MAANSAROVAR LAW CENTRE

HIMACHAL PRADESH JUDICIAL SERVICE

PRELIMINARY EXAM 2013 (II)
1. Identification of the accused, through his photograph is:
(a) admissible in evidence
(b) not admissible in evidence
(c) not relevant in evidence
(d) none of the above
2. Sections 40 to 44 of the Indian Evidence Act deal with the relevance of:
(a) Characters
(b) Opinion of third persons
(c) Judgements, decree and orders
(d) Statements made under special circumstances
3. Under the law is evidence, the term 'hearsay' is used with reference to what
is:
(a) done
(b) written
(c) spoken
(d) all of these
4. A fact when it is neither proved nor disproved is said to:
(a) disproved
(b) not proved
(c) may proved
(d) all of these
5. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is founded upon the doctrine
laid down in 'Pickard v. Sears'?
(a) Section 6
(b) Section 32
(c) Section 115
(d) Section 167

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6. Under Section 110 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 possession denotes: the
term
(a) Actual present possession
(b) Juridical possession
(c) Symbolic possession
(d) All of the above
7. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act. 2005 amended
(a) Section 73A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(b) Section 154 of the Indian Evidence Act,1872
(c) Section 22A of the Indian Evidenced 1872
(d) Section 47A of the Indian Evidence Act,1872
8. From presumption an inference may be drawn which may be:
(a) affirmative only
(b) disaffirmative only
(c) affirmative or disaffirmative
(d) none of these
9. Estoppel can be by:
(a) attestation
(b) recital in deed
(c) standing by
(d) all of these
10. Exceptions to the rule against admissibility of hearsay evidence are
provided:
(a) Under Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(b) Under Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(c) Under Section 34 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(d) All of the above
11. 'Presumption of surviorship' is contained in:
(a) Section 106 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(b) Section 107 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(c) Section 108 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(d) Section 109 of the Indian Evidence Ad, 1872

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12. Section 114, illustration (g) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 refers to the
presumption as to:
(a) common course of business
(b) arising from withholding evidence
(c) regarding bill of exchange
(d) continuity of things
13. Under the Himachal Pradesh Courts Act. 1976 the State Government may
fix the number of Civil Judges to be appointed after consultation with the:
(a) Governor
(b) High Court
(c) Central Government
(d) President of India
14. Under the Himachal Pradesh Courts Act, 1976, who prepares a list of
holidays to be observed in each year in Civil Courts?
(a) State Government
(b) Central Government
(c) High Court
(d) Governor
15. Under the Indian Stamp Act, 1899 'stamp' means any:
(a) mark
(b) seal
(c) endorsement
(d) all of these
16. Under Section 72 of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, the offence committed in
respect of any instrument may be tried in:
(a) any district in which such instrument is found
(b) anywhere in the state
(c) anywhere in India
(d) none of the above
17. Under the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, the Government may reduce duties:
(a) Prospectively only
(b) Retrospectively only
(c) Prospectively or retrospectively

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(d) None of the above

18. Who prescribes a rate of exchange for the conversion of foreign currency
into the currency of India for the purposes of collecting the stamp duty?
(a) State Government
(b) Central Government
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) President of India
19. Under the Indian Stamp Act, 1899. an instrument shall be deemed to be
unstamped in contravention of:
(a) Section 10 of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899
(b) Section 11 of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899
(c) Section 13 of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899
(d) Section 20 of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899
20. Under the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, in the case of lease, the duty is payable
20. by the:
(a) Lessor
(b) Lessee
(c) Lessor and Lessee
(d) None of these
21. Section 31 of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899, deals:
(a) Adjudication as to proper stamp
(b) Examination and impounding of instruments
(c) Special provision as to unstamped receipts
(d) Admission of improperly stamped instruments
22. The provisions regarding "Allowances for stamps' are contained in:
(a) Chapter IV of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899
(b) Chapter V of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899
(c) Chapter VI of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899
(d) Chapter VII of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899
23. Which Section of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, provides that the 'specific
relief to be granted only for enforcing civil rights and not for enforcing penal
laws:
(a) Section 2
(b) Section 3
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(c) Section 4
(d) Section 5
24. Under Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 for rectification of
instruments on the ground of fraud or mutual mistake, the time limit for
discovery of fraud or mutual mistake is:
(a) three months
(b) six months
(c) one year
(d) no time limit is fixed
25. A mandatory injunction in the nature is:
(a) restitutory only
(b) prohibitory only
(c) both restitutory and prohibitory
(d) none of the above
26. An injunction cannot be granted:
(a) When the plaintiff has no personal interest in the matter
(b) To prevent the breach of a contract the performance of which would not be
specifically enforced
(c) To prevent a continuing breach in which the plaintiff has acquiesced
(d) All of the above
27. Provisions regarding, 'the persons who may obtain specific performance are
specified in:
(a) Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
(b) Section 15 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
(c) Section 16 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
(d) Section 17 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
28. The suit for recovery of possession of an immovable property under Section
6 of Specific Reiter Act can be filed against:
(a) A private individual
(b) The Government
(c) Private individual and the Government
(d) None of the above

