debtor waives the requirment of transfer certificate.
138. The parties to the arbitration agreement are residents of Lucknow and
kolkata. The contract was performed at Varanasi. The parties agreed that
arbitration proceedings will be conducted at New Delhi and were held at New
Delhi. Where will the petition under Section 34 of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act 1996 be filed?

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

(a) Delhi
(b) varanasi
(c) Lucknow
(d) Kolkata
139. An application under section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act,
1996 is filed by the Defendant after the defendant has filed his written
statement on merits and after framing of issue in which no issue qua
arbitrability is framed. The Court must
(a) Issue notice of the application to plaintiff and call for reply
(b) Allow the application if there is an Arbitration agreement
(c) Dismiss the same as not maintainable
(d) Frame an issue on the same to be determined at trial
140. A petition under section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
is filed on the forty first day after the expriy of limitation prescribed in
section 34(3) of the said Act along with an application for conducation of
delay in filing thereof. The petitioner makes out sufficient ground for
condoning the delay. The Court must.
(a) Condone delay and issue notice of the petition under section 34 of the
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 to the Respondent.
(b) Issue notice to Respondant only of the application seeking condonation of delay.
(c) Dismiss the application for condonation of delay as well as the petition under
section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 on ground of limitation.
(d) Issue notice of the application seeking condonation of delay as well as of the
petition under section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act. 1996
141. A petition under section 48 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
against a foreign award must be filed before.
(a) District Court having territorial and pecuniary jurisdiction
(b) High Court
(c) Supreme Court
(d) All these
142.The petitioner in a petition under section 34 of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996 shows that another method of calculating damages was
preferable than the one adopted by the Arbitration. The Court must
(a) Set aside the award
(b) Remand the award to the Arbitration for reconsideration
(c) Dismiss the petition
(d) Award damages on the basis of the other method
143. A institutes a suit against B with respect to disputes arising out of an
agreement entered into with B. The said agreement provides for arbitration of

26
MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

all disputes including the disputed subject matter of suit. The court before
which the suit comes up for admission
(a) Will dismiss the suit
(b) Will refer the disputes and the parties to arbitration
(c) Will admit the suit if otherwise maintainable in law
(d) Will direct the plaintiff to approach the High Court under Section 11 of the
Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 for appointment of arbitrator
144. 'A' has let out his property at Delhi to 'B' at a rent of Rs. 3000/- per
month on the terms and conditions contained in a registered lease deed. The
lease deed provided for arbitration of all disputes between the parties. 'B' fails
to vacate the property inspite of expiry of period of lease of two years. 'A'
initiates arbitral proceedings under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
in accordance with an arbitration clause in the lease deed seeking
eviction/ejetment of 'B' from the property.
(a) The arbitral proceedings are maintainable
(b) The arbitration proceedings are not maintainable
(c) The arbitral proceedings are maintainable only if 'B' does not object to the same
(d) The arbitral proceedings are maintainable with the express consent of 'B'
145.'A' files a suit against 'B' for recovery of money due under the agreement
term whereof has since expired by efflux of time. 'B' files an application under
Section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 contending that the
agreement contains an arbitration clasue. The court would then
(a) dismiss the application and continue with the suit as the agreement including
the arbitration clause thereof has expired by efflux of time
(b) refer the parties to arbitration
(c) refer the parties to arbitration only if the plaintiff agrees to such arbitration
(d) refer the parties to the High Court under Section 11 of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996 for determination if the arbitrator needs to be appointed
146. The bar under Section 42 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 1996 is
not applicable to
(a) Application under Section 8 of the said Act
(b) Application under Section 11 of the said Act
(c) Application under the Act filed in a Court that has no subject matter jurisdiction
(d) All these
147. On the very filing of a petition under Section 34 of the Arbitration and
Conciliation Act, 1996 for setting aside of an arbitral award in an arbitral
proceedings which has commenced after 23.10.2015, the
(a) arbitral award
(b) the arbitral award is eclipsed

