Safety Test8
Safety Test8
You do not need a Scantron for the Practice Safety test . You can take a a piece of paper and
number from one to 88, take the test, fill in the answers, and then go to the answer page and
check your results. When you feel that you are ready you can take the actual safety test,
remember you may only miss 6 questions to pass the test.
The practice safety test questions are not in the same order as the actual Safety Test.
Make sure that if you erase an answer that you erase it completely, if not it
may be marked wrong
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If you follow the instructions above you should not have any problems with the
scantron format. I will not give credit to anyone who does not follow these
instructions. Please read the SCANTRON answer form for any additional
instructions.If you have any questions raise your hand to get the Instructors
attention, Do Not Talk to anyone but the Instructor or their Assistant.
t their attention. Anyone who the Instructor sees looking at someone else's paper, or who talks during
By signing the Test Scantron form and starting the test the student is stating that
they both understand the instructions and agree to the conditions written for
above for this and all tests.
Before going any further make sure that you understan
SAFETY TEST
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The items in this test are multiple choice. Select the correct answer for each
statement. Mark the correct answer in the correct blank of the item on the answer
sheet.
Please take your time you may only have seven incorrect answers. If you miss more
then this you will have to take the test over. This test grade will be used in the
calculation of your final class score.
FIRE SAFETY
1. Oil and grease fires, which are Class B fires, can be extinguished with a _____
extinguisher.
A. Soda acid
B. Dry chemical
C. Water
2. Electrical fires, which are Class C fires, can be extinguished with a ________
extinguisher.
A. Soda acid
B. Water
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C. Both A and B
A. Hair net
B. Hat
5. New or unfamiliar machines and tools should not be turned on or operated until:
6. Which of the following should not be worn when operating machine shop machinery.
A. Shop apron
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A. Shop apron
B. Gloves
C. Safety shoes
D. Long pants
7. Which of the following is safe to wear when operating machines in the shop:
A. Sandals
C. Tank tops
E. Neckties
A. A fellow student
C. The instructor
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C. At all times
B. In classroom
C. On breaks
11. When two students are working at a machine, one student is responsible for:
C. Machine clean-up
C. Instructor is present
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14. When a machine is being cleaned, oiled, or minor adjustments are being made:
15. If you leave the machine or stop using it, you should first:
16. It is dangerous for others to divert the machine operator's attention by:
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D. It is dangerous for others to divert the machine operator's attention in any way.
18. To prevent possible serious cuts, complete which of the following, before and after
machining a work piece:
A. Sharpened to a point
B. Annealed
C. Hardened
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21. Machined chips and other sharp scrap material are not to be removed from machines or
workpieces with:
B. Pliers
C. A brush
D. A shop towel
22. To stop a rotating spindle on a machine set the switch to "OFF" and then:
23. When an unsafe condition is found or a person is not acting in a safe manner, you must:
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25. When changing, or adjusting tools, and removing workpieces from machines, you should:
D. Both B and C
C. Never
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A. Go on to another project
A. Measure workpiece
B. Wrap in rag
C. Ring test
30. Compressed air is often used incorrectly, it can safely be used to:
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A. Loose clothing
B. Your hands
C. Rags
A. Soft hammer
B. Bending bar
C. Hand
A. Vertical position
B. Horizontal position
D. Both A and B
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35. Hacksaw blades may break and cause injury if they are:
A. Twisted in operation
C. Cranking action
D. Both A and B
A. Extend handle
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C. Both A and B
A. Required
B. Not required
A. Anytime
C. Never
D. Both A and B
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41. The workpiece must be secured tightly while cutting with a hand hacksaw because:
A. To remove mushrooming
C. Never
A. Vise
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A. Vise
B. Push-stick
C. Hand
45. The safest way to apply pressure to a part when sawing with a band saw is to use:
B. A wood push-stick
D. Your fingers
46. The top guide on a band saw is set above the thickest part of the work piece.
A. ¼- inch
B. ½-inch
C. 1-inch
D. 2-inches
47. A ______is used to hold round rods or bars when sawing them with a band saw.
A. Screwdriver
B. Pair of gloves
C. "C" clamp
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D. Both A and C
GRINDER SAFETY
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52. A gap between the pedestal grinding wheel and the tool rest must be no more than:
A. 1-inch
B. 1/8-inch
C. 2-inches
D. 1/32-inch
53. Spark guards are set ______ from the pedestal grinder wheel to protect the operator if
the wheel shatters:
A. 1-inch
B. 1/32-inch
C. 1/16-inch
D. 2-inches
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C. Grinding as required
D. Grinding chisels
A. Rotated
B. Cooled
D. Measured
56. Before mounting a grinding wheel, ______ test the wheel to determine if any cracks are
present.
A. Ping
B. Surface
C. Ring
D. Shatter
57. Running grinding wheels at RPMs higher than their rating is alright when:
C. Never
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58. Tightening the mounting nut on the grinding wheel too tight can cause the wheel to:
A. Run untrue
B. Break
D. Grind uneven
A. 5 minutes
B. 3 minutes
C. 2 minutes
D. 1 minute
C. Only by itself
62. To prevent serious cuts, complete which of the following after drilling:
63. The safest way to drill holes in thin sheet metal is to:
D. Set the part on a piece of wood and clamp both pieces to the table.
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65. After mounting a cutting tool in the chuck, you must immediately:
D. Both A and B
66. When a drill starts to break through the bottom of a drilled hole:
A. Hand
B. Compressed air
C. Brush
D. Screwdriver
68. To prevent a drill from grabbing when breaking through a drilled hole in brass, bronzes or
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copper:
LATHE SAFETY
D. Feed is reduced
70. The lathe spindle should be given one turn by hand before turning on the motor to
ensure:
71. Small diameter work pieces that extend a foot or more past the headstock spindle without
being supported can:
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D. Bend outward
72. Chucks are not to be mounted to a threaded nose spindle of lathes when:
C. Spindle is running
73. When mounting to a lathe spindle nose, a heavy chuck should be supported by:
A. A tool board
B. Your hands
C. A tool-holder
D. A chuck cradle
74. Parting stock in the lathe is never done when the work piece is mounted:
A. In a collet chuck
B. Between centers
C. In a 4-jaw chuck
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D. Both A and B
75. Large heavy work pieces should not be machined on a face plate or in a chuck when:
C. Lathe is new
76. Painful hand and arm cuts can be prevented when making work piece adjustments on lathe
by:
B. Removing toolbit
C. Turning-off Lathe
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A. NEVER
B. NEVER
C. NEVER
79. When a milling machine cutter is rotating under power, which is an unsafe practice:
80. When changing between the High and Low RPM gear ratio it is important to:
A. Turn off the spindle and wait for it to come to a complete stop
B. After the gear ratio is changed, and while the motor is OFF, turn the spindle by hand to
make sure the gears are ingaged
properly
C. Remember that the motor direction will now be reversed when you turn the spindle on
81. When changing the RPMs using the rotary dial handle, it is important to:
C. Stop turning the rotary dial handle occasionally to allow the motor to catch up with the
changes you have made
D. Both B and C
83. Before starting a cut on a milling machine, the operator should secure:
B. Work piece
C. Cutter
84. Tool-head nuts are tightened before operating the milling machine to prevent:
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86. Set-ups on horizontal milling machines are to be checked before starting to mill to
ensure:
87. Rapid traverse is only used when the cutter is more than ______ from the work piece.
A. 1/4-inch
B. 1/2-inch
C. 2 inches
D. 4 inches
88. When feeling excess vibration in a machine operation, stop the machine and:
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B. Check set-up
C. Change cutter
D. Lubricate machine
When you are finished with the test check your answers and then give it to the
instructor. Make sure you have answered all questions with the best possible
answer. If you have any pencil marks on the answer form beside the answer itself it
will likely cause the answer to be marked wrong.
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