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29. An order or decree passed under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act is:
(a) appealable
(b) reviewable
(c) neither appealable nor reviewable
(d) appealable and reviewable
30. Section 12(2) of the Specific Relief Act applies where the part which
remains unperformed, of the contract is:
(a) small
(b) large
(c) considerable
(d) all of these
31. Which of the following is not a suit of civil nature?
(a) suit relating to right of worship
(b) suit relating to taking out of religious procession
(c) suit against expulsions from caste
(d) suit for right to hereditary office
32. Preliminary decree can be passed in a suit for:
(a) pre-emption
(b) sale of mortgaged property
(c) redemption of a mortgage
(d) all of the above
33. Decision which is not a decree?
(a) order of abatement of suit
(b) dismissal of appeal as time barred
(c) order granting interim relief
(d) rejection of plaint for non-payment of court fee
34. In the case of 'res sub judice' under Section 10 of the Code of Civil
Procedure, the court can:
(a) pass interim orders
(b) grant of injunction
(c) appoint a receiver
(d) all of the above

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35. 'Res judicata' does not apply to:

(a) between co-plaintiffs
(b) between co-defendants
(c) public interest litigation
(d) writ of habeas corpus
36. Who is not a legal representative?
(a) Executor
(b) Reversioner
(c) Trespasser
(d) Hindu coparcener
37. Under Section 2(9) of the Code of Civil Procedure 'Judgement' means:
(a) decree
(b) order
(c) statement of grounds of a decree or
(d) decree and order
38. A court may issue a commission to:
(a) Make local investigation
(b) Make partition
(c) Adjust accounts
(d) All of the above
39. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) In legal set-off the amount claimed must be recoverable at the date of suit, in the
case of counter-claim the claimed must be recoverable at the date of filing of written
statement
(b) Set-off cannot exceed plaintiffs claim while the counter-claim can exceed
plaintiff's claim
(c) Set-off cannot exceed the pecuniary, jurisdiction of the court while the counter
claim can exceed the pecuniary jurisdiction of the court
(d) Legal set-off must be for an ascertained sum of money while the counter-claim
may be for an unascertained sum of money

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40. In the Code of Civil Procedure, Section 35B added by the Amendment Act
of 1976 providing:
(a) compensatory costs
(b) costs for causing delay
(c) general costs
(d) miscellaneous costs
41. For an interpleader suit' which of the following conditions is not necessary?
(a) There must be some debt or the property in dispute
(b) Two or more persons claiming the debt or the property in dispute adversely to one
another
(c) There must be suit pending wherein the rights of rival claimants for the debt or
the property in dispute can be properly adjudicated
(d) All of the above
42. The provisions regarding 'friendly suits' are
(a) Section 90, Order 36 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(b) Section 88, Order 35 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(c) Order 34 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(d) Order 33 of the Code of Civil Procedure
43. Mark the incorrect statement:
(a) A decree can only be passed in a suit. while an order may arise from a proceeding
commenced by a petition or an application
(b) A decree is an adjudication conclusively determines the rights of the parties with
regard to all or any of the matters in controversy, an order may or may not finally
determines such rights
(c) Both decree and order may be preliminary
(d) None of the above
44. An order or direction given by the court which passed the decree to a court
which would be competent to execute the decree, to attach any property
belonging to the judgement debtor, is called:
(a) precept
(b) garnishee order
(c) interlocutory order
(d) simultaneous execution

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45. A right of appeal is not a:

