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Class 9 Social Studies Sample Paper Set 2

The Class 9 Social Studies Sample Paper Set 2 is designed to help students effectively prepare for their exams by covering all key areas of the curriculum, including History, Geography, Civics, and Economics. These sample papers provide a variety of questions based on the latest CBSE exam pattern, including multiple-choice questions, short and long-answer questions, and map-based exercises.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
697 views

Class 9 Social Studies Sample Paper Set 2

The Class 9 Social Studies Sample Paper Set 2 is designed to help students effectively prepare for their exams by covering all key areas of the curriculum, including History, Geography, Civics, and Economics. These sample papers provide a variety of questions based on the latest CBSE exam pattern, including multiple-choice questions, short and long-answer questions, and map-based exercises.

Uploaded by

Artham Resources
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Group by Clicking the Link Below
Series ARSP/02 Set ~ 2
Roll No. Q.P Code 15/2/2
Candidates must write the Q.P Code
on the title page of the answer-book.

 Please check that this question paper contains 07 printed pages.


 Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written
on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
 Please check that this question paper
ontains
c 37 qustions.
 Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book
before attempting it.
 15 Minute times has been allotted to read this question paper. The question
paper will be distributed at 10:15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m to 10.30 a.m, the students
will read the question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer –
book during this period.

Social Science

Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80


General Instructions:

1. Question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All

questions are compulsory.

2. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

3. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each

question should not exceed 40 words.

4. Section C contains Q.25 to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each

question should not exceed 60 words.


5. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question

should not exceed 120 words.

6. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each.

7. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b

from Geography (3 marks).


8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions.

Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.

9. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

10. Note: CBQ stands for “Competency Based Question”. 50% weightage allocated for competency-based questions.

Section A
1. Choose the right term: A formal document containing an order of the court to the government issued only by [1]
High Court or the Supreme Court.

a) Claim b) Covenant

c) Summon d) Writ
2. What is the situation called when there is a surplus of manpower in certain categories and shortage of manpower [1]
in other categories.

a) Non market activity b) Paradoxical manpower situation

c) Market activity d) Seasonal unemployment


3. Read the given table that shows some important features of PDS in India. Read the data and select the [1]
appropriate option from the following.

Name of Scheme Year of Coverage target Latest Volume Issue Price


introduction group (Rs per kg.)

Wheat (W):
PDS Up to 1992 Universal - 2.34
Rice (R): 2.89

Wheat: 2.80
RPDS 1992 Backward blocks 20 kg of foodgrains
Rice: 3.77

BPL
W: 4.15, R:
Poor and non-poor
5.65
TDPS 1997 BPL 35 kg of foodgrains
APL
APL
W: 6.10, R:
8.30

Wheat: 2.00
National Food Security Act 5 kg per person per Rice: 3.00
2013 Priority households
(NFSA) month Coarse grains:
1.00

[Source: Economic Survey]


Which of the following scheme aims to provide food and nutritional security life at affordable prices and helps
people to live a life with dignity?

a) RPDS b) NFSA

c) PDS d) TDPS
4. Which of the following is true with reference to the appointment of the judges of the Supreme Court ? [1]
A. The judges are appointed by the President.
B. The judges are appointed on the advice of the Prime Minister and in consultation with the Chief Justice of the
Supreme Court.

a) Both A and B are true b) Both A and B are false

c) A is false but B is true d) A is true but B is false


5. Which of the following was not a part of Hitler’s policies to exclude Jews? [1]

a) Annihilation b) Exclusion

c) Ghettoisation d) Assimilation
6. What are the features of democracy? [1]

a) All of these b) One person, one vote, one value

c) Free and fair electoral competition d) Major decisions by elected leaders


7. Assertion (A): The subsistence crisis occurred frequently during the Old Regime. [1]
Reason (R): In Old Regime, the monarch did not have the power to impose taxes.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.