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

(c) the arbitral award remains executable unless execution thereof is stayed by the
court before which such petition is filed
(d) arbitral award is executable only with the permission of the court before which
the petition under Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is filed.
148. An arbitration agreement provides for arbitration under the Arbitration
and Conciliation Act, 1996 by two arbitrators, one to be appointed by each
party
(a) the arbitration agreement is void
(b) the arbitration agreement is of arbitration by three arbitrators with the third
arbitrator to be appointed by the court
(c) the arbitration agreement is of arbitration by one arbitrator, either to be
appointed jointly by the two parties and if not by the court
(d) the arbitration agreement will be enforced as it is.
149.If a person fails to comply with the terms of a notice for appearance
under Section 41A (1) of the Code of Criminal Procedure or is unwilling to
identify himself, the police officer
(a) may, subject to such orders as may have been passed by a competent court in
this behalf arrest him for the offence mentioned in the notice
(b) shall arrest him for the offence mentioned in the notice
(c) may not arrest him for the offence mentioned in the notice
(d) may without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant arrest him.
150. The memorandum of arrest to be prepared by every police officer while
making an arrest shall be
(a) attested by at least witnesses, one of which shall be a member of the family
arrested
(b) attested by at least two witnesses, one of which is a member of the family of the
person arrest and the other a gazette officer living in the locality where the arrest is
made
(c) attested by at least one witness, who is a member of the family of the person
arrested or a respectable member of the locality where the arrest is made and shall
be countersigned by the person arrested
(d) as far as may be possible in the circumstances in which arrest is made attested
by at least one witness
151. When any offence is committed in the presence of a Magistrate within
his local jurisdiction, he may
(a) only direct a police officer posted in a police station within his jurisdiction to
arrest the offender
(b) order only a gazetted officer to arrest offender
(c) himself arrest or order any person to arrest the offender
(d) None of these

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

152. If any court has reason to believe that any person whom a warrant has
been issued by it has absconded so that such warrant cannot be executed
such court may publish a written proclamation requiring him to appear at a
specified place and at a specified time not less than from the date of
publishing of such proclamation:
(a) fifteen days
(b) thirty days
(c) forty five days
(d) sixty days
153. Compensation can be awarded to the victim of a penal offence under--- of
the Code of Criminal Procedure
(a) Section 340
(b) Section 357
(c) Section 357A
(d) Both (2) and (3)
154. An order for a monthly allowance for the maintenance or interim
maintenance and expenses of proceeding under Section 125 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure shall be payable:-
(a) from the date of the order
(b) from the date of the application for maintenance or interim maintenance and
expenses of proceedings
(c) from the date of the order, or, if so ordered. from the date of the application for
maintenance or interim maintenance and expenses of proceedings
(d) from any date as the Magistrate may deem fit and proper
155. An order for alteration in the allowance for the maintenance or interim
maintenance can be made by a Magistrate under Section 127 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure on proof of a change in the circumstances, at the instance
of
(a) any person receiving under Section 125 a monthly allowance for the
maintenance or interim maintenance
(b) any person ordered under Section 125 to pay a monthly allowance for the
maintenance or interim maintenance
(c) relative of any person ordered under Section 125 to pay a monthly allowance for
the maintenance or interim maintenance
(d) Both (1) and (2)
156. Which of the following statements is false in the context of Section 155
of the Code of Criminal Procedure regarding inverstigation of non cognizable
cases?
(a) No police officer shall investigate a non-congnizable case without the order of a
Magistrate having power to try such case or commit the case trial

29
MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

(b) Any police officer receling such order may exercise the same powers in respect of
the investigation including the power to arrest without warrant, as an officer in
charge of a police station may exercise in a congnizable case
(c) Where a case relates to two or more offences of which at least one is cognizable,
the case shall be deemed to be a cognizable case, notwithstanding that the other
offences are non-cognizable
(d) Upon receipt of information of the ommission of a non cognizable offence, the
officer in charge of a police station shall enter the substance of the information in a
book in such form as the state government may prsecribe in this behalf
157. A Magistrate may take cognizable under Section 190 off the Code of
Criminal Procedure of any offence
(a) upon a police report of such facts
(b) Upon receiving a complaint of facts which constitue such offence or upon his
own knowledge that such offence has been committed
(c) upon information received from any person other than a police officer, that such
offence has been committed
(d) All these
158. In a case an application for bail is filed by the accused who is alleged to
have committed an offence under section 376 AB of the Indian Penal Code, in
such a case it is
(a) mandatory to give a notice of such bail application. before granting bail, to the
public prosecutor within a period of fifteen days from the date of receipt of notice of
such application
(b) mandatory to give a notice of such bail application. before granting bail, to the
public prosecutor within a period of seven days from the date of receipt of notice of
such application
(c) not mandatory to give notice to the public prosecutor if the
complainant/informant is represented throuh a private counsel
(d) not mandatory to give notice to the public prosecutor if the court considers that
it is not praticable to give such notice.
159. Any court may alter or add to any charge
(a) before examination of an accused under Section 313 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure
(b) after examination of an accused under Section 313 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure but before examination of defence witnesses
(c) before examination of any prosecution witness
(d) at any time before the judgment is pronounced.
160.When in any warrant case instituted otherwise than on a period report,
the accused asppears or is brought before a Magistrate, the Magistrate shall
(a) satisfy himself that he has complied with the provisions of Section 207 of the
Code of Criminal Procedure