(a) inherent right
(b) substantive right
(c) statutory right
(d) vested right
46. The provision regarding 'summary suits' are in:
(a) Order 32 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(b) Order 37 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(c) Order 28 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(d) Order 30 of the Code of Civil Procedure
47. Necessity rule regarding the admissibility of evidence is contained in:
(a) Section 31 of the Indian Evidence Act
(b) Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act
(c) Section 62 of the Indian Evidence Act
(d) Section 63 of the Indian Evidence Act
48. Facts which are inconsistent with any fact in issue are relevant is basta of:
(a) plea of 'alib
(b) principle of 'res-gestae'
(c) nihil ad rem
(d) res integra
49. The conduct to be relevant under Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act, it:
(a) must be previous
(b) must be subsequent
(c) may be either previous or subsequent
(d) none of the above
50. Section 31 of the Indian Evidence Act refers to:
(a) res gestae
(b) estoppels
(c) res judicata
(d) none of these

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51. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes
given below:
List I
(a) Fazaluddin v. Panchu Das
(b) Ghazaibad Development Authority v. Union of India
(c) Union of India v. Radha Kissan Agarwala
(d) Lakshmi Amma v. Telengala Narayana Bhatt
List II
(i) Undue influence
(ii) Contract by performance
(iii) Consideration
(iv) Breach of Contract of Damages
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) i iii iv ii
(b) iii iv ii i
(c) ii iii iv i
(d) iv ii i iii
52. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that "In order to
create a contract, acceptance of an offer and intimation of acceptance by some
external manifestation, which the law regards as sufficient is necessary."?
(a) Fazaluddin v. Panchu Das
(b) Subhas Chandra Das Musahib v. Ganga Prasad Das
(c) Jawahar Lal v. Union of India
(d) Bhagwan Das v. Girdhari Lai & Co.
53. Match the List I with List Il and select the correct answer with the help of
codes given below:
List I
(a) Contingent Contract
(b) Wagering Contract
(c) Restrain from trade or business
(d) Agreement without consideration
List II
(i) Section 30, Contract Act

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(ii) Section 25, Contract Act

(iii) Section 31, Contract Act
(iv) Section 27, Contract Act
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) i iv iii ii
(b) iii i iv ii
(c) i iii iv ii
(d) iv i iii ii
54. Every promise and every set of promises, forming consideration for each
other, is an:
(a) offer
(b) invitation to offer
(c) acceptance
(d) agreement
55. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Past consideration is no consideration
(b) Consideration can be past, present or future
(c) Consideration can only be present
(d) Consideration can only be present or future
56. When the consent to the contract is caused by coercion, the contract is:
(a) voidable
(b) void
(c) valid
(d) illegal
57. Inadequacy of consideration is relevant determining the question of:
(a) fraud
(b) misrepresentation
(c) undue influence
(d) free consent
58. In case of default by joint promiser, the promisee:
(a) can sue any one of them for the entire promise

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(b) can sue any one of them to the extent of his share in the joint promisce
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) cannot sue any single promise
59. Rescission of the contract means:
(a) the renewal of original contract
(b) cancellation of contract
(c) alteration of contract
(d) substitution of old contract with a new one
60. The law relating to tender of performance laid down in:
(a) Section 37
(b) Section 35
(c) Section 38
(d) Section 36
61. The Amendment of Transfer of Property Act 1982 in the year 2002 effective
from:
(a) 31st December, 2002
(b) 1st July, 2002
(c) 30th October, 2002
(d) 2nd July, 2002
62. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held the Doctrine of a
clog on the equity of redemption is a rule of justice, equality and good
consciences?
(a) Apte v. Price
(b) Murari Lai v. Dev Karan
(c) Banarsi Lat v. Puran Chand
(d) None of the above
63. The onerous given is dealt in:
(a) Section 127 ΤΡΑ
(b) Section 126 ТРА
(c) Section 125 ТРА
(d) Section 128 ΤΡΑ

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64. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes
given below:
List I
(a) Amiratham Kundumbah
(b) Asad Ali v. Haider All
(c) Nagrathnambe v. Ramayya
(d) Abdul Gaoor v. Abdul Razak
List II
(i) Spes-Successions
(ii) Transfer for unlawful purpose
(iii) Mere right to sue
(iv) Right of future maintenance
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) ii iii i iv
(b) iii ii iv i
(c) i iii iv ii
(d) iii iv ii i
65. Assertion (A): Where immovable property of one person is by an act of
parties made security for payment of money to another and the transaction
does not amount to Mortgage, the later person is said to have a charge on the
property.
Reason (R): Any contract in respect of immovable property, of itself, creates a
charge on such property.
Codes:
(a) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (a)
(b) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (a)
(c) (a) is true but (R) is false
(d) (a) is false but (R) is true
66. 'A' says to 'B' that he will give a sum of rupees if B marries his daughter.
This Is:
(a) Vested Right
(b) Primary Right
(c) Contingent Right