8. Tejpal Singh works as a peasant in the village. His income from agricultural production is very less. The money [1]
is not enough to sustain his family of six-that includes his wife and four children. His wife- Savita is
unemployed and wishes to work for earning extra income. Recently, a new scheme has been launched in the
village. Under the scheme, one-third of the proposed jobs have been reserved for women. This scheme helped
Savita to get the job in the village. Name the scheme which helped Savita to get a job.

a) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural b) Antyodaya Anna Yozana


Employment Guarantee Act.

c) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yozana d) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana


9. Impeachment refers to: [1]
A. A process to legislate on the matters in the state list during an emergency.
B. A process to conduct smooth and fair elections in a country.
C. A process in which a bill becomes a law.
D. A process in which the charges are levelled against the President.

a) Only B b) Only C

c) Only A d) Only D
10. On the given map of France, A is marked as one of the port cities from where the merchants of France sailed to [1]
buy slaves from African countries. Identify it from the following options.

a) Nantes b) Brest

c) Marseille d) Bordeaux
11. Which of the following is true with reference to voter and the candidate ? [1]
A. Anyone who can be a voter can also become a candidate.
B. Anyone who can be a voter but has attained the age fo 25 years can become a candidate.

a) A is false but B is true b) Both A and B are false

c) Both A and B are true d) A is true but B is false


12. ________ is/are the real source of power in a democratic country. [1]

a) The judiciary b) People

c) The parliament d) Aristocrats


13. Arrange the following in correct sequence with respect to the period in which the event occurred: [1]
i. Japan bombs Pearl Harbour
ii. Troops of USSR liberate Auschwitz
iii. Mass murder of Jews Begins
iv. Germany surrenders to the Allies

a) iii, ii, iv, i b) i, iv, iii, ii

c) iv, ii, i, iii d) iii, i, ii, iv


14. In 1774, Louis XVI of the Bourbon family of kings ascended the throne of France. He was 20 years old and [1]
married to the Austrian princess. Upon his accession, the new king found an empty treasury. Long years of war
had drained the financial resources of France. Added to this was the cost of maintaining an extravagant court at
the immense palace of Versailles. Whom did Louis XVI get married to?

a) Queen Elizabeth b) Marie Antoinette

c) Marie Elizabeth d) Olympe de Gouges


15. Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen ? [1]

a) Freedom to oppose certain laws of the b) Freedom to start a movement to change the
Constitution government.

c) Freedom to participate in armed revolution. d) Freedom to criticize the government


16. On the political map of India, A is considered as the Standard Meridian of India which passes through Uttar [1]
Pradesh. Identify its longitudinal value from the following options.

a) 68°7'E b) 97°25'E

c) 82°30'E d) 37°6'E
17. The most fertile and densely populated delta: [1]

a) Indus delta b) Cooum delta

c) Ganga-Brahmaputra delta d) Krishna delta


18. Who was the writer of the books The Communist Manifesto and Das Capital? [1]

a) Rasputin b) Karl Marx


c) Julius Martov d) Vladimir Lenin
19. Which of the following is not the aim of India’s National policy relating to health? [1]

a) Special focus on the privileged segment of b) Special focus on the underprivileged


the population segment of the population

c) Improving the accessibility of nutritional d) Improving the accessibility of healthcare


service and family welfare
20. Suez canal was open in [1]