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

(b) postpone issue of process against the accused if he is residing at a place beyond
the area in which he exercises his Jurisdiction
(c) either inquire into the case himself or direct an investigation to be made by a
police officer for the purpose of deciding whether or not there is sufficient ground.
for proceeding
(d) shall proceed to hear the prosecution and take all such evidence as may be
produced in support of the prosecution
161.When in a summons-case the accused appears or is brought before the
Magistrate
(a) the prosecutor shall open his case by describing the charge brought against the
accused and stating by what evidence he proposes to prove the guilt of the accused
(b) the Magistrate shall frame in writing at charge against the accused if upon
considering the police report and the documents sent with it and making such
examination as the Magistrate thinks necessary the Magistrate is of the opinion
that there is ground for presuming that the accused has committed an offence
(c) the particulars of the offence of which he is accused shall be stated to him, and
he shall be asked whether he pleads guilty or has any defence to make, but it shall
not be necessary to frame a formal charge
(d) None of these
162. Section 293 of the Code of Criminal Procedure ragarding reoprts of
government scintific experts applies to
(a) the Director of a Central or State Forensic Science Laboratory
(b) the Deputy Director of a Central or State Forensic Laboratory
(c) the Assistant Director of a Central or State Forensic Laboratory
(d) All these
163. The authorities under Section 297 of the Code of Criminal Procedure
before whom affidavits may be sworn to be used before any court under the
Code of Criminal Procedure may be sworn or affirmed before
(a) any Judge or any Judicial or Executive Magistrate
(b) any Commissioner of Oaths appointed by a High Court or Court of Session
(c) any notary appointed under the Notaries Act, 1952
(d) All these
164. The Court of Sessions shall ordinarily hold its sitting as per Section 9 of
the Code of Criminal Procedure
(a) at such place or places as the High Court may, by notification, specifiy, or if in
any particular case, the Court of Session is of opinion that it will tend to the
general convenience of the parties and the witnesses to hold its sittings at any
other place in the Sessions Division
(b) at such place or places as the High Court may, by notification, specify, or if in
any particular case, the Court of Session is of opinion that it will tend to the
general convenience of the parties and the witnesses to hold its sittings at any

31
MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

other place in the Sessions Division. It may with the consent of the prosecution and
the accused sit at the place for the disposal of the case
(c) at such place as the State Government may, by notification, specify, or if in any
particular case, the Court of Session is of opinion that it will tend to the general
convenience of the parties and the witnesses to hold its sittings at any other place
in the Sessions Division, it may with the consent of the prosecution and the
accused sit at that place for the disposal of the case
(d) if in any particular case, the court of Session is of opinion that it will tend to the
general convenience of the parties and the witnesses to hold its sitting at any other
place in the Sessions Division, it may with the consent of the Public Prosecutor sit
at the place for the disposal of the case.
165. The amount of compensation which a Magistrate can direct the
complainant or informant to pay for an accusation without reasonable cause
under Section 250 of the Code of Criminal Procedure is
(a) not exceeding rupees five thousand
(b) not exceeding rupees fifteen thousand
(c) as he may determine but not exceeding the amount of fine he is empowered to
impose
(d) not exceeding the amount of fine he is empowered to impose for the particular
offence for which the accusation was made without reasonable cause.
166. Withdrawal of the complaint in a summons case under Section 257 of
the Code of Criminal Procedure results in
(a) acquittal of the accused
(b) discharge of the accused
(c) acquittal or discharge depending on the stage at which the withdrawal is
permitted
(d) acquittal after charge has been framed and discharge before charge has been
framed
167. Any Metropolitan Magistrate, may, if he think fit, try in a summary way
the following offences under Section 260 of the Code of Criminal Procedure
(a) theft, under Section 379. Section 380 or Section 381 of the Indian Penal Code,
where the value of the property stolen does not exceed two thousand rupees.
(b) offences under Sections 454 and 456 of the Indian Penal Code
(c) receiving or retaining stolen property. under Section 411 of the Indian Penal
Code where the value of the property does not exceed two thousand rupees
(d) All these
168. Section 363 of the Code of Criminal Procedure entitles a person accused
of an offence to receive a copy of the Judgment free of cost when
(a) he is convicted of the offence
(b) he is sentenced to imprisonment
(c) he is confined in jail after sentenced to imprisonment