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(d) None of these

67. Which of the following kinds of Mortgage is not included in Section 58 of
the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?
(a) Usufructuary Mortgage
(b) Anomalous Mortgage
(c) Simple Mortgage
(d) Mortgage by deposit of title deeds
Exp. All options are correct.
68. 'A' makes a gift of a House of B with whom he has past illicit cohabitation.
Is this transfer:
(a) Void
(b) Valid
(c) Invalid
(d) None of these
69. 'A' makes a gift of a House to 'B' with whom he has adulterous relationship
with 'B'. This transfer is:
(a) Valid
(b) Void
(c) Invalid
(d) None of these
70. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that "Once the
period of lease expires, the relationship of landlord and tenant ceases, and the
tenant becomes a trespasser and. therefore, there is no question of service of
any notice under Section 106 TPA"?
(a) Shanti Devi v. Amal Kumar Banjerjee, AIR 1981 SC 1550
(b) P.C. Cheriyan v. Barfi Devi (1980) 2 SCC 461
(c) Idandas v. Anant Ramm Chandra Phadke, AIR 1982 SC 127
(d) None of the above
71. In which year the recent H.P. Urban Rent Control Act (Amendment) has
been placed:
(a) 2007
(b) 2008
(c) 2009
(d) None of these

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72. The case of 'Madan Mohan & Another v. Krishan Kumar Sood' is related
with:
(a) Section 14
(b) Section 20
(c) Section 22
(d) Section 26
73. Under this Act, no landlord shall claim or receive any rent in excess the:
(a) Future Rent
(b) Previous Rent
(c) Fair Rent
(d) All of these
74. If any person contravenes any of the provisions of Clause (a) of Section 7
or Section 8, he shall be punishable with imprisonment which may extend to:
(a) 2 years and with fine
(b) 2 years only
(c) Fine only
(d) None of these
75. A landlord who seeks to evict his tenant shall apply to the:
(a) Commissioner
(b) State Governor
(c) Minister
(d) Controller
76. Under Section 11, 'essential supply or service includes supply:
(a) Water
(b) Electricity
(c) Sanitation
(d) All of these
77. Section 17 of H.P.U.R.C. Act relates to:
(a) Leases of vacant building
(b) Penalties
(c) Execution of orders
(d) Recovery of possession

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Exp. Question 27 is wrongly framed. Section 17 deals with Receipt to be given

for rent paid.
78. In the absence of contact, every tenant shall pay rent within/by the:
(a) Tenth day of month
(b) Fifteenth day of month
(c) Last day of month
(d) Any day of month
79. Who is not authorized to hear appeais against the orders made by the Rent
Controllers?
(a) District and Session Judges
(b) Additional District and Session Judges
(c) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(d) All of the above
80. According Section 33, which one has power to make rules of this Act:
(a) Central Government
(b) Parliament
(c) State Legislature
(d) State Government
81. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that "While
guaranteeing the fundamental right to the freedom of religion. Explanation II
to Article 25(2)(b) made it clear that reference to Hindus shall be construed as
including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jain or Buddhist religion,
and the reference to Hindu religious institutions shall be construed
accordingly"?
(a) CWTv. R. Shridharan (1976) SCC (4) 489
(b) Shastri Yagna Purishdasji v Muldar Bhandardas Vaishya, AIR 1966 SC 119
(c) Bai Vajia v. Thakarbhai Chalbhai (1979) 3 SCC 300
(d) Beni Bai v. Raghubir Prasad (1999) 3 SCC 234
82. Which of the following property comes under coparceners or Joint Family
Property?
(a) Ancestral Property
(b) Property acquired by all or any of coparceners with the aid of Joint Family Fund
(c) Property acquired by Joint Labour of members
(d) All of the above