a) 1969 b) 1849

c) 1850 d) 1869
Section B
21. Write about Ganga plains. [2]
22. What is the strategy of tenth plan for education and literacy? [2]
OR
Mention any five characteristics of women workforce of India.
23. How is the dignity of citizens enhanced in democracy? [2]
24. What is Subsidy? [2]
Section C
25. What was the declaration of World Food Summit of 1995? [3]
26. What was the impact of World War I on Germany's politics and society? [3]
OR
List two differences between the capitalist and socialist ideas of private property.
27. Why the Northern Indian Plain is thickly populated? Mention the two states of Northern Plains with high [3]
population density.
28. Can you illustrate the conditions of the democratic elections? Explain in Detail. [3]
29. Suppose you are MLA of your area. What values would you follow to become popular in your area? [3]
Section D
30. What was Directory? Why was it removed from France? [5]
OR
Which incident had led to the outbreak of the revolution in France?
31. Describe the regional variations in the climatic conditions of India with the help of suitable examples. [5]
OR
Differentiate between South West (S.W.) monsoons and North East (N.E.) monsoons.
32. What are the major factors for unemployment in India? [5]
OR
Explain the term unemployment.Which type of unemployment is more prevalent in rural and urban areas? How can
unemployment in a rural area be minimised?
33. "India emerged as an independent country amidst heavy turmoil." Justify the statement. [5]
OR
Why is the Preamble very important?
Section E
34. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
The First World War left a deep imprint on European society and polity. Soldiers came to be placed above
civilians. Politicians and publicists laid great stress on the need for men to be aggressive, strong and masculine.
The media glorified trench life. The truth, however, was different. Aggressive war propaganda and national
honour occupied centre stage in the public sphere, while popular support grew for conservative dictatorships that
had recently come into being. Democracy was indeed a young and fragile idea, which could not survive the
instabilities of interwar Europe.
i. How did the First World War impact the political system of Germany? (1)
ii. What does the given passage highlight? (1)
iii. The media glorified trench life. What was the actual truth about trench life? (2)
35. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
India is one of the most ancient civilizations in the world. It has achieved multi-faceted socio-economic progress
during the last five decades. It has moved forward displaying remarkable progress in the field of agriculture,
industry, technology, and overall economic development. India has also contributed significantly to the making
of world history. India is a vast country. Lying entirely in the Northern hemisphere the mainland extends
between latitudes 8°4'N and 37°6'N and longitudes 68°7'E and 97°25'E. The Tropic of Cancer divides the
country into almost two equal parts. To the southeast and southwest of the mainland, lie the Andaman and
Nicobar islands and the Lakshadweep islands in the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea respectively.
i. What is the latitudinal position of India?
ii. What is the longitude-wise location of India?
iii. Which latitudinal line divides India into approximately two equal parts? What is the latitudinal value of this
line?
36. Read the following text carefully and answer the questions that follow: [4]
At the centre of the discussion on poverty is usually the concept of the poverty line. A common method used to
measure poverty is based on income or consumption levels. A person is considered poor if his or her income or
consumption level falls below a given “minimum level” necessary to fulfill the basic needs. What is necessary to
satisfy the basic needs is different at different times and in different countries. Therefore, the poverty line may
vary with time and place. Each country uses an imaginary line that is considered appropriate for its existing level
of development and its accepted minimum social norms. For example, a person not having a car in the United
States may be considered poor. In India, owning a car is still considered a luxury. While determining the poverty
line in India, a minimum level of food requirement, clothing, footwear, fuel and light, educational and medical
requirement, etc., are determined for subsistence. These physical quantities are multiplied by their prices in
rupees. The present formula for food requirement while estimating the poverty line is based on the desired
calorie requirement. Food items, such as cereals, pulses, vegetables, milk, oil, sugar, etc., together provide these
needed calories. The accepted average calorie requirement in India is 2400 calories per person per day in rural
areas and 2100 calories per person per day in urban areas. For the year 2011-12, the poverty line for a person
was fixed at ₹ 816 per month for rural areas and ₹ 1000 for urban areas. In the year 2011-12, a family of five
members living in rural areas and earning less than about ₹ 4,080 per month will be below the poverty line. A
similar family in the urban areas would need a minimum of ₹ 5,000 per month to meet their basic requirements.
The poverty line is estimated periodically by conducting sample surveys. These surveys are carried out by the
National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO).
i. How is the poverty line calculated or estimated periodically? (1)
ii. Which factors are used to measure the poverty line? (1)
iii. What is the accepted average calorie requirement in rural areas? Why do rural areas have a higher calorie
requirement than urban areas? (2)
Section F
37. i. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of the world. Identify then and write their [5]
correct names on the lines drawn near them
A. Name a country which faced the Nuclear bomb.
B. The national anthem of France got its name from the name of this place.
ii. On the outline map of India locate and label ANY THREE of the following with suitable Symbols.
a. Dachigam - Wild Life Sanctuaries
b. The Satluj - The Himalayan River Systems
c. Malwa Plateau - Plateau
d. Wular - Lakes

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