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

(d) he is represented by a legal aid counsel

169. In calculating fractions of terms of 57 of the Indian punishment, Section
Penal Code presribes that imprisonment for life shall be reckoned as
equivalent to imprisonment for
(a) ten years
(b) fourteen years
(c) twenty years
(d) twenty five years
170. The maximum term of imprisonment which can be imposed by the court
for the offence under Section 304A of the Indian Penal Code is
(a) three years
(b) two years
(c) one year
(d) six months.
171. Under section 63 of the Indian Penal Code, where no sum is expressed to
which a fine may extend, then the amount of fine to which the offender is
liable, is prescribed as
(a) limited to up to rupees one lakh
(b) limited to up to rupees fifty thousand
(c) limited to such amount as the appropriate government may prescribe
(d) unlimited but is directed not to be excessive
172. Where an offence is punishable with imprisonment as well as fine, the
term for which the court can direct offender to be imprisoned in default of
payment of fine shall not exceed
(a) one fourth of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the
offence
(b) one fourth of the term of imprisonment to which the offender has been
sentenced
(c) one fifty of the term of imprisonment to which the offender has been sentenced
(d) one fifty of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence
173.In which case did the Supreme Court first hold that the right of a victim
to file an appeal under the proviso to Section 372 of the Code of Criminal
Prcodure is available against orders of acquittal rendered after 31.12.2009
and that for exercising such right no leave to appeal is required to be sought?
(a) Naval Kishore Mishra v State of UP & Ors
(b) Mallikarjun Kodagall v State of Karnataka
(c) Roopendra Singh v State of Tripura
(d) Satya Pal Singh v State of M.P

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

174. In which case did a five Judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court
consider the ambit and scope of Section 319 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure?
(a) Hardeep Singh v State of Punjab
(b) Rajesh v State of Haryana
(c) Periyasami v S. Nallasamy
(d) S. Mohammed Ispahani v Yogendra Chandak
175. 'A' instigates 'B' to burn 'Z's house. 'B' sets fire to the house and at the
same time commits theft of property there In such a case 'A' would be
(a) guilt of abetting the theft only
(b) guilty of abetting burning of the house but not guilty of abetting the theft
(c) guilty of abetting burning of the house and of abetting the theft
(d) not guilty of any offence as he himself did not commit any act
176. The ambit and scope of the offence sedition under Section 124-A of the
Indian Penal Code was considered by a Five Judge Constitution Bench of the
Supreme Court in the case of
(a) Common Cause v Union of India
(b) Kedar Nath Singh v State of Bihar
(c) Raghubir Singh v State of Bihar
(d) Balbir Singh v State of U.P
177. 'A' knows 'Z to be behind a bush. "B" does not know it. 'A'. intending to
cause, or knowing it to be likely to cause 'Z's death induces 'B' to fire at the
bush. 'B' fires and kills 'Z'
(a) 'B' has committed the offence of culpable homicide
(b) 'A' has committed the offence of abetment
(c) 'B' has committed the offence of causing death by negligence
(d) 'B' may be guilty of no offence; but 'A' committed the offence of culpable
homicide
178. The offence of voyeurism under Section 354-C of the Indian Penal Code
is committed when
(a) A man commits the act of physical contact and advances involving unwelcome
and explicit sexual overtures
(b) Aman makes sexually coloured remarks
(c) A man who monitors the use by a woman of the internet, e-mail or any other
form of electronic communication
(d) Any man who watches, or captures the image of a woman engaging in a private
act in circumstances where she would usually have the expectation of not observed