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83. Which Law Commission Report on the HMA and the Special Marriage Act
recommended the establishment of Family Courts?
(a) 54th Law Commission Report, 1964
(b) 59th Law Commission Report, 1974
(c) 59th Commission Report, 1956
(d) 54th Commission Report, 1974
84. "SALUS POPULI SUPREMA LEX means:
(a) The Welfare of the people is the Supreme Law
(b) Public Opinion is Supreme over law
(c) Public Opinion is Supreme over law
(d) None of the above
85. Which of the following is the first report by Law Commission of India on
"Irretrievable breakdown of marriage" as a ground divorce?
(a) 51st Report
(b) 71st Report
(c) 215th Report
(d) 217th Report
86. Who among the following is not a class-1 heir?
(a) Brother
(b) Daughter of a pre-deceased daughter
(c) Daughter of a pre-deceased son
(d) Son of pre-deceased son
87. Which of the following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act was challenged
in the case of Laxmi Amu Ramaswami Naicker?
(a) Section 10
(b) Section 11
(c) Section 12
(d) Section 13
88. Match the List I with List II with the help of codes below:
List I
(a) Sadhu Singh v. Gurdwasa Naiske, AIR 2006 SC 3282
(b) T. Shiv Kumar v. Inspector of Thimvaalur (2011) 5 СТС, 689
(c) Ramkali v. Malila Shyam Wati, AIR2000 MP 288

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(d) Vishnu Dutt Sharma v. Manju Sham. AIR 209 SC 2254

List II
(i) Custody of minor wife
(ii) Breakdown theory
(iii) Presumption Legitimacy
(iv) Widow's right to maintenance
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) ii iii iv i
(b) iv i iii ii
(c) iii ii iv i
(d) ii iv i iii
89. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that "No Court
except Supreme Court is competent to pass a decree for mutual consent divorce
if one of the consenting parties withdraws his/her consent before the decree
for mutual consent is passed to do complete justice to the parties"?
(a) Anil Kumar Jain v. Maya Jain, AIR 2010 SC 229
(b) Sureshta Devi v. Om Prakash, AIR 1991F SCW 373
(c) Surjit Kaur v. Garja Singh, AIR 1994 SC 135
(d) S. Nagalingum v. Sivagami, AIR 2001 SC 3576
90. in which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that "Living together
under one roof as husband and wife does not give the status of a husband and
wife."
(a) Kanwal Ram v. H.P. Administration. AIR 1966 SC 614
(b) Surjit Kaur v. Garja Singh. AIR 1994 SC 135
(c) Bhu Rao Shankar v. State of Maharashtra (1965) 2 SC 837
(d) None of the above
91. Assertion (A): Where any special or local law prescribes for any suit appeal
or application, period of limitation different from period prescribed by the
Schedule, the provisions of Section 3 of Limitation Act. 1963 shall apply as if
such period were the period prescribed by the schedule.
Reason (R): Where a Special Law prescribes a period of limitation for filing
appeal but there is no provision thereof under Limitation Act, 1963, the period
of limitation provided under the Special Law must be treated to be different
from that under the Limitation Act.
Codes

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(a) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (a)
(b) Both (a) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (a)
(c) (a) is true but (R) is false
(d) (a) is false but (R) is true
92. Assertion (a): Section 5 of Limitation Act 1963 empowers the Court to admit
a suit after the prescribed period if the plaintiff satisfies the Court that he had
sufficient cause for not instituting the suit.
Reason (R): Even an appeal may be admitted after the prescribed period if the
appellant shows sufficient cause for not preferring the appeal within the
prescribed period.
Codes:
(a) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (a)
(b) Both (a) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (a)
(c) (a) is true but (R) is false
(d) (a) is false but (R) is true
93. For the purpose of Limitation Act. 1963. which of the following claim(s)
shall be treated as a separate suit?
(a) Set-off
(b) Counter-claim
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
94. The period of Limitation for filing cross objection would start from the date
of appearance of the:
(a) Counsel
(b) Assistant Counsel
(c) By filing application
(d) None of these
95. Assertion (a): The Maxim "Lex non Cogit and Impossibilia", does not prevail
against express provision of Section 3 of Limitation Act.
Reason (R): Principle of equity cannot prevail against the Statutory Law.
Codes:
(a) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (a)
(b) Both (a) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (a)
(c) (a) is true but (R) is false

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(d) (a) is false but (R) is true

96. In which of the following case, the court held that "Limitation Act bars
remedy but does not destroy right"?
(a) Food Corporation of India v. Jugal Kishore Agarwal
(b) Mandas v State of M.P.
(c) N. Bala Krishnan v. M. Krishna Murthy
(d) All of the above
97. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that "Law of
Limitation may harshly affect a particular party, but it has to be applied with
all of its rigors when the statute so prescribes and the Courts have no power to
extend the period of limitation equitable ground?
(a) PK. Ramchandran v. State of Kerala
(b) Punjab National Bank v. Surrendra Prasad Sinha
(c) Bhagat Ram Gram Panchayat, Tibba Nagal
(d) Ali Mohd. v. Ramniwas
98. Provisions contained in Section 16 are not applicable to:
(a) Suits to enforce rights of pre-emption
(b) Suits for the possession of immovable property or of a hereditary office
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
99. Expiry of period of limitation:
(a) Extinguishes the debt
(b) Renders the debt unenforceable
(c) Extinguishes the debt and renders it unenforceable
(d) None of the above
100. Every suit instituted, appeal preferred and application made after the
prescribed period shall be dismissed:
(a) If limitation has been set up as a defense
(b) If limitation is pleaded" at any time
(c) Although limitation has not been set up as defense
(d) None of the above
101. Which one of the following may record confession under Section 164 of
the Code of Criminal Procedure?
(a) any Executive Magistrate

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(b) a police officer

(c) any Metropolitan Magistrate or Judicial Magistrate
(d) a registered medical practitioner
102. Which one of the following offences may be compounded by the persons
mentioned the third column of the table given under Section 320(1) of the Code
of Criminal Procedure:
(a) Adultery
(b) Bigamy
(c) House trespass
(d) Causing hurt
103. Permission to investigate into a non- congnizable offence can be granted
by a:
(a) District Magistrate
(b) Session Judge
(c) Special Magistrate
(d) Magistrate having power to try or commit the case for trial
104. Which one of the following offences is not triable summarily?
(a) Grievous Hurt under Section 325 of the L.P.C.
(b) Offences not publishable with death imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a
term exceeding two years
(c) Offences under Sections 454 and 456 of the Indian Penal Code
(d) Criminal Intimidation under Section 506 of the Indian Penal Code
105. Which one of the following Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure
prohibits again trial of a person who has been tried by a Court of competent
jurisdiction for an offence and convicted or acquitted of such offence?
(a) Section.303
(b) Section 299
(c) Section 20(1)
(d) Section 300(1)
106. If the offence is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding
one year, the period of limitation for taking cognizance shall be:
(a) six months
(b) one year
(c) two years

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(d) three years

107. Find out the correct answer:
(a) Any person convicted on a trial held by a High Court in its extraordinary
jurisdiction may appeal to the Supreme Court
(b) Any person convicted on a trial held by a Session Judge may appeal to the
Supreme Court directly
(c) Any person convicted on a trial held by an Additional Session Judge may appeal
to the Court of Session
(d) Any person convicted on a trial held by an Assistant Session Judge may appeal
to the High Court directly
108. Which one of the following courts is not empowered to transfer criminal
cases?
(a) the Supreme Court
(b) the High Court
(c) the Court of Session
(d) the Court of Special Magistrate
109. Which one of the following offences is bailable?
(a) murder under Section 302, IPC
(b) death by negligence under Section 304A.
(c) dowery death under Section 304B, IPC
(d) abetment to commit suicide under Section 306, IPC
110. Which one of the following Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure
provides the confirmation by the High Court of an order of death sentence
passed by the Court of Session prior to its execution?
(a) Section 366
(b) Section 367
(c) Section 368
(d) Section 369
111. Which one of the following terms includes 'birds in its meaning under the
Wild-life (Protection) Act, 1972?
(a) Captive animal
(b) Animal article
(c) Animal
(d) None of the above

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112. Habitat does not include under the Wild-life (Protection) Act, 1972:
(a) Land
(b) Water
(c) Vegetation.
(d) Botanical garden
113. Which one of the following Sections deals with constitution of the National
Board for Wild-life?
(a) Section 5, the Wild-life (Protection) Act
(b) Section 5A, the Wild-life (Protection) Act
(c) Section 5B, the Wild-life (Protection) Act
(d) Section 5C, the Wild-life (Protection) Act
114. Which one of the following duties is not duty of we wild-life Advisory Board
under the wild life (Protection) Act, 1972?
(a) to advice the State Government in the selection and management of areas to be
declared as protected areas.
(b) to advice the State Government in formulation of the policy of protection and
conservation of wild-life and specific plant
(c) to advice the State Government in enacting a new legislation
(d) to advice the State Government in relation to the measures to be taken for
harmonizing the needs of the tribals
115. Which one of the following Sections provides provisions relating to
hunting of wild animals to be permitted in certain cases under the Wild life
(Protection) Act?
(a) Section 9
(b) Section 11
(c) Section 17A
(d) Section 17B
116. Which one of the following is not included within the meaning of 'tree'
under the Indian Forest Act, 1927?
(a) Palms
(b) Bamboos
(c) Canes
(d) Neems