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either by the perpetrator or by any other person at the behest of the perpetrator or
disseminates such image.
179. "Hurt" as defined in Section 319 of the Indian Penal Code is causing of
the following to any person
(a) Bodily pain
(b) Disease
(c) Infirmity
(d) All these
180. Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code regarding unnatural offences was
partially struck down by the Supreme Court in the case of
(a) Navtej Singh Johar v Union of India
(b) Suresh Kumar Koushal v Naz
(c) Childline India Foundation v Allan John Foundation Trust Waters
(d) Common Cause v Union of India
181.Stolen property as per Section 410 the Indian Penal Code includes
(a) property, the possession whereof has been transferred by theft, extortion or
robbery
(b) property which has been criminally misappropriated
(c) property in respect of which criminal breach of trust has been committed
(d) All these
182. The offence of cruelty in Section 498- A of the Indian Penal Code
punishes subjecting a woman to cruelty by
(a) the husband or relative of the husband of a woman
(b) any person known to the woman
(c) any person
(d) All these
183. Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code regarding a criminal act done by
several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all is
(a) a separate offence itself punishable separately
(b) only a rule of evidence and does not create a substantive offence
(c) attracted in cases of criminal conspiracy
184. The Supreme Court upheld the constitution validity of the offence of
defamation under Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code in the case of
(a) Subramanian Swamy v Union of India
(b) Transparency International India v. State of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Common Cause v State of Karnataka

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(d) Centre for Public Interest Litigation v High Court of Delhi 499-502 IPC, because
right to reputation is included in right to lift.
185. A. intending to murder 'Z' by poison. purchases posion and mixes the
same with food and delivers it to 'Z's servant to place it on Z's table. 'A' has
committed
(a) an offence of attempt to murder
(b) an offence of preparation to commit murder
(c) no offence
(d) an offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
186. The offence of dowry death under Section 304-B of the Indian Penal
Code is committed where the death of a woman is caused by any burns or
bodily injury or occurs otherwise than under normal circumstances within
(a) seven years of her marriage and it is shown that soon before her death she was
subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any relative of her husband
(b) ten years of her marriage and it is shown. that soon before her death she was
subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any relative of her husband
for, or in connection with, any demand for dowry
(c) seven years of her marriage and it is shown that soon before her death she was
subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any relative of her husband
for, or in connection with, any demand for dowry
(d) seven years of her marriage and it is shown that before her death she was
subjected to cruelty or harassment by her husband or any relative of her husband
for. or in connection with, any demand for dowry
187. Section 317 of the Indian Penal Code punishes the offence of exposure
and abandonment of a child under 12 years by parent or person having care of
it. Section 304 of the Indian Penal Code provides for punshiment for the
offence of culpable homicide not amounting to murder 'A' exposes her child
with the knowledge that she is thereby likely to cause its death. The Child
dies in consequence of such exposure. In such circumstances 'A'may be
(a) charged with and convicted of the offence under Section 304 of the Indian Penal
Code
(b) charged with the convicted of the offences under Sections 317 and 304 of the
Indian Penal Code
(c) charged with and convicted of the offence under Section 317 of the Indian Penal
Code
(d) charged with the offences under Sections 317 and 304 of the Indian Penal Code
but convicted only for the offence under Section 304
188. 'A' intentionally deceives 'Z' into a belief that 'A' performed 'A's part of a
contract made with 'Z, which he has not performed, and thereby dishonestly
induces Z to pay money. 'A' has committed.
(a) the offence of criminal breach of trust under Section 405 of the Indian Penal
Code

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(b) the offence of criminal breach of trust by public servant, or by banker, merchant
or agent under Section 409 of the Indian Penal Code
(c) the offence of dishonest misappropriation of property under Section 403 of the
Indian Penal Code
(d) the offence of cheating under Section 415 of the Indian Penal Code
189. Section 471 of the Indian Penal Code states that "whoever fraudulently
or dishonestly uses as genuine any document or electronic record which he
knows or has reason to believe to be a forged document or electronic record,
shall be punished in the same manner as if he had forged such document or
electronic record" if a person is convicted only for the offence under Section
471 of the Indian Penal Code he will then
(a) be imposed punishment for the offence of forgery of the document in addition to
having used the same as genuine
(b) be imposed punishment as prescribed for having committed forgery of the
document which he used as genuine
(c) Both (1) and (2) depending on the facts and circumstances of the case
(d) None of these
190. A. having insured a ship, voluntarily causes the same to be cast away,
with the intention of causing damages to the under-writers. 'A' has committed
the offence of
(a) criminal breach of trust under Section 405 of the Indian Penal Code
(b) cheating under Section 415 of the Indian Penal Code
(c) criminal misappropriation of property under Section 403 of the Indian Penal
Code
(d) mischief under Section 425 of the Indian Penal Code
191.Which of the following statements is false with respect to the offence of
defamation under Section 499 of the Indian Penal Code
(a) It is not defamation to impute anything which is true concerning any person. If
it be for the public good that the imputation should be made or published. Whether
or not it is for the public good is a question of fact.
(b) It is defamation to express in a good faith any opinion whatever respecting the
conduct of a public good is a question of fact
(c) It is not defamation to express in good faith any opinion whatever respecting the
conduct of any person touching any public question. and respecting his character,
so far as his character appears in that conduct, and no further
(d) It is not defamation in a person having over another any authority, either
conferred by law or arising out a lawful contract made with that other, to pass in
good faith any censure on the conduct of that order in matters to which such
lawful authority relates.
192. A makes an attempt to steal some Jewels by breaking open a box, and
finds after so opening the box, that there is no jewel in it. 'A' is
(a) guilty of no offence as there were no jewels to steal

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(b) guilty of the offence of attempting to commit theft of the jewels as he has done
an act towards the commission of theft
(c) guilty of theft as it is immaterial whether he could succeed or not and stealing
some jewels
193. A beings to unloose the muzzel of a ferocious dog. intending or knowing
it to likely that he may thereby cause Z to believe that he is about to cause
the dog to attack "Z. 'A' has
(a) committed no offence
(b) committed the offence of assault under the Indian Penal Code
(c) committed the offence of attempt to commit assault of criminal
(d)committed the offence intimidation under the Indian Penal Code.
194. The punishment for the offence of forgery of a will is prescribed under
Section
(a) 463 of the Indian Penal Code
(b) 468 of the Indian Penal Code
(c) 467 of the Indian Penal Code
(d) 471 of the Indian Penal Code
195. Dishonestly making false claim in court is an offence under Section
(a) 215 of the Indian Penal Code
(b) 209 of the Indian Penal Code
(c) 195 of the Indian Penal Code
(d) 196 of the Indian Penal
196. 'A' is charge with the offence of causing simple hurt 'A' pleads guilty to
the charge before the Metropolitan Magistrate and is accordingly convicted
for the said offence and sentenced to imprisonment for one year. 'A' can file
an appeal
(a) against the order of conviction and sentence in the Court of Sessions
(b) against the order of conviction and sentence in the High Court
(c) against the extent or legality of sentence In the Court of Sessions
(d) All these
197. 'A' is the victim in a gang rape case. At the conclusion of the trial, the
accused persons are convicted and sentenced to imprisonment and fine. The
Court orders the fine amount to be paid to 'A' as compensation. 'A' has also
filed an application for compensation under Section 357 A of the Code of
Criminal Procedure which is pending consideration before the competent
authority. In such a situation.
(a) The fine amount cannot be paid to 'A' as compensation since she has already
filed an application for compensation under Section 357A of the Code of Criminal
Procedure

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(b)the State Government can pay compensation under Section 357A of the Code of
Criminal Procedure in additional to the payment of fine as compensation to 'A'
under Section 376 D of the Indian Penal Code.
(c) The State Government cannot pay compensation under Section 357A of the
Code of Criminal Procedure as the fine amount has already been ordered to be paid
to 'A' as compensation
(d) The State Government shall pay compensation under Section 357A of the Code
of Criminal Procedure in addition to the payment of fine as compensation to 'A'
under Section 376 D of the Indian Penal Code only if the Court mentions in the
order on sentence that the amount of fine is inadequate
198. Statement of a person recorded by a Magistrate under Section 164 (5A)
(a) of the Code of Criminal Procedure can be taken as a statement in lieu of
examination-in-chief, where the person is a victim in a case
(a) punishable for the offence of kidnapping and the victim is mentally disabled
(b) punishable for the offence of grievous hurt and the victim is mentally disabled
(c) punishable for the offence of stalking and the victim is temporarily physically
disabled
(d) punishable for the offence of Voyeurism
199. A' knowing that 'B'. 'C', 'D', (E), 'F, and 'G' are about to commit the
offence of dacoity in Kathmandu, Nepal harbours them in his house in
Sitamarhi, Bihar with the intention of facilitating the commission of such
dacoity. A has
(a) not committed any offence as the dacoity was yet to take place
(b) not committed any offence that can be tried in India
(c) committed the offence of harbouring dacoits
(d) committed an offence which can be tried and punished only in Nepal
200. A as an employer deducts his employees' contribution from the wage
payable to the employee for credit to the Employees State Indurance Fund
held and administered by the Employees State Insurance Corporation
established under the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948. A makes default
in payment of such contribution to the said fund in violation of the said Act.
'A' has
(a) not committed any offence
(b) committed the offence of criminal breach of trust
(c) committed the offence of criminal misappropriation of property
(d) committed the offence of theft

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MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE CLASS ASSIGNMENT

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