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117. 'River' does not include within its meaning under the Indian Forest Act.
1927.
(a) Ponds
(b) Stream
(c) Canal
(d) Creek
118. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Forest Act, 1927, deals
with powers of the Forest Settlement Officer?
(a) Section 7
(b) Section 8
(c) Section 9
(d) Section 10
119. Which one of the following acts is not prohibited under Section 26 of the
Indian Forest Act, 1927?
(a) sets fire to a reserved forest
(b) trespasses or pastures cattle
(c) clears or breaks up any land for cultivation
(d) the exercise of any right continued under Clause (c) of Sub-section (2) of Section
15
120. Formation of 'Village-Forest' is provided under:
(a) The Chapter II of the Indian Forest Act
(b) The Chapter III of the Indian Forest Act
(c) The Chapter IV of the Indian Forest Act
(d) The Chapter V of the Indian Forest Act
121. Who can review the application disposed of, by any Excise under Clause
of section 15, The Punjab Excise Act, 1914?
(a) Excise Commissioner
(b) Collector
(c) Excise Minister
(d) Sub-divisional Officer of the division
122. Who for a licence of empowerture of Excisable Article under Section 27 of
the Punjab Act, 1914?
(a) Collector
(b) Excise Commissioner

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(c) Financial Commissioner

(d) Excise Officer
123. Age of lessee for having grant of lease of manufacture will not below the
age of:
(a) 18 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 30 years
124. Who regulates the time, place and manner for an excise-duty' imposed as
per the direction of the State Government under the Punjab Excise Act, 1914?
(a) Collector
(b) Commissioner
(c) Financial Commissioner
(d) Chief Minister
125. According to the Clause 20 of Section 3 of the Punjab Excise Act "Tari"
means:
(a) fermented or unfermented juice drawn from 'Neem tree
(b) fermented or unfermented juice drawn from any kind of 'Palm' tree
(c) fermented or unfermented oil drawn from 'Coconut tree
(d) fermented or unfermented oil drawn from 'Olive' tree
126. Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act provides penal provisions
in case of dishonour of cheque, if it presented to the Bank within a period of
six months:
(a) from the date on which it is drawn only
(b) from the date on which payee makes demand
(c) from the date on which demand of pay accepted
(d) from the date on which it is drawn within the period of its valid if whichever is
earlier
127. Which one of the following proviso clauses of Section 138, Negotiable
Instruments Act requires notice of fifteen days in case of failure of payment of
cheque?
(a) Clause (a)
(b) Clause (b)
(c) Clause (c)
(d) Clause (d)
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128. Which one of the following Sections of the Negotiable Instrument Act
empowers to the Judicial Magistrate of the First Class or Metropolitan
Magistrate to try the offence relating to dishonour of cheque for insufficiency
etc.?
(a) Section 143(1)
(b) Section 143(2)
(c) Section 143(3)
(d) Section 143(4)
129. Written complaint should be made to the court from the date of cause of
action, within a period of:
(a) 30 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days
130. Which one of the following Sections of the Negotiable Instrument Act,
1881. deals with offence committed by a company under Section 138?
(a) Section 139
(b) Section 140
(c) Section 141
(d) Section 142
131. 'A', who is citizen of India, commits a murder in 'Uganda'. 'A' can be tried
and convicted murder in:
(a) any place in India in which he may be found
(b) Uganda only
(c) India or Uganda, as decided by 'A', to be tried
(d) any place in the world in which he is be found except India or Uganda
132. In context to the Indian Penal Code, 1860'India means:
(a) Union of States
(b) Confederation of States
(c) The territory of India excluding the State of Jammu and Kashmir
(d) 'Bharat only
133. Which one of the following statements is not document?
(a) A cheque upon a banker is a document
(b) A power-of-attomey is a document

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(c) A writing containing directions or instructions is a document

(d) A map or plan, which is intended not to be used as evidence, is a document
134. Which one of the following Sections of IPC defines 'Gaining Wrongfully and
Lossing Wrongfully'?
(a) Section 22
(b) Section 23
(c) Section 24
(d) Section 25
135. A principle relating to joint liability That also serve who only stand and
wait', was laid down in-case of:
(a) Mahbood Shah v. Emperor
(b) Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor
(c) Manindra Chandra Ghosh v. K.E.
(d) Nanak Chand v. State of Punjab
136. Execution of death sentence by public hanging is barbaric and violative of
Article 21 of the Constitution of India, even if any Jail Manual provides for the
same." It has been held by the Supreme Court in case of:
(a) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
(b) TV Vatheeswaran v State of Tamil Nadu
(c) Attorney General of India v. Lachma Devi
(d) Rameswar and another v. State of U.P
137. 'A' and ‘Z’ agree to fence with each other for amusement and to suffer any
harm which in the course of such fencing, may be caused without foul play. 'A'
while playing fairly, hurts 'Z'. ‘A’ commits:
(a) no offence
(b) an offence of hurt
(c) an attempt to commit murder
(d) an act of negligence
138. The right of private defence of the body does not extend to causing death,
if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right be of any of the following
description:
(a) an assault with the intention of committing rape
(b) an assault with the intention of gratifying unnatural lust
(c) an assault with the intention of kidnapping or abduction
(d) an assault with the intention of causing hurt
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139. 'A' Incites a dog to spring upon Z, without Z's consent with intention to
muse injury, fear or annoyance to Z. A has committed:
(a) an offence of assault
(b) criminal intimidation
(c) use of criminal force
(d) no offence
140. 'A' for the purpose of inducing 'B' to desist from prosecuting a civil suit.
threatens to burn B's house, 'A' is guilty of:
(a) threat to mischief
(b) attempt to extortion
(c) criminal intimidation
(d) no offence
141. An imputation in the form of alternative or expressed ironically, may:
(a) amount to defamation
(b) not amount to defamation
(c) amount to outrage the modesty if intended to woman
(d) neither defamation nor outrage the modesty
142. Whenever force or violence is used by an unlawful assembly or by member
of such assembly is guilty of:
(a) affray
(b) rioting
(c) unlawful assembly only
(d) no offence
143. 'Z' threats 'A' to kill under the influence of madness. 'A' has:
(a) the same right of private defence which he would have if 'Z' were sane
(b) no right of private defence against Z because 'Z' was under the influence of
madness
(c) no right of private defence because 'A' has time to have recourse to the protection
of the public authority
(d) no right of private defence because an act of insane is not an offence
144. A shakes his fist at 'Z', intending or knowing it to be likely that he may
thereby cause 'Z' to believe that 'A' is about to strike 'Z'. 'A' has committed:
(a) use of criminal force
(b) no offence

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(c) an assault
(d) an attempt to cause hurt
145. 'A' places men with firearms at the outlets of a building and tells 'Z' that
they will fire at 'Z', if 'Z' attempts to leave the building. 'A' has committed:
(a) wrongful restrain
(b) use of criminal force
(c) wrongful confinement
(d) no offence
146. Which one the following statement is not correct?
(a) Bailable offence means an offence which is shown as bailable in the first schedule
of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
(b) Bailable offence means an offence which is made bailable by any other law for the
time being in force
(c) Non-bailable offence means any other offence which is not bailable
(d) Police may not arrest without warrant to an accused of bailable offence in all the
situations
147. Find out the correct statement:
(a) Investigation is conducted by a Magistrate only
(b) Investigation is conducted by the Court of Law only
(c) Investigation is conducted either by Court or by a Magistrate or both
(d) Investigation is conducted by a police officer or by any person (other than
Magistrate) who is authorised by Magistrate in this behalf
148. Complaint' means:
(a) any allegation made orally or in writing to a police officer
(b) any allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate to take action against
known or unknown person who has committed an offence
(c) Police Report
(d) Charge
149. Which one of the following sentences may be passed by the Court of a
Chief Judicial Magistrate?
(a) a sentence of death or of imprisonment for life
(b) a sentence of imprisonment for life or of imprisomnent for a term exceeding ten
years
(c) any sentence authorised by law except a sentence of death or of imprisonment for
life or of imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years

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(d) a sentence of imprisonment for a term exceeding ten years only

150. Which one of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure
provides that the person of a female shall be examined only by or under the
supervision of a female registered medical practitioner?
(a) Section 53(2)
(b) Section55(2)
(c) Section 60(2)
(d) Section 